Section 1

Listening Comprehension

DIRECTION : In Part A you will hear short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each
conversations, a third voice will ask a question about what was said. The question will be spoken just one
time. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answer and decide
which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the problem and mark your answer.

Part A

DIRECTION : In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not
be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.

On your recording, you hear: Sample Answer

B C D

In your test book, you read:

(A) He does not like the painting either.
(B) He does not know how to paint.
(C) He does not have any paintings.
(D) He does not know what to do.

You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting. The best answer
to the question "What does the man mean?" is (A),
1. (A) Go to the movies with the man
(B) Take her brother to the movies
(C) Eat at her brother's home
(D) Cook dinner with Lois

2. (A) The man should have offered his assistance earlier.

(B) She does not need the man's help.
(C) She did not realize the boxes were empty.
(D) She wants the man to move the boxes.

3. (A) He would like to have the windows open.

(B) He rarely leaves the windows open.
(C) He thinks the air is polluted.
(D) He will help her close the windows.

4. (A) The results might be ready tomorrow.

(B) The man needs another test tomorrow.
(C) The results were called in last night.
(D) The doctor called the lab again.

5. (A) She does not remember much about Portland.

(B) She has never been to Portland.
(C) She knows someone else who could help him.
(D) She would be happy to talk to the man later.

6. (A) Tum down the volume

(B) Help the man study for a test
(C) Play a different kind of music
(D) Speak louder

7. (A) She forgot when the report was due.

(B) She would like the man to help her with the report.
(C) She needs more time to finish the report.
(D) She has not included any data in her report.

8. (A) The cat is causing him problems.

(B) The cat is quite friendly.
(C) He does not get along with Debbie.
(D) He is glad Debbie gave him the cat.

9. (A) Try to get a seat next to the window

(B) Find another passenger going to Cleveland
(C) Ask for information about the departure time
(D) Find out if there are any seats left on the bus

10. (A) She forgot to stop at the store.

(B) The man should not eat the fish.
(C) The fish is safe to eat.
(D) The food should not be reheated
11. (A) She will not be able to go with the man.
(B) She does not think Frank is arriving until tomorrow morning.
(C) She has to pick up Frank at 2:00.
(D) She does not know when her class will end.

12. (A) He watched the television program with his mother_

(B) His mother reminded him that his professor was on television.
(C) Answering the phone caused him to miss the television program.
(D) His mother missed the television program.

13. (A) The pool will be open all week.

(B) The weather will cool down soon.
(C) The woman should go swimming.
(D) He prefers to stay inside in hot weather.

14. (A) He may not have enough time to cook.

(B) He may spend more money on food next semester.
(C) He may gain weight if he does his own cooking.
(D) He may not enjoy cooking.

15. (A) He is tired.

(B) He lost the race.
(C) He has already been to the top of the hill.
(D) He prefers doing exercise indoors.

16. (A) The doctor only has time on Tuesdays.

(B) The doctor is busy on Tuesday morning.
(C) The man must come more than one time.
(D) The man must arrive on time.

17. (A) Eat at the cafeteria more often

(B) Find out when the cafeteria opens
(C) Meet her in the cafeteria this evening
(D) Try to get a job at the cafeteria

18. (A) Cancel their trip

(B) Make a quick stop for a meal
(C) Arrive at their destination early
(D) Have a longer lunch than originally planned

19. (A) She does not want to take the course this semester.
(B) She thought the class would be easy.
(C) She is surprised that all the sections are filled.
(D) There are only thirteen students in the psychology class.

20. (A) He does not like to drink coffee.

(B) He is not upset by the accident.
(C) The woman should apologize.
(D) The woman has spilled coffee on him before.

21. (A) The woman will have to buy a new sweater.

(B) The sweater looks just like the woman's new one.
(C) The sweater can be repaired easily.
(D) The woman should not put sharp objects in her sweater pocket.

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22. (A) The jackets sold out quickly.
(B) The sale ended yesterday.
(C) He will check with the sales clerk.
(D) The woman might find a jacket on sale.

23. (A) She likes to drive when she travels.

(B) She does not want to go to Chicago.
(C) She does not know how much the train trip will cost.
(D) It is cheaper to go to Chicago by car.

24. (A) The man paid a lot to join the gym.

(B) The man has been working too hard.
(C) The man has improved his physical appearance.
(D) The man should find a better job.

25. (A) She prefers hot weather.

(B) The man should visit Washington when it is cooler.
(C) She agrees that going to the beach would have been better.
(D) Visiting Washington is enjoyable despite the heat.

26. (A) She will help the man clean up the lounge.
(B) The mother should be more considerate.
(C) The man should be more understanding.
(D) The child is not well behaved for his age.

27. (A) He can meet the woman on Wednesday.

(B) He will not be ready until next week.
(C) He is available any day except Wednesday.
(D) He needs to do the history project before Wednesday.

28. (A) Prepare for an important game

(B) Try out for the field hockey team
(C) Get tickets to see the championship game
(D) Receive an award for winning a championship

29. (A) She wants to check the weather before deciding.

(B) She has a problem with her hearing.
(C) She would enjoy having dinner another time.
(D) She wants the man to help her with some work.

30. (A) The back of the drawer has fallen off.

(B) The man does not have any soap.
(C) The cabinet is too heavy to move.
(D) Something is blocking the back of the drawer.

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Part B

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will
hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

31. (A) They lived in caves.

(B) They traveled in groups.
(C) They had an advanced language.
(D) They ate mostly fruit.

32. (A) It was unavailable because dry weather had killed the trees.
(B) It was used to build shelters in some regions.
(C) It was used mainly for heating and cooking.
(D) Ice Age people did not have the tools to work with wood.

33. (A) They wore clothing made of animal skins.

(B) They used sand as insulation.
(C) They kept fires burning constantly.
(D) They faced their homes toward the south.

34. (A) Meet his anthropology teacher

(B) Lend him her magazine when she is done with it
(C) Help him with an assignment about the Ice Age
(D) Help him study for an anthropology test

35. (A) Mating habits of squid and octopus

(B) The evolution of certain forms of sea life
(C) The study of marine shells
(D) Survival skills of sea creatures

36. (A) He did not understand the lecture.

(B) He wants to borrow her notes next week.
(C) He needs help preparing for an exam.
(D) He was sick and unable to attend the lecture.

37. (A) Some sea creatures developed vertebrae.

(B) The first giant squid was captured.
(C) Some sea creatures shed their shells.
(D) Sea life became more intelligent.

38. (A) She has always believed they exist.

(B) She heard about them in New Zealand.
(C) Stories about them may be based on giant squid.
(D) The instructor mentioned them in the lecture.

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Part C

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear some
questions. The talks and the questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.

On the recording, you hear:

Now listen to a sample question.

In your test book, you read:

(A) To demonstrate the latest use of computer graphics
(B) To discuss the possibility of an economic depression
(C) To explain the workings of the brain
(D) To dramatize a famous mystery story

The best answer to the question "What is the main purpose of the program?" is (C), "To explain the
workings of the brain." Therefore, the correct choice is (C).

Now listen to another sample question.

In your test book, you read:

(A) It is required of all science majors.
(B) It will never be shown again.
(C) It can help viewers improve their memory skills.
(D) It will help with course work.

The best answer to the question "Why does the speaker recommend watching the program?" is (D), "It
will help with course work." Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

39. (A) That babies understand language before they can speak
(B) That babies have simple mathematical skills
(C) That babies prefer different kinds of toys
(D) That television has a strong influence on babies

40. (A) Staring at the dolls longer

(B) Crying loudly
(C) Blinking their eyes rapidly
(D) Reaching for the dolls

41. (A) They are born with the ability to count.

(B) They are exceptionally intelligent.
(C) They learned to count from playing with dolls.
(D)They have learned to count from their parents.

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42. (A) Language ability might be negatively affected.
(B) Babies who learn quickly might develop learning problems later.
(C) Parents might try to teach their children certain skills at too early an age.
(D) Learning math early might interfere with creativity.

43. (A) To review what students know about volcanic activity

(B) To demonstrate the use of a new measurement device
(C) To explain the answer to an examination question
(D) To provide background for the next reading assignment

44. (A) They occur at regular intervals.

(B) They can withstand great heat.
(C) They travel through Earth's interior.
(D) They can record Earth's internal temperature.

45. (A) When Earth was formed

(B) The composition of the Earth's interior
(C) Why lava is hot
(D) How often a volcano is likely to erupt

46. (A) How deep they are

(B) Where earthquakes form
(C) How hot they are
(D) What purpose they serve

47. (A) Photographic techniques common in the early 1900s

(B) The early life of Alfred Stieglitz
(C) The influence of weather on Alfred Stieglitz' photography
(D) Alfred Stieglitz' approach to photography

48. (A) How to analyze photographic techniques

(B) How to classify photography
(C) How Alfred Stieglitz contributed to the history of photography
(D) Whether photography is superior to other art fowls

49. (A) They were influenced by his background in engineering.

(B) They were very expensive to take.
(C) They were among the first taken under such conditions.
(D) Most of them were of poor quality.

50. (A) He thought that the copying process took too long.
(B) He considered each photograph to be an individual work of art.
(C) He did not have the necessary equipment for reproduction.
(D) He did not want them to be displayed outside of his home.

STOP

This is the end of Section 1

Read the directions for Section 2.
Do not read or work on any other Section of the test.
Look at the time no before you begin work on Section 2.
Use exactly 25 minutes to work on Section 2.

ACADEMIC ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST – THE LANGUAGE CENTRE OF UTS Page 5 of 22

Section 2

Structure and Written Expression

Time: 25 minutes

This section is designed to test your ability to recognize language structures that are appropriate in
standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, each has special directions.

Directions: Questions 1-15 are partial sentences. Below each sentence you will see four words or phrases,
marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Select the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question you have selected. Blacken the space so that the letter
inside the circle does not show.

Sample Answer

B C D
Example 1
Pepsin ……. an enzyme used in digestion.
(A) is
(B) that
(C) of
(D) being

This sentence should properly read “Pepsin is an enzyme used in digestion.” Therefore, the correct answer
is (A).
After you read the directions, begin work on the questions.
1. Indian summer is a period of mild weather ……. during the autumn.
(A) occurs
(B) occurring
(C) it occurs
(D) is occurring

2. Bacteria may be round, …….., or spiral.

(A) rod shapes
(B) in the shape of rods
(C) like a rod’s shape
(D) rod-shaped

3. ………. of his childhood home in Hannibal, Missouri, provided Mark Twain with the inspiration for
two of his most popular novels.
(A) remembering
(B) memories
(C) It was the memories
(D) He remembered

4. Most of spices and many of the herbs ……. today originate from plants native to tropical regions .
(A) using
(B) use of

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 (C) in use
(D) are used
5. ……….. many improvements made to highways during the nineteenth century, but Americans
continued to depend on water routes for transportation.
(A) Despite the
(B) There were
(C) However
(D) Though there were

6. There are believed …….. over 300 species of trees in El Yunque rain forest in Puerto Rico.
(A) to be
(B) being
(C) they are
(D) there are

7. First performed in 1976, ………

(A) William Lane wrote the one-character play The Belle of Amherst about the life of Emily
Dickinson.
(B) the life of Emily Dickinson was the subject of the one-character play The Belle of Amherst by
William Lane.
(C) William Lane’s one-character play The Belle of Amherst was about the life of Emily Dickinson
(D) there was only one character in William Lane’s play The Belle of Amherst about the life of Emily
Dickinson

8. Minnesota’s thousands of lakes ………

(A) that cover
(B) covering
(C) are covered
(D) cover

9. Mushrooms have no vascular tissue, they reproduce by means of spores, and they ……. Chlorophyll.
(A) lack
(B) no
(C) without
(D) not have

10.…… get older, the games they play become increasingly complex.
(A) Children
(B) Children, when they
(C) As children
(D) For children to

11. ……. is the ancestor of most types of domestic ducks is well documented.
(A) That the mallard
(B) The mallard
(C) Because the mallard
(D) The mallard which

12.Rarely ……. last longer than an hour.

(A) do tornados
(B) Tornados
(C) tornados that
(D) tornados do

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13.Adobe bricks tend to crumble if .......... to excessive moisture or cold.
(A) they expose
(B) exposed
(C) are exposed
(D) to be exposed

14.…… play Alison’s House, the author Susan Glaspell won a Pulitzer Prize in 1931.
(A) Her
(B) By her
(C) It was her
(D) For her

15. ……. type of insects that pollinate plants.

(A) Not only are the bees
(B) Bees are not the only
(C) Not, the only bees are
(D) Bees are not only the

Part B

Directions: In questions 16-40 every sentence has four words or phrases that are underlined. The four
underlined portions of each sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the word or phrase that
should be changed in order to be correct. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
blacken the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have selected.

Example I Sample Answer

B C D

16. Machines used to harvest tree crops, such as cherries and almonds, can be classified both as
A B C
shakers or as pickup machines.
D

17. An extended family consists not only of parents and children but also of others relatives, such as
A B C
grandparents and unmarried aunts and uncles.
D

18. Draft horses are the tallest , most powerful , and heavy group of horses.
A B C D

19. The sculptor John Rogers produced many replica of his bronze statues.
A B C D

20. Archeological sites are sometimes revealed when the construction of roads and buildings.
A B C D

21. Acting teacher Stella Adler played a pivotal role in the develop of the Method School of acting.
A B C D

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22. Medical students must learning both the theory and the practice of medicine.
A B C D

23. The recorded use of natural gas to light street lamps it was in the town of Frederick, New York in
A B C D
1825.

24. Quinine, cinnamon, and other useful substances are all derived of the bark of trees.
A B C D

25. Although the social sciences different a great deal from one another, they share a common interest
A B C
in human relationships.
D

26. Admiral Grace Hopper created the computer language COBOL, which is used for primary for
A B C
scientific purposes.
D

27. Unlike competitive running, race walkers must always keep some portion of their feet
A B C
in contact with the ground.
D

28. Henry David Thoreau's book Walden: A Life in the Woods is a record of his simply existence
A B C
in a cabin on Walden Pond.
D
29. A promissory note is a written agreement to pay a certain sum of money at some time future.
A B C D

30. Mario Pei helped provide the world with a popular understand of linguistics.
A B C D

31. Even though they are among the smallest carnivores, weasels will attack animals that are double
A B C D
their size.

32. Wilson Alwyn Bentley was a Vermont farmer who took over 6,000 closed-up photographs of
A B C
snowflakes during the lifetime.
D

33. New York City surpassed the other Atlantic seaports in partly because it developed the best
A B C
transportation links with the interior of the country.
D

34. All of mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly among the friendliest to humans.
A B C D

35. Harmonize, melody, and rhythm are important elements in most forms of music.

ACADEMIC ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST – THE LANGUAGE CENTRE OF UTS Page 9 of 22

 A B C D

36. When babies are around fifteen months old, they can pick up objects and put themselves into
A B C D
small containers.
37. Loblolly pines, chifly found in the Southeastern United States, has strong wood used as lumber
A B C
And for paper pulp.
D

38. All root vegetables grow underground, and not all vegetables that grow underground are roots.
A B C D

39. Tiny pygmy shrews breathe ten times as fast as humans beings.
A B C D

40.Before diamonds can be used as jewels, they must be cut and polish.
A B C D

STOP
This is the end of Section 2
Read the directions for Section 3.
Do not read or work on any other Section of the test.
Look at the time no before you begin work on Section 3.
Use exactly 55 minutes to work on Section 3

ACADEMIC ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST – THE LANGUAGE CENTRE OF UTS Page 10 of 22

Section 3

Reading Comprehension
Time: 55 minutes

This section is designed to measure your reading comprehension of standard written English. The
question in this section belong to two types, each of which has special directions.

DIRECTIONS: In this section you will read several passages. Each is followed by questions about it. For
question 1-50, you need to select the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and blacken the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have selected. Fill in the space completely.
Read the Following Passage
Like mammals, birds claim their own territories. A bird's territory may
be small or large. Some birds claim only their nest and the area right
around it, while others claim far larger territories that include their
feeding areas. Gulls, penguins, and other waterfowl nest in huge colonies,
5 but even in the biggest colonies, each male and his mate have small
territories of their own immediately around their nests.
Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other males of the
same species. In some cases, a warning call or threatening pose may
be all the defense needed, but in other cases, intruders may refuse to
10 leave peacefully.

Example l
What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) Birds that live in colonies
(B) Birds' mating habits
(C) The behavior of birds
(D) Territoriality in birds

The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.
Example I Sample Answer

B C D

Example ll
According to the passage, male birds defend their territory primarily against
(A) Female birds
(B) Birds of other species
(C) Males of their own species
(D) Mammals

The passage states that "Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other males of the same species."
You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet. As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this
section.
Example I Sample Answer

B C D
ACADEMIC ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST – THE LANGUAGE CENTRE OF UTS Page 11 of 22
QUESTIONS 1 - 12
Galaxies are not evenly distributed throughout the universe. A few are found
alone, but almost all are grouped in formations termed galactic clusters. These
formations should not be confused with stellar clusters, globular clusters of
stars that exist within a galaxy. The size of galactic clusters varies enormously,
5 with some clusters containing only a dozen or so members and others con-
taining as many as 10,000. Moreover, galactic clusters themselves are part
of larger clusters of clusters, termed superclusters. It is surmised that even
clusters of superclusters are possible.

Our galaxy, the Milky Way, is part of a galactic cluster called the Local
10 Group, which has twenty members and is typical in terms of the types of
galaxies it contains. There are three large spiral galaxies: Andromeda, the
largest galaxy in the group; the Milky Way, the second-largest galaxy; and
the Triangulum Spiral, the third largest. There are also four medium-sized
spiral galaxies, including the Large Cloud of Magellan and the Small Cloud
15 of Magellan. There are four regular elliptical galaxies; the remainder are
dwarf ellipticals. Other than our own galaxy, only Andromeda and the
Clouds of Magellan can be seen with the naked eye, and the Clouds are
visible only from the. Southern Hemisphere.
In the vicinity of the Local Group are several clusters, each containing
20 around twelve members. The nearest cluster rich in members is the Virgo
Cluster, which contains thousands of galaxies of all types. Like most large
clusters, it emits X rays. The Local Group, the small neighboring clusters,
and the Virgo Cluster form part of a much larger cluster of clusters - the
Local Supercluster.

25 The existence of galactic clusters presented a riddle to scientists for many

years - the "missing mass" problem. Clusters are presumably held together
by the gravity generated by their members. However, measurements showed
that the galaxies did not have enough mass to explain their apparent stability.
Why didn't these clusters disintegrate? It is now thought that galaxies contain
30 great amounts of "dark matter," which cannot be directly observed but which
generates gravitational pull. This matter includes gas, dust, burnt-out stars,
and even black holes.

1. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Clusters and super clusters of galaxies
(B) An astronomical problem that has never been solved
(C) A recent development in astronomy
(D) The incredible distance between galaxies

2. The word evenly in line I is closest in meaning to

(A) uniformly
(B) predictably
(C) relatively
(D) paradoxically

3. What conclusion can be made about galaxies that are not found in clusters?
(A) They have never been observed.
(B) They are larger than other galaxies.
(C) They are not actually galaxies but parts of galaxies.
(D) They are outnumbered by galaxies that do occur in clusters.

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4. The word globular in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) immense
(B) spherical
(C) dense
(D) brilliant

5. The author would probably characterize the existence of clusters of super clusters as
(A) impossible
(B) surprising
(C) theoretical
(D) certain

6. According to the passage, in what way is the Local Group typical of galactic clusters?
(A) In its size
(B) In the number of galaxies it contains
(C) In its shape
(D) In the types of galaxies that make it up

7. In the Local Group, which of the following types of galaxies are most numerous?
(A) Large spirals
(B) Medium-sized spirals
(C) Regular ellipticals
(D) Dwarf ellipticals

8. All of the following are visible from somewhere on Earth without a telescope EXCEPT
(A) the Clouds of Magellan
(B) Andromeda
(C) the Triangulum Spiral
(D) the Milky Way

9. According to the passage, the Local Group and the Virgo Cluster have which of the following in
common?
(A) Both are rich in galaxies.
(B) Both emit X rays.
(C) Both are part of the same supercluster.
(D) Both are small clusters.

10. The word riddle in line 25 is closest in meaning to

(A) tool
(B) puzzle
(C) theory
(D) Clue

11. Which of the following is NOT true about the "dark matter" mentioned in line 30?
(A) It is impossible to observe directly.
(B) It may include black holes.
(C) It helps explain the "missing mass" problem.
(D) It is found in the space between galaxies.

12. As used throughout the passage, the word members refers to

(A) stars
(B) galaxies
(C) scientists
(D) clusters

ACADEMIC ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST – THE LANGUAGE CENTRE OF UTS Page 13 of 22

QUESTIONS 13 - 24
The Roman alphabet took thousands of years to develop, from the picture
writing of the ancient Egyptians through modifications by Phoenicians,
Greeks, Romans, and others. Yet in just a dozen years, one man, Sequoyah,
invented an alphabet for the Cherokee people. Born in eastern Tennessee,
5 Sequovah was a hunter and a silversmith in his youth, as well as an able
interpreter who knew Spanish, French, and English.
Sequoyah wanted his people to have the secret of the "talking leaves,"
as he called the hooks of white people, and so he set out to design a written
term for the Cherokee. His chief aim was to record his people's ancient tribal
10 customs. He began by designing pictographs for every word in the Cherokee
vocabulary. Reputedly his wife, angry at him for his neglect of the garden and
house, burned his notes, and he had to start over. This time, having concluded
that picture-writing was cumbersome, he made symbols for the sounds of
the Cherokee language. Eventually he refined his system to eighty-five char-
15 acters, which he borrowed from the Roman, Greek, and Hebrew alphabets.
He presented this system to the Cherokee General Council in 1821, and it
was wholeheartedly approved. The response was phenomenal. Cherokees
who had struggled for months to learn English lettering in school picked up
the new system in days. Several books were printed in Cherokee, and in
20 1828, a newspaper, the Cherokee Phoenix, was first published in the new
alphabet. Sequoyah was acclaimed by his people.
In his later life, Sequoyah dedicated himself to the general advancement
of his people. He went to Washington, D.C., as a representative of the
Western tribes. He helped settle bitte differences among Cherokee after
25 their forced movement by the federal government to the Oklahoma territory
in the 1830s. He died in Mexico in 1843 while searching for groups of lost
Cherokee. A statue of Sequoyah represents Oklahoma in the Statuary Hall
in the Capitol building in Washington, D.C. However, he is probably chiefly
remembered today because sequoias, the giant redwood trees of California,
30 are named for him.

13. The passage is mainly concerned with

(A) the development of the Roman alphabet
(B) the accomplishments of Sequoyah
(C) the pictographic system of writing
(D) Sequoyah's experiences in Mexico

14. According to the passage, how long did it take to develop the Cherokee alphabet?
(A) Twelve years
(B) Twenty years
(C) Eighty-five years
(D) Thousands of years

15. There is NO indication in the passage that, as a young man, Sequoyah

(A) served as an interpreter
(B) made things from silver
(C) served as a representative in Washington
(D) hunted game

16. According to the passage, Sequoyah used the phrase talking leaves (line 7) to refer to
(A) redwood trees
(B) books
(C) symbols for sounds

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 (D) newspapers
17. What was Sequoyah's main purpose in designing a Cherokee alphabet?
(A) To record Cherokee customs
(B) To write books in Cherokee
(C) To write about his own life
(D) To publish a newspaper

18. The word cumbersome in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) awkward
(B) radical
(C) simplistic
(D) unfamiliar

19. In the final version of the Cherokee alphabet system, each of the characters represents a
(A) word
(B) picture
(C) sound
(D) thought

20. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as alphabet systems that Sequoyah borrowed from
EXCEPT
(A) Egyptian
(B) Roman
(C) Hebrew
(D) Greek

21. The word wholeheartedly in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) unanimously
(B) enthusiastically
(C) immediately
(D) ultimately

22. According to the passage, a memorial statue of Sequoyah is located in

(A) Oklahoma
(B) Mexico
(C) Tennessee
(D) Washington, D.C.

23. Why does the author mention the giant redwood trees of California in the passage?
(A) Sequoyah took his name from those trees.
(B) The trees inspired Sequoyah to write a book.
(C) Sequoyah was born in the vicinity of the redwood forest.
(D) The trees were named in Sequoyah's honour.

24. The author begins to describe the Cherokees' reaction to the invention of a written language in
(A) lines 3 - 4
(B) lines 9 - 10
(C) lines 17 - 21
(D) lines 23 – 24

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QUESTIONS 25 - 32
For a long time, amphibians were confused with reptiles. Like reptiles, they
have three-chambered hearts and are cold-blooded. Some amphibians, such
as salamanders, are even shaped like lizards. However, unlike reptiles, am-
phibians never have claws on their toes or scales on their bodies. Furthermore,
5 the eggs of amphibians lack shells, so they must be laid in water or moist
places.
Amphibians were the first creatures to spend sizable amounts of their
lives on land. The larvae of most amphibians, such as frog -tadpoles, are
born with gills and live in water. However, their gills disappear as they
10 develop lungs. Most retain the ability to breathe through the moist surface
of their skin. This comes in handy when they hibernate in the bottom mud
of lakes and ponds during the coldest months. They take in the small amount
of oxygen they need through their skin. Some amphibians undergo what is
known as a "double metamorphosis," changing not only from gill breathers
15 to lung breathers but also from vegetarians to insectivores.
Although the amphibian class is rather small in number of species, it
shows great diversity. There are three major types. The caecilians of the
tropics are long, legless, burrowing creatures. Caudate amphibians, such as
newts and salamanders, mostly have long tails and stubby legs. Salientians,
20 which include both frogs and toads, are tailless as adults and have powerful
hind legs. Toads differ from frogs primarily in that they have dry, warty skin.

25. The author's main purpose in writing the passage is to

(A) define and describe amphibians
(B) contrast different types of amphibians
(C) trace the development of amphibians from larvae to adults
(D) explain how amphibians differ from other creatures

26. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of amphibians?
(A) They have three-chambered hearts.
(B) They lay eggs without shells.
(C) They have claws on their toes.
(D) They are cold-blooded.

27. As used in line 4, the term scales is closest to which of the following in meaning?
(A) Devices used to measure weight
(B) Plates covering the bodies of certain animals
(C) Sounds made by various animals
(D) Proportions between different sets of dimensions

28. The word stubby in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) long and thin
(B) undeveloped
(C) thick and short
(D) powerful

29. According to the passage, the term double metamorphosis (line 14) refers to the fact that amphibians
(A) first breathe through their gills, then through their lungs, then through their skin
(B) change both the shape of their bodies and the way in which they lay eggs
(C) first live in the water, then on land, then in mud in the bottom of ponds and lakes
(D) change both their methods of breathing and their feeding habits

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30. It can be inferred from the passage that amphibians' ability to breathe through their skin is especially
useful during the
(A) summer
(B) fall
(C) winter
(D) spring

31. All of the following are identified in the passage as amphibians EXCEPT
(A) newts
(B) salamanders
(C) caecilians
(D) lizards

32. In line 21, the word they refers to

(A) toads
(B) tails
(C) adults
(D) frogs

QUESTIONS 33 - 44
The first animated film, Humorous Phases of Funny Faces, was made in 1906
by newspaper illustrator James Blackton. He filmed faces that were drawn
on a blackboard in progressive stages. In New York City, Winsor McCay
exhibited his most famous films, Little Nemo (1910) and Genie the Dinosaur
5 (1914). His films featured fluid motion and characters with individual per-
sonalities. For the first time, characters drawn from lines seemed to live on the
screen. In 1914, John R. Bray streamlined the animation process, using
assembly-line techniques to turn out cartoons.
By 1915, film studios began producing cartoon series. The Pat Sullivan
10 studio produced the series featuring Felix the Cat. He became one of the
most beloved characters of the silent-film era. The Max Fleischer studio
produced series starring Ko-Ko the Clown and, later, Betty Boop and Popeye.
The first cartoon with sound was Steamboat Willie (1928), which intro-
duced Mickey Mouse. This film was produced by Walt Disney, the most
15 famous of American animators. His early success enabled Disney to train
his animators in anatomy, acting, drawing, and motion studies. The results
of this are apparent in Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs (1937), the first
full-length animated feature. It became an instant success, and still remains
popular. Other important Disney films followed.

20 Warner Brothers' studio challenged Disney for leadership in the field with
cartoons starring Bugs Bunny, Daffy Duck, and Other characters. These films
were faster-paced and featured slapstick humour. In the 1950s: a group of
animators splintered off from Disney and formed United Production of America,
which rejected Disney's realism and employed a hold, modernistic approach.
25 In the 1950s, children's cartoons began to be broadcast on Saturday
morning television and, later, in prime time. Among the most successful
were those made by William Hanna and Joseph Barbera, such as those
featuring Yogi Bear and the Flintstones.

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 The full-length animated film became popular again in the 1980s and
30 '90s. Producer Steven Spielberg released his first animated film, An American
Tad (1986), and Disney began a series of remarkable annual hits with The
Little Mermaid (1989). Who Framed Roger Rabbit? (1988), a joint production
of Spielberg and Disney, blurred the lines between live action and animation.
Animation returned to prime-time television with the Fox Network's The
35 Simpsons. Animators had experimented with computer animation as early
as the 1950s, but Toy Story (1995) was the first full-length film to be entirely
computer animated. These developments promise to bring about the most
exciting era in animation since its heyday.

33. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) the history of animated film
(B) the life of Walt Disney
(C) the development of one animated cartoon
(D) the use of computers in animation

34. The word streamlined in line closest in meaning to

(A) simplified
(B) revolutionized
(C) bypassed
(D) invented

35. The word he in .line 10 refers to

(A) Pat Sullivan
(B) Felix the Cat
(C) Max- Fleischer
(D) Ko Ko the Clown

36. What can be inferred from the passage about animated films produced before 1928?
(A) They were not very popular.
(B) They were longer than later movies.
(C) They were not drawn by hand.
(D) They were silent films.

37. According to the passage, the film Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs
(A) showed the benefits of training the Disney animators
(B) was the first movie produced by Walt Disney
(C) was the last movie Disney made before his death
(D) did not become successful until many years later

38. The phrase splintered off from in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) competed with
(B) broke avk av from
(C) merged with
(D) released from

39. It can be inferred from the passage that the characters in Little Nemo and Gertie the Dinosaur
(A) were first drawn on a blackboard
(B) were part of a cartoon series
(C) seemed to have their own personalities
(D) did not look as lifelike as Blackton's characters

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40. The author does NOT specifically mention characters produced by
(A) Walt Digney
(B) Hanna and Barbera
(C) United Productions of America
(D) Warner Brothers

41. The phrase blurred the lines in line 33 is closest in meaning to

(A) eliminated the distinctions
(B) obscured the issues
(C) answered the questions
(D) emphasized the problems

42. The first experiments with computer animation took place during the
(A) 1950s
(B) 1960s
(C) 1980s
(D) 1990s

43. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word heyday in line 38?
(A) Beginning
(B) Decline
(C) Prime
(D) Rebirth

44. Where in the passage does the author first mention animation on television?
(A) Line 9
(B) Lines 13 - 14
(C) Lines 25 - 26
(D) Lines 34 - 35

QUESTIONS 45 - 50
Fog is a cloud in contact. with or just above the surface of land or sea. It
can be a major environmental hazard. Fog on highways can cause chain-re-
action accidents involving dozens of cars. Delays and shutdowns at airports
can cause economic losses to airlines and inconvenience to thousands of
5 travelers. Fog at sea has always been a danger to navigation. Today, with
supertankers carrying vast quantities of oil, fog increases the possibility of
catastrophic oil spills.
The most common type of fog, radiation fog, forms at night, when moist
air near the ground loses warmth through radiation on a clear night. This
10 type of fog often occurs in valleys, such as California's San Joaquin Valley.
Another common type, advection fog, results from the movement of warm,
wet air over cold ground. The air loses temperature to the ground and
condensation sets in. This type of fog often occurs along the California coast
and the shores of the Great Lakes. Advection fog also forms when air
15 associated with a warm ocean current blows across the surface of a cold
current. The thick fogs of the Grand Banks off Newfoundland, Canada, are
largely of this origin, because here the Labrador Current comes in contact
with the warm Gulf Stream.
Two other types of fog are somewhat more unusual. Frontal fog occurs
20 when two fronts of different temperatures meet, and rain from the warm
front falls into the colder one, saturating the air. Steam fog appears when
cold air picks up moisture by moving over warmer water.

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45. The first paragraph focuses on which aspect of fog?
(A) its dangers
(B) its composition
(C) its beauty
(D) its causes

46. The word catastrophic in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) accidental
(B) inevitable
(C) unexpected
(D) disastrous

47. According to the article, fog that occurs along the California coast is generally
(A) radiation fog
(B) advection fog
(C) frontal fog
(D) steam fog

48. It can be inferred from the passage that the Labrador Current is
(A) Cold
(B) weak
(C) polluted
(D) warm

49. The author organizes the discussion of the different types of fog according to
(A) their geographic locations
(B) their relative density
(C) the types of problems they cause
(D) their relative frequency

50. The author of the passage is probably an expert in the field of

(A) physics
(B) economics
(C) transportation
(D) Meteorology

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 3.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE THE TIME LIMIT, CHECK YOUR WORK
ON SECTION 3 ONLY.
DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.
STOP

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