1. The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific antigens.

Which
of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
a. Ribosomes
b. Cell wall
c. Capsule
d. Flagella
2. Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct except:
a. Escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer
b. Streptococcus pyogens stains blue because it has a thick peptidoglycan layer
c Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not visible in the Gram’s stain because it does not have a cell wall
d. Mycobaterium tuberculosis stains blue because it has a thick lipid layer
3. An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You
are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most
likely source of the organism?
a. Nose
b. Colon
c. Vagina
d. Throat
4. Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections except:
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Bacteriodes fragilis
d. Proteus mirabilis
5. A 30 year old woman has non bloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which one of the to following
organisms is least likely to cause this illness?
a. Streptococcus pyogens
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Salmonella enteritidis
6. Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea except
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. Enterococcus faecalis
d. Escherichia coli
7. Each of the following statements about the classification of streptococci is correct except
a. Pneumococci (Streptococcus pneumoniae) are alpha-hemolytic and can be serotyped on the basis of their
polysaccharide capsule
b. Enterococci are group D streptococci and can be classified by their ability to grow 6.5% sodium chloride
c. Viridans streptococci are identified by Lancefield grouping, which is based on the C carbohydrate in the cell wall
d. Although pneumococci and the viridans streptococci are alpha-hemolytic, they can be differentiated by the bile
solubility test and their susceptibility to optochin
8. Which of the following bacteria has the lowest 50% infective dose (ID50)?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Shigella sonnei
9. Which of the following disease is best diagnosed by serologic means?
a. Pulmonary tuberculosis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Actinomycosis
d. Q Fever
10. The cogulase test is used to differentiate
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
b. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Streptococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
 Answer Key for MCQ Microbiology:
 1.d 2.d 3.a 4.c 5.a 6.c 7.c 8d. 9.d 10. b

1
21: Which of the following bacteria is not a most common bacterial pathogen causing diarrhea?
a. Shigella spp
b. Salmonella spp
c. Enterococcus faecalis
d. Campylobacter

22: Which of the following bacteria is rarely associated with Urinary Tract Infections?
a. E.coli
b. Enterobacter spp
c. Proteus spp
d. Shigella spp

23: Which of the following statement regarding Campylobacter jejuni is not correct?
a. It is commonly cultured in antibiotic containing media
b. Incubation temperature is 42Oc
c. It is cultured in an atmosphere containing 5% O2 and 10%CO2
d.It is a normal flora of intestine.

24: Which of the following bacteria is not most important causes of acute bacterial meningitis?
a. Neisseria menigitidis
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Streptococcus pyogens

25: Which of the following Gram negative rod is not a blood borne bacterial pathogen?
a. Shigella spp
b. Escherichia Coli
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
26: Throat culture is not useful to diagnose
a. Streptococcal sore throat
b. Diphtheria
c. Thrush
d. Pneumonia

27: Stool culture is primarily recommended when the complaint is

a. Bloody diarrhea (dysentery, enterocolitis)
b. Watery diarrhea
c. for both bloody and watery diarrhea
d. an indication of anaerobic infection
28: Which of the following bacteria causing sexually transmitted disease can not be grown on artificial
media?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Both Treponema pallidum and Chlamydia trachomatis
29: Cold agglutinin test is useful for the diagnosis of
a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b. H. influenzae
c. N. menigitidis
d. Cryptococcus neoformans
30: Which of the following test is not recommended for the diagnosis of Syphilis?
a. VDRL test
b. Culture
c. FTA-ABS test
d. MHA-TP test
Answers key:
21.c. Enterococcus faecalis
22.d. Shigella spp
23.d.It is a normal flora of intestine.
24.d. Streptococcus pyogens
25.a. Shigella spp
26.a. Streptococcal sore throat
27.c. for both bloody and watery diarrhea
28.d. Both Treponema pallidum and Chlamydia trachomatis
29.a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
30. b. Culture

2
Drumstick appearance in the microscopy is the distinguishing characteristics of:
a) Clostridium tetani
b) Clostridium perfringens
c) Clostridium botulinum
d) Clostridium difficile
The order of reagents used in the Gram stain are:
a) Iodine, crystal violet, safranin, alcohol
b) Crystal violet, iodine, safranin, alcohol
c) Crystal violet, safranin, alcohol, iodine
d) Alcohol, crystal violet, iodine, safranin
e) Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin
Bacterial capsule detected by –ve staining
Regarding the Gram stain, which one of the following is the MOST accurate?
a) After adding crystal violet and Gram’s iodine, both gram-positive bacteria and gram-
negative bacteria will appear blue.
b) One reason why bacteria have a different color in this stain is because the gram-positive
bacteria have lipid in their membrane, whereas gram-negative bacteria do not.
c) If you forget to heat-fix, both gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria will appear
blue.
d) If you forget to stain with the red dye (safranin or basic fuchsin), both gram-positive bacteria
and gram-negative bacteria will appear blue.
In light microscopes, what function does a condenser serve?
a) Magnifies the light rays after their passage through the sample
b) Reduces glare
c) Focuses the light rays onto our eyes
d) Focuses the light rays on the sample
e) Increases light intensity
Which of the following microscopic techniques provide three-dimensional images of a bacterial cell?
a) Scanning electron microscopy
b) Fluorescent microscopy
c) Dark-field microscopy
d) Transmission electron microscopy
All of the following are examples of special stains except:
a) Negative stains
b) Flagellar stain
c) Endospore stain
d) Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain
Which of the following statements is most correct about the differential Gram stain?
a) Acetone/Alcohol differentially destains Gram negative cells.
b) Safranin differentially stains Gram negative cells.
c) Gram's iodine differentially stains Gram positive cells.
d) Crystal violet differentially stains Gram positive cells.
The compound light microscope can be used to observe:
a) Bacteria, cell organelles, and red blood cells
b) Atoms, proteins, viruses, and bacteria
c) Viruses, bacteria, cell organelles, and red blood cells
d) Ribosomes, bacteria, cell organelles, and red blood cells
e) Amino acids, bacteria, and red blood cells
The total magnification of a microscope is calculated by:
a) Multiplication of the objective lens and ocular lens magnification powers
b) Multiplication of the objective lens and condenser lens magnification powers
c) The objective lens power squared
d) Addition of the objective lens and ocular lens magnification powers

3
Which of the following stains is used to classify microorganisms based on their cell wall content?
a) Negative stain
b) Methylene blue
c) Capsular stain
d) Spore stain
e) Gram stain
Which of the following process does not kill bacterial endospores?
a) Autoclave
b) Pasteurization
c) Hot air sterilization
d) Incineration
Any process that destroys the non-spore-forming contaminants on inanimate objects is:
a) antisepsis
b) degermation
c) Disinfection
d) Sterilization
Which of the following items could be sterilized by dry heat sterilization?
a) glass pipette
b) Intravenous (IV) solution
c) rubber gloves
d) Plastic IV bags
e) plastic petri dishes
Question 22 / 69
32 % 53m 28s
How much diluent needs to be added to 0.2mL of serum to make a 1:20 dilution?
A9.8 mL
B.4.0 mL
C.3.8 mL
D.10.0 mL
A negative test for VDRL but positive for FTA-ABS correlate with which of the following
clinical finding?
A.SLE
B.Early syphilis
C.Biologic false positive reaction
D.IM
What is the advantage of VDRL over RPR?
A.Reactions in VDRL can be seen macroscopically as dense flocculates.
B.CSF can be used as a specimen for VDRL.
C.Serum inactivation is not needed in VDRL.
D.All of the above
A 4% solution of RBC is needed for diagnostic testing in the laboratory. What dilution of
packed red blood cells does this represent?
A.1:25
B.1:4
C.1:96
D.4:1
In an agglutination reaction, if cells are not centrifuged long enough, which of the
following might occur?
A.False-negative result
B.False-positive result
C.No effect
D.Slight but can be ignored

4
The exact binding site of an antigen is called its
A.Epitope.
B.Paratope.
C.Valence.
D.Any of the above
Which of the following is true about RPR and VDRL?
A.Serum inactivation is required.
B.These are examples of indirect agglutination tests.
C.Both are classified as TTT.
D.These are non-specific for syphilis.
Carcinoembryonic antigen is correlated with
A.Colon cancer
B.Ovarian cancer
C.Prostate cancer
D.Hepatoma
Which of the following would cause a false-negative result in DAT?
A.Incubating longer than 5 minutes.
B.Not washing red cells thoroughly.
C.Using EDTA anticoagulated blood.
D.Presence of IgG on red cells.
The most specific cells containing antigens that agglutinate with heterophile antibodies are
A.Human erythocytes
B.Horse erythrocytes
C.Sheep erythrocytes
D.B and C
Flagellar antigens are designated
A."O" antigens
B."K" antigens
C."H" antigens
D."Vi" antigens
IgG is sometimes referred to as incomplete antibody because
A.It is only active at 25 degrees Celsius.
B.It may be to small to produce lattice formation.
C.It only has one antigen-binding site.
D.It is not able to prodice visible in vivo agglutination.
In a indirect fluorescent immunoassay such as the FTA confirmatory test for syphilis, all of
the following are true EXCEPT:
A. A labeled antigen is used
B. Washing is an important step
C. Patient antibody is detected
D. Antihuman globulin has a fluorescent tag

5
10. Which of the following best explains the reaction that takes place in the latex
agglutination slide test for CRP?
A. Latex particles are coated with anti-CRP
B. Latex particles are coated with CRP
C. Latex particles are nonspecifically bound
D.CRP is acting as an antibody

29. Which of the following is able to activate complement?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM

30. On a serial dilution with the following tubes set up, 1:2, 1:4, 1:8, 1:16, 1:32, and 1:64,
there is no visible agglutination in the 1:64 tube. What is the titer of the antibody?
A. 32
B. 16
C. 64
D. Cannot determine

31. If you want to make 5 mL of a 1:20 dilution, how much serum would be needed?
A. 0.25 mL
B. 2 mL
C. 0.5 mL
D. 1 mL

33. When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent, what dilution does this represent?
A. 1:3
B. 1:4
C. 1:5
D. 3:1

34. Which of the following best explains the use of universal precautions?
A. Handling a urine specimen from a patient with a bacterial infection very carefully
B. Wearing gloves in handling a serum specimen from a patient with HIV
C. Taking gloves off in the lab to place a serum specimen in a chemistry analyzer
D. Treating every specimen in the lab as if it were infectious

35. An immunlolgic immunoassay situation in which antibody is in excess as compared to

antigen is called:
A. Postzone
B. Prozone
C. Equivalence zone
D. Zone of equivalence

36. A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen and antibody are both soluble and
form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay was
described?
A. Precipitation
B. Agglutination
C. Flocculation
D. Neutralization

6
37. The zone at which antibody and antigen are at optimal concentration so that they form a
large insoluble lattice together is called the:
A. Equivalence zone
B. Postzone
C. Prozone
D. Prezone

38. A situation in which antigen is in excess as compared to antibody is called:

A. Prozone
B. Postzone
C. Equivalence zone
D. All of the above

40. Which of the following might adversely affect an electrophoresis reaction?

A. Decreasing the strength of the current
B. Changing the pH of the buffer
C. Increasing the strength of the current
D. All of the above

41. The Western blot test used to confirm HIV is an example of which of the following?
A. Immunofixation
B. Immunoelectrophoresis
C. Double diffusion
D. Passive agglutination

42. Electrophoresis followed by diffusion of antibody from wells cut in the gel best describes
which of the following?
A. Immunofixation electrophoresis
B. Immunoelectrophoresis
C. Oucherlony diffusion
D. Rocket immunodiffusion

43. Precipitation reactions involve combination of soluble antibody with:

A. Soluble antigen
B. Cellular antigens
C. Red blood cells
D. Radioactive antigen

44. Coombs' reagent is used for what purpose?

A. To link small antigens on patient red cells
B. To enhance agglutination with IgG coated red blood cells
C. To enhance agglutination with IgM coated red blood cells
D. To cause a precipitation reaction with small amounts of antibody

45. An immunoassay is performed in the following manner to look for an antigen in the
patient serum: Patient serum + labeled antigen + known antibody are added together and
incubated. Unbound material is washed off. The amount of labeled antigen is then measured.
What assay is performed?
A. Homeogeneous EIA
B. Competitive EIA
C. Sandwich EIA
D. ELISA

7
46. An immunoassay was performed in the following way: Antigen is bound to a solid
support. Patient serum is added and patient antibodies bind to the antigen. The well is
washed and enzyme-labeled anti-immunoglobulin antibodies are added. The well is washed
and enzyme substrate is added and enzyme activity is determined. Which immnoassay is
described?
A. Sandwich
B. Competitive
C. ELISA
D. Homogeneous

47. Indirect immunofluorescence is similar to which type of enzyme immunoassay as far as

the performance of the assay?
A. Competitive
B. Sandwich
C. ELISA
D. Homogeneous

48. A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a larger carrier, the
antibody is soluble, and they bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected
macroscopically. What type of assay is described?
A. Precipitation
B. Agglutination
C. Flocculation
D. Neutralization

49. A serological test that uses red blood cells coated with exogenous antigens such as
bacterial polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against that exogenous
antigen is called:
A. Latex agglutination
B. Hemagglutination
C. Neutralization
D. Complement fixation

50. If a Coombs' test is positive, which of the following is true?

A. Antibody has coated patient red blood cells in vitro
B. Antigen is reacting with patient antibody
C. Antibody has coated patient red blood cells in vivo
D. Antigen has coated patient red blood cells in vivo

51. Which of the following best describes competitive binding assays?

A. A limited number of binding sites are present
B. Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected
C. All patient antigen present is allowed to bind
D. Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts
What is the major function of C-reactive protein (CRP)?
A. Acts as an opsonin B. Binds hemoglobin C. Causes vasodilation D. Helps to form clots

8
 VIP NotesTraining Exam 796: 21.08.2016 Dr.Samer

1)Name of media in Antimicrobial sensitivity? Muller hinton

2)Selective & differential media for staphylococcus? MSA

3)Tube coagulase test?to detect free stain

4)Gram stain order steps?

5) Indirect ELISA order steps?

6)Steaming in AFS? To all stain to enter mycolic bilayer

7)AFS stain every thing blue except M.TB bacilli?

8)Rotavirus detection in stool specimen?

9)Widal test used to diagnose salmonella?

10)Neisseria is oxidase +ve?

11)Steatorrhea means excess fat in stool?

12)Fecal blood stain? Sudan 3 stain

13)Streptolysin O is produced by GAS?

14)CRP & RF important notes and +v end –ve control?

15)-Ve control used in blood banking?

16)Plts stored in R.T and agitated?

17)Prolonged Tourniquet application lead to hemoconcentration and Ca elevation?

18)Anticoagulants tubes and colors?

19)Common enzymes assayed in hepatobiliary disease ? GGT

20)Important thing in specimen collection?Patient identification

21)Electrophoresis band in heterozygous HBS?# Of bands appear

22)Turbid ,cloudy, bubby urine ?Due to prt or glucose or bilirubin?

23)Basic urine and ammonia formation?Inicator of UTI?

24)Most common crystal in acidic urine?Ca oxalate?

25)Sputum description? Thick watery ,deep secretion from Lung ,bronchi?

26)Specimen hemolysis cause elevation of K,G6DH,LDH except Na?

27)Sensitivity means?Detection limit Or Smallest Conc. That can be measured

accurately?

28)Define PKa & Buffer system, Normal Blood PH= 7.35-7.45?

29)Hormone detected in urine? B-HCG,FSH,LH