NSEJS Old Book
NSEJS Old Book
PHYSICS
2. Motion in a Plane..................................................................................... 13 – 22
CHEMISTRY
6. Thermochemistry...............................................................................139 – 146
7. Equilibrium.........................................................................................147 – 156
BIOLOGY
1. Cell : The Unit of Life ........................................................................... 175 – 184
MATHEMATICS
1. Sets ......................................................................................................275 – 288
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2 Motion in a Straight Line Physics - NSEJS
If x1 = x2 = x, then
2x 2v1v 2
Average speed =
x x v1 v 2
v1 v 2
Conclusion : 1. Average speed is a harmonic mean of individual speeds.
2. If direction of motion does not change, then magnitude of average velocity is equal to
average speed.
Case 2 : If a body travels at constant speeds v1 and v2 for intervals t1, t2 respectively, then
If t1 = t2 = t, then
(v1 v 2 )t v1 v 2
Average speed
2t 2
Conclusion : 1. Average speed is an arithmetic mean of individual speeds.
2. If direction of motion of object does not change then magnitude of average velocity is equal
to average speed.
DIFFERENTIATION
Suppose we have function y = f (x)
If we change x by infinitesimally small amount dx, then y changes by an amount dy.
dy dy
Now the term is called differentiation of y with respect to x. represents that how fast the function
dx dx
varies when we change x i.e., it gives instantaneous rate of change of y w.r.t. x.
Geometrical Significance
dy
The term is the slope of the graph of y versus x
dx
x
x1
⎛ dy ⎞
For example, ⎜ ⎟ at x = x will be equal to slope of tangent to curve at point x = x
⎝ dx ⎠ 1 1
x
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Physics - NSEJS Motion in a Straight Line 3
dy dy
So, at these points will be zero. Now if is positive at a point then function will be increasing at that
dx dx
dy
point and if is negative then function will be decreasing.
dx
INTEGRATION
The process of integration is just the reverse of differentiation. The symbol is used to denote integration If
dI ( x )
f (x)
dx
dI(x) = f(x)dx
where f(x) is the differential coefficient of a function I(x) with respect to x,
Note : Sign is used for summation of discrete values, while sign ∫ is used for summation of continuous
function.
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4 Motion in a Straight Line Physics - NSEJS
x 0+1
∫ dx = ∫ 1dx = ∫ x dx =
0
2. =x+C
0 +1
x n+1
∫ cx dx = c ∫ x dx = c
n n
3. + C0 where, n ≠ –1, and c is constant
n +1
1
4. ∫ x dx log e x+C
Definite Integrals
When function is integrated between definite limits, the integral is called definite integral .
b
∫ f x dx
a
is a definite integral of f(x) between the limits a and b and is written as
b
∫ f x dx F x F b – F a
b
a a
x x
O a x + dx b
b
Let y is value of function at x. So, y dx is area of small strip of thickness dx at distance x and ∫ a
y dx is sum of
the areas of all strips (each of width dx) taken from x = a to x = b
b
So, ∫ a
y dx represent area under curve from x = a to x = b.
ACCELERATION
Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity with time.
v 2 v1 v
a
t2 t1 t
Example : A particle is moving with a uniform acceleration. Its position time t seconds is given in meters
by the relation x = 3 + 4t + 5t2. Calculate the magnitude of its
(i) Initial velocity
(ii) Velocity at t = 3 s
(iii) Uniform acceleration and
(iv) Position at t = 5 second
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Physics - NSEJS Motion in a Straight Line 5
2
dx d (3 + 4t + 5t )
Solution : v = =
dt dt
d (3) d (4t ) d (5t 2 )
= + +
dt dt dt
d (3) 4d (t ) 5d (t 2 )
= + +
dt dt dt
= 0 + 4 × 1t1 – 1 + 5 × 2t2 – 1
= 0 + 4t0 + 10t
= 4 + 10t
(i) For initial velocity, t = 0 ∴ Vinitial = 4 + 10 × 0 = 4 m/s
(ii) When, t = 3, velocity = 4 + 10(3) = 4 + 30 = 34 m/s
(iii) Acceleration, a at any time t is,
dv d
a= = {4 + 10t}
dt dt
d (4) d (10t )
a= +
dt dt
10d (t )
=0+
dt
= 10 ×1.t 1−1 = 10
a = 10 × 1 = 10 m/s2
(iv) At t = 5 s, position is given as
x = 3 + 4(5) + 5(5)2
= 3 + 20 + 5 × 25
= 3 + 20 + 125
= 148 m
xt – x0 = ∫ v dt
0
dv
a
dt
⇒ dv adt ⇒ dv adt ∫ ∫
t
vt – v0 = ∫ a dt
0
vdv
a
dx
⇒ vdv adx ⇒ vdv adx ∫ ∫
x
v t 2 v 02
2
adx ∫
0
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6 Motion in a Straight Line Physics - NSEJS
KINEMATIC EQUATIONS FOR UNIFORMLY ACCELERATED MOTION
1. v u at
1 2
2. s ut at
2
3. v 2 u 2 2as
Displacement in nth second
a
4. snth u (2n – 1)
2
SIGN CONVENTION FOR VECTORS u, v, a AND s
Since the motion is on straight line, each vector has two possible directions at a particular time instant. You
can choose any one direction as positive and the opposite direction as negative. For example:
(a) A particle is moving in horizontal direction (say along
–ve direction +ve direction
x-axis). If the vectors directed towards right are taken as
positive then the vectors directed towards left are taken
Line of motion
as negative.
(b) Similarly for a particle moving in vertical direction, (say +ve direction
along y-axis) the vectors directed upward may be taken
as positive and thus, those directed downwards will be –ve direction
negative.
Line of motion
(c) For motion along inclined plane, if the vectors directed
+ve direction
up the plane are positive, then the vectors directed down
the plane are negative.
You may also take the direction of motion as +ve direction –ve direction
and the direction opposite to motion as negative direction.
Line of motion
Depending on your wish and complexities in the problem, you
can choose any convention. The final answer will remain same.
RETARDATION
When the speed of a particle decreases or when the particle slows down, the motion is said to be under
retardation. This may happen even when the acceleration is +ve. The necessary requirement for retardation
is that the velocity (v) and acceleration (a) should be opposite in direction.
a a
v v
Here v > 0, a > 0; Both v and a are Here v > 0, a < 0; v and a are in opposite direction,
in same direction. Speed increases. the speed decreases and the motion is retarded.
a a
v v
Here v < 0 and a < 0; both v and a are in same Here v < 0, a > 0; v and a are in opposite
direction, the speed increases. Acceleration direction, speed decreases and you can call
will not be called retardation. acceleration as retardation.
Galileo’s law of odd numbers : According to this law, the distance traversed by a body falling from rest, during
equal intervals of time, stand to one another in the same ratio as the odd numbers beginning with unity [namely
1 : 3 : 5 : 7 ……]. The distance travelled by object during free-fall is related to time by the equation.
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Physics - NSEJS Motion in a Straight Line 7
GRAPHS FOR UNIFORM MOTION
If a particle starts moving with uniform velocity v at time t = 0 from the position x1 on x-axis then the position
after time t is x = x1 + vt. The velocity of the particle is constant and the acceleration is zero at all instants.
(i) x-t graph : The x-t graph is a straight line with slope equal to velocity v. (Figure : 1)
x x
x2 x1
Slope = v < 0
Slope = v > 0
x1 x2
t t
Fig. : 1. (a) Fig. : 1. (b)
(ii) v-t graph : v-t graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis. (Figure : 2)
v v
v>0
t t
v<0
Fig. : 2. (a) Fig. : 2. (b)
(iii) a-t graph : a-t graph coincides with the time axis (a = 0). (Figure : 3)
a
a=0
t
Fig. : 3
Graphs for Uniformly Accelerated Motion
For uniformly accelerated motion the position and the velocity are given by equations
x x1 ut 1 at 2 , v u at
2
(i) x-t graph : As the x-t equation is a quadratic polynomial,the x-t graph is a parabola opening upward when
a > 0 and opening downward when a < 0. (Figure : 4)
x x
x1
x1
a>0 a<0
t t
Fig. : 4. (a) Fig. : 4. (b)
(ii) v-t graph : As the v-t equation is a linear polynomial, the v-t graph is a straight line of positive
slope if a > 0 and of negative slope if a < 0. (Figure : 5)
v v
u
a>0 a<0
u
t t
Fig. : 5. (a) Fig. : 5. (b)
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8 Motion in a Straight Line Physics - NSEJS
(iii) a-t graph : As the acceleration is constant, the a-t graph is a straight line parallel to time axis.
(Figure : 6)
a a
a>0
t
t
a<0
Fig. : 6. (a) Fig. : 6. (b)
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Choose the correct answer :
1. A particle moves in straight line in same direction 6. A particle is projected vertically upwards from a point
for 20 s with velocity 3 m/s and then moves with A on the ground. It takes t1 time to reach a point
velocity 4 m/s for another 20 s and finally moves B but it still continues to move up. If it takes further
with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 s. What is the average t2 time to reach the ground from point B then height
velocity of the particle? of point B from the ground is
(1) 3 m/s (2) 4 m/s 1
g t1 t 2
2
(1) (2) gt1t2
(3) 5 m/s (4) Zero 2
2. A particle is moving in x-y-plane at 2 m/s along
1 1
g t1 t 2
2
x-axis. 2 s later, its velocity is 4 m/s in a direction (3) (4) gt1t 2
8 2
making 60° with positive x-axis. Its average
acceleration for this period of motion is 7. The velocity-time graph of a linear motion is shown
in figure. The displacement and distance from the
(1) 5 m/s2 , along y-axis
origin after 8 s is
(2) 3 m/s2, along y-axis
v(m/s)
(3) 5 m/s2, along at 60° with positive x-axis 4
(4) 3 m/s2, at 60° with positive x-axis. 2
3. The velocity of a particle moving along x-axis is given 0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
as v = x2 – 5x + 4 (in m/s) where x denotes the –2
x-coordinate of the particle in metres. Find the t(s)
magnitude of acceleration of the particle when the
velocity of particle is zero. (1) 5 m, 19 m (2) 16 m, 22 m
(1) Zero (2) 2 m/s2 (3) 8 m,19 m (4) 6 m, 5 m
8. A man moves in x-y plane along the path shown. At
(3) 3 m/s2 (4) None of these
what point is his average velocity vector in the same
4. A body starts from rest and is uniformly accelerated direction as his instaneous velocity vector. The man
for 30 s. The distance travelled in the first 10 s is starts from point P.
x1, next 10 s is x2 and the last 10 s is x3. Then x1 : y
x2 : x3 is the same as
(1) 1 : 2 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 : 5
C
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 1 : 3 : 9
P D
5. With what speed should a body be thrown upwards B
so that the distances traversed in 5th second and
6th second are equal? A
x
(1) 58.4 m/s (2) 49 m/s (1) A (2) B
(3) 98 m/s (4) 98 m/s (3) C (4) D
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10 Motion in a Straight Line Physics - NSEJS
9. Which of the following velocity-time (v-t) graph (1) A stone thrown up vertically, returning back to
shows a realistic situation for a body in motion
the ground
(2) A car decelerating at constant rate and then
accelerating at the same rate
(1) v (2) v
(3) A ball falling from a height and then bouncing
back
t t
(4) None of these
13. A point moves in a straight line under the retardation
(3) v (4) v av2. If the initial velocity is u, the distance covered
in 't' seconds is
t t (1) aut
10. The graph between the displacement and time for 1
a particle moving in a straight line is shown in figure. (2) ln(aut)
a
During the interval OA, AB, BC and CD, the
acceleration of the particle respectively is 1
(3) ln(1+aut)
a
Displacement
(4) aln(aut)
D 14. The relation between time t and distance x is
C t = ax2 + bx where and are constants. The
A B
O retardation is
time
OA, AB, BC, CD (1) 2v3 (2) 2v2
(1) + 0 + + (3) 2bv2 (4) 22v3
(2) – 0 + 0 15. A particle is moving with uniform acceleration
(3) + 0 – + along a straight line. Its velocities at points A and
B are respectively 7 m/s and 17 m/s. M is mid
(4) – 0 0 + point of A and B. If t1 is the time taken to go from
11. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following A to M and t2 the time taken to go from M to B,
plots represents the speed-time (v-t) graph of the ball
t1
during its flight if the air resistance is ignored? then ratio of t is equal to
2
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 3 : 1
(1) v (2) v (3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 3
16. In the diagram shown, the displacement of particles
O O A and B is given as a function of time. The particle
t t
A is moving with velocity of 9 m/s. The particle B is
moving with variable acceleration. From time t = 0
s. to t = 6 s, the average velocity of the particle B
(3) v (4) v will be equal to
O t O t x
Displacement
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12 Motion in a Straight Line Physics - NSEJS
27. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a)
versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The a (m/s2)
maximum speed of the particle will be 10
a
10 m/s2
t (s)
O 4
O t (s)
11 (1) 12 s (2) 5 s
(1) 110 m/s (2) 55 m/s (3) 8 s (4) 16 s
(3) 550 m/s (4) 660 m/s Directions : In the following questions, a statement of
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reasion (R).
28. A small block slides without friction down an
inclined plane starting from rest. Let sn be the 31. Assertion : It is not possible to have constant
distance travelled from t = n – 1 to t = n. Then velocity and variable acceleration.
sn Reason : Accelerated body cannot have constant
velocity.
sn 1 is
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
2n 1 2n 1 reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) (2)
2n 2n 1 (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
2n 1 2n
(3) (4) (3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
2n 1 2n 1
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements
29. The given graph shows the variation of velocity with
32. Assertion : In the presence of air resistance, if the
displacement. Which one of the graphs given below
ball is thrown vertically upwards then time of ascent
correctly represents the variation of acceleration
is less than the time of descent.
with displacement?
Reason : Force due to air friction always acts
v
opposite to the motion of the body.
v0
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
x0 x is not the correct explanation of the assertion
a a (3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements
x
33. Assertion : Average velocity can be zero, but average
(1) (2)
x speed of a moving body cannot be zero in any finite
interval .
a a Reason : For a moving body displacement can be
zero but distance can never be zero.
x x
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(3) (4) reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
30. The acceleration-time(a-t) graph of a particle moving is not the correct explanation of the assertion
along a straight line is as shown in figure. At what (3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
time the particle acquires its initial velocity? (4) Both assertion and reason are false statements
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Motion in a Plane CHAPTER 2
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Motion in a plane can be treated as superposition of Introduction
two separate simultaneous one dimensional motion
Projectile Motion
along two perpendicular direction.
Projection From Some Height
PROJECTILE MOTION
Circular Motion
A projectile is a body thrown into uniform
Uniform Circular Motion
gravitational field of earth (i.e., near the earth
surface) which follows a path determined entirely Non-uniform Circular Motion
by the effects of acceleration due to gravity and Assignment
air resistance. In this section we will neglect
the effects of air resistance and will assume
that the acceleration due to gravity is constant
throughout the trajectory of projectile.
Equation of Trajectory
y
u P(x, y)
uy = u sin
y
(0, 0) x
ux = u cos
x
As the projectile moves on a curved path its position changes on both x and y-axes. The analysis of motion
is easier if we treat the x-direction motion and y-direction motion separately. The x-component of particle's
acceleration is zero while the y-component of acceleration is constant and vertically downward. That is,
ax = 0 and ay = –g
The motion on the whole is a uniformly accelerated motion.
gx 2 ⎡ x⎤
y x tan y x tan ⎢1– ⎥
2
2u cos 2 ⎣ R ⎦
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14 Motion in a Plane Physics - NSEJS
u 2 sin 2
Hmax =
2g
Range
2
R u sin 2
g
2u x uy
R
g
Note : (i) If it is at the same height h after time t1 and t2 from the time of projection then total time of flight
1
T = t1 + t2 and h gt1t 2
2
u
t1 t=
t= t2
h h
t=0
(ii) If horizontal range of the projectile is R and maximum height attained is H then
R 4
H tan
H
R
If range is n times maximum height attained then the angle of projection is given by
4
tan
n
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Physics - NSEJS Motion in a Plane 15
For two complementary angle and 90° – , the range of projectile is same and for a given u the maximum
range is obtained for = 45°.
Note : (i) It is important to remember that the above formulae of Time of flight, Maximum height and Range
are applicable only for those projectiles which land on the same horizontal level. If the projectile
lands on different horizontal level, we should use the equations of motion separately for horizontal
and vertical directions to solve the problem.
y
u
A(x, h)
(ii)
h
x
O x M R – x B
tan tan tan
2h
or R u.
g
Equation of Trajectory
1 x2
y g
2 u2
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16 Motion in a Plane Physics - NSEJS
CIRCULAR MOTION
When a particle moves around a circle or a circular arc, the motion is called circular motion. The speed of
particle in circular motion may or may not vary with time but the direction of velocity keeps on changing
moment to moment, therefore the circular motion is always accelerated. If the speed of particle does not
change with time, the circular motion is called Uniform circular motion, and when the speed changes with
time the circular motion is called Non-uniform circular motion.
y
v
P
r
x
d
d
d
(iii) Angular acceleration ( ) : The angular acceleration at an instant is defined as the rate of change
of angular velocity () w.r.t. time. That is,
d
dt
The direction of is in the direction of if the angular speed increases with time and the is opposite
to if the angular speed decreases with time.
Relation between Angular Variables and Linear Variables
)
(a) The speed (v) and the angular speed (
v r or instantaneous speed = (angular speed) × (radius)
This relation holds at all instant for both uniform and non-uniform circular motions.
)
(b) The tangential acceleration (aT) and the angular acceleration (
Tangential acceleration is the rate at which the speed of particle changes in circular motion.
aT = r or tangential acceleration = (angular acceleration) × (radius)
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Physics - NSEJS Motion in a Plane 17
UNIFORM CIRCULAR MOTION
In uniform circular motion the speed (v) of the particle does not change with time. v
speed (v) is constant Angular speed () is constant (as v = r)
d 0
aT dv 0 v v
dt dt
Although the v and are constant, the tangential acceleration (aT) and the angular
acceleration are zero, still the particle is accelerating! It is because the direction v
v
of velocity changes with time which changes the velocity vector v . Let us find this
acceleration which changes the direction of velocity.
v2
Thus, centripetal acceleration has a constant magnitude , but since it is always directed towards the
r
centre, its direction changes continuously. Hence, ac is not a constant vector.
Time Period and Frequency
The time taken by an object, moving along a circular path, to complete one revolution is called its time period.
It is usually denoted by T.
2r
T
v
2 ⎡ v⎤
T ⎢∵ r ⎥
⎣ ⎦
Number of revolutions completed by the particle in one second is called its frequency .
1
T
2
= 2
ac = 2r = (2)2r
ac = 422r
These are few important expressions useful in studying uniform circular motion.
2 2
⎛ dv ⎞ ⎛⎜ v 2 ⎞⎟
a ⎜ ⎟
⎝ dt ⎠ ⎝ r ⎠
Note : In non-uniform circular motion, the direction of acceleration vector a may or may not
be towards the centre but the direction of centripetal acceleration (a R ) is always towards
the centre.
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Choose the correct answer :
1. A particle is projected vertically upwards and 5. If angular velocity of a disc depends on the angle
it reaches the maximum height H in T rotated as = 2 + 2, then its angular
seconds. The height of the particle at any time acceleration when = 1 rad is
t will be (1) 8 rad/s2 (2) 10 rad/s2
2 2
(1) H – g(t – T) (2) g(t – T) (3) 12 rad/s2 (4) None of these
1 g 6. If the radii of circular path of two particles are in
(3) H – g(t – T)2 (4) (t – T)2
2 2 the ratio of 1 : 2, then in order to have same
2. Particle is dropped from the height of 20 m on centripetal acceleration, their speeds should be in
horizontal ground. There is wind blowing due to the ratio of
which horizontal acceleration of the particle (1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
becomes 6 ms–2. The horizontal displacement of
the particle till it reaches ground is
(3) 1: 2 (4) 2 :1
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20 Motion in a Plane Physics - NSEJS
10. The second's hand of a watch has length 6 cm. 15. A ball is projected from a certain point on the
Speed of end point and magnitude of difference of surface of a planet at a certain angle with the
velocities at two perpendicular positions will be horizontal surface. The horizontal and vertical
(1) 2 & 0 mm/s (2) 2 2 & 4.44 mm/s displacements x and y vary with time t in second
as : x = 10 3 t; y = 10t – t 2 the maximum
(3) 2 2 & 2p mm/s (4) 2 & 2 2 mm/s
height attained by the ball is
11. A spot light S rotates in a horizontal plane with a
(1) 100 m (2) 75 m
constant angular velocity of 0.1 rad/s. The spot of
light P moves along the wall at a distance 3 m. (3) 50 m (4) 25 m
What is the velocity of the spot P when = 45°? 16. The horizontal range of a projectile is R and the
Wall maximum height attained by it is H. A strong
P
wind now begins to blow in the direction of motion
of the projectile, giving it a constant horizontal
3m acceleration = g/2. Under the same conditions of
(Top view) projection, the horizontal range of the projectile is
(1) R + H (2) R + 2H
S(spot light) (3) R (4) R + H/2
(1) 0.6 m/s (2) 0.5 m/s 17. A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is projected at
(3) 0.4 m/s (4) 0.3 m/s an angle of 45° to the horizontal. The kinetic
12. A particle is projected from a point P(2,0,0) m with energy of the ball at the highest point of its flight
a velocity 10 m/s making an angle 45° with the will be
horizontal. The plane of projectile motion passes (1) E (2) E/ 2
through a horizontal line PQ which makes an angle (3) E/2 (4) Zero
of 37° with positive x-axis, xy-plane is horizontal. 18. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed v0 at an
The coordinates of the point where the particle will angle of projection . From the same point and at
strike the line PQ is (Take g = 10 m/s2) the same instant, a person starts running with a
(1) (10, 6, 0) m (2) (8, 6, 0) m v0
constant speed to catch the ball. Will the
(3) (10, 8, 0) m (4) (6, 10, 0) m 2
person be able to catch the ball? If yes, what
13. A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity 2gh
should be the angle of projection?
from the top of a tower of height h. It strikes the
level ground through the foot of the tower at a (1) Yes, 60° (2) Yes, 30°
distance x from the tower. The value of x is (3) No (4) Yes, 45
(1) h (2) h/2 19. A projectile can have the same range R for two
(3) 2h (4) 2h/3 angles of projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of
flights in the two cases, then the product of the
14. A particle A is projected with speed vA from a point
two times of flights is proportional to
making an angle 60° with the horizontal. At the
same instant, a second particle B is thrown 1
(1) R2 (2)
vertically upward from a point directly below the R2
maximum height point of parabolic path of A with 1
velocity vB. If the two particles collide then the ratio (3) (4) R
R
of vA/vB should be 20. A particle is projected at 60° to the horizontal with
2 a kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy at the
(1) 1 (2) highest point is
3
3 (1) K (2) Zero
(3) (4) 3 (3) K/4 (4) K/2
2
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Physics - NSEJS Motion in a Plane 21
21. A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all 25. A particle is dropped from a height h. Another
around it. If the speed of water coming out of the particle which was initially at a horizontal
fountain is v, the total area around the fountain that distance d from the first, is simultaneously
gets wet is projected with a horizontal velocity u and the
two particles just collide on the ground. The
v4 v2
(1) (2) three quantities h, d and u are related as
2 g2 g2
u2 h 2u 2 h
v2 v4 (1) d2 = (2) d2 =
(3) (4) 2 2g g
g g
(3) d = h (4) gd2 = u2h
22. A boy can throw a stone up to a maximum height
26. A particle is projected from a tower as shown in
of 10 m. The maximum horizontal distance that the
figure, then the distance from the foot of the
boy can throw the same stone up to will be
tower where it will strike the ground will be
(1) 20 m (2) 20 2 m (Take g = 10 m/s2)
37°
(3) 10 m (4) 10 2 m
500 m/s
1500 m 3
23. A parachutist drops freely from an aeroplane for 10 s
before the parachute opens out. Then he descends
with a net retardation of 2.5 m/s2. If he bails out of
the plane at a height of 2495 m and g = 10 m/s2, (1) 4000/3 m (2) 5000/3 m
hit velocity on reaching the ground will be (3) 2000 m (4) 3000 m
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s 27. A particle is kept fixed on a turntable rotating
uniformly. As seen from the ground, the particle
(3) 15 m/s (4) 20 m/s
goes in a circle, its speed is 20 cm/s and
24. Graphs I and II give coordinates x(t) and y(t) of a acceleration is 20 cm/s 2. The particle is now
particle moving in the x-y plane. Acceleration of the shifted to a new position to make the radius half of
particle is constant and the graphs are drawn to the original value. The new values of the speed and
the same scale. Which of the vector shown in acceleration will be
options best represents the acceleration of the
(1) 10 cm/s, 10 cm/s2 (2) 10 cm/s, 80 cm/s2
particle?
(3) 40 cm/s, 10 cm/s2 (4) 40 cm/s, 40 cm/s2
y 28. A particle A moves along a circle of radius
x R = 50 cm so that its radius vector r relative to
(II) O the point O (figure) rotates with the constant
(I)
t angular velocity = 0.40 rad/s. Then modulus of
t the velocity v of the particle, and the modulus of
O –y
its total acceleration a will be
y A
O x
r R
(1) a (2)
x a O
O
y
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22 Motion in a Plane Physics - NSEJS
29. A person drops a stone from a building of height 32. Assertion : Angular displacement is vector
20 m. At the same instant the front end of a quantity only for small values.
truck passes below the building moving with
Reason : The direction of angular displacement is
constant acceleration of 1 m/s2 and velocity of
perpendicular to the plane of rotation of object
2 m/s at that instant. Length of the truck if the
stone just misses to hit its rear part is (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) 6 m (2) 4 m
assertion
(3) 5 m (4) 2 m
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
30. A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high building reason is not the correct explanation of the
throws a ball with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of assertion
30° with the horizontal. How far from the throwing point
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is
will the ball be at the height of 10 m from the ground?
false
1 3
[Take g = 10 m/s2, sin30° = , cos 30° = ] (4) Both assertion and reason are false
2 2 statements
(1) 5.20 m (2) 4.33 m
33. Assertion : Path of a projectile with respect to
(3) 2.60 m (4) 8.66 m another projectile is a straight.
Direction : In the following questions, a statement of Reason : Acceleration of a projectile with respect
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). to another projectile is zero.
31. Assertion : At the highest point the velocity of (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
projectile is zero. reason is the correct explanation of the
Reason : At maximum height projectile comes to assertion
rest. (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason (3) Assertion is true statement but reason is
is not the correct explanation of the assertion false
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false (4) Both assertion and reason are false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements statements
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Laws of Motion CHAPTER 3
NEWTON’S FIRST LAW OF MOTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
If the net external force is zero, a body at rest continues to
remain at rest and a body in motion continues to move with Newton’s First Law of Motion
a uniform velocity. This property of the body is known as Momentum
inertia. Inertia means ‘resistance to change’. A body does not
Newton’s Second Law of Motion
change its state of rest or uniform motion, unless an external
force compels it to change that state. Newton’s Third Law of Motion
The first law of motion can be simply expressed as Conservation of Momentum
“If the net external force on a body is zero, its acceleration Various Force in Nature
is zero. Acceleration can be non-zero only if there is a net Friction
external force on the body.”
Circular Motion
Assignment
Inertia and its Types
There are three types of inertia :
(i) Inertia of rest (ii) Inertia of motion
(iii) Inertia of direction
Frame of Reference
In order to describe the motion of an object, we use a specific origin with a reference system of coordinate
axes called frame of reference. The frame of reference may be attached to ground, another stationary object
or a moving object. We can classify the frame of reference into two categories.
(i) Inertial frame of reference : A frame of reference attached to a stationary object or an object moving
with constant velocity is called Inertial frame of reference. In such frames, Newton's laws are directly
applicable.
(ii) Non-inertial frame of reference : A frame of reference attached to an accelerated object is called non-
inertial frame of reference. In such frames, Newton's laws are not directly applicable.
MOMENTUM
It is defined as the quantity of motion contained in a body. It is measured as the product of mass of the body and its
velocity and has the same direction as that of the velocity. It is a vector quantity. It is represented by p.
Momentum (p) = Mass (m) × Velocity (v)
or p mv
In vector form, we may write as
p mv
The SI unit of momentum is kg m/s.
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24 Laws of Motion Physics - NSEJS
NEWTON'S SECOND LAW OF MOTION
"The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the applied force and it takes place
in the direction in which the force acts.”
Mathematical Formulation of Second Law
p p
F or F k
t t
p
where k is a constant of proportionality. Taking the limit t 0, the term becomes the derivative or
t
dp
differential coefficient of p w.r.t. t, denoted by .
dt
dp
F k
dt
As p mv
d (mv )
F k
dt
dv
F km (Here mass remains the same)
dt
⎛ dv ⎞
F kma ⎜⎜∵ a ⎟
⎝ dt ⎟⎠
The value of constant of proportionality k is considered as 1 for simplicity, so that in both the SI and CGS
system of units, it may be selected in simple manner.
By taking k = 1, we get
F ma
"If the unbalanced external force (net force) acts on a body, the body accelerates. The direction of acceleration
is the same as the direction of the net force."
(i) If F = 0 than by second law, it implies that a = 0. This means that second law is obviously consistent
with the first law.
(ii) The second law of motion is a vector law. In component of the vectors, we have
dp dpy dpz
Fx x max , Fy may , F z maz
dt dt dt
This implies that if a force is applied at some angle to the velocity of the body, then only the component
of velocity along the direction of force is changed. The component of velocity normal to the force remains
unchanged.
(iii) The equation F ma , is applicable to a single point particle. Only net external force is considered on
the system (for system of particles or a rigid body). Any internal forces in the system are not to be
included in F .
(iv) The acceleration of a particle at a point (location of the body) and at a certain instant of time is determined
by the force at that point and at that instant. The acceleration is independent of the history of
motion.
Impulse
When a force acts on a body, it produces a change in momentum. This effect is called impulse. Impulse of
a force acting on a body is the change in momentum of the body. By Newton's Second law,
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Physics - NSEJS Laws of Motion 25
d p
F
dt
d p F dt . Integrating,
∫
d p F dt ∫
p F dt
∫
∫
This is written as impulse I F .dt p .
CONSERVATION OF MOMENTUM
According to conservation of linear momentum, “The total momentum of an isolated system of interacting
particles is conserved”. In other words, “If there is no net external force acting on the system, the total
momentum remains conserved.” In other words, “for an isolated system the initial momentum of the
system is equal to the final momentum of the system”.
Application of Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum
1. Recoil velocity of Gun 2. Rocket propulsion
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26 Laws of Motion Physics - NSEJS
F F F F
The opposing force is directly proportional to the change in length. It is given by F = kx, where k is a constant
for a given spring.
FRICTION
It is a contact froce which opposes the relative motion of a body.
The force of friction depends on the normal reaction.
Force of friction is independent of area of contact.
Kinetic and Static Friction
(i) fk = kN
The direction of fk on a body is opposite to the velocity of this body relative to the body applying the
friction force fk.
(ii) 0 fs sN
The direction and magnitude of fs are adjusted, so that the condition of no slipping is insured.
(iii) The frictional force fk or fs does not depend on the macroscopic area or shape of contact as long as
the normal force N is unchanged.
Note : Friction and normal forces are always perpendicular : Remember that fk = kN is not a vector
equation because fk and N are always perpendicular. Rather, it is a scalar relationship between the
magnitudes of the two forces.
Figure (a), (b) and (c), when there is no relative motion, the magnitude of the static friction force fs is less
than or equal to sN. (d) When there is relative motion, the magnitude of the kinetic friction force fk equals
kN. (e) A graph of the friction force magnitude f as a function of the magnitude T of the applied force T.
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Physics - NSEJS Laws of Motion 27
The kinetic friction force varies somewhat as intermolecular bonds form and break.
(a) N (b) N (c) N (d) N
T T T
fs fs fk
w w w w
No applied force, Weak applied force, Stronger applied force, Box sliding at
box at rest. box remains at rest. box just about to slide. constant speed.
No friction : Static friction : Static friction : Kinetic friction :
fs = 0 fs < sN fs = sN fk = kN
f
(e)
(fs)max
fk
45°
Applied force
CIRCULAR MOTION
Motion of a car on a level road
N
mg
v max s Rg
This is the maximum velocity with which car can go around a level move, without skidding.
Motion of a car on a banked road
N
v2
a
R
f mg
O X
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Choose the correct answer :
1. A body of mass m1 exerts a force on another body 4. A monkey is sitting on the pan of a spring balance
of mass m2. If the magnitude of acceleration of m2 which is placed on an elevator. The maximum
is a2, then the magnitude of the acceleration of m1 reading of the spring balance will be when
is (considering only two bodies in space) (1) The elevator is stationary
m2 a2 (2) The string of the elevator breaks and it drops
(1) Zero (2) m
1 freely towards the earth
m1a2 (3) The elevator is accelerated downwards
(3) m2 (4) a2
(4) The elevator is accelerated upwards.
2. In the figure, the position-time (x-t) graph of a 5. A block of mass 3 kg is at rest on a rough inclined
particle of mass 0·1 kg is shown. The impulse at plane as shown in the figure. The magnitude of net
t = 2 s is force exerted by the surface on the block will be
6 (Take g = 10 m/s2)
4 3 kg
x (m)
2
O 2 4 6 30º
t (s)
(1) 0·2 kgms–1 (2) –0·2 kgms–1 (1) 26 N (2) 19.5 N
(3) 0·1 kgms –1
(4) –0·4 kgms –1 (3) 10 N (4) 30 N
3. Figures I, II, III and IV depict variation of force F with 6. A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall
time t applying a horizontal force of 5 N on the block. If
F(N) Figure (I) F(N) Figure (II) the coefficient of friction between the block and the
wall is 0.5, the magnitude of the frictional force
0·25 0·3 acting on the block is
(1) 2.5 N (2) 0.98 N
O O
1
t (ms) 1 2 (3) 4.9 N (4) 0.49 N
t (ms)
7. is the angle of the incline when a block of mass
F(N) Figure (III) F(N) Figure (IV)
m just starts slipping down. The distance covered
1 1 by the block if thrown up the incline with an initial
speed v0 is
O O v 02 4v 02
t (ms) 1 t (ms) 1 (1) (2)
4g sin g sin
In which situation wiil the impulse be maximum?
(1) I & II (2) I & III v 02 sin 4v 02 sin
(3) (4)
(3) III & IV (4) Only IV 4g g
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Physics - NSEJS Laws of Motion 29
8. Two forces are simultaneously applied on an object. 10. A block of weight W is suspended by a string of
What third force would make the net force to point fixed length. The ends of the string are held at
to the left (–x direction)? various positions as shown in the figures below. In
y
which case, if any, is the magnitude of the tension
along the string largest?
F
F x
(1)
y
F2
45°
(1) x
y (2)
(2) x
30°
2F
y
(3)
x
45°
(3)
F2
(4)
2F x
(4)
9. The adjoining figure shows a force of 40 N pulling a 11. When forces F1, F2, F3 are acting on a particle of
body of mass 5 kg in a direction 30° above the mass m such that F 2 and F 3 are mutually
horizontal. The body is in rest on a smooth horizontal perpendicular, then the particle remains stationary.
surface. Assuming acceleration of free-fall is 10 m/s2, If the force F1 is now removed then the acceleration
which of the following statements I and II is/are correct? of the particle is
40 N
(1) F1/m (2) F2F3/mF1
30°
(3) (F2 – F3)/m (4) F2/m
5 kg
12. Three identical blocks of masses m = 2 kg are
drawn by a force F with an acceleration of 0.6 ms–2
I. The weight of the 5 kg mass acts vertically on a horizontal frictionless surface. What is the
downwards tension (in N) in the string between the blocks
II. The net vertical force acting on the body is B and C?
30 N.
(1) Only I C B A F
(2) Only II
(1) 9.2 (2) 1.2
(3) Both I and II
(3) 4 (4) 9.8
(4) None of these
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30 Laws of Motion Physics - NSEJS
13. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the Pm Pm
other light spring balance and a block of mass (1) M m (2) M m
M kg hangs from the former one. Then the true
statement about the scale reading is
PM
(3) P (4) M m
(1) Both the scales read M kg each
(2) The scale of the lower one reads M kg and of 17. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold
the upper one zero a block stationary against a vertical wall. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the wall
(3) The reading of the two scales can be anything is 0.2. The weight of the block is
but the sum of the readings will be M kg
1
(3) |v| in the direction of largest force BC (2) k = 1
n2
(4) v , remaining unchanged
1
(3) s = 1 –
16. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal n2
frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force
P is applied at the free end of the rope, the force 1
(4) s = 1
exerted by the rope on the block is n2
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Physics - NSEJS Laws of Motion 31
21. Consider a car moving on a straight road with a 25. A pulley is attached to the ceiling of a lift moving
speed of 100 m/s. The distance at which car can upwards. Two particles are attached to the two
be stopped is [Take k = 0.5] ends of a string passing over the pulley. The
(1) 800 m (2) 1000 m masses of the particles are in the ratio 2 : 1. If the
acceleration of the particles is g/2, then the
(3) 100 m (4) 400 m acceleration of the lift will be
22. A insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very
g
slowly (see the figure). The coefficient of friction (1) g (2)
2
1
between the surface and the insect is . If the line g g
3
(3) (4)
joining the centre of the hemispherical surface to 3 4
the insect makes an angle with the vertical, the 26. Two blocks A and B of masses m and 2m
maximum possible value of is given respectively are held at rest such that the spring
is in natural length. What is the magnitude
acceleration of both the blocks just after release?
(1) g, g
M (1)
t
O
(1) 2 Mg
a
(2) 2 mg
(3) ( M m )2 m 2 g (2)
t
O
(4) (M m ) M
2 2
g a
24. A monkey is descending from the branch of a tree
with constant acceleration. If the breaking strength
of branch is 75% of the weight of the monkey, the (3)
t
minimum acceleration with which the monkey can O
slide down without breaking the branch is
a
3g
(1) g (2)
4
(4)
g g
(3) (4) t
4 2 O
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32 Laws of Motion Physics - NSEJS
–2
28. An ideal string is passing over a smooth pulley (1) 4.9 ms in vertical direction.
as shown. Two blocks m1 and m2 are connected (2) 4.9 ms–2 in horizontal direction
at the ends of the string. If m1 = 1 kg and tension
in the string is 10 N, mass m 2 is equal to (3) 9.8 ms–2 in vertical direction
(g = 10 m/s2) (4) Zero
31. Statement 1 : According to Newton’s third law of
motion for every action there is an equal and
opposite reaction.
Statement 2 : There is no time lag between action
and reaction
m2
m1 (1) Only statement-1 is correct
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
(1) 1 kg (2) 1.5 kg (3) Both the statements are correct
(3) 2 kg (4) 0.5 kg (4) Both the statements are incorrect
29. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when 32. Statement 1 : The centripetal and centrifugal
given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in forces never cancel each other.
10 s. The coefficient of friction is
Statement 2 : They are action and reaction forces.
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.03
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
(3) 0.06 (4) 0.01
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
30. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an
(3) Both the statements are correct
angle 30° and 60° with the vertical are shown in the
figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the two (4) Both the statements are incorrect
planes. What is the relative vertical acceleration of 33. Statement 1 : Acceleration of an object in uniform
A with respect to B? motion is zero.
Statement 2 : No force is required to move an
A
object uniformly.
B (1) Only statement-1 is correct
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
60° 30°
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
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Work, Energy and Power CHAPTER 4
WORK THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
If a force F is applied on a body in a direction different from
the direction of displacement of the body and the body Work
undergoes a displacement d in the positive X-direction as The Work-Energy Theorem
shown in figure
Power
F
Conservative and Non-conservative Forces
The Conservation of Mechanical Energy
Collisions
Assignment
d
Direction of motion
The work done by the force is defined as the product of component of the force in the direction of the
displacement and the magnitude of this displacement.
So, W (F cos )d F d
Y
1
cos 0 X
90 180 270 360
–1
Negative work
W F d Fd cos .
Work done is negative when is obtuse ( > 90°). cos is negative (Refer to above figure) cos is negative for
> 90°). For example,
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34 Work, Energy and Power Physics - NSEJS
Zero work
W F d Fd cos 0 when F = 0 or d = 0 or cos = 0 ( = 90°)
THE WORK-ENERGY THEOREM
The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the work done on it by the net force. Work
refers to the force and displacement over which it acts. Work is done by the net force over a specific
displacement on the body.
Kf Ki W
Note : In Work-Energy theorem, work done represents the summation of work done by all the forces.
POWER
Power is defined as the time rate at which work is done or energy is transferred. The average power of a force
is defined as the ratio of the work, W to the total time t taken
W
Pav
t
The instantaneous power is defined as the limiting value of the average power as time interval approaches
zero.
dW
P
dt
-2
Path
A
For path 1, W1 represents the work done and for path 2, W2 represents the work done
If F is a conservative force, W1 = W2.
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Physics - NSEJS Work, Energy and Power 35
Now, if the particles moves from A to B via path 1 and returns to A via path 2, total workdone on the
particle by the force is zero. This means that while moving from A to B, the force supplied some energy
to the particle and during its return journey from any path, from B to A, it takes away the same amount of
energy from the particle. Or, for a round trip or closed path, there is no loss or gain of energy by the
particle. This is why, the force is called conservative force. The examples of conservative forces are
gravitational force, spring force and electrostatic force.
2. Non-Conservative Force :
When the work done by a force during the movement of a particle from A to B is different for different
paths, the force is said to be non-conservative. In this situation, if a particle moves from A to B via a path
1 and returns from B to A via a path 2, the total workdone will not be zero. That is,
WAB + WBA 0
1 2
or |WAB | |WBA |.
1 2
th-1 B
Pa
A -2
Path
Usually the total workdone by the force during the round trip is negative. If it is so, then the force is called
dissipative force as it dissipates the energy of the body. The most common example of dissipative force
is force of friction. It dissipates the energy of the particle in the form of heat.
Potential Energy
When a body moves under the action of a conservative force F through a small displacement dr , the work
done by the conservative force is dWcons. F . dr . The work done by the conservative force is equal to
decrease in potential energy of the system. Let U be the potential energy and –dU be the decrease in potential
energy. Then
–dU = dWcons.
or, dU F . dr
r2
U U2 U1 ∫ dU ∫ F dr
r1
The work done by a conservative force such as gravity or the spring force depends on the initial and final
positions only.
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36 Work, Energy and Power Physics - NSEJS
R
O Q Q
O
P v1
P
(a) (b)
(1) If v 0 5gl , the bob will complete full circular path.
(2) If v 0 5gl , the tension at the top is zero but the velocity is gl 0 .
(3) If 2gl v 0 5gl , the bob leaves the circular trajectory when the tension in the string is zero but
the speed of the bob is not zero. When the bob leaves the circular trajectory, 90° < < 180°, where
is the angular displacement from the lowest position of the bob.
(4) If 0 v 0 2gl , the bob will oscillate about the lowest position having maximum angular
displacement 0 ( 90°). For 0 < 90°, the speed will be zero at the extreme position but the tension
will not be zero. For 0 = 90°, the speed as well as tension will be zero.
Tension
TP – TQ = 3 mg
TP – TR = 6 mg
The tension in the string is maximum at lowest point P.
And The tension in the string is minimum at highest point R.
COLLISIONS
Total momentum of the system remains conserved at all instants before, after and during the collision.
Coefficient of Restitution
The coefficient of restitution is an experimental quantity used to represent the nature of collision between
the objects. For a purely one-dimensional collision, coefficient of restitution (e) is defined by the
relationship
v 2 v1 e(u2 u1 )
Here v 2 v1 represents the relative velocity of object 2 with respect to object 1 after collision and u 2 u1
represents the relative velocity of object 2 with respect to object 1 before collision.
Elastic Collision
If, in a particular collision, there is no dissipation of energy, the total kinetic energy of the objects before
collision is equal to total kinetic energy of the objects after collision. Such a collision is termed as elastic
collision.
e=1
Inelastic Collision
When there is a loss of kinetic energy, the value of e is < 1.
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Physics - NSEJS Work, Energy and Power 37
Kinetic Energy Transferred from Projectile to Target
If two bodies of masses M1 and M2, moving with velocities u1 and u2 respectively, collide head-on elastically,
then
Maximum transfer of kinetic energy occurs, if M1 = M2 and either u1 or u2 is zero.
If M2 = nM1 and u2 = 0
4M1M2
(M1 M2 )2
Inelastic collision
(i) Suppose a body is dropped from a height h0 and it strikes the ground with velocity v0. If v1, v2,....vn and
h1, h2, ....hn be the velocities and heights after the first, second ........ , nth hit (respectively) with the ground
then the coefficient of restitution.
vn hn
or en
v0 h0
(ii) The loss in kinetic energy during an inelastic collision is
1 M1M 2
E (1 e 2 )(u1 u 2 )2 , where e is the coefficient of restitution.
2 M1 M 2
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Choose the correct answer :
1. The work done in moving a particle under the effect 5. A cube of mass M starts at rest from point 1 at
of a conservative force, from position A to B is a height 4R, where R is the radius of the circular
3 joule and from B to C is 4 joule. The work done track. The cube slides down the frictionless track
in moving the particle from A to C is and around the loop. The force which the track
A exerts on the cube at point 2 is
(1) 5 joule Point 1
2. A block of mass m moving with speed v (4) Cube will not reach the point 2
compresses a spring through distance x before its
speed is halved. The value of spring constant is 6. Two identical blocks A and B are placed on two
inclined planes as shown in diagram. Neglect air
3mv 2 mv 2 resistance and other friction. Choose the correct
(1) (2)
4x 2 4x 2 statement :
mv 2 2mv 2
(3) (4) A L N B
2x 2 x2
3 A force acts on a 3 gm particle in such a way h h
that the position of the particle as a function of
Fixed Fixed
time is given by x = 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is in
J K M 2l O
meters and t is in seconds. The work done during
the first 4 seconds is
Statement I: Kinetic energy of A on sliding to J
(1) 384 mJ (2) 168 mJ will be greater than the kinetic energy of B on
(3) 528 mJ (4) 541 mJ falling to M.
4. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light Statement II: Acceleration of A will be greater than
rigid rod of length l and rotated in a vertical acceleration of B when both are released to slide on
circular path about its other end. The minimum inclined plane.
speed of the particle at its highest point must be
Statement III : Work done by external agent to
(1) Zero move block slowly from position B to O is negative.
(4) 8 ms–1
25m
12. A particle is moved from (0, 0) to (a, a) under a
/ // / //
B
//
force F (3iˆ 4 jˆ) from two paths. Path 1 is OP
//
//
15m
//
//
//
//
//
//////
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40 Work, Energy and Power Physics - NSEJS
15. A particle moves in a straight line with retardation 20. At time t = 0 s particle starts moving along the
proportional to its displacement. Its loss of kinetic x-axis. If its kinetic energy increases uniformly with
energy for any displacement x is proportional to time t, the net force acting on it must be
proportional to
(1) x2 (2) ex
(3) x (4) logex (1) t (2) Constant
M A
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Physics - NSEJS Work, Energy and Power 41
24. A ball hits the floor and rebounds after an 2
(1) Velocity of the block C after collision is v
inelastic collision. In this case 3
towards right
(1) The momentum of the ball just after the
collision is the same as that just before the (2) Velocity of the A–B combination after
collision v
collision is towards left
(2) The mechanical energy of the ball remains the 3
same in the collision (3) Velocity of the A–B combination after
(3) The total momentum of the ball and the earth 2
collision is v towards left
is conserved 3
26. A body of mass 2 kg is projected upward from the (4) Kinetic energy is m2v2/2(M + m)
surface of the ground at t = 0 with a velocity of
29. A bomb of mass 16 kg at rest explodes into two
20 m/s. One second later a body B, also of mass
2 kg, is dropped from a height of 20 m. If they collide pieces of masses 4 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of
elastically, then velocities just after collision are the 12 kg mass is 4 ms–1. The kinetic energy of
the other mass is
(1) vA = 5 m/s downward, vB = 5 m/s upward
(1) 144 J
(2) vA = 10 m/s downward, vB= 5 m/s upward
(2) 288 J
(3) vA = 10 m/s upward, vB = 10 m/s downward
(3) 192 J
(4) Both move downward with velocity 5 m/s
(4) 96 J
27. Three blocks A, B and C each of mass m are
placed on a surface as shown in the figure. 30. A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of
Blocks B and C are initially at rest. Block A is 2 ms–1 on a smooth surface. It strikes another
moving to the right with speed v. It collides with mass of 1 kg and then they move together as a
block B and sticks to it. The A–B combination
single body. The energy loss during the collision is
collides elastically with block C. Which of the
following statement is/are true about the velocity, (1) 0.16 J
of block B and C?
(2) 1 J
m m m
(3) 0.67 J
A B C
(4) 0.34 J
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42 Work, Energy and Power Physics - NSEJS
31. Statement 1 : When a man is walking on a rough (1) Only statement-1 is correct
road, the work done by frictional force is zero.
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
Statement 2 : Frictional force acts in the direction (3) Both the statements are correct
of motion of the man in this case.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
33. Statement 1 : The change in kinetic energy of a
(2) Only statement-2 is correct particle is equal to the work done on it by the net
force.
(3) Both the statements are correct
Statement 2 : The work energy theorem can be
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
used only in conservative field.
32. Statement 1 : Power delivered by the tension in (1) Only statement-1 is correct
the wire to a body in vertical circle is always zero.
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
Statement 2 : Tension in the wire is equal to the
centripetal force acting on the body doing vertical (3) Both the statements are correct
circular motion. (4) Both the statements are incorrect
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System of Particles and
Rotational Motion CHAPTER 5
CENTRE OF MASS THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Centre of mass is a very special point. Studying the Centre of Mass
motion of this special point simplifies the study of
motion of system consisting of large number of Motion of Centre of Mass
particles. Relation between Linear and Angular Variable
If n particles of masses m 1 , m 2 , m 3 ...m n having
Torque of a Force about a Point
coordinates, (x1, y1), (x2, y2), ...(xn, yn) lie in a plane,
then the coordinate (x, y) of the centre of mass is given Equilibrium of a Rigid Body
by
n
Moment of Inertia
m1x1 m2 x2 ...mn xn
∑m x
i 1
i i Rolling Motion of Rigid Bodies
x
m1 m2 ...mn n Torque and Angular Momentum for a System of
∑m
i 1
i
Particles
n Assignment
m1y1 m2 y 2 ... mn y n ∑m y i i
y =
i 1
m1 m2 ... mn n
∑m
i 1
i
∑m
i 1
= M, where M is total mass of the system
n n
∑m x i i ∑m x i i
x= i 1 ,y= i 1
M M
Now, if these n particles, do not lie in a plane, rather distributed in space, then each particle will have a
(x, y, z) coordinate and in that case the coordinates (x, y, z) of the centre of mass of the system is given by
n n n
∑m x i i ∑m y
i 1
i i ∑m z
i 1
i i
i1
x= , y= and z =
M M M
Now, if the centre of mass of the system lies on the origin then, the position vector R is zero
n
i.e., ∑ mi ri = 0 for the given system of particles.
i 1
∑ mi
n
∑ mi ai
i 1
2. Acceleration of CM, aCM n
∑ mi
i 1
⎛ n ⎞
3. Momentum of system, P P1 P2 ...... Pn ⎜ ∑ mi ⎟ vCM
⎝ i 1 ⎠
if the net external force on the system is zero, the linear momentum of the system, is conserved and the centre
of mass will move with constant velocity.
x v = v0 + at = 0 + t
1 2 1
v x = x0 + v0t + at = 0 + 0t + t
2 2
2 2
v = v02 + 2a(x – x0) = 0 + 2( – 0)
2
a
n
1 2 ... n ∑i 1
= 0.
Centre of Gravity
The centre of gravity is that point of the body, where the whole weight of the body is supposed to be
concentrated. The centre of gravity coincides with the centre of mass because the body being small, g does
not vary from one point of the body to the other. If the body is so extended that g varies from part to part of
the body, then the centre of gravity and centre of mass will not coincides.
Note : Centre of mass has nothing to do with gravity, it depends only on the distribution of mass of the
body.
MOMENT OF INERTIA
For a point mass
I = mr2
m = mass of point mass r m
r = radius of the circle in which it rotates.
For n-particles system
r1 m1
m2 r2
I m1r12 m2 r22 ... mn rn2 r3 m3
n
I ∑ ri2mi rn
i 1 mn
Note : M.I. follows scalar addition, if all the moments of inertia are about same axis.
∫ ∫
I dI r 2dm (where r is the perpendicular distance from axis)
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46 System of Particles and Rotational Motion Physics - NSEJS
Theorem of Perpendicular Axes
Z
O xi
yi
X
mi
Iz I x Iy
E A
ri mi
d C.M.
F B
1 V
1 2
2
r2
r1
V
If the rope or belt or the chain does not slip over the two discs, the linear speed of any section of the rope
is same as that of a point on the periphery of the two discs. So, we have
V = 1r1 = 2r2
a = 1r1 = 2r2.
According to definition of pure rolling. "There should be no net relative velocity at any point of contact".
i.e., vcm – R = 0
v cm R
So we can re-draw the diagram of pure rolling as pure rotation about point of contact O.
2vcm
2
v cm
vcm
vcm 2
O
Similarly, we can draw for the accelerations
a + R
a R R R
R R
2 2
2
a + R
2
= a (a– R)
a a R 2
( R + a)
2
2R 2R
a R R
R (R–a)
and for pure rolling a = R
Accelerated Pure Rolling on an Inclined Plane
A uniform round body is released from rest on a very rough inclined plane, so that it rolls down without
slipping.
There are three unknown (fr , a & )
Applying equations of motion and condition of pure rolling,
Mg sin – fr = Ma ...(i) (along the plane)
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48 System of Particles and Rotational Motion Physics - NSEJS
r × fr = I ...(ii) (about centre)
a = r ...(iii)
Solving, we get fr
a
Ia Mg
Mg sin Ma
r2
g sin
a
I
1
Mr 2
For example,
Wrot ∫ .d
For translational motion, work-kinetic energy theorem has the form
W = Ktrans.
If we put it in rotational motion, work energy theorem for rotational motion becomes
Wrot K rot
i.e., net rotational work done by forces is equal to the change in rotational kinetic energy of the body.
i.e., Ki + Ui = Kf + Uf
Power
Rotational power is defined as rate of doing rotational work.
d ( . ) d
P . ·
dt dt
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Physics - NSEJS System of Particles and Rotational Motion 49
1 1
I CM2 Mv CM
2
2 2
In pure rolling on ground,
∵ vCM = R
1 1
Ktotal = ICM 2 M 2R 2 vCM
2 2
R
1
2 (ICM MR 2 ) P
2
1
I P .2 (IP = Moment of Inertia about point of contact)
2
and i is given by the equation
i r i F i
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50 System of Particles and Rotational Motion Physics - NSEJS
dL
=0
dt
or L = constant
Thus, if the total external torque on a system of particles is zero then, the total angular momentum of the
system is conserved i.e., remains constant. According to the above equation L x , L y , L z all are conserved,
L x , L y and L z are the components of angular momentum vector L along x, y and z axes respectively. The
statement that the total angular momentum is conserved means that each of these three components is
conserved. The above equation is the rotational analogue of the conservation law of the total linear momentum.
for a system of particles.
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Choose the correct answer :
1. Considering a system having two masses m1 and 4. A particle of mass 4 m which is at rest explodes
m2 in which first mass is pushed towards centre of into masses m, m and 2 m. Two of the fragments
mass by a distance a, the distance required to be of masses m and 2m are found to move with equal
moved for second mass to keep centre of mass at speeds v each in opposite directions. The total
same position is mechanical energy released in the process of
explosion is
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52 System of Particles and Rotational Motion Physics - NSEJS
7. Two persons A and B of weight 80 kg and 50 kg 1 1
(1) ML2 (2) ML2
respectively are standing at opposite ends of a boat 48 12
of mass 70 kg and length 2 m at rest. When they
1 ML3
interchange their positions then displacement of the (3) ML2 (4)
centre of mass of the boat will be 24 8 3
12. Three point masses, each of m, are placed at the
corners of an equilateral triangle of side l. Then the
moment of inertia of this system about an axis
along one side of the triangle is
(1) 3 ml2 (2) ml2
(1) 60 cm towards left (2) 30 cm towards right 3 2 3 2
(3) ml (4) ml
(3) 30 cm towards left (4) Zero 4 2
8. A body A of mass M while falling vertically 1
13. If the earth were to suddenly contract to th of its
downwards under gravity breaks into two parts; a n
present radius without any change in its mass then
1 2
body B of mass M and, a body C of mass M. the duration of the new day will be nearly
3 3
The centre of mass of bodies B and C taken 24
together shifts compared to that of body A towards (1) hour (2) 24n hour
n
(1) Depends on height of breaking
24
(2) Does not shift (3) hour (4) 24n2 hour
n2
(3) Body C
14. A circular turn table has a block of ice placed at its
(4) Body B centre. The system rotates with an angular speed
9. On account of the earth rotating about its axis about an axis passing through the centre of the
table. If the ice melts on its own without any
(1) The linear speed of objects at equator is greater evaporation, the speed of rotation of the system
than at other places
(1) Becomes zero
(2) The angular speed of objects at equator is more
(2) Remains constant at the same value of
than that of objects at poles
(3) Increases to value greater than
(3) The linear speed of objects at all places at the
earth is equal, but angular speed is different (4) Decreases to a value less than
(4) At all places the angular speed and linear speed 15. A weightless rod is acted on by upward parallel
are uniform forces of 2N and 4N at ends A and B respectively.
The total length of the rod is AB = 3 m. To keep
10. A fly wheel originally at rest is to reach an angular the rod in equilibrium a force of 6N should act in
velocity of 36 radian/s in 6 second. The total angle the following manner
it turns through in the 6 second is
(1) Downwards at any point between A and B
(1) 54 radian (2) 108 radian
(2) Downwards at mid point of AB
(3) 6 radian (4) 216 radian (3) Downwards at a point C such that AC =1 m
11. The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis through (4) Downwards at a point D such that BD =1 m
1
its centre and perpendicular to it is ML2 (where 16. If a ring, a disc, a solid sphere and a cylinder of
12 same radius rolls down on inclined plane, the first
M is the mass and L is the length of the rod). The
one to reach the bottom will be
rod is bent in the middle so that the two half make
an angle of 60°. The moment of inertia of the bent (1) Disc (2) Ring
rod about the same axis would be (3) Solid sphere (4) Cylinder
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Physics - NSEJS System of Particles and Rotational Motion 53
17. A body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal g sin g sin
(1) 2 (2)
surface and its rotational kinetic energy is equal to 1 I / MR 1 MR 2 / I
the translational kinetic energy. The body is
g sin g sin
(1) Disc (2) Sphere (3) (4)
1 I / MR 2 1 MR 2 / I
(3) Cylinder (4) Ring
23. Angular momentum of the particle rotating with a
18. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without
central force is constant due to
slipping down an inclined plane of length L and
height h. What is the speed of its centre of mass (1) Constant force
when the cylinder reaches its bottom? (2) Constant linear momentum
28. If the resultant of the external forces acting on a 31. Statement 1 : If two balls thrown simultaneously
system of particles is zero, then from an inertial in air then the acceleration of centre of mass of
frame, one can surely say that the two balls while in air depends upon the
(1) Linear momentum of the system does not masses of two balls.
change in time
Statement 2 : If a1 and a2 are the acceleration of
(2) Kinetic energy of the system does not change masses m 1 and m 2 respectively then ac
in time (Acceleration of centre of mass) is given by
(3) Angular momentum of the system does not
change in time m a m2a2
ac 1 1
(4) Potential energy of the system does not change m1 m2
in time
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
29. Statement 1 : The velocity of centre of mass of
body at the bottom of a smooth fixed inclined plane (2) Only statement-2 is correct
of given height, is more when it slide down the plane, (3) Both the statements are correct
compared to when it rolls down the same plane. (4) Both the statements are incorrect
Statement 2 : In rolling downs an inclined plane, 32. Statement 1 : A projectile gets exploded at the
a body acquire both kinetic energy of translation highest point. The centre of mass will fall at point
and rotation. which is further then the point where the projectile
(1) Only statement-1 is correct would have fallen in unexploded condition.
(2) Only statement-2 is correct Statement 2 : The weight of the projectile is the
internal force.
(3) Both the statements are correct
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
30. Statement 1 : In case of rolling without slipping
of a disc on a horizontal surface, work done by (3) Both the statements are correct
frictional force on the disc must be zero. (4) Both the statements are incorrect
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Mechanical Properties of
Fluids CHAPTER 6
PRESSURE
THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Pressure is define as the normal force acting per unit
Pressure
area of a surface i.e., P F . Variation of Pressure with Depth
A
Density Pascal’s Law
The density of any material is defined as its mass per unit Archimedes’ Principle
its volume. If a fluid of mass m occupies a volume V, then
Liquids in Accelerated Containers
its density is given as
m Assignment
Density
V
Density is usually denoted by the symbol . It is a
positive scalar quantity. Its SI unit is kg m–3 and its dimensions are [ML–3].
Relative Density : The relative density of a substance is defined as the ratio of the density of the substance
to the density of water at 4ºC. The density of water at 4ºC is 1.0 × 103 kg m–3. Relative density is a unit
less and dimensionless, scalar quantity. It is always positive.
If the density of silver is 10.8 × 103 kg m–3, then its relative density is 10.8.
Density plays an important role in describing pressure exerted by fluids.
VARIATION OF PRESSURE WITH DEPTH
P1
P2
P2 – P1 gh
If we shift the point 1 to the top of the liquid surface which is open to the atmosphere, P1 becomes the
atmospheric pressure Pa. Taking P2 as P then, equation (i) becomes
P – Pa = gh
P Pa gh
The excess pressure P – Pa, at depth h is called a gauge pressure at that point.
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56 Mechanical Properties of Fluids Physics - NSEJS
PASCAL’S LAW
This law states that the pressure in a fluid at rest is same at all points which are at the same height. A
change in pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted undiminished to every point of the fluid and
the walls of the containing vessel.
Hydraulic Lift
P1 = P2 F1
F1 F2
A1 A2 1 2
A1 A2
F1
A
F2 2 F1
A1
∵ A2 >> A1 Hydraulic lift
A2
The force F2 experienced by the piston 2 is greater than the applied force F1, by a factor .
A1
This is called the mechanical advantage of the device. Hence, by applying a small force at the narrower piston
we can support a greater force (large weight of, say a car) at the wider piston.
ARCHIMEDES’ PRINCIPLE
“The loss of weight of a body submerged (partially or fully) in a fluid is equal to the weight of the
fluid displaced.”
If the density of the block is , its weight W can be given as
W = (a3)g
The weight acts downwards, and the upthrust U acts upwards. Therefore, the apparent weight of the block
when it is fully immersed in the fluid, is
W = W – U
= a3g – a3g
3 ⎛ ⎞
= a g ⎜ 1– ⎟
⎝ ⎠
⎛ ⎞
W W ⎜ 1– ⎟
⎝ ⎠
Special Cases
(i) If =
W = 0
i.e., upthrust U balances the weight of the block. The block floats completely submerged just below the
surface of the fluid.
(ii) If >
U>W
(iii) If <
U<W
Upthrust is not sufficient enough to balance the weight of the block. Hence, the block sinks.
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Physics - NSEJS Mechanical Properties of Fluids 57
LIQUIDS IN ACCELERATED CONTAINERS
Container having Vertical Acceleration
Consider a container shown in figure. The container is accelerating upwards with an acceleration a.
a
h
h1
h2
A B
a
PA – PB = la
a
tan =
g
Horizontally Accelerating U-tube
When the U tube accelerates horizontally, difference of levels of liquid satisfies the relation,
a h
tan
g L
L
a
h
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58 Mechanical Properties of Fluids Physics - NSEJS
Pressure in a Rotating Frame
Consider a liquid of density in a container that spins with angular velocity as shown in figure.
y P
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Choose the correct answer :
1. A crown made of gold and copper weights 210 g in 4. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The
air and 198 g in water. The weight of gold in crown whole system is shown in figure falling under
is [Given : Density of gold = 19.3 g/cm 3 and gravity. The upthrust on the body due to liquid is
Density of copper = 8.5 g/cm3]
(1) 93 g
(2) 100 g
(3) 150 g
(4) 193 g (1) Zero
2. Two vessels A and B have the same base area and (2) Equal to weight of liquid displaced
contain water to the same height, but the mass of (3) Equal to weight of the body in air
water in A is four times that in B. The ratio of the (4) Equal to the weight of the immersed body.
liquid thrust at the base of A to that at the base of
B is 5. A boat having a length of 3 metre and breadth 2 m
is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when
a man gets on it. The mass of the man is
(1) 60 kg (2) 62 kg
(3) 72 kg (4) 128 kg
B
6. A body of volume 100 c.c. is immersed completely
in water contained in a jar. The weight of water and
l the jar before immersion of the body was 700 g wt.
After immersion weight of water and jar will be
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(1) 700 g wt
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
(2) 800 g wt
3. A U-tube is partially filled with water. Oil which
does not mix with water is next poured into one (3) 500 g wt
side, until water rises by 25 cm on the other side. (4) 100 g wt
If the density of the oil is 0.8 g/cc, the oil level will 7. The total weight of a piece of wood is 6 kg. In the
stand higher than the water level by floating state in water its 1/3 part remains inside
(1) 6.25 cm the water. On this floating solid, what maximum
weight is to be put such that the whole of the
(2) 12.50 cm
piece of wood is to be drowned in the water
(3) 18.75 cm (1) 12 kg (2) 10 kg
(4) 25.00 cm (3) 14 kg (4) 15 kg
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60 Mechanical Properties of Fluids Physics - NSEJS
8. A sample of metal weights 210 grams in air, 180 14. More viscous oil is used in summer than in winter
grams in water and 120 grams in an unknown in motors due to
liquid. Then (1) Rise in temperature in summer, the viscosity
(1) The density of metal is 3 g/cm3 of oil decreases
(2) The density of metal is 7 g/cm3 (2) Rise in temperature in summer, viscosity of oil
(3) Density of metal is 4 times the density of the increases
unknown liquid (3) Surface tension of oil increases
(4) The metal will float in water (4) Surface tension of oil decreases
9. A wooden cube first floats inside water when a 15. The velocity of falling rain drop attain limited value
200 g mass is placed on it. When the mass is because of
removed the cube is 2 cm above water level. The (1) Surface tension
side of cube is
(2) Upthrust due to air
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) Viscous force exerted by air
(3) 15 cm (4) 20 cm
(4) Air current
10. A piece of ice with a stone frozen in it on water is
16. A steel ball is floating in a trough of mercury. If we
kept in a beaker. The level of water when ice
fill the empty part of the trough with water, what
completely melts
will happen to the steel ball
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(1) It will continue in its position
(3) Remain the same (4) None of these
(2) It will move up
11. A rectangular block is 5 cm × 5 cm × 10 cm. The
(3) It will move down
block is floating in water with 5 cm side vertical. If
it floats with 10 cm side vertical, what change will (4) It will execute vertical oscillations
occur in the level of water? 17. A wooden ball of density D is immersed in water of
(1) No change density d to a depth h below the surface of water
upto which the ball will jump out of water is
(2) It will rise
(3) It will fall d ⎡d ⎤
(1) h (2) ⎢ 1⎥ h
(4) It may rise or fall depending on the density of block D ⎣ D ⎦
12. A wooden block of volume 1000 cm3 is suspended (3) h (4) Zero
from a spring balance. Its weight is 12 N in air. It is 18. A solid uniform ball having volume V and density
suspended in water such that half of the block is floats at the interface of two unmixible liquids as
below the surface of water. The reading of spring shown in figure. The densities of the upper and the
balance is lower liquids are 1 and 2 respectively, such that
(1) 10 N (2) 9 N 1 2 . What fraction of the volume of the ball
(3) 8 N (4) 7 N will be in the lower liquid?
13. A boat carrying a number of large stones is floating
in a water tank. What will happen to the water level
if the stones are unloaded into the water?
(1) Rise
(2) Fall 2 1
(1) (2)
1 2 1 2
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) Rise till half the number of stones are 1 1 2
(3) (4) 2
unloaded and then begin to fall 1 2
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Physics - NSEJS Mechanical Properties of Fluids 61
19. A U–tube of base length 'l' filled with same volume of (1) hg
two liquids of densities and 2 is moving with an (2) la
acceleration 'a' on the horizontal plane. If the height
difference between the two surfaces (open to atmos- (3) hg – la
phere) becomes zero, then the height h is given by (4) hg + la
22. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L (L < H/2),
cross-sectional area A/5 is immersed such that it
floats with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid
h a
interface with length L/4 in the denser liquid as
shown in the figure. The lower density liquid is open
l to atmosphere having pressure P0. Then, density D
a 3a of solid is given by :
(1) (2)
2g 2g
a 2a d
(3) (4)
g 3g
20. A narrow tube completely filled with a liquid is lying
on a series of cylinder as shown in figure. Assuming
no sliding between any surfaces, the value of 5
acceleration of the cylinders for which liquid will not (1) d
4
come out of the tube from anywhere is given by
4
open to (2) d
atmosphere 5
(3) 4d
H L
d
a
(4)
5
23. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2
gH having densities 1 and 2, respectively. A solid
(1) ball, made of a material of density 3, is dropped in
2L
the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position
gH shown in the figure. Which of the following is true
(2)
L for 1, 2 and 3?
2gH
(3)
L
Liquid 1
gH
(4)
2L
21. A sealed tank containing a liquid of density
moves with a horizontal acceleration a, as shown
in the figure. The difference in pressure between Liquid 2
the points A and B is
L
(1) 3 < 1 < 2
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62 Mechanical Properties of Fluids Physics - NSEJS
24. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, Statement 2 : The excess pressure inside a
floats in water as shown in figure. The distance l bubble is inversely proportional to the radius.
and h are shown there. After sometime the coin
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
falls into the water. Then
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
coin
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
27. Statement 1 : A piece of ice floats in water. The
h level of water remains unchanged when the ice
melts completely.
Statement 2 : According to the Archimedes’
(1) l decreases and h increases principle, the loss of weight of the body in the
(2) l increases and h decreases liquid is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
by the immersed part of the body.
(3) Both l and h increase
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) Both l and h decrease
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
25. Statement 1 : A thin stainless steel needle can
lay floating in a still water surface. (3) Both the statements are correct
Statement 2 : Any thin stainless steel needle (4) Both the statements are incorrect
floats when only buoyancy force balances the
28. Statement 1 : The blood pressure in human body
weight of the object.
is greater at feet than at brain.
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
Statement 2 : Pressure of liquid at any point is
(2) Only statement-2 is correct proportional to height, density of liquid and
(3) Both the statements are correct acceleration due to gravity.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (1) Only statement-1 is correct
26. Statement 1 : When a large soap bubble and a (2) Only statement-2 is correct
small soap bubble are connected by the capillary
tube, the large bubble expands and while the (3) Both the statements are correct
small bubble shrinks. (4) Both the statements are incorrect
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Current Electricity CHAPTER 7
ELECTRIC CURRENT
THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Consider a small area A kept perpendicular to the direction of
flow of charges as shown in figure. Electric Current
Ohm’s Law
A
Temperature Dependence of Resistivity
Electrical Energy, Power
q+ Combination of Resistors-Series and Parallel
q– Cells, EMF, Internal Resistance
Cells in Series and Parallel
Positive charges q+ are flowing from left to right and negative
Kirchhoff’s Rules
charge q– are flowing from right to left across the area. Net
charge flowing through the area in the interval t from left to Wheatstone Bridge
right, q = q+ – q –. Assignment
For steady current q is proportional to t.
q
The quotient I , is defined as the current across the area in the direction left to right. If the quotient is
t
negative then the current is in the direction right to left.
Direction of current is taken as direction of motion of positively charged particles and opposite to the direction
of negatively charged particles.
SI unit of current is ampere (A)
Order of currents in domestic appliances is 1 A
Order of currents in our nerves is 1 A
Order of current in lightening is 104 A
dQ
Instantaneous current through a cross-section I =
dt
Charge passed through the cross-section in the interval t to t + dt
dQ = Idt
Total charge in the interval t1 to t2
t2
Q= ∫ Idt = Area below I versus t graph in the interval t1 to t2 as shown in figure.
t1
I
t
t2 t1
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64 Current Electricity Physics - NSEJS
Average current in the interval t1 to t2
t2
∫ Idt
Q t1 Area below I versus t graph
Iav
t2 t1 t 2 t1 Time interval
OHM’S LAW
It was discovered by G.S. Ohm. If V be the potential difference between the ends of the conductor through
which a current I is flowing, then Ohm’s law states that
V I or V = RI
where R is the proportionality constant known as Resistance of the conductor, SI unit of resistance are VA–1
or ohm ().
Resistance of the conductor depends on
1. Dimensions of conductor and
2. Material of conductor
R
A
l = length of conductor
A = area of cross-section of conductor
The constant of proportionality depends on the material of the conductor but not on its dimensions. is
known as resistivity or specific resistance.
L L2 d m
Keeping volume/mass of the conductor constant, its resistance R 2
A m A d
1. If length of conductor is made n times, then resistance of the conductor becomes n2 times the initial
value. (R L2)
1
2. If area of cross-section is made n times, then resistance of conductor becomes times the initial
n2
⎛ 1 ⎞
value. ⎜ R 2 ⎟
⎝ A ⎠
3. If length is increased by x% (x < 5), then resistance will increase by 2x%. (R l 2)
⎛ 1 ⎞
4. If area is increased by x% (x < 5), then resistance will decrease by 2x%. ⎜ R 2 ⎟
⎝ A ⎠
⎛ 1⎞
5. If radius of cross-section is increased by x% (x < 5), then resistance will decrease by 4x%. ⎜⎝ R 4 ⎟⎠
r
Current density : It is defined as current per unit normal area. It is denoted as
I
j
A
SI unit of j is Am–2
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Physics - NSEJS Current Electricity 65
Vectorially I j A ∫ j dA
A
j E
1
where, is called conductivity of the material of the conductor.
Equation represents the equivalent of Ohm’s law.
0.4
–8
0.2
0 T (K)
50 100 150
Resistivity of a metallic conductor is approximately given by
= 0[1 + (T – T0)]
where T = resistivity at T°C, 0 = resistivity at reference temperature T0°C and = temperature coefficient
of resistivity.
For metal, is positive as their resistivity increases with rise in temperature.
For semiconductors, is negative as their resistivity decreases with rise in temperature (n increases with
rise in temperature). Temperature dependence of resistively of a semiconductor is as shown in figure.
T
ELECTRICAL ENERGY, POWER
V2
P = I 2R = (Power loss or ohmic loss)
R
COMBINATION OF RESISTORS – SERIES AND PARALLEL
Series
If there are n resistances R1, R2, ..., Rn in series, then equivalent resistance
RS = R1 + R2 + ... + Rn
When resistances are used in series, equivalent resistance is greater than greatest among them.
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66 Current Electricity Physics - NSEJS
Parallel
If n resistances R1, R2, ..., Rn are in parallel, then equivalent resistance
1
⎛ 1 1 1 ⎞
RP ⎜ ..... ⎟
R
⎝ 1 R 2 R n ⎠
When resistances are connected in parallel, then equivalent resistance is smaller than the smallest
resistor among them.
2
Pmax I
4r r
Pmax
r R
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Physics - NSEJS Current Electricity 67
Note : Two coils of power P1 and P2 boil separately, certain amount of water in time t1 and t2
respectively, then
In parallel effective power P p = P 1 + P 2 , and time to boil same amount of water
-1
⎛1 1 ⎞
tp = ⎜ + ⎟ .
⎝ t1 t2 ⎠
-1
1 1 ⎞
In series effective power Ps = ⎛⎜ + ⎟ and time of boil same amount of water
⎝ P1 P2 ⎠
ts = t1 + t2.
eq
I
A C
req
I1 1 I1
r1
A B
I 2 I
I2 r2 I2
eq
I
A B
req
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68 Current Electricity Physics - NSEJS
1r2 2 r1 rr
eq and req 1 2
r1 r2 r1 r2
If n cells of emf 1, 2, ....., n and internal resistances r1, r2, ....., rn are in parallel, then
1 1 1 1
.....
req r1 r2 rn
eq 1 2 n
and r r r ..... r
eq 1 2 n
r
req and eq =
n
KIRCHHOFF’S RULES
Kirchhoff’s two rules are used for analysing electric circuits consisting of a number of resistors and cells
interconnected in a complicated way. Formula we have derived for series and parallel combinations of
resistors are not always sufficient to determine all currents and potential differences in the circuit.
Sign Conventions
A I R B
If the current is flowing through the resistance R from A to B, then potential difference across AB,
VA – VB = IR (I is determined to be positive).
If the current is flowing through the cell of emf and internal resistance r from N to P as shown below,
P I N
r
then, potential difference across the cell
V = VP – VN = – Ir
At any junction, the sum of the currents entering the junction is equal to sum of currents leaving the junction.
Explanation :
When currents are steady, there is no accumulation of charges at any junction or at any point in a line,
therefore, rate of flow of charge into the junction is equal to rate of flow of charge from the junction.
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Physics - NSEJS Current Electricity 69
I1 I2
I5 O
I3
I4
I1 + I3 + I5 = I2 + I4
Algebraic sum of changes in potential around any closed loop involving resistors and cells in the loop is zero.
Explanation :
We know that electric potential depends on the location of point. Therefore, starting with any point if we come
back to the same point the total change of potential must be zero.
Example : 1 A cell of emf e is connected to an external resistance R. If terminal potential difference across
the cell is found to be V, find the internal resistance of the cell.
Solution : Given VA – VB = V i R i
Using KVL in ABCDA, D C
– + ir + iR = 0
i
– ir = iR
Also, VA – + ir = VB
⇒ VA – VB = – ir i A r B i
V = – ir = iR
V
⇒ r
i
V
or r (∵ V iR )
⎛V ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎝R ⎠
⎛ V ⎞
⇒ r ⎜ ⎟R
⎝ V ⎠
10 V
4V
2
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70 Current Electricity Physics - NSEJS
Solution : In DCB,
–4i1 – 6 + 10 = 0 4 6V
4i1 = 4.0 C B
i1 = 1 A 10 V
In BDA, i1 i
–2i2 – 4 + 10 = 0 4V
D A
i2 = 3 A i2 2
i = i1 + i2
= (1 + 3) A
= 4.0 A
Short Circuit
If two points in a circuit are connected by a conducting wire (zero resistance path), it is called a short circuit.
The potential difference between the two points becomes zero.
(1) Short-Circuiting a resistance : Consider a part of some circuit. The points B and C are connected by
a wire. Here R2 is short circuited.
(i) The effective resistance between B and C becomes zero.
1 1 1 1
⇒ ⇒ RBC 0
as RBC R 0 RBC
R2
i R1 i
A B C R3 D
(ii) The current through R2 = 0. Whole of the current i passes through conducting wire BC. This is
V
because i . As VBC = 0 current through R2 is zero.
R
(2) Short-Circuiting of a cell : The terminal A and D of a cell
are connected by a connecting wire BC of zero resistance.
⎛⎞
VAD ir ⎜ ⎟r , VAD 0 B i i C
⎝r ⎠
WHEATSTONE BRIDGE
It is an application of Kirchhoff’s rules. The bridge is consisting of four resistances R1, R2, R3 and R4 as four
sides of a square ABCD as shown in figure.
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Physics - NSEJS Current Electricity 71
BI
4
R2 R4
I2 Ig
A C
G
I1
R1 R3
I3 I
D
I
E
Across the diagonally opposite points between A and C, battery E is connected. This is called battery arm.
To remaining two diagonally opposite points B and D, a galvanometer G is connected to detect current. This
line is known as galvanometer arm.
R2 R4
R1 R3
The equation relating the four resistor is called the balance condition for the galvanometer to give zero or
null deflection.
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Choose the correct answer :
1. Three copper wires have their lengths in the ratio 5. A battery of internal resistance 4 is connected
5 : 3 : 1 and their masses are in the ratio 1 : 3 : to the network of resistance as shown. In order
5. Their electrical resistance will be in the ratio that the maximum power can be delivered to the
(1) 5 : 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 network, the value of R in should be
Z
X S
36
(1) (2) 10
7
85 Y
(3) (4) None of these (1) X stays the same, Y decreases
7
4. The current i in the circuit (see figure) is (2) X increases, Y decreases
(3) X increases, Y stays the same
i (4) X decreases, Y increases
2V
30 30 7. A battery of internal resistance 2 is connected
to a variable resistor whose value can vary from
4 to 10 . The resistance is initially set at 4
30
. If the resistance is now increased then
1 1 (1) Power consumed by it will decrease
(1) A (2) A
45 15 (2) Power consumed by it will increase
1 1 (3) Power consumed by it may increase or may decrease
(3) A (4) A
10 5 (4) Power consumed will first increase then decrease
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Physics - NSEJS Current Electricity 73
8. In the circuit shown in figure the heat produced in 12. A Wheatstone's bridge is balanced with a resistance
the 5 resistor due to the current flowing through of 625 in the third arm, where P, Q and S are
it is 10 cal/s. The heat generated in the 4 in the 1st, 2nd and 4th arm respectively. If P and Q
resistor is are interchanged, the resistance in the third arm
4 6 has to be increased by 51 to secure balance.
The unknown resistance in the fourth arm is
P Q
5
(1) 1 cal/s
S 625
(2) 2 cal/s
(3) 3 cal/s (1) 625 (2) 650
9. Two heating coils, one of fine wire and the other 13. A constant voltage is applied between the two
of thick wire made of same material and of same ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is
length are connected in series and then in parallel. developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if
Which of the following statements is correct? (1) Both the length and the radius of the wire are
(1) In series fine wire liberates more energy while halved
in parallel thick wire liberates more energy (2) Both the length and the radius of the wire are
(2) In series fine wire liberates less energy while doubled
in parallel thick wire liberates less energy (3) The radius of the wire is doubled
(3) In series thick wire liberates more energy (4) The length of the wire is doubled
while in parallel it liberates less energy 14. Two bulbs rated (25 W–220 V) and (100 W–220 V)
(4) Both wires liberates equal energies in series are connected in series to a 440 V line. Which one
and in parallel is likely to fuse?
10. A storage battery is connected to a charger for (1) 25 W bulb (2) 100 W bulb
charging with a voltage of 12.5 volts. The internal (3) Both bulbs (4) None of these
resistance of the storage battery is 1. When the
charging current is 0.5 A, the emf of the storage 15. The equivalent resistance of a group of resistances
battery is is R. If another resistance is connected in parallel
to the group, its new equivalent becomes R1 and
(1) 13 volts (2) 12.5 volts if it is connected in series to the group, it new
(3) 12 volts (4) 11.5 volts equivalent becomes R2 we have
11. A circuit is comprised of eight identical batteries (1) R1> R or R2>R (2) R1<R or R2>R
and a resistor R = 0.8 . Each battery has an (3) R1>R or R2<R (4) R1<R or R2<R
emf of 1.0 V and internal resistance of 0.2 . The
voltage difference across any of the battery is 16. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies
with time as Q = 2t – 8t2. The total heat produced
⎛ 1⎞
in the resistance is ⎜ for 0 t ⎟
R = 0.8 ⎝ 8 ⎠
R R
(1) Joules (2) Joules
6 3
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74 Current Electricity Physics - NSEJS
17. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is (1) 1 A (2) 1.5 A
connected across a resistance R. Resistance R 1
can be adjusted to any value greater than or equal (3) 2 A A
(4)
3
to zero. A graph is plotted between the current (i)
21. The total current supplied to the circuit by the
passing through the resistance and potential
battery is
difference (V) across it. Select the correct
alternative(s).
(volt) v 2
3
10
6V 1.5
i
2 (ampere) (1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(1) Internal resistance of battery is 5 (3) 4 A (4) 6 A
(2) Emf of the battery is 20 V 22. The resistance of the series combination of two
resistance is S. When they are joined in parallel,
(3) Maximum current which can be taken from the
the total resistance is P. If S = nP, then the
battery is 4 A
minimum possible value of n is
(4) v-i graph can never be a straight line as shown
(1) 4 (2) 3
in figure
(3) 2 (4) 1
18. In the following circuit diagram, the current flowing
23. In the circuit, the galvanometer G shows zero
through resistor of 1/4 is
deflection. If the batteries A and B have negligible
20 V internal resistance, the value of the resistor R
2
will be
10 V 30 V 500
1
4 G
2V
1
1
R A
(1) 1 A (2) 60 A
12 V B
(3) 30 A (4) None of these
19. By increasing the temperature, the specific (1) 200 (2) 100
resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor (3) 500 (4) 1000
(1) Increases for both 24. The Kirchhoff's first law (i = 0) and second law
(iR = E), where the symbols have their usual
(2) Decreases for both
meanings, are respectively based on
(3) Increases, decreases respectively
(1) Conservation of charge,conservation of momentum
(4) Decreases, increases respectively (2) Conservation of energy, conservation of charge
20. A 3 V battery with negligible internal resistance is (3) Conservation of momentum, conservation of charge
connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The
(4) Conservation of charge, conservation of energy
current I, in the circuit will be
25. The resistance of bulb filament is 100 at a
I temperature of 100°C. If its temperature coefficient
of resistance be 0.005 per °C, its resistance will
3 3
3V become 200 at a temperature of
(1) 300 °C (2) 400 °C
3 (3) 500 °C (4) 200 °C
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Physics - NSEJS Current Electricity 75
26. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be 30. A 100 W bulb B1, and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3,
10 are connected to a 250 V source, as shown in the
figure. Now W1, W2 and W3 are the output powers
5 10 20 of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then
B1 B2
10
I
B3
+ –
5 Volt
250 V
(1) 0.33 A (2) 0.5 A
(3) 0.67 A (4) 0.17 A (1) W1 > W2 = W3 (2) W1 > W2 > W3
27. The resistance of a wire is 5 at 50 °C and 6 (3) W1 < W2 = W3 (4) W1 < W2 < W3
at 100 °C. The resistance of the wire at 0 °C
will be 31. The three resistance of equal value are arranged in
the different combinations shown below. Arrange
(1) 2 (2) 1 them in increasing order of power dissipation
(3) 4 (4) 3
28. A 5V battery with internal resistance 2 and a
2 V battery with internal resistance1 are i i
connected to a 10 resistor as shown in the
I II
figure. The current in the 10 resistor is
P2
i i
5V 2V
10
2 1 III IV
1 2 1 2 1 2
(1) , (2) , 1 2 Q R
2 2 2
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76 Current Electricity Physics - NSEJS
Directions : In the following questions, a statement of 35. Assertion : Electric field outside a conducting wire
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reasion (R). which carries constant current is zero.
33. Assertion : If there is current in a wire then Reason : Net charge on the conducting wire is zero.
potential drop has to be there.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
Reason : If potential is zero, current must be zero. reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
assertion
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion (3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is (4) Both assertion and reason are false statements
false
36. Assertion : When the length of a conductor is
(4) Both assertion and reason are false doubled, its resistance also get doubled if it’s area
34. Assertion : A voltmeter is an inherenitly inaccurate remains same.
instrument. Reason : Resistance is inversely proportional to the
Reason : An ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance. cross section of conductor.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
reason is not the correct explanation of the is not the correct explanation of the assertion
assertion (3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false (4) Both assertion and reason are false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements statements
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Ray Optics and Optical
Instruments CHAPTER 8
REFLECTION OF LIGHT
THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
The phenomenon in which a light ray is sent back into the
same medium from which it is coming, on interaction with Reflection of Light
a boundary, is called reflection. The boundary can be a Spherical Mirrors
rigid surface or just an interface between two media.
Refraction
Law of Reflection
Total Internal Reflection
We have few angles to define before considering law of
reflection : Lens Formula
y-axis Silvering of Lens
Prism
Normal
Dispersion
x-axis
Assignment
i r
Reflected ray
Incident ray
Reflecting surface
z-axis
(i) Angle of incidence : The angle which the incident ray makes with normal at the point of incidence.
(ii) Angle of reflection : The angle which the reflected ray makes with normal at the point of incidence.
(iii) Glancing angle : Angle which the incident ray makes with the plane of the reflecting surface.
According to the law of reflection, reflected ray lies in the plane of incidence and has an angle of reflection
equal to the angle of incidence.i = r.
Deviation
When a ray of light suffers reflection, its path is changed. The angle between its direction after reflection and
the direction before reflection is called the deviation.
Normal
Reflection
i i
180 – 2i
Plane reflecting
surface
In
cid
en
ce
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As shown in the figure, the angle between reflected ray and incidence ray is 180 – 2i, where i is the angle of
incidence. Maximum deviation is 180°, when angle of incident i is zero.
Number of images formed by two plane mirrors inclined to each other
Consider two plane mirrors inclined at an angle (in degrees) with each other. Multiple reflections take place
from the surfaces of these mirrors and more than one image is formed. To find out number of images, we
⎡360°⎤
compute n = ⎢ ⎥ . Where [.] is the greatest integer function. Now, if
⎣ θ ⎦
(i) n is even, number of images = n – 1
(ii) n is odd, number of images equals
(a) n, if object is placed unsymmetrically.
(b) n – 1, if object is placed symmetrically.
SPHERICAL MIRRORS
A spherical mirror is a part of sphere. If one of the surfaces is silvered, the other surface acts as the reflecting
surface. When convex face is silvered, and the reflecting surface is concave, the mirror is called a concave
mirror. When its concave face is silvered and convex face is the reflecting face, the mirror is called a convex
mirror.
Silvered Silvered
F Principal axis
C Distance opposite P
to incident light
(–ve) Distance along
Downward incident light (+ve)
height (–ve)
1 1 1
By mirror formula,
v u f
v v
1
u f
v f v
m 1
f f
1 1 1
Also,
v u f
u u
1
v f
f
m
f u
v f v f
m
u f f u
The magnification is negative when image is inverted and positive when image is erect.
dv ⎛ v 2 ⎞ du
or ⎜⎜ 2 ⎟⎟
dt ⎝ u ⎠ dt
dv
Here is the speed of the image.
dt
For concave mirror
Suppose the object is moving from infinity towards focus.
du
Velocity of the object So
dt
dv
Velocity of the image Si
dt
(i) Now when object lies between and C, v < u and therefore
dv du
dt dt
As the object moves towards mirror the image makes from mirror to C with a speed, less than the
speed of the object.
(ii) When the object is at C, image coincides with the object i.e.,
v=u
dv du
or
dt dt
Speed of image is equal to the speed of object.
(iii) When the object lies between C and F, v > u i.e., speed of image is more than the speed of object.
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Longitudinal Magnification
Let a small object of length du is placed along the principal axis, then longitudinal magnification
I
mL
o
dv
or mL
du
where dv is the size of the image along principal axis
Now longitudinal magnification
dv
mL
du
2
⎛v ⎞
mL ⎜ ⎟
⎝u ⎠
mL m 2
Note : 1. If an object and its image both are in same side of the mirror, then either both are real or both are
virtual. Sign of u and v will be same.
2. If an object and its image are in the opposite sides of the mirror, then they will be of opposite nature
i.e., if one is real the other will be virtual and vice-versa. Signs of u and v will also be opposite.
3. For real objects, image formed by concave mirror may be real or virtual depending on whether u ³ f
or u < f.
4. The image of a virtual object formed by a concave mirror is always real, whatever be the position of
the virtual object.
1 1 1
As
v f u
v will be negative for all values of u because f is negative and u is positive.
5. Image of a real object formed by a concave mirror is always virtual but it may form real or virtual
image of a virtual object depending on whether u < f or u > f.
6. For no position of a real object, its image is formed between the pole and the focus of a concave mirror.
REFRACTION
When a light travels from one transparent medium to other, it deviates from its original path. The phenomenon
of change in path of light at the medium of separation as it goes from one medium to other medium is called
as refraction.
Snell’s Law :
1. The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface at the point of incidence, all lie in the
same plane.
2. The bending of light at the medium of separation follows Snell’s law. In the figure if NN represents normal
at the medium of separation and ‘i ’ and ‘r ’ are the angles of incidence and refraction respectively then
sin i
for pair of media and for a given colour Constant
sin r 1 2
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N
Incident Reflected ray N
ray Refracted ray
i i
1 r
Rarer 1 Rarer
2 Denser 2 Denser
r i
Refracted ray Reflected ray
N Incident N
ray
(Case I) (Case II)
sin i 2
sin r 1 ; 12 is called as refractive index of second medium w.r.t. first medium.
1 and 2 are the absolute refractive indices of rarer and denser medium. Hence, in the first case
1sin i = 2sinr and in the second case 2sini = 1sinr are applicable. When light ray travels from rarer to denser
media it bends towards normal and when it travels from denser to rarer media it bends away from normal.
If medium-1 is vacuum we refer, 12 as absolute refractive index of medium-2 is denoted by
r i
Denser medium Refracted ray Denser medium
(2) (2)
Normal 2sini = 1sinr
2 > 1
1sin i = 2sin r
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3 4
For example, refractive index of glass g and refractive index of water is w . Refractive index of glass
2 3
with respect to water is
g 9
w g
w 8
i
A
B r
w 8
Refractive index of water with respect to glass is g w
g 9
1
i.e., A B
B A
Path of a Ray of Light Through a Glass Slab
Figure shows the path of a ray through a glass slab of thickness t and refractive index .
Incident ray Normal
air (1)
i Normal
A
r
t
r D
L
B C
e
air (1)
Emergent ray
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Air
Medium ()
R A
I R
O
(ii) When observer is in a medium of refractive index and the object is in air, you have
1
A = R
R A
I
A O
R
Air
Medium ()
Note : Three immiscible liquids of refractive indices 1, 2 and 3 (where 3 > 2 > 1) are filled in a vessel.
Their depths are d1, d2 and d3 respectively, then apparent depth when seen from the top of the first
liquid will be
d1 d 2 d3
A
1 2 3
and normal shift in the position of image
1
d1
2
d2
3
d3
⎡ 1⎤ ⎡ 1⎤ ⎡ 1⎤
x d1 ⎢1 ⎥ d 2 ⎢1 ⎥ d3 ⎢1 ⎥
⎣ 1 ⎦ ⎣ 2 ⎦ ⎣ 3 ⎦
⎡d d d ⎤
x [d1 d2 d3 ] ⎢ 1 2 3 ⎥
⎣⎢ 1 2 3⎥
⎦
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r r = 90°
1 Rarer
2 Denser
i i=C
As the angle of incidence in denser medium increases the angle of refraction also increases and for a certain
angle of incidence in denser medium the angle of refraction in rarer medium becomes 90° then that angle of
incidence is called as critical angle (C).
i.e., If i = C; r = 90°
1 1
sinC = ( = refractive index of denser medium w.r.t. rarer medium)
2
⎛ 1⎞
C sin–1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
For a given pair of media ‘C’ depends on refractive index. If increases ‘C’ decreases.
⎡ 1⎤
Since refractive index changes with colour of light ⎢ ⎥ violet is having least critical angle and red is having
⎣ ⎦
highest critical angle.
LENS FORMULA
Assumptions :
(iii) The distances measured in the direction of incident light are taken positive and those measured opposite
to direction of incident light are negative.
(iv) Distances measured above principal axis are positive and below principal axis are negative.
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Lens Formula
1 1 1
v u f
Magnification
height of image
The linear magnification produced by a lens is defined as
height of object
⎛ v ⎞ v
m ⎜ ⎟
⎝ u ⎠ u
v f v f
m
u f f u
1. The magnification is negative when image is inverted and positive when image is erect.
2. In calculations, focal length of converging lens is taken as positive and that of diverging lens is taken as
negative.
SILVERING OF LENS
A lens with one of its surface silvered is equivalent to a mirror. Focal length of the equivalent mirror is given by
1 2 1
F f fm
If F is positive, equivalent mirror is diverging and if F is negative then equivalent mirror is converging.
PRISM
A prism is a transparent medium bounded by a number of surfaces, such that the surface on which ray is
incident and surface through which ray emerges are plane and non-parallel.
A A Refracting angle
Principal
section
Base Base
(i) Refracting faces : The plane surfaces which face incident and emergent ray are called refracting faces.
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(ii) Refracting angle : The angle subtended by the two refracting faces is called refracting angle or the angle
of prism.
(iii) Principal section : The section of prism by a plane perpendicular to the refracting faces is called principal
section.
D
A
e – r2
Normal
Normal E
A
i i – r1 B
r1 e
ray
cid ent r2 Em
In 1)
erg
= C en
air ( glass air
t ra
y
(
=1
)
Refracted
ray
A r1 r2
Angle of deviation
= i + e – A
Minimum Deviation State
At = m, i = e
r1 = r2
A m
m = 2i – A i
2
⎛ A m ⎞
sin⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
A
sin
2
Thin Prisms
A prism is taken as thin, when the angle of prism A is small. Generally, A is less than 10° for a thin prism.
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Deviation by a Thin Prism
When refracting angle of a prism is small (< 10°), the deviation is calculated from the relation
= ( – 1)A. For prisms with bigger refracting angles. We use equation d = (i1 – i2) – A.
DISPERSION
When white light is incident on a prism, different colors having different wavelengths suffer different deviations
as shown in the figure
V R
Angular Dispersion
Angular dispersion represents the angular spread of the beam after dispersion. It is given by = V – R
or, = (V – R)A
It depends on
(i) Angle of prism
(ii) Nature of material of the prism
Dispersive power is defined as the ratio of angular dispersion to mean deviation
Mean deviation is expressed as = (– 1)A
v R v R
Where, and (called mean refractive index)
2 2
As
( v R ) A v R d
( 1)A 1 ( 1)
Dispersive power of a prism depends only on nature of material of the prism. However, angular dispersion and
mean deviation, both depend on angle of prism in addition to the nature of material of the prism.
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Choose the correct answer :
1. The distance of an object from a spherical mirror is 5. A ray of light is incident upon an air/water interface
equal to the focal length of the mirror. Then the image (it passes from air into water) at an angle of 45°.
Which of the following quantities change as the light
(1) Must be at infinity (2) May be at infinity
enters the water?
(3) May be at the focus (4) None of these
(I) Wavelength
2. Bottom face of the glass cube is silvered as shown. (II) Frequency
A ray of light is incident on top face of the cube as
shown. Find the deviation of the ray when it comes (III) Speed of propagation
out of the glass cube. (IV) Direction of propagation
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17. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside
v(cm)
world, contained in a circular horizon. If the
4 (1)
refractive index of water is
3
and the fish is 12 cm O u(cm)
below the water surface, the radius of this circle in
cm is v(cm)
(1) 36 7 (2)
O u(cm)
36
(2) v(cm)
7
(3) 36 5 (3)
O u(cm)
(4) 4 5
v(cm)
18. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical
power of – 5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid (4)
medium with refractive index 1.6 will be O u(cm)
(1) 0.625 D
22. When monochromatic red light is used instead of
(2) – 0.625 D blue light in a convex lens, its focal length will
(3) 25 D (1) Does not depend on colour of light
(4) – 25 D (2) Increase
19. The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light (3) Decrease
and 1.525 for blue light. Let D1 and D2 be angles of
(4) Remain same
minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively
in a prism of this glass. Then 23. The graph between angle of deviation () and angle
of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is represented
(1) D1 < D2
by
(2) D1 = D2
(3) D 1 can be less than or greater than D 2
depending upon the angle of prism
(3) + 20 cm O i O i
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25. A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5 has 29. A point object is placed at distance of 20 cm from
both surfaces of same radius of curvature R. On a thin plano-convex lens of focal length 15 cm.
immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it The plane surface of the lens is now silvered. The
will behave as a image created by the system is at
(1) Convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(2) Convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
(3) Divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(4) Divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
26. White light is incident on the interface of glass and
20 cm
air as shown in the figure. If green light is just totally
internally reflected then the emerging ray in air (1) 60 cm to the left of the system
contains (2) 60 cm to the right of the system
(3) 12 cm to the left of the system
Air Green
(4) 12 cm to the right of the system
Glass
White
30. A ray of light travelling in water incident on its
surface open to air. The angle of incidence is ,
(1) Yellow, orange, red which is less than the critical angle. Then there will
be
(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(1) Only a reflected ray and no refracted ray
(3) All colours
(2) Only a refracted ray and no reflected ray
(4) All colours except green
(3) A reflected ray and a refracted ray and the
27. A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass
angle between them would be less than 180°–
prism placed on a horizontal table. For minimum
2
deviation which of the following is true?
(4) A reflected ray and a refracted ray and the
angle between them would be greater than
Q R
180° – 2
P S Directions : In the following questions, a statement of
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reasion (R).
(1) PQ is horizontal 31. Assertion : A plano-convex lens is silvered on the
plane surface. It can act as a converging mirror.
(2) QR is horizontal
Reason : Focal length of the concave mirror is
(3) RS is horizontal
independent of the medium in which it is placed.
(4) Either PQ or RS is horizontal
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
28. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The reason is the correct explanation of the
magnitude of the ratio of their focal length is 2/3. assertion
Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
their individual focal lengths?
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) –75, 50 assertion
(2) –10, 15 (3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(3) 75, 50 (4) Both assertion and reason are false
(4) –15, 10 statements
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32. Assertion : Image formed by a concave lens for a (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
real object is always virtual. reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
Reason : Image formed by a lens for a real object (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
is virtual if it is formed opposite the direction of is not the correct explanation of the assertion
incident ray of light with respect to the lens.
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion 34. Assertion : Different colors travel with different
speeds in vacuum.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the Reason : The frequency of light depends upon the
assertion refractive index of the medium.
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
false reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
statements (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
33. Assertion : Spherical aberration is a defect of a
assertion
spherical mirror, in which not all the parallel rays
focus at a single point. (3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
Reason : The laws of reflection are not valid for all (4) Both assertion and reason are false
rays. statements
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CHEMISTRY
Mole Concept and
Stoichiometry CHAPTER 1
MOLE CONCEPT AND MOLAR MASSES THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Mole is simply a unit for counting entities at the Mole Concept and Molar Masses
microscopic level (i.e., atoms, molecules, particles,
Stoichiometry and Stoichiometric Calculations
electrons, ions, etc.), just as we use one dozen for twelve
objects and one score for twenty objects. In SI system, Reactions in Solutions (Concentration Terms)
mole (symbol : mol) was introduced as seventh base Equivalent Mass
quantity for the amount of a substance. Assignment
One mole is defined as "the amount of a substance that contains as many particles or entities as there are
atoms in exactly 12 g (or 0.012 kg) of the 12C isotope".
The mole of a substance always contain the same number of entities, no matter what the substance may be.
In order to determine this number accurately, the mass of a carbon-12 atom was determined by a mass
spectrometer and found to be equal to 1.992648 × 10–23 g. Knowing that one mole of carbon weighs 12 g, the
number of atoms in it is equal to
12 g/mol 12C
= 6.0221367 × 1023 atoms/mol
1.992648 10 23 g/12C atom
This number is given a separate name and symbol, known as Avogadro constant, denoted by (NA) in honour
of Amedeo Avogadro.
Therefore we can say
1 mole = 6.022 × 1023 particles
One mole of oxygen atoms = 6.022 × 1023 atoms
One mole of oxygen molecules = 6.022 × 1023 molecules
One mole of ammonia molecules = 6.022 × 1023 NH3 molecules
One mole of sodium ions = 6.022 × 1023 sodium ions
One mole of sodium chloride = 6.022 × 1023 formula units of sodium chloride
Molar Mass
The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is called its molar mass. The molar mass in grams is
numerically equal to atomic, molecular or formula mass in u.
Molar mass of ammonia = 17.0 g
Gram formula mass of sodium chloride = 58.5 g
Calculations based on the quantitative relationship between the reactants and the products are referred as
stoichiometry.
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The term stoichiometry is derived from two Greek words – Stoicheion (meaning – element) and Metron
(meaning – measure).
In order to solve the problems based on chemical calculations the following steps, in general, are quite helpful
(i) Write the balanced chemical equation
(ii) From the chemical equation write the molar ratio between the given and required substance
(iii) Convert these moles into the desired parameters such as mass or volume, like
Mass
Moles
No. of molecules
Mass
Density
Volume
For example,
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
Here, one mole of CH4(g) reacts with two moles of O2(g) to give one mole of CO2(g) and two moles of
H2O(g).
OR
One molecule of CH4(g) reacts with two molecules of O2(g) to give one molecule of CO2(g) and two
molecules of H2O(g).
OR
22.4 L of CH4(g) reacts with 44.8 L of O2(g) to give 22.4 L of CO2(g) and 44.8 L of H2O(g) at STP.
OR
16 g of CH4(g) reacts with 2 × 32 g of O2(g) to give 44 g of CO2(g) and 2 × 18 g of H2O(g)
(iv) Calculate the final result by applying unitary method. (Unitary method consists of altering one of the variable
to a single unit, i.e., 1 and then performing the operation necessary to alter it to the desired value.)
The above steps will become clear with following solved example.
Example 1 : How many gram of oxygen (O2) is required to completely react with 0.200 g of hydrogen (H2) to
yield water (H2O)? Also calculate the amount of water formed. (molecular mass H = 2, O = 32)
Solution : The balanced equation for the reaction is
32
0.200 g of H2 require oxygen 0.200 1.6 g
4
Again, 4 g of H2 produce H2O = 36 g
36
0.200 g of H2 produce H2O 0.200 1.8 g
4
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Chemistry - NSEJS Mole Concept and Stoichiometry 95
Limiting Reagent
Consider the combustion of hydrogen
2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g)
Suppose that 2 mole of H2 and 2 mole of O2 are taken for the reaction. It follows from the equation that only
1 mole of O2 is required for complete combustion of 2 mole of H2, 1 mole of O2 will, therefore, be left over on
completion of the reaction. The amount of product obtained is determined by the amount of reactant that is
completely consumed in the reaction (Here H2). This reactant is called limiting reagent. Thus limiting reagent
may be defined as the reactant which is completely consumed during the reaction.
The sum of mole fractions of all the components in the solution is always equal to one.
So, A + B = 1
Mole fraction is independent of the temperature because it does not contain volume term.
Weight of solute
M
Molar mass of solute × Volume of solution in litres
Unit of molarity is mol/litre or mol L–1 or M(Molar)
Molarity of a solution depends upon temperature because volume of a solution is temperature dependent.
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When a concentrated solution is diluted by adding more solvent, the number of moles of solute in the
solution remains unchanged. Thus in dilution, moles of solute before dilution = Moles of solute after
dilution.
EQUIVALENT MASS
Equivalent weight of a substance is defined as number of parts by weight of given substance which combines
or displaces 1 part by weight of hydrogen (11.2 L of H2 at STP), 8 parts by weight of oxygen ((5.6 L at STP),
or 35.5 parts by weight of chlorine (11.2 L at STP)
At. wt.
Eq. wt. of Element =
Valency
Mol. wt. of Acid
Eq.wt. of Acids =
Basicity of Acid
Basicity of acid is defined as number of replaceable hydrogen ions present in an acid e.g., H2SO4, H2CO3,
H2C2O4, H3PO3 are dibasic acids. HCl, HBr, HNO3, H3PO2 are monobasic acids. H3PO4 is a tribasic acid. H4P2O7
is a tetrabasic acid. In case of H3BO3, it can accept one OH– to form [B(OH)4]–. So, the basicity is one.
Normality
The number of gram equivalents of the solute dissolved per litre of the solution
Gram equivalents of the solute
N
Volume of solution in litre
Mass of solute in grams/Equivalent mass
N
Volume of solution in mL/1000
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Chemistry - NSEJS Mole Concept and Stoichiometry 97
Normality of solution on mixing two solutions
N1V1 + N2V2 = N3(V1 + V2)
N
Example 2 : How many gram equivalents of H2SO4 are present in 200 ml of H SO solution?
10 2 4
Solution : Gram equivalents = N × volume of solution in litre
1 200
=
10 1000
1
=
50
= 0.02 gram equivalent
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Choose the correct answer :
1. Which of the following expressions is correct 7. How many moles of Na+ ions are in 20 mL of
(n = no. of moles of the gas, N A = Avogadro 0.40 M Na3PO4?
constant, m = mass of 1 molecule of the gas,
(1) 0.0080 (2) 0.024
N = no. of molecules of the gas)?
(3) 0.050 (4) 0.20
(1) n = mNA (2) m = NA
8. Mole fraction of A in H2O is 0.2. The molality of A in
(3) N = nNA (4) m = n/NA
H2O is
2. The charge on 1 gram ions of Al3+ is
(1) 13.8 (2) 15.5
1 1 (3) 14.5 (4) 16.8
(1) N e coulomb (2) N e coulomb
27 A 3 A
9. The molality of a sulphuric acid solution is 0.2 mol/kg.
1
(3) N e coulomb (4) 3 NAe coulomb Calculate the total weight of the solution.
9 A
(1) 1000 g (2) 1098.6 g
3. A quantity of aluminium has a mass of 54.0 g. What
is the mass of the same number of magnesium (3) 980.4 g (4) 1019.6 g
atoms? 10. 500 mL of a glucose solution contains 6.02 × 1022
(At. wt. of Al = 27, Mg = 24) molecules. The concentration of the solution is
(1) 12.1 g (2) 23.3 g (1) 0.1 M (2) 1.0 M
(3) 48 g (4) 97.2 g (3) 0.2 M (4) 2.0 M
4. A sample of ammonium phosphate, (NH4)3PO4, 11. A solution containing 12.0% sodium hydroxide by
contains 3.18 mol of hydrogen atoms. The number mass has a density of 1.131 g/mL. What volume
of moles of oxygen atoms in the sample is of this solution contains 5.00 mol of NaOH?
(1) 0.265 (2) 0.795 (1) 0.0240 L (2) 1.67 L
(3) 1.06 (4) 3.18 (3) 1.47 L (4) 1.00 L
5. A compounds was found to contain 5.37% nitrogen. 12. Molarity of H2SO4 is 18 M. Its density is 1.8 g/cm3,
What is the minimum molecular wt. of compound? hence molality is
(1) 26.07 g (2) 2.607 (1) 18 (2) 100
(3) 260.7 (4) None of these (3) 36 (4) 500
6. Mole fraction of ethanol in ethanol and water mixture 13. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving
is 0.25. Hence percentage concentration of ethanol 120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of water
by weight of mixture is is 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution is
(1) 25% (2) 75% (1) 2.05 M (2) 0.50 M
(3) 46% (4) 54% (3) 1.78 M (4) 1.02 M
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Chemistry - NSEJS Mole Concept and Stoichiometry 99
14. Which of the following contains maximum number 23. At STP condition, 5 L of a gas weigh 7.14 g. The
of atoms? gas is
(1) 100 cc of He at NTP (1) O2 (2) N2
(2) 100 cc of N2 at NTP (3) H2 (4) Cl2
(3) 100 cc of SO2 at NTP 24. The pair of isoelectronic species among the
following is
(4) 100 cc of NH3 at STP
(1) H3O+ and H2O (2) N3– and CO2
15. How many moles of CO 2 left on removing
0.5 moles CO2 from 176 gm CO2? (3) NH4 and NH3 (4) All of these
(1) 4 (2) 3.5 25. 1 L of gas weighs 1.25 g at STP, the gas may be
(3) 3 (4) 0.5 (1) CO (2) CO2
16. What is the mass of 2.5 mole of CO2? (3) N2O (4) H2S
(1) 88 g (2) 110 g 26. The number of atoms present in 5.6 L of diatomic
gas B2 at STP is
(3) 150 g (4) 22 g
NA
17. Maximum number of atoms is possessed by (1) 2 NA (2)
2
(1) 12 g C
3NA 2NA
(2) 56 g Iron (3) (4)
2 3
(3) 27 g Al 27. Select the correct statement
(4) All have same number of atoms (1) At STP, one mole of any gaseous substance
18. The ratio of total electrons present in 32 gram O2 occupies 22.4 L
and 32 g SO2 is (2) 1 mole water has NA atoms
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 mole water has NA × 10 neutrons
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 3 (4) All of these
(1) 1020 molecules (2) 1010 molecules (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) 21 molecules (4) 1021 molecules
assertion, then mark (2).
34. In the reaction,
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
2SO2 + O2 2SO3 false, then mark (3).
when 1 mole of SO2 and 1 mole of O2 are made (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
to react to completion statements, then mark (4).
(1) All the oxygen will be consumed 38. A : Number of atoms in 2 mole of NH3 is equal to
(2) 1.0 mole of SO3 will be produced number of atoms in 4 mole of CH4.
(3) 0.5 mole of SO2 is remained R : Both are chemically similar species.
(4) All of these 39. A : In the reaction
35. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in
2NaOH H3PO4 Na2HPO4 2H2O,
a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
produced in this reaction will be M
equivalent weight of H3PO4 is , where M is its
(1) 1 mol (2) 2 mol 2
molecular weight.
(3) 3 mol (4) 4 mol
Molecular weight
36. The amount of zinc required to produce 1.12 ml of R : Equivalent weight = .
H2 at STP on treatment with dilute HCl will be n factor
40. A : Mass of 1 gram molecule of H2SO4 is 98 gram.
(1) 65 g (2) 0.065 g
R : One gram atom contains NA atoms.
(3) 32.5 × 10–4 g (4) 6.5 g
41. A : Number of ions in 9 gram of NH4+ is equal to
37. The crystalline salt Na2SO4.xH2O on heating loses
Avogadro’s number (NA).
55.9% of its mass and becomes anhydrous. The
formula of crystalline salt is R : Number of ions is equal to number of atoms.
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Redox Reactions CHAPTER 2
THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
INTRODUCTION
There are many types of reactions occurring in our daily life. Introduction
You must have observed when an apple is cut with a knife and Classical Idea of Redox Reactions - Oxidation
is kept for sometime, it becomes brown in colour. Do you and Reduction Reactions
know why? It is because iron present in the apple gets Redox Reactions in Terms of Electronic Concept
oxidised in presence of air. Rusting is another example of Oxidation Number
oxidation. Do you know how is vegetable ghee prepared? It is Redox Reactions and Electrode Processes
prepared by reaction of vegetable oil by hydrogen in presence
Assignment
of nickel as a catalyst. There are some more reactions in
which oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously. Such
reactions are called redox reactions.
Oxidation involves
For example :
Addition of oxygen
Removal of hydrogen
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“the half reactions that involve gain of electrons are called reduction reactions”.
For example :
Reduction
+ –2
4Na + O2 2Na2O
(Reducing (Oxidising
agent) agent)
Oxidation
According to electronic concept, “oxidising agent is a substance which can accept one or more electrons”.
And “the reducing agent is a substance which can give one or more electrons”.
OXIDATION NUMBER
“The oxidation number is defined as the charge which appears on an atom of the element when all other atoms
attached to it are removed in the form of their ions. Oxidation number is also called oxidation state”.
1. The oxidation number of an element in its elementary form is zero. For example, H2, O2, N2, Cl2, P4,
Na, Mg, Fe etc., have zero oxidation number.
2. In a single monatomic ion, the oxidation number of the atom is the same as the charge on the ion.
For example, oxidation number of Na in Na+ ion is +1 while that of O in O2– ion is –2.
3. In compounds with non-metals, the oxidation number of hydrogen is +1 (e.g., HCl, H2S, H2O etc). But
in metal hydrides (metal atom is more electropositive) the oxidation number of hydrogen is –1 (e.g., LiH,
NaH, CaH2, MgH2 etc).
4. The oxidation number of oxygen is –2 in most of its compounds, except in peroxides like H2O2, BaO2
etc. where it is –1. Other interesting exceptions are found in the compounds : OF2 (oxygen difluoride)
and O2F2 (dioxygen difluoride) where the oxidation number of oxygen is +2 and +1 respectively. This
is due to the fact that fluorine is the most electronegative element known, always has an oxidation
number of –1.
5. In compounds of metals and non-metals, the metal atoms have positive oxidation number while the non-
metal atoms have negative oxidation number. For example, in MgCl2 the oxidation number of Mg is +2
while that of Cl is –1.
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Chemistry - NSEJS Redox Reactions 103
6. In compounds involving the combination of two non-metallic atoms, the atom with higher electronegativity
is assigned negative oxidation number while the other atom is given positive oxidation number.
For example, in HCl oxidation number of Cl is –1 while that of hydrogen is +1. Similarly, in NH3, the
oxidation number of N is –3 while that of H is +1. However, in NF3, the oxidation number of N is +3
and that of F is –1. Since, fluorine is more electronegative in this case.
7. In neutral compounds, the sum of the oxidation numbers of all the atoms of different elements is equal
to zero.
8. In complex ions or polyatomic ions, the sum of the oxidation numbers of all the atoms is equal to the
net charge on the ion.
For example, the sum of the oxidation numbers of all the four oxygen atoms and one sulphur atom in
the sulphate ion (SO42– ion) is –2.
We shall now illustrate the use of above rules in determining the oxidation numbers.
Equivalent Weight
Molecular weight
Equivalent weight =
Number of electrons lost or gained by one molecule
For example :
Acidic Medium 2+
nf = 5
Mn
Neutral Medium 4+
(a) KMnO4 Mn
nf = 3
Basic Medium 6+
nf = 1 Mn
Acidic Medium 2–
nf = 1
S4O6
(d) S2O32–
Basic Medium 2–
nf = 8 SO4
Acidic Medium 2+
nf = 10
Mn
+7 Neutral Medium 4+
(e) Ba(MnO4)2 nf = 6
Mn
Basic Medium +6
nf = 2
Mn
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So, n-factor depends upon the number of moles of active atoms (atoms undergoing oxidation number
change) in 1 mole reactant.
Equivalent weight = Equivalent weight of oxidised species + Equivalent weight of reduced species
M M
Equivalent weight = = 2M
1 1
80 80
Equivalent weight = = 96
5 1
Example : NH4NO2 N2 + 2H2O
Molecular weight
Equivalent weight =
Number of electrons transferred
Simple Titration : In a simple titration, a solution of substance A of unknown concentration is made to react
with a solution of sustance B whose concentration is known, so that the concentration of A may be calculated.
These two are reacted in such a way that the volume of B required to completely react with A can be find
out by using some indicators.
It can be calculated as :
Equivalents of A = Equivalents of B
WA (weight of A in g) WB (weight of B in g)
E A (Equivalent weight of A) EB (Equivalent weight of B)
Now, we modify the experiment in such a manner that for the same redox reaction transfer of electrons takes
place indirectly. For indirect redox reaction place zinc rod in 1M ZnSO4 solution in the left beaker and a copper
rod in a 1M CuSO4 solution in the right beaker. No reaction takes place in either of the two beakers and at
the interface of the metal and its salt solution in each beaker where both the reduced and oxidised forms of
the same species are present. Each beaker constitutes a half cell. It is also called as an electrode or a redox
couple.
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Chemistry - NSEJS Redox Reactions 105
“A redox couple may be defined as combination of the oxidised and reduced forms of the same substance
taking part in an oxidation or reduction half reaction”.
A redox couple is usually represented by separating the oxidised form and the reduced form by a vertical
line or a slash which represents the interface. For example, in the above experiment, two redox couples are
represented as Zn2+/Zn and Cu2+/Cu. In both cases, oxidised form is put before the reduced form.
Electron
V flow
Current
flow
e– SO2–
4 Salt bridge K
+ e–
– Containing +
K2SO4
Anode Cathode
And connect the solutions in the two beakers by a salt bridge which provides electric contact between the
two solutions without allowing them to mix with each other. A salt bridge is a U-tube containing solutions of
an inert electrolyte such as KCl, KNO3, K2SO4 etc. in agar-agar or gelatin.
The flow of current is possible only if there is a potential difference between the copper and zinc rods known
as electrodes here.
The electrode potential of any electrode depends upon the concentrations of the ions and temperature. If the
concentration is taken as unity i.e., 1 mol L–1 (if any gas appears in the electrode reaction, it is taken at
1 atm pressure) and temperature is taken as 298 K, the electrode potentials thus determined are called
standard electrode potentials and denoted by E°.
The standard electrode potentials of a large number of electrodes have been determined using standard
hydrogen electrode as the reference electrode. By convention, the standard electrode potential (E°) of hydrogen
electrode is 0.00 volts.
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106 Redox Reactions Chemistry - NSEJS
Table : The Standard Electrode Potentials at 298 K
Ions are present as aqueous species and H2O as liquid; gases and solids are shown by (g) and (s) respectively.
Es/V
–
Reaction (Oxidised form + ne Reduced form)
–
F2(g) + 2e– 2F 2.87
3+ 2+
Co + e– Co 1.81
+ –
H2O2 + 2H + 2e 2H2O 1.78
– + – 2+
MnO4 + 8H + 5e Mn + 4H2O 1.51
3+ –
Au + 3e Au(s) 1.40
–
Cl2(g) + 2e– 2Cl 1.36
2– + – 3+
Cr2O7 + 14H + 6e 2Cr + 7H2O 1.33
+ –
O2(g) + 4H + 4e 2H2O 1.23
+ 2+
MnO2(s) + 4H + 2e– Mn + 2H2O 1.23
–
Br2 + 2e– 2Br 1.09
– +
NO + 4H + 3e–
3 NO(g) + 2H2O 0.97
2+ 2+
2Hg + 2e– Hg2 0.92
+ –
Ag + e Ag(s) 0.80
Increasing strength of oxidising agent
1. A negative E° means that the redox couple is a stronger reducing agent than the H+/H2 couple.
2. A positive E° means that the redox couple is a weaker reducing agent than the H+/H2 couple.
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Chemistry - NSEJS Redox Reactions 107
Application of Electrochemical Series
1. Activity of metals : Lower the standard reduction potential value higher will be the activity of metal as
it will have higher tendency to lose electrons e.g., Li > K > Na > Zn > Fe.
2. Predicting whether a metal can liberate hydrogen from an acid or not, all those metals whose reduction
potential are less than hydrogen (i.e., have negative values) will have higher tendency to lose electron
than hydrogen and so H+ ions will gain electrons to form H2.
3. Predicting feasibility of a redox reaction : A redox reaction is feasible only if the species having higher
reduction potential is gaining electrons and the species to release electrons must have lower reduction
potential. For example;
Here Ag have higher reduction potential than Cu. Therefore, Ag is reduced here.
4. Calculation of EMF of the cell : Every galvanic or voltaic cell is made up of two half cells, the oxidation
half cell (anode) and the reduction half cell (cathode). The potentials of these half cells are always different.
The difference in potentials of the two half cells is known as the electromotive force (emf) of the cell or
cell potential.
The standard emf of the cell (E°cell) may be obtained by substracting the standard electrode potential
of the anode from that of the cathode i.e.,
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Choose the correct answer :
1. The incorrect order of decreasing oxidation number 6. The volume of 1.5 MH3PO4 solution required to neu-
of S in compounds is tralize exactly 90 mL of a 0.5 M Ba(OH)2 solution is
(1) H2S2O7 > Na2S4O6 > Na2S2O3 > S8 (1) 10 mL
(2) H2SO5 > H2SO3 > SCl2 > H2S (2) 30 mL
(3) SO3 > SO2 > H2S > S8 (3) 20 mL
(4) H2SO4 > SO2 > H2S > H2S2O8 (4) 60 mL
2. Which of the following is a redox reaction? 7. If equal volumes of 0.1 M KMnO4 and 0.1 M K2Cr2O7
solutions are allowed to oxidise Fe2+ to Fe3+ in acidic
(1) 2 CrO42– + 2H+ Cr2O72– + H2O
medium, then Fe2+ oxidised will be
(2) CuSO4 + 4 NH3 [Cu(NH3)4] SO4
(1) More by KMnO4
(3) Na2S2O3 + I2 Na2S4O6 + NaI
(2) More by K2CrO7
(4) Cr2O72– + 2OH– 2 CrO42– + H2O
(3) Equal in both cases
3. In which of the following reaction is there a change
(4) Can't be determined
in the oxidation number of nitrogen atoms?
8. Which of the following solutions will exactly oxidize
(1) 2 NO2 N2O4
25 mL of an acid solution of 0.1 M Fe (II) oxalate?
(2) NH3 + H2O NH4+ + OH–
(1) 25 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4
(3) N2O5 + H2O 2HNO3
(2) 25 mL of 0.2 M KMnO4
(4) None of these
(3) 25 mL of 0.6 M KMnO4
4. The mass of oxalic acid crystals (H2C2O4. 2H2O)
(4) 15 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4
required to prepare 50 mL of a 0.2 N solution is
9. Which of the following chemical reaction depicts the
(1) 4.5 g
oxidizing behaviour of H2SO4?
(2) 6.3 g
(1) Ca(OH)2 + H2SO4 CaSO4 + 2H2O
(3) 0.63 g
(2) NaCl + H2SO4 NaHSO4 + HCl
(4) 0.45 g
(3) 2PCl5 + H2SO4 2POCl3 + 2HCl + SO2Cl2
5. 125 mL of 63% (w/v) H2C2O4. 2H2O is made to
(4) 2HI + H2SO4 I2 + SO2 + 2H2O
react with 125 mL of a 40% (w/v) NaOH solution.
The resulting solution is 10. The oxidation number of phosphorus in Ba(H2PO2)2 is
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Chemistry - NSEJS Redox Reactions 109
11. The equivalent mass of MnSO4 is half its molecular 19. Which of the following element has minimum
mass when it is converted to standard reduction potential?
(1) Mn2O3 (2) MnO2 (1) Li (2) Zn
– 2–
(3) MnO4 (4) MnO4 (3) F (4) Ag
12. The normality of 0.3 M phosphorus acid (H3PO3) is 20. The electrode potential measures the
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.9 (1) Tendency of the electrode to gain or loose
electrons
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.6
(2) Tendency of a cell reaction to occur
13. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihydrate
is made upto 250 mL. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH (3) Difference in the ionisation potential of electrode
required to completely neutralise 10 mL of this and metal ion
solution is (4) All of these
(1) 40 mL (2) 20 mL 21. Given that,
(3) 10 mL (4) 4 mL I2 + 2e– 2I–, E° = 0.54 V
14. The process at anode is Br2 + 2e– 2Br–, E° = 1.09 V
(1) Oxidation (2) Reduction Predict which of the following is true?
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these (1) I– ions will be able to reduce bromine
15. Electrochemical cell is a device which convert (2) Br– ions will be able to reduce iodine
(1) Electrical energy into chemical energy (3) I2 is stronger oxidising agent than Br2
(3) Chemical energy into electrical energy 22. The oxidation number of carbon in C12H22O11 is
16. Which of the following solution can be safely stored (3) 0 (4) – 6
in copper vessel? 23. Chlorine is in +3 oxidation state in
(1) ZnSO4 (1) HCl (2) HClO4
(2) AgNO3 (3) ICl (4) ClF3
(3) AuCl3 24. The most common oxidation state of an element
is –2. The number of electrons present in the
(4) All of these
outermost shell is
17. If standard reduction potential of an electrode is
(1) 3 (2) 4
– 0.76 volt then its standard oxidation potential is
(3) 6 (4) 8
(1) 0.76 volt (2) –0.38 9 volt
25. In which of the following reactions, the underlined
(3) –0.76 volt (4) –0.059 volt
substance has been oxidised?
18. Which of the following reaction is not feasible?
(1) Br2 + H2S 2HBr + S
(1) Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu
(2) 2HgCl2 + SnCl2 2Hg2Cl2 + SnCl4
(2) Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H2
(3) Cu + H2SO4 CuSO4 + H2 (3) Cl2 + 2Kl 2KCl + l2
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110 Redox Reactions Chemistry - NSEJS
26. The average oxidation number of iron in Fe3O4 is 29. In which of the following, the underlined substance
has been reduced?
(1) +2 (2) +8/3
(1) CO + CuO CO2 + Cu
(3) +3 (4) +2/3
(2) CuO + 2HCl CuCl2 + H2O
27. In the chemical reaction,
Ag2O + H2O + 2e– 2Ag + 2OH– (3) 4H2O(g) + 3Fe 4H2(g) + Fe3O4
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Structure of Atom CHAPTER 3
BOHR’S MODEL FOR HYDROGEN ATOM THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Let us study the postulates on which Bohr’s model for
Bohr’s Model for Hydrogen Atom
hydrogen atom is based :
Atomic Orbitals
(i) Nucleus : Hydrogen atom has small heavy positively
Electronic Configuration of Atoms
charged nucleus in the centre (this postulate is the
retention of Rutherford’s model) Assignment
(ii) Orbits : The electron around the nucleus revolves only in certain fixed circular path of fixed radius and
energy. These circular paths are also known as orbits, stationary states or allowed energy states or energy
levels.
(iii) Energy of an Electron in the Orbit does not Change with Time : As the energy of an electron revolving
in a fixed circular path called orbit is fixed. Therefore orbits are called energy states or energy shells.
Therefore, electrons when absorb energy move from lower energy level to higher energy level, to its opposite
electron moves from higher energy state to a lower energy state by emitting energy.
Energy shells
P
O
N
M
L
K
Nucleus + n=1 n=2 n=3 n=4 n=5 n=6
(iv) Frequency of the Radiation : The frequency of the radiation absorbed or emitted during the transition
of electron from one energy state to another is given by
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112 Structure of Atom Chemistry - NSEJS
E
h
where, E is the difference in the energies of the two energy states i.e., E = E2 – E1.
Where,
E1 = Energy of the lower allowed energy state
E2 = Energy of the higher allowed energy state
The above expression is commonly known as Bohr’s frequency rule.
(v) Angular Momentum of an Electron in an Orbit :
The angular momentum of an electron in a fixed orbit is expressed as
h
me vr n where n = 1, 2, 3, ...
2
Angular
momentum
me = mass of electron
v = speed of electron
r = radius of orbit
Bohr’s Radius
n2
rn 0.529 Å
Z
Z
v n 2.19 108 cm/s
n
13.6Z 2
En (eV per atom)
n2
2. Bohr was even unable to explain the splitting of spectral lines in the strong electric field (Stark effect).
3. There was no explanation given in the model regarding the formation of chemical bonds.
(ii) It specifies the size of the shell : For hydrogen atom or hydrogen-like species ‘n’ value only
determine the size of shell. With the increase in the principal quantum number (n), the size of the
shell also increases.
This means as the principal quantum number (n) increases, size of shell increases, therefore now the
electron will be away from the nucleus.
(iii) It tells about the energy of the shell : Principal quantum number alone determines the energy of
the shell of hydrogen atom or hydrogen-like species.
Therefore larger is the distance of the shell in which the electron is present, higher will be its energy.
(iv) It also tells about the maximum number of electrons that a shell can accommodate is 2n 2.
Shell K L M N
Principal quantum number (n) 1 2 3 4
Maximum number of electrons 2 8 18 32
2. Azimuthal Quantum Number (l) : The other names for this quantum number are subsidiary quantum
number which tells us about orbital angular momentum.
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114 Structure of Atom Chemistry - NSEJS
The following are the informations which are obtained from the second quantum number i.e., azimuthal
quantum number :
(i) It designates the subshells to which the electron belongs.
(ii) It tells about the shape of the orbitals.
For a given value of principal quantum number (n), ‘l’ can have values ranging from 0 to n – 1.
If ‘n’ value is 2, then value of ‘l’ will be 0 to (n – 1) i.e., 0 and 1.
Moreover, the number of subshells in a principal shell is equal to the value of n e.g. there is only one subshell
(l = 0) in the first shell (n = 1).
The subshells corresponding to different values of l are represented by the following symbols.
h
Angular momentum of the electron in an orbital ( 1) ( 1)
2
3. Magnetic Orbital Quantum Number (ml) : The magnetic orbital quantum number ‘ml’ determines the
number of preferred orientations of the orbitals in a subshell. Also we can say that it gives the total number
of orbitals present in a given subshell.
As the name itself indicates this quantum number describes the behaviour of electron in magnetic field.
An electron revolving around the nucleus generates magnetic field. Under the influence of external magnetic
field, the electrons of a subshell can orient themselves in certain preferred regions of space around the
nucleus.
For a given subshell (defined by ‘l’ value), there are 2l + 1 values of ml which are possible.
Example :
For an electron belonging to (l = 2) subshell, there are (2l + 1) ml values i.e., (2 × 2 + 1) = 5 ml values.
Number of ml values gives the number of preferred orientations of the electron in a subshell or the number
of orbitals in the subshells.
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Chemistry - NSEJS Structure of Atom 115
Therefore, as there are 5 ‘ml’ values, therefore 5 number of orbitals are present in l = 2 subshell or ‘d’
subshell. Moreover the number of ml values ranges from +l to –l including 0. If the value of l as taken above
in the example is 2, then the ml values are
This means ‘d’ subshell contains five orbitals called ‘d’ orbitals. Similarly s-subshell with l = 0 contains
only one orbital called s-orbital.
p-subshell (l = 1) contains three orbitals (2l + 1) called p-orbital. f-subshell (l = 3) contains seven orbitals
called f-orbital.
Value of l 0 1 2 3 4
Subshell s p d f g
Number of orbitals 1 3 5 7 9
Thus, this quantum number explained the splitting of a single spectral line of hydrogen atom into a number
of closely spaced lines in the presence of electric (stark effect) and magnetic field (zeeman effect). Because
as of now we know that orientations of electrons change in magnetic field leading to the degeneracy of
subshells.
4. Electron Spin Quantum Number (ms) : The above three quantum numbers explains the energy, shape
and orientation of orbitals. But it was observed with the help of an instrument of high resolving power that
the spectral lines of some multi-electron atoms occur in the form of doublets (two closely spaced lines),
triplets (three closely spaced lines) etc. This suggested the presence of a few more energy levels than
predicted till that time.
The presence of two closely spaced lines account to the fact that these are the representation of the two
different states of electrons. These states were later on identified as the spin of the electron.
In 1925, George Uhlenbeck and Samuel Goudsmit proposed the fourth quantum number known as electron
spin quantum number (ms).
The two scientists suggested that electron rotates on its own axis either in a clockwise or in an
1 1
anti-clockwise direction and therefore the spin quantum number is denoted by two values : and – .
2 2
1 1
The two values and – are usually designated by (spin up) or (spin down) respectively.
2 2
Anticlockwise Clockwise
The two electrons that have different ms values (one +½ and the other –½) are said to have opposite spins.
An orbital can hold maximum of two electrons with opposite spins.
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116 Structure of Atom Chemistry - NSEJS
ATOMIC ORBITALS
1. s-orbitals
(i) Shape
s-orbitals are spherical in shape, so they are unidirectional orientation.
1s-Orbital
(ii) Size and Energy : The size and energy of s-orbital increases with increasing value of principal quantum
number ‘n’. Thus 1s 2s 3s 4s .
2. p-orbitals
(i) Shape : p-orbitals are dumb-bell shaped.
x x x
y y y
(ii) Size and energy : Like s-orbitals, p-orbitals also increase in size and energy with the increase in the
principal quantum number.
3. d-orbitals
(i) Shape : d-orbitals have double dumb-bell shape except dz2 which has baby soothers like shape.
dx 2 – y 2 dz 2
dxy dxz dyz z z
z z z
x x x x
y x y x y
y y
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(ii) Size and energy : As the principal quantum number ‘n’ increases, the shapes remain the same but differ
in energy and size.
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Chemistry - NSEJS Structure of Atom 117
Filling of Orbitals in Atom
1. Aufbau Principle
The increasing order of the energy of different orbitals belonging to different main energy levels was given
by Aufbau principle.
‘Aufbau’ is a German expression which means building up or construction. This principle states that ‘the
electrons are added one by one into the various orbitals in order of their increasing energy
starting with the orbital of lowest energy’.
In other words we can say that the electrons first occupy the lowest energy orbital available to them and
only when these orbitals are filled, then only the electrons are filled in the higher energy orbitals. For the
multi-electron atoms, the following is the increasing order of the energy of the orbitals.
1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 5p, 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p, 7s.
(i) The number of subshells in a shell is equal to the principal quantum number ‘n’ of the shell e.g., shell
with ‘n’ value 1, has only one subshell i.e., 1s, shell with ‘n’ value 2, has two subshells i.e., 2s and 2p.
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118 Structure of Atom Chemistry - NSEJS
(ii) The direction of the arrows gives the order of filling of orbitals, that is starting from right top to
bottom left.
(iii) The sequence of the energy of the orbitals is according to Bohr-Bury’s rule as discussed before.
This principle was given by Wolfgang Pauli (1926). This principle actually excludes the possibility
of any two electrons having all the same four quantum numbers i.e., ‘No two electrons in an atom
can have the same set of four quantum numbers’. Because the n, l and ml quantum numbers
address a particular orbital. The four quantum number (ms) is required to define the spin of the
1 1
electron in an orbital. It can have only two possible values i.e., either
or . Therefore a
2 2
maximum of only two electrons can be accommodated in an atomic orbital and these two electrons
must have opposite spin. Moreover, the two electrons can have same value of ‘n’, ‘l’ and ‘ml’ but
never same value of ‘ms’ in the same orbital.
This principal helps us to find maximum number of electrons which can be present in a particular
subshell.
There is only one s-orbital, it therefore can hold a maximum of two electrons.
In nutshell, we can say that the “maximum number of electrons is the shell with principal
quantum number ‘n’ is equal to 2n 2 ”.
The rule deals with the filling of electrons in the equal energy (degenerate) orbitals of the same
subshell.
This rule says that ‘no pairing of electron starts in any of the degenerate orbitals until all
the orbitals of the subshell contain one electron each with parallel spin’’.
Example : Each of the three p-orbitals of the p-subshell gets one electron of parallel spin before any
one of them receives second electrons of opposite spin.
Explanation Behind the Rule : The electrons are first singly occupied so as to result in maximum
number of unpaired electrons which in turn gives maximum multiplicity (concept discussed in higher
classes). This rule is obeyed so as to give the stable arrangement of electrons. Stability is achieved
by minimum repulsions. Electrons repel each other as they are identical in charge. If electrons are
filled according to this rule then the two electrons move as far apart as possible by occupying
different degenerate orbitals. This arrangement of electrons leads to minimum repulsions and
maximum stability.
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Chemistry - NSEJS Structure of Atom 119
ELECTRONIC CONFIGURATION OF ATOMS
Element Z 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 4d 4f 5s 5p 5d 5f 6s 6p 6d 7s
H 1 1
He 2 2
Li 3 2 1
Be 4 2 2
B 5 2 2 1
C 6 2 2 2
N 7 2 2 3
O 8 2 2 4
F 9 2 2 5
Ne 10 2 2 6
Na 11 2 2 6 1
Mg 12 2 2 6 2
Al 13 2 2 6 2 1
Si 14 2 2 6 2 2
P 15 2 2 6 2 3
S 16 2 2 6 2 4
CI 17 2 2 6 2 5
Ar 18 2 2 6 2 6
K 19 2 2 6 2 6 1
Ca 20 2 2 6 2 6 2
Sc 21 2 2 6 2 6 1 2
Ti 22 2 2 6 2 6 2 2
V 23 2 2 6 2 6 3 2
Cr* 24 2 2 6 2 6 5 1
Mn 25 2 2 6 2 6 5 2
Fe 26 2 2 6 2 6 6 2
Co 27 2 2 6 2 6 7 2
Ni 28 2 2 6 2 6 8 2
Cu* 29 2 2 6 2 6 10 1
Zn 30 2 2 6 2 6 10 2
Expected Actual
These actual configurations are due to the fact that the half-filled and full-filled orbitals are very stable and
nature loves stability and so do the elements. So, the unexpected electronic configurations are acquired to
gain stability. As in case of chromium, in its actual electronic configuration, d-orbitals are half-filled.
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120 Structure of Atom Chemistry - NSEJS
Valence electrons
Chromium :
3d5 4s1
Half-filled
d-orbitals
Copper :
3d10 4s1
Completely filled
d-orbitals
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Choose the correct answer :
1. Bohr's theory is not applicable to 8. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2
(1) He (2) Li2+ 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1. This represents its
(3) He2+ (4) The H-atom (1) Excited state (2) Ground state
2. If velocity of an electron in 1st orbit of H atom is V, (3) Cationic form (4) None
what will be the velocity of 3rd orbit of Li+2 9. If radius of second stationary orbit (in Bohr's atom)
(1) V (2) V/3 is R, then radius of third orbit will be
(3) 3 V (4) 9 V (1) R/3 (2) 9R
3. The orbital with zero angular momentum is (3) R/9 (4) 2.25 R
(1) s (2) p 10. Which orbital is non-directional?
(3) d (4) f (1) s (2) p
4. Which of the following is electronic configuration of (3) d (4) All
Cu2+ (Z = 29)?
11. Which orbit would be the first to have 'g' subshell?
(1) [Ar]4s1 3d8 (2) [Ar]4s2 3d10 4p1
(1) 3rd (2) 4th
(3) [Ar]4s1 3d10 (4) [Ar] 3d9
(3) 5th (4) 6th
5. Choose the correct relation on the basis of Bohr's
theory 12. The decreasing order of energy of the 3d, 4s, 3p, 3s
orbitals is
1
(1) Velocity of electron (1) 3d > 3s > 4s > 3p (2) 3s > 4s > 3p > 3d
n
(3) 3d > 4s > 3p > 3s (4) 4s > 3d > 3s > 3p
Z2
(2) Frequency of revolution
n3 13. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe 2+
(3) Radius of orbit n2Z (At. no. of Fe = 26) ion is
(1) 6 (2) 3
Z3
(4) Force on electron (3) 4 (4) 5
n4
6. Which electronic level would allow the hydrogen 14. Which one of the following sets of ions represents
atom to absorb a photon but not to emit a photon? the collection of isoelectronic species ?
(1) 3s (2) 2p (1) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl– (2) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F–
(3) 2s (4) 1s (3) K+, Cl–, Mg2+, Sc3+ (4) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl–
7. The total number of neutrons in dipositive zinc ions 15. According to Bohr's theory angular momentum of
with mass number 70 is electron in 5th shell is
(1) 34 (2) 40 (1) 1.0 h/ (2) 10 h/
(3) 36 (4) 38 (3) 2.5 h/ (4) 25 h/
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122 Structure of Atom Chemistry - NSEJS
16. The radius of which of the following orbit is same 24. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s
as that of the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom? and 2p orbital respectively
(1) He+ (n = 2) (2) Li2+ (n = 2) 1 h h
(1) , (2) Zero, 2
(3) Li 2+
(n = 3) (4) Be 3+
(n = 2) 2 2 2
17. If r is radius of first orbit of He+, the radius of nth h h h
(3) , Zero (4) 2 , 6
orbit of He+ will be 2 2 2
2r r 25. Which of the following element have five unpaired
(1) 2 (2) electron in d-subshell?
n 2n 2
r (1) Iron (2) Chromium
(3) n2r (4)
n2 (3) Scandium (4) Zinc
18. An electron is moving in 3rd orbit of Li +2. The 26. Total number of shells present in hydrogen atom
radius is is/are
(1) 1.59 Å (2) 0.529 Å (1) One (2) Two
(3) 0.176 Å (4) 2.587 Å (3) Three (4) Infinite
19. Maximum number of electrons in an orbit can be 27. Which shell would be the first to have ‘f’ subshell?
(1) K (2) M
(1) n2 (2) (2n + 2)
(3) N (4) O
(3) (2n + 1) (4) 2n2
28. Which of the following ion has maximum number
20. Ratio of angular momentum of 3rd and 1st orbit is of unpaired d-electrons?
(1) 3 :1 (2) 6: 2 (1) Zn+2 (2) Fe+3
(3) Cr+3 (4) Mn+4
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
29. The possible values of magnetic quantum number
21. Which of the following relation is correct according
for p-orbital are
to Bohr’s model?
(1) 0
(1) PE = – KE (2) Velocity n
(2) –1, 0, +1
n2 (3) –2 , –1, 0, +1, +2
(3) rn (4) All of these
Z (4) –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3
22. According to Bohr’s model, which statement is
30. In multi-electron atom 4s-orbital is lower in energy
correct?
than
(1) Every orbit has fixed energy (1) 3d-orbital (2) 3p-orbital
(2) Angular momentum is quantised (3) 2s-orbital (4) 2p-orbital
(3) TE = – KE 31. Shape of an orbital is given by
(4) All of these (1) Principal quantum number
23. Which hydrogen like species will have same (2) Spin quantum number
radius as that of first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen (3) Azimuthal quantum number
atom?
(4) Magnetic quantum number
(1) n = 2, Li+
32. For n = 4, which one of the following values of l is
(2) n = 2, Be+3 not possible?
(3) n = 2, He+ (1) 1 (2) 2
+2
(4) n = 3, Li (3) 3 (4) 4
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Classification of Elements
and Periodicity in
Properties CHAPTER 4
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
The chapter gives an insight to the contribution made by Introduction
different scientists to arrange the known elements in a manner Modern Periodic Law and the Present Form of
which could be smooth and informative and the elements the Periodic Table
properties could justify its position. Thus what we see in the Classification of Elements as Metals, Non-
form of modern periodic table today follow a logical sequence Metals and Metalloids
of electronic configuration capable enough to explain the trend
Periodic Trends in Physical Properties
in physical and chemical properties of the elements.
Assignment
MODERN PERIODIC LAW AND THE PRESENT FORM OF THE PERIODIC TABLE
After development of atomic structure theories about sub-atomic particles, some spectacular achievements
took into the classification of elements. In 1913, the English physicist, Henry Moseley observed regularities
in the characteristic X-ray spectra of the elements where he found that a plot of (where is frequency
of X-rays emitted) against atomic number (Z) gave a straight line and not the plot of against atomic mass.
Thus he concluded that the atomic number is more fundamental property than atomic mass. So he modified
Mendeleev’s periodic table and defined the modern periodic law as “The physical and chemical properties
of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers”. The periodic law revealed important
characteristics among the 94 naturally occurring elements (neptunium and plutonium like actinium and
protactinium are also found in pitch blende – an ore of uranium). As we know that atomic number is equal
to the nuclear charge (number of protons) or the number of electrons in a neutral atom. It has now become
easy to understand the significance of quantum numbers and electronic configuration in periodicity of elements.
It has now been recognized that the periodic law is essentially the consequence of periodic variation in
electronic configuration, which definitely determine the physical and chemical properties of elements and their
compounds.
Modern Periodic Table
Various tables devised from time to time could not stand to the simplicity and informative modern form of
periodic table known as “long form” of the periodic table of the elements. It was based on Bohr-Bury concept
of electronic configuration.
Salient features of the modern periodic table :
1. It contains 7 horizontal rows like that of Mendeleev series called periods and 18 vertical columns called groups.
2. Elements with similar valence shell configuration are arranged in the vertical columns referred to as
families or groups.
3. Each period corresponds to the highest principal quantum number (n) of the elements in the period.
The first period contains 2 elements. The subsequent periods consists of 8, 8, 18, 18 and 32 elements
respectively. The seventh period is incomplete and theoretically can contain maximum of 32 elements.
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Representative elements Representative elements Noble gases 4.
GROUP GROUP NUMBER
NUMBER 18
0
1 2
1 2 H 13 14 15 16 17 He
1 1 2
IA II A 1s III A IV A VA VI A VII A 1s
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be Transition elements B C N O F Ne
2 2 1 2 2 2 2 4 2 5
2s1 2s2 2s 2p 2s 2p 2s 2p3 2s 2p 2s 2p 2s22p6
GROUP NUMBER
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Al Si P S Cl Ar
3 III B IV B VB VI B VII B VIII IB II B
3s1 3s2 3s23p1 3s23p2 3s23p3 3s23p4 3s23p5 3s23p6
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
4 1 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 5 1 5 2 6 2 7 2 8 2 10 1 10 2 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 5 2 6
4s 4s 3 d 4 s 3 d 4 s 3d 4s 3 d 4 s 3 d 4 s 3d 4s 3 d 4 s 3 d 4 s 3d 4s 3d 4s 4s 4p 4s 4p 4s 4p 4s 4p 4s 4p 4s 4p
placed in separate panels at the bottom.
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
5 Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
PERIOD NUMBER
1 2 1 2 2 2 4 1 5 1 5 2 7 1 8 1 10 10 1 10 2 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 5 2 6
5s 5s 4d 5s 4d 5s 4d 5s 4d 5s 4 d 5 s 4d 5 s 4d 5s 4d 4d 5s 4d 5s 5s 5p 5s 5p 5s 5p 5s 5p 5s 5p 5s 5p
124 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
6 Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
1 2 1 2
6s 6s 5d 6s 4f145d26s2 5d 36s2 5d 46s2 5d56s2 5d 66s2 5d 76s2 5d 96s1 5d 106s1 5d 106s2 6s 26p1 6s 26p2 6s26p3 6s26p4 6s 26p5 6s 26p6
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114
7 Fr Ra Ac** Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Uuu Uub – Uuq – Uuh – –
1 2
7s 7s 6d17s2
*Lanthanoids 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
4f n 5d 0–16s2 Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
2 0 2 3 0 2 4 0 2 5 0 2 6 0 2 7 0 2 9 0 2 9 0 2 10 1 2 11 0 2 12 0 2 13 0 2 14 0 2 14 1 2
4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s 4f 5d 6s
Long form of the Periodic Table of the Elements with their atomic numbers and ground state outer electronic configurations.
The groups are numbered 1-18 in accordance with the 1984 IUPAC recommendations. This notation replaces the old numbering
scheme of IA–VIIA, VIII, IB–VIIB and 0 for the elements.
Chemistry - NSEJS
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Fourteen elements of both sixth and seventh periods i.e., lanthanoids and actinoids respectively are
Chemistry - NSEJS Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 125
CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS AS METALS, NON-METALS AND METALLOIDS
There is no sharp line dividing metals from non-metals. A zig-zag line separates the metals from non-metals. The
borderline elements such as silicon, germanium, arsenic, antimony and tellurium exhibit characteristic properties
of metals as well as non-metals. These elements are called semi-metals or metalloids.
18
Group 1 H
1 2 13 14 15 16 17
period
2 B
Metalloids
3 Si
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ge As Non
4 Metals
5 Metals Sb Te
6 Po At
Metals
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126 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Chemistry - NSEJS
Along the group size generally increases, however nuclear charge also increases that tries to minimize
the size but at every step new shell is required to fill the electron and hence size increases down the
group.
(c) Screening effect or Shielding effect – The inner layer of the electrons act as a shield between
nucleus and the outermost electron. This is known as shielding effect or screening effect.
Screening power of different subshells is in the order s > p > d > f, and shielding effect tries to increase
the size.
Ionization Enthalpy
The minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from the valence shell of an isolated gaseous
atom in its ground state resulting in the formation of positive ion.
IE
M(g) M (g) e –
IE
M(g)
1
M (g) e
IE
M (g)
2
M2 (g) e
IE
M2 (g)
3
M3 (g) e
Electronegativity
Electronegativity of an element is the tendency of an atom to attract the shared pair of electrons towards itself.
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Choose the correct answer :
1. The only element having last electron in s-subshell 7. Atomic radii of chlorine and argon in angstrom
but placed in p-block units are respectively
(1) Al (2) Rb (1) 1.91, 0.99 (2) 1.91, 1.91
(3) He (4) Xe (3) 0.99, 1.91 (4) 0.99, 0.99
2. The number of elements present in fifth period is 8. Which group contains elements that exist as
(1) 24 (2) 32 diatomic molecules?
(3) 8 (4) 18 (1) 2 (2) 17
3. The sizes of following species increase in the (3) 18 (4) 7
order of 9. Predict the group of the element in the periodic
(1) Na+ < F– < Mg2+ < O2– table satisfying the valence shell electronic
configuration (n – 1)d3ns2 for n = 4
(2) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(1) 5 (2) 2
(3) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) 3 (4) 15
(4) Mg2+ < Na+ < O2– < F–
10. The only non-metal which is liquid at room
4. Which of the following represents most
electro-positive element? temperature is
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128 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Chemistry - NSEJS
13. When a neutral atom is converted into an anion its 21. Which of the following order of radii is correct?
(1) Atomic weight becomes double (1) B3+ < Be2+ < Li+
14. Which of these has the highest ionisation energy? 22. Which of the following trend of ionisation energy is
correct?
(1) O (2) F
(1) N > O > F (2) C < N < O
(3) N (4) C
(3) O < N < F (4) C > N > O
15. Which of the following elements is diagonally
related? 23. Which of these is a representative element?
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States of Matter CHAPTER 5
INTRODUCTION
THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Everything around us is made up of matter. Matter is Introduction
something that occupies space and has mass. Matter The Gas Laws
consists of small particles (atoms and molecules). There are Kinetic Molecular Theory of Gases
three states of matter namely gaseous state, liquid state Kinetic Energy
and solid state. The state of a substance depends upon the
Liquid State
intermolecular forces operating between the molecules and
the thermal energy of the molecules.
Vapour Pressure
Surface Tension
Viscosity
Assignment
THE GAS LAWS
1. Boyle's Law (Pressure-Volume Relationship)
He made some experiments on the basis of which he concluded that "At constant temperature, the
pressure of a fixed amount of gas varies inversely with the volume of the gas."
The Boyle's law may be expressed mathematically as
1
P (at constant T and n)
V
1
or V (at constant T and n)
P
where,
T = temperature, P = pressure of the gas, n = number of moles of a gas and V = volume of the gas
1
V = k1
P
P1V1 = P2 V2 constant
P1
(P1, V1)
P(bar)
P2 (P2, V2)
V1 V2
3
V (dm)
Fig. : Variation of P and V at constant T
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130 States of Matter Chemistry - NSEJS
Fig. : Graph of Pressure (P) versus Volume (V), of a gas at different temperatures
T3
T2
P(bar)
T1
T3 > T2 > T1
1
(dm)3
V
Fig. : Plots of P versus 1/V at different temperatures
Temperature
T2 > T1
T2
PV
T1
P(bar)
Fig. : Variation of PV with P
The pressure of gas A (PA) is 3.0 atm when it occupies 5 L of the volume. Calculate the final
pressure when it is compressed to 3 L volume at constant temperature.
Initial condition Final condition
V1 = 5 L V2 = 3 L
P1 = 3 atm P2 = ?
According to Boyle's Law
P1 V1 = P2 V2
3 × 5 = P2 × 3
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Chemistry - NSEJS States of Matter 131
53
P2 = = 5 atm
3
1
Charles' Law states that the volume of a given mass of a gas increases or, decreases by
273.15
of the volume at 0°C for each degree rise or fall in temperature respectively, provided pressure
is kept constant.
⎛ 273.15 + t ⎞
Vt = V0 ⎜
⎝ 273.15 ⎟⎠
Charles Law can otherwise be stated as the volume occupied by a given mass of a gas is directly
proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas at constant pressure.
volume (mL)
(constant pressure)
0
100 200 300 400
Temperature (K)
V(mL)
(constant pressure)
– 273.15°C 0 t(°C)
450 mL of oxygen gas at 20°C is heated to 50°C. What is the new volume of the gas at constant
pressure?
V1 = 450 mL V2 = ?
T1 = 20°C T2 = 50°C
= 20 + 273 = 50 + 273
= 293 K = 323 K
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132 States of Matter Chemistry - NSEJS
According to Charles' Law
V1 V2
=
T1 T2
450 V
2
293 323
V2 = 496.0 mL
3. Gay Lussac's Law (Pressure -Temperature Relationship) : Gay Lussac's Law or Pressure-Temperature
Law can be stated as at constant volume, the pressure of a fixed amount of a gas is directly
proportional to the temperature.
V3
Pressure (bar)
V4
Actual volume
of gas molecules
Molecular
collision
Collision
with wall
Fig. : Gas molecules are in constant Fig. : Molecules move in straight line and change direction
motion in all possible directions on collision with another molecule or wall of container
Support for Assumption. Gas exerts a pressure. Pressure of the gas exerted is just because of
collisions of particles with the walls of the container.
(v) Collisions are perfectly elastic : When the gas molecules collide with each other they pass on their
energies. There is transfer of energy from one colliding molecule to the other but the total energy of
molecules before and after the collision remains the same therefore, the collisions are called perfectly
elastic. So, there is no net loss of energy.
Support for Assumption : As there is no loss of kinetic energy, therefore the motion of molecules do
not cease so, the gases never settle down.
(vi) Different particles of the gas, have different speeds : Different particles of gas possess different
kinetic energies, therefore they have different speeds at a particular time.
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Support for Assumption : This postulate is reasonable as when the molecules collide, they change
their speed. Even though the initial speeds are same, but after collisions there is transfer of energy from
one molecule to the other. So, as the energy changes after the collisions, so do the speeds. But the
distribution of speeds remains constant at a particular temperature.
(vii) The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute
temperature : As discussed in the above assumption the speed of a molecule changes with time, i.e.
the speed of a molecule is variable. Therefore we talk about the average kinetic energy of the molecules.
Kinetic molecular theory of gases establishes a link between the molecular motion and temperature.
As the temperature increases, so the kinetic energy also increases.
KINETIC ENERGY
3RT 3
EK kT
2NA 2
LIQUID STATE
The second state of matter we will discuss is liquid. Around 70% of our earth is covered with water which
represents liquid state of matter. The intermolecular forces in the liquid state molecules are stronger than in
the gaseous state molecules. Due to strong intermolecular forces, there is less space between the molecules,
so their density is higher than that of gases. Liquids have definite volume because the intermolecular forces
are strong enough to keep the molecules together, but not strong enough to give them a rigid packed structure.
So, they assume the shape of the container in which they are stored.
In this section we will study some of the physical properties of liquids such as vapour pressure, surface
tension and viscosity.
VAPOUR PRESSURE
In a closed vessel when the rate of evaporation become equal to rate of condensation, i.e. equilibrium is
established, the pressure exerted by the vapours of liquid on its on surface is known as vapour pressure.
Evaporation and
condensation occurs
Closed vessel
The magnitude of vapour pressure depends upon the following points :
(a) Nature of Liquid : The vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon the nature of the liquid. Lesser
are the intermolecular forces between the liquid molecules more is the equilibrium vapour pressure.
(b) Temperature of Liquid : As the temperature increases, more number of molecules possess above-
average kinetic energies, so the number of molecules escaping from the liquid surface increases.
Hence, vapour pressure of a liquid increases with rise in temperature.
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Chemistry - NSEJS States of Matter 135
SURFACE TENSION
Surface tension may be defined as the force acting per unit length perpendicular to the line drawn
on the surface of liquid.
It is denoted by Greek letter ''
Dimensions = kgs–2
S.I. Unit = Newton per metre (Nm–1)
C.G.S. Unit = Dynes per centimetre (dyne cm–1)
Surface tension is dependent upon two factors :
(a) Nature of liquid
(b) Temperature
VISCOSITY
Viscosity is actually the measure of resistance to the flow of the liquid.
viscosity is defined as the internal resistance to flow in liquids which arises due to the internal friction
between the layers of liquid as they slip past one another while liquid flows.
Units
S.I. unit = newton second per square metre (N s m–2)
= Pascal second (Pa s = 1 kg m–1 s–1)
C.G.S. unit = Poise
= 1 g cm–1s–1
= 10–1 kg m–1 s–1
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Choose the correct answer :
1. If the pressure of a gas contained in a closed 6. Which of the following statements is wrong ?
vessel is increased by 0.4 % when heated by 1°C (1) Evaporation is a spontaneous process
its initial temperature must be
(2) Evaporation is a surface phenomenon
(1) 250 K (2) 250°C
(3) Vapour pressure decreases with increase of
(3) 25°C (4) 25 K temperature
2. Equal weights of methane and hydrogen are mixed (4) The vapour pressure of a solution is always
in an empty container at 25°C. The fraction of total less than the vapour pressure of a pure solvent
pressure exerted by hydrogen is
7. Normal boiling point of a liqiud is that temperature
(1) 1/2 (2) 8/9 at which vapour pressure of the liquid is equal to
(3) 16/19 (4) 1/9 (1) Zero
3. A 0.5 dm flask contains gas A and 1 dm3 flask
3
(2) 380 mm of Hg
contains gas B at the same temperature. If density
(3) 760 mm of Hg
of A = 3 g/dm3 and that of B = 1.5 g/dm3 and the
molar mass of A = 1/2 of B, the ratio of pressure (4) 100 mm of Hg
exerted by gases is 8. Water boils at lower temperature on high altitudes
because
PA PA
(1) 2 (2) 1 (1) Atmospheric pressure is low there
PB PB
PA PA (2) Atmospheric pressure is high there
(3) 4 (4) 3
PB PB (3) Water is weakly hydrogen bonded there
4. 120 g of an ideal gas of molecular weight 40 are (4) Water in pure form is found there
confined to a volume of 20 litre at 400 K, then the 9. The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube is due to
pressure of gas is
(1) Viscosity (2) Osmosis
(1) 490 atm
(3) Diffusion (4) Surface tension
(2) 4.92 atm
10. Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen
(3) 2236 atm molecule. At 298 K, the average kinetic energy of
(4) 22.4 atm a helium atom is
5. The volume of oxygen required for complete (1) Two times that of a hydrogen molecules
oxidation of 2 litre of methane at NTP is (2) Same as that of a hydrogen molecules
(1) 12.25 L (2) 4 L (3) Four times that of a hydrogen molecules
(3) 1 L (4) 3 L (4) Half that of a hydrogen molecules
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Chemistry - NSEJS States of Matter 137
11. If two moles of an ideal gas at 546 K occupies a 17. For 20% decrease in volume of given amount of an
volume of 44.8 litres, the pressure must be ideal gas at constant temperature, its pressure
(1) 2 atm (2) 3 atm should be increased by
(3) 4 atm (4) 1 atm (1) 20% (2) 25%
12. Which of the following curves does not represent (3) Less than 20% (4) Can’t be calculated
Boyle's law?
18. 1000 mL of a gas A at 600 torr and 500 ml of gas
(1) (2) B at 800 torr are placed in 2 L flask. The final
log P pressure will be
P
(1) 2000 torr
V log V (2) 1000 torr
(3) (4)
P (3) 500 torr
P
(4) 0.5 atm
1/V V 19. Boyle’s law can be represented by the equation
13. A closed vessel contains equal number of nitrogen (1) PV = constant at variable temperature
and oxygen molecules at pressure of P mm. If
nitrogen is removed from the system, then the (2) P1V1 = P2V2 when temperature is variable
pressure will be P1 V2
(1) P (2) 2P (3) when temperature is constant
P2 V1
(3) P/2 (4) P2 (4) P 1 + P 2 = V 1 + V 2 when temperature is
14. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an constant
ideal gas, between two successive collisions a gas 20. The values of the universal gas constant (R) is
molecule travels
(1) 0.82 L atm K–1 mol–1
(1) In a straight line path
(2) With an accelerated velocity (2) 8.2 L atm K–1 mol–1
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Thermochemistry CHAPTER 6
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Energy transformations are subjected under thermodynamic Introduction
studies and for this various thermodynamic laws have been
The System and The Surroundings
formulated to make a comprehensive study of these energy
transformations. State of a System
Extensive and Intensive Properties
These laws become useful in finding the reason which drives
the chemical reactions, feasibility of the reactions under given The Internal Energy as a State Function
set of conditions and to the extent which it can proceed. Enthalpy
Heat Capacity
THE SYSTEM AND THE SURROUNDINGS
Enthalpy Change, rH of a Reaction–Reaction
A system in thermodynamics refers to that part of universe in Enthalpy
which observations are made and remaining universe
constitutes the surroundings. The surroundings include Hess’s Law of Constant Heat Summation
everything other than the system. System and the Assignment
surroundings together constitute the universe.
The universe = The system + The surroundings.
STATE OF A SYSTEM
Thermodynamic State of a System
A state is the condition of a system as specified by its physical properties.
e.g.,
He
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140 Thermochemistry Chemistry - NSEJS
In above figure "He" behave ideally and pressure and volume are only defined system is not fully defined
because two variable that is temperature and number of moles are not defined so, all needed variable are not
known hence thermodynamic state of a system is not defined. But if P, V, T are defined then 'n' can be derived
from ideal gas equation and other properties like mass, density etc. can be derived so, we can say
thermodynamic state of the system is defined.
Thermodynamic Properties
(a) State function : Those physical quantities whose value depend only upon the state of the system and
does not depend upon the path by which this state has been attained are said to be state function.
Some common state functions are pressure (p), volume (V), temperature (T), internal energy (U),
enthalpy (H), entropy (S), etc.
(b) State variables : The state of a thermodynamic system is described by its measurable or
macroscopic (bulk) properties. The fundamental properties which determine the state of a system are
pressure (p), volume (V), temperature (T), amount (n) etc. Variables like p, V, T are called state
variables because a change in the magnitude of such properties alter the state of the system. So, it
can be said that the change of system from initial state to final state is accompanied by change in
the state variables.
(c) Path Functions : The thermodynamic parameters where value does not depend merely on initial and
final state but depends upon the path followed i.e., heat (q), work done (W).
These are those properties which depend upon the quantity of the matter present in the system. Some
examples of the extensive properties are volume, number of moles, enthalpy, entropy, mass, internal
energy, gibbs free energy etc. The extensive properties are additive in nature.
(b) Intensive properties
These are those properties which depends on the nature of the substances present in the system and
are independent of the quantity of the matter present. Some examples of intensive properties are pressure,
temperature, density, refractive index, viscosity, surface tension concentration etc.
ENTHALPY (H)
We know that energy change occurring during the reaction at constant temperature and constant volume is
given by internal energy change i.e., heat absorbed at constant volume is equal to change in the internal
energy i.e., U = qV. However most of the reactions in the laboratory are carried out in open beakers or test
tubes, etc. In such cases, the reacting system is open to atmosphere. Since atmospheric pressure is almost
constant, therefore, such reactions may involve change in volume. The energy change occurring during such
reactions may not be equal to the internal energy change. So, we need to define another state function which
may be suitable under these conditions.
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Chemistry - NSEJS Thermochemistry 141
H = U + pV
Thus, H is a measure of heat evolved or absorbed in a reaction or process at constant temperature and
constant pressure.
H = U + pV
H = U + ngRT
Example 1 : If water vapour is assumed to be a perfect gas, molar enthalpy change for vaporization of 1 mol
of water at 1 bar and 100°C is 41 kJ mol–1. Calculate the internal energy, when 1 mol of water
is vapourised at one bar pressure and 100°C.
Solution : The change H2O(l) H2O(g)
H = U + ngRT
or U = H – ngRT
= 41 kJ mol–1 – 1 × 8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 373 K
= 41 kJ mol–1 – 3101 J mol–1
= 41 kJ mol–1 – 3.101 kJ mol–1
= 37.9 kJ mol–1
HEAT CAPACITY
The topic is concerned with the measurement of heat. Whenever a substance is heated, its temperature usually
rises.
The increase in temperature is proportional to the heat transferred
q = coefficient × T
The magnitude of the coefficient depends on the size, composition and nature of the system. We can also
write it as
q = CT
The coefficient C is called the heat capacity which is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of a substance by 1°C.
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature from T1 to T2 of mass m gram of a sample and having
specific heat C, can be calculated from the expression.
q = m × C × T
Example 2 : Calculate the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 13.5 g aluminium from 300 K
to 400 K, if specific heat of aluminium is 0.9 J (°C)–1 g–1.
Solution : q = C m T
= 0.9 × 13.5 × (T2 – T1)
= 0.9 × 13.5 × 100
= 1215 J
= ∑ aiHProducts ∑ biHReactants
Here symbol is used for summation and ai and bi are the stoichiometric coefficients of the products and
reactants respectively in the balanced chemical equation. For example, for the reaction
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
rH ∑ aiHProducts ∑ biHReactants
Example 3 : Calculate the enthalpy change where the standard heat of formation for gaseous NH3 is
–11.02 kcal / mol at 298 K. The reaction given is
1 3
N2(g) + H2(g) NH3(g)
2 2
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Chemistry - NSEJS Thermochemistry 143
Solution : rHs = SfHsProduct – SfHsReactant
⎡1 ⎤ ⎡3 ⎤
= [fHs(NH3)] – ⎢ Hof (N2 )⎥ ⎢ Hof (H2 )⎥
⎣2 ⎦ ⎣2 ⎦
⎡1 ⎤ ⎡3 ⎤
= [–11.02 kcal mol–1] – ⎢ (0)⎥ ⎢ (0)⎥
⎣2 ⎦ ⎣2 ⎦
–1
= –11.02 kcal mol – 0
= –11.02 kcal mol–1
The standard enthalpies of formation of element in its reference state is taken as zero, therefore
fHs for N2 and H2 has been taken as zero.
Standard enthalpy of combustion is the amount of heat evolved (because combustion reactions are exothermic
in nature), when one mole of the substance under standard conditions (298 K, 1 bar pressure) is completely
burnt to form the products also under standard conditions.
13
C4H10(g) + O (g) 4CO2(g) + 5H2O(l); cHs = –2658.0 kJ mol–1
2 2
1
C(s) + O (g) CO(g); rHs1 = –110.5 kJ mol–1
2 2
1
CO(g) + O (g) CO2(g); rHs2 = –283.0 kJ mol–1
2 2
Overall change C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g); H = –393.5 kJ mol–1
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Choose the correct answer :
1. Internal energy does not include 6. Which of the following equations represents a
(1) Vibrational energy reaction that provides the heat of formation of
ethane (CH3CH3)?
(2) Rotational energy
(1) 2 C(s) + 6 H(g) CH3CH3(g)
(3) Nuclear energy
(2) 2 C(s) + 3 H2(g) CH3CH3(g)
(4) Energy arising by gravitational pull (3) CH2 = CH2(g) + 2 H2(g) CH3CH3(g)
2. Which one of the following quantity is dependent on (4) CH–CH(g) + 2 H2O(g) CH3CH3(g) + O2(g)
path? 7. Which of the following equations represents a
(1) Molar internal energy (2) Volume reaction that provides the heat of formation of
CH3Cl?
(3) w (4) q + w
(1) C(s) + HCl(g) + H2(g) CH3Cl(g)
3. How much energy must be supplied to change 36 g
(2) C(s) + 3/2 H2(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g) CH3Cl(g)
of ice at 0°C to water at room temperature 25°C?
(3) C(s) + 3 H(g) + Cl(g) CH3Cl(g)
Data for water, H2O H°fusion = 6.01 kJ mol–1 Cp.liquid
(4) CH4(g) + Cl2(g) CH3Cl(g) + HCl(g)
= 4.18 J.K–1 g–1
8. Use the given standard enthalpies of formation to
(1) 12 kJ (2) 16 kJ determine the heat of reaction of the following
(3) 19 kJ (4) 22 kJ reaction:
TiCl4(g) + 2 H2O(g) TiO2(g) + 4 HCl(g)
4. Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with ice
at constant pressure is H TiCl4(g) = –763.2 kJ/mole
o
f
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Chemistry - NSEJS Thermochemistry 145
10. The heats of formation of CO2(g) and H2O(l) are 16. For the following reaction :
–394 kJ/mole and –285.8 kJ/mole respectively. CDiamond + O2 CO2(g) ; H = 4.3 kcal
Using the data for the following combustion reaction,
calculate the heat of formation of C 2 H 2 (g). CGraphite + O2 CO2(g); H = 7.6 kcal
2 C2H2(g) + 5 O2(g) 4 CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l) The heat required to change 1 g of Cdiamond
H = – 2601 kJ
o Cgraphite is
(1) – 238.6 (2) 253.2 (1) 1.59 kcal (2) 0.1375 kcal
(3) 238.7 (4) 226.7 (3) 0.55 kcal (4) 0.275 kcal
11. Using the following information calculate the heat 17. For which of the following change H E ?
of formation of NaOH. (1) H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI (g)
2 Na(s) + 2 H2O(l) 2 NaOH(s) + H2(g) (2) HCI (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl(aq) + H2O (l)
H = – 281.9 kJ
o
(3) C(s) + O2 (g) CO2 (g)
H H2O(l) = –285.8 kJ/mole
o
f (4) N2 (g) + 3H2(g) 2 NH3 (g)
(1) – 141.6 (2) – 712.6
18. Hr of which of the following reactions is zero ?
(3) – 426.8 (4) – 650.4
(1) H2 (g) 2H+ (g) + 2e–
12. What amount of heat energy (kJ) is released in the
(2) 2H (g) + aq 2H+ (aq) + 2e–
combustion of 12.0 g of C3H4?
(3) 2H (g) 2H+ (g) + 2e–
(Atomic weights: C = 12.01, H = 1.008, O = 16.00).
(4) H2 (g) + aq 2H+ (aq) + 2e–
C3H4(g) + 4 O2(g) 3 CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l)
19. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon
Ho = –1939.1 kJ
monoxide are –393.5 and –283 kJ mol–1 respectively.
(1) 725 (2) 504 The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per mole
(3) 783 (4) 581 (1) 110.5 kJ (2) 676.5 kJ
13. The standard heat of combustion of solid boron is (3) –676.5 kJ (4) –110.5 kJ
equal to
20. On the basis of the following thermochemical data
1
(1) H°f(B2O3) (2)
2
H°f(B2O3) 0
: G f H aq 0
1 H2O(l) H+(aq) + OH–(aq) ; H = 57.32 kJ
(3) 2H°f(B2O3) (4) H°f(B2O3)
2
1
14. The bond dissociation energy of gaseous H2, Cl2 and H2(g) + O (g) H2O (l) ; H = –286.20 kJ
2 2
HCl are 104, 58 and 103 kcal mol–1 respectively. The
enthalpy of formation for HCl gas will be The value of enthalpy of formation of OH– ion at 25°C
is
(1) –44.0 kcal (2) –22.0 kcal
(1) +228.88 kJ (2) –343.52 kJ
(3) 22.0 kcal (4) 44.0 kcal
(3) –22.88 kJ (4) –228.88 kJ
15. The enthalpy change for the following reaction is 514
kJ. Calculate the average Cl – F bond energy. 21. The difference between the reaction enthalpy change
(rH) and reaction internal energy change (rU) for
ClF3(g) Cl(g) + 3 F(g) the reaction :
(1) 1542 2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) at 300K
(2) 88 is (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)
(3) 171 (1) 0 J mol–1 (2) 2490 J mol–1
(4) 514 (3) –2490 J mol–1 (4) –7482 J mol–1
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146 Thermochemistry Chemistry - NSEJS
22. Which of the following reaction defines H°f ? 26. The enthalpy of combustion of yellow P and
(1) C(diamond) + O2(g) CO2(g) red P are –9.91 kJ and –8.75 kJ respectively.
The enthalpy of transition of yellow to red
1 1 phosphorous is
(2) H (g) + F2(g) HF(g)
2 2 2 (1) –1.16 kJ
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (2) +1.16 kJ
(3) +18.69 kJ
1
(4) CO(g) + O2(g) CO2(g) (4) –18.69 kJ
2
27. Enthalpy of formation of A, B, C and D are –50,
23. Which of the following is not an endothermic
–80, +50, and +80 kJ mol –1 respectively.
reaction?
The order of stability is
(1) Combustion of methane
(1) A > B > C > D
(2) Decomposition of water
(2) B > A > C > D
(3) Dehydrogenation of ethene to ethylene (3) B > A > D > C
(4) Conversion of graphite to diamond (4) A > B > D > C
24. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of CO2 is 28. The correct increasing order of unit of energy
equal to
(1) erg < calorie < joule
(1) Zero
(2) erg < joule < calorie
(2) Standard molar enthalpy of combustion of
(3) joule < erg < calorie
carbon (graphite)
(4) joule < calorie < erg
(3) Standard molar enthalpy of combustion of
gaseous carbon 29. x kJ of energy is released on burning 1 g of carbon
completely. The enthalpy of combustion of carbon is
(4) Sum of molar enthalpies of formation of CO
and O2 (1) x kJ (2) –12x kJ
25. If enthalpy of sublimation of C(s) is x kJ/mol then (3) –6x kJ (4) –3 kJ
its enthalpy of atomisation of C(S) is 30. In case of melting of ice, the H is
(1) x kJ/mol (2) x/2 kJ/mol (1) Negative (2) Positive
(3) 2x kJ/mol (4) 4x kJ/mol (3) Zero (4) None of these
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Equilibrium CHAPTER 7
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
We have studied many chemical reactions. Some of the Introduction
chemical reactions do not undergo completion i.e., after some
time, there is no change in concentration of reactants and
Physical Equilibrium
products. Some of the reactants remain unreacted. The Equilibrium in Chemical Process
reaction in this stage is said to be in equilibrium. It exists in Ionic Equilibrium in Solution
physical as well as in chemical processes and named as
The pH Scale
physical equilibrium and chemical equilibrium respectively.
Strong Acids
Equilibrium
Ionization Constants of Weak Acids and Weak
Bases
Physical Equilibrium Chemical Equilibrium
Example :
Assignment
Ice Water
PHYSICAL EQUILIBRIUM
We know that solid, liquid and gas are the three states of substance. Therefore, three types of physical equilibrium
are possible. These are
Solid(s) liquid (l)
Liquid(l) gas(g)
Solid(s) gas(g)
Here the sign double half arrows ( ) pointing in the opposite directions is both for the reversible change
as well as for the equilibrium state.
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148 Equilibrium Chemistry - NSEJS
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Now, let us consider a general case of a reversible reaction carried in a closed container and how equilibrium
is attained.
A+B C+D
ts
duc
Pro
Concentration
State of
equilibrium
Re
act
ants
Time Equilibrium
Fig. : Change in concentration with time
K1 [C][D]
or Kc
K2 [A][B]
where Kc is called the equilibrium constant for a general reaction.
Now let us consider a general reversible reaction in a state of equilibrium.
aA + bB cC + dD
By applying the law of mass action
The equilibrium constant (Kc) may be written as
K1 [C]c [D]d
Kc
K 2 [A]a [B]b
The above relationship is the mathematical expression for the law of chemical equilibrium. Thus, the law of
the chemical equilibrium may be defined as:
“In a reversible reaction, at equilibrium the product of the molar concentration of products, each raised to the
power equal to its coefficient, divided by the product of the molar concentration of the reactant each raised
to the power equal to its coefficient, is constant at a constant temperature and is called equilibrium constant”.
Example 3 : For 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g), write the expression of Kc.
[NO]4 [H2O]6
Solution : Kc
[NH3 ]4 [O2 ]5
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150 Equilibrium Chemistry - NSEJS
AB(s) + aq A+(aq) + B–(aq)
Such an equilibrium is called ionic equilibrium between the ions and the undissociated electrolyte.
Applying the law of chemical equilibrium to the above equilibrium, we get
[A + ][B − ]
= Ki called ionisation constant
[AB]
THE pH SCALE
“The pH of a solution is defined as the negative logarithm (base 10) of its hydronium ion concentration.”
Mathematically,
pH = –log10[H3O+]
pH scale : It is the range for expressing the nature of any solution. We know that at 298 K, [H3O+] ranges
from 100M to 10–14 M. The corresponding pH range is from 0 to 14. The two scales are related to each other
as follows.
pH
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Neutral
Relation between pH scale and [H3O+] at room temperature (298 K)
STRONG ACID
Consider a strong acid like HA having concentration of C mole / L. So the [H+] coming from acid is also
C, but some [H+] is also coming from self ionization of water (x).
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Chemistry - NSEJS Equilibrium 151
HA H+ + A–
H2O H+ + OH–
pH = –log[H+]Total = –log [[H+]Acid + [H+]Water]
pH = –log (C + x)
C + x C, If C 10–6
Hence, pH = –logC
[H3 O ][A ] c c 2c 2
Ka
[HA] c(1 ) c(1 )
Hence for, <<< 1
Ka = 2c
1/2
⎛K ⎞
⎜ a⎟
⎝ c ⎠
(K a V)1/2
1
Here V is the volume of the solution in litres containing 1 mole of the electrolyte, c = .
V
In case of a weak electrolyte, at a given temperature, the degree of ionisation is inversely proportional to the
square root of the molar concentration or directly proportional to square root of the volume of the solution which
contains one mole electrolyte.
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This is called Ostwald’s dilution law.
Similarly, the dissociation of a weak base in water can be represented by the equilibrium
BOH + H2O B+(aq) + OH–(aq)
The dissociation constant of the weak base, represented by Kb, will be given by
[B ][OH ]
Kb
[BOH]
Example 4 : If Ka of a weak acid is 4 × 10–6 and its concentration is 0.1 M. Find pH of solution.
1
Solution : pH = [pKa – logc]
2
1
= [–log4 × 10–6 – log10–1]
2
1
= [–0.6020 + 6 + 1]
2
1
= [7 – 0.602]
2
= 3.199
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Choose the correct answer :
5. The pH of a solution obtained by mixing 50 mL of
1. An acid solution of pH 6 is diluted thousand times. 0.4 N HCl and 50 mL of 0.2 N NaOH is
The pH of solution becomes approximately
(1) – log 2
(1) 6.96
(2) – log 0.2
(2) 6
(3) 1.0
(3) 4
(4) 2.0
(4) 9
6. The pH of a solution is 7.00. To this solution suffi-
2. pOH of H2O is 7.0 at 298 K. If water is heated at cient base is added to increase the pH to 12.0. The
350 K, which of the following should be true? increase OH– ion concentration is
(1) pOH will decrease (1) 5 times
4. A 50 mL solution of pH = 1 is mixed with a 50 mL 8. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of
solution of pH = 2. then pH of the mixture will be an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create
nearly an aqueous solution with pH of 2?
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9. The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is 3. 14. What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction
The value of the ionization constant, Ka of this acid P4(s) + 5O2(g) P4O10(s) ?
is
(1) KC = [P4O10] / [P4] [O2]5
(1) 1 × 10–7 (2) KC = [P4O10] / 5 [P4] [O2]
(2) 3 × 10–7 (3) KC = [O2]5
(3) 1 × 10–3 (4) KC = 1 / [O2]5
(4) 1 × 10–5 15. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g)
2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 × 10– 4. The
10. An acid HA ionises as
1
H+ + A–
HA value of KC for the reaction NO(g) N +
2 2(g)
The pH of 1.0 M solution is 5. Its dissociation 1
O
constant would be 2 2(g)
(1) 2.5 × 102 (2) 50
(1) 1 × 10–10
(3) 4 × 10– 4 (4) 0.02
(2) 5
16. Which of the following is irreversible reaction?
(3) 5 × 10–8
(1) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
(4) 1 × 10–5
(2) N2 + O2 2NO
11. In a reaction PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 degree of
(3) 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
dissociation is 30%. If initial moles of PCl5 is one
then total moles at equilibrium is (4) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
17. Which of the following statement is correct for a
(1) 1.3
reversible reaction?
(2) 0.7
(1) Its time of completion is finite
(3) 1.6
(2) Products recombine to give back reactants
(4) 1.0 (3) It never go to completion
12. For reaction HI ½ H2 + ½ I2 value of Kc is (4) Both (2) & (3)
1/8 then value of Kc for H2 + I2 2HI is 18. Which of the following is correct according to
1 Ostwald’ dilution law?
(1)
64 (1) Degree of ionisation of a strong electrolyte
1
(2) 64
concentration
1
(3) (2) Degree of ionisation of a weak electrolyte
8
1
(4) 8 concentration
13. In which of the following process reaction is fastest (3) Degree of ionisation of a strong electrolyte
complete? concentration
(1) K = 10 (2) K = 1 (4) Degree of ionisation of a weak electrolyte
(3) K = 10 3
(4) K = 10 –2 concentration
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19. The number of H+ in 100 ml of a solution of 24. pH value of HCN at 1(M) concentration is 4. If it is
pH = 10 is diluted to 10–2(M) then what will be its pH value?
20. The degree of ionisation of 0.01 M aqueous solution 25. Equal volumes of two solutions of HCl, one having pH =
of 2 and the other having pH = 3 are mixed together.
What is the pH value for the resultant solution?
NH4OH is (Kb = 1.8 × 10–5)
(1) 3 – log 5.5
(1) 4.24 × 10–2
(2) 2 – log 5.5
(2) 2.1 × 10–2
(3) 3 – log 8.5
(3) 4.24 × 10–4
(4) 2 – log 2.5
(4) 2.1 × 10–4
26. pH of 10–8 M HCl is nearly
21. 0.8 g NaOH is dissolved in water to form 2 litre
solution. Find the pH of the solution. (1) 8
(1) 2 (2) 4
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The s-Block Element CHAPTER 8
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
In this chapter we will study the general characteristics of the Introduction
alkali and alkaline earth metals and their compounds. We will
also study the compounds of s-block elements, their uses and
Group-1 Elements : Alkali Metals
importance, commercially and industrially. The biological Anomalous Properties of Lithium
significance of sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium Group-2 Elements : Alkaline Earth Metals
will also be discussed is this chapter.
Anomalous Behaviour of Beryllium
Assignment
1. Electronic Configuration
The alkali metals have one valence electron, outside the noble gas core.
[Noble gas]ns1 ; where n = 2 to 7
Since the outermost electron is loosely held, alkali metals readily lose electron to give monovalent M+ ions,
that is why they are most electropositive metals and are never found in free state in nature.
The electronic configurations of alkali metals are given below in table
Element Symbol Electronic configuration
Lithium Li 1s22s1 or [He]2s1
Sodium Na 1s22s22p63s1 or [Ne]3s1
Potassium K 1s22s22p63s23p64s1 or [Ar]4s1
Rubidium Rb 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p65s1 or [Kr]5s1
Caesium Cs 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d105s25p66s1 or [Xe]6s1
Francium Fr 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d104f145s25p65d106s26p67s1 or [Rn]7s1
2. Atomic and Ionic Radii
The atoms of alkali metals have the largest size in their respective periods. The atomic radius increases on
moving down the group.
Reason : On moving down the group there is a progressive addition of new energy shells. Although, the nuclear
charge also increases down the group but the effect of addition of new shells is more dominant and hence
atomic radii of alkali metals increases on going down the group from top to bottom
Alkali metal change itself into positively charged ions by losing their one valence electron. The monovalent
ions (M+) are smaller than of the parent atom. Within the group, the ionic radii increase with increase in atomic
number.
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158 The s-Block Element Chemistry - NSEJS
3. Ionization Enthalpy
The first ionisation enthalpies of alkali metals are low as compared to the elements of other groups belonging
to the same period. However, within the group the ionization enthalpies of the alkali metals decrease down
the group.
The radii of atoms of alkali metals are the largest in their respective periods, therefore, the outermost electrons
which are far away from the nucleus experience a less force of attraction from the nucleus and hence can
be easily removed.
Decrease in ionization enthalpy on moving down the group is due to increase in size of the atoms of alkali
metals and increase in the magnitude of screening effect due to increase in the number of intervening
electrons.
4. Hydration Enthalpy
The alkali metal ions are extensively hydrated in aqueous solutions. Smaller the ion more is the extent of
hydration. The hydration enthalpies of alkali metal ions decrease with increase in ionic size.
Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (hydration energy decreases)
Li+ has maximum degree of hydration and for this reason many lithium salts exist as hydrated salts. For
example, LiCl. 2H2O.
5. Physical Properties
Alkali metals are silvery white in colour and are generally soft and light metals. Softness of alkali metals is
due to weak metallic bonding in them because of large size of the atoms. As we move down the group metallic
bonding weakens and hence, softness increases. Potassium is softer than sodium. The densities of alkali
metals are low and increase down the group. Potassium, however, is lighter than sodium. Lithium is the
lightest metal having a density of 0.534 g/cm3. It cannot be stored in kerosene oil because it floats on the
surface. It is kept wrapped in paraffin wax. The low density of alkali metals is attributed to their large atomic
size and weak metallic bond. However, going down the group, atomic size as well as atomic mass increases
but the corresponding increase in atomic mass is not neutralised by the increase in atomic volume : Thus,
the ratio, mass/volume, i.e., density gradually increases.
Alkali metals have low melting and boiling point. The low melting point are attributed to their larger atomic
size, due to which the binding energies of their atoms in the crystal lattice are low. Further, in moving down
the group, their atomic size increase and the strength of metallic bond decreases which causes decrease
in melting points. The boiling points of the members of this group also follow the same order due to same
reasons.
Flame Colouration
When alkali metals and their salts are heated in the oxidizing flame of a Bunsen burner, they impart
characteristic colours to the flame. This happens because the heat from the flame excites the outermost orbital
electron to a higher energy level. When the excited electron comes back to the ground state, there is emission
of radiation in the visible region as given below.
Metal Li Na K Rb Cs
Colour Crimson red Yellow Violet Red violet Blue
/nm 670.8 589.2 766.5 780.0 455.5
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Chemistry - NSEJS The s-Block Element 159
6. Chemical Properties
The alkali metals are highly reactive elements. The cause for their high chemical reactivity is (i) Low value
of first ionisation enthalpy (ii) Large size (iii) low heat of atomisation. The reactivity of these metals increases
down the group.
(i) Reactivity towards air
You might have seen that alkali metals tarnish in dry air because of formation of their oxides and when
these oxides react with moisture they form hydroxides.
Alkali metals burn very fast in oxygen and form different kind of oxides like monoxides, peroxides and
superoxides. Lithium forms monoxide, sodium forms peroxide and other metals form superoxides. The
superoxide O2– ion generally remain stable only in the presence of large cations like K, Rb, Cs. This
stability is related to the compatibility of size and higher lattice energy
4Li + O2 2Li2O (oxide)
2Na + O2 Na2O2 (peroxide)
M + O2 MO2 (superoxide)
(M = K, Rb, Cs)
In all the compounds formed by alkali metals with oxygen, their oxidation state is +1.
Due to diagonal relationship with magnesium, lithium like magnesium forms its nitride, Li3N on heating
with N2. Rest of the alkali metals do not behave in this way.
6Li + N2 2Li3N
Alkali metals are generally kept immersed in kerosene oil because they are highly reactive towards air
and water.
(ii) Reactivity towards water
The alkali metals on reaction with water form their respective hydroxide and dihydrogen.
2M + 2H2O 2M+ + 2OH– + H2
(M = an alkali metal)
(iii) Reactivity towards dihydrogen
Alkali metal react with dry di-hydrogen at about 673 K (lithium at 1073 K) to form crystalline hydrides
which are ionic in nature and have high melting points.
Heat
2M H2 2MH–
(iv) Reducing Nature
The alkali metals have strong tendency to get oxidised, that is why they act as strong reducing agents,
among these lithium is the strongest and sodium is the least powerful reducing agent. The standard
electrode potential (Eº) measures the reducing power and represents the changes.
M(s) M(g) Sublimation enthalpy
M(g) M+(g) + e– ionization enthalpy
M+(g) + H2O M+(aq) hydration enthalpy
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160 The s-Block Element Chemistry - NSEJS
ANOMALOUS PROPERTIES OF LITHIUM
Points of difference between Lithium and other Alkali Metals
(i) As compared to other alkali metals, lithium is harder and its melting point and boiling point are higher.
(ii) Among all the alkali metals lithium is least reactive but the strongest reducing agent. When burnt in air
it forms mainly monoxide, Li2O and the nitride, Li3N unlike other alkali metals.
(iii) LiCl is deliquescent and crystallises as a hydrate, LiCl·2H2O whereas other alkali metal chlorides do
not form hydrates.
(iv) Except for lithium, rest of alkali metal’s hydrogen carbonates are obtained in the solid form.
(v) Lithium unlike other alkali metals forms no ethynide on reaction with ethyne.
(vi) Lithium nitrate when heated gives lithium oxide, Li2O, whereas other alkali metal nitrates decompose to
give the corresponding nitrite.
4LiNO3 2Li2O + 4NO2 + O2
2NaNO3 2NaNO2 + O2
(vii) LiF and Li2O are comparatively much less soluble in water than the corresponding compounds of other
alkali metals
Ionization Enthalpies :
The alkaline earth metals owing to their large size of atoms have fairly low values of ionization enthalpies.
Within the group, the ionization enthalpy decreases as the atomic number increases. It is because of increase
in atomic size due to addition of new shells and increase in the magnitude of screening effect of the electrons
in inner shells.
The first ionisation enthalpies of the alkaline earth metals are higher than those of the corresponding group
1 metals. This is due to their small size as compared to the corresponding alkali metals. It is interesting to
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Chemistry - NSEJS The s-Block Element 161
note that the second ionization enthalpies of the alkaline earth metals are smaller than those of the
corresponding alkali metal.
Hydration Enthalpies
The hydration enthalpies of alkaline earth metal ions are larger than those of alkali metal ions. Therefore,
compounds of alkaline earth metals are more extensively hydrated, for example, magnesium chloride and
calcium chloride exist as hexahydrates (MgCl2·6H2O and CaCl2·6H2O) whereas sodium chloride and potassium
chloride do not form such hydrates.
Like alkali metal ions, the hydration enthalpies of alkaline earth metal ions decrease with increase in ionic
size down the group.
Be2+ > Mg2+ > Ca2+ > Sr2+ > Ba2+
Physical Properties
The alkaline earth metals are silvery white, lustrous and relatively soft but harder than the alkali metals.
Beryllium and magnesium appear to be some what greyish. The melting and boiling points of these metals
are higher than the corresponding alkali metals due to smaller sizes. But this trend is not systematic, because
of the low ionisation enthalpies, they are strongly electropositive in nature. The electropositive character
increases down the group from Be to Ba.
Calcium, strontium and barium impart characteristic brick red, crimson and apple green colours respectively
to the flame. In flame the electrons are excited to higher energy levels and when they drop back to the ground
state, energy is emitted in the form of visible light. The electrons in beryllium and magnesium are too strongly
bound to get excited by flame. Hence, these elements do not impart any colour to the flame. Ca, Sr and
Ba give flame test which helps in their detection in qualitative analysis and estimation by flame photometry.
The alkaline earth metals just like those of alkali metals have high electrical and thermal conductivities which
are a typical characteristics of metals.
Chemical Properties
1. Reaction with Water : Ca Sr, and Ba have reduction potentials similar to those of corresponding
group Ist metals and are quite high in the electrochemical series. They react with cold water readily,
liberating hydrogen forming metal hydroxides.
Ca + 2H2O Ca(OH)2 + H2
2. Reaction with Air : Except Be these metals are easily tarnished in air as a layer of oxide is formed
on their surface. The effect of atmosphere increases as the atomic number increases. Ba in powdered
form bursts into flame on exposure to air.
3. Reaction with Hydrogen : The elements Mg, Ca, Sr and Ba all react with hydrogen to form hydrides
MH2. Beryllium hydride is difficult to prepare and less stable than others. BeH2 however can be prepared
by reaction of BeCl2 with LiAlH4.
2BeCl2 + LiAlH4 2BeH2 + LiCl + AlCl3
4. Reaction with Oxygen : Except Ba and Ra the elements when burnt in oxygen form oxides of the type
MO.
5. Reaction with Nitrogen : All alkaline earth metals react with N2 to form nitrides.
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6. Reaction with carbon : With the exception of Be, other metals when heated with carbon in an electric
furnace form carbides. These carbides are called acetylides.
Ca + 2C CaC2
7. Reaction with acids and bases : All metals react with acids and liberate H2 although Be reacts slowly
Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2
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Choose the correct answer :
1. Alkaline earth metals (group 2 or IIA elements) differ 8. The metallic lustre exhibited by sodium is explained
from group 12 (or IIB) elements in the electronic by
configuration of their
(1) Diffusion of sodium ions
(1) Antipenultimate shell (2) Innermost shell
(2) Oscillation of loose electrons
(3) Outermost shell (4) Penultimate shell
(3) Excitation of free protons
2. The first ionization enthalpy of magnesium is lower
(4) Existence of body centred cubic lattice
than the first ionization enthalpy of
9. The hydration energy of Mg2+ is greater than that of
(1) Lithium (2) Sodium
(1) Al3+ (2) Na+
(3) Calcium (4) Beryllium
3. A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate (3) Be2+ (4) Mg3+
MSO4, water insoluble hydroxide M(OH)2 and oxide 10. Which of the following imparts violet colouration to
MO which becomes inert on heating. The hydroxide the Bunsen burner non-luminous flame?
is soluble in NaOH. The M is (1) NaCl (2) BaCl2
(1) Be (2) Mg
(3) CaCl2 (4) KCl
(3) Ca (4) Sr
11. Which of the following does not illustrate the
4. A chloride dissolves appreciably in cold water. When anomalous properties of Li?
placed on a Pt wire in Bunsen flame, no distinctive
(1) The m.p. and b.p. of Li are comparatively high
colour is noted. Which cation could be present?
(2) Li is much softer than the other I group metals
(1) Be2+ (2) Ba2+
(3) Li forms a nitride Li3N unlike group I metals
(3) Pb2+ (4) Ca2+
(4) The ion of Li and its compounds are more
5. Maximum thermal stability is shown by
heavily hydrated than those of the rest of the
(1) MgCO3 (2) CaCO3 group
(3) SrCO3 (4) BaCO3 12. Which one of the following compounds gives
6. Stable oxide is obtained by heating the carbonate methane on treatment with water?
of the element (1) Al4C3 (2) CaC2
(1) Li (2) K
(3) VC (4) SiC
(3) Na (4) Rb
13. The alkali metal that reacts with nitrogen directly
7. The stable superoxide is formed by the element to form nitride is
(1) Li (2) Na (1) Li (2) Na
(3) K (4) Ca (3) K (4) Rb
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164 The s-Block Element Chemistry - NSEJS
14. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl 2 and MgCl 2 , the 21. Peroxides are formed by all except
compounds with the greatest and least ionic (1) Li (2) Ba
character respectively are
(3) Sr (4) Na
(1) LiCl, RbCl (2) RbCl, BeCl2
22. Sodium bicarbonate solution is alkaline due to
(3) RbCl, MgCl2 (4) MgCl2, BeCl2
(1) Hydrolysis of Na+ ion
15. Which of the following does not give an oxide on
heating? (2) Hydrolysis of HCO3– ion
(1) MgCO3 (2) Li2CO3 (3) Hydrolysis of both Na+ and HCO3– ion
16. Only those elements of s-block can produce 23. The correct order of stability of hydrides of alkali
superoxides which have metals is
(1) High ionisation energy (1) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH
(2) High electronegativity (2) NaH > KH > RbH > LiH
(3) High charge density (3) RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
(4) Low ionisation potential (4) LiH > RbH > KH > NaH
17. Which of the following groups of elements have 24. When CO is passed over solid NaOH heated to
chemical properties that are most similar? 200ºC, it forms
(1) Na, K, Ca (2) Mg, Sr, Ba (1) Na2CO3
(3) Be, Al, Ca (4) Be, Ra, Cs (2) H2CO3
18. If X and Y are the second ionisation potentials of (3) HCOONa
alkali and alkaline earth metals of same period, then (4) All of these
(1) X > Y (2) X < Y 25. Which of the following metallic chloride is covalent?
(3) X = Y (4) X << Y (1) Beryllium chloride
19. Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases (2) Sodium chloride
with their atomic number is
(3) Magnesium chloride
(1) Ionisation energy
(4) Barium chloride
(2) Solubility of their hydroxides
26. The nature of oxide of barium is
(3) Solubility of their sulphates
(1) Acidic (2) Basic
(4) Electronegativity
(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric
20. Incorrect statement is
27. The stability of alkaline earth metal carbonates
(1) The electropositive character of alkali metals
decreases in the order
decreases with increase in atomic number
(1) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3
(2) Lithium is a hard metal and cannot be cut
with a knife (2) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3
(3) Alkali metals are strong reducing agents (3) CaCO3 > SrCO3 > MgCO3 > BaCO3
(4) Flame colouration is shown by all alkali metals (4) MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3
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Organic Chemistry
(Basic Nomenclature and Isomerism) CHAPTER 9
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Organic compounds are essential for existence and Introduction
maintenance of life on earth. These include complex
molecules like (DNA) which carry genetic information and
Structural Representations of Organic
Compounds
proteins which is building blocks of life. Organic compounds
also play an important role in material used in daily life such Classification of Organic Compounds
as cloths, fuel, dyes, and medicines etc. Nomenclature of Organic Compounds
Therefore, in this chapter, we shall discuss some basic Nomenclature of Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
principles and techniques of analysis needed for understanding
Isomerism
the formation and properties of organic compounds.
Assignment
For further simplification of the formula, the organic chemists use another way of representation known as bond
line structural representation.
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — CH3
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166 Organic Chemistry (Basic Nomenclature and Isomerism) Chemistry - NSEJS
OH
Cl
Organic Compounds
Homocyclic Heterocyclic
compounds compounds
Alicyclic Aromatic
compounds compounds
Benzenoid Non-benzenoid
compounds compounds
The remaining part of the molecule mainly affects the physical properties such as melting point, boiling point,
density, solubility etc.
H O
| |
H C C OH
|
H
Carboxylic Acid Functional Group
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Chemistry - NSEJS Organic Chemistry (Basic Nomenclature and Isomerism) 167
NOMENCLATURE OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
IUPAC System of Nomenclature :
The name of the organic compound according to IUPAC system consists of
Secondary prefix + Primary prefix + Word root + Primary suffix + Secondary suffix
C1 Meth
C2 Eth
C3 Prop
C4 But
C5 Pent
C6 Hex
C7 Hept
C8 Oct
C9 Non
C10 Dec
C11 Undec
C12 Dodec
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(ii) Lowest Number Rule : H3C — CH — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — CH — CH2 — CH2 — CH3
CH3 CH2 — CH3
1 2 3 4 5 6
(iii) Alphabetical Order of the Side Chain : H4C — CH — CH2 — CH — CH2 — CH3
CH3 CH2 — CH3
4-Ethyl-2-methylhexane
CH3 CH3
6 5 4 3 2 1
H3C — CH — CH2 — CH2 — C — CH3
CH3
2, 2, 5-Trimethylhexane
CH3 CH3
1 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5
CH3 — CH —
— CH — CH2 — CH2 — CH3 CH3 — C — CH2 — CH— —CH2
2-Hexene ||
CH2
1
2-methyl-1, 4-pentadiene
1 2 3 4 5
CH3— C —
—
— C — CH2 — CH3
2-Pentyne
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Chemistry - NSEJS Organic Chemistry (Basic Nomenclature and Isomerism) 169
Table : Some Functional Groups and Classes of Organic Compounds
Carboxylate – COO
–
– –oate Sodium butanoate,
– +
ions CH3(CH2)2COO Na
* If C of aldehyde functional group is counted in main chain of carbon then use oxo prefix otherwise formyl.
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170 Organic Chemistry (Basic Nomenclature and Isomerism) Chemistry - NSEJS
Following are the rules which are following while naming an organic compound with the functional group.
(1) Parent Chain : Parent chain is that carbon chain which includes the functional group without caring
whether it also denotes the longest possible carbon chain or not.
5 4 3 2
H3C — CH2 — CH2 —CH — CH2 — CH3
6 5 4 |3 2 1
1CH2OH
Parent Chain
The parent chain contains five carbon atoms instead of six carbon atoms.
(2) Numbering of the Parent Chain : The naming of the organic compound containing functional group is
done in such a way so that carbon attached to the functional group gets the lowest possible number in
the chain.
O
1 2 3 4 5 6 (Incorrect)
6 5 4 3 2 1
CH3 — CH — CH2 — C — CH2 — CH3 (Correct)
CH3
(3) The presence of a functional group is indicated by adding suffix, called as secondary suffix, after primary
suffix (ane, ene, yne). The ‘e’ of primary suffix is omitted if secondary suffix begins with ‘a’, ‘i’, ‘o’,
‘u’ and ‘e’
Examples :
CH3COOH
Ethanoic acid
ISOMERISM
Structural Isomerism
Compounds having the same molecular formula but different structure are called structural isomers and the
phenomenon is called structural isomerism. It is also known as constitutional isomerism.
(i) Chain Isomerism : The compounds having same molecular formula but different chain of carbon atom.
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CH3 CH3
| |
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — CH3 CH3 — CH — CH2 — CH3 CH3 — C — CH3
n-Pentane 2-Methyl butane |
or CH3
Isopentane Neo pentane
or
2, 2-Dimethyl propane
(ii) Position Isomerism : Compounds having the same molecular formula but different in position substituents,
C = C, C C or functional group are called position isomers.
Examples :
(a) C4H8
(b) C3H8O
OH
CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — OH CH3 — CH — CH3
Propan-1-ol Propan-2-ol
(iii) Functional Isomerism : The compounds having same molecular formula but different functional groups
in the molecule are called functional isomers.
Examples
O
CH3 — CH2 — CHO CH3 — C — CH3
Propanal Propanone
(Aldehydic functional group) (Ketonic functional group)
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(d) Cyanides & Isocyanids (CH3NC) :
CH3 — C N CH3 — N C
Methyl cyanide Methyl isocyanide
(iv) Metamerism : The compounds having same molecular formula but different alkyl group on either side of
the functional group, are called metamers.
Examples :
(a) C4H10O
(b) C4H11N
(c) C5H10O
O O
Note : Ketones show position isomerism as well as metamerism but preferentially we consider position
isomerism.
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Choose the correct answer :
1. Type of isomerism exists between 7. IUPAC name of neopentyl group is
CH3—CH2—CH2—CN and CH3 CH CH3 (1) 2,2-dimethylbutyl (2) 2, 2-dimethylpropyl
CN (3) 1, 1-dimethylbutyl (4) 1, 1-dimethylpropyl
(1) Position (2) Chain
8. Which compound is tertiary alcohol?
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
(1) 1-propanol (2) 2-methyl-1-hexanol
2. The number of primary alcohols possible with the
formula C4H10O is (3) 3-methyl-2-hexanol (4) 2-methyl-2-hexanol
(1) 2 (2) 3
9. The name for HC C C CH CH3 is
(3) 4 (4) 5
CH3
3. The total number of benzene derivatives having the
molecular formula C7H7Cl is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 3–Methyl–2–penten–4–yne
(3) 4 (4) 5 (2) 3–Methyl–3–penten–1–yne
4. The total number of benzene derivatives having the (3) 3–Methyl–4–pentyn–1–ene
molecular formula C7H8O is
(4) 3–Methyl pentenyne
(1) 3 (2) 4
10. The number of primary alkanols, secondary alkanols
(3) 5 (4) 6
and tertiary alkanols possible with the formula
5. The number of structural isomers of C6H14 is C4H10O is given by the set :-
(1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 2, 1, 0 (2) 1, 2, 1
(3) 5 (4) 6
(3) 2, 1, 1 (4) 2, 1, 2
6. IUPAC name of the hydrocarbon (A) is
CH3
11. The IUPAC name of is
A:
C2H5
(1) 1, 1-diethyl-2, 2-dimethylpentane
(1) 2-ethyl-5methylhexane
(2) 4, 4-dimethyl-5, 5-diethylpentane
(2) 5-ethyl-2methylhexane
(3) 2, 5-dimethylheptane (3) 5, 5-diethyl-4, 4-dimethylpentane
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BIOLOGY
Cell : The Unit of Life CHAPTER 1
INTRODUCTION
THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
All living organisms possess life and are made up of basic unit Introduction
structure called cell. An organism consists of one or more What is a Cell?
cells. Accordingly there are two types of organisms : Prokaryotic Cells
(i) Unicellular organisms - e.g., Amoeba, Diatoms etc. Eukaryotic Cells
Cell Organelles
(ii) Multicellular organisms - e.g., plants, animals etc.
Nucleus
Assignment
WHAT IS A CELL?
Unicellular organisms are capable of
(i) Independent existence
(ii) Performing the essential functions of life.
Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living. Thus, cell is the
fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
Robert Hooke studied and discovered the cell from a thin slice of cork but that was the ‘dead cell’. Anton
Von Leeuwenhoek was the first person who observed few living cells capable of moving, such as bacteria,
protozoa, spermatozoa and red blood corpuscles under his own designed microscope. Later, Robert Brown
discovered the nucleus of a cell. The invention of the microscope and its improvement leading to the electron
microscope revealed all the structural details of the cell.
PROKARYOTIC CELLS
Typical bacteria
(1-2 )
PPLO
(about 0.3 )
There is no well-defined nucleus. The genetic material is basically naked, not enveloped by a nuclear
membrane. In addition to the genomic DNA (the single chromosome/circular DNA), many bacteria have small
circular DNA outside the genomic DNA. These smaller DNA are called plasmids. The plasmid DNA confers
certain unique phenotypic characters to such bacteria. One such character is resistance to antibiotics. The
plasmid DNA is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA. No organelles, like the ones in
eukaryotes, are found in prokaryotic cells except for ribosomes.
Pilus
Filament
Hook
Basal
body
Ribosome
Flagellum
Mucilage Cytoplasm
Polyribosome
Nucleoid
Plasma
membrane
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Biology - NSEJS Cell : The Unit of Life 177
process, to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane and enzymatic content. Mesosome is found
in gram positive bacteria. In some photosynthetic prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, and purple bacteria, there
are other membranous extensions into the cytoplasm called chromatophores which contain pigments.
EUKARYOTIC CELLS
Eukaryotic cells are those cells which possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope. Some of the
important characteristics of eukaryotic cells are cytoskeletal structure, membrane-bound organelles and
organisation of genetic material into chromosomes. These cells occur in protista, fungi, plants and animals.
Cell Wall
The cells of bacteria, fungi, algae and plants have an additional non-living, rigid structure called the cell wall
that surrounds the plasma membrane. The composition of cell wall varies in different groups.
1. Fungal cell wall : The fungal cell wall is generally composed of chitin, a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine
(NAG) units.
2. Algal cell wall : The algal cell wall is made up of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like
calcium carbonate.
3. Plant cell wall : The plant cell wall is chiefly composed of the insoluble polysaccharides (cellulose).
Certain other compounds, such as hemicellulose, pectin and proteins are also present in the cell wall.
Functions of Cell Wall :
The cell wall serves many functions :
1. It maintains shape of the cells.
2. It protects the cells from mechanical injury.
3. It wards off the attacks of pathogens like viruses, bacteria, fungi, etc.
4. It allows the materials to pass in and out of the cell.
5. It helps in cell-to-cell interaction and provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules.
CELL ORGANELLES
1. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) :
(i) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) :
Function :
(a) It is specialised in the synthesis of lipids and steroids,
(b) Detoxification of drugs,
(c) Associated with muscle contraction by release and uptake of Ca2+ ions.
(d) Synthetic products of RER pass onto Golgi complex through SER.
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(ii) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) :
Function :
(a) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis and thus, RER are present in the cells which are
actively involved in the protein synthesis and secretion.
(b) It provides precursors of enzymes for the formation of lysosomes in Golgi complex.
(c) It gives rise to SER.
2. Golgi Apparatus :
Functions :
(i) The important function of Golgi apparatus is to process, package and transport the materials for
secretions.
(ii) A number of proteins synthesised by ribosomes present on the ER are transferred to golgi apparatus. These
proteins are then modified in the cisternae of Golgi apparatus before they are released from its
trans face.
(iii) Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins (glycosylation of proteins) and
glycolipids (glycosidation of lipids).
(iv) Root cap cells are rich in Golgi bodies which secrete mucilage for the lubrication of root tip.
(v) Acrosome of the sperm is modified Golgi apparatus.
(vi) Formation of plasma membrane during cytokinesis.
3. Mitochondria (Sing : Mitochondrion)
Structure :
(i) Mitochondria are surrounded by two membranes designated as outer and inner membrane. The outer
membrane is smooth and forms the continuous limiting boundary of the mitochondria whereas the inner
membrane forms a number of infoldings called the cristae (sing : crista). Due to the presence of two
membranes, the organelle is partitioned into two distinct chambers filled with aqueous fluid.
(a) Outer compartment or intermembrane space : It lies between the two mitochondrial membranes.
It is also called peri-mitochondrial space.
(b) Inner compartment or matrix : It lies inside the inner membrane. The cristae are infoldings of inner
membrane and are formed towards the matrix which increase the surface area for enzyme action.
(ii) The matrix contains single circular dsDNA molecule (with high G C content), a few RNA molecules,
70S ribosomes and the components required for the synthesis of proteins. The matrix also contains
enzymes for TCA (Tricarboxylic acid) cycle.
(iii) The two membranes have their own specific enzymes associated with the mitochondrial function. The
mitochondria divide by fission. The enzymes and electron carriers for formation of ATP are present
only in the inner membrane.
Outer Inner
Inter-membrane
membrane membrane
space
Matrix Crista
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Biology - NSEJS Cell : The Unit of Life 179
The cristae and the inner face of the inner membrane is studded with numerous spherical or knob like
protuberances called elementary particles or Particles of Fernandez and Moran or F1 particles or
oxysomes. Each oxysome is differentiated into base, stalk and head piece. The head piece contains
enzyme ATP synthetase which brings about oxidative phosphorylation coupled with release of ATP.
Head
Crista Intra cristal
space
Peri mitochondrial
Stalk
space (outer chamber)
Base
F0 – F1
particles F0 – F1-particle
Inner
Outer
membrane
membrane
Functions :
(i) Mitochondria are main sites of aerobic respiration. They are miniature biochemical factories where food
stuffs or respiratory substrates are completely oxidised to carbon dioxide and water. The energy liberated
in the process is stored in the form of ATP. These bring about the oxidation of carbohydrates, proteins
and -oxidation of fats.
(ii) The energy (ATP) produced in the mitochondria helps to perform various energy-requiring processes of
the cell like muscle contraction, nerve impulse conduction etc. Because of the formation of ATP,
mitochondria are called power house of the cell.
4. Chloroplasts :
Structure :
(i) Like mitochondria, chloroplasts are also double membrane-bound organelle having outer and inner
membrane. The inner membrane is relatively less permeable to substances than outer membrane and
thus, has more proteins including carrier proteins. The space enclosed by the inner membrane of the
chloroplast is called the stroma. Stroma contains a large number of organised flattened membranous
sacs called thylakoids which are arranged in stacks like the piles of coins called grana (sing: granum)
or the intergranal thylakoid.
(ii) The thylakoids of different grana are connected by flat membranous tubules called the stroma lamellae.
The membrane of the thylakoids enclose a space called a lumen.
(iii) The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins.
It also contains small, double-stranded circular DNA molecules and ribosomes. The ribosomes of the
chloroplasts (70S) are smaller than the cytoplasmic ribosomes (80S).
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Outer membrane
Inner membrane
Granum
Thylakoid
Stroma
lamella
Stroma
5. Ribosomes
A B
Functions : Ribosomes are sites of protein synthesis. The free ribosomes synthesize non-secretory proteins,
while ER bound ribosomes synthesize secretory proteins. Free ribosomes synthesise structural and enzymatic
proteins for use inside the cell. The attached ribosomes synthesise proteins for transport. Thus, these organelles
are also known as protein factories. Newly synthesized proteins are processed with the help of chaperons protein.
NUCLEUS
Nucleolus
Nuclear pore
Chromatin
Nuclear envelope
Nucleoplasm
Satellite
Secondary
constriction
Centromere
Centromere
Long arm
Acrocentric Sub-metacentric
sub-metacentric
Metacentric (SAT chromosome)
Fig. : Types of Chromosomes based on the Position of Centromere
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Choose the correct answer :
1. Which value will go on increasing if a flaccid cell 6. A chromosome with the centromere situated close
is placed in hypotonic solution? to its end forming one extremely short and one
(1) Osmotic pressure (2) Solute potential very long arm is called as
(3) Osmotic potential (4) Pressure potential (1) Telocentric (2) Acrocentric
2. Which of the following feature is common in all (3) Metacentric (4) Acentric
types of plastids? 7. A nuclear pore allows
(1) Presence of grana (1) Unidirectional movement of DNA
(2) Storage nature (2) Movement of RNA and proteins
(3) Presence of green pigments (3) Movement of proteins only
(4) Double membrane (4) Movement of RNA only
3. _____first explained that cells divided and new 8. Glycosylation, cell plate formation and general
cells are formed from pre-existing cells. secretions are major functions of
(1) Schwann (2) Robert Brown (1) Lysosome (2) Golgi complex
(3) Schleiden (4) Rudolf Virchow (3) RER (4) SER
4. Match the following : 9. Algal cell wall consists of
Column-I Column-II (1) Galactans, mannans and hemicellulose
a. Microfilaments (i) Formation of spindle (2) Mannans, galactans and lignins
fibres
(3) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
b. Microtubules (ii) Formation of
pseudopodia (4) Cellulose, pectins and hemicellulose
c. ER (iii) Formation of 10. Dictyosome is
desmotubules (1) Interconnected cisternae in animals
d. Lysosome (iv) Digestion of proteins (2) Non-connected cisternae in plants
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) 11. Select the incorrect match
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) Organelles Function
5. A special membranous structure in prokaryotes (1) Polysome – mRNA to protein
which is formed by the extensions of plasma (2) Sex-pili – Conjugation
membrane into the cell, helps in
(3) Mesosome – Secretion
(1) DNA replication (2) Locomotion
(4) Fimbriae – Locomotion
(3) Conjugation (4) Chemosynthesis
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Biology - NSEJS Cell : The Unit of Life 183
12. Which of the following statements is incorrect 17. Both chloroplast and mitochondria show similarity
w.r.t. fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane? in presence of
(1) Integral proteins are partially or totally buried in (1) Porins in the inner membrane
the membrane (2) Cardiolipins in the inner membrane
(2) The non-polar tail of unsaturated hydrocarbons (3) 70S ribosome
is protected from the aqueous environment (4) More than one option is correct
(3) The quasi-fluid nature of lipids enables lateral 18. Which one of the following does not differ in
movement of protein Lactobacillus and Spirogyra?
(4) The ratio of protein and lipid varies in different (1) Ribosome
cell types (2) Cell membrane
13. Which one of the following cellular parts is (3) Cell wall
incorrectly described? (4) Chromosomal organization
(1) Centrioles – Duplicated during S-phase, lie 19. Select the correct statement for the sectional view
perpendicular to each other in of chloroplast which is given below.
centrosome (b)
(2) Nucleolus – Sites for rRNA synthesis, non- (a)
(e)
membranous structure
(f)
(3) Stroma – Contains enzymes required for
(d)
the synthesis of carbohydrates
and O2 as byproduct
(c)
(4) SER – Part of endomembrane system,
(1) Part (d) Stroma lamellae lack NADP reductase
helps in detoxification of drugs
enzyme
14. Choose the wrong statement w.r.t. cell envelope of (2) Part (b) Outer membrane – less permeable
prokaryotic cell.
(3) Part (a) Inner membrane – contains porins
(1) It consists of a loosely bound three layered (4) Part (c) Stroma – contains small double
structures stranded linear DNA always
(2) On the basis of differences in the cell 20. Active transport is different from simple diffusion in the
envelopes the bacteria can be classified into (1) Absence of transport protein saturation
two groups
(2) Absence of transport protein movement
(3) Each layer of the envelope performs distinct
(3) Presence of uphill movement
function
(4) Presence of downhill movement
(4) The outermost layer is glycocalyx
21. Which of the following cell organelle is a major site
15. Eukaryotic chromatin consists of for the synthesis of steroidal hormones?
(1) dsDNA (circular), histone protein, some non- (1) Microbodies (2) RER
histone protein and RNA (3) Golgi bodies (4) SER
(2) dsDNA (linear), only histone proteins and RNA 22. Which of the following is not a property of cell
membrane?
(3) dsDNA (linear), histone protein, some
non-histone protein and RNA (1) Ratio of protein and lipid varies considerably in
different cell types
(4) dsDNA (circular), dsDNA (linear), histone
protein and RNA (2) The quasi-fluid nature of protein enables flip-flop
movement of lipid
16. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is
(3) Depending on the case of extraction, proteins
chiefly regulated by can be classified in two types
(1) Ribosomes (2) Plastids (4) Polar molecules cannot pass through the non-
(3) Mitochondria (4) Vacuoles polar lipid bilayer
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23. Nucleolus is the site of synthesis of ribosomal 30. Which of the following is incorrect statement w.r.t.
subunits which includes Golgi apparatus?
(1) 60S, 50S (2) 30S, 40S (1) The ER fuse with the cis face
(3) 40S, 60S (4) 30S, 50S (2) It remains in close association with the
endoplasmic reticulum
24. Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in all
living cells are (3) The cis and trans faces of the organelles are
similar but interconnected
(1) Nucleolus
(4) The Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged
(2) Centrosome near nucleus
(3) Mitochondria 31. Statement 1 : SER is specialised in the synthesis
(4) Ribosomes of lipids and steroids.
25. A chromosome with terminal centromere is called Statement 2 : Synthetic products of SER pass
onto Golgi complex through RER.
(1) Telomeric chromosome
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Telocentric
(2) Only statement-1 is incorrect
(3) Acrocentric chromosome (3) Only statement-2 is incorrect
(4) Idiochromosome (4) Both the statements are incorrect
26. How many of the given features are associated with Assertion and Reason Type Questions
both mitochondria and plastid? In the following questions, a statement of
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
70S ribosome, ds DNA, RuBisCO, Double reason (R).
membrane envelope, Thylakoids, Cristae (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) Five (2) Four assertion, then mark (1).
(3) Three (4) Two (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
27. Cell organelle with property of polymorphism is reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (2).
(1) SER (2) Lysosome
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) RER (4) Golgi complex false, then mark (3).
28. Select the incorrect match. (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) Schleiden – Plasma membrane statements, then mark (4).
(2) Palade – Ribosome 32. A : Mitochondria are known as the
powerhouse of the cell.
(3) Porter – ER
R : F0 – F 1 particles present on cristae in
(4) Flemming – Chromatin mitochondria are involved in synthesis of
29. Which of the following organelles lack membrane ATP.
in eukaryotic cell? 33. A : Many bacteria have small circular DNA
A. Flagella B. Microbodies outside the genomic DNA.
C. Centrioles D. Lysosomes R : These smaller DNA are called plasmids.
E. Ribosomes F. Cilia 34. A : In bacteria, a special membranous
structure called mesosome is formed by
(1) A & B (2) D & E invagination of cell wall.
(3) C & E (4) B & C R : Mesosomes are also found in viruses.
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Cell Cycle and Cell
Division CHAPTER 2
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Ability to grow and reproduce is the fundamental property of all Introduction
living organisms. Both multicellular and unicellular organisms
Cell Cycle
start their life or arise from a single cell, i.e., fertilized egg or
zygote. These organisms grow by addition of new cells which Phases of Cell Cycle
arise by division of pre-existing cells. Thus, cell division or cell Interphase
reproduction maintains the continuity of life. Cell division is
M-Phase
defined as a process in which a single parent cell divides
into two daughter cells. The two daughter cells are identical Mitosis
to each other and also to the parent cell. These two daughter Significance of Mitosis
cells grow, attain maturity and then divide again into two daughter Meiosis
cells. This process continues and a single cell divides into million
Significance of Meiosis
cells which form the body of organisms.
Assignment
CELL CYCLE
The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesizes other constituents of the cell and
eventually divides into two daughter cells is termed as cell cycle. It is a genetically controlled series of changes
that occur in a newly formed cell by which it duplicates its contents, undergoes growth and division to form two
daughter cells.
(i) Interphase
INTERPHASE
It is a long, non-dividing, growing phase of the cell cycle, where the cell prepares itself for division. It represents
the most active stage of the cell cycle where both cell growth and DNA replication occur in an orderly
manner. It is the period of intense growth and synthesis in which a cell stocks all the biomolecules required
during cell division. It is called the resting phase because there is no apparent activity related to cell division
rather, it deals with the changes that occur in a cell and the nucleus, before it enters into cell division. It is
further divided into three stages :
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(i) G1 Phase
G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication. In this phase, cell does not
synthesize or replicate DNA but remains metabolically active. The cell grows in size continuously and
synthesizes nucleotides, ATP, proteins, amino acids, RNA etc. (required during S phase). Most of the
organelles duplication occurs in this phase.
(ii) S Phase
‘S’ or synthesis phase is a phase in which synthesis or replication of DNA takes place. It is the phase in
which cell doubles its DNA. For example, if the initial amount of DNA is denoted by 2 C, then after the
S phase the amount of DNA would become 4C. The amount of nucleic acid, i.e., DNA (genetic material)
doubles but the number of chromosomes remains the same.
(iii) G2 Phase
G2 phase or Gap2 phase is the second gap phase present between S and M phase. Tubulin protein synthesis
take place. Mitochondria, Chloroplast and Golgi bodies duplicate in this phase.
The DNA synthesis stops at this phase but cell synthesizes RNA, proteins etc. required during the next phase.
M-PHASE
M phase or mitotic phase is the phase where actual cell division occurs. It is the most dramatic period of
the cell cycle. Prior to this, cell duplicates its components and during this phase, distribution of the already
duplicated components occurs in an orderly manner. It consists of two processes.
(i) Karyokinesis – where division of nucleus occurs
(ii) Cytokinesis – where division of cytoplasm occurs
MITOSIS
Definition : Mitosis is a process in which a parent cell divides into two identical daughter cells. These cells
are identical to each other as well as to the parent cell. It is a type of division in which already duplicated
chromosomes are distributed into two daughter cells equally, so that both the cells have the same number
of chromosomes. Mitosis is called equational division because the two daughter cells have the same number
of chromosomes as that present in the parent cell.
Occurrence : Mitosis is also called somatic cell division because it occurs in the somatic cells (body cells)
of the animals. It also occurs in the gonads for the multiplication of undifferentiated germ cells. In plants, it
occurs in the dividing meristematic tissue and also in leaves, flowers and fruits during growth.
Mechanism of Mitosis
Mitosis is an elaborate process, which involves a series of important changes in the nucleus as well as in
the cytoplasm. There are two major events that occur during mitosis.
(I) Karyokinesis (Division of nucleus)
(II) Cytokinesis (Division of cytoplasm)
The four stages of mitosis are :
(1) Prophase : The following events occur during prophase :
(i) The condensation of chromatin material takes place and during condensation.
(ii) Each chromosome appears double and consists of two coiled sister chromatids joined by a
centromere.
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Biology - NSEJS Cell Cycle and Cell Division 187
(iii) The centrioles in the animal cells, begin to move towards the opposite poles of the cell.
(iv) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle occurs during prophase.
(2) Metaphase : The following events occur during metaphase
(i) The disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the beginning of the metaphase. The nuclear
envelope disappears, and chromosomes spread through the cytoplasm of the cell.
(ii) The chromosomes contain two chromatids attached to each other through the centromere. The
chromosomes during this stage are the thickest and shortest.
(iii) Mitotic spindle formation is complete. The phenomenon of bringing the chromosomes on the equator
of spindle is called congression.
(iv) All the chromosomes align themselves at the equator.
(v) The centromere joins the two sister chromatids together.
(3) Anaphase : Anaphase is the phase where chromatids move towards the pole. Following events occur
during anaphase :
(i) The centromere which holds the two chromatids together splits and separated daughter chromatids
are now referred to as chromosomes of the future daughter nuclei.
(ii) The spindle fibres attached to the kinetochore now shorten and daughter chromosomes begin to
migrate towards the opposite poles. Formation of interzonal fibres occur.
(iii) During migration, chromosomes always move away from the equatorial plate.
(4) Telophase : Telophase is the end stage of mitosis. The following events occur during telophase :
(i) The chromosomes (sister chromatids) reach their respective poles. The mitotic spindle disappears.
(ii) After reaching the poles, the chromosomes gradually uncoil and become thin, slender, long and
lose their identity. The decondensation of chromosomes occur and finally they become
indistinguishable mass and collect at the poles.
(iii) Nucleolus, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies, and other organelles reappear in the daughter cells.
(iv) The nuclear envelop assembles around the chromatin cluster.
SIGNIFICANCE OF MITOSIS
1. Growth : Mitosis is essential for the growth and development of multicellular organisms. A fertilized egg
develops into an embryo which finally forms an adult by repeated mitotic divisions. Somatic cells of an
organism are formed by mitosis.
2. Maintenance of cell size : Mitosis maintains the size of the cell. An overgrown somatic cell is induced
to divide, so that it maintains a proper surface area to volume ratio, which is essential for proper functioning
of the cell. If a cell becomes large, then it enters into mitosis.
3. Maintenance of chromosome number (genetic stability) : Mitosis maintains the same type and
number of chromosomes in two daughter cells.
4. Repair : Mitosis is a mechanism for replacing old dead and worn out cells by the new cells.
5. Reproduction : Mitosis brings about reproduction (multiplication) in unicellular organisms.
6. Healing and regeneration : Mitosis produces new cells for healing the wounds and for regeneration.
MEIOSIS
In this division, a single parent cell (diploid) forms four daughter cells (haploid). Meiosis involves two sequential
cycles of nuclear division but only one cycle of DNA replication due to which four haploid daughter cells are
formed.
Occurrence : Only the cells of sexually reproducing organisms undergo meiosis, and only special cells in
the multicellular organism switch from mitosis to meiosis at a specific time in the life cycle.
An offspring produced by sexual reproduction involves fusion of two haploid gametes. These haploid gametes
are formed by meiosis. Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing
organisms whereas fertilization restores the diploid phase.
Meiosis consists of two divisions, i.e., Meiosis I and Meiosis II, which occur in a sequential manner.
Meiosis I Meiosis II
1. Prophase I Prophase II
2. Metaphase I Metaphase II
3. Anaphase I Anaphase II
4. Telophase I Telophase II
A. Meiosis I
It is the reductional division in which the number of chromosomes is reduced to half. It is studied in four
stages :
1. Prophase I : The long and complicated prophase I is further subdivided into five stages, viz., Leptotene,
Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakinesis.
(i) Leptotene : Condensation and coiling of chromatin fibres begins during leptotene. The chromatin
material condenses to form distinct chromosomes.
(ii) Zygotene : The two chromosomes which are similar in form, size, structure are called homologous
chromosomes. One of the homologous chromosomes is paternal chromosome and the other is
maternal chromosome.
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During zygotene, these homologous chromosomes start pairing together. These homologous
chromosomes come to lie side by side in pairs and this pairing is known as synapsis. The complex
formed by a pair of synapsed chromosome is called bivalent. Bivalent because two homologous
chromosomes form a pair.
(iii) Pachytene : Following events occur during pachytene :
(a) The chromatids of the homologous chromosomes now become clearly visible as tetrad. The
two chromatids of the same chromosome are called sister chromatids and two chromatids
of the two different homologous chromosomes are called non-sister chromatids.
(b) During pachytene, crossing over occurs between the non-sister chromatids of the homologous
chromosomes. The exchange of genetic material (DNA) between the non-sister chromatids
of the homologous chromosomes is known as crossing over.
(c) Crossing over leads to recombination of genetic material which involves a mutual exchange
of the corresponding segments of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. It takes
place by breakage and reunion of chromatid segments.
(iv) Diplotene : During this stage, the crossing over is completed and the two homologous
chromosomes begin to separate from each other.
The following events occur during this phase :
(a) The synaptonemal complex formed during the zygotene dissolves during diplotene. Therefore,
the homologous chromosomes separate except in the region of crossing over.
(b) The point of attachment between the homologous chromosomes after dissolution of the
synaptonemal complex is called chiasmata.
(v) Diakinesis : It represents transition to metaphase I. The following events occur during diakinesis :
(a) Spindle assembles to prepare homologous chromosomes for separation. It assembles at the
poles, so that it separates the homologous chromosomes into two cells.
(b) Terminalisation of chiasmata : Due to tight condensation of chromosomes, the chiasmata
disappear from the chromosomes by slipping off or sliding from the tip of the chromosomes.
The chiasmata move or shift to the tip of the chromosome and from there it either slips off
or remains at the tip.
(c) Nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope disintegrates.
2. Metaphase I : The nuclear envelope disintegrates, hence the chromosomes move into the cytoplasm.
Following events occur during metaphase :
(i) The bivalent chromosomes align themselves on the equatorial plate. The centromeres of the two
chromosomes are arranged in two rows at the equator. So double metaphasic plate is formed.
(ii) The distribution of the bivalent chromosomes are at random. The two chromosomes can face either
of the poles. There is no fixed direction in which paternal or maternal chromosomes would face.
(iii) The microtubules of the spindle fibres from opposite poles attach to the centromere of the
chromosome facing towards it.
3. Anaphase I : Following events occur during anaphase I :
(i) The two homologous chromosomes separate from each other. They start moving towards the poles.
(ii) The intact chromosome or univalent containing two chromatids held together by a centromere
separate and move towards the opposite poles due to spindle fibre attached to it. In this phase
division at centromere does not occur.
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(iii) Since only one chromosome out of a pair reaches the pole, the number of chromosome becomes half
in the daughter cells.
4. Telophase I : It is characterised by following events:
(i) The chromosomes reach the poles. The spindle fibres completely disappear.
(ii) The nucleolus and nuclear membrane reappear.
(iii) The chromosomes uncoil and elongate but remain straight in this phase. They do not reach the
extremely extended state of the interphase nucleus.
(iv) It produces two daughter cells each containing a single nucleus. The nucleus of the daughter cell
receives only one chromosome from each homologous pair and thus, it has half the number of
chromosome but double the amount of nuclear DNA as both the chromatids move together to a
single pole. The separation of these two chromatids occurs during meiosis II.
Centrioles
Centrosomes Centrioles
Centrosphere
Asters
Cell membrane
Nuclear
membrane Chromo-
Chromatin somes
Nucleolus
Cell 1
Daughter
cells
Chromo-
somes in Cell 2
two equatorial
plates
METAPHASE I ANAPHASE I TELOPHASE I
B. Meiosis II
The main event which occurs during meiosis II is the separation of the chromatid of the univalent chromosomes
present in the daughter cell formed after meiosis I. The chromatids present in the univalent chromosome differ
from each other due to crossing over. Meiosis II is divided into four phases, namely – Prophase II, Metaphase
II, Anaphase II, Telophase II.
1. Prophase II : Prophase II is not long and complicated as prophase I. It is a short phase where the
chromatids of the univalent condenses. The chromatin material again becomes compact. The nucleolus
and the nuclear envelope disintegrate and disappear.
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2. Metaphase II : The univalents, i.e., chromosomes align themselves at the equator, (on the equatorial
plane) in the metaphase II. The microtubules from the opposite poles extend towards the equator and
attaches at the kinetochore of the chromatids.
3. Anaphase II : It is the third phase of meiosis II. During this phase, the centromere holding the two
chromatids splits and allow the separation and movement of the two chromatids. Chromatids move to
the opposite poles.
4. Telophase II : This is the last stage of meiosis II. During this phase, the chromatids reach the poles
and start uncoiling. They decondense and become thin. The spindle fibres degenerate. The nuclear
membrane and nucleolus reappear and four haploid nuclei are formed. The telophase II is now followed
by cytokinesis which divides the cytoplasm and forms four individual haploid cells.
Daughter
cells
Daughter cell 1
of meiosis-I
PROPHASE II METAPHASE II ANAPHASE II TELOPHASE II
Daughter
cells
Daughter cell 2
of meiosis-I
PROPHASE II METAPHASE II ANAPHASE II TELOPHASE II
Cytokinesis
The cytoplasm divides by forming a furrow in the animal cell and cell plate in the plant cell. After cytokinesis,
a single cell divides into two daughter cells.
SIGNIFICANCE OF MEIOSIS
1. Formation of gametes : Meiosis produces gametes for sexual reproduction. Gametes are essential for
sexual reproduction because in sexual reproduction an organism is formed by the fusion of two gametes.
2. Maintenance of chromosome number : Meiosis reduces the chromosome number to half in the
gametes, so that fertilization restores the original diploid number in the zygote.
3. Introduction of variations : Meiosis provides a chance for the formation of new combinations of
chromosomes. This brings out variations.
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Choose the correct answer :
1. G1 phase can be identified with 6. Which of the following statements is wrong w.r.t
(1) Reappearance of nuclear membranes cell cycle?
(2) Synthesis of amino acids of histone (a) M-phase lasts more than 95% duration of cell
(3) Doubling of genetic material cycle.
(4) Synthesis of tubulin proteins (b) In human cell, the average duration of cell cycle
2. Choose incorrect pair. is 24 hour.
(1) Terminalisation – Diakinesis (c) Cells are metabolically active during G0 stage.
(2) Crossing over – Pachytene (d) Chromosome number becomes double in
(3) Synapsis – Zygotene S-phase.
(4) Synaptonemal complex – Leptotene (1) Only (a)
3. Condensation of chromosomes is completed and
(2) (a) and (b)
they can be observed clearly under the microscope in
(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase (3) (b) and (c)
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9. A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. Which 15. Longest phase of cell division is
stage is it and what are its characteristics? (1) Telophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Prophase
(4) Anaphase
16. Stage between the meiosis-I and meiosis-II is
(1) Characterised by DNA as well as centriole
(1) Anaphase – Chromatids move to opposite duplication
poles (2) Called cytokinesis
(2) Metaphase – Spindle fibres attached to (3) Characterised by polymerisation of nucleotides
centromere of kinetochore (4) Short lived than preparatory phase of cell cycle
(3) Late prophase – Nuclear membrane, nucleolus, 17. Restorage of nucleocytoplasmic ratio is performed
Golgi complexes and ER disappeared in
(4) Transition to metaphase – Spindle fibre (1) S-Phase (2) G2-Phase
attached to kinetochores of chromosome
(3) M-Phase (4) G1-Phase
10. At which stage of meiotic cell cycle, chiasmata
can be observed? 18. If spores have 10 chromosomes and 20
picogram(pg) DNA then what would be the
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene chromosome number and DNA amount in spore
(3) Diplotene (4) Metaphase-I mother cell at the end of S-phase in the life cycle
11. Diplotene stage is initiated with the of same plant?
(3) Synapsis – Zygotene (1) (i) & (ii) (2) (i) only
(4) Synthesis of nucleotides – G1 phase (3) (i) & (iii) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
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21. How many chromosomes will be present in the cell (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
at prophase and after M Phase respectively, if it reason is the correct explanation of the
has 20 chromosomes in meristematic cell? assertion, then mark (1).
(1) 10, 40 (2) 40, 40 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) 20, 20 (4) 10, 20
assertion, then mark (2).
22. In which stage of meiosis, lampbrush chromosome
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
is observed?
false, then mark (3).
(1) Anaphase-II (2) Diplotene
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene statements, then mark (4).
23. Statement 1 : Interphase is called the resting 24. A : Anaphase II is the short phase of the
phase. meiosis II.
Statement 2 : Mitotic phase is the most dramatic R : Chromatids undergo condensation during
period of the cell cycle. this phase.
(1) Both the statements are correct 25. A : Gametes are essential for sexual
reproduction.
(2) Only statement-1 is correct
R : In sexual reproduction an organism is
(3) Only statement-2 is correct
formed by the fusion of two gametes.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
26. A : Meiosis provides a chance for the
Assertion and Reason Type Questions formation of new combinations of
chromosomes.
In the following questions, a statement of
Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of R : Mitosis restores the original diploid
Reason (R). number in the zygote.
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Biological Classification CHAPTER 3
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Biological classification is the scientific procedure to classify Introduction
the organisms into different groups on the basis of their
Kingdom Systems of Classification
similarities and dissimilarities and placing the groups in a
hierarchy of categories. Over time, an attempt has been made Kingdom : Monera
to evolve a classification system which reflects not only the
morphological, physiological and reproductive similarities, but
Kingdom : Protista
is also phylogenetic i.e., based on evolutionary relationships. Kingdom : Fungi
In this chapter, we will study, the characteristics of kingdoms
Monera, Protista and Fungi of the Whittaker system of Viruses
classification. Along with we weill also study viruses in brief. Lichens
Assignment
KINGDOM SYSTEMS OF CLASSIFICATION
R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed five kingdom classification. He divided organisms into kingdom Monera,
Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.
Five Kingdoms
Characters
Monera Protista Fungi Plantae Animalia
Six kingdom classification : Carl Woese proposed six kingdom classification. These six kingdoms are
Kingdom-Archaebacteria, Kingdom-Eubacteria, Kingdom-Protista, Kingdom-Fungi, Kingdom-Plantae and
Kingdom-Animalia. He separated the archaebacteria from eubacteria on the basis of some major differences
such as the absence of peptidoglycan in the cell walls of the former and the occurrence of branched chain
lipids (a monolayer instead of a phospholipid bilayer) in the membrane.
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KINGDOM : MONERA
Characters of Monera
1. They are unicellular, colonial or filamentous, prokaryotic organisms without nuclear membrane, nucleolus,
chromatin and histone proteins.
2. Nucleoid or incipient nucleus is composed of naked DNA, RNA and non-histone proteins. DNA is circular
and double stranded.
3. Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan (Amino acids + Sugar) except in Archaebacteria and Mycoplasma.
4. Membrane bound cell organelles are absent.
5. Ribosomes are of 70S type.
6. Some of the bacteria are autotrophic but vast majority are heterotrophic.
7. Respiratory enzymes are found associated with plasma membrane.
8. Reproduction is asexual type.
9. Bacteria show both autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition. Autotrophic nutrition involves synthesis of
organic material from inorganic substances with the help of light energy (photosynthetic autotrophic) or
chemical energy (chemosynthetic autotrophic). Majority of them show heterotrophic nutrition which
involves the obtaining of readymade organic nutrients from outside sources. It is of three types –
saprotrophic, symbiotic and parasitic.
I. Archaebacteria
These archaebacteria are special since they live in some of the most harsh habitats such as extreme salty
areas (halophiles), hot springs (thermoacidophiles) and marshy areas (methanogens).
Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure and this feature is responsible
for their survival in extreme conditions. The cell membrane contains branched chain lipids (phytanyl side chains)
which decreases membrane fluidity.
Archaebacteria are divided into three groups– methanogens, halophiles and thermoacidophiles.
II. Eubacteria
There are thousands of different eubacteria or ‘true bacteria’. Most of them are characterised by the presence
of rigid cell wall, and if motile, a flagellum. Eubacteria include several subgroups like Cyanobacteria,
Mycoplasma, Actinomycetes, Rickettsiae, Chlamydiae, Spirochaetes etc. Let us discuss Cyanobacteria and
Mycoplasma in detail .
(i) Cyanobacteria : Cyanobacteria are Gram negative photosynthetic prokaryotes, being the most primitive
organisms to have oxygenic photosynthesis. They added oxygen to the atmosphere, which is
indispensible for the existence of aerobic forms of living organisms. They are also known as BGA (Blue
green algae) and are classified variously under cyanophyceae or myxophyceae.
(ii) Mycoplasma : E. Nocard and E.R. Roux (1898)–two French Scientists, discovered these organisms
from pleural fluid of cattles suffering from pleuropneumonia. These are pleomorphic and were called
PPLO (Pleuropneumonia Like Organisms) or Jokers of plant kingdom. This organism was later on given
the name Asterococcus mycoides by Borrel et al. (1910).
Mycoplasma infects animals (e.g., dog, sheep, mice and man) and plants (e.g., potato, corn, brinjal
etc.). They are generally found in soil, sewage water, plants and animals.
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KINGDOM : PROTISTA
General Characteristics of Protista:
1. Unicellular, eukaryotic organisms. Some are colonial without much cellular differentiation. Organisation at
tissue level is absent.
3. Cell structure is eukaryotic type having all kinds of membrane bound organelles and 80 S cytoplasmic
ribosomes and cells may possess cellulosic cell wall.
4. Flagella and cilia have (9+2) pattern of microtubule organization consisting of tubulin protein.
6. Mode of nutrition may be photosynthetic (holophytic), holozoic (ingestive), saprobic or parasitic (absorptive).
Some have mixotrophic nutrition (photosynthetic and saprobic) as in Euglena.
8. Life cycle is of two types– (i) Showing zygotic meiosis (ii) Showing gametic meiosis.
9. These are decomposers, photosynthetic or parasites. Parasitic protists may cause diseases like
dysentery, malaria, sleeping sickness, etc.
Protozoans
These are unicellular organisms with heterotrophic nutrition. They are believed to be primitive relatives of
animals. There are four major groups of protozoans.
2. Locomotory structure
Pseudopodia (false feet) Flagella Cilia Absent
3. Special feature
Silica shells in some Rare sexual reproduction Poss es s defi ni te Infectious spore-like
forms. wi th di vers e type of region of ingestion stage is present in life
associations – commensal, (gullet) and cycle.
symbiont, parasitic. egestion).
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KINGDOM : FUNGI
General Characters:
(1) They are cosmopolitan and occur in air, water, soil and on animals and plants. They are mostly terrestrial.
They prefer to grow in warm and humid places. They may grow on tree bark, dung, wood, burnt wood
and keratinous material (e.g., hair, horns) and are called corticolous (bark), coprophilous (cow dung),
epixylic (wood), xylophilous (burnt wood) and keratinophilous (keratin) respectively.
(2) The body is haploid (n) and thalloid, i.e., not differentiated into root, stem and leaves. They are
multicellular (except Yeast and Synchytrium). The fungal body is made up of thread like elongated tubular
structures, called hyphae. These cris-cross with one another to form a network known as mycelium.
(3) The hyphae may be aseptate and multinucleate. Such a hypha is termed coenocytic. In most of the
fungi, the mycelium is septate. The septum, however, is not complete, but has a pore through which
continuity of the cytoplasm of the adjoining cells is maintained. The septum may have simple central
pore as in ascomycetes, but in higher fungi (class basidiomycetes), the septum is dolipore septum,
in which central pore possesses a barrel shaped inflation. In septate mycelium, individual cell may contain
single nucleus (monokaryotic – feature of primary mycelium) or an intermediate phase of two nuclei
(dikaryotic – feature of secondary mycelium).
(4) The cell wall of the hyphae is made up of chitin or fungal cellulose, which is a polysaccharide containing
nitrogenous compound and it is basically made up of acetylglucosamine. In some fungi, the cell wall
is made up of cellulose (e.g., Phytophthora, Pythium and other oomycetes). Reserve food material is
stored in the form of oil and glycogen.
(5) Cells have unicisternal golgi bodies.
(6) Mitosis in somatic cells is Karyochorisis type (mitosis with intranuclear spindle formation).
(7) Nutrition is heterotrophic which includes saprophytes, parasites and symbionts.
(8) In most of the fungi, there are two distinct phases in the life cycle, the vegetative or assimilative phase
and the reproductive phase. In vegetative phase, fungus is microscopic hidden in the substratum and
is hardly visible to the naked eyes. The fungus enters into reproductive phase after attaining maturity in
the vegetative phase. In unicellular yeasts, the same cell performs both assimilative and reproductive
functions. Such type of fungal bodies in which entire cell gets transformed into reproductive structures
are known as holocarpic. Fungal body is termed eucarpic in which a part of mycelium is used up in
the development of reproductive structures.
(i) Smuts : They produce thick-walled, black-coloured resting spores called smut spores. Smuts are of
two types, covered and loose. In covered smut, the spore mass remains within the membranous
covering of sorus, e.g., Ustilago hordei (covered smut of barley), Ustilago maydis (smut of corn).
In loose smut the spores are exposed while attached to the host, e.g., Ustilago nuda tritici (loose smut
of wheat), U. avenae (loose smut of oat).
(ii) Mushrooms : They are edible and non edible Agaricales which possess umbrella like basidiocarp.
Common examples of edible mushrooms are Agaricus campestris, A. bisporous, Volvariella volvacea
(Paddy straw mushroom), Pleurotus ostreatus etc.
(iii) Toadstools : Toadstools are poisonous mushrooms which generally have white spores. Amanita
caesarea (Caeser’s mushroom) was used in poisoning Roman emperor Caesar. The other toadstools
are Amanita phalloides (Death cup), A. muscaria (Fly agaric) and Gynomitra esculenta (heat labile
carcinogenic toxin).
(iv) Rusts : They are characterised by the formation of rusty pustules containing the spores.
(a) Puccinia graminis tritici – Black rust of wheat.
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(b) Puccinia glumarum or P. striiformis – Yellow rust of wheat.
(c) P. recondita - Brown rust of wheat
(v) (a) Puccinia is heteroecious obligate parasite which completes its life cycle on two hosts;
Primary host – wheat
Secondary or alternate host – Barberry
(b) It has macrocyclic life cycle with five types of spores: uredospores (n + n), teleutospores
(n + n) on wheat plant, basidiospore (n) in soil, pycniospores (n) and aeciospores (n + n) on
barberry leaf.
(vi) Hallucinogens : Psilocybe mexicana (Sacred mushroom) has hallucinating properties similar to LSD.
It is used by Mexican Indians during certain religious ceremonies.
(vii) Armillaria (largest fungi): A. mellea (Honey mushroom) is a serious root parasite of both hardwoods
and conifers. The fungus develop rhizomorphs into the phloem of the host and hence, blocks the food supply.
(viii) Puffballs : The basidiocarp is a stalked rounded structure which, upon ripening, releases out puffs of
spores. The fructification may grow above or below the substratum, e.g., Lycoperdon oblongisporum,
L. giganteum.
(ix) Bracket fungi (Shelf fungi) : They are basidiomycetes whose basidiocarps or fructifications appear
on tree trunks, logs, lumber etc. just as brackets or shelves, e.g., Fomes applanatus, Polyporus
sulphureus, Ganoderma.
(x) Predator fungi :, e.g., Dactylaria, Arthrobotrys.
(xi) Stink horn. Phallus impudicus (Dead man's finger). Spore mass produces a stinking odour to attract flies.
(i) Leaf spot of rice : Helminthosporium oryzae causes leaf spot disease of rice commonly called brown
leaf spot of rice. It caused Bengal famine in 1942-43.
(ii) Early blight : Alternaria solani causes early blight of potato. The leaves develop small oval brown spots
with concentric rings (target board symptom).
(iii) Tikka disease: Circular necrotic dark brown or blackish leaf spots develop in groundnut due to
Cercospora personata.
(iv) Red rot : Colletotrichum falcatum produces red rot of sugarcane.
(v) Wilts: Many economically important plants (e.g., cotton, pigeon pea) show sudden signs of wilting due to
blockage of tracheary elements by growth of fungus, Fusarium especially F. oxysporum, F. udum.
(vi) Ringworm of foot/Athlete’s foot is caused by Trichophyton interdigitate.
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200 Biological Classification Biology - NSEJS
VIRUSES
Non-living Nature of Virus:
1. Lacking protoplast.
2. Ability to get crystallized, e.g., TMV, poliomyelitis virus.
3. Inability to live independent of a living cell. (Lack functional autonomy)
4. High specific gravity which is found only in non living objects
5. Absence of respiration.
6. Absence of energy storing system.
7. Absence of growth and division.
Living Nature of Virus :
1. Being formed of organic macromolecules.
2. Presence of genetic material.
3. Ability to multiply.
4. Occurrence of mutations.
5. Occurrence of certain enzymes like, neuraminidase (first discovered), transcriptase and lysozyme in certain
viruses.
6. Infectivity and host specificity.
7. Viruses can be ‘killed’ by autoclaving and ultraviolet rays.
8. They take over biosynthetic machinery of the host cell and produce chemicals required for their
multiplication.
9. Viruses are responsible for a number of infectious disease like common cold, epidemic influenza, chicken
pox, mumps, poliomyelitis, rabies, herpes, AIDS, SARS etc.
Structural Components of Viruses
The structural components of viruses are envelope, capsid and nucleoid:
1. Envelope : It is the outer thin loose covering composed of proteins (from virus), lipids and carbohydrates
(both from host). This layer may or may not be present. Envelope is present in HIV, Herpes virus.
2. Capsid : It is the outer protein coat made up of small subunits called capsomeres for the protection of
nucleic acid (their genetic material).
3. Nucleoid : Viruses contain either DNA or RNA.
Structure of Some Viruses
1. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) is elongated rod like, 3000 Å long, 180 Å in diameter with molecular
weight 39.4 ´ 106 dalton. 2130 capsomeres are arranged helically to form the capsid. RNA strand is
helical. ssRNA consists of 6400 nucleotides. Thus, the ratio of nucleotides : capsomeres = 3 : 1
RNA Capsid
Fig. : Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)
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Biology - NSEJS Biological Classification 201
2. Bacteriophage (or bacterial viruses) are the viruses that infect the bacteria. Bacteriophages usually have
double stranded DNA. T4 Bacteriophage has a tadpole like structure with polyhedral head connected
to a helical tail (binal). The head consists of nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat or capsid. Nucleic
acid is double stranded DNA. Tail is proteinaceous tube-like, core surrounded by sheath. At one end,
tube is joined to the head by thin collar. At the other end, it has a hexagonal base plate with six small
tail pins and six tail fibres which help in attachment of the phage to the host cell.
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LICHENS
Lichens are dual (composite) organisms or entities which contain a permanent association of a fungal
partner or mycobiont and an algal partner or phycobiont. Mycobiont is dominant partner and mostly belongs
to ascomycetes (Ascolichens–, e.g., Graphis, Cladonia, Parmelia, Usnea, etc.) or sometimes basidiomycetes
(Basidiolichens–, e.g., Corella, Cora, etc.). Phycobiont is mostly a member of Chlorophyceae (e.g., Chlorella,
Trebouxia, Protococcus, Palmella, etc.) or can be a BGA (e.g., Nostoc, Chlorococcus, Scytonema, etc.). The
term lichen was coined by Theophrastus (370 – 285 B.C.), also called Father of Botany. Lichens often
grow in most inhospitable and uninhabited places like barren rocks (saxicolous), soil (terricolous), icy tundra
or alpines, sand dunes, roofs, walls, wood (lignicolous), tree bark (corticolous), leaves, etc. They commonly
live under humid and exposed conditions but can tolerate extreme desiccation. However, lichens, cannot
tolerate air pollution, especially due to sulphur dioxide (so are considered indicators of SO2 pollution).
Lichens are perennial. Their growth is slow. Lichens have greyish, yellowish, greenish, orange, dark brown
or blackish colouration.
Structure
Based upon external morphology, the lichens are of three types :
(i) Crustose. Crust like, closely appressed to the substratum and attached to it at several places, e.g.,
Graphis, Lecanora, Rhizocarpon.
(ii) Foliose : The body of the lichen is flat, broad, lobed and leaf-like, which is attached to the substratum
at one or a few places with the help of rhizoid like structures called rhizines, e.g., Parmelia, Peltigera.
(iii) Fruticose : The lichen is branched like a bush and attached to the substratum by means of a disc, e.g.,
Cladonia, Usnea, Evernia, Bryonia.
Fungal
fructification
Attaching
Disc
Pendent
branches
Graphis Cora
fructification Foliose
Fungal
fructification
Parmelia Usnea
foliose fruticose
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Choose the correct answer :
5. Mark the correct option w.r.t. following diagram.
1. Modern taxonomic studies do not deal with
(a) External structure
(b) Structure of cell
(c) Internal structure
(d) Phylogeny
(e) Ontogeny
(a)
(f) Nutrition (b)
(1) (d) & (f) (2) (b) & (c) (1) (a) ss RNA, (b) Peplomere
(3) (a) & (c) (4) (c) & (e) (2) (a) Polyribonucleotide, (b) Provide protection
2. Choose the pair of taxonomic categories which to nucleic acid
are identified based on the aggregates of (3) (a) Genetic material, (b) Envelope
characters.
(4) (a) Capsomere, (b) RNA
(1) Genus & species
6. Two kingdom system did not differentiate between
(2) Family & genus
(a) Organisms with non-cellulosic cell wall and
(3) Order & class cellulosic wall.
(4) Order & family (b) Organisms with and without cell wall.
3. Systematics differ from taxonomy in considering (c) Neurospora and Ulothrix.
(1) Identification (d) Fungi & Angiosperms.
(2) Nomenclature (1) (a), (c) & (d)
(3) Phylogeny (2) All, except (d)
(4) Classification (3) (a) & (b)
4. Select correct statement w.r.t. taxonomical aid (4) (b) & (c)
which is generally analytical in nature. 7. Evolutionary relationship was one of the criteria/
(1) Serve as quick referral system basis for giving
(2) Specimens are preserved in solutions (1) Two kingdom system
(3) Represents the choice made between two (2) Three kingdom system
opposite options (3) Four kingdom system
(4) Exclusively used for identification of animals (4) Five kingdom system
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8. In light of Whittaker system, organisms with 12. ________ demonstrated that the extract of the
cellular body organisation were placed in infected plants of tobacco could cause infection in
healthy plants.
(1) Monera only
(1) T.O. Diener (2) W.M. Stanley
(2) Protista & Fungi only
(3) D.J. Ivanowsky (4) M.W. Beijerinck
(3) Monera & Protista
13. A group of related genera in taxonomic hierarchy
(4) Fungi only has/is
9. The sole members of the kingdom Monera (1) Still more number of common characters than
(i) Are most abundant micro-organisms lower categories
(ii) Largely depend on dead organic matter or on (2) Less number of general characters w.r.t. lowest
category
other organisms for food
(3) Characterised on the basis of vegetative and
(iii) Are spirilla mostly w.r.t. shape
reproductive features
(iv) Have simple structure and behaviour (4) Less number of similarities in comparison to
(v) Are oxyphotobacteria only upper categories
(1) (i) & (ii) are correct 14. Select odd one combination w.r.t. broad categories
(2) (i), (iv) & (v) are correct of taxonomic hierarchy.
(3) (i), (iii) & (v) are incorrect (1) Kingdom, Phylum, Division
(4) (ii), (iv) & (v) are incorrect (2) Tribe, Variety
10. Viruses do not find any position in the five kingdom (3) Species, Genus, Family
system because of
(4) Order, Family, Genus
(a) Infectious nature
15. Criteria not considered by modern taxonomist for
(b) Non-cellular structure
the classification are
(c) Obligate parasitism
(i) Cell structure
(d) Nucleio-protein structure
(ii) External structure
(e) Multiplication inside the host
(iii) Phylogeny
(1) (a), (b) & (c)
(2) (a), (c) & (e) (iv) Base sequencing
(4) Three domains of life – 18S rRNA (4) Cell wall composition
20. Select correct statements for most abundant 24. Viruses do not have any position in Whittaker’s
microorganisms of kingdom - Monera. system because of
(a) Have extensive metabolic diversity (1) Their ability to take over host cells machinery
(b) Circular DNA packaged with polyamines for multiplication.
(c) Only fresh water forms (2) Obligate intracellular parasites
(d) Majority of them are photoautotrophs (3) Infectious nature
(1) (a) & (b)
(4) Non-cellular structure
(2) (b) & (c)
25. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. TMV.
(3) (a) & (d)
(1) Rod shaped
(4) (c) & (d)
21. Monerans as smallest living cell (2) Single stranded RNA as genetic material
(i) Lack cell wall (3) Capsomeres are more than ribonucleotides
(ii) Contain muramic acid in cell wall (4) Genetic material is infectious
(iii) Are facultative anaerobes
26. How many diseases or symptoms are caused by
(iv) Are sensitive to penicillin virus from the given box?
(v) Lack ATP generating system
(1) (ii), (iv) & (v) are incorrect Stunted growth, Mosaic disease, Leaf rolling,
Canker disease, Cholera, Tetanus, Typhoid
(2) (iii) & (iv) are incorrect
(3) (i), (iii) & (v) are incorrect (1) Three (2) Four
(4) All are correct, except - (ii) (3) Five (4) Two
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27. The correct statement for Lichens are (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(a) Slow growing perennials reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,
then mark (1).
(b) Symbionts of only prokaryotic autotrophs and
eukaryotic heterotrophs (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
(c) Major algal components are green algae reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (2).
(d) Reproduce usually by motile spores
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b) & (c)
then mark (3).
(3) (a) & (c) (4) (c) & (d)
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
28. Statement 1 : Foliose are the type of lichen which
statements, then mark (4).
is attached to the substratum by means of a disc.
29. A : Viroids are not included in five kingdom
Statement 2 : The hyphae of the fungal body is
system.
made up of chitin.
(1) Both the statements are correct R : They are non-cellular.
(2) Both the statements are incorrect 30. A : Lichens do not grow in polluted area having
SO2.
(3) Only statement-1 is incorrect
R : Lichens secrete carbonic acid and oxalic
(4) Only statement-2 is incorrect
acid on barren rocks.
Assertion and Reason Type Question
31. A : Phycobiont is dominant parent in lichens.
In the following questions, a statement of
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of R : Algal component in the dual organisms can
reason (R). be eukaryotic only.
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Human Health and
Disease CHAPTER 4
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Health Introduction
The term health is very frequently used by every body. Health Common Diseases in Humans
does not simply mean ‘absence of disease’ or ‘physical fitness’.
Immunity
It could be defined as a state of complete physical, mental
and social well being. Of course, health is affected by AIDS
(iii) Life style including food and water we take, rest and exercise we give to our bodies, habits that we have or
lack etc.
Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good health. Yoga is being practised
to achieve physical and mental health. When people are healthy, they are more efficient at work, increasing productivity
and thus bringing economic prosperity. Health also increases longevity of people and reduces infant and maternal
mortality.
Disease
When the functioning of one or more organs or systems of the body is adversely affected, characterised by
various signs and symptoms, we say, that we are not healthy, i.e., we have a disease. Disease can be
broadly classified into two categories:
(A) Congenital Diseases : These diseases occur since birth and may result from metabolic disorder or
defect in development.
(B) Acquired diseases : These diseases develop after birth and can be divided into two main catagories :
(i) Infectious diseases/Communicable diseases : Diseases which are easily transmitted from one
person to another are called as infectious diseases. Infectious diseases are very common and some
of the infectious diseases like AIDS are fatal.
(ii) Non-infectious diseases/Non-communicable diseases : These diseases are not spread to other
persons. Among non-infectious diseases, cancer is the major cause of death. Drug and alcohol
abuse also affect our health adversely.
Pathogen
A wide range of organisms could cause diseases in man. Such disease causing organisms are called
pathogens e.g., bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, helminths etc.
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COMMON DISEASES IN HUMANS
A. Bacterial Diseases
(i) Typhoid: (Enteric fever)
Pathogen: Salmonella typhi (A Gram negative bacterium)
Mode of transmission: These pathogens generally enter the small intestine through contaminated food
& water and migrate to other organs through blood.
Symptoms: Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache, and
loss of appetite are some of the common symptoms of this disease. Intestinal perforation and death may
occur in severe cases.
(ii) Pneumonia:
Mode of transmission: A healthy person acquires the infection by inhaling the droplets / aerosols
released by an infected person or even by sharing glasses and utensils with an infected person.
Symptoms: In pneumonia, infection occurs in alveoli of the lungs. As a result of the infection, the alveoli
get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration.
Mode of infection: It is primarily a disease of rodents but can accidently affect man. It spreads from rat
to rat through rat flea (Xenopsylla). But when the infected rats die, the fleas leave their body and can even
bite man and inject plague germs into his blood.
Symptoms: It is characterised by high fever and a bubo (lump) in the groin or the armpit. Red patches
appear on skin which turn black and ultimately leads to death (black death).
(iv) Tuberculosis (TB) : It is also called Koch’s disease. It a caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The
bacteria damage the tissues and release a toxin named tuberculin which produces the disease. It affects
the lungs, lymph nodes, bones and joints. Incubation period is quite variable. Symptoms of pulmonary
(lungs) tuberculosis are fever, cough, blood containing sputum, pain in the chest and loss of weight, BCG
vaccine gives considerable protection against tuberculosis.
(v) Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease) : This disease is caused by Mycobacterium leprae, which was discovered
by Hansen. Symptoms of leprosy include appearance of light coloured patches on the skin, thickening
of the nerves, partial or total loss of sensation in the affected parts of the body. The patient is treated
with DDS (diamino diphenyl sulphone).
(vi) Cholera : This is an acute infectious disease caused by Vibrio cholerae. These may get into a healthy
person with contaminated food and water. The patient starts passing stools frequently, which are white
like rice-water, and gets repeated vomiting.
Since, a large quantity of fluid and salts are rapidly lost through stools and vomit, therefore, the most
important treatment is to replace the lost fluid and salts equally by oral rehydration-therapy.
(vii) Diphtheria : This disease is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae usually affecting children upto five
years of age. It may start as sore throat, chills with mild fever, sometimes vomiting, headache. The most
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Biology - NSEJS Human Health and Disease 209
important preventive measure-against this disease is that all babies should be, immunised within the first
six weeks of birth using DPT vaccine.
(viii) Tetanus (Lock Jaw) : It is caused by Clostridium tetani which produces a neurotoxin-tetanospasmin
which acts at neuromuscular junction. The first indications of this disease are irritability and restlessness,
the neck becomes stiff and there is difficulty in chewing and swallowing. Subsequently spasms of
muscles of the jaw and face take place and thus “Lock Jaw” occurs. Anti tetanus serum (ATS) injection
should be administered in case of an injury.
B. Viral Diseases
(i) Common cold/Rhinitis :
Pathogen: Rhino viruses.
Mode of infection: It is one of the most infectious human diseases, transmitted through inhalation of
droplets resulting from cough or sneezes of an infected person, either inhaled directly or transmitted through
contaminated objects such as pens, books, cups, door knobs, computer keyboard or mouse etc.
Symptoms: Rhino viruses infect the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs. It is characterised
by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache and tiredness, etc., which
usually last for 3-7 days.
(ii) Influenza : It is commonly known as “Flu” and is highly infectious. The disease is caused by various
types of influenza viruses (e.g., Myxovirus influenzae). It causes fever and pain all over the body and
affects the nose, throat and air passages as in common cold.
(iii) Small Pox : This disease is caused by a small pox virus named Variola virus (ds DNA virus). The virus
is present in the oral and nasal discharges of the patients and is ejected during the acts of coughing,
sneezing, fomites etc., and infects the healthy people. It is highly infectious disease starting with high
fever, chill, backache and headache, followed by appearance of rash on the third day of illness. The rash
appears first on the face, then on the rest of the body.
(iv) Chicken Pox : This disease is caused by a virus of chicken-pox named
Varicella zoster (dsDNA virus) which is passed out in the discharges of the
respiratory tract of an infected person directly as droplets or through
contaminated articles used by the patient. It is a mild but highly infectious
disease causing slight fever and a rash which undergoes changes into
vesicles, pustules and finally a dark brown scab which falls off leaving no scar
unlike smallpox. Chicken-pox
(vii) Rabies (Hydrophobia) : It is caused by a virus named as Rhabdo virus. It is introduced in the body
by the bite of rabid (mad) dogs usually. It can be injected by the bite of jackels, wolves, cats etc.,
Incubation period is from 10 days to one year. Fear of water is the most important characteristic
symptom of this disease.
(viii) Poliomyelitis : This disease was called infantile paralysis. This disease spreads mainly through intestinal
discharges. It may also spread through contaminated food or drink and by flies or other insects that may
contaminate food or drink. Polio virus (ss RNA) usually enters the body via alimentary canal where it
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210 Human Health and Disease Biology - NSEJS
multiplies and reaches the nervous system (spinal cord) through the blood stream. Its incubation period
is 7-14 days. It produces inflammation of the nervous system. Polio vaccine is safe and effective. Now-
a-days multiple vaccines are used against polio, diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus simultaneously.
(ix) Dengue fever : Dengue fever is caused by a RNA containing Arbovirus (Arthropod borne virus) of
flavivirus group which also causes yellow fever (not found in India). Thus, the virus which causes dengue
fever is a mosquito borne flavi-ribo virus. The virus of dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of female
Aedes aegypti (tiger mosquito). Incubation period is 38 days. Two types : classical dengue fever and
dengue haemorrhagic fever are known to occur.
Symptoms of Classical Dengue Fever are (i) Abrupt onset of high fever. (ii) Severe frontal headache.
(iii) Pain behind the eyes which worsens with eye movement. (iv) Muscles and joint pain.
Symptoms of Dengue Haemorrhagic Fever are symptoms similar to classical dengue fever except the
following (i) Bleeding from the nose, mouth, gums and skin bruising. (ii) Severe and continuous stomach
pains. (iii) Frequent vomiting with or without blood. (iv) Pale cold or clammy skin.
(x) Chikungunya : It is caused by Chikungunya virus. This virus was first isolated from human patients and
Aedes aegypti mosquitoes from Tanzania in 1952. The name ‘Chikungunya’ is derived from the native word
for the disease in which patient walks “doubled up” due to severe joint pain. Its symptons include sudden
onset of fever, crippling joint pain, lymphodenopathy and conjuctivitis. Some show haemorrhagic
manifestations.
(xi) Hepatitis :
(1) Hepatitis refers to inflammation of the liver and can be caused by viruses, drugs, and chemicals,
including alcohol. Clinically, several viral types are recognized. Hepatitis A (infectious hepatitis) is
caused by hepatitis A virus and is spread by faecal contamination of food, clothing, toys,
eating utensils, and so forth (faeco-oral route). It is generally a mild disease of children and young
adults characterized by anorexia (loss of appetite), malaise, nausea, diarrhoea, fever, and chills.
(2) Hepatitis B (serum hepatitis) is caused by hepatitis B virus. It is spread primarily by sexual
contact and contaminated syringes and transfusion equipment. It can also be spread by
saliva and tears. Vaccines produced through recombinant DNA technology (for example,
Recombivax HB) are available to prevent hepatitis B infection.
(3) Hepatitis C (non-A, non-B hepatitis) is caused by hepatitis C virus. Hepatitis C can cause cirrhosis
and possibly liver cancer. It has enveloped virion with ss-RNA.
(4) Hepatitis D (delta hepatitis) is caused by hepatitis D virus which has ss-RNA. Hepatitis D results
in severe liver damage and has a fatality rate higher than that of people infected with hepatitis B virus
alone. HDV is a defective virus for which HBV is the helper.
(5) Hepatitis E (infectious NANB hepatitis) is caused by hepatitis E virus and is spread like hepatitis
A. Hepatitis E virus is responsible for a very high mortality rate in pregnant women. HEV has
ss-RNA.
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Biology - NSEJS Human Health and Disease 211
(a) Plasmodium ovale is found in human in West Africa and South America; in it, new generations
of merozoites are formed every 48 hours; it causes mild tertian malaria. Its incubation period is
14 days. Schizonts and gametocytes enlarge the infected erythrocytes. The other three species
are common and have a wide distribution.
(b) Plasmodium vivax causes benign tertian malaria in which fever comes every 48 hours due to
formation of new generations of merozoites. It is the most widespread in both tropical and temperate
zones and relapses occur in it. Incubation period is 14 days. Schizonts and gametocytes make
erythrocytes very large. Its haemozoin granules are light brown and the gametocytes are round in
shape and larger than the blood corpuscles.
(c) Plasmodium malariae causes quartan malaria, in which fever comes after every 72 hours, and
relapses occur. Incubation period varies from 27 to 30 days. Erythrocytes are not enlarged. It is
found in both tropical and temperate zones but is not very widespread. It has dark brown haemozoin
granules, and its gametocytes are round but smaller than the blood corpuscles.
Two forms of fever are modifications of tertian malaria : Tertiana duplex in which two generations
of P. vivax mature on two successive days; and Quartana triplex in which three generations of
P. malariae mature on three successive days.
(d) Plasmodium falciparum is very common in tropics and it causes malignant deadly cerebral
malaria or sub-tertian malaria fever. Cerebral malaria is quite common in north-eastern states of India.
If not treated, it causes death in three days. Its schizogony cycle is irregular taking 24 to 48 hours.
Incubation period is 12 days. It is the most dangerous type with almost continuous fever, but its
course is shorter and without relapses. Death-rate of falciparum malaria is the highest as in it the
RBCs clump together into masses causing blockade of blood capillaries particularly of the brain.
Sporozoites
Parasites (sporozoites)
Salivary glands reach the liver through blood
Mosquito
Host
Fertilisation and
development take place
in the mosquito's
stomach The parasite reproduces
asexually in liver cells,
bursting the cell and
Human releasing into
Host the blood
Female
mosquito
takes up
gametocytes
Gametocytes
with blood
meal Female
Mode of transmission: Ringworms are generally transmitted from soil or by using infected towels, clothes
or even the comb of infected individuals.
Symptoms: Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp are
the main symptoms of the disease. These lesions are accompanied by intense itching.
(i) Personal hygiene include keeping the body clean, consumption of clean drinking water, food, vegetables
and fruits etc.
(ii) Public hygiene include proper disposal of waste and excreta, periodic cleaning and disinfection of water
reservoirs, pools and tanks.
(iii) For air borne diseases such as pneumonia and common cold, close contact with the infected persons
or their belonging should be avoided.
(iv) For diseases such as malaria and filariasis transmission occurs through insect vectors, the most
important measure is to control or eliminate the vectors and their breeding places. This can be achieved
by avoiding stagnation of water in and around residential areas, regular cleaning of household coolers,
use of mosquito nets, introducing larvivorous fish like Gambusia in pond that feed on mosquito larvae,
spraying of insecticides like DDT in ditches, drainage area and swamps etc.
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(v) The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly
disease like small pox.
(vi) Discovery of antibiotics and various other drugs has also enabled us to effectively treat infectious
diseases.
IMMUNITY
Everyday we are exposed to a large number of infectious agents. However, only few of these exposures result
in disease, as body is able to defend itself from most of these foreign agents. This overall ability of the host
to fight the disease causing organisms, provided by, immune system is called immunity.
Immunity is of two types:
1. Innate immunity
2. Acquired immunity
1. Innate Immunity
Innate immunity is accomplished by providing different types of barrier to the entry of foreign agent or any
pathogen into our body. It is present at the time of birth so also called inborn immunity. This is non-specific
type of defence.
2. Acquired Immunity
Acquired immunity is gained after birth and is pathogen specific. When our body encounters the pathogen
for the first time, it initiates a response called primary response. It is of low intensity and person will feel
sick. When a specific antigen enters into the body of a person, specific B and T cells start dividing to produce
effector B and T cells for controlling disease and also produce memory B and T cell. These are stored in
the spleen and lymph nodes throughout the life.
Antigens : The antigens are ‘molecules’ which when introduced into the body, stimulate the production
of antibody. The word ‘antigen’ is a shortened form of ‘antibody generating’ because they stimulate the
production of antibodies in response to infection. Antigens are generally large molecules. The majority
of them are made of proteins or polysaccharides found on the cell walls of bacteria and other cells or
on the coats of viruses. All antigens are not the parts of microorganism.
Antibody: Antibodies are immunoglobulins (Ig) which are produced in response to antigenic stimulation.
Each antibody molecule has four peptide chains, two long chains called heavy or H chain each of
molecular weight 50,000 kd and two short chains called light or L chains each of approximate molecular
weight 25000 kd. Hence, an antibody is represented as H2L2.
Five classes (Isotypes) of Antibodies:
(a) IgA forms 15% of total antibody count. It is found in mucous secretions of the respiratory tract
and the upper part of the digestive tract and the vagina. It is also found in colostrum. Colostrum is
a golden liquid substance that a nursing mother expels from her breasts 24-48 hours after delivery.
This substance is produced before the milk and is very important in the transfer of antibodies to a
newborn infant. IgA given by the mother in the colostrum will protect the baby for about six months.
Dimeric IgA has four paratopes. The link between monomers are made by a J-chain of polypeptide.
(b) IgD forms less than 1% of the total antibodies appears to have a role in activating and suppressing
lymphocyte activity found in large quantities in the cell membrane of many B-cells. IgD has two paratopes.
(c) IgE is less than 1% of total antibodies. Mediator in allergic responses. Most importantly activates
histamine secreting cells. Also appears to play a role in parasitic infection. IgE has two paratopes.
(d) IgG-composes 75% of our immunoglobulin pool. IgG stimulates phagocytic cells, activates the
complement system, binds neutrophils, opsonizes and can neutralise toxins. Most importantly, it is the
only antibody that can cross the placenta and confer immunity on the foetus. IgG also has two paratopes.
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Biology - NSEJS Human Health and Disease 215
(e) IgM-makes up 7-10% of our total antibodies. This is the predominant early antibody; the one
that first activates in an initial attack of antigen. Because of its high number of antigen binding
sites (10), it is an effective agglutinator of antigen. This is important in the initial activation of
B-cells, macrophages, and the complement system. It is the largest antibody.
Because all these antibodies are found in the blood, the response is called humoral (fluid) immune
response.
Active and Passive Immunity
Acquired immunity can also be classified into
(i) Active immunity: When a host is exposed to antigens (may be in the form of living or dead microbes
or other proteins), antibodies are produced in the host body. This type of immunity is called active
immunity. Active immunity is slow and may be natural or artificial.
(a) Natural active immunity : It is acquired when antigens gain access into the body during natural
infection. So a person who has recovered from attack of small pox or measles or mumps develops
natural active immunity.
(b) Artificial active immunity : It is the resistance induced by vaccines.
(ii) Passive immunity : When ready made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign
agent, it is called passive immunity.
(a) Natural passive immunity : The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during initial days
of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. The foetus also receives some
antibodies IgG from their mother, through the placenta during pregnancy.
(b) Artificial passive immunity : When preformed antibodies are directly injected into the body.
AIDS
AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. It is a deficiency of immune system, acquired during
the life time of an individual indicating that it is not a congenital disease.
Mode of Transmission
Transmission of HIV infection generally occurs by
(a) Sexual contact with infected person.
(b) By transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products.
(c) By sharing infected needles as in the case of intravenous drug abusers.
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(d) From infected mother to her child through placenta.
So, people who are at high risk of getting AIDS infection include
(a) Individuals who have multiple sexual partners.
(b) Drug addicts, who take drugs intravenously.
(c) Individuals who require repeated blood transfusions.
(d) Children born to an HIV infected mother.
Treatment
Treatment of AIDS with antiretroviral drugs is only partially effective because it can only prolong the life of
the patient but cannot prevent death. Zidovudin or AZT (Azidothymidine) was first and still continues to
be the drug of choice for the treatment of AIDS. Drugs with similar action are used to inhibit HIV replication
and slow the progression of AIDS. All are nucleoside analogs, substances that are similar to the naturally
occurring nucleosides in RNA and DNA. They block conversion of retroviral RNA into DNA. Four drugs with
similar action are used to inhibit HIV replication and slow the progression of AIDS. All are nucleoside
analogs, substances that are similar to the naturally occurring nucleosides in RNA and DNA. They
block conversion of retroviral RNA into DNA. The first and still most commonly used drug to treat
AIDS is AZT (azidothymidine) or Retrovir. Among patients taking AZT, there is a slowing in the progression
of symptoms. The main side effects are red bone marrow damage and anemia. Eventually, the virus develops
resistance to the drug. Other drugs are DDI (dideoxyinosine), DDC (dideoxycytidine), and D4T (stavudine),
which may be used in patients who do not respond to AZT or have become resistant to it. Doctors generally
give Zidovudine and Nevirapine to HIV positive pregnant woman to ensure that their babies do not carry
the infection.
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Choose the correct answer :
1. Health is defined as 7. DPT vaccination provides
(1) Complete physical well being (1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity
(2) Mental well being (3) Natural immunity (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Social well being 8. Which of the following antibody is related to
allergic response?
(4) All of these
(1) IgA (2) IgE
2. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?
(3) IgM (4) IgG
(1) Measles (2) Chicken pox
9. AIDS virus has
(3) Rabies (4) Tuberculosis
(1) Single strand DNA (2) Double strand DNA
3. Different species of Mycobacterium cause
(3) Single strand RNA (4) Double strand RNA
(1) Syphilis and Diphtheria
10. ELISA is used in detection of
(2) Whooping cough and leprosy
(1) Hay fever (2) Tetanus
(3) Tuberculosis and leprosy (3) AIDS (4) Tuberculosis
(4) Syphilis and gonorrhoea 11. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. AIDS.
4. Which one is not spread by droplet infection? (1) Viral RNA genome is converted into copy DNA
(1) Tuberculosis by reverse transcriptase
(2) Diphtheria (3) Pertussis (2) It is caused by an enveloped retrovirus HIV
5. Which of the following disease has been eradicated (4) HIV selectively infects and kills B-lymphocytes
from world by the use of vaccine? 12. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and
blockage of the intestinal passage are the common
(1) Plague
symptoms of
(2) Poliomyelitis
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Elephantiasis
(3) Small pox
(3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid
(4) Kala-azar
13. Among the non-infectious diseases, which of the
6. A substance produced by the host in response to following is most common fatal diseases of human
an infection of foreign structure is beings?
(1) Antigen (2) Phytotoxin (1) AIDS (2) Cancer
(3) Antibody (4) Hormone (3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Cholera
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218 Human Health and Disease Biology - NSEJS
14. Human immunodeficiency virus is a/an 20. Statement 1 : In pneumonia, infection occurs in
(1) Adeno virus (2) DNA retrovirus alveoli of the lungs.
(3) RNA retrovirus (4) Adeno retrovirus Statement 2 : Typhoid fever could be confirmed
by widal test.
15. Artificial active immunity can be acquired from
(1) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) Serious illness
(2) Only statement-1 is correct
(2) Vaccination
(3) Both the statements are correct
(3) Repeated exposure to the some microbes
(4) Only statement-2 is correct
(4) Treatment with pencillin
Assertion and Reason Type Questions
16. The caustative organism of AIDS spreads by
In the following questions, a statement of
(1) Sharing infected needles and syringes assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
(2) Transfusion of infected blood reason (R).
(3) Unsafe sexual relationship (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(4) All of these reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
17. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because
it is (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) Caused by a Gram-negative bacterium assertion, then mark (2).
(2) Not an infectious disease (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) Caused by a virus false, then mark (3).
(4) Caused by a Gram-positive bacterium (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
18. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused statements, then mark (4).
by virus? 21. A : Antibiotics like penicillin can be used to treat
(1) Rabies, mumps (2) Cholera, tuberculosis common cold.
(3) Typhoid, tetanus (4) AIDS, syphilis R : Penicillin causes lysis of viral cells.
19. Ringworm in humans is caused by 22. A : It is considered advantageous to give the polio
vaccine orally.
(1) Viruses (2) Bacteria
R : It prevents reinfection by causing intestinal
(3) Fungi (4) Nematodes immunity.
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Photosynthesis in Higher
Plants CHAPTER 5
INTRODUCTION
THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
In this process, energy from the sun is converted into chemical Introduction
energy. It is an anabolic, endergonic (requiring energy) and
oxido-reduction process. Historical Account – Early Experiments
Photosynthesis converts the radiant energy to forms of energy Where does Photosynthesis Take Place?
that can be used by the biological systems. What is Light Reaction?
A simple equation representing the process is
The Photosynthetic Units / Pigment
Light
6CO2 + 12H2O
Chlorophyll
C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2 The C4 Pathway (Hatch and Slack pathway)
Assignment
(i) T.W. Engelmann (1843–1909) experimented on Cladophora. Using a prism he split light into its spectral
components and then he illuminated a green alga, Cladophora, placed in a suspension of aerobic
bacteria. The bacteria were used to detect the sites of oxygen evolution. He found that the bacteria
accumulated mainly in the region of blue and red light of the split spectrum. And thus, the first action
spectrum of photosynthesis was described.
The empirical equation representing the total process of photosynthesis for organisms evolving oxygen
was understood as :
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220 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Biology - NSEJS
WHERE DOES PHOTOSYNTHESIS TAKE PLACE?
Chloroplasts
In photosynthetic eukaryotes, photosynthesis occurs in the subcellular organelle known as the chloroplast.
This double membrane-enclosed organelle possess a third system of membranes called thylakoids.
A stack of thylakoids forms a granum. Adjacent grana are connected by unstacked membranes called stroma
lamellae. The fluid compartment surrounding the thylakoids, called the stroma.
There is a clear division of labour within the chloroplast.
(i) Proteins and pigments (chlorophylls and carotenoids) that function in the photochemical events of
photosynthesis, i.e., trapping the light energy and synthesis of ATP and NADPH, are embedded in the
thylakoid membrane.
(ii) In stroma, enzymatic reactions incorporate CO2 into the plant leading to the synthesis of sugar, which
in turn forms starch.
The former set of reactions, since they are directly light-driven are called light reactions. The latter are not
directly light-driven but are dependent on the products of light reactions (ATP and NADPH). Hence, to
distinguish the latter they are called by convention, as dark reactions. However, this should not be construed
to mean that they occur in darkness or that they are not light-driven.
Outer membrane
Inner membrane
Stromal lamella
Grana
Stroma
Ribosomes
Starch granule
Lipid droplet
Fig. : Diagrammatic representation of an electron micrograph of a section of chloroplast
Absorption spectrum :
Absorbance of light by
Chlorophyll b
chloroplast pigments
Carotenoids
Chlorophyll a
Fig. : Graph showing the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a, b and the carotenoids
Action spectrum :
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Biology - NSEJS Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 221
Action spectrum of photosynthesis corresponds closely to absorption spectra of chlorophyll a showing that
chlorophyll a is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.
Rate of photosynthesis
Absorption
Light absorbed
Primary acceptor
Pigment
molecules
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222 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Biology - NSEJS
Some of the important differences between the two photosystems are :
2. PS I lies on the outer surface of the 2. PS II occurs on the inner surface of the
thylakoids. thylakoids.
3. Found in both grana and stroma lamellae. 3. Found in grana lamellae only.
5. Not associated with splitting of water. 5. Associated with splitting of water and
release of O2.
Non-Cyclic Photophosphorylation
It involves both Photosystem I and Photosystem II. These two photosystems work in series, first PS II and
then PS I. The two photosystems are connected through an electron transport chain. Both ATP and
NADPH + H+ are synthesised by this kind of electron flow.
Photosystem II Photosystem I
– NADPH
e acceptor
–
Light e acceptor
ADP +iP ATP NADP+
Electron
transport
system
LHC
LHC
H2O 2e– + 2H+ + [O]
Fig. : Z scheme of light reaction
Splitting of Water
The electrons that were removed from PS II must be replaced. This is achieved by electrons available due
to splitting of water. The water splitting complex is associated with the PS II, which itself is physically located
on the inner side of the membrane of the thylakoid. Water is split into H+, [O] and electrons. The protons
and oxygen formed by splitting of water is released within the lumen of the thylakoids. The oxygen produced
is released as one of the net products of photosynthesis.
4H+ + O2 + 4e –
2H2O
Cyclic Photophosphorylation
The process of cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PS I and this process takes place in the stroma
lamellae membrane. When only PS I is functional, the electron is circulated within the photosystem and the
phosphorylation occurs, due to cyclic flow of electrons.
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Biology - NSEJS Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 223
Photosystem I
e– acceptor
Light
ATP
P
P+i
Electron
AD
transport
system
Chlorophyll P700
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224 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Biology - NSEJS
Stages of Calvin Cycle
Atmosphere
CO2 + H2O
Ribulose-1,5-
bisphosphate
ADP
1 Carboxylation
Triose
phosphate
ADP
+
+
Sucrose, starch Pi + NADP
Cell wall
Atmospheric CO2 Phosphoenol
HCO3– pyruvate
Fixation Regeneration
C4 acid C3 acid
Plasmodesmata
Bundle sheath
cell
Transport Transport
Fixation by
Calvin cycle
C4 acid
CO2
Decarboxylation C3 acid
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Biology - NSEJS Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 225
Some major differences between C3 pathway and C4 pathway are :
C3 pathway C4 pathway
1. The primary acceptor of CO2 is RuBP – a five 1. The primary acceptor of CO2 is PEP – a three
carbon compound. carbon compound.
2. The first stable product is 3-phosphoglycerate 2. The first stable product is oxaloacetic acid
(3C-compound). (4C-compound).
3. It occurs in the mesophyll cells of the leaves. 3. It occurs in the mesophyll and bundle-sheath
cells of the leaves.
5. 3 ATP are consumed to fix one CO2. 5. 2 ATP are consumed to fix one CO2.
Importance of C4 Plants
(i) They can tolerate saline conditions due to abundant occurrence of organic acids (malic and oxaloacetic acid)
in them which lowers their water potential than that of soil.
(ii) Can perform photosynthesis even when their stomata are closed due to the presence of strong CO2 fixing
enzyme i.e. PEPcase.
(iii) Concentric arrangement of cells in leaf produces smaller area in relation to volume for better water utilisation.
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Choose the correct answer :
1. C4 plant loses what amount of water as compared to 4. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. LHC.
C3 plant for the same amount of CO2 fixed? (1) Made up of hundreds of pigment molecules
(1) Double (2) Pigment molecules are bound to lipids
(2) Equal (3) Harvest different wavelengths of light
(3) Half (4) Help to make photosynthesis more efficient
(4) Less than 10% 5. Statement-I – PS II absorbs 680 nm of light.
2. How many of the given statements is/are correct for Statement-II – PS I is located on non-appressed
site of photosynthesis? region of grana thylakoid.
A. Shows division of labour Choose the correct statement.
(1) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect
B. Cannot arrange themselves according to incident
light (2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct
C. Has membrane system for trapping sunlight (3) Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect; statement-II is correct
D. Has light independent, non-enzymatic reactions
for CO2 assimilation 6. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation the last electron
acceptor is
(1) Four (2) Three
(1) H2O (2) ADP
(3) Two (4) One
(3) NADP (4) Fd
3. Following is the absorption spectrum of 7. Which of the following represents uphill movement
photosynthesis. Identify X, Y and Z. of electrons in Z-scheme?
(1) Movement of electron from phaeophytin to
plastoquinone
X
(2) Movement of electrons within cytochromes
Y (3) Movement of electrons from ferridoxin to NADP+
(4) Movement of electrons from reaction center of
Z PS-I to Fe-S complex
8. How many of the given statements is/are correct for
cyclic photophosphorylation?
I. Only PS-II is functional
X Y Z II. Occurs in stroma lamellae
(1) Chlorophyll-b Carotenoids Chlorophyll-a III. Occurs during low light intensity
(2) Chlorophyll-a Carotenoids Chlorophyll-b IV. Synthesis of both ATP and NADPH occurs
V. Electrons are circulated within the photosystem
(3) Chlorophyll-b Phycobillins Carotenes
(1) Two (2) Three
(4) Chlorophyll-a Carotenes Xanthophyll
(3) One (4) Four
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Biology - NSEJS Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 227
9. Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis involves 16. First action spectrum of photosynthesis was
synthesis of food, more accurately, ______ and described in
occurs in ______. (1) Cladophora (2) Volvox
(1) Lipid, Thylakoids
(3) Chlorella (4) Spirullina
(2) Sugars, Stroma
17. Match the column and choose the correct option
(3) ATP & NADPH, Thylakoids w.r.t. chloroplast.
(4) Glucose, Matrix Column-I Column-II
10. The number of ATP consumed for fixation of one CO2 a. Light reaction (i) Enzymatic process
by maize and rice plants is respectively
b. Dark reaction (ii) Synthesis of NADPH
(1) 3, 2 (2) 2, 3
and ATP
(3) 5, 3 (4) 5, 5
(iii) Membranous system
11. Kranz anatomy is present in plants which shows
(iv) RuBisCo
(1) High productivity
(1) a(i, ii), b(iii, iv) (2) a(ii, iv), b(i, iii)
(2) Chloroplast monomorphism
(3) a(ii, iii), b(i, iv) (4) a(i, ii, iii), b(iv)
(3) Sensitivity to high temperature
18. Primary pigment of photosynthesis
(4) Succulent behaviour
(1) Forms reaction center of photosystems
12. How many turns of Calvin cycle are required to form
one molecule of sucrose? (2) Forms light harvesting complex
(1) Six (2) Twelve (3) Absorbs only short wavelength of light
(3) Two (4) Four (4) More than one option is correct
13. C4 plants are adapted to saline conditions due to 19. Maximum photosynthesis takes place in the _____
(1) Occurrance of OAA and Malic acid light of spectrum.
(2) Kranz anatomy (1) Red and far red (2) Blue and violet
(3) Dimorphic chloroplast (3) Green (4) Blue and red
(4) More than one option is correct 20. Identify A and B in the following diagram.
14. “CO2 is required for photosynthesis”. This conclusion
can be drawn by performing
(1) Variegated leaf experiment
A
(2) Half leaf experiment
(3) Bell-jar experiment
B
(4) Ganong’s screen experiment
15. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option.
A. ________ showed that only the green part of the 400 500 600 700
plant could release oxygen. Wavelength of light in nanometres (nm)
B. Cornelius van Niel worked with ________.
(1) A – Action spectrum of chlorophyll-a
(1) A – Priestly
B – Action spectrum of chlorophyll-b
B – Higher plants
(2) A – J.V. Sachs (2) A – Action spectrum of chlorophyll-a
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228 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Biology - NSEJS
21. The first step of Z-scheme is 28. What is the site of RuBisCO for potato and Sorghum
(1) Splitting of water (respectively)?
(2) Excitation of electrons from chlorophyll (1) Mesophyll only
(3) Release of oxygen (2) Bundle sheath only
(4) Synthesis of ATP (3) Bundle sheath; Mesophyll
22. Where is the physical location of water splitting (4) Mesophyll; Bundle sheath
complex? 29. Statement 1 : C4 plants can perform photosynthesis
(1) In the lumen of thylakoid membrane; with PS-I even when their stomata are closed.
(2) Towards the stroma side of thylakoid membrane; Statement 2 : Liberation of oxygen occurs in cyclic
with PS-II photophosphorylation.
(3) Towards the lumen side of thylakoid membrane; (1) Both the statements are correct
with PS-II (2) Both the statements are incorrect
(4) On the outer side of membrane of thylakoid; with (3) Only statement-1 is incorrect
PS-I (4) Only statement-2 is incorrect
23. Cyclic photophosphorylation normally occurs in Assertion and Reason Type Questions
(1) Stroma (2) Matrix In the following questions, a statement of
(3) Grana lamellae (4) Stroma lamellae Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
24. Z-scheme is Reason (R).
(I) Cyclic photophosphorylation (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,
(II) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
then mark (1).
(III) Circulation of electron within the photosystem
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
(1) Only (I) (2) Only (II) reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) Both (I) & (III) (4) Both (II) & (III) assertion, then mark (2).
25. The first CO2 acceptor molecule in wheat and (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false,
sugarcane has (i) and (ii) carbons. then mark (3).
(respectively) (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) (i) 5, (ii) 3 (2) (i) 3, (ii) 3 statements, then mark (4).
(3) (i) 3, (ii) 4 (4) (i) 5, (ii) 5 30. A : In C4 plants, chloroplasts of bundle sheath
cells are granule.
26. The first stable product of the biosynthetic pathway
of photosynthetic is produced by R : PSII is mostly found in appressed part of
granum.
(1) Oxidation of RUBP
31. A : Light harvesting complexes (LHC) on
(2) Carboxylation of RUBP
thylacoid membrane broaden the rane of
(3) Regeneration of RUBP light absorption.
(4) Glycolytic reversal R : They transfer e– to reaction centre.
27. The energetically costly but most efficient cycle of dark 32. A : C4 plants can tolerate saline conditions.
reaction in plants adapted to dry tropical regions is
R : Abundant of organic acids are present in
(1) C3-cycle (2) C4-cycle them which lowers their water potential than
(3) CAM-cycle (4) Photorespiration that of soil.
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Digestion and Absorption CHAPTER 6
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Bio-macromolecules (proteins, nucleic acids, polysaccharides and Introduction
lipids) in food cannot be utilized by our body in their original form. Histology of Alimentary Canal
They have to be broken down and converted into simple Digestive Glands
substances in the digestive system. This process of conversion Digestive of Food
of complex food substances to simple absorbable forms is called
Absorption of Digested Products
digestion and is carried out by our digestive system by mechanical
and biochemical methods. Assignment
Various types of nutrients in food : Nutrients may be organic or inorganic in nature.Carbohydrates, lipids and
proteins are macronutrients or proximate principles of food. Minerals, vitamins and water are micronutrients or
protective principles of food. About 21 minerals (e.g. sodium, potassium, calcium, sulphur, phosphorus, magnesium
and chlorine) or macroelements are known to be essential for human nutrition; they are required in larger amounts
(more than 100 mg per day). Trace elements or microelements (e.g. iron, iodine, zinc, manganese, cobalt, copper,
molybdenum etc.) are required in very small amounts. Altogether 20 vitamins are thought to be required in small
amount for human nutrition.
Serosa
Inner - circular
Outer - longitudinal Muscularis
layer
Sub-mucosa
Mucosa
Lumen
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230 Digestion and Absorption Biology - NSEJS
Villi
Lacteal
Capillaries
Artery
Crypts
Vein
Fig. : A section of small intestinal mucosa showing villi
DIGESTIVE GLANDS
The digestive glands associated with the alimentary canal are :
(a) Salivary glands (b) Liver (c) Pancreas
(a) Salivary glands: Saliva is mainly produced by three pairs of salivary glands. These are
(i) Parotids: Found near cheek and these are the largest salivary glands (opens through Stenson’s
duct).
(ii) Sub-maxillary/Sub-mandibular: Found at lower jaw (opens through Whartons duct).
(iii) Sub-linguals: Found below tongue and these are the smallest salivary glands (opens through
Rivinus duct).
These glands situated just outside the buccal cavity and they secrete salivary juice into the buccal cavity.
Duct of Parotid gland
Buccal
cavity
Parotid
gland
Ducts of
Tongue sublingual
gland
Sublingual
gland
Submaxillary
Duct of
Submaxillary gland gland
(b) Liver: It is the largest gland of the body weighing about 1.2 to 1.5 kg in an adult human. It is
situated in the abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm, it has two lobes i.e., right and left lobes.
Hepatic lobules are the structural and functional units of liver containing hepatic cells arranged in
the form of cords. Each lobule is covered by a thin connective tissue sheath called the Glisson’s
capsule.
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Biology - NSEJS Digestion and Absorption 231
BILE CANALICULI
SPACE OF MALL
PORTAL CANAL
PORTAL TRIAD
CENTRAL VEIN
(Branch of Hepatic Vein)
HEPATIC
LOBULE RADIAL PLATES OF
HEPATOCYTES
KUPFFER’S CELL
HEPATIC SINUSOIDS
Ducts
Duct from from liver
gall bladder
Common bile
duct
Pancreas
Pancreatic
Duodenum duct
Hepato-pancreatic duct
Fig. : The duct systems of liver, gall bladder and pancreas
The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open together into the duodenum as the common hepato-
pancreatic duct which is guarded by a sphincter called the sphincter of Oddi.
(c) Pancreas: It is a compound (both exocrine and endocrine) gland. It is elongated organ situated between
the limbs of the ‘C’ shaped duodenum. The exocrine part of the pancreas secretes an alkaline pancreatic
juice containing various enzymes while its endocrine part secretes hormones, insulin and glucagon.
Pancreas has two ducts within it. The first is duct of Santorini which is accessory or nonfunctional,
opening directly into duodenum and the other is duct of Wirsung which is functional and combines
with bile duct to form common hepatopancreatic duct.
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DIGESTION OF FOOD
Summary of Digestion
1. Buccal cavity Salivary glands Salivary amylase (Ptyalin) 6.8 Starch Maltose
2. Oesophagus — No enzyme — — —
4. Liver Hepatocytes Bile (no enzyme) 7.1 – 8.2 Fats Emulsify fats
5. Pancreas Acini. 1. Trypsin 7.1 – 8.3 Proteins P eptones and
polypepti de
Blood Proteins C oagulati on
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Biology - NSEJS Digestion and Absorption 233
ABSORPTION OF DIGESTED PRODUCTS
It is carried out by passive, active or facilitated transport mechanisms.
Transport of water depends upon the osmotic gradient. Active transport occurs against the concentration
gradient and hence requires energy. Various nutrients like amino acids, monosaccharides like
glucose, electrolytes like Na+ are absorbed into the blood by this mechanism.
Table : The Summary of Absorption in Different Parts of Digestive System
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Choose the correct answer :
Brunner's glands, Crypts of Lieberkuhn, Islets of (3) D – Common hepatic duct, bringing dilute bile
Langerhans, Gastric glands, Villi, Gastric rugae, only
Myenteric plexus
(4) C – Ducts from liver, bringing bile without bile
(1) 6 salts, as they will be formed in gall bladder
4. Consider the given diagram and find out the correct (3) Secretion of crypts of Lieberkuhn
identification and description of the labelled (4) Both (1) & (3)
structure.
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Biology - NSEJS Digestion and Absorption 235
6. Which of the following is true for the absorption of (1) ‘c’ belong to that category of teeth that are
fats? total 8 in adult human dentition
(1) Chylomicrons, the fat-coated protein globules (2) ‘a’ are those teeth that help in tearing the food
are formed and appear only once in the lifetime
(2) Chylomicrons are formed in the intestinal (3) ‘d’ are that kind of teeth whose number varies
mucosa in milk dentition and permanent dentition
(3) The blood capillaries called lacteals are involved (4) ‘b’ help in crushing and chewing the food and
in it each of them have 2 roots
(4) The absorbed fats always remains in lymph 10. Which among the given ones is vestigial in
flow, never put into blood stream humans?
(4) Pyloric portion – Last part of stomach (3) Mucosal epithelium – Oblique muscles –
and it Circular muscles – Longitudinal muscles –
opens up into duodenum Submucosa
8. Curdling of milk in small intestine occurs due to (4) Mucosa – Submucosa – Muscularis externa –
the action of Mesothelium
12. The saliva does not possess
(1) Rennin
(1) Electrolytes like Na+, HCO3–, Cl–, K+
(2) Erepsin
(2) Immunological agents
(3) Trypsin
(3) Proteolytic enzymes
(4) Chymotrypsin
(4) Water and mucus
9. Find out the correct labelling with description of the
structures shown. 13. The protection of gastric mucosa from excoriation
by hydrochloric acid is done by
(c)
(b) (1) Zymogens
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14. Jaundice is a disorder of 19. Which among the given ones is not a correct
matching?
(1) Skin and eyes
(2) Digestive system
(3) Excretory system Enzyme Source Description
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22. If for some reason, the sub mucosal glands of State which statement is true and which one is
duodenum become non functional, which of the false.
following will not be affected? A B C D
(4) F F T T
(4) Lubrication of the intestinal passage
25. The optimum pH for the action of ptyalin is
23. From the given list, find out the constituents of bile
juice. (1) 1.8
(3) 7.8
(b) Sodium bicarbonate
(4) 9.8
(c) Lipases
26. Mucus in the saliva helps in lubricating and
(d) Cholesterol adhering the masticated food particles into
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Assertion and Reason Type Questions 29. A : Liver assist in digestion of fat.
In the following questions, a statement of R : Hepatic secretion contains bile salts
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
which emulsify fat.
reason (R).
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the 30. A : In humans, duct of Wirsung from pancreas
reason is the correct explanation of the combines with bile duct before opening into
assertion, then mark (1). duodenum.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
R : Blockage in duct of Wirsung will prevent
reason is not the correct explanation of the
the endocrine function of pancreas.
assertion, then mark (2).
(3) If assertion is true statement but reason is 31. A : Sub-maxillary glands found near cheek.
false then mark (3).
R : It is the largest salivary glands opens
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false through Rivinus duct.
statements then mark (4).
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Breathing and Exchange
of Gases CHAPTER 7
INTRODUCTION
THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Breathing is simply defined as intake of fresh air and removal Introduction
of foul air, i.e., CO2, whereas respiration is defined as an
oxidation of food (glucose) to form CO2, H2O and energy. Respiratory Organs
Breathing includes inspiration and expiration. Inspiration Human Respiratory System
means to inhale or to breathe in and Expiration means to
exhale or to breathe out. Whenever air enters into the chest it Exchange of Gases
raises up and when air exhales out it goes down.
Transport of Gases
Assignment
RESPIRATORY ORGANS
Organs meant for respiration process are known as respiratory organs. Different animals have different respiratory
organs depending upon their two main features :
1. Habitat : It is the place where an animal lives. The nature of respiratory organ depends on the habitat of an
animal. For example, fishes live in water, so they have gills to respire. Reptiles live on land and they respire
through lungs.
2. Level of organisation : According to the level of organisation of animals, breathing mechanism varies. For
example, Poriferans have cellular level of organisation. In them, no well-developed tissues, organs are present
that’s why they can exchange O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion over their entire body surface. Simple diffusion
means the movement of molecules from their higher concentration region to their lower concentration region.
Table : Respiratory organs in different animals
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240 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Biology - NSEJS
Epiglottis
Larynx
Trachea
Tertiary bronchus
Cut end of rib Pleural membranes
Alveoli
Lung Pleural fluid
Bronchiole
Diaphragm
Heart
Fig. : Diagrammatic view of human respiratory system (Sectional view of the left lung is also shown)
1. External nostrils : A pair of external nostrils represent the first part of respiratory passage. These are
the holes of our nose opening out above the upper lips. These lead into nasal chamber of nasal cavity
through the nasal passage.
2. Nasal chambers : These are also two in number. The epithelial lining of cavities is known as respiratory
epithelium. It has pseudostratified ciliated columnar, non-ciliated brush border columnar, cuboidal and
goblet cells. The epithelium also possesses glands. It is richly supplied with blood vessels. Mucus is
produced by goblet cells.
Functions:
Mucus from goblet cells and glands makes the surface sticky for trapping dust particles present
in the inspired air.
It brings the temperature of the incoming air, upto the body temperature.
3. Internal nares : These are the posterior openings of the nasal cavities that lead into the nasopharynx.
4. Nasopharynx : Internal nares open into a part of pharynx known as nasopharynx. It is a portion of
pharynx. Only air passes through nasopharynx. It opens into the trachea through glottis of larynx region.
Glottis is the opening at the upper part of larynx.
5. Larynx : It is also known as sound/voice box because it helps in the production of sound. It is made up of
cartilage, present at the upper part of trachea. Its upper part has an opening, i.e., glottis. During swallowing
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Biology - NSEJS Breathing and Exchange of Gases 241
this glottis can be covered by epiglottis which is a leaf-shaped cartilaginous structure made up of elastic
cartilage. Epiglottis is the covering or lid of glottis to prevent the entry of food into the larynx during swallowing.
6. Trachea : It is also known as wind pipe. It is a straight tube extending upto the mid-thoracic cavity,
commonly called chest cavity. This tube finally divides into right and left primary bronchi at the level of 5th
thoracic vertebra. It is lined by incomplete cartilaginous rings to prevent it from collapsing during inspiration.
7. Bronchi (plural), bronchus (sing.) : Each bronchus undergoes repeated divisions to form its branches,
these are secondary, tertiary bronchi and bronchioles. Bronchioles are the terminal branching of bronchi.
Finally, bronchioles give rise to a number of very thin, well-supplied with blood vessels, irregular walled
balloon-like structures called alveoli. The walls of the bronchi and initial bronchioles are supported by
incomplete cartilaginous rings.
8. Alveoli : Bronchioles open into the alveolar ducts, i.e., a tube-like structure which lead into an expanded
passages, the atria which open into the alveolar sacs or air sacs. There are about 300 millions of alveoli
in two lungs. The membrane of alveoli is very thin, irregular and richly supplied with blood vessels. Due
to very close contact of blood vessels with alveoli, the exchange of gases takes place easily.
Surfactant : A surface active agent - lecithin secreted by type II alveolar epithelial cells, reduces surface
tension between the alveolar fluid and air. It prevents collapsing of lung alveoli.
Lungs
Membranes enclose the lungs : Each lung is enclosed by two membranes known as pleura or
pleural membranes. The outer pleural membrane is in close contact with the thoracic cavity whereas
inner pleural membrane is in close contact with lungs surface. In between these two membranes, a
narrow space is present known as pleural cavity. This pleural cavity is filled with a fluid secreted by
pleural membranes known as pleural fluid.
Function of pleural fluid : It lubricates the pleural membranes so that they may slide over each
other without friction during breathing. If fluid is not present, then there will be damage to the
membranes which finally affects the breathing.
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External nostrils
Internal nares
Nasopharynx
Primary bronchi
Secondary bronchi
Tertiary bronchi
Bronchioles
Alveolar ducts
Atria
Exchange/Respiratory part
Alveolar sac
Alveoli
Respiratory volume : It is defined as quantity of air which our lungs can hold or expel under different
conditions.
1. Tidal Volume (TV) : During normal breathing, the volume of air inspired or expired is known as tidal
volume. Its value is approximately 500 ml. If we take the case of healthy man, he can inspire or expire
approx. 6000 ml to 8000 ml of air/min. But in a diseased person suffering from any kind of pulmonary
problems, its value will be altered. Value of tidal volume is the lowest among all types of respiratory volumes.
2. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) : It is defined as the additional or extra volume of air, a person can
inspire by forceful inspiration. This volume averages 2500 ml to 3000 ml.
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3. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) : It is defined as the additional or extra volume of air, a person can
expire by forceful expiration. This volume averages 1000 ml to 1100 ml.
4. Residual Volume (RV) : The volume of air which remains in the lungs even after the forceful expiration.
It is about 1100 ml to 1200 ml.
Inspiratory Reserve
Volume
IC
Vital
Capacity
Tidal
Volume
Residual Volume
With exception of FRC, RV and TLC, all other lung volumes and capacities can be measured with the help
of simple spirometer.
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EXCHANGE OF GASES
Gases are exchanged by simple diffusion mainly based on pressure or concentration gradient. To explain the
exchange of O2 and CO2, partial pressure is studied. It is the pressure contributed or exerted by an individual
gas in a mixture of gases. Partial pressure for oxygen is represented as pO2 and for CO2 it is pCO2. The diffusion
of gases takes place from a region of their higher partial pressure to a region of their lower partial pressure.
Factors that affect the rate of diffusion :
1. Solubility of gases : A gas having high solubility, diffused at faster rate than the gas having low solubility.
For example, solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than that of O2, the amount of CO2 that diffuses
across diffusion membrane is much higher than that of O2.
2. Partial pressure : As we know that gases are diffused according to their partial pressure. For example,
O2 is diffused from atmospheric air having partial pressure 159 mm Hg to the alveoli where pO2 is less,
i.e., 104 mm Hg.
3. Thickness of membrane : More the thickness of membrane, less will be the rate of diffusion. More
the membrane thin, more will be the rate of diffusion. For efficient diffusion to occur, membrane should
be very thin.
(iii) Basement substance : In between thin squamous epithelium of alveoli and endothelium of alveolar
capillaries, basement substance is present.
All these three layers make the total thickness of diffusion membrane much less than a millimetre which
is about 0.2 mm.
Air
Basement
Alveolar wall substance
(one-celled thick)
Alveolar cavity
Blood
capillary
Red blood
cell
The pO2 in the atmospheric air is higher, i.e., 159 mm Hg than that in the alveoli, i.e., 104 mm Hg and
pO2 in alveoli is higher than that in the deoxygenated blood in the capillaries of the pulmonary arteries (40
mm Hg). As we know, gases diffuse from their higher partial pressure to their lower partial pressure.
Therefore, O2 moves from atmospheric air to alveoli and then finally to blood, whereas the CO2 movement
is in opposite direction. The pCO2 is higher in deoxygenated blood (45 mm Hg) than that in alveoli (40 mm
Hg) and it is further low in atmospheric air, i.e., 0.3 mm Hg. Therefore, CO2 moves from deoxygenated blood
to alveoli and finally to atmospheric air.
Inspired air Expired air
Alveolar air
pO2=104 mmHg
pCO2=40 mmHg Alveolus
CO2 O2
CO2 O2
Pulmonary Pulmonary
artery vein
CO2 O2
Body tissues
Gases like O2 and CO2 are exchanged from blood capillaries to body cells and from body cells to blood
capillaries, respectively. The pO2 is higher in systemic arteries carrying oxygenated blood, i.e., 95 mm Hg than
that in tissues or body cells, i.e., 40 mm Hg. Therefore, O2 moves from systemic arteries to body cells where
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it is utilised for catabolic reaction during which CO2, H2O and energy are produced. As the CO2 is produced in
the body cells, the pCO2 is increased within the body cells, i.e., 45 mm Hg than that in blood capillaries, i.e.,
40 mm Hg. Therefore, CO2 moves from body cells to the capillary blood through tissue fluid. Now, the blood
becomes deoxygenated which is carried to the heart and hence to the lungs via pulmonary artery.
TRANSPORT OF GASES
Blood transports nutrients, vitamins, gases etc. within the body. Some amount of gases get dissolved in
plasma and transported, whereas some amount is transported in bound state. O2 and CO2 bind with
haemoglobin present in RBCs.
CO2 exhaled O2 inhaled
Alveoli
CO2
O2
Venous blood Arterial blood
(Deoxygenated (Oxygenated
blood) Hb + CO2 97% blood)
O2 + Hb =
3%
HbCO2 HCO3
H2CO3 HbO2
Tissue cells
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Biology - NSEJS Breathing and Exchange of Gases 247
Transport of O2
Blood carries oxygen from the lungs to the heart and from there it reaches to various body cells.
2. As oxyhaemoglobin : About 97% O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood. Haemoglobin (Hb) is made
up of two parts – haem and globin. Haem is iron part and globin is protein part.
Hb Haem + Globin
Haemoglobin (Iron part) (Protein part)
It is red coloured iron containing pigment present in RBCs. It binds with O2 in a reversible manner to
form oxyhaemoglobin (OxyHb) and transports it.
Single molecule of Hb can carry a maximum of four molecules of oxygen. This is because it has four
polypeptide chains and four haem groups each containing an iron atom to which an oxygen can attach.
Each polypeptide chain carries a haem group and each haem group carries an iron atom.
In lungs
Hb + O2 HbO2
Haemoglobin Oxygen Tissues Oxyhaemoglobin
(OxyHb)
O2 binds with Hb at the lungs surface and gets dissociated at the tissues. Under the high partial
pressure, oxygen easily binds with Hb in the pulmonary blood capillaries. When this oxygenated blood
reaches to different tissues, the pO2 decreases and the bonds holding oxygen to Hb become unstable.
As a result, oxygen is released from blood capillaries to tissues where it is utilised for oxidation of
glucose.
Transport of CO2
When O2 reaches the body cells, oxidation of food (glucose) takes place during which CO2, H2O and energy
are produced. CO2 in gaseous form diffuses out of the cells into the capillaries, where it is transported in three
different means.
1. In dissolved form through plasma : About 7% CO2 gets transported in dissolved form. It gets
dissolved in the blood plasma and is carried in solution to the lungs. CO2 has high solubility than O2.
Therefore, only about 3% O2 is transported in dissolved form whereas about 7% CO2 is transported in
dissolved form.
2. As bicarbonate ions: About 70% of CO2 is converted into HCO3– and transported in plasma. CO2 diffuses
in the RBCs where it binds with water, forming carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid quickly dissociates
into hydrogen and HCO3– ions as it is unstable. The reaction is facilitated by an enzyme known as
carbonic anhydrase which is present in very high concentration in RBCs and in small quantity in plasma.
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Carbonic anhydrase Carbonic anhydrase
CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3–
Carbonic acid Hydrogen Bicarbonate
ion ion
At the alveolar site (lungs), the process is reversed means CO2 and H2O are formed from HCO3– and
H+. The reaction proceeds as
Carbonic Carbonic
HCO3– + H+ H2CO3 H2O + CO2
anhydrase anhydrase
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Choose the correct answer :
1. The maximum amount of carbon dioxide is carried (1) (a), (c) & (d) (2) (b), (c) & (a)
is _____ form in _____.
(3) (d) & (e) only (4) (b), (d) & (e)
(1) 70%, ionic form in plasma, as bicarbonate ions
5. When a person is contracting abdominal muscles
(2) 97%, carbaminohemoglobin form
and internal intercostals additionally, after a normal
(3) 85%, bicarbonate form inhalation, the total volume he would be exhaling
(4) 70%, bound form with haemoglobin will be
2. Functional residual capacity differs from residual (1) TV + IRV + ERV (2) TLC – FRC
volume in
(3) ERV + RV (4) VC – IRV
(1) Not including ERV
6. Which among the following are not included in
(2) That it can never be exhaled totally respiratory part of respiratory system?
(3) It can be measured by spirometer (1) Terminal bronchioles, trachea and external
(4) Including one volume that can still be exhaled nostrils
3. What is the correct value of the pO2 and pCO2 (in (2) Larynx, alveolar ducts and alveoli
mm of Hg) in the given blood vessels or locations? (3) Initial bronchioles, secondary bronchi and
Partial pressure Systemic In systemic alveolar sacs
arteries veins (4) Trachea, bronchi and alveolar ducts
(1) pO2 95 40 7. Trachea i.e., wind pipe extending upto mid-thoracic
& pCO2 40 45 cavity, divides at the level of
(1) Fifth cervical vertebra
(2) pO2 45 45
(2) Fourth thoracic vertebra
& pCO2 40 40
(3) Fifth thoracic vertebra
(3) pO2 40 45 (4) Fourth lumbar vertebra
& pCO2 95 40 8. Which among the given ones is the most probable
reason for higher diffusion rate of CO2 than O2
(4) pO2 104 95
through diffusion membrane, for per unit difference
& pCO2 40 45 in partial pressure?
4. Which of the given factors are affecting the binding (1) More affinity of haemoglobin for O2
of haemoglobin with O2 , there is increase the P50 (2) Less pCO 2 difference in alveolar air and
value? deoxygenated blood
(a) High pO2 (b) Low pH (3) Less than 1 mm thickness of diffusion
(c) Less H+ (d) Low pO2 membrane
(e) High DPG (4) Higher solubility of CO2
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9. The ventilation movements of the lungs in mammals 14. Which among the given ones is not correct for
are governed by respiration in humans?
(a) Muscular walls of lungs (1) Lungs also act as accessory excretory organs
(b) Phrenic muscles
(2) Both quiet and forcible exhalations are active
(c) Costal muscles
processes
(d) Thoracic muscles
(3) We cannot directly alter the pulmonary volume
(1) All of these (2) All except (d)
using lungs tissue alone
(3) All except (a) (4) Only (b) and (c)
(4) Longs are situated in an air-tight thoracic
10. What is being depicted in the given diagrammatic chamber
representation?
15. How many oxygen molecules have bond with the
-polypeptide chains of Hb in HbO2?
(1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 0
16. How many of the mentioned structures can be
related to alveoli?
Blood
capillary Red blood
cell
Pleural fluid, Dorsally incomplete rings, Surfactant,
(1) Gaseous exchange at tissue level Rich blood supply, Elastic cartilage, Arytenoid
cartilage, Simple cuboidal epithelium
(2) Purification/oxygenation of blood
(3) Transport of gases (1) 2 (2) 3
(4) Gill capillaries showing diffusion of O2 and CO2 (3) 4 (4) Only 1
between air and blood 17. All of the following statements are correct for the
diagram illustrated, except
11. Find the odd one out w.r.t. transport of CO2.
(1) Carbaminohemoglobin
(2) Bicarbonate ions
(3) Carboxyhemoglobin
(4) Dissolved state in plasma
12. Which among the given ones is a component of
larynx?
(1) Adam’s apple
(2) Cardiac notch (1) Diaphragm is relaxing and getting arched
(3) Cuneiform bone (2) Leaving behind residual volume, TV going
(4) Carotid body outwards
13. How much volume of oxygen will be delivered by 1 (3) Because of rising intrapulmonary pressure of
air, alveolar air excluding residual volume is
litre of oxygenated blood to the muscle performing
leaving the lungs
strenuous work?
(4) The contraction of external intercostal muscles
(1) 50 mL (2) 500 mL
lefts up the ribs and sternum an increase in
(3) 150 mL (4) 40 mL pulmonary volume
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Biology - NSEJS Breathing and Exchange of Gases 251
18. Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers (C) Epiglottis prevents entry of food into sound box
approximately ______ of CO2 in the alveoli. during swallowing
(1) 4 mL (2) 3 mL (D) Bronchioles gives rise to irregular walled and
vascularised bags alveoli
(3) 5 mL (4) 15 mL
(r)
19. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the atmospheric
air as compared to those in alveolar air?
(1) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser
(2) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher (q)
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29. Two small elastic cartilages of larynx that connect 33. Statement 1 : About 97% of oxygen is
epiglottis to arytenoid cartilages, are transported by RBCs in the blood.
(1) Cartilage of Santorini Statement 2 : About 3% oxygen is carried in
dissolved state through plasma.
(2) Corniculate cartilage
(1) Both the statements are correct
(3) Cuneiform cartilage
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(4) Cricoid cartilage (3) Only statement-1 is incorrect
30. Find out the correct word or term for the given (4) Only statement-2 is incorrect
statements.
Assertion and Reason Type Questions
(A) Contraction of ______ increases the volume of
thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis In the following questions, a statement of
and is a unique feature of mammals, example assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
rabbit. reason (R).
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(B) Relaxation of ______ returns the sternum and
reason is the correct explanation of the
ribs to their original or normal positions.
assertion, then mark (1).
(1) A – External intercostals
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
B – Internal intercostals
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2) A – Internal intercostals assertion, then mark (2).
B – Diaphragm (3) If assertion is true statement but reason is
(3) A – Diaphragm false then mark (3).
B – Internal intercostals (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements then mark (4).
(4) A – Diaphragm
B – External intercostals 34. A : Diffusion of carbon dioxide is 20 times
faster than oxygen.
31. The conducting part of respiratory passage cannot
R : It is due to difference in partial pressure
(1) Humidify the inhaled air as well as solubility of diffusing gases.
(2) Clean the inspired air 35. A : Human blood always contains more
(3) Perform gaseous exchange amount of CO2 than blood oxygen.
(4) Warm up the air R : Solubility coefficient of CO2 is more than
32. Trachea has the incomplete rings of the same O2.
cartilage that 36. A : Single molecule of Hb can carry a
(1) Forms tip of nose maximum of four molecules of oxygen.
(2) Joins ribs with sternum R : It has four polypeptide chains and four
(3) Forms epiglottis haem groups each containing an iron
atom to which an oxygen can attach.
(4) Forms vocal cords
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Body Fluids and
Circulation CHAPTER 8
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
We know that all living cells require constant supply of nutrients, Introduction
O2 and other essential substances. Also, the waste or harmful Blood
substances produced, need to be removed continuously for the
healthy functioning of tissues. In most of the higher organisms Circulatory Pathways
including humans, blood is the most commonly used body fluid Human Circulatory System
for this purpose. Another body fluid, lymph, also helps in the
transport of certain substances. In this chapter, we will study Double Circulation
about the composition and properties of blood and lymph (tissue Blood Vessels
fluid) and also the mechanism of blood circulation.
Assignment
BLOOD
Blood is a specialised connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma and a cellular portion called formed
elements. The plasma constitutes approximately 55% of the blood and the formed elements account for the
remaining 45%.
Composition of Blood
Erythrocytes Leucocytes
Granulocytes Agranulocytes
B-lymphocytes T-lymphocytes
Composition of Plasma
1. Water: 90-92% of plasma is water.
2. Proteins: They constitute about 6-8 percent of it. Fibrinogens, globulins and albumins are the major
plasma proteins.
(i) Fibrinogen: Fibrinogen is an important clotting factor produced by the liver.
(ii) Globulins: Globulins are primarily involved in the defense mechanism of the body. They are grouped
into three subtypes: alpha globulins, beta globulins, and gamma globulins. Gamma globulins are
antibodies which function in immune response of the body.
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(iii) Albumins: Albumins help in osmotic balance. They maintain the osmotic pressure (pressure
generated by the osmotic flow of water through a semipermeable membrane into an aqueous
compartment containing solute at a higher concentration) needed to draw water from the surrounding
tissue fluid into the capillaries. This action is needed to maintain blood volume and pressure.
3. Minerals: Plasma contains small amounts of minerals like Na+, Ca++, Mg++, HCO3–, Cl– etc.
4. Glucose, amino acids, lipids etc. are also present in the plasma as they are always in transit in the
body. They are being carried by the plasma from one place to another. These substances enter and leave
the plasma at regular intervals.
Plasma without the clotting proteins is called serum.
Formed Elements
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Biology - NSEJS Body Fluids and Circulation 255
(ii) Granulocytes Cytoplasm has granules,
nucleus lobed.
(a) Eosinophils Bilobed nucleus, coarse Bone marrow, life Non-phagocytic,
2-3% granules in cytoplasm, span is about 4 to 8 increase in
take acidic stain. hours in the blood 4 to number during
5 days in the tissue. allergy, play role
in immunity.
(b) Basophils Usually three lobed Bone marrow, life span Release heparin
0-1% nucleus, less number is about 4 to 8 hours in and histamine.
basic stain. the blood. Thus they act
like mast cells of
connective
tissue.
(c) Neutrophils Many lobed nucleus, fine Bone marrow, life Phagocytic;
60-65% granules; take acidic as span is about 4 to 8 engulf germs
(Most abundant) well as basic stains. hours in the blood, 4 and dead cells.
to 5 days in the tissue.
3. Platelets Colourless, rounded or Bone marrow, life Help in blood
1,50,000-3,50,000 oval, non-nucleated span is about a week. clotting.
platelets per cubic fragments of the cells.
millimetre of blood.
Blood Groups
There are certain molecules on the surfaces of all cells in the body that can be recognized as foreign by the
immune system of another individual and hence can induce the immune system of latter. These molecules
are known as antigens. As part of the immune response, particular lymphocytes, secrete a class of proteins
called antibodies that bond in a specific fashion with antigens. The membranes of red blood cells (RBCs)
also possess several antigens. Depending on the nature of antigens present on the membrane of RBCs,
various types of blood grouping has been done. Two such groupings- the ABO and Rh – are widely used all
over the world.
ABO grouping
Karl Landsteiner (1901) along with his coworker recognised four types of blood groups in human beings,
commonly known as ABO blood grouping. ABO grouping is based on the presence or absence of two surface
antigens on the RBCs namely A and B. Similarly, the plasma of different individuals also contain two natural
antibodies called anti-A and anti-B.
According to Landsteiner law, if an antigen is present on the RBCs, the corresponding antibody must be
absent from the plasma. It also states that if the antigen is absent on the RBCs, the corresponding antibody
must be present in the plasma.
Transfusion Reactions
A A anti-B A, O
B B anti-A B, O
AB A, B nil AB, A, B, O
O nil anti-A, B O
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CIRCULATORY PATHWAYS
Sinus venosus
Pulmonary arch Pulmonary
Truncus Systemic trunk
Sinus arches Aorta
arteriosus
Aorta venosus
Aorta
RA LA LA
RA LA RA
V
V
A R L RV LV
V
Vein Sinus
Septum
venosus
Pisces Amphibia Reptile Bird/Mammal
(Except /Crocodilians
crocodilians)
Fig. : Hearts of different vertebrates; A = Atrium, V = Ventricle, R = Right, L = Left
All vertebrates have a muscular heart. Fishes have a two-chambered heart with an atrium and a ventricle, while
lungfishes have 3 chambered heart. Amphibians and the reptiles (except crocodiles) possess a three-chambered
heart with two atria and a single ventricle, whereas crocodiles, birds and mammals possess a four-chambered heart
with two atria and two ventricles.
In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood which undergoes oxygenation in the gills. The oxygenated
blood is then supplied to the body parts from where deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart. This is known
as single circulation.
In amphibians and reptiles, the left atrium gets oxygenated blood from the gills/lungs/skin and the right atrium
receives the deoxygenated blood from other body parts. However, both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
get mixed up in the single ventricle. The heart thus pumps out mixed blood. This is known as incomplete
double circulation.
In birds and mammals, the left and the right atria receive oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, respectively
which is passed onto the ventricles of the same sides. Here, there is no mixing of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood. Thus, the ventricles pump it out without any mixing, i.e., two separate circulatory
pathways are present in these organisms, hence, these animals have double circulation.
Aorta
Vena cava
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein
Sino-atrial node Left atrium
Right atrium
Atrio-ventricular
node Bundle of His
Chordae tendinae
Right ventricle
Left ventricle
Interventricular
septum
Apex
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Our heart is divided into four chambers, two relatively small upper chambers called atria (singular, atrium)
and two larger lower chambers called ventricles. The walls of the ventricles are much thicker than that
of the atria. The right and the left atria are separated by a thin, muscular wall called the interatrial septum
whereas the right and left ventricles are separated by thick-walled interventricular septum.
The openings between the atria and the ventricles are guarded by atrioventricular (AV) valves. The
AV valve between right atrium and right ventricle has three flaps or cusps and is therefore called the
tricuspid valve. The AV valve between the left atrium and left ventricle has two flaps or cusps and is
thus called the bicuspid valve or mitral valve.
The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood through coronary sinus (discussed later) and two large veins
called venae cavae (one superior vena cava and one inferior vena cava). The left atrium receives oxygenated
blood from the lungs through two pairs of pulmonary veins.
Left ventricle
Right ventricle
DOUBLE CIRCULATION
(i) Pulmonary Circulation
The deoxygenated blood pumped into the pulmonary artery is passed on to the lungs from where the oxygenated
blood is carried by the pulmonary veins into the left atrium. This pathway is known as pulmonary circulation.
The oxygenated blood entering the aorta is carried by a network of arteries, arterioles and capillaries to the
tissues from where the deoxygenated blood is collected by a system of venules, veins and vena cava and
emptied into the right atrium. This is the systemic circulation. Thus, the systemic circulation provides
nutrients, oxygen and other essential substances to the tissues and takes CO2 and other harmful substances
away for elimination.
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258 Body Fluids and Circulation Biology - NSEJS
Lungs
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein
RA LA
RV LV Dorsal aorta
Venae cavae
(great veins) Heart
Smooth muscle
Lumen
Vein
Body parts Smooth muscle
Lumen
Capillary
Artery
BLOOD VESSELS
Blood vessels form a tubular network throughout the body that allows blood to flow from the heart to all the
living cells of the body and then back to the heart. Blood from the heart passes through vessels of progressively
smaller diameters, known as arteries, arterioles and capillaries.
Arteries Veins
1. Arteries distribute blood from the heart to the 1. Veins collect blood from different parts of the
different parts of the body. body and pour it into the heart.
2. Tunica media is thick, having more muscle fibres. 2. Tunica media is thin, having fewer muscle fibres.
3. Tunica interna has strong elastic membrane and 3. Tunica interna has simple, elastic membrane and
more elongated endothelial cells. elongated endothelial cells.
4. The walls of the arteries are thick and muscular. 4. The walls of the veins are thin and nonmuscular.
5. Arteries are not collapsible as they have thick 5. Veins are collapsible because they have thin
walls. walls.
6. Veins have valves which prevent backward flow
6. Arteries have no valves.
of blood.
7. The flow of the blood is fast as the blood in them is 7. The flow of blood in veins is not so fast because
under great pressure. the blood in veins is under low pressure.
8. Except the pulmonary arteries all the arteries 8. Except pulmonary veins all the veins carry
carry oxygenated blood. deoxygenated blood.
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Biology - NSEJS Body Fluids and Circulation 259
Capillaries
These are the narrowest blood vessels, through which the exchange of gases and nutrients between the blood
and the tissue fluid occurs. The walls of capillaries are composed of just one cell layer - a simple squamous
epithelium or endothelium. This permits a more rapid exchange of materials between the blood and the tissues.
Lumen
Blood Wall of
Capillaries vein
Venule
Arteriole
Vein
Artery
To Valve
From Heart Valve
Heart
Wall of
vein
(i)
A B
(ii)
Tunica externa
(Connective tissue)
Tunica media
(Circular muscle fibres
and elastic tissue)
Elastic membrane
Endothelium
Lumen
A B
(iii)
Fig. : (i) Diagram showing the end of an artery and beginning of a vein.
(ii) Veins cut open to show the valves preventing the backward flow of blood.
(iii) A - T.S. artery, B - T.S. vein
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Choose the correct answer :
1. Which of the following animal has capillaries? 6. Pulmonary vein can be best defined as the blood
(1) Arthropods vessels which
13. The wall of arteries and veins are made up of three (3) c, a, e, d, b (4) c, b, e, a, d
layers. Which of the following is the main 18. The wall of capillary and inner wall of arteries and
difference in the structure of arteries and veins? veins are made up of
(1) Tunica media is made up of collagen fibres (1) Nervous tissue (2) Connective tissue
only in veins
(3) Epithelial tissue (4) Muscular tissue
(2) Tunica externa is made up of endothelium in
veins 19. The opening of coronary sinus into right atrium is
guarded by
(3) Tunica intima is made up of smooth muscles
in veins (1) Mitral valve (2) Eustachian valve
(4) Tunica media is comparatively thin in veins (3) Thebesian valve (4) Semilunar valve
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20. Various structures in heart are associated with the Assertion and Reason Type Questions
conduction of cardiac impulse. Conduction speed
In the following questions, a statement of
is fastest in case of
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
(1) Sino-atrial node reason (R).
(2) Atrio-ventricular node (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) Bundle of His
assertion, then mark (1).
(4) Purkinje fibres
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
21. Mark the absolute period between the closure of reason is not the correct explanation of the
semilunar valve and atrioventricular valve assertion, then mark (2).
(1) 0.1 sec (2) 0.5 sec (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) 0.4 sec (4) 0.3 sec false, then mark (3).
22. Pulse rate is a direct measure of (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements, then mark (4).
(1) Blood pressure
24. A : Spleen is also called as graveyard of RBC.
(2) Stroke volume
R : Older erythrocytes are removed from the
(3) Cardiac output circulation by phagocytic cell of spleen.
(4) Heart rate 25. A : Albumins are primarily involved in the
23. Statement 1 : Veins collect blood from different defense mechanism of the body.
parts of the body and pour it into the heart. R : Gamma albumins are antibodies which
Statement 2 : Arteries have valves which prevent function in immune response of the body.
backward flow of blood. 26. A : Left ventricle pumps blood at a much
(1) Both the statements are correct higher pressure to all body parts involved
in systemic circulation.
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
R : The muscular wall of the left ventricle is
(3) Only statement-1 is correct two to four times as thick as the wall of
(4) Only statement-2 is correct right ventricle.
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Heredity CHAPTER 9
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
You have studied in the previous section, one of the most
Introduction
fundamental attributes of all living organisms is reproduction.
Progeny receives the characters from parents in the form of egg
Assignment
and sperm. Because of this feature, the progeny resembles its
parents. For example, a mango seed forms only a mango plant
and not any other plant, and an elephant always gives birth only to a baby elephant and not some other animal. This
has been best summed up in the phrase 'like begets like'. The transfer of characters from parents to offspring is
known as inheritance. Progeny produced resembles the parents closely but is not identical in all the respects.
The reason behind is variation. Variation is the degree by which progeny differ from their parents. The branch of
science which deals with the inheritance as well as the variation of characters from parents to offspring is
Genetics.
Gregor Johann Mendel was the first to demonstrate the scientific basis of inheritance and variation by conducting
hybridisation experiment. But it should be very much clear that he was not the first to conduct these experiments,
rather he was the first to consider one to three characters at one time and this was perhaps the secret of his success.
His experiments were in fact the extension and development of hybridisation experiments on pea conducted by earlier
workers like Knight and Goss.
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Concept of Segregation
From the above observation that the recessive parental trait (dwarfness, tt) is expressed without any blending
in the F2 generation, we can infer that, when the tall and dwarf plant produce gametes by the process of
meiosis, the alleles of the parental pair separate (segregate) from each other and only one allele is transmitted
to a gamete. It means meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes to one half where a gamete carries only
one chromosome of each type and hence only one factor of a character. The segregation of alleles is a random
process and so there is a 50 percent chance of a gamete containing either allele. In this way the gametes
of the tall T T plants have the allele T and the gametes of the dwarf t t plants have the allele t. During
fertilisation of the two alleles, T from one parent through the pollen (n), and t from the female parent through
the egg (n) are united to produce zygotes (2n) that have one T allele and one t allele i.e. hybrid or
heterozygous Tt plant (2n).
Test Cross
From the preceeding paragraphs it is clear that though the genotypic ratios can be calculated using
mathematical probability, by simply looking at the phenotype of a dominant trait, it is not possible to know
the genotypic composition. For example, whether a tall plant froms F1 or F2 has TT or Tt composition, can
not be predicted. Therefore, to determine the genotype of a tall plant at F2, Mendel crossed the tall plant from
F2 with a dwarf plant. This is called a test cross. In a typical test cross, an organism showing a dominant
phenotype is crossed with the recessive parent instead of self-pollination. The progenies of such a cross can
be easily analysed to predict the genotype of test organism.
Example : If we want to determine the genotype of a violet-flowered pea plant (test organism), then it is
crossed with the recessive parent (white-flowered pea plant) instead of self crossing.
Homozygous Homozygous
recessive recessive
ww ww
w w ? w w
W W
Ww Ww Ww Ww
WW Ww
W Dominant Phenotype w
Ww Ww (Genotype unknown) ww ww
Phenotypic ratio All flowers are violet Half of the flowers are violet and
half of the flowers are white i.e. 2 : 2
Genotypic ratio All flowers are Ww 2 : 2 (Ww : ww) or 1 : 1
Interpretation Unknown flower is homozygous dominant Unknown flower is heterozygous
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Biology - NSEJS Heredity 265
(iii) In a dissimilar pair of factors (e.g. Tt), only one is able to express its effect that called as dominant factor.
The other factor which does not show its effect is known as recessive factor.
The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the parental traits in a monohybrid
cross in the F1 and the expression of both in the F2. It also explains the proportion of 3 : 1 obtained in F2
generation. This law is not universally applicable.
2. Law of Segregation : This law is based on the fact that the two factors of a character present in an individu-
al do not get mixed up (blending) and both the traits are recovered as such in the F2 generation though one of
these is not seen at the F1 stage. During gamete or spore formation, factors of a pair separate or segregate
from each other, so that a gamete carries only one factor of a character. This ensures the purity of ga-
metes. Of course, a homozygous parent produces all gametes that are similar while a heterozygous will pro-
duce two type of gametes each having one factor with equal proportion. This law is universally applicable.
Exceptions to Mendelian Principles :
(1) Incomplete Dominance: After Mendelism, a few cases were observed where F1 phenotype is
intermediate between dominant and recessive phenotype, it means F1 did not resemble either of
the two parents and was in between the two.
A good example of incomplete dominance is that of flower colour in Snapdragon (dog flower or Antirrhinum
majus). True-breeding red-flowered plant (RR) was crossed with true breeding white-flowered plant (rr).
F1 offspring (Rr) had pink flowers. Here one allele is incompletely dominant over other so that intermediate
phenotype is produced by F1 hybrid with respect to the parents. If the F1 is selfed, the plants of F2
generation are of three types red (RR), pink (Rr) and white flowered (rr) in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 1. In
heterozygous condition (Rr), phenotypic effect of one allele is more pronounced than that of other and
then mixing of both colours (red & white) results in the development of pink colour.
P generation
Gametes R r
F1 generation
Gametes R R Gametes
r r
RR
F2 generation Rr Rr
rr
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(2) Multiple allelism: Mendel proposed that each gene has two contrasting forms i.e., alleles. But there
are some genes which are having more than two alternative forms (allele). Presence of more than two
alleles for a gene is known as multiple allelism.
A good example is different types of red blood cells that determine ABO blood grouping in human beings.
ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I. The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar
polymers that protrude from its surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene. The gene (I)
has three alleles IA, IB and i/IO . Despite the presence of three alleles of the same gene in a population,
an individual (2n) can have only two alleles. Therefore, multiple alleles can be detected only in a
population. Since there are three different alleles, therefore six different genotypes are possible for this
character (IAIA, IAIO; IBIB, IBIO; IAIB; IOIO or ii). Now to know, how many phenotype are possible, we have
to see the detailed behaviour of alleles. Thus, six genotypes and four phenotypes are possible.
(3) Co-dominance: Besides incomplete dominance, certain alleles show co-dominance. Here in F1 hybrid,
both alleles express themselves equally and there is no mixing of the effect of the both alleles, therefore
hybrid progeny (F1) resembles both parents. The alleles which do not show dominance-recessive
relationship and are able to express themselves independently when present together are called
co-dominant alleles. The symbols used for co-dominant genes are different. One method is to show by
their own capital alphabets, e.g., R (for red hair in cattle) and W (for white hair in cattle). In another
method, capital base symbols are employed for both the alleles with different superscripts, e.g., IA, IB.
ABO blood group is also a good example of co-dominance. For ABO system of blood groups, allele IA
produces N-acetylgalactosamyl transferase enzyme which recognises H antigen present in RBC
membrane and adds N-acetylgalactosamine to sugar part of H antigen to form A antigen. The allele IB
produces galactosyl transferase enzyme which adds galactose to sugar part of H antigen to form B
antigen. The alleles IA and IB produce a slightly different form of the sugar while allele i does not produce
any sugar or antigen. IA and IB are completely dominant over i, in other words when IA and i are present
only IA expresses as i does not produce any sugar, and when IB and i are present, only IB expresses.
When both IA and IB are present in a person, both enzymes or sugars thus both antigens A and B are
produced. This is because of co-dominance. These antigens determines the type of blood group. Blood
group A have antigen A, group B have antigen B, AB have both antigens while blood group O do not
carry any antigen. Thus, six genotypes and four phenotypes are possible.
Table : Genetic Basis of Blood Groups in Human Population
Antigen Blood
Allele from Allele from Genotype of types of
Parent 1 Parent 2 offspring offspring
IA IA IA IA A A
A
I I
B A
I I B
A, B AB
A
I i A
I i A A
I
B
I
A A
I I
B
A, B AB
I B
I
B B
I I
B
B B
IB i IB i B B
i i ii Neither O
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Biology - NSEJS Heredity 267
(a) Communication was not easy in those days and his work could not be widely publicised. Limited
circulation of the ''Proceedings of Brunn Natural Science Society" in which it was published.
(b) His concept of stable, unblending, discrete units or factors for various traits did not find acceptance from
the contemporaries like Charles Darwin and A.R. Wallace as an explanation for the apparently continuous
variation seen in nature.
(c) His approach of using mathematical and statistical analysis to explain biological phenomena was totally
new and unacceptable to many of the biologists of that time.
(d) He could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors or the material they were made of.
(e) Non-discovery of chromosomes, mitosis and meiosis at the time of Mendel's work.
Mendel died in 1884 long before his work came to be recognised. In 1900, three scientists independently
rediscovered the principles of heredity already worked out by Mendel. They were
de-Vries of Holland, Carl Correns of Germany and Von Tschermak of Austria.
Chromosomal Mapping
Crossing over is important in locating the genes on chromosome. The genes are arranged linearly on the
chromosome. This sequence and the relative distances between various genes is graphically represented in
terms of recombination frequencies or cross over values (COV). This is known as linkage map of chromosome.
Distance or cross over units are called centimorgan (cM) or map unit. Term centimorgan is used in eukaryotic
genetics and map unit in prokaryotic genetics.
Number of recombinan ts
Recombination frequency or cross over value = 100
Total number of offsprings
The recombination frequency depends upon the distance between the genes. If the distance between the genes is
lesser the chances of crossing over is less and hence recombination frequency is also lesser and vice versa.
So, recombination frequency is directly proportional to the distance between genes. In any cross, if recombination
frequency is 5%. It means the distance between the genes is 5 map unit.
A.H. Sturtevant suggested that these recombination frequencies can be utilized in predicting the sequence of
genes on the chromosome. On the basis of recombination frequency, he prepared first chromosomal map or
genetic map for Drosophila.
Chromosomal Aberrations
Chromosomes are made up of proteins, DNA and RNA. Each chromatid possesses one DNA helix that runs
continuously from one end to the other. In chromatids, DNA is present in a highly supercoiled form. Therefore,
loss (deletions) or gain (insertion/duplication) of a segment of DNA, results in alternation in chromosomes.
We know that genes are located on chromosomes, so that alteration in chromosomes results in abnormalities
or aberrations. These are commonly observed in cancer cells. The important aberrations are as follows :
(a) Deletion : Occurs when a part of the chromosome is lost. It can be divided into two types-terminal and
intercalary. Terminal deletion is the loss of a terminal segment of a chromosome and is produced by a
single break in the chromosome. During intercalary deletion there is the loss of an intercalary segment
of a chromosome due to double break.
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A B C D E F G H A B C D E F
TERMINAL
DELETION
A B C D E F G H A B C F G H
INTERSTITIAL
DELETION
Fig. : Deletion
(b) Duplication : Occurs due to addition of a part of chromosome so that a gene or set of genes is
represented twice.
PQ R S T U PQ R S R S T U
Fig. : Duplication
(d) Inversion : Change in linear order of genes by rotation of a section of chromosome by 180°. Inversion
occurs frequently in Drosophila as a result of X-ray irradiation. They may be of two types :
(i) Paracentric : Inversion without involving centromere (Inverted segment does not carry centromere).
Mendelian Disorders
These are mainly determined by mutation in the single gene, therefore also called gene related human
disorders. They are transmitted to the offspring as per Mendelian principles. The pattern of inheritance of such
disorders can be traced in a family by the pedigree analysis. Some common and prevalent Mendelian disorders
are as follows:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
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(a) Colour blindness: Colour blindness is a recessive sex-linked trait in which the eye fails to distinguish
red and green colours. The gene for normal vision is dominant. The normal gene and its recessive allele
are carried by X-chromosome. In female, colour blindness appears only when both the sex chromosomes
carry the recessive gene (XcXc). The females have normal vision but function as carrier if a single
recessive gene for colour blindness is present (XXc). However, in human males the defect appears in the
presence of a single recessive gene (XcY) because Y-chromosomes of males do not carry any gene for
colour vision. Colour blindness, like any other sex-linked trait, shows criss-cross inheritance (i.e., a
male transmits his trait to his grandson through daughter, while a female transmits the traits to her grand-
daughter through her son or it is transfer of trait from one sex to the offspring of the opposite sex).
It should be very much clear, colour blindness does not mean not seeing any colour at all, it means
that those who are colourblind have trouble in seeing the differences between certain colours.
Most colourblind people cannot tell the difference between red or green. That does not mean that they
cannot do their normal work. In fact, they can also drive - they learn to respond to the way the traffic
signal lights up the red light is generally on the top and green is on the bottom.
If a colourblind man (XCY) marries a girl with normal vision (XX), the daughters would have normal vision
but would be carrier, while sons would also be normal (shown in cross(a)).
Cross (a)
C
Gametes X X X Y
Ova Sperms
X X
C C
X
C XX XX
Carrier girl Carrier girl 2 carrier girls
Offspring
2 normal boys
Y XY XY
Normal boy Normal boy
If the carrier girl (heterozygous for colour blindness, XCX) now marries a colour blind man XCY, the
offspring would show 50% females and 50% males. Of the females, 50% would be carrier for colour
blindness and the rest 50% would be colour blind. Of the males, 50% would have normal vision and the
50% would be colour blind (shown in cross (b)).
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Cross (b)
C C
Gametes X X X Y
Ova Sperms
C
X X
C C C
C XX XX 50% girls carrier and
X
Colour blind girl Carrier girl 50% girls colour blind
Offspring
C
XY XY 50% boys colour blind and
Y
Colour blind boy Normal boy 50% boys with normal vision
Fig. : Sex-linked inheritance of colour blindness – cross (a) and cross (b)
(b) Haemophilia : It is X-linked recessive trait therefore shows its transmission from normal carrier female
(heterozygous) to male progeny. Due to presence of defective form of blood clotting factor (protein),
exposed blood of affected individuals fails to coagulate.
The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a female
has to be at least carrier and the father should be haemophilic (unviable in the later stage of life).
Haemophilic female dies before birth. The family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows a number of
haemophilic descendents as she was a carrier of the disease.
The person suffering from this disease cannot synthesize a normal blood protein called antihaemophilic
globulin (AHG) required for normal blood clotting (Haemophilia A - more severe). Therefore, even a very
small cut may lead to continuous bleeding for a long time. This gene is located on X chromosome and
is recessive. It remains latent in carrier females.
Carrier Woman Normal Man
h
Parents XX XY
h
Gametes X X X Y
Ova Sperms
h
X X
h
XX XX
X 1 normal girl : 1 carrier girl
Normal girl Carrier girl
Offspring h
XY XY
Y
Normal boy Haemophilic boy 1 normal boy : 1 haemophilic boy
Fig. : Inheritance of haemophilia when the mother is carrier and the father is normal
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Biology - NSEJS Heredity 271
If a normal man marries a girl who is carrier for haemophilia, the progeny would consist of 50% females
and 50% males. Of the females, 50% would be normal and the rest 50% would be hemophilia carrier.
Of the males, 50% would be normal and the rest would be haemophiliacs.
Haemophilia - B (Christmas disease) – plasma thromboplastin is absent, Inheritance is just like
Haemophilia A.
(c) Sickle-cell anaemia : As it is autosomal recessive disease therefore it can be transmitted from parents
to the offspring when both male and female individuals are carrier (heterozygous) for the gene. The disease
is controlled by a single pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Thus three genotypes are possible in population.
(i) HbA HbA (Normal, homozygous)
(ii) HbA HbS (Normal, carrier)
(iii) HbS HbS (Diseased, die before attaining maturity)
Heterozygous (HbA HbS) individuals appear apparently unaffected but they are carrier of the disease as there
is 50% probability of transmission of the mutant gene to the progeny, thus exhibiting sickle-cell trait.
The disease/defect is caused by mutation (transversion) of the gene controlling -chain of haemoglobin.
The mutated gene is called HbS. HbS causes one change in amino acid sequence of -chain. It replaces
glutamic acid (Glu) present at 6th position of the -chain by amino acid valine (Val). The mutant
haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low O2 tension causing the change in the shape
of the RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle-like structure.
Normal Hb (A)gene
GAG
Sickle-cell Hb (S)gene
- GTG -
CTC - CAC -
Transcription Transcription
Val His Leu Thr Pro Glu Glu Val His Leu Thr Pro Val Glu
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
A S
Hb peptide Hb peptide
Fig. : Micrograph of the red blood cells and the amino acid composition of the relevant portion of -chain
of haemoglobin: (a) From a normal individual; (b) From an individual with sickle-cell anaemia
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Choose the correct answer :
1. The phenotype of an individual may be affected if 6. Which of the following statement for chromosomal
the modified allele produces theory of inheritance is incorrect?
(a) No enzyme at all (1) Pairing and separation of a pair of
(b) The normal/less efficient enzyme chromosomes would lead to the segregation of
a factor they carried
(c) A non-functional enzyme
(2) Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel to the
(1) Only (a) is correct
behaviour of genes
(2) (a) and (c) are correct
(3) The two alleles of a gene pair are located on
(3) (b) and (c) are correct homologous sites on homologous
(4) Only (c) is correct chromosomes
2. What will be possible blood group in children from (4) Chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs
the parents with B and AB blood groups? 7. Individuals having homomorphic sex chromosomes
(1) A, O (2) A, B, AB & O produce
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Biology - NSEJS Heredity 273
10. Heterozygous tall and violet flowered pea plants 16. Multiple alleles are present
were selfed and total 512 seeds are collected. (1) On non-sister chromatids
What will be total number of seeds for both
(2) On different chromosomes
heterozygous traits?
(3) At different loci on the same chromosome
(1) 128 (2) 256
(4) At the same locus of the chromosome
(3) 384 (4) 64
17. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia
11. A normal woman, whose father had colour is
blindness, married a normal man. What is the
(1) It is a recessive disease
chance of occurrence of colour blindness in the
progeny? (2) It is a dominant disease
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood
is affected
(3) 100% (4) 75%
(4) It is a sex-linked disease
12. In incomplete dominance
18. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in
(1) Dominant trait is completely expressed in F1 which the F 1 generation resembles both the
generation parents?
(2) Phenotypic and genotypic ratio are different (1) Law of dominance
(3) Two dominant alleles are needed to express the (2) Inheritance of one gene
complete dominant trait
(3) Co-dominance
(4) F1 individuals have the equal traits of both
(4) Incomplete dominance
parents
19. A test cross is carried out to
13. Progeny with blood group ‘O’ can not be obtained in
(1) Determine the genotype of a plant at F2
cross
(2) Predict whether two traits are linked
(1) A×A (2) A×B
(3) Asses the number of alleles of a gene
(3) O×AB (4) B×B
(4) Determine whether two species or varieties
14. In F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross
will breed successfully
(TTRR × ttrr)
20. Which one of the following cannot be explained on
(1) Tall plants and violet flowered plants are the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?
obtained in 1 : 1 frequency
(1) Factors occur in pairs
(2) Ratio of parental and non-parental plants is
(2) The discrete unit controlling a particular
1 : 15
character is called a factor
(3) Recombinant plants are obtained in 1 : 1
(3) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant,
frequency
and the other recessive
(4) More than one option is correct (4) Alleles do not show any blending and both the
15. A gene showing codominance has characters recover as such in F2 generation
(1) Both alleles independently expressed in the 21. ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which
heterozygote. has three alleles and show co-dominance. There
are six genotypes. How many phenotypes in all
(2) One allele dominant on the other
are possible?
(3) Alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome
(1) Six (2) Three
(4) Alleles that are recessive to each other
(3) Four (4) Five
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274 Heredity Biology - NSEJS
22. In Antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were (1) All haemophilic
hybridized. The F1 plants produced red, pink and (2) All boys haemophilic
white flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and
(3) All girls haemophilic
1 white. What could be the genotype of the two
(4) All normal
plants used for hybridization? Red flower colour is
determined by RR, and white by rr genes. 28. Statement 1 : Chromosomes are made up of
proteins and DNA only.
(1) rrrr
Statement 2 : In chromatids, DNA is made in a
(2) RR
highly super coiled form.
(3) Rr
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) rr (2) Only statement-2 is correct
23. Phenotype of an organism is the result of (3) Both the statements are correct
(1) Mutations and linkages (4) Both the statements are incorrect
(2) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition Assertion and Reason Type Questions
(3) Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism In the following questions, a statement of
(4) Genotype and environment interactions assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
24. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human reason (R).
males than in human females because (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) This disease is due to an X-linked dominant
assertion, then mark (1).
mutation
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(2) A greater proportion of girls die in infancy reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) This disease is due to an X-linked recessive assertion, then mark (2).
mutation (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(4) This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive false, then mark (3).
mutation (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
25. Genetic variation in a population arises due to statements, then mark (4).
(1) Mutations only 29. A : The posssibility of a female becoming a
(2) Recombination only haemophilic is extremely rare.
R : Mother of such a female has to be carrier and
(3) Mutations as well as recombination
father should be haemophilic.
(4) Reproductive isolation and selection
30. A : The heterozygotic female for haemophilia may
26. The colour blindness is more likely to occur in transmit the disease to sons.
males than in females because
R : Such traits show criss-cross inheritance.
(1) The Y-chromosome of males have the genes
31. A : Test cross is the tool for knowing linkage
for distinguishing colours
between genes.
(2) Genes for characters are located on the
R : Monohybrid test cross gives two phenotypes
X-chromosomes
and two genotypes.
(3) The trait is dominant in males and recessive 32. A : In snapdragon, F1 plants do not have red or
in females white flowers.
(4) None of these R : It is intermediate inheritance with neither of the
27. Haemophilic man marries a normal woman. Their two alleles of a gene being dominant over each
offsprings will be other.
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MATHEMATICS
SETS CHAPTER 1
SETS AND THEIR REPRESENTATION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
A well defined collection of objects is called a set. By Sets and their Representation
“well defined collection”, we mean that when given a set Types of Sets
and an object, we should clearly be able to say whether
Operations on Sets
a particular object is a member of the set or is not a
member of the set e.g., Assignment
The collection of all good students in a class is not a well defined collection as there is no particular criteria
for a student to be good. It can vary from person to person. So, it is not a set.
The collection of all students scoring marks 90 or more would be a well defined collection. It forms a set.
The objects that belongs to a set are called members or elements of a set. The element of a set are generally
denoted by small letters a, b, c, ……, x, y, z. Sets are usually denoted by capital letters A, B, C, ……, X,
Y, Z. If x is an element of set A, then we say that “x belongs to A” and write as x A.
(The greek symbols, epsilonis used to denote the phrase ‘belongs to’). If y is not an element of set A, then
we say ‘y does not belong to A’ and write as y A. If x and y both belongs to set A, then we write x,
y A, e.g.,
In a set N of natural numbers
1 N but – 1 N
In a set P of prime factors of 135,
3 P but 15 P
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276 Sets Mathematics - NSEJS
and out of these 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12 are less than 20.
Given collection is a set and contains 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12.
(iv) Rivers in India are Ganga, Yamuna, Indus, Brahmaputra, Tapti, Narmada, Godavari, Krishna,
Mahanadi and Kaveri etc.
Given collection is a set and contains above mentioned rivers.
Example 2 : If A = {1, 2, 4, 3, 6} is a set, then which of the following is true? If not, then mention why?
(i) 3A
(ii) 3, 6 A
(iii) 9A
(iv) 2A
Solution : (i) 3 A is true
(ii) 3, 6 A is true
(iii) 9 A is not true because set A does not contain 9.
(iv) 2 A is not true because 2 belongs to A.
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sets 277
(iii) The given equation can be written as
(x + 3)(x – 1) = 0
i.e., x = – 3, 1
The solution set of the given equation can be written in roster form as {–3, 1}.
(iv) 4x + 9 < 50
4x < 41
41
x
4
x < 10.25
∵ x is a natural number so, it can have values 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10.
The given set can be written as {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}.
(ii) The Rule (or property) Method or the Set-builder Form : In this method, all elements of a set
possess a single common property which is not possessed by any element outside the set. In other
words, the rule method denotes the set by using words, formulae or properties.
TYPES OF SETS
1. Empty set : A set which does not contain any element or member is called the empty set or null set or
void set. It is denoted by or { }, e.g.,
The collection of natural numbers less than 1.
{x : x is a four footed man}
{x : 2x + 11 = 3 and x N}
2. Singleton set : A set that contains only one element is called a singleton set or unit set, e.g.,
{0}
{x : x – 1 = 2}
{x : x is capital of India}
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278 Sets Mathematics - NSEJS
3. Finite set : If the members of a set can be counted with the counting coming to an end, the set is called
a finite set.
S = {a, e, i, o, u}
M = {x : x is a month in a year}
A = {x : x = n2 where 1 < n < 20, n N}
4. Infinite set : If the process of counting the members of a set cannot come to an end, the set is said to
be an infinite set.
The set of even natural number i.e., {2, 4, 6, …}
The set of all points on a line.
{x : x N and x is prime} i.e., {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, …}
5. Cardinal number of a finite set : The number of elements or members of a set is called the cardinal
number of the set. The cardinal number of a set A is represented by n(A).
A be the set of letters of the word SCHOOL
i.e., A = {S, C, H, O, L}
n(A) = 5
D is a set of digits in decimal number system.
i.e., D = {0, 1, 2, ……, 9}
n(D) = 10
7
x
3
7
But W
3
So, C =
It is a null set.
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sets 279
Example 6 : State which of the following sets are finite set or infinite set. In case of finite set, mention the
order/cardinal number.
(i) A = {x : x Z and x 2 = 64}
(ii) B = {x : x N and x2 – 3x + 2 = 0}
(iii) C = {x : x is a prime number}
(iv) D = {x : x Z and 3x – 2 = 11}
Solution : (i) A = {– 8, 8} so, A is finite set, n(A) = 2
(ii) B = {1, 2} so, A is a finite set, n(B) = 2
(iii) C = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, …}, C is an infinite set
(iv) 3x – 2 = 11
13
x
3
13
But x Z
3
So, D = , it is a finite set.
n(D) = 0
Equal Sets
Two sets A and B are said to be equal if they have exactly the same elements and we write A = B. Otherwise,
the sets are said to be unequal and written as A B.
Thus, if A = B, then every element of A is an element of B and every element of B is an element of A. Converse
is also true.
For example : Two sets A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8} and B = {x : x N and x < 9} are equal sets.
Equivalent Sets
Two finite sets are said to be equivalent if they have same number of element. A and B are equivalent, i.e.,
A ~ B or A B if n(A) = n(B).
For example : Two sets A = {4, 8, 12, 16, 25} and B = {a, b, c, d, e} are equivalent sets.
Note : All equal sets are equivalent sets while all equivalents set are not equal.
Overlapping Sets
Two sets are called overlapping sets, if they have at least one element in common.
For example, the sets A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {3, 4, 5, 6} are overlapping set, since the element 3, 4 is
common.
Disjoint Sets
If two sets A and B have no elements in common, then we say that A and B are disjoint sets.
For example, let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {5, 6, 7}, then A and B are disjoint, since no element is common
to them.
Example 7 : Which of the following pair of sets are equal? Give reasons.
(i) A = {–3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3} and B = {x : x Z and x2 < 10}
(ii) A = {0} and B = {x : x is root of the equation x2 – 2x = 0}
(iii) M, the set of letters of the word SCHOOL and N, the set of letters of the word SCHOLAR.
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280 Sets Mathematics - NSEJS
Subsets
A set A is said to be subset of a set B if every element of A is also an element of B. This is expressed by
the symbol A B read as A is a subset of B. B is called the superset of A and we write it as B A.
If there exist at least one element in A which is not a member of B, then A is not a subset of B. This situation
can be represented by A B .
For example,
1. Let A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, then A B because every element of A is also the element
of B.
2. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 5} and B = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, then A B , since 1 is the element of A, but not the element
of B.
Number of subsets 21 = 2.
3. The subset of {1, 2, 3} are , {1}, {2}, {3}, {1, 2}, {2, 3}, {1, 3}, {1, 2, 3}.
A set containing n elements has 2n subset.
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sets 281
Proper Subsets
The subset of a given set other than itself are called proper subsets of the given set and the symbol '' is
used to denote a proper subset.
For example, if A = {a, e, i, o}, then each of the set , {a}, {e}, {i}, {o}, {a, e}, {a, i}, {a, o}, {e, i}, {e, o},
{i, o}, {a, e, i}, {a, e, o}, {a, i, o}, {e, i, o} is a proper subset of A.
Example 8 : Consider the sets , A = {1, 2}, B = {1, 6, 7}, C = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}.
Insert the symbol or between each of the following pair of sets.
(i) __ B
(ii) A __ C
(iii) A __ B
(iv) B __
Power Set
The collection of all possible subsets of a set A is called the power set of A. It is denoted by P(A). In P(A)
every element is a set. Singleton set formed by elements of A are also elements of power set of A. If A
contains n elements, then the number of elements in P(A) is 2n.
If B = {0, 1}, then P(B) = {, {0}, {1}, {0, 1}}
If A is a set with n(A) = m, then n(P(A)) = 2m.
So, in the above given set B, n(B) = 2.
So, n(P(B)) = 22 = 4.
Universal Set
The universal set is the superset of all the sets under consideration and it is denoted by U. The choice of
universal set is not unique. It may vary from one case to another, e.g.,
For set A = {b, c, e, f, m}, universal set may be {x : x is a letter of English alphabet}
For A = {x : x N, 1 x < 12}, universal set may be {1, 2, 3, ……, 30} or N.
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282 Sets Mathematics - NSEJS
Complement of a Set
If A is a subset of a universal set U, then the set of all those elements of U which do not belongs to A is
called the complement of A and is denoted by A or A or Ac.
Thus, A = {x : x U, x A}
n (A) = n(U) – n(A)
For example,
1. Let U be the set of all pupils of a class and the set of all girls in that class, then A is the set of all boys
in that class.
2. Let U = {x : x N and x < 10} and A = {1, 3, 5, 7}, then A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 9}
Also, n(U) = 9, n(A) = 4, n(A) = 5.
3. If n(U) = 50, n(A) = 15, n(B) = 35, then n(A) = 50 – 15 = 35.
Example 9 : Which of the following may be considered as universal set(s) for all the three set A = {a, c},
B = {a, e, i, o, u}, C = {i, j, k, l}.
(i) {a, b, c, d, …… m}
(ii) {a, e, i, o, u, k, l}
(iii) {x : x is a letter of English alphabet}
Solution : (i) A {a, b, c, d, …… m}
B {a, b, c, d, …… m}
C {a, b, c, d, …… m}
So, the set {a, b, c, …… m} cannot be the universal set for the sets A, B, C.
(ii) A {a, e, i, o, u, k, l}
B {a, e, i, o, u, k, l}
C {a, e, i, o, u, k, l}
So, the set {a, e, i, o, u, k, l} cannot be the universal set for the sets A, B, C.
(iii) A {x : x is a letter of English alphabet}
B {x : x is a letter of English alphabet}
C {x : x is a letter of English alphabet}
So, the given set is universal set for the sets A, B, C.
OPERATIONS ON SETS
The operation of addition, subtraction, multiplication and division on numbers are well known to us. Each of
these operation, gives a new number as resultant. Similarly, there are same operations which when performed
on two sets give rise to another set. Some of the significant operations are :
Union of sets
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sets 283
Intersection of sets
Difference of sets
Union of Sets
The union of two sets A and B is the set which consists of all those elements which are either in A or in B.
The symbol ‘’ is used to denote the union.
Mathematically, A B = {x : x A or x B}
Example 10 : Let A = {2, 4, 8, 16, 32} and B = {4, 16}. Show that A B = A
Solution: A = {2, 4, 8, 16, 32}
B = {4, 16}
Clearly, B A
A B = {2, 4, 8, 16, 32} = A [∵ B A, then A B = A]
So, A B = A
Example 11 : Let X = the sets of all letters in the word “DELHI” and Y = the sets of all letters in the word “INDIA”.
Find X Y.
Solution : X = {D, E, L, H, I}, Y = {I, N, D, I, A}
X Y = {D, E, L, H, I, N, A}
Intersection of Sets
The intersection of two sets A and B is the set of all those elements which belong to both A and B.
Mathematically, we write
A B = {x : x A and x B}
In other words, the intersection of sets A and B is the set of all elements which are common to both
A and B.
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284 Sets Mathematics - NSEJS
(ii) (A B) C = A (B C) [Associative law]
(iii) A = , U A = A [Law of and U]
(iv) A A = A [Idempotent law]
(v) If A B, then A B = A
(vi) For any sets A and B, we have A B A and A B B
(vii) If A U, then A A
Example 12 : Let A be the sets of all letters in the word MATHEMATICS and B be the sets of all letters in
the word STATISTICS. Find A B.
Solution : A = {M, A, T, H, E, I, C, S}
B = {S, T, A, I, C}
A B = {T, A, I, C, S}
A – B = {8}
(iv) A – B = {7, 9, 11, 13}
B – A = { } or
(v) Here, A = {C, O, M , P, L, E, N, T}, B = {C, O, M, P, L, A, I, N}
A – B = {E, T}
and B – A = {A, I}
Example 15 : If universal set U = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}, A = {2, 3, 7}, B = {4, 6} and C = {0, 2, 4, 6}. Find
the following :
(i) A
(ii) B C
(iii) A C
(iv) A A
Solution : (i) A = {2, 3, 7}
=
(ii) BC= {0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 7} {1, 3, 5, 7}
= {1, 3, 5, 7}
(iii) A C = {0, 1, 4, 5, 6} {0, 2, 4, 6}
= {0, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6}
(iv) A A = {2, 3, 7} {0, 1, 4, 5, 6}
=
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Choose the correct option :
1. Which of the following collection is not a set? 5. If X = {x : x is a letter in the word “SET THEORY”}
then in roster form, it can be written as
(1) The collection of all prime numbers between 10
and 30 (1) {S, E, T, H, O, R}
(2) The collection of all the mountains in India (2) {S, E, T, H, E, O, R, Y, X}
(3) The collection of all good people in world (3) {S, E, T, H, O, R, Y}
(4) The collection of all natural numbers (4) {S, E, T, Y, M, O, P}
2. Which of the following is a set?
⎧ 2n 1 ⎫
(1) The collection of all beautiful girls in India 6. If B ⎨ x : x , n W and n 4 ⎬ , then B
⎩ n 2 ⎭
(2) The collection of all intelligent students in
can be written as
class XI
(3) The collection of all metropolitan cities in India ⎧ 1 2 1⎫ ⎧ 1 1 3 ⎫
(1) ⎨6, , , ⎬ (2) ⎨ , , , 1⎬
⎩ 3 4 2⎭ ⎩2 3 4 ⎭
(4) The collection of all good books in
mathematics
⎧ 1 3 6 ⎫ ⎧ 1 1 1 ⎫
(3) ⎨3, , , ⎬ (4) ⎨ , , ,1⎬
3. Which of the following is true? ⎩ 2 4 5⎭ ⎩5 3 2 ⎭
(1) A = {1, 7, 6} and B = {7, 2, 1}, then 7. The set of the counting numbers which are
1, 2, 7 A multiples of 6 and less than 50 is written in set
(2) A = {a, b, c} and B = {b, c, d}, then builder form as
a, b, c B
(1) {x : x N and x is a multiple of 6}
(3) A = {a, e, i, o, u} and B = {a, b, c, d, …,
x, y, z}, then a, e, i, o, u B (2) {x : x = 6 and 0 < x < 50}
(4) A = {1, 2, 1, 2} and B = {a, b, c}, then (3) {x : x is a multiple of 6 and 0 < x < 50, x N}
1, 2 B (4) {x : x is not a multiple of 6 and x 50}
4. If set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and set B = {1, 7, 6, 8},
8. If A is the set of days in a week, then set A is
then which of the following is not true?
(1) Empty set
(1) 2 B
(2) 1 A (2) Singleton set
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9. Which of the following is a null set? 16. If A B, B C then
⎧ 1 9⎫ (1) A C necessarily
(1) ⎨ x : x Z and x ⎬
⎩ 2 2⎭ (2) A C necessarily
(2) {x : x N and x – 4 15}
(3) A may not be sub-set of C
(3) {x : x N, x < 5 and x > 8} (4) A = B
(4) {x : x N and x2 < 40} 17. If P(A) = P(B), then
10. Let A = {x : x is a positive multiple of 2 less than (1) A B (2) A B
20, x N}, then n(A) is
(3) A = B (4) All are true
(1) 7 (2) 8
18. The interval of the set {x : x R and –3 < x 15} is
(3) 6 (4) 9
(1) (–3, 15) (2) (3, 15)
11. If P = {x : x is a prime number less than 20} and
(3) (–3, 15] (4) [–3, 15]
M = {x : x is multiple of 6, 0 < x < 30}, then
n(P) – n(M) is 19. The interval (2, 7) can be represented by the
15. If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {4, 5, 6}, C = {1, 2, 3, 9, 6}, (1) A = {1, 2, 3, 5}, B = {4, 3, 1, 6}
then which of the following is not true? (2) A = {1, 7, 8, 12}, B = {5, 2, 9, 6, 11}
(1) A B (2) A C (3) A = {a, e, b, f}, B = {f, o, w, l}
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288 Sets Mathematics - NSEJS
23. Let A be the sets of the letters in the word 25. For all the sets A and B, A – (A B) is equal to
“RAIGARH” and B be the sets of the letters in the (1) A – (A B)
word “PRATAPGARH”, then n(A B) represents
(2) B – (A B)
(1) 7 (3) A – B
(2) 6 (4) B – A
(3) 4 26. Let A = {x : x is a prime number less than 10} and
B = {x : x N and 0 < x – 2 4}, then A – B is
(4) 3
(1) {2, 3, 5} (2) {3, 4}
24. If D = {x : x is divisible by 2 and 3 and 0 < x < 20}
and B = {x : x is a multiple of 6 and 0 < x < 25}, (3) {3, 4, 5} (4) {2, 7}
then D – B is 27. If M = {x : x 7 and x N} for universal set of
natural numbers, then M is
(1)
(1) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
(2) {2, 3}
(2) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
(3) {6, 12}
(3) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
(4) {6, 12, 18}
(4) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
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Number Theory CHAPTER 2
TESTS OF DIVISIBILITY
THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Divisibility by 2
Tests of Divisibility
If the units digit of a number is 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8, then the Sophie-Germain Identity
number is divisible by 2.
Remainder Theorem
For example, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, ......
Cyclicity
Divisibility by 3 and 9
Assignment
If the sum of digits of a number is divisible by 3, then the
number is divisible by 3.
For example, 6, 15, 81, 144, 282, ...... etc.
Also, if the sum of the digits of a number is divisible by 9, then the number itself is divisible by 9.
For example, 27, 729, 72333 etc.
Divisibility by 4
A number is divisible by 4 if the number formed by its last two digits (i.e., units and tens) is divisible by 4.
For example, 24, 84, 124, 1284, 156284 etc.
Divisibility by 5
If the unit’s digit of a number is 0 or 5, then the number is divisible by 5.
For example, 10, 15, 100, 125, 1025 etc.
Divisibility by 6
A number is divisible by 6, if it is divisible by 2 as well as 3.
For example, 72, 462, 1578 etc.
Divisibility by 8
A number is divisible by 8, if the last three digits is divisible by 8.
For example, 16, 144, 2136 etc.
Divisibility by 10
A number is divisible by 10 when its units digit is 0.
For example, 20, 70, 110, 250, 2700 etc.
Divisibility by 11
If the difference between the sum of the digits at odd places (from the right) and the sum of the digits at even
places (from the right) of the number is either zero or divisible by 11, then the number is divisible by 11.
For example, 121, 1001, 1331 etc.
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SOPHIE-GERMAIN IDENTITY
a4 + 4b4 = (a2 – 2ab + 2b2)(a2 + 2ab + 2b2)
= [(a – b)2 + b2][(a + b)2 + b2]
This identify is specially useful in solving olympiad problems.
= –5050
(1) 3 (2) 7
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a3 b3 c3 100
Example 4 : If 2 2
2 2
2 2
, then
a ab b b bc c c ca a 11
b3 c3 a3
equals.
a ab b
2 2
b bc c
2 2
c ca a2
2
11 100
(1) (2)
100 11
50 11
(3) (4)
11 50
a3 b3 c3
a 2 ab b 2 b 2 bc c 2 c 2 ca a 2
(a 3 b 3 ) b 3 ( b 3 c 3 ) c 3 (c 3 a 3 ) a 3
2 2
a 2 ab b2 b bc c 2 c ca a2
⎡⎛ a 3 b 3 ⎞ ⎛ b3 ⎞ ⎤ ⎡⎛ b 3 c 3 ⎞ ⎛ c3 ⎞⎤
⎢⎜ 2 ⎥ ⎢
⎟ ⎜ ⎟
⎜ a ab b 2 ⎟ ⎜ a2 ab b 2 ⎟ ⎜ b 2 bc c 2 ⎟ ⎜ b 2 bc c 2 ⎟⎟ ⎥
⎜ ⎟ ⎜
⎢⎣⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎥⎦
⎡⎛ c 3 a 3 ⎞ ⎛ a3 ⎞⎤
⎢⎜ 2
⎜ c ca a 2 ⎟⎟ ⎜⎜ c 2 ca a 2 ⎟⎟ ⎥
⎣⎢⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎦⎥
⎡ ⎛ b3 ⎞⎤ ⎡ ⎛ c3 ⎞⎤ ⎡ ⎛ a3 ⎞⎤
⎢(a b ) ⎜ 2 ⎥ ⎢( b c ) ⎥ ⎢( c a )
⎟
⎜ a ab b 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
⎜ b 2 bc c 2 ⎟ ⎜ c 2 ca a 2 ⎟⎟ ⎥
⎜
⎢⎣ ⎝ ⎠ ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ ⎝ ⎠ ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ ⎝ ⎠ ⎥⎦
b3 c3 a3
2 2
2 2
a ab b b bc c c ca a 2
2
b3 c3 a3 100
Hence 2 2
2 2
2 2
a ab b b bc c c ca a 11
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x 2 7 7, y 2 7 7
2 2 2 2
Solution : Using the identity a4 + 4b4 = ⎡⎣(a b ) b ⎤⎦ ⎡⎣(a b ) b ⎤⎦ ,
2 2 2 2
= ⎡⎣(2014 2013) 2013 ⎤⎦ ⎡⎣(2014 2013) 2013 ⎤⎦
= 1 2013
2
4027 2
20132
20144 4 20134
= 1 + 20132
20132 40272
20124 4 2013 4
Similarly, = 1 + 20132
20132 40252
2
2
= 1 2013 – 1 2013 = 0
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(1) ab + bc + ca (2) a2 + b 2 + c 2
2016 3 13 2017 3
Example 9 : The value of is
2016 2017
(1) 3 (2) 1
(3) –3 (4) –1
20163 + 13 + (–2017)3
20163 13 20173
3
2016 2017
REMAINDER THEOREM
Let p(x) be a polynomial of degree n. If p(x) is divided by (x – ), then the remainder obtained is given by p().
The following results can be easily concluded from the remainder theorem.
(a) If a and b are any real numbers and n is a positive integer, then (an – bn) is always divisible by (a – b)
Example 10 : The number of positive integers n(n 2016) such that 1007n + 1009n is divisible by 2016 is
(1) 1008 (2) 64
(3) 63 (4) 42
1007n + 1009n is divisible by 1007 + 1009 (= 2016) only if n is an odd positive integer.
CYCLICITY
If n is any position integer (n > 1) then using Euclid’s Division Lemma it can be easily shown that
n5 – n is a multiple of 10, i.e. the unit digit of n and n5 are same. This implies that for any positive integers n and
p np and np+4 have the same unit digit, i.e., the cyclicity is 4. So, 23 = 8 implies that 27 (= 128), 211 (= 2048),
215(= 32768) etc must all have 8 as the unit digit.
[ Note : To find the unit digit of np (where p and q are positive integers). If p is a multiple of 4, then find the
unit digit of n4]
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 7 (4) 19
Unit digit of 198719873 is same as that of 7p, where p is the remainder (p = 1, 2, 3, 4) when 19873
is divided by 4, i.e., 1. So, last digit is 71 = 7.
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 7
The unit digit of 20012001 is 1 and that of 20022002 is 22(=4). So, unit digit of N = 1 + 4 = 5
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Mathematics - NSEJS Number Theory 295
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 4
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Choose the correct option:
1. The number of natural numbers n such that n, 6. The greatest prime factor of 54 + 45 is
n + 2, n + 4 are all prime numbers is (n > 1)
(1) 3 (2) 17
(1) 0
(3) 37 (4) 97
(2) 1
7. Let N be a 99 digit number. All the digit except the
(3) 2 50th digit is 1. If N is divisible by 11, then the
unknown digit is
(4) Infinite
(1) 1 (2) 2
2. If the number of the form 54n – 2 + 36n – 3 (where n
is a positive integer) is divided by 13, the remainder (3) 3 (4) 4
is always
8. The last digit of 222 + 555 + 888 is
(1) 0 (2) 3
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 7 (4) 11
(3) 5 (4) 7
3. Which of the following can be expressed as the
sum of the square of integers? 9. If x 7 7 and y = 7 7, then the value of
x6 – y6 is
(1) 2000
(1) 728 1
(2)
10101
(2) 546
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25. If a, b, c are non-zero single digits numbers such 27. If a – b = 5 and b – c = 2, then the value of
(a2 + b2 + c2) – (ab + bc + ca) is
that N ab bc ca is a perfect square. Then the
sum of the digits of N is (1) 39 (2) 29
(3) 6 (4) 8 1
28. If x > 0 and x 4 47, then the value of
4 4 x4
2014 4 2013
26. Let N . The value of N 1 1
20132 40272 x3 is
is x3
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Co-ordinate Geometry CHAPTER 3
CARTESIAN COORDINATES
THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
(i) Analysis of Quadrants
Cartesian Coordinates
Y Slope of a Line
II I
(–, +) (+, +) Different Forms of Equation of a Line
X Assignment
O
III IV
(–, –) (+, –)
(y2 – y1)
X
O
A C
(x1, y1)
(x2 – x1)
AB AC 2 BC 2 ( x2 x1 )2 ( y 2 y1 )2
Y B (x2, y2)
P(x, y)
n
E
m
A D
(x1, y1) C
O X
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300 Co-ordinate Geometry Mathematics - NSEJS
Y P(x, y)
y 2)
(x 2,
B D
A
E C
(x1, y1)
O X
⎛ x x2 y1 y 2 ⎞
P⎜ 1 ,
⎝ 2 2 ⎟⎠
Example 1 : Find the coordinates of the points P and Q which divides AB internally and externally respectively
in the ratio 2 : 1, where A (3, 6), B (6, 12).
Solution : (i) AP : PB = 2 : 1
A P B Q
⎛ 2 6 1 3 2 12 1 6 ⎞
P⎜ , ⎟⎠ (5, 10)
⎝ 21 21
(ii) AQ : QB = 2 : 1
⎛ 2 6 1 3 2 12 1 6 ⎞
Q⎜ , ⎟⎠ (9, 18)
⎝ 2 1 2 1
1
A= ( x1( y 2 y 3 ) x2 ( y 3 y1 ) x3 ( y1 y 2 ))
2
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Mathematics - NSEJS Co-ordinate Geometry 301
(v) Condition for collinearity
1
[ x1( y 2 y 3 ) x2 ( y 3 y1 ) x3 ( y1 y 2 )] 0
2
(vi) Different centres of a triangle ABC having vertices A (x1, y1), B (x2, y2), C (x3, y3)
(a) Centroid (G) : Centroid of a triangle is the point of intersection of medians.
A
2
F
G (x, y)
1
B D C
⎛ x x 2 x3 y 1 y 2 y 3 ⎞
G⎜ 1 , ⎟⎠
⎝ 3 3
(b) Incentre (I) : Incentre is the point of intersection of bisectors of internal angles.
With usual notations BC = a, AC = b, AB = c.
A(x1, y1)
c b
I
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SLOPE OF A LINE
A line in a coordinate plane forms two angles with the x-axis, which are supplementary. The angle (let) made
by the line l with x-axis and measured anticlockwise is called the inclination of the line. If is the inclination
of a line l, then tan is called slope or gradient of the line l.
Let A(x2, y2) and B(x1, y1) are two points on line l whose inclination is .
ABC = (∵ BC || x-axis)
Slope of line l = m = tan
AC
tan
BC
y 2 y1 y Difference of ordinate
m
x2 x1 x Difference of abscissa
Condition for parallelism : If the lines l1 and l2 having slopes m1 and m2 respectively are parallel to
each other, then m1 = m2.
Condition for perpendicularity : If the lines l1 and l2 having slopes m1 and m2 respectively are
perpendicular to each other, then m1m2 = –1.
–A
Note : If the equation of a line is Ax + By + C = 0, then the slope of the line is given by m i.e.,
B
Coefficient of x
m .
Coefficient of y
Y
2. Two-point form : Let two points P1(x1, y1) and
L
P2(x2, y2) passes through line L and P(x, y) be
P2(x2, y2)
any arbitrary point on L.
Equation of the line L is given by : ) P(x, y)
,y1
(x 1
y – y1 P1
y – y1 2 ( x – x1 ) X X
x2 – x1 O
Y
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Mathematics - NSEJS Co-ordinate Geometry 303
3. Slope-intercept form : Y
L
Let a line L with slope m cuts the y-axis at a
distance c from the origin.
em
op (0, c)
The distance c is called the y-intercept of the line L. X Sl
X
O
Equation of the line L is given by :
Y
y = mx + c Y
4. Intercept form : Let a line L makes x-intercept a and L
y-intercept b on the axes.
(0, b)
Equation of the line L is given by :
b
x y (a, 0)
1 X X
a b O a
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1
Example 3 : Find the equation of a line passing through (3, – 4) with slope .
2
1
Solution : Here, m =
2
and the given point (x0, y0) is (3, – 4)
By slope point form formula,
y – y0 = m (x – x0)
1
y – (– 4) = (x – 3)
2
2y + 8 = x – 3
x – 2y – 11 = 0
Example 4 : Find the equation of the line which cuts off an intercept 4 on negative direction of x-axis and
an intercept of 2 on positive direction of y-axis.
Solution : Here, a = – 4, b = 2
x y
The equation of the line is =1
a b
x y
=1
4 2
x 2y
= 1
4
x – 2y + 4 = 0
Example 5 : Find the equation of the straight line which makes equal intercepts on the axes and passes
through the point (1, – 3).
Solution : Let the equation of the line be
x y
1
a b
Since, it makes equal intercepts on the coordinate axes, thus a = b.
So, the equation of line is
x y
=1
a a
x+y=a
Now, the line passes through (1, – 3).
Thus,
1–3=a
a=–2
Thus, the equation of the line is x + y + 2 = 0
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Choose the correct option:
1. The circumcentre of the triangle with vertices (0, 0), 5. If the distance between (2, 3) and (–5, 2) is equal
(3, 0) and (0, 4) is to the distance between (x, 2) and (1, 3), then the
values of x are
(1) (1, 1)
(1) –6, 8 (2) 6, 8
(2) (2, 3/2)
(3) –8, 6 (4) –8, –6
(3) (3/2, 2)
6. If C is the reflection of A(2, 4) in X-axis asnd B
(4) None of these is the reflection of C in Y-axis, then the distance
AB equals
2. The points with the co-ordinates (2a, 3a), (3b, 2b)
and (c, c) are collinear (1) 20 (2) 2 5
(1) For no value of a, b, c
(3) 4 5 (4) 4
(2) For all values of a, b, c
7. One possible condition for the points (a, b), (b, a)
c and (a2, b2) to be collinear is (a b)
(3) If a, , b are in A.P.
5
(1) a – b = 2 (2) a + b = 2
(4) If bc + ac = 5ab
(3) a = 1 + b (4) a = 1 – b
⎛ 8⎞
3. The points ⎜ 0, ⎟ , (1, 3) and (82, 30) are vertices of 8. The point (–8, 10) divides the line joining the points
⎝ 3⎠
(4, – 2) and (–2, 4) in the ratio
(1) An obtuse angled triangle
(1) 1 : 2 internally
(2) An acute angled triangle
(2) 1 : 2 externally
(3) A right angled triangle
(3) 2 : 1 internally
(4) An isosceles triangle
(4) 2 : 1 externally
4. The distance between the point P (a cos , a sin
) and Q (a cos , a sin ) is 9. If D(6, 1), E(3, 5) and F(–1, –2) are the mid-points
of the sides BC, CA and AB of triangle ABC, then
the co-ordinates of A is
(1) 4a sin (2) 2a sin
2 2
(1) (–4, 2) (2) (–4, 5)
(3) 2a sin (4) 2a cos (3) (2, 5) (4) (10, 8)
2 2
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10. The centre of the circle inscribed in the square with 16. The vertices of ABC are A(2, 2), B(–4, –4) and
vertices (2, 5), (6, 5), (6, 9), (2, 9) is C(5, –8). The length of the median of the triangle
that passes through the point C is
(1) (4, 7) (2) (7, 4)
(1) 65 units (2) 85 units
(3) (9, 4) (4) (4, 9)
⎛5 5⎞ (2) k = 3h + 4
(3) (0, 0) (4) ⎜ , ⎟
⎝2 2⎠ (3) k = h – 4
12. The orthocentre of the triangel with vertices (5, 0), (4) h = k – 4
(0, 12) and (5, 12) is
18. The shortest distance from the origin to the circum
⎛5 ⎞ frence of a circle with unit radius and centre (3, 4) is
(1) ⎜ , 6 ⎟ (2) (5, 0)
⎝2 ⎠
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) (0, 12) (4) (5, 12)
(3) 5 (4) 6
13. The incentre of the triangle with vertices (0,0),
(4, 0) and (0, 3) is ⎛a b⎞
19. If the point A ⎜ , ⎟ lies in the third quadrant,
⎝b c⎠
⎛ 3⎞ ⎛a c ⎞
(1) (1, 1) (2) ⎜ 1, ⎟ then the quadrant in which the point B ⎜ , ⎟ lies
⎝ 2⎠ ⎝c a⎠
is (Assume that a, b, c 0)
⎛ 3⎞ ⎛4 ⎞
(3) ⎜ 2, ⎟ (4) ⎜ , 1⎟ (1) I (2) II
⎝ 2⎠ ⎝3 ⎠
14. The points (a, b), (p, q) and (a – p, b – q) are (3) III (4) IV
collinear if 20. The points (5, 2), (11, 6) and (x, 8) lie on a straight
(1) aq = pb line. The value of x is
(4) a2 + b2 = p2 + q2 = 1 21. The vertices of a triangle are the points (0,0), (3,
3) and (6, 0). The radius of the circumcircle is
15. A triangle with vertices (4, 0), (–1, –1), (3, 5) is
(1) 3 units
(1) Right-angled isosceles triangle
(2) 6 units
(2) Isosceles but not right-angled
(3) 3 2 units
(3) Right-angled but not isosceles
3
(4) Nither right-angled nor isosceles (4) units
2
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Mathematics - NSEJS Co-ordinate Geometry 307
22. The circumcentre of the triangle with vertices 28. If the points A(a , ab) and B(ab, b ) (a b, and
2 2
A(5, 7) and B(7, 5) and C(8, 8) is a, b 0) lies in different quadrants, then point
C(ab, ab) lies in the
⎛ 27 27 ⎞
(1) (6, 6) (2) ⎜ , ⎟ (1) Ist quadrant
⎝ 4 4 ⎠
(2) IInd quadrant
⎛ 13 13 ⎞ ⎛ 20 20 ⎞
(3) ⎜ , ⎟ (4) ⎜ , ⎟
⎝ 2 2 ⎠ ⎝ 3 3 ⎠ (3) IIIrd quadrant
23. If 0°< < 180°, then the area of the triangle formed (4) IVth quadrant
by the vertices (–1, 0), (1, 0) and cos, sin) is A
(say). The maximum value of A is 29. The area of ABC with vertices A(a, p), B(b, q) and
C(c, r) is 12 sq. units. The area of PQR with
1 1 vertices P(a + h, p + k), Q(b + h, q + k) and
(1) (2)
2 2 2 C(c + h, r + k) is
⎛ 1 ⎞
1 (1) ⎜ 12 hk ⎟ sq. units
(3) (4) 1 ⎝ 2 ⎠
2
(2) (12 + hk) sq. units
24. If the three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD are
A(1, 2), B(2, 5) and C(5, 7), then the coordinates (3) 12 sq. units
of the fourth vertex D is (4) 24 sq. units
(1) (4, 5) (2) (5, 3) 30. Let 0°< < 90° and 45°. The area of the
(3) (3, 2) (4) (4, 4) triangle with vertices A(0, 0), B(sin2 , cos2 ) and
C(cos2 ,sin2 ) is
25. Coordinates of A and B are (–5, 3) and (–5, m)
respectively. If AB is 8 units, then the possible (1) Greater than 2 sq. units
values of m are
1
(2) Greater than sq. units but less than 1 sq.
(1) –5 or 5 (2) –5 or 11 2
units
(3) –5 or –11 (4) 5 or 11
1
(3) Less than sq. units
26. If the mid-points of the sides of a triangle are 2
⎛7 ⎞ ⎛9 ⎞
⎜ 2 , 2 ⎟ , ⎜ 2 , 3 ⎟ and (3, 4), then the area of the (4) Greater than 1 sq. units but less than 2 sq.
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ units
triangle is
31. The equation of the line with slope 2 and passing
(1) 5 sq. units (2) 10 sq. units
through the origin is
(3) 2 sq. units (4) 7 sq. units
(1) y = 2x (2) y = –2x
27. The number of real numbers p such that (p, 1),
(3) 2y = x (4) 2y = –x
(1, p) and (p – 1, p – 1) are three distinct collinear
points is 32. Intercept of line 5x + 12y – 60 = 0 on x-axis is
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308 Co-ordinate Geometry Mathematics - NSEJS
33. Equation of the line having x and y intercepts as 3 35. Equation of the line perpendicular to the line
and 8 respectively is 3x – y + 9 = 0 and passing through the origin is
(3) 3x – y = 0
34. The value of k for which the lines kx + y = 6 and
2x – 5y = 1 are perpendicular to each other is (4) x – 3y = 0
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Sequence and Series CHAPTER 4
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
A sequence is a function whose domain is the set of natural Introduction
numbers N or some subset of it. The numbers occurring in a
Sequences
sequence are called its terms. Sequences which follow specific
Series
patterns are called progressions.
Arithmetic Progression (A.P.)
In this chapter, we will discuss Arithmetic progression,
Arithmetic mean (A.M.), Geometric progression, Geometric Geometric Progression (G.P.)
mean (G.M.), relationship between A.M. and G.M. and sum to A.M. and G.M. Inequality and Its Application
‘n’ terms of some special series. Sum of n Terms of Special Series
Assignment
SEQUENCES
The n th term, or an is called the general term of the sequence.
Consider a sequence 2, 4, 6, 8, …
Here each term of the sequence can be obtained by adding 2 to the preceding term. The nth term of this sequence
can be written as an = 2n, where n is a natural number.
Example 1 : Write the first three terms of the sequence defined by an = n(n + 1).
a1 = 1(1 + 1) = 2
a2 = 2(2 + 1) = 6
a3 = 3(3 + 1) = 12
The first three terms of the given sequence are 2, 6 and 12.
SERIES
Let a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , a 4 , …, a n – 1 , a n be a given sequence, then the expression of the form
a1 + a2 + a3 + …+ an is called the series of the given sequence. The series a1 + a2 + …+ an is represented
n
as ∑a
i 1
i .
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310 Sequence and Series Mathematics - NSEJS
Example 2 : Find the first three terms of the following sequences and write down the corresponding series :
(i) an = 5n + 2
(ii) a1 = 1, an = an – 1 + 5 for n 2
Putting n = 1, 2, 3, we get,
a1 = 5 × 1 + 2 = 7
a2 = 5 × 2 + 2 = 12
a3 = 5 × 3 + 2 = 17
Hence, the first three term of the sequence are 7, 12 and 17.
(ii) a1 = 1, an = an – 1 + 5 for n 2
Putting n = 2, 3, we get
a2 = a1 + 5 = 1 + 5 = 6
a3 = a2 + 5 = 6 + 5 = 11
Hence, the first three terms of the sequence are 1, 6 and 11.
For example :
(i) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, …
Here 2nd term – 1st term = 3rd term – 2nd term = 4th term – 3rd term = … = 2
Hence 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11,… are in A.P. whose first term is 1 and common difference is 2.
(ii) 7, 5, 3, 1, –1, –3, –5, –7,… are in A.P. whose first term is 7 and common difference is –2.
A sequence whose n th term an is a linear in n will be an A.P. iff the common difference is independent of
n. If common difference is not independent of n, it varies with n and hence not a constant.
Example 3 : How many terms are there in the A.P. 20, 22, 24, 26,…100?
Solution : Let the number of terms be n.
Given, an = 100, a = 20, d = 2
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sequence and Series 311
we have to find n.
Since an = a + (n – 1)d
100 = 20 + (n – 1) × 2
80 = (n – 1) × 2
n – 1 = 40
n = 41
Hence, required number of terms = 41.
Note : If three numbers in A.P., whose sum is given, are to be taken, let the numbers be a – d, a, a + d.
If four numbers in A.P., whose sum is given, are to be taken, let the numbers be
a – 3d, a – d, a + d, a + 3d.
If five numbers in A.P., whose sum is given, are to be taken, let the numbers be
a – 2d, a – d, a, a + d, a + 2d.
Example 4 : The sum of three numbers in A.P. is 27 and the sum of their squares is 293. Find the numbers.
Solution : Let the three numbers in A.P. be a – d, a, a + d.
Given, a – d + a + a + d = 27
3a = 27
a=9
Also, (a – d)2 + a2 + (a + d)2 = 293
a2 + d 2 – 2ad + a2 + a2 + d2 + 2ad = 293
3a2 + 2d 2 = 293
3(9)2 + 2d 2 = 293
2d 2 = 293 – 243
50
2d 2 = = 25
2
d = ±5
If d = – 5, the three numbers are 14, 9, 4
If d = 5, the three numbers are 4, 9, 14
Properties of an A.P.
(1) If a constant is added to each term of an A.P., the resulting sequence is also an A.P.
In other words, if a1, a2, a3, … an are in A.P., then a1 + k, a2 + k, a3 + k, … an + k are also in A.P.
(2) If a constant is subtracted from each term of an A.P., the resulting sequence is also an A.P.
(3) If each term of an A.P. is multiplied by a constant, then the resulting sequence is also an A.P.
(4) If each term of an A.P. is divided by a non-zero constant, then the resulting sequence is also an A.P.
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312 Sequence and Series Mathematics - NSEJS
1 1 1
Example 5 : If a2, b2, c2 are in A.P., prove that b c , c a , a b are in A.P. ((a + b)(b + c)(c + a) 0).
1 1 1
Solution : , , are in A.P.
bc c a ab
1 1 1 1
=
c a bc a b c a
b c c a c a a b
=
c a b c a b c a
b a c b
=
bc ab
(b + a)(b – a) = (c – b)(c + b)
b2 – a 2 = c2 – b 2
a 2, b 2, c 2 are in A.P.
1 1 1
Hence, if a 2, b 2, c 2 are in A.P., then , , are in A.P.
bc c a ab
Example 6 : If a, b, c be the p th, q th and r th term of an A.P. respectively, then show that
a(q – r) + b(r – p) + c(p – q) = 0
Solution : Let the A.P. have x and d as the first term and common difference.
tp = x + (p – 1)d = a
tq = x + (q – 1)d = b
tr = x + (r – 1)d = c
a(q – r) + b(r – p) + c(p – q)
= a(q – r)
= (x + p 1 d) (q – r)
= x (q r r p p q ) [ p(q r ) q(r p ) r ( p q )] d [q r r p p q ]
=x×0+0–d×0=0
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sequence and Series 313
Note : We shall use the following notation throughout the chapter :
a = the first term
l = the last term
d = common difference
n = the number of terms
Sn = the sum of n terms of A.P.
Example 7 : How many terms of the series 54 + 51 + 48 + … must be taken to make 513? Explain the
double answer?
Solution : Let the sum to n terms of the given series be 513.
Here, a = 54, d = – 3, Sn = 513
n
∵ Sn = ⎡2a n 1 d ⎤⎦
2⎣
n
513 = ⎡2 54 n 1 3 ⎤⎦
2⎣
n
513 = 108 3 3n
2
1026 = n[111 – 3n]
3n 2 – 111n + 1026 = 0
n 2 – 37n + 342 = 0
(n – 18)(n – 19) = 0
n = 18, 19
Explanation of double answer :
18th term = a18 = 54 + (18 – 1)(– 3) = 3
19th term = a19 = 54 + (19 – 1)(– 3) = 0
Since 19th term is zero, the sum of 18 terms and the sum of 19 terms are equal.
Example 8 : If there are (2n + 1) terms in an A.P., then prove that the ratio of the sum of odd terms and
the sum of even terms is (n + 1) : n.
Solution : Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the A.P.
then the A.P. will be
a, a + d, a + 2d, …, a + 2nd
Sum of its odd terms = a + (a + 2d ) + (a + 4d ) +…to (n + 1) terms
n 1
= ⎡2a n 1 1 2d ⎤⎦
2 ⎣
= (n + 1)(a + nd ) …(i)
Sum of even terms = (a + d ) + (a + 3d ) + … to n terms
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314 Sequence and Series Mathematics - NSEJS
n
= ⎡2 a d (n 1)2d ⎤⎦
2⎣
= n(a + nd) …(ii)
from (i) and (ii), we get
Sum of odd terms n 1 a nd n 1
Sum of even terms = n a nd =
n
(Hence proved.)
Example 9 : Along a road lie an odd number of stones and distance between consecutive stones is 10 m.
A person can carry only one stone at a time and his job is to assembled all the stones around
the middle stone. If he starts his job from one of the end stone and in carrying all the stones,
he covers a distance of 3 km. Find the number of stones.
Solution : Let the number of stones be (2n + 1).
Distance covered by the man,
3.10.n + 4.10.(n – 1) + 4.10.(n – 2) + ... + 4.10.1 = 3000
40n(n 1)
30n 3000
2
3n + 2n2 – 2n = 300
2n2 + n – 300 = 0
25
n= ,12
2
Hence, number of stones be 2 × 12 + 1 = 25.
Arithmetic Mean
Let a and b be two given numbers. We can find a number A such that a, A, b are in A.P. Such a number
A is called the arithmetic mean (A.M.) of the numbers a and b.
1
A.M. of a and b = a b
2
an 1
A sequence a1, a2, a3, … an is called geometric progression, if each term is non-zero and = r (a
an
constant), for n 1
For example :
6 12 24
(i) 3, 6, 12, 24, 48, … is a G.P., because …= 2, which is a constant.
3 6 12
1 1 1 1
1, , , , … is a G.P., with first term 1 and common ratio .
4 16 64 4
Example 10 : Find the n th term of the G.P. 5, 25, 125, … . Also find its 10th term.
25
Solution : Here, first term = a = 5, common ratio = r = =5
5
nth term of a G.P. is given by an = ar n – 1
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sequence and Series 315
an = (5) × (5)n – 1 = 51 + n – 1 = 5n
an = 5n
Now 10th term of G.P. = a10 = 510
Example 11 : If the product of three numbers in G.P. be 216 and their sum is 19. Find the numbers.
a
Solution : Let the three numbers be , a, ar
r
a
Given, × a × ar = 216
r
a = 216
3
a=6
a
Also, + a + ar = 19
r
6
+ 6 + 6r = 19
r
6
+ 6r = 13
r
6r2 – 13r + 6 = 0
6r2 – 9r – 4r + 6 = 0
3r(2r – 3) – 2(2r – 3) = 0
(3r – 2)(2r – 3) = 0
2 3
r= ,
3 2
2 a
Taking r = , = 9, a = 6 and ar = 4
3 r
3 a
Taking r = , = 4, a = 6 and ar = 9
2 r
Hence, the numbers are 4, 6, 9.
The sum to infinity of a G.P. whose first term is a and common difference is r such that |r| < 1.
a
S =
1 r
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316 Sequence and Series Mathematics - NSEJS
1 1 1
Example 13 : Show that x 2 · x 4 · x 8 · upto = x
1 1 1
Solution : x 2 · x 4 · x 8 · up to
1 1 1
= x2 4 8, up to
1 1 1
= x S, where S = upto
2 4 8
1 1
Here, S is the sum of an infinite G.P. with a = and r =
2 2
1
a 2
S= = =1
1 r 1
1
2
Hence, required product = x S = x 1 = x.
Example 14 : After striking the floor a certain ball rebounds to two-thirds of the height from which it has fallen.
Find the total distance it travels before coming to rest if it is dropped from a height of 456 metres.
Solution : Let the height from which the ball is dropped be h. And let it rebound to the height eh.
Total distance covered before ball comes to rest
= h + (eh + eh) + (e2h + e2h) + .... to infinity
= h + 2eh + 2e2h + ... to
= h + 2eh(1 + e + e2 + ... to )
1
= h 2eh. (∵ e 1)
1 e
⎛ 2e ⎞ ⎛ 1 e ⎞
= h⎜ 1 ⎟ = ⎜ ⎟h
⎝ 1 e ⎠ ⎝ 1 e ⎠
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sequence and Series 317
= a 2[r 2 + r 4 – 2r 3 + r 4 + 1 – 2r 2 + r 6 + r 2 – 2r 4 ]
= a 2[r 6 – 2r 3 + 1]
= a 2(r 3 – 1)2
= [a(r 3 – 1)] 2
= (ar 3 – a)2
= (d – a)2
= (a – d )2
The series derives its name from the fact that each term of the series is a product of corresponding terms
of an A.P. and a G.P. Denote the sum to n terms by Sn. Then
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318 Sequence and Series Mathematics - NSEJS
A.M. AND G.M. INEQUALITY AND ITS APPLICATION
Let a, b be positive real numbers,
Then ( a b )2 0
a 2 ab b 0
ab
ab ... (i)
2
i.e., AM GM ... (ii)
Equality holds if and only if a and b are equal. The AM–GM inequality for two variables can be generalized
to n variables.
If ai’s are all positive reals, i = 1, 2, 3,... n, then
a1 a2 ... an n
a1a2 ...an
n
Example 16 : The arithmetic mean between two positive numbers a and b, where a > b, is twice their
geometric mean. Prove that a : b = (2 3 ) : (2 3 ) .
Solution : Let A be the A.M. and G be the G.M. between a and b.
ab
then A = and G = ab
2
Given, A = 2G
ab
= 2 ab
2
ab 2
=
2 ab 1
a b 2 ab 3
= [By componendo and dividendo]
a b 2 ab 1
2
a b
3
b
2 =
a 1
a b 3
=
a b 1
2 a 3 1
= [By componendo and dividendo]
2 b 3 1
2
a ⎛ 3 1⎞ 42 3
= ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ =
b ⎝ 3 1 ⎠ 42 3
a 2 3
= Hence proved.
b 2 3
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sequence and Series 319
2 2
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ 25
Example 17 : If a + b = 1, and a, b > 0, then prove that ⎜ a ⎟ ⎜ b ⎟
⎝ a ⎠ ⎝ b ⎠ 2
Solution : Observe that (x – y)2 0
x 2 y 2 2 xy 0
x 2 y 2 2xy
2( x 2 y 2 ) ( x y )2
x 2 y 2 ( x y )2
2 4
2
x2 y 2 ⎛ x y ⎞
⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
That is, mean of squares is greater than or equal to square of mean.
Now applying this to the given sum
2 2 2 2
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 1⎞ ⎛ 1 1⎞
⎜a ⎟ ⎜b ⎟ ⎜ a b ⎟ ⎜ab ⎟
⎝ a⎠ ⎝ b⎠ a b⎟ ⎜ a b⎟
⎜
2 ⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎜ 2 ⎟ …(i)
⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
a + b = 1 when plugged in
⎛ 1 1⎞ 1 1
(a b )⎜ ⎟ 4 gives 4
⎝a b⎠ a b
From (i),
2 2
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
⎜a ⎟ ⎜b ⎟ 2 ⎛ 1⎞
2
⎛ 1⎞
2
25
⎝ a ⎠ ⎝ b ⎠ ⎛ 1 4 ⎞ i.e., ⎜ a ⎟ ⎜ b ⎟
⎜ ⎟ a⎠ b⎠ 2
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝
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320 Sequence and Series Mathematics - NSEJS
n n 1 2n 1
Sn =
6
∑ k 2 = 6
n
n n 1 2n 1
Sum of squares of the first n natural numbers =
k 1
To find the sum of the cubes of the first n natural numbers
Let Sn be the sum of cubes of the first n natural numbers
n
then Sn = ∑ k3 = 13 + 23 + 33 + …+ n 3
k 1
2 2
⎡ n n 1 ⎤
n ⎡ n ⎤
Sum of cubes of the first n natural numbers = ∑ k ⎢ ⎥
3
⎢∑ k⎥
k 1 ⎣ 2 ⎦ ⎣⎢ k 1 ⎦⎥
= ∑ 9r 2 12r 4
r 1
n n
= 9 ∑ r 2 12 ∑ r 4n
r 1 r 1
⎡ 3 2n 2 3n 1 12(n 1) 8 ⎤
= n⎢ ⎥
⎢ 2 ⎥
⎣ ⎦
⎛ 6n 2 9n 3 12n 12 8 ⎞
= n ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
=
n 6n 2 3n 1
2
1 1 1
Example 19 : Find sum of the series to n terms ...
1 3 3 5 5 7
1 1 1
Solution : Sn = ...
1 3 3 5 5 7
1
Tn =
(2n 1)(2n 1)
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sequence and Series 321
1⎛ 1 1 ⎞
2 ⎜⎝ 2n 1 2n 1 ⎟⎠
=
1⎛1 1⎞
2 ⎜⎝ 1 3 ⎟⎠
T1 =
1⎛ 1 1⎞
2 ⎜⎝ 3 5 ⎟⎠
T2 =
1⎛ 1 1⎞
T3 =
2 ⎜⎝ 5 7 ⎟⎠
1⎛ 1 1 ⎞
2 ⎜⎝ 2n 1 2n 1 ⎟⎠
Tn =
1⎛ 1 ⎞ n
Sn 1
2 ⎜⎝ 2n 1 ⎟⎠ 2n 1
n
Then sum, ∑t
k 1
k , telescopes to
t1 + t2 + ... + tn
= F(n + 1) – F(1)
Note that the terms cancel in pairs and we are left with just two terms.
1 1 1 1
Example 20 : Sum to n terms the series ...
1.2.3. 2.3.4 3.4.5 n(n 1)(n 2 )
1 1⎧ 1 1 ⎫
tn ⎨ ⎬
n(n 1)(n 2) 2 ⎩ n(n 1) ( n 1)(n 2) ⎭
1⎧ 1 1 ⎫
⎨ ⎬
2 ⎩1.2 (n 1)(n 2) ⎭
1 1
4 2(n 1)(n 2)
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322 Sequence and Series Mathematics - NSEJS
7n 1
Example 21 : The sum of n terms of two arithmetic series are in the ratio of .
4n 27
Find the ratio of their 11th terms expressing the answer in simplest form.
Solution : Let a, d and a1, d1 be the first term and common difference of two given A.Ps. then
n
[2a (n 1)d ]
Sn 7n 1
2
Sn n 4n 27
[2a1 (n 1)d1 ]
2
2a (n 1)d 7n 1
2a1 (n 1)d1 4n 27
tn a (n 1)d 2a (n 1).2d
Now
t n a1 (n 1)d1 2a1 (n 1).2d1
14n 6
8n 23
t11 154 6 148 4 37 4
t11 88 23 111 3 37 3
1 1 1
Example 22 : If a, b, c be in A.P.; b, c, d in G.P. and , , are in A.P., then prove that a, c, e will be in
c d e
GP.
Solution : a, b, c are in A.P.
ac
b
2
b, c, d are in G.P. c2 = bd
1 1 1 2ce
, , are in A.P. ⇒ d
c d e c e
Plugging 1st and 3rd in second relation
a c 2ce
c 2 bd .
2 c e
(a c )ce
c2
c e
(a c )e
c
c e
c2 + ce = ae + ce
c2 = ae
Thus a, c, e are in G.P.
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sequence and Series 323
Example 23 : If a, b, c, d are four positive real numbers such that abcd = 1. Then show that
(1 + a)(1 + b)(1 + c)(1 + d) 16
Solution : From AM–GM inequality
1 a
a
2
1 b
b
2
1 c
c
2
1 d
d
2
Multiplying all of them
(1 a )(1 b )(1 c )(1 d )
abcd
16
(1 + a)(1 + b)(1 + c)(1 + d) 16
Thus P 16
Equality being attained when a = b = c = d = 1.
Example 24 : Let a, b, c be real numbers satisfying 0 < a, b, c < 1 and a + b + c = 2. Show that
a b c
. . 8
1a 1b 1c
Solution : Let 1 – a = x, 1 – b = y and 1 – c = z,
As 0 < a, b, c < 1; x, y, z are all positive
Then x + y = (1 – a) + (1 – b) = 2 – (a + b) = (a + b + c) – (a + b) = c
Similarly y + z = a
z+x=b
Applying AM–GM between x and y
xy
xy
2
y z
Also yz
2
zx
zx
2
Multiplying them all
( x y )( y z )( z x )
xyz
8
Reverting to a, b, c, we have
abc 8(1 – a)(1 – b)(1 – c)
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Choose the correct option:
1. The maximum value of the sum of the A.P. 50, 48, 6. The sum of the first 100 terms common to the series
46, 44, .................... is 17, 21, 25, ......... and 16, 21, 26, ............... is
(1) 325 (2) 648 (1) 101100 (2) 111000
(3) 650 (4) 652 (3) 110010 (4) 100101
2. Let Tr be the rth term of an A.P. for r = 1, 2, 3, 7. Sum of infinite number of terms in G.P. is 20 and
........... If for some positive integers m, n we sum of their square is 100. The common ratio of
1 1 G.P. is
have Tm = & Tn , then Tmn equals -
n m (1) 5 (2) 3/5
(3) 8/5 (4) 1/5
1 1 1
(1) (2) 8. Fifth term of a G.P. is 2, then the product of its 9
mn m n
terms is
(3) 1 (4) 0
(1) 256
3. The first term of an infinitely decreasing G.P. is unity
(2) 512
and its sum is S. The sum of the squares of the
terms of the progression is (3) 1024
(4) None of these
S S2
(1) (2) 9. Let a 1 , a 2 , a 3 ,....... be terms of an A.P. If
2S 1 2S 1
a1 + a2 +....+ a p p2 a6
S = 2
, p¹ q then equals
(3) (4) S 2 a1 + a2 +......+ aq q a21
2S
4. If the sum of the first n natural numbers is 1/5 times 2 11
the sum of the their squares, then the value of n is (1) (2)
7 41
(1) 5 (2) 6
41 7
(3) 7 (4) 8 (3) (4)
11 2
5. The sum to n terms of the series
10. In a geometric progression consisting of positive
3 5 7
+ + +......... is terms, each term equals the sum of the next two
12 12 + 22 12 + 22 + 32 terms. Then the common ratio of this progression
equals
3n 6n
(1) (2) 1
n +1 n +1 5
(1)
2
(2) 5
9n 12n
1 1
(3)
n +1
(4)
n +1 (3) 5 1 (4) 1 5
2 2
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Mathematics - NSEJS Sequence and Series 325
11. The sum to infinity of the series 19. Sum of the n terms of the series :
2 6 10 14 1 3 7 15
1 2 3 4 .... is ... is
3 3 3 3 2 4 8 16
(1) 4 (2) 6 (1) 2–n (2) (n – 1)2–n
(3) 2 (4) 3
(3) (n – 1)2–n + 1 (4) 2–n + n – 1
12. If 100 times the 100thterm of an A.P. with non-zero
common difference equals the 1 1 1
20. ... up to n terms is equal
50 times its 50th term, then the 150th term of this 2 5 5 8 8 11
A.P. is to
(1) Zero n 1
(1) (2)
(2) .50 2(2n 3) 2(3n 2)
(3) 150 times its 50th term n n
(3) (4)
(4) 150 2(3n 2) 3n 7
13. For every natural ‘n’, the expression n3 + 2n when 1 1 1
divided by 3 gives a remainder of 21. The value of
2 1 2 3 22 3 4 33 4
(1) 0 (2) 1
1
(3) 2 (4) 4 ... is
400 399 399 400
14. The sum of all the odd numbers between 1 and 1000
which are divisible by 13 is 1 1
(1) (2)
(1) 83,667 (2) 90,000 20 5
is
(1) 53 : 155 (2) 9 : 29
(1) 42780 (2) 41330
(3) 29 : 83 (4) 31 : 89
(3) 43890 (4) 43540
17. If the (p + q)th and (p – q)th terms of a G.P. are a2
and b2 respectively (a > 0, b > 0), then the pth term 4 7 10 301
of this G.P. is 24. The value of 100
99
98
... is
4 4 4 41
a2 b2
(1) (2) ab 301 1 301 1
2 (1) (2)
3 3 499 3 3 499
2
⎛ a⎞
(3) – ab (4) ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ 299 1
b (3) 100 (4)
3 3 4100
18. If the 3rd term of a G.P. is 2, then the product of the
first 5 terms of the GP is 25. Consider the sequence 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4,
... then the 1000th term of this sequence is
(1) 4 2 (2) 8 (1) 44 (2) 45
(3) 32 (4) 25 (3) 46 (4) 43
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28. Let a1, a2, a3, ..., a99 be in A.P. If
1 x x2
26. If x = , then the expression a1 + a4 + a7 + ... + a97 = 3300 and
2 1 x2 1 x4
a3 + a6 + a9 + ... + a99 = 13200, then
x4 x8 x 512 a2 + a5 + a8 + ... + a98 equals
... equals
1 x8 1 x16 1 x1024 (1) 8250 (2) 6600
256 512
2 2 (3) 9900 (4) 7250
(1) 1 (2) 1
1 2 512
1 21024 29. The sum of all the integers from 1 to 100 which are
divisible by 2 or 5 but not divisible by 4 equals (1
2512 2256 and 100 both included)
(3) (4)
1 21024 1 2512 (1) 2750 (2) 1750
27. If a, b, c are in A.P., b, c, d are in G.P. and (3) 3250 (4) 3050
1 1 1
, , are in A.P., (where a, b, c, d, e are all 1 1 1
c d e 30. The value of
positive) then the relation between a, c and e is 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 5
(1) a + e = 2c 1
... is
24 25 26
(2) ae = c2
143 285
(1) (2)
1 1 2 576 1152
(3)
a e c 81 161
(3) (4)
2
(4) a + e = 2 2
325 650
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Permutations and
Combinations CHAPTER 5
INTRODUCTION THIS CHAPTER INCLUDES
Combinatorics is a branch of mathematics which deals with Introduction
counting problems. In this chapter, we shall learn some basic
Fundamental Principle of Counting
counting techniques, which will enable us to answer the questions
without actually listing the arrangements and selecting them. Factorial Notation
Permutations
FUNDAMENTAL PRINCIPLE OF COUNTING Combinations
Example 1 : A hall has 10 gates. In how many ways can a man enter the hall through one gate and come
out through a different gate?
Solution : Since, there are 10 ways of entering into the hall. Therefore after entering into the hall, the man
come out through a different gate in 9 ways.
Example 2 : Find the number of even positive numbers which have four digits.
Solution : A number is even if the digit at its units place is one out of 0, 2, 4, 6 and 8.
Number of ways of filling units place = 5
Number of ways of filling ten’s place = 10
Number of ways of filling hundred’s place = 10
Number of ways of filling thousand’s place = 9 (0 cannot be put at thousand’s place)
By the fundamental principle of multiplication, total number of ways is
5 × 10 × 10 × 9 = 4500
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2. Addition Rule :
If there are two jobs such that they can be performed independently in m and n ways respectively, then either
of the two jobs can be performed in (m + n) ways.
Example 3 : In a class there are 12 boys and 7 girls. The teacher wants to select either a boy or a girl to
represent the class in a competition. In how many ways can the teacher make this selection?
Solution : The teacher has to perform one of the two jobs
(i) Selecting a boy among 12 boys or
(ii) Selecting a girl among 7 girls.
The first can be performed in 12 ways and the second in 7 ways.
Hence, either a boy or a girl can be selected for a competition in 12 + 7 = 19 ways.
FACTORIAL NOTATION
The continued product of first n natural numbers (beginning with 1 and ending with n) is called factorial n;
and is denoted by n! or by n
Example 4 : Evaluate :
12 ! 14 !
(i) (ii) 10 ! 5 !
10 !
1 1 1 1
(iii)
4! 5! 6! 7 !
Solution :
12 11 10!
(i) (∵ n! = n(n – 1) (n – 2)!)
10!
= 132
14!
(ii)
10! 5!
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Mathematics - NSEJS Permutations and Combinations 329
14 13 12 11 10!
=
10! (5 4 3 2 1)
14 13 12 11
=
5 4 3 2 1
7 13 11
=
5
1001
=
5
PERMUTATIONS
In the arrangement of letters, groups or things, we are actually counting the different possible arrangements.
For example, the arrangements of the letters such as CAT, ATC, ACT, …etc. Permutation is defined as- “The
arrangements of a number of things taking some or all of them at a time”. The total number of permutations
of n distinct things taking r (0 r n) at a time without repetition is denoted by nPr or by P(n, r).
For example, the number of permutations of 5 distinct things taking 3 at a time without repetition is given
by 5P3.
Theorem: 1 The number of permutations of n different things taken r at a time, where 0 r n and the objects
do not repeat is n(n – 1) (n – 2) ………(n – r + 1), which is denoted by nPr . or P(n, r)
n!
nP = n (n – 1) (n – 2) (n – 3)……………(n – r + 1)
r
(n r )!
Corollary : The number of permutations of n distinct things taken r at a time, when repetition is allowed,
is nr.
Example 5 : Evaluate :
(i) 8P
3
(ii) 12P
2
8! ⎡ n! ⎤
⎢∵
n
Pr
(n r )! ⎥⎦
Solution : (i) 8P =
3 (8 3)! ⎣
8!
=
5!
8 7 6 5!
=
5!
= 336
12!
(ii) 12P =
2 (12 2)!
12! 12 11 10!
= = = 132
10! 10!
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Example 6 : How many permutations of the letters of the word BANANA are there?
Solution : Here there are 6 letters, two of which are N, three are A. So, the required number of permutations
6!
is = 60.
3!2!
Example 7 : How many arrangements can be made with the letters of the word MATHEMATICS? In how many
of them the consonants occur together?
Solution : There are 11 letters in the word MATHEMATICS. M occurs twice, T occurs twice, A occurs twice
and the rest all are different.
11!
Required number of arrangements = = 4989600
2!2!2!
The consonants are M occurs twice, T occurs twice and H, C, S occur one time. Considering
these seven consonants as one letter. Therefore, we have to find the arrangements of 4 vowels
(A, E, A, I) and a group of consonants.
5!
Number of arrangements = = 60.
2!
7!
The seven consonants can also be arranged itself in = 1260 ways.
2!2!
COMBINATIONS
n!
(i) The number of ways of selection of r objects out of n distinct objects is nCr where n Cr .
r !(n r )!
(ii) The number of ways of all possible selections of n1 + n2 + n3 + n objects in which n1 objects are identical
of one kind, n2 objects are identical of second kind, n3 objects are of third kind and n objects are
distinct is (n1 + 1) (n2 + 1) (n3 + 1) . 2n.
If at least an object is selected then total ways = (n1 + 1) (n2 + 1) (n3 + 1) 2n – 1.
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Mathematics - NSEJS Permutations and Combinations 331
n(n 3)
(iii) Number of diagonals of a polygon of n sides = C2 n
n
.
2
(iv) Number of triangle by n points in which no three are collinear = nC3.
(v) Number of triangle by n points out of which only m are collinear = nC3 – mC3.
(vi) If a polygon has n sides and triangles are formed by joining the vertices then
(a) Number of triangles having one side common with the sides of polygon = n(n – 4)
(b) Number of triangle having two sides common with the sides of polygon is n.
(c) Number of triangle having no side common with the sides of polygon is nC3 – n – n(n – 4)
(vii) Number of points of intersections of n lines if no three lines are concurrent and no two lines are parallel
is nC2.
(viii) Number of points of intersection of n lines if m lines are concurrent and except these m no any three
are concurrent = nC2 – mC2 + 1.
(ix) Maximum number of points of intersection of n circles = 2 . nC2.
(x) Maximum number of points of intersection of n lines and m circles = nC2 + 2.mC2 + 2.nC1.mC1.
(xi) Number of parallelogram by n parallel lines of one set and m parallel lines of another set is nC2.mC2.
(xii) Number of rectangles of any size in a square of size
2
⎛ n( n 1) ⎞ n
⎟ ∑n
2
n×n=
n 1
C2 n 1
C2 ⎜
⎝ 2 ⎠
∑r
r 1
3
n
n(n 1)(2n 1)
(xiii) Number of squares of any size in n n ∑r
r 1
2
6
.
p 1 n 1 np(n 1)( p 1)
(xiv) Number of rectangles of any size in a rectangles of size p n C2 C2 .
4
p
(xv) Number of squares of any size in a rectangles of size p n( p n ) ∑ (n 1 r )( p 1 r ) .
r 1
DIVISORS
⎛ p 1 1 1 ⎞ ⎛ p 2 1 1 ⎞ ⎛ p 3 1 1 ⎞ ⎛ k 1 1 ⎞
⎜ 1 ⎟⎜ 2 ⎟⎜ 3 ⎟.......... ...⎜ pk ⎟
is equal to ⎜ p 1 ⎟ ⎜ p 1 ⎟ ⎜ p 1 ⎟ ⎜ pk 1 ⎟
⎝ 1 ⎠⎝ 2 ⎠⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
⎛ 10n 1 ⎞
sum of numbers = (sum of digits) (n – 1)! ⎜ ⎟.
⎝ 9 ⎠
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332 Permutations and Combinations Mathematics - NSEJS
Example 8 : How many different 4-digit number can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 without any repetition?
Also find their sum.
DERANGEMENTS
The meaning is the object is not at its original place.
(i) Number of ways in which r objects out of n distinct objects are deranged
⎡ 1 1 1 r 1 ⎤
= Cr r ! ⎢ 1 ...( 1)
n
⎣ 1! 2! 3! r ! ⎥⎦
(ii) Number of ways of derangement of n distinct object
⎡ 1 1 1 n 1 ⎤
= n ! ⎢ 1 ..... ( 1)
⎣ 1! 2! 3! n ! ⎥⎦
Example 9 : A, B, C and D have mixed up their respective secret codes in an envelope. In how many ways
can they pick up their codes in such a manner that no one gets his own code?
Solution : Let a, b, c, d respectively represent codes of A, B, C, D when codes a, b, c, d are mixed up
they can be picked up in 4! = 24 ways.
But codes have been picked up so that A does not get a, B does not get b, C does not get c and D
does not get d. Hence problem reduces to total number of derangement of a, b, c d.
⎡ 1 1 1 1 ⎤
4! ⎢ 1– – – 9
⎣ 1! 2 ! 3 ! 4 ! ⎥⎦
Example 10 : m men and n women are to be seated in a row so that no two women sit together. If m > n then
m! (m 1)!
show that the number of ways in which they can be seated is .
(m n 1)!
Solution : m men can be seated in a row in m! ways.
W1 M1 W2 M2 Mm
From the given condition no two women sit together means women can sit between two men. We
have m + 1 places between m men including beginning and end places when n women can sit in
m+1P ways.
n
(m 1)! (m )! (m 1)!
Hence the required member of ways m!.
(m 1 n )! (m n 1)!
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Mathematics - NSEJS Permutations and Combinations 333
Example 11 : Each of 8 questions in a paper has an alternative. In how many ways a student can attempt one
or more questions?
Solution : According to the given condition, a student has three alternatives, either he opts the question,
or its alternatives or he leaves the question. Therefore the student can attempt all the eight
questions in 38 ways, out of which there is one way when he leaves all 8 questions.
Hence required number of ways = 38 – 1 = 6560
Example 12 : Find the maximum number of points into which 10 circles and 10 straight lines intersect.
Solution : Point of intersection of lines 10C = 45
2
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Choose the correct option:
1. There are three coplanar parallel lines. If any p 5. The number of ways in which a mixed double
points are taken on each of the lines, the tennis game can be arranged from amongst 9
maximum number of triangles with vertices at married couple if no husband & wife plays in the
these points is same game is
(3) p2 (4p – 3) 6. Numbers greater than 1000 but not greater than
4000 which can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2,
(4) None of these
3, 4 (repetition of digits is allowed), are
2. The number of different seven-digit numbers that can
(1) 350
be written using only three digits 1, 2 & 3 under
the condition that the digit 2 occurs exactly twice (2) 375
in each number is
(3) 450
(1) 672 (2) 640
(4) 576
(3) 512 (4) None of these
7. A five-digit number divisible by 3 has to formed
3. A 5-digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using the numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without
using the numerals 0, 1, 2,3,4 & 5 without repetition. The total number of ways in which this
repetition. The total number of ways this can be can be done is
done is
(1) 216 (2) 240
(1) 3125 (2) 600
(3) 600 (4) 3125
(3) 240 (4) 216
8. A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in
4. The number of ways in which 5 different books can an examination such that he must choose at least
be distributed among 10 people if each person can 4 from the first five question. The number of
get at most one book is choices available to him is
(1) 16 (1) 2
(2) 36 (2) 5
(3) 60 (3) 8
12. The number of arrangements of the letters of the 17. In how many ways can two distinct numbers be
word BANANA in which two 'N's do not appear chosen from the set of first 20 natural numbers so
adjacently is that their product is a multiple of 4?
(1) 40 (1) 100
(2) 60 (2) 140
(3) 80 (3) 145
(4) 100 (4) 95
13. Number of points with integral co-ordinates that lie 18. In how many ways can a team of 6 members
inside a triangle whose co-ordinates are (0, 0), containing at least 2 women be formed from 7 men
(0, 21) and (21, 0)
and 4 women?
(1) 210
(1) 284
(2) 190
(2) 371
(3) 220
(3) 176
(4) None of these
(4) 422
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19. Ten players are to play in a badminton tournament. 22. In a classroom there are ‘n’ students. Each
The number of pairings for the first round is student shakes hand with every other student
exactly once. The number of handshakes is 190.
(1) 45
The value of ‘n’ is
(2) 32
(1) 19 (2) 20
(3) 945
(3) 24 (4) 38
(4) 400
23. There are 10 points in a plane of which 5 points lie
20. The number of squares in an 8 × 8 chess-board is on a line. The maximum number of straight lines
(1) 204 that passes through at least 2 of these 10 points
is
(2) 1296
(1) 45 (2) 35
(3) 64
(3) 36 (4) 50
(4) 648
24. There are two parallel lines, on each are marked
21. There are 10 points marked on the circumference
6 points. The number of triangles that has its
of a circle. How many distinct triangles can be
vertices as 3 of the 12 marked points is
formed using three of these 10 marked points?
(1) 90 (2) 180
(1) 210 (2) 120
(3) 220 (4) 132
(3) 126 (4) 56
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NSEJS Answers 337
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
Chapter 1 : Motion in a Straight Line
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (1)
8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (3)
29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (1)
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338 Answers NSEJS
15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (1)
29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (4)
CHEMISTRY
Chapter 1 : Mole Concept and Stoichiometry
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (4) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (2) 41. (4)
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NSEJS Answers 339
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (3) 30. (1)
Chapter 6 : Thermochemistry
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (4) 21. (4)
22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (2)
Chapter 7 : Equilibrium
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (3)
22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (4)
29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (2)
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BIOLOGY
Chapter 1 : Cell : The Unit of Life
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (2)
8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (3) 21. (4)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34 (4)
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NSEJS Answers 341
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (4)
22. (1)
Chapter 9 : Heredity
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (2)
8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (2)
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MATHEMATICS
Chapter 1 : Sets
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (3)
8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (3)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (3)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (3)
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