Medical Technology Reviewer

Yellow- from cahp (sure answers) c.
howell-Jolly bodies
Green- from cahp (unsure answers) d. Siderotic granules
Pink- my previous answers nung exam (chong) 9. A falsely elevated Hct is obtained. Which of the
Gray- my corrected answers (chong)
following calculated values will not be affected?
HEMATOLOGY
a. MCV
1. Insufficient centrifugation will result in: b. MCH
a. A false increase in hematocrit (HCT) value c. MCHC
b. A false decrease in HCT value d. Red cell distribution width (RDW)
c. No effect on HCT value 10. All of the following factors may influence the
d. All of these options, depending on the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) except:
patient a. Blood drawn into sodium citrate tube
2. Variation in red cell size observed on the b. Anisocytosis, poikilocytosis
peripheral smear is described as: c. Plasma proteins
a. Anisocytosis d. Caliber of the tube
b. Hypochromia 11. The coulter principle for counting of cells is
c. Poikilocytosis based upon the fact that:
d. Pleocytosis a. Isotonic solution conduct electricity better
3. Which of the following is the preferable site for than cells do
bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in adult b. Conductivity varies proportionally to the
a. Iliac crest number of cells
b. Sternum c. Cells conduct electricity better than saline
c. Tibia does
d. Spinous processes of a vertebra d. Isotonic solutions cannot conduct electricity
4. What term describes the change in shape of 12. Which of the following results on an automated
erythrocyte seen on a Wright’s stained peripheral differential suggests that a peripheral smear
blood smear? should be reviewed manually?
a. Poikilocytosis a. Segs = 70%
b. Anisocytosis b. Band = 6%
c. Hypochromia c. Mono = 15%
d. Polychromasia d. Eos = 2%
5. What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have 13. Using a coulter analyzer, an increased RDW
on a Wright’s-stained smear? should correlate with:
a. Red cells would be stained too pink a. Spherocytosis
b. White cell cytoplasm would be stained too b. Anisocytosis
blue c. Leukocytosis
c. Red cells would be stained too blue d. Presence of NRBCs
d. Red cells would lyse on the slide 14. Autoagglutination of red cells at room
6. Mean cell volume (MCV) is calculated using the temperature can result in which of the following?
following formula: a. Low RBC count
a. (Hgb ÷ RBC) x 10 b. High MCV
b. (Hct ÷ RBC) x 10 c. Low hematocrit
c. (Hct ÷ Hgb) x 10 d. All of the above
d. (Hgb ÷ RBC) x 100 e. B and C
7. When an erythrocyte containing iron granules is 15. Spherocytes differ from normal red cells in all of
stained with Prussian blue, the cell is called a: the following except:
a. Spherocyte a. Decreased surface to volume
b. Leptocyte b. No central pallor
c. Schistocyte c. Decreased resistance to hypotonic saline
d. Siderocyte d. Increased deformability
8. Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions 16. All of the following are usually found in the Hgb
can be visualized with supravital stain but cannot C disease except:
be detected on Wright’s-stained blood smear? a. Hgb C crystals
a. Basophilic stippling b. target cells
b. Heinz bodies
CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

c. lysine substituted for glutamic acid at the b. Neoplastic process
sixth position of the beta chain c. Aplastic anemia
d. Fast motility of Hgb C at pH 8.6 d. Red cell regeneration
17. An autohemolysis test is positive in all of the 25. All of the following are characteristic findings in
following areas except: a patient with iron deficiency anemia except:
a. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase a. Microcytic, hypochromic red cell
(G6PD) morphology
b. Hereditary spherocytosis (HS) b. Elevated platelet count along with small
c. Pyruvate kinase (PK) deficiency platelets
d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria c. Decreased total iron-binding capacity
(PNH) (TIBC)
18. “Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with: d. Increased RBC protoporphyrin
a. Rh null trait 26. A Schilling test gives the following results: Part
b. Chronic granulomatous disease I: 2% excretion of radioactive vitamin B12
c. G-6-PD deficiency (normal = 5% - 35%); Part II: 8% excretion of
d. PK deficiency radioactive vitamin B12 after intrinsic factor was
19. A patient’s peripheral smear reveals numerous given with vitamin B12 (normal = 7% - 10%).
NRBCs, marked variation of red cell There results indicate:
morphology, and pronounced polychromasia. In a. Tropical sprue
addition to a decreased Hgb and decreased Hct b. Transcobalamin deficiency
values, what other CBC parameters may be c. Blind loop syndrome
anticipated? d. Pernicious anemia
a. Reduced platelets 27. Which anemia has red cell morphology similar to
b. Increased MCHC that seen in iron deficiency anemia?
c. Increased MCV a. Sickle cell anemia
d. Decreased red-cell distribution width b. Thalassemia syndrome
(RDW) c. pernicious anemia
20. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is d. Hereditary spherocytosis
characterized by: 28. Which of the following parameters may be
a. Target cells and Cabot rings similar for the anemia of inflammation and iron
b. Toxic granulation and Dohle bodies deficiency anemia?
c. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic a. Normocytic indices
stippling b. Decreased serum iron concentration
d. Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs c. Ringed sideroblasts
21. The morphological classification of anemias d. Pappenheimer bodies
based on which of the following? 29. In which of the following conditions is Hgb A2
a. M:E (Myeloid:Erythroid) ratio elevated?
b. Prussian blue stain a. Hgb H
c. RBC indices b. Hgb SC disease
d. Reticulocyte count c. Beta thalassemia minor
22. Which of the following is a common finding in d. Hgb S trait
aplastic anemia? 30. Which of the disorders below causes ineffective
a. A monoclonal disorder erythropoiesis?
b. Tumor infiltration a. G6PD deficiency
c. Peripheral blood pancytopenia b. Liver disease
d. Defective DNA synthesis c. Hgb C disease
23. Which of the following conditions may produce d. Pernicious anemia
spherocytes in peripheral smear? 31. All of the following are associated with
a. Pelger-Huet anomaly sideroblastic anemia except:
b. pernicious anemia a. Increased serum iron
c. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia b. Ringed sideroblasts
d. Sideroblastic anemia c. Dimorphic blood picture
24. Reticulocytosis usually indicates: d. Increased RBC protoporphyrin
a. Response to inflammation

32. A patient has a Hct of 30%, a hemoglobin of 8 myelo- and lymphoproliferative disorders is
g/dL and a RBC count of 4.0 x 10^12/L. What is based upon which characteristics?
the morphological classification of this anemia? a. Proteomics
a. Normocytic normochromic b. Cytogenetic abnormalities
b. Macrocytic hypochromic c. Carbohydrate-associated tumor antigen
c. Microcytic hypochromic production
d. Normocytic hyperchromic d. Cell signaling and adhesion markers
33. All of the following are characteristics of 40. CD 10 antigen are characteristically seen in
megaloblastic anemia except: a. B-cell ALL
a. Pancytopenia b. T-cell ALL
b. Elevated reticulocyte count c. Null-cell ALL
c. Hypersegmented neutrophils d. Common ALL
d. Macrocytic erythrocyte indices 41. A patient’s peripheral blood smear and bone
34. Which of the following are most characteristic of marrow both show 70% blasts. These cells are
the red cell indices associated with megaloblastic negative for Sudan Black B stain. Given these
anemias? data, which of the following is the most likely
a. MCV 99 fL, MCH 28 pg, MCHC 31% diagnosis?
b. MCV 62 fL, MCH 27 pg, MCHC 30% a. Acute myeloid leukemia
c. MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34% b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d. MCV 78 fL, MCH 23 pg, MCHC 30% c. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
35. A patient has 80 nucleated red blood cells per d. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
100 leukocytes. In addition to increased 42. Which of the following reactions are often
polychromasia on the peripheral smear, what positive in ALL but are negative in AML?
other findings may be present on the CBC? a. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase and
a. Increased platelets PAS
b. Increased MCV b. Chloroacetate esterase and nonspecific
c. Increased Hct esterase
d. Increased red blood cell count c. Sudan black B and peroxidase
36. The familial condition of Pelger-Huet anomaly is d. New methylene blue and acid phosphatase
important to recognize because this disorder must 43. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is
be differentiated from: most often associated with the following types of
a. Infectious mononucleosis acute leukemia?
b. May-Hegglin anomaly a. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation
c. A shift to the left increase in immature b. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
granulocytes c. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
d. G6PD deficiency d. Acute monocytic leukemia
37. What is the typical range of realistic lymphocyte 44. A 24-year old man with Down’s syndrome
percentage in the peripheral blood smear of a 1 presents with a fever, pallor, lymphadenopathy,
year old? and hepatosplenomegaly. His CBC results are as
a. 1% - 6% follows:
b. 27% - 33% WBCs: 10.8 x 10 /L
c. 35% - 58%
d. 50% - 70% Differential
38. SITUATION: A peripheral smear shows 75%
blasts. These stains are positive for both Sudan PMNs; 8%
black B (SBB) and Peroxidase (Px). Given these
Lymphocytes: 25%
values, which of the following disorders is most
likely? PAS-positive blasts: 67%
a. Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML) a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. Acute undifferentiated leukemia (AUL) b. Myeloproliferative disorder
d. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) c. Leukemoid reaction
39. In addition to morphology, cytochemistry, and d. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
immunophenotyping, the WHO classification of 45. In essential thrombocytopenia, the platelet are:

a. Increased in number and functionally 53. What is the characteristic finding seen in the
abnormal peripheral smear of a patient with multiple
b. Normal in number and functionally myeloma?
abnormal a. Microcytic hypochromic cells
c. Decreased in number and functional b. Intracellular inclusion bodies
d. Decreased in number and functionally c. Rouleaux
abnormal d. Hypersegmented neutrophils
46. In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red 54. Cells that exhibit a positive stain with acid
blood cell morphology is that of: phosphatase and are not inhibited with tartaric
a. Target cells acid are characteristically seen in:
b. Schistocytes a. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Teardrop cells b. Infectious lymphocytosis
d. Ovalocytes c. Hairy cell leukemia
47. Polycythemia Vera is characterized by: d. T cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia
a. Increased plasma volume 55. Which of the following is correct regarding the
b. Pancytopenia international normalized ratio (INR)?
c. Decreased oxygen saturation a. It uses the International Sensitivity Ratio
d. Absolute increase in total red cell mass (ISR)
48. All of the following are associated with the b. It standardizes PT results
diagnosis of multiple myeloma except: c. It stabilizes APTT results
a. Marrow plasmocytosis d. It is used to monitor heparin therapy
b. Lytic bone lesions 56. The anticoagulant of choice for most routine
c. Serum and/or urine M component coagulation studies is:
(monoclonal protein) a. Sodium oxalate
d. Philadelphia chromosome b. Sodium citrate
49. Multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom’s c. Heparin
macroglobulinemia have all of the following in d. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
common except: 57. Which results would be expected for the
a. Monoclonal gammopathy prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial
b. Hyperviscosity of the blood thromboplastin time (APTT) in a patient with
c. Bence-Jones protein in the urine coumadin therapy?
d. Osteolytic lesions a. Both prolonged
50. Which of the following is/are commonly found in b. Both shortened
CML? c. Normal APTT, prolonged PT
a. Many teardrop-shaped cells d. Both normal
b. Intense LAP staining 58. Which clotting factor is not measured by PT and
c. A decrease in granulocytes APTT tests?
d. An increase in basophils a. Factor VIII
51. What influence does the Philadelphia (Ph1) b. Factor IX
chromosome have on the prognosis of patients c. Factor V
with chronic myelocytic leukemia? d. Factor XIII
a. It is not predictive 59. A modification of which procedure can be used
b. The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present to measure fibrinogen?
c. The prognosis is worst if Ph1 is present a. PT
d. The disease is usually transforms into AML b. APTT
when Ph1 is present c. Thrombin Time
52. A striking feature of the peripheral blood of a d. Fibrin degradation products
patient with CML is a: 60. A standard 4.5 ml blue top filled with 3.0 ml of
a. Profusion of bizarre blast cells blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT and
b. Normal number of typical granulocytes APTT tests. The sample is from a patient
c. Presence of granulocytes at different stages undergoing surgery the following morning for a
of development tonsillectomy. Which of the following is the
d. Pancytopenia necessary course of action by the technologist?

a.Run both tests in duplicate and report the d. Prolonged APTT
average result 67. Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with:
b. Reject the sample and request a new sample a. Decreased bleeding time
c. Report the PT result b. Decreased factor VIII assay
d. Report the APTT result c. Thrombocytopenia and giant platelet
61. Which statement is correct regarding the sample d. Abnormal platelet aggregation
storage for the prothrombin time test? 68. When performing platelet aggregation studies,
a. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is capped which set of platelet aggregation results would
b. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is most likely be associated with Bernard–Soulier
refrigerated at 4 C syndrome?
c. Stable for 4 hours if the sample is stored at 4 a. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen,
C ADP, and ristocetin
d. Should be run within 8 hours b. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen,
62. TTP differs from DIC in that: ADP, and epinephrine; decreased
a. APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in aggregation to ristocetin
DIC c. Normal platelet aggregation to epinephrine
b. Schistocytes are not present in TTP but are and ristocetin; decreased aggregation to
present in DIC collagen and ADP
c. Platelet count is decreased in TTP but d. Normal platelet aggregation to epinephrine,
normal in DIC ristocetin, and collagen; decreased
d. Pt is prolonged in TTP but decreased in aggregation to ADP
DIC 69. Which set of platelet responses would be most
63. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) is likely associated with Glanzmann’s
associated with: thrombasthenia?
a. Fever, thrombocytosis, anemia and renal a. Normal platelet aggregation to ADP and
failure ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen
b. Fever, granulocytosis, and thrombocytosis b. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen;
c. Escherichia coli O157:H7 decreased aggregation to ADP and ristocetin
d. Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis c. Normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin;
64. Refer to the following results: decreased aggregation to collagen, ADP,
PT = prolonged APTT = and epinephrine
prolonged d. Normal platelet aggregation to ADP;
decreased aggregation to collagen and
Platelet count = decreased Bleeding Time = ristocetin
decreased 70. In hematology analyzer, five parts means:
a. RBC, Hemoglobin, Hematocrit, WBC, and
a. Factor VIII deficiency platelet
b. von Willebrand’s disease b. Hgb, Hct, MCV, MCH, and MCHC
c. DIC c. Neutrophil, lymphocyte, monocyte,
d. Factor IX deficiency eosinophil, and basophil
65. The following results were obtained on a patient: d. Immature granulocyte, lymphocyte, blast,
prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, segmenters and atypical cell
normal PT, and prolonged APTT. Which of the 71. What is the principle involved in the point of care
following disorders is most consistent with these analyzer for APTT and PT testing?
results? a. Immunologic turbidimetry
a. Hemophilia A b. Electrochemical measurement
b. Hemophilia B c. Turbido-nephelometry
c. Von Willebrand’s disease d. Spectrophotometrical measurement
d. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia 72. Modified westergren method is used for detection
66. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is of _____
characterized by: a. Hematocrit
a. Prolonged PT b. Reticulocyte
b. Increased platelet aggregation c. ESR
c. Thrombocytosis d. Bleeding time

73. Specimen requirement for platelet light 7. Drug testing using hair has an advantage of detecting drug use
transmission aggregometry over ___ period.
a. Whole blood and EDTA a. 2 weeks
b. 12 weeks
b. Citrated plasma
c. 6 months
c. Heparinized whole blood d. 1 year
d. Serum 8. Which of the following is the best laboratory test for
74. It is considered as the cornerstone in the identification of thyroid abnormalities:
diagnosis of hematologic malignancies a. FT4 test
a. Full blood count b. TRH stimulation test
b. Flow cytometry c. FT3 test
c. FISH d. TSH test
9. Severe diarrhea causes:
d. Immunophenotyping
a. Metabolic alkalosis
75. Screening and routine test in hematology b. Respiratory alkalosis
section. c. Respiratory acidosis
a. Complete blood count d. Metabolic acidosis
b. Peripheral blood smear 10. This biomarker is preferred in stratifying risk in patients with
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate MI who develops heart failure.
d. Differential count a. BNP
b. Lipid profile
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY c. CK-MB
1. Which of the following enzymes are used in the diagnosis of d. Troponins
acute pancreatitis: 11. In this disease, ACTH levels is always high.
a. 5'-nucleotidase (5'N) and gamma-glutamyl transferase a. Cushing’s disease
(GGT) b. Cushing’s syndrome
b. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and lactate c. Both
dehydrogenase (LD) d. None
c. Amylase (AMS) and lipase (LPS) 12. Which cells of the pancreas produce lipase and amylase:
d. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine a. Beta cells
aminotransferase (ALT) b. Acinar cells
2. TSH low, T3 and FT4 high is suggestive of the following c. Alpha cells
EXCEPT: d. Follicular cells
a. T3 thyrotoxicosis 13. Which test is used to differentiate drug induced TSH elevation
b. Primary hypoparathyroidism and hypothyroidism:
c. Secondary hyperparathyroidism a. FT4 test
d. Plummer's disease b. FT3 test
3. Anticoagulant of choice for lipase measurement: c. TSH test
a. Fluoride d. TRH stimulation test
b. Citrate 14. It is a myocardial necrosis with ECG changes showing ST-
c. EDTA segment elevation that is not quickly reversed by nitroglycerin.
d. Heparin a. STEMI
4. Glycogen debranching enzyme deficient: b. Subendocardial MI
a. GSD type 3 c. NSTEMI
b. GSD type 4 d. All of the choices
c. GSD type 5 15. This method is based on the ability of iodide to form a vivid
d. GSD type 6 blue color in combination with starch.
5. Elevated GGT suggests: a. Amyloclastic
a. Obstructive liver disease b. Saccharogenic
b. Fatty liver disease c. Amylometric
c. Alcoholic liver disease d. Chronometric
d. Infectious hepatitis 16. Monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult-
6. It promotes cell proliferation, hypertrophy, inflammation and onset diabetes mellitus can best be accomplished by measuring:
extracellular matrix accumulation, all of which are important a. 2-hour postprandial serum glucose
factors in progression of CKD, thus inhibition of these peptides b. Hemoglobin A1c
prevents renal injury and fibrosis. c. Weekly fasting 7AM serum glucose
a. Renin d. Glucose tolerance testing
b. Vasopressin 17. Deficiency of this vitamin may cause anemia.
c. Interleukins a. Pyridoxine
d. Endothelin b. Biotin
c. Pantothenic acid

d. Niacin c. Branched-chain amino acid metabolism disorder;
18. Which of the following is the most clinically sensitive assay for MSUD
the detection of primary thyroid disorders: d. Urea cycle disorder; isovaleric acidemia
a. FT4 test 29. Used to differentiate Cushing’s disease from Cushing’s
b. TRH stimulation test syndrome:
c. FT3 test a. High dose dexamethasone suppression test
d. TSH test b. Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
19. Micropenis is characteristic to what particular disease: c. Urine free cortisol
a. Turner’s syndrome d. None
b. Klinefelter’s syndrome 30. Which test is used to confirm hyperparathyroidism:
c. Both a. FT4 test
d. None b. TRH stimulation test
20. The DNA strands are compacted as: c. FT3 test
a. Phagolysosomes d. TSH test
b. Chromosomes 31. It is described as decreased coronary blood flow due to
c. Histones blockage that may be caused by spasm of the artery or by
d. Lysosomes atherosclerosis with acute clot formation.
21. True about the enzyme amylase, expect: a. Acute myocarditis
a. Normally filtered by the glomerulus and appears in the b. Acute myocardial infarction
urine c. Congestive heart failure
b. Smallest in size of the enzymes d. Coronary artery disease
c. Catalyze the breakdown of starch and glycogen 32. When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become
d. Late pancreatic marker elevated is:
22. GSD with liver glycogen synthase deficiency a. ALT
a. 0a b. CK
b. 0b c. LD
c. 1a d. AST
d. 1b 33. This autoimmune thyroid disorder is the most common cause
23. With elevated Troponin I, T and CK-MB of hypothyroidism:
a. STEMI a. Hashimoto’s disease
b. NSTEMI b. Grave’s disease
c. Both c. Plummer’s disease
d. None d. Cretinism
24. It is the gold standard for detecting a variety of congenital 34. What is the leading cause of chronic kidney disease?
diseases in newborns: a. Hyperuricemia
a. HPLC b. Diabetes
b. MS/MS c. Infection
c. GC/MS d. Hypertension
d. LC-MSMS 35. This syndrome has the characteristic buffalo hump feature.
25. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome is a hormonal condition in which a. Klinefelter’s syndrome
the ovaries produce an abnormal amount of ______ that are usually b. Cushing’s syndrome
present in women in small amount during ovulation. c. Pheochromocytoma
a. Luteinizing hormone d. Grave’s disease
b. Estrogen 36. Clinical features of PCOS, except:
c. Follicle stimulating hormone a. Menstrual dysfunction
d. Testosterone b. Abnormal gonadotropin secretory dynamics
26. Which of the following is mismatched: c. Development of diabetes type 1
a. CA-125; ovarian CA d. Fertility problems
b. CA 15-3; gastrointestinal CA 37. Step in karyotyping that involves addition of colchicine.
c. LD; hematologic malignancies a. Cell separation
d. CA 27-29; breast CA b. Chromosome releasing
27. Which particular disease of the pancreas increases the c. Cell growth
concentration of lipase and amylase in the circulation: d. Cell synchronization
a. Beta cell carcinoma 38. Metabolic acidosis is described as a(n):
b. Cystic fibrosis a. Decreased in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased
c. Zollinger-Ellison pH
d. Pancreatitis b. Increased in CO2 with an increased pH
28. Which of the following is mismatched: c. Decreased in CO2 with an increased pH
a. Methionine and sulfur metabolism disorder; d. Increased in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased
homocystinuria pH
b. Tyrosine metabolism disorders; alkaptonuria 39. More common in women than in men.

a. Cushing’s disease a. Testosterone replacement
b. Cushing’s syndrome b. Colchicine administration
c. Both c. Parathyroid ablation therapy
d. None d. Vitamin D supplements
40. Which of the following is mismatched:
a. Modified Guthrie test; phenylketonuria
b. Modified Guthrie test; MSUD MICROBIOLOGY 47/60= 13 MISTAKES
c. Ferric chloride test; alkaptonuria 1. Which one of the following is not appropriate when
d. HPLC; phenylketonuria describing streptococcus pneumoniae?
41. The first two letter in RT-PCR stands for: a. Virulent strains are encapsulated
a. Real time b. Bile-resistant
b. Rapid time c. Lancet-shaped, gram-positive diplococcus
c. Rapid transcriptase d. Alpha-hemolytic
d. Reverse transcription
2. The organism associated with a disease characterized
42. SARS-COV-2 is a _____ virus
by the presence of a pseudomembrane in the throat
a. Single-stranded DNA
and the production of an exotoxin that is absorbed into
b. Single-stranded RNA
the bloodstream with a lethal effect is:
c. Double-stranded DNA
d. Double-stranded RNA a. Corynebacterium diphtheria
43. Elevate the levels of extracellular monoamine b. Staphylococcus aureus
neurotransmitters (dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine) by c. Staphylococcus pyogenes
promoting their release from the nerve endings: d. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
a. Methamphetamines 3. Which of the following organisms are generally
b. Coca bush positive for B-galactosidase
c. Barbiturates a. E.coli
d. Cannabinol b. Salmonella spp.
44. Synthetic function of the liver is demonstrated by: c. Shigella spp.
a. Formation of metabolic products of drugs d. Proteus spp.
b. Formation of protein 4. The pH of the agar used for the KirbyBauer test should
c. Formation of glycogen be
d. Formation of bile
a. 7.6-7.8
45. This hormone is produced by the normal pituitary gland that
b. 7.4-7.6
stimulates the adrenal glands to produce stress hormones
c. 7.0-7.4
a. Catecholamines
d. 7.2-7.4
b. TSH
c. ACTH 5. For which clinical specimens is the KOH direct mount
d. Cortisol technique for examination of direct fungal elements
46. An increase in serum acetone is indicative of a defect in the used?
metabolism of: a. CSF
a. Urea nitrogen b. Bone marrow
b. Fat c. Skin
c. Carbohydrates d. Blood
d. Uric acid 6. Erysipelothri infections in humans characteristically
47. Which of the following is an early marker of kidney disease: produce
a. Creatinine a. Pathology in the lower respiratory tract
b. Albumin b. Central nervous system pathology
c. BUN c. Pathology at the point of entrance of the
d. BUA
organism
48. A scanning of a CK isoenzyme fractionation revealed 2 peaks:
d. The formation of abscesses in visceral
a slow cathodic peak (CKMM) and an intermediate peak (CKMB).
organs
A possible interpretation for this pattern is:
7. An organism was inoculated to a TSI tube and gave the
a. Viral hepatitis
b. Myocardial infarction following reactions: alkaline slant/acid butt, no H2S, no
c. Muscular dystrophy gas produces. The organism most likely is
d. Brain tumor a. Salmonella typhimurium
49. Chromosome staining in karyotyping involves addition of: b. Shigella dysenteriae
a. Trypsin and Giemsa c. Escherichia coli
b. Phytohemagglutinin d. Klebsiella pneumonia
c. Hypotonic solution 8. Members of the family enterobacteriaceae share
d. Colchicine which of the following characteristics?
50. Treatment of low bone mineral density in Klinefelter’s disease. a. Produce beta-hemolysis

b. Produce cytochrome oxidase a. Affinity for the beta-lactam ring of the
c. Ferment lactose ampicillin
d. Reduce nitrate to nitrite b. Beta-lactamase enzyme
9. Mycobacteria can be examined by using the c. Capsule of polysaccharide material
a. Dieterle stain d. Porphobilinogen
b. Gimenez stain 18. macConkey media for screening suspected cases of
c. Wright’s stain hemmorhagic E.coli O157:H7 contain:
d. Kinyoun stain a. citrate
10. Which one of the following drugs is not considered as b. indole
primary antimycobacterial therapy? c. sorbitol
a. Isoniazid d. lactose
b. Kanamycin 19. which of the following combination is useful for
c. Rifampin confirming the proesece of ESBL in E.coli?
d. Pyracinamide a. Ceftazidime + clavulanic acid
11. Which single best test separates Klebsiella oxytoca b. Cefpodoxime + cefotaxime
from K. pneumonia? c. Cefoxitin + penicillin
a. Sucrose d. Ampicillin + cefepime
b. Indole 20. What is the first step to be performed in the
c. Citrate identification of an unknown yeast isolate?
d. Urease a. Gram stain smear
12. The finding of five to six acid-fast bacilli per ield (X 800 b. Catalse test
to X 1000) in a fuchsin smear of expectorated sputum c. India ink stain
should be reported as: d. Germ tube test
a. 1+ 21. Resistance to clindamycin can be induced in vitro by:
b. 3+ a. Erythromycin
c. 4+ b. Penicillin
d. 2+ c. Gentamicin
13. Which genera of enterobacteriaceae are known to d. Ampicillin
cause diarrhea and are considered enteric pathogens? 22. Mycobacteria stained by the Ziehl-Neelsen or Kinyoun
a. Escherichia, salmonella, shigella, yersinia methods with methylene blue counterstain are seen
b. Enterobacter, klebsiella, providencia, microscopically as:
proteus a. Bright blue rods against a pink background
c. Pseudomonas, moraxella, acinetobacter, b. Bright blue rods against a black background
aeromonas c. Bright yellow rods against a yellow
d. Enterobacter, citrobacter, morganella background
14. A suspension of the test organism for use in broth d. Orange-red rods against a black background
dilution and disk diffusion tesing is adjusted to match e. Bright red rods against a blue background
the turbidity of a: 23. Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication after
a. #3.0 McFarland standard infection with:
b. #0.5 McFarland standard a. Salmonella typhi
c. #2.0 McFarland standard b. E. coli O157:H7
d. #1.0 McFarland standard c. Vibrio cholera O1
15. The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires that d. Yersinia enterocolitica
the skin be cleansed with: 24. Which group of tests best differentiates Helicobacter
a. 70% alcohol and then 2% iodine pylori from C. jejuni?
b. 95% alcohol only a. Catalase, oxidase, nalidixic sensitivity
c. 2% iodine and then 70% alcohol solution b. Catalase, oxidase, gram stain
d. 70% alcohol and the 95% alcohol c. Urease, nitrate, hippurate hydrolysis
16. The ortho-nitrophenyl-B-galactoside (ONPG) test is d. Catalase, oxidase, cephalothin sensitivity
most useful when differentiating 25. An organism was inoculated to a TSI tube and gave the
a. Proteus vulgaris from salmonella spp. following reactions: Alkaline slant/acid butt, H2S, gas
b. Klebsiella spp. from Enterobacter spp. produces. The organism most likely is:
c. Shigella spp. from some strains of a. Salmonella typhimurium
Escherichia coli b. Klebsiella pneumonia
d. Salmonella spp. from pseudomonas spp. c. Escherichia coli
17. Haemophilus influenza becomes resistant to ampicillin d. Shigella dysenteriae
when the organism produces a/an

26. A positive VDRL test for syphilis was reported on a a. 99.9%
young woman known to have hepatitis. When b. 100%
questioned by her physician. She denied sexual contact c. 97%
with any partner symptomatic for a sexually d. 95.5%
transmitted disease. Which of the following would be 34. Infection in the urinary tract is most frequently
the appropriate next step for her physician? associated with
a. Identify her sexual contacts for serologic a. Enterococcus faecalis
testing b. Serratia marcescens
b. Test her serum using a fluorescent c. Escherichia coli
treponemal antibody absorbed assay d. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Treat her with penicillin 35. Which of the following tests best differentiates shigella
d. Reassure her that it was a biologic false- species from E.coli?
positive caused by her liver disease a. Hydrogen sulphide, MR, citrate, urease
27. Which of the following organisms would not routinely b. Hydrogen sulphide, VP, citrate, urease
undergo antimicrobial susceptibility testing? c. Gas. Citrate, VP
a. Proteus mirabilis d. Lactose, indole, ONPG, motility
b. Staphylococcus aureus 36. Haemophilus influenza is most likely considered
c. Staphylococcus pyogenes normal indigenous flora in the
d. Escherichia coli a. Large intestine
28. It is the lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits b. Female genital tract
the growth of a test organisms. c. Oropharynx
a. Minimum bactericidal titer d. Small intestine
b. Maximum inhibitory titer 37. The voges-Proskauer (VP) test detects which end
c. Minimum inhibitory concentration product of glucose fermentation?
d. Serum inhibitory concentration a. Acetic acid
29. Lysine iron agar (LIA) showing a purple slant and a b. Nitrite
blackened butt indicates: c. Acetoin
a. Citrobacter spp. d. Hydrogen sulphide
b. Proteus spp. 38. At which pH does the methyl red (MR) test become
c. E. coli positive?
d. Salmonella spp. a. 6.0
30. In the CAMP test, a single streak of a beta-hemolytic b. 6.5
streptococcus is placed perpendicular to a streak of c. 4.5
beta-lysinproducing staphylococcus aures. After d. 7.0
incubation, a zone of increased lysis in the shape of an 39. An identifying characteristic of staphylococcus aureus
arrowhead is noted; this indicates the presumptive is
identification of: a. Growth inhibition in presence of increased
a. S. equines salt
b. S. bois b. Coagulase negative
c. S. pyogenes c. Mannitol fermentation positive
d. S. agalactiae d. DNase negative
31. Viridians streptococci can be differentiated from 40. In the test for urease production, ammonia reacts to
streptococcus pneumonia by: form which product?
a. Alpha hemolysis a. Ammonium oxalate
b. Catalase reaction b. Ammonium nitrate
c. Morphology c. Ammonium carbonate
d. Bile solubility d. Ammonium citrate
32. Which of the following reagents is added to detect the 41. A urine gram stain shows gram-positie cocci in clusters.
production of indole? The organism tested catalase positive. To speciate this
a. Bromcresol purple organism from culture, the medical technologist
b. Cytochrome oxidase should perform a coagulase test and a/an:
c. Methyl red a. Novobiocin susceptibility
d. P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde b. Polymyxin B susceptibility
33. The minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) of an c. Oidase
antimicrobial agent is defined as the lowest d. Beta-lactamase
concentration of that antimicrobial agent that kills at
least of the original inoculums.

42. Which tests are most appropriate to differentiate Klebsiella pneumoniae --++
between pseudomonas aeruginosa and pseudomonas Klebsiella oxytoca +-++
putida? enterobacter spp. --++
a. Mannitol nitrate reduction, growth at 42C Serratia marcescens --++
b. Ocidase, ONPG, DNase Citrobacter freundii -+-+
Citrobacter koseri ++-+
c. Oxidase, motility, lactose
d. Oxidase, motility, pyoverdin
43. Which genera are positive for phenylalanine
HISTOPATHOLOGY QUIZ 29/30= 1 MISTAKE
deaminase?
1. Select all possible answer.
a. Morganella, providencia, proteus
Which of the following steps in histopath technique
b. Klebsiella and enterobacter
are integrated in the automated tissue processor?
c. Proteus, Escherichia, shigella
a. Embedding
d. Enterobacter, Escherichia, salmonella
b. Labeling
44. Streptococci are unable to synthesize which enzyme?
c. Impregnation
a. Lipase
d. Staining
b. Kinase
e. Dehydration
c. Hyaluronidase
f. Mounting
d. Catalase
g. Fixation
45. Clinical resistance to penicillin correlates most
h. Clearing
frequently with beta-lactamase production in:
2. What type of microtome integrated in cryostat?
a. Streptococcus agalactiae
a. Rocking
b. Streptococcus pyogenies
b. Sliding
c. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Rotary
d. Neisseria meningitides
d. Sledge
46. The beta-hemolysis produced by group A
3. Specimen in histopath
streptococcus seen on the surface of a sheep blood
agar plate is primarily the result of streptolysin
a. O Pleural fluid Cytopathology
b. S Breast nodule Cytopathology
c. M Prostatic secretion Cytopathology
d. H Bronchial washing Cytopathhology
47. The india ink stain is used as a presumptive test for the Lymph nodes Syrgical pathology
presence of which organism?
a. Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF
4. How many number of copies prepared per report?
b. Candida albicans in blood or body fluids
a. 2
c. Aspergillus niger in blood
b. 4
d. Histoplasma capsulatum in CSF
c. 3
48. Clavulanic acid is classified as a:
d. 1
a. Aminoglycoside
5. Select all that applies
b. Beta-lactamase inhibitor
Who is/are the signatories of the histopath and
c. Macrolide
cytopath official report?
d. Beta-lactam
a. Resident pathologist
49. A reliable test for distinguishing staphylococcus aures
b. Anatomic pathologist
from other staphylococci is
c. Histotechnologist
a. Oxidase
d. Medical technologist
b. Coagulase
6. What are the 2 most important patient identifier?
c. Optochin susceptibility
a. Gender
d. Catalase
b. Date and time of collection
50. The etiologic agent of the disease erysipelas is
c. Type of operation
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Patient name
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
e. Date of birth
c. Staphylococcus aures
f. Source of specimen
d. Streptobacillus moniliformis
7. Match the following: routine turn-over of the
51. Match the IMViC reactions of each organisms
histopath results
a. 24 hours
Escherichia coli ++--
Edwardsiella tarda ++-- b. 1 week
Proteus vulgaris ++-- c. 5 to 15 minutes

Surgical and cytology report A
Autopsy B
Frozen section C
8. What is the length of storage for tissue slides?

a. 1 year
b. 10 years
c. Indefinite
d. 3 years
9. What is the length of storage for tissue blocks?
16.
a. 3 to 10 years a. Microtome
b. 1 month b. Tissue processor
c. Indefinite c. Cryostat
d. 1 years d. Gross table
10. What is the length of storage for tissue specimen?
a. 1 month to 1 year
b. 1 week
c. 10 years
d. Indefinite
e. 3 years
11. The specimen container should be large enough to
distort the tissue specimen in the container
a. True
b. False
12. Make sure to label first the container prior putting the
tissue specimen in the pre-filled container with 10% 17.
neutral buffered formalin a. Cryostat
a. True b. Tissue processor
b. False c. Tissue oven
13. What is the most preferred and commonly used d. Freezing microtome
fixative for cytologic procedure? 18. What stain is used for routine surgical biopsy
a. Equal part of ether and alcohol a. Immunohistochemistry stain
b. Absolute alcohol b. Papanicolaou stain
c. 70% isopropyl alcohol c. Hematoxylin and eosin H&E stain
d. 95% ethyl alcohol d. Wright stain
14. The accession number is a unique code for the 19. Gynecological cytopathology is also known as ____?
specimen identification and must be used temporarily a. Pap’s cytology
and can be reused. b. Dilation and curettage
a. True c. Exfoliative cytology
b. False d. Vaginal scraping cytology
HISTOPATHOLOGY 51/75= 24 MISTAKES
1. What is the main reason when tissue smells of clearing

agent during trimming?
a. Incomplete dehydration
15. b. Overexposure to xylene
a. Tissue cassette c. Insufficient impregnation
b. Plastic paper boat d. Improper embedding
c. Tissue block 2. The medical technologist noticed that paraffin block
d. Embedding mold after cooling is moist and crumbled. What will be the
best remedy in this fault observed during section-
cutting?
a. Repeat clearing then re-embed
b. Repeat paraffin impregnation then re-
embed
c. Repeat the whole procedure

d. Re-embed only b. Tighten up the knife and block
3. What is the recommended temperature of the c. Increase knife clearance distance
floatation water bath when a medical technologist d. Re-embed in fresh wax
performs the precise positioning of tissue ribbon in the 11. A formalin-fixed tissue specimen was impregnated in
glass slide? paraffin heated at 65C. during microtomy, the tissue
a. 100C block is brittle and fails to form ribbon. The medical
b. 47C technologist should:
c. 37C a. Request for a recut of gross specmen
d. 56C b. Reprocess the tissue block
4. Which of the following types of hematoxylin stain is c. Repeat fixation using buffered formalin
recommended for progressive staining of tissues and d. Resharpen the knife
usually counterstained with eosin, congo red and 12. Deparaffinization involves the following steps EXCEPT:
safranin? a. Placing slide on hot plate
a. Ripened b. Slight heating of slide over alcohol lamp
b. Aluminum c. Dipping slide in several xylene solutions
c. Copper d. Placing slide in an oven at 60C
d. Iron 13. What will the medical technologist do when tissue
5. A formalin-fixed tissue sample shows yellowish shrinks away from wax when trimmed?
pigment upon microscopic examination. To prevent a. Repeat the whole procedure
occurrence of such deposit, one should: b. Re-embed in freshly filtered wax
a. Filter the formalin before use c. Change the knife
b. Add buffer to the formalin d. Repeat paraffin impregnation then re-
c. Use the stock concentrated form of embed
formalin as fixative 14. Van Gieson’s stain is the simplest method of
d. Dilute the formalin in absolute alcohol differential staining of collagen, what will be the color
6. Which of the following appearance of tissue is of the collagen or the fibrous connective tissue when
considered as a reference gauge for incomplete using this stain?
dehydration? a. Blue
a. Soft b. Brownish black
b. Milky c. Yellow
c. Brittle d. Pink or deep red
d. Hard 15. The presence of cloudiness in the xylene after
7. Which of the following refers to a process in tissue dehydration of tissues, indicates which of the
preparation wherein a clearing medium is completely following:
fill at the tissue cavities? a. Incomplete fixation of the tissue
a. Embedding b. Analytic grade xylene is not used
b. Clearing c. Incomplete removal of excess alcohol in
c. Dehydration tissue
d. Infiltration d. Incomplete dehydration of tissue
8. What is the ideal fixative recommended in most of the 16. Which of the following is the study of the methods
laboratories for cytological specimen? preparing the cells for microscopic examinations?
a. 95% ethyl alcohol a. Immunohistochemistry technique
b. 10% Neutral buffered formalin b. Cytochemistry technique
c. Equal parts of ethanol and ether c. Histologic technique
d. Methanol d. Cytologic technique
9. Which of the following is a regressive, indirect and 17. The science of interpretation of cells that are either
counter type of staining which provides an excellent exfoliated from epithelial surfaces or removed from
demonstration of the nucleus, and the cytoplasm is various tissues
rendered translucent? a. Histopathology
a. May Grunwald stain b. Immunocytochemistry
b. Diff quick stain c. Diagnostic anatomic pathology
c. Papanicolaou stain d. Diagnostic cytology
d. Giemsa Stain 18. A technique used to obtain material from organs that
10. When sectioning tissue blocks and the sections are do not shed cells spontaneously. It is valuable in
alternately thick and thin, the following can be done diagnosis of lesions of the breast, thyroid, lymph
EXCEPT nodes, liver, lungs, skin, soft tissues and bones.
a. Return block to ice for cooling a. Exfoliative cytology

b. Histopathology d. Chemical
c. Abrasive cytology 27. Fine needle aspiration biopsy smears are fixed using
d. Fine needle aspirate cytology ____:
19. The ideal fixative recommended in most of the a. 10% formalin
laboratories for cytological specimen. b. 70% isopropyl alcohol
a. 95% ethyl alcohol c. 100% methanol
b. 10% Neutral Buffered formalin d. 95% ethyl alcohol
c. 70% ethanol 28. Which of the following fixative agent is excellent for
d. Equal parts of ethanol and ether demonstration of glycogen?
20. Which of the following is the ideal method for fixing a. Orth’s fluid
gynecological and non-gynecological smears and any of b. Picric acid
the following alcohols can be used? c. Mollers
a. Wet fixative d. Bouins solution
b. AAF fixative 29. Which of the following fixative agent is generally
c. Special fixative recommended for demonstration of acid
d. Coating fixative mucopolysaccharides?
21. What is the minimum required time of fixation prior to a. Acetone
staining a cytological sample? b. Zerker’s fluid
a. 30 minutes c. Picric acid
b. 10 to 15 minutes d. Lead acetate
c. 60 minutes 30. Select all possible answer.
d. 5 to 10 minutes Which of the following steps in histopath technique
22. Which of the following methods that require fluid are integrated in the automated tissue processor?
samples with low cell content such as CSF and urine to a. Embedding
be centrifuged where the cells are sedimented directly b. Labeling
on the microslides? c. Impregnation
a. Microcentrifugation d. Staining
b. Cryocentrifugation e. Dehydration
c. Microspin f. Mounting
d. Cytocentrifugation g. Fixation
23. Which of the following study of cellular samples h. Clearing
obtained through a fine needle under negative 31. How many number of copies prepared per report?
pressure is relatively painless and inexpensive? a. 2
a. Frozen section b. 4
b. Fine needle aspirate cytology c. 3
c. Abrasive cytology d. 1
d. Exfoliative cytology 32. Select all that applies
24. Which of the following criteria is reliable indicator of Who is/are the signatories of the histopath and
malignancy? cytopath official report?
a. Poor histological differentiation a. Resident pathologist
b. Presence of high mitotic activity b. Anatomic pathologist
c. Evidence of distant metastases c. Histotechnologist
d. Absence of turnour capsule d. Medical technologist
25. Which of the following fixative is recommended for the 33. What are the 2 most important patient identifier?
study of early degenerative processes and tissue, a. Gender
necrosis, demonstrates Rickettsiae and other bacteria b. Date and time of collection
and preserves myelin better than buffered neutral c. Type of operation
formalin? d. Patient name
a. Orth’s fluid e. Date of birth
b. Bouin’s solution f. Source of specimen
c. Zerker’s fluid 34. Match the following: routine turn-over of the
d. Moller’s fluid histopath results
26. What is the most ideal method of determining the a. 24 hours
extent of decalcification? b. 1 week
a. Mechanical c. 5 to 15 minutes
b. Physical
c. Radiological Surgical and cytology report A

Autopsy B a. Bones
Frozen section c b. Muscles
c. Large brain sections
d. Teeth
35. What is the length of storage for tissue slides? 45. Which of the following is a correct pair of stain and its
a. 1 year purpose. Select all the applicable answers
b. 10 years
c. Indefinite Sudan black B Lipid
d. 3 years Acridine orange Nucleic acid
36. What is the length of storage for tissue blocks? Periodic acid Schiff Glycogen
a. 3 to 10 years Langhan iodine Lipid
b. 1 month Ninhydrine schiff Amino acid
c. Indefinite
d. 1 years
46. Which of the following is a correct pair of stain and its
37. What is the length of storage for tissue specimen?
purpose. Select all the applicable answers
a. 1 month to 1 year
b. 1 week
Warthin starry Spirochetes
c. 10 years
Grocott-gomori Leishmania
d. Indefinite
Orcein Hepatitis
e. 3 years Giensa Fungi
38. What stain is used for routine surgical biopsy? Auramine-rhodamine Mycobacteria
a. Hematoxylin and eosin H&E stain
b. Papanicolaou stain
c. Immunohistochemistry stain 47. Which of the following is a correct pair of stain and its
d. Wright stain purpose. Select all the applicable answers
39. Gynecological cytopathology is also known as ____
a. Dilation and curettage Pleural fluid Cytopathology
b. Pap’s cytology Appendix Surgical pathology
c. Vaginal scraping cytology Thyroid gland Surgical pathology
d. Exfoliative cytology Ascite Cytopathology
Lymph node excision Surgical pathology
40. The ideal ratio of dehydrating agent and tissue should
be ____
a. 5:1
48. Immunohistochemistry. Match the following according
b. 20:1
to its used/purposes
c. 10:1
d. 50:1
CD-3 T-CELL
41. The process of removal of dehydrating solutions, CD-20 b-cell
making the tissue components receptive to the CK-7 CALL
infiltrating medium is known as ____. CD-10 CALL
a. Embedding CD-45 LCA
b. Clearing
c. Fixation
d. Dehydration 49. Immunohistochemistry. Match the following according
42. Which among the following is NOT a clearing agent? to its used/purposes
a. Clove oil
b. Carbon tetrachloride Paracentesis Gallbladder
c. Methyl benzoate Thoracentesis Lung
Pericardiocentesis Pericardial effusion
d. Mineral oil
VATS Pleural effusion
43. What is the process in tissue preparation wherein a
ERCP Peritoneal effusion
clearing medium is completely removed from the
tissue and replaced by a medium that will completely
fill all the tissue cavities? BLOOD BANK 18/40= 22 MISTAKES
a. Dehydration
b. Clearing
c. Fixation 1. What type of blood should be given in an emergency
d. Impregnation transfusion?
44. All of the following tissues are ideally recommended to a. O Rh neg, Whole Blood
use wet celloidinn method for impregnation EXCEPT: b. O Rh neg, Packed RBC

c. O Rh pos, packed RBC 11. Which storage period and anticoagulant preservative
d. O Rh pos, Whole Blood system are incorrectly paired?
2. A positive DAT can be found in which of the following a. CPDA 35 days
situation? b. CPD 21 days
a. HDFN c. ACD 21 days
b. Weak D d. CP2D 35 days
c. Patient with Anti-K 12. Which of the following viral tests is not required of
d. Incompatible Crossmatch each unit of donated blood?
3. Platelets collected in a closed apheresis system have a a. HBsAg
shelf life of: b. Anti-HCV
a. 21 days c. Anti-HBs
b. 5 days d. Anti-HIV-1/2
c. 35 days 13.
d. 7 days
4. Whole blood and packed RBC units are stored at what FORWARD TYPING REVERSE
temperature TYPING
a. +OC- +4C Anti Anti Anti Anti Weak Weak A1 cells B
A B A1B D D D cells
b. +2C- +6C
anti control
c. +37C D
d. +20C- +24C 0 0 0 0 2+ 0 4+ 4+
5. Which of the following is the only serological test a. Group A Rh positive
which must be repeated by the transfusion service? b. Group A Rh negative
a. Antibody screen c. Group O Rh positive
b. RPR d. Group A weak
c. ABO O typing e. Group 0, weak
d. HIV f. Group O Rh negative
6. Which of the following would be cause for a 1 year 14. Which of the following samples s acceptable for pre-
deferral of the donor: transfusion testing?
a. Has malaria a. A sample labeled at the nursing station with
b. Received hepatitis B immune globulin the patient’s full name, hospital number,
c. Yellow fever vaccine date and initials of the phlebotomist
d. German measles vaccine b. A sample labeled at the patient’s bedside
7. A man or woman who has received drugs or money for with the date, patient’s full name, and the
sex is deferred: phlebotomist’s initials
a. Permanently c. A sample labeled in the hallway outside the
b. 12 months patient’s room with the patient’s full name,
c. 4 weeks hospital number, the date, and initials of
d. 2 weeks the phlebotomist
8. What is the dederral time for the medication d. A sample labedled at the patient’s bedside
Etretinate (Tegison) with the patient’s full name and the
a. 1 month hospital number and the date
b. 1 year e. A sample labeled at the patient’s bedside
c. 2 weeks with the patient’s full name and hospital
d. Permanent number
9. Which of the following correctly describes an 15. A qualitative test that distinguished Rh pos fetal cells
acceptable phlebotomy site: from Rh neg maternal cells?
a. Large firm vein in area free of lesion a. Rosette test
b. Small vein, easily accessible b. Kleihauer-Betke test
c. Small vein covered with a rash c. Acid elution test
d. Large firm vein with “track” marks 16. Blood preservative anticoagulant that prevents
10. An individual who has recently been diagnosed with caramelization?
syphilis is deferred for: a. Adenine
a. 2 weeks b. Dextrose
b. Permanently c. Citrate
c. 4 weeks d. Citric acid
d. 1 year

17. Group A donor red blood cells may be safely c. AB
transfused to a patient with no unexpected d. B
alloantibodies who is group AB because 26. Determine the best course of action based on the
a. The patient lacks anti-B information for potential whole blood allergeneic
b. The donor units lacks anti A donors. Indicate whether you would
c. The patient lacks anti A a. Accept
d. The patient has no unexpected red cell b. Temporarily defer
alloantibodies c. Permanently or indefinitely defer
18. Donor for whole blood is being recruited from a local
high school. Parenteral approval may be needed if the A 28 years old woman, 113 lbs;
student: hemoglobin 125g/dL; B
a. Has a fever miscarried 2 weeks ago
A 56 years old man; 168lbs;
b. Weights 120 lbs A
dematocrit 44%; pulse rate 66
c. Currently taking medications
An 18 years old female
d. Is 17 years old highschool student; taking C
19. A person who has received human pituitary growth tegison
hormone therapy is indefinitely deferred because of A 24 years old male received
the risk of___ tattoo while in the service 4 B
a. Viral hepatitis months ago
b. HTLV-III A 20 years old female, 90 lbs
receved human growth C
c. Cytomegalovirus
hormone
d. Creutzfield-Jacob disease
20. Whole blood or red cells collected and stored in
heparin solution shall have an expiration date of 27. Match the correct shelf life on the appropriate blood
a. 24 hours component. Shelf life can be used more than once.
b. 48 hours a. 35 days
c. 21 days b. 5 days
d. 35 days c. 10 years
21. Ratio of anticoagulant to blood in 450mL blood bag? d. 1 year
a. 1:9 e. 28 days
b. 1:7
c. 3:1 Frozen RBC C
d. 1:3 Irradiated RBC E
22. A donor with a physician’s request to donate for Packed RBC A
planned surgery in 3 weeks has a hemoglobin value of Fresh frozen plasma D
10g/dL. What is her eligibility status? Platelet apheresis B
a. Premitted to donate blood as an autologous
donor
28. Match the correct shelf life on the appropriate blood
b. Deferred because of low hemoglobin
component. Shelf life can be used more than once.
c. Permitted to donate with the approval of
a. 35 days
the blood bank’s medical director
b. 5 days
23. Interval of blood donation
c. 24 hours
a. 9 months
d. 10 year
b. 12 months
e. 28 days
c. 3 months
d. 6 months
Granulocyte concentrate C
24. Cryoprecipitate that has been pooled must be
Leukoreduced RBC A
transfused within___ hours
Whole blood A
a. 4 RBC aliquot (open system) C
b. 8 Platelet concentrate B
c. 6
d. 24
25. In RA 1517,, color coding of blood bags are used to IMMUNOLOGY SEROLOGY 17/25 8 MISTAKES
identify blood types, blue color coded blood bags are
designated for:
a. A 1. MATCHING TYPE
b. O a. SMOOTH, CLUMPY, SPECKLED

b. FINELY SPECKLED MBD 27.5/30=1 MISTAKES
c. FINE CYTOPLASMIC SPECKLED 1. Which is an example of proofreading enzyme
d. ATYPICAL SPECKLED a. Vent polymerase
e. COARSED SPECKLED b. Pfu polymerase
f. NOT DETECTED ON ROUTINE SCREEN c. Tth polymerase
g. HOMOGENOUS d. Taq polymerase
2. Who invented the Polymerase Chain Reaction
ANTI-DNP G a. Rossalind rankling
ANTI-SM E b. Karry mullis
ANTI-RNP E c. James Watson
ANTI-dsDNA G d. Francis crick
ANTI-ssDNA F
3. Which of the following dictates the part of the
ANTI-Jo-1 C
template that will be amplified?
ANTI-Scl-70 D
a. Amplicons
ANTI-SS-A/Ro B
ANTI-SS-B/La B b. Fragments
ANTINUCLEOLAR A c. Primers
d. Oligos
4. If one strand of the DNA molecule has the base
2. Acute hepatitis B sequence 5'-AAGG-3: What would be the sequence on
the other strand?
HBsAg + a. 3-TTCC-5
Total anti-HBc + b. 3-GCAT-5
IgM anti-HBc + c. 3-GGAA-5
Anti-HBs - d. 3-AAGG-5
5. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this
partial strand ATG TGA CAG?
3. CHRONIC HEPATITIS B/CARRIER
a. ATG TGA CAG
b. GTA AGT GAC
HBsAg +
Total anti HBc + c. CAT TCA CTG
IgM anti-HBc - d. TAC ACT GTC
Anti-HBs - 6. Which of the following DNA polymerase has a reverse
transcriptase ability and can be used in RT-PCR?
a. Ptu Polymerase
4. Hepatitis B immunization b. Tag Polymerase
c. Tth Polymerase
HBsAg - d. Vent Polymerase
Total anti HBc - 7. Which enzyme was derived from Thermococcus
IgM anti-HBc - litoralis?
Anti-HBs + a. Tth Polymerase
b. Pfu Polymerase
c. Tag Polymerase
5. Serological marker of hepatitis A
d. Vent Polymerase
a. All of the above
8. Which of the following can result to a nonspecific extra
b. Total anti-HAV
PCR products?
c. Anti-HAV IgM
a. High annealing temperatures
d. HAV RNA
b. Omission of MgCl2 from the PCR
6. Transmission of hepatitis B
c. High agarose gel concentrations
a. Perinatal
d. Misprinting
b. Parenteral
9. Which PCR modification can be used to detect SARS-
c. All of the choices
CoV-2, a microorganism with linear single-stranded
d. Sexual
RNA genome?
7. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is transmitted
a. qPCR
by fecal-oral route
b. Real-Time PCR
a. D
c. Mulbplex PCR
b. E
d. RT PCR
c. B
d. C

10. What do you call the step where the sample is heated undesired, non-specific duplexes or intramolecular
at 94-96C for several seconds to several minutes in hairpins, both of which reduce reaction efficiency.
order to produce a two single strands? a. True
a. Replication b. False
b. Extension 19. Taq polymerase is an enzyme used in PCR is derived
c. Denaturation from an organism Thermus aquaticus, this organism is
d. Annealing abundant in the environment that is why it is the most
11. What is the most critical step for the specificity of the commonly used in PCR reaction
PCR? a. True:
a. Denaturation b. False
b. Replication 20. Standard PCR reagents include a set of appropriate
c. Annealing primers for the desired target gene or DNA segment to
d. Extension be amplified, DNA polymerase, a buffer for the specific
12. How many copies of a target are made after 30 cycles DNA polymerase, deoxynucleotides (dNTPs), DNA
of PCR? template, and sterile water
a. 2^30 a. True
b. 30^2 b. False
c. 30/2 21. The probability that harm, Injury, or disease will occur.
d. 2× 30 a. Risk
13. This step enables the separation to happen by raising b. Throat
the temperature of the mixture causing the hydrogen c. Hazards
bonds between the complementary DNA strands to d. Consequence
break. 22. It means protecting bad bugs from bad people.
a. Extension a. Biohazard
b. No answer text provided, b. Biosafety
c. Annealing c. Biosecurity
d. Denaturation d. Biocontainment
14. A step in which Primers bind to the target DNA 23. The AMP Model is used for
sequences and initiate polymerization. This can only a. Biorisk Audit
occur once the temperature of the solution has been b. Biorisk Evaluation
lowered and one primer binds to each strand. c. Biorisk Management
a. No answer text provided d. Biorisk mitigation
b. Denaturation 24. What is the biosafety level requirement for
c. Extension laboratories handling SARS-CoV-2 specimens?
d. Annealing a. BSL2
15. In this step, the polymerase synthesizes a copy of the b. BSL 2 Plus
template DNA by adding nucleotides to the hybridized c. BSL4
primers d. BSL3
a. Annealing 25. The least effective mitigation control.
b. No answer text provided. a. Elimination
c. Extensions, b. Administrative
d. Denaturation c. PPE
16. Polymerase Chain Reaction or PCR is the only method d. Engineering control
scientist used to generate copies of genes for nucleic 26. Which is not a criteria for rejection of specimen for
acid analysis. Covid-19 confirmatory testing?
a. True a. Inappropriate transport or storage
b. False b. Leaking or broken container
17. PCR essentially duplicates the in vivo replication of c. Using Oropharyngeal swab only
DNA in vitro using the same components to replicate d. Unlabeled or illegibily fabeled specimen
DNA. The end product of this reaction is two copies of 27. Which is not included in the collection kit for COVID-19
double-stranded DNA. testing?
a. True a. Nasopharyngeal swab
b. False b. Applicator stick
18. The denaturation step in PCR is important because the c. Oropharyngeal swab
reaction temperature needs to be sufficiently low to d. Virus Transport Medium
allow both forward and reverse primers to bind to the
template. but not so low as to enable the formation of

28. These are actions and control measures that are put d. Stool
into place to reduce or eliminate the risk associated 7. Kato Katz technique can not be used on liquid, soft, or
with biological agents and toxins. diarrheic specimens.
a. Performance a. True
b. No answer text provided. b. False
c. Assessment 8. Which of the following may complete its life cycle
without leaving the host?
d. Mitigation
a. Necator americanus
29. Tongue should also be swabbed with OPS to increase
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
the yield of the virus.
c. Capillaria philippinensis
a. True
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. False 9. Approximately how many milligrams (mg) of stool
30. The specimens that cannot be transported sample is needed together with saline in mixing the
immediately to the testing site should be stored in an fecal suspension in DFS?
insulated box at room temperature. a. 4
a. True b. 8
b. False c. 6
d. 2
Hindi ko na mahanap ibang mali ko dito 10. Which of the following fecal samples are acceptable for
testing?
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY AND PARASTOLOGY a. Liquid fecal samples greater than 60 mins
1. Which of the following is the gold standard for the after passage before processing
determination of malarial parasites? b. Fecal samples collected in a clean but not in
a. Wet Blood Film Preparation a non-sterile container
b. Malarial Rapid Diagnostic Test c. Formed stools greater than 24 hours after
c. Thick and Thin Smear passage before processing or fixation
d. RT-PCR d. Fecal samples have presence of non-fecal
2. Within how many hours from passage should formed debris
stools be examined and./or preserved in sodium acetate- 11. Helminth eggs are generally observed in what stool
acetic acid formalin (SAF) fixative? consistency? CHOOSE ALL APPLICABLE ANSWER
a. 6 hours a. Formed only
b. 12 hours b. Watery only
c. 24 hours c. Formed or Mushy only
d. 4 hours d. Soft and Watery only
3. In FECT, 4 layers (from top to bottom) should result as 12. The iodine solution in DFS can be used as a temporary
follows: stain to demonstrate the parasite’s _____
a. Cytoplasm
1 - formalin b. Nuclei
2 - plug of debris c. Pseudopodia
3 - ethyl acetate d. Flagella
4 - sediment 13. What parasitic stage is most likely killed by prolonged
a. True refrigeration?
b. False a. Cyst
4. What parasitic stage is rapidly killed and is sometimes b. Ova
unidentifiable upon addition of iodine? c. Trophozoite
a. Trophozoite 14. Given the following observations, what is the manner
b. Ova of reporting for this reading?
c. Larva
d. Cyst 1 organism per 5 to 10 HPF
5. What stool color is observed that may signify bile duct Helminths with 1 egg/larva per 5 to 10 LPF
obstruction? a. Few
a. White b. Many
b. Yellow c. Rare
c. Black d. Moderate
d. Green 15. What is the recommended formalin concentration to
6. In the diagnosis of parasitic infestation, aside from preserve protozoan cyst?
stool, which of the following specimens are commonly a. 15%
utilized? b. 7%
a. CSF c. 3%
b. Urine d. 5%
c. Blood e. 10%

16. Massive uric acid crystals in a pediatric urine specimen d. Identification of microfilaria in the lymph
may indicate: fluid
a. Lesch-Nyhan disease 26. What color is observed in a positive copper reduction
b. Hartnup disease test?
c. Fanconi syndrome a. Green
d. Melituria b. Orange
17. What parameter is used to determine the possible c. Brown
specimen manipulation in drug testing? d. Black
a. Color 27. A pink precipitate found in an acid urine after
b. Temperature refrigeration indicates the presence of:
c. Specific Gravity a. RBC Casts
d. Volume b. Amorphous Urates
18. What is the primary component of urinary mucus? c. Intact RBCs
a. Bence Jones Protein d. Amorphous Phosphates
b. Orthostatic Protein 28. To identify an unknown fluid as urine, the specimen
c. Microalbumin should be tested for:
d. Tamm-Horsfall Protein a. Sodium and Chloride
19. Which chemical test helps to identify crystals in the b. Glucose and Protein
microscopic examination of urine? c. Urea and Creatinine
a. Specific Gravity d. Uric Acid and Chloride
b. Protein 29. What is the characteristic odor of urine in patients with
c. pH phenylketonuria?
d. Glucose a. Foul
20. The order of cast formation and degeneration is _____ b. Mousy
a. Hyaline, Cellular, Waxy, Granular c. Fruity
b. Cellular, Hyaline, Granular, Waxy d. Faintly Aromatic
c. Hyaline, Granular, Cellular, Waxy 30. Which of the following indicator dyes are present in the
d. Hyaline, Cellular, Granular, Waxy reaction area for pH?
21. Which of the following proportions is the correct a. Phenol Red and Thymol Blue
mixture of stool samples and preservatives? b. Methyl Red and Bromthymol Blue
a. 1 part preservative to 2 parts stool c. Methyl Orange and Bromthymol Blue
b. 1 part stool to 1 part preservative d. Phenolphthalein and Litmus
c. 1 part preservative to 3 parts stool 31. What should be done if the pH of a urine specimen is
d. 1 part stool to 2 parts preservative found to be 9.0?
e. 1 part stool to 3 parts preservative a. Request a new specimen
22. What is the recommended formalin concentration to b. Report the reagent strip results
preserve Helminth eggs? c. Correlate pH with the results for protein and
a. 4% SG
b. 15% d. A table of answers and a brief statistics
c. 10% regarding student answer choices
d. 3% 32. The reagent strip test for nitrite in urine is based on:
e. 5% a. Diazo Reaction
23. In DFS, what power objective is used to examine the b. Nitroprusside Reaction
fecal suspension systematically? c. Ehrlich’s Reaction
a. 1000x objective d. Griess Reaction
b. 100x objective 33. Which of the following crystals may be dissolved by
c. 40x objective addition of warm saline or dilute NaOH?
d. 10x objective a. Amorphous Urates
24. In FECT, instead of formalin, 155 hydrochloric acid b. Triple Phosphate
may be used, and the procedure of which is referred to c. Amorphous Phosphates
as acid-ether concentration. d. Ammonium Biurate
a. True 34. What type of urine specimen accompanies serum or
b. False plasma in routine GFR evaluation?
25. Which of the following methods will give a definitive a. First Morning
diagnosis of filariasis? b. Midstream Clean Catch
a. Identification of microfilariae in peripheral c. 24 Hour Collection
blood thick smear d. 2 Hour Postprandial
b. Detection of microfilaria antigen in lymph 35. Which of the following preservatives is preferred for
fluid drug analysis?
c. Detection of adult filarial worms in a. Boric Acid
subcutaneous tissue biopsy b. Toluene

c. Formalin c. Clear yellow urine that changes color upon
d. Sodium Fluoride standing
36. Test for protein in urine was performed using both d. Freshly voided urine that is brown and clear
reagent strip and sulfosalicylic acid (SSA). The reagent 45. Unpreserved specimens remaining at room temperature
strip yields a negative result, whereas a reading of 2+ is until afternoon shift can be expected to have:
seen using SSA. Which of the following statements best
explains this difference? 1 - Decreased glucose and ketones
a. The buffering capacity of the reagent strip 2 - Decreased pH and turbidity
was exceeded, thus causing a false-negative 3 - Increased bacteria and nitrite
reaction 4 - Increased cellular elements
b. A protein other than albumin must be a. 2 and 4
present in the urine b. 1, 2, and 3
c. Urine contains large amount of amorphous c. 1 and 3
urates that caused the turbidity seen with d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
SSA 46. Match the following stool preservative to its use:
d. The reading time of the reagent test was ***PADOUBLE CHECK PLEASE :)))))
exceeded causing a false-negative reaction Formalin
37. The principle of the reagent strip test for glucose is the: Schaudinn Solution
a. Dye binding of glucose and chromogen Polyvinyl Alcohol
b. Griess’ reaction Merthiolate-Iodine-Formalin
c. Double sequential enzyme enzyme reaction Sodium Acetate-Acetic Acid
d. Copper reduction a. Formalin: is an all-purpose fixative, may be
38. What type of urine specimen is used in creatinine buffered with sodium phosphate to preserve
clearance test? the morphological characteristics of the
a. Random organisms
b. 24-hour Urine b. Schaudinn Solution: is used to preserve
c. 1st Hour Urine fresh stool in preparation for staining the
d. 2nd Morning stool smears, contains mercuric chloride
39. The leukocyte esterase test is sensitive to 2 to 3 c. Merthiolate-Iodine-Formalin: useful for the
WBC/HPO fixation of intestinal protozoans, helminth
a. True eggs, and larva, contains thimerosal
b. False d. Sodium Acetate-Acetic Acid: has the
40. Urine that turns black after standing contains _____ advantage of not containing a highly toxic
a. Homogentisic Acid substance, a liquid fixative with a long shelf-
b. Bilirubin life
c. Urobilinogen
d. Myoglobin
41. Which of the following specimens can be used for
porphyrin testing? SELECT ALL APPLICABLE
ANSWERS
a. Feces
b. Urine
c. Plasma
d. Whole Blood
42. What is the most commonly encountered pathologic
cause of turbidity in urine?
a. Bacteria
b. Amorphous Phosphates
c. Amorphous Urates
d. Spermatozoa
43. The best preservative for urinary protein as well as for
bacterial culture and sensitivity is _____
a. Boric Acid
b. Thymol
c. Sodium Fluoride
d. Formalin
44. Which of the following is considered normal?
a. Clear yellow urine that becomes cloudy
upon refrigeration
b. Freshly voided urine that is yellow and
cloudy

1. Insufficient centrifugation will result in: B. 3.36 × 1012/L
A. A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value C. 4.47 × 1012/L
B. A false decrease in Hct value D. 6.66 × 1012/L
C. No effect on Hct value 11. 11. What phagocytic cells produce lysozymes that are
D. All of these options, depending on the bacteriocidal?
patient A. Eosinophils
2. Variation in red cell size observed on the peripheral B. Lymphocytes
smear is described as: C. Platelets
A. Anisocytosis D. Neutrophils
B. Hypochromia 12. 12. If a patient has a reticulocyte count of 7% and an
C. Poikilocytosis Hct of 20%, what is the corrected reticulocyte count?
D. Pleocytosis (retic count*hct)/45
3. Which of the following is the preferable site for bone A. 1.4%
marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult? B. 3.1%
A. Iliac crest C. 3.5%
B. Sternum D. 14%
C. Tibia 13. 13. A decreased osmotic fragility test would be
D. Spinous processes of a vertebra associated with which of the following conditions?
4. Mean cell volume (MCV) is calculated using the A. Sickle cell anemia
following formula: B. Hereditary spherocytosis
A. A. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 10 C. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
B. B. (Hct ÷ RBC) × 10 D. Acquired hemolytic anemia
C. C. (Hct ÷ Hgb) × 100 14. 14. What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on
D. D. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 100 a Wright’s-stained smear?
5. What term describes the change in shape of A. Red cells would be stained too pink
erythrocytes seen on a Wright’s-stained peripheral B. White cell cytoplasm would be stained too
blood smear? blue
A. Poikilocytosis C. Red cells would be stained too blue
B. Anisocytosis D. Red cells would lyse on the slide
C. Hypochromia 15. 15. Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can
D. Polychromasia be visualized with supravital stain but CANNOT be
6. 6. Calculate the mean cell hemoglobin concentration detected on a Wright’s-stained blood smear?
(MCHC) using the following values: Hgb: 15 g/dL (150 A. Basophilic stippling
g/L) Hct: 47 mL/dL (0.47) RBC: 4.50 × 106/μL (4.50 × B. Heinz bodies
1012/L)[(hgb/hct)*100] C. Howell–Jolly bodies
A. 9.5% (.095) D. Siderotic granules
B. 10.4% (.104) 16. 16. A falsely elevated Hct is obtained. Which of the
C. 31.9% (.319) following calculated values will not be affected?
D. 33.3% (.333) A. MCV
7. 7. A manual white blood cell (WBC) count was B. MCH
performed. A total of 36 cells were counted in all 9- C. MCHC
mm2 squares of a Neubauer-ruled hemacytometer. A D. Red cell distribution width (RDW)
1:10 dilution was used. What is the WBC count? 17. 17. A Miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate
A. 0.4 × 109/L counting of:
B. 2.5 × 109/L A. Platelets
C. 4.0 × 109/L B. Reticulocytes
D. 8.0 × 109/L C. Sickle cells
8. 8. When an erythrocyte containing iron granules is D. Nucleated red blood cells (NRBCs)
stained with Prussian blue, the cell is called a: 18. SITUATION: RBC indices obtained on an anemic patient
A. Spherocyte are as follows: MCV 88 μm3 (fL); MCH 30 pg; MCHC
B. Leptocyte 34% (.340). The RBCs on the peripheral smear would
C. Schistocyte appear:
D. Siderocyte A. Microcytic, hypochromic
9. 9. A 7.0-mL ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) B. Microcytic, normochromic
tube is received in the laboratory containing only 2.0 C. Normocytic, normochromic
mL of blood. If the laboratory is using manual D. Normocytic, hypochromic
techniques, which of the following tests will most likely 19. All of the following factors may influence the
be erroneous? erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) except:
A. RBC count A. Blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube
B. Hemoglobin (Hgb) B. Anisocytosis, poikilocytosis
C. Hct C. Plasma proteins
D. WBC count D. Caliber of the tube
10. 10. A 1:200 dilution of a patient’s sample was made 20. What staining method is used most frequently to stain
and 336 red cells were counted in an area of 0.2 mm2. and manually count reticulocytes?
What is the RBC count? (rbc*area) A. Immunofluorescence
A. 1.68 × 1012/L B. Supravital staining
C. Romanowsky staining C. 11–15 years
D. Cytochemical staining D. 40–60 years
21. The Coulter principle for counting of cells is based 31. Which of the following results on an automated
upon the fact that: differential suggests that a peripheral smear should be
A. Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better reviewed manually?
than cells do A. Segs = 70%
B. Conductivity varies proportionally to the B. Band = 6%
number of cells C. Mono = 15%
C. Cells conduct electricity better than saline D. Eos = 2%
does 32. Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in
D. Isotonic solutions cannot conduct electricity which the cytoplasm is pink due to the formation of
22. A correction is necessary for WBC counts when hemoglobin?
nucleated RBCs are seen on the peripheral smear A. Reticulocyte
because: B. Pronormoblast
A. The WBC count would be falsely lower C. Basophilic normoblast
B. The RBC count is too low D. Polychromatic normoblast
C. Nucleated RBCs are counted as leukocytes 33. Which of the following can shift the hemoglobin
D. Nucleated RBCs are confused with giant oxygen dissociation curve to the right?
platelets A. Increases in 2,3 DPG
23. Using an electronic cell counter analyzer, an increased B. Acidosis
RDW should correlate with: C. Hypoxia
A. Spherocytosis D. All of these options
B. Anisocytosis 34. Which of the following Hgb configurations is
C. Leukocytosis characteristic of Hgb H?
D. Presence of NRBCs A. γ4
24. Given the following values, which set of red blood cell B. α2-γ2
indices suggests spherocytosis? C. β4
A. MCV 76 μm3 MCH 19.9 pg MCHC 28.5% D. α2-β2
B. MCV 90 μm3 MCH 30.5 pg MCHC 32.5% 35. Autoagglutination of red cells at room temperature
C. MCV 80 μm3 MCH 36.5 pg MCHC 39.0% can cause which of the following abnormal test
D. MCV 81 μm3 MCH 29.0 pg MCHC 34.8% results?
25. Which of the following statistical terms reflects the A. Low RBC count
best index of precision when comparing two CBC B. High MCV
parameters? C. Low hematocrit
A. Mean D. All of these options
B. Median
C. Coefficient of variation NORMOCYTIC AND NORMOCHROMIC ANEMIA
D. Standard deviation
26. Which of the following is considered a normal 1. Hypersplenism is characterized by:
hemoglobin? A. Polycythemia
A. Carboxyhemoglobin B. Pancytosis
B. Methemoglobin C. Leukopenia
C. Sulfhemoglobin D. Myelodysplasia
D. Deoxyhemoglobin 2. Which of the following organs is responsible for the “pitting
27. Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin process” for RBCs?
dissociation curve to the right? A. Liver
A. Acidosis B. Spleen
B. Alkalosis C. Kidney
C. Multiple blood transfusions D. Lymph nodes
D. Increased quantities of hemoglobin S or C 3. Spherocytes differ from normal red cells in all of the
28. What is the major type of leukocyte seen in the following except:
peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia? A. Decreased surface to volume
A. Segmented neutrophil B. No central pallor
B. Lymphocyte C. Decreased resistance to hypotonic saline
C. Monocyte D. Increased deformability
D. Eosinophil 4. Which of the following is not associated with hereditary
29. What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte spherocytosis?
percentage (range) in the adult population? A. Increased osmotic fragility
A. 5%–10% B. An MCHC greater than 36%
B. 10%–20% C. Intravascular hemolysis
C. 20%–44% D. Extravascular hemolysis
D. 50%–70% 5. Which of the following disorders has an increase in osmotic
30. In which age group would 60% lymphocytes be a fragility?
normal finding? A. Iron deficiency anemia
A. 6 months–2 years B. Hereditary elliptocytosis
B. 4–6 years C. Hereditary stomatocytosis
D. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Hereditary spherocytosis (HS)
6. The anemia seen in sickle cell disease is usually: C. Pyruvate kinase (PK) deficiency
A. Microcytic, normochromic D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
B. Microcytic, hypochromic 16. Which antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold
C. Normocytic, normochromic hemoglobinuria (PCH)?
D. Normocytic, hypochromic A. Anti-I
7. Which is the major Hgb found in the RBCs of patients with B. Anti-i
sickle cell (anemia) trait? C. Anti-M
A. Hgb S D. Anti-P
17. All of the following are associated with intravascular
B. Hgb F
hemolysis except:
C. Hgb A2 A. Methemoglobinemia
D. Hgb A B. Hemoglobinuria
8. 8. Select the amino acid substitution that is responsible for C. Hemoglobinemia
sickle cell anemia. VG6B D. Decreased haptoglobin
A. Lysine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth 18. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is best characterized by
position of the α-chain which of the following?
B. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth A. Increased levels of plasma C3
position of the β-chain B. Spherocytic red cells
C. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth C. Decreased osmotic fragility
position of the α-chain D. Decreased unconjugated bilirubin
D. Glutamine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth 19. “Bite cells”4 are usually seen in patients with:
position of the β-chain A. Rh null trait
9. All of the following are usually found in Hgb C disease B. Chronic granulomatous disease
except: C. G6PD deficiency 4
A. Hgb C crystals D. PK deficiency
B. Target cells 20. The morphological classification of anemias is based on
C. Lysine substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth which of the following?
position of the β–chain A. M:E (myeloid:erythroid) ratio
D. Fast mobility of Hgb C at pH 8.6 (dapat slow kaya C kasi B. Prussian blue stain
lagi last) C. RBC indices
10. Which of the following hemoglobins migrates to the same D. Reticulocyte count
position as Hgb A2 at pH 8.6? 21. Which of the following is a common finding in aplastic
A. Hgb H anemia? AA
B. Hgb F A. A monoclonal disorder AMD
C. Hgb C B. Tumor infiltration TI
D. Hgb S C. Peripheral blood pancytopenia PbP
11. Which of the following electrophoretic results is consistent D. Defective DNA synthesis DDA
with a diagnosis of sickle cell trait? 22. Congenital dyserythropoietic anemias (CDAs) are
A. Hgb A: 40% Hgb S: 35% Hgb F: 5%=80 characterized by:
B. Hgb A: 60% Hgb S: 40% Hgb A2: 2% =102 A. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts
C. Hgb A: 0% Hgb A2: 5% Hgb F: 95% =100 B. Cytogenetic disorders
D. Hgb A: 80% Hgb S: 10% Hgb A2: 10% =100 C. Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
12. In which of the following conditions will autosplenectomy D. An elevated M:E ratio
most likely occur? 23. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by:
A. Thalassemia major A. Target cells and Cabot rings
B. Hgb C disease B. Toxic granulation and Döhle bodies
C. Hgb SC disease C. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stippling
D. Sickle cell disease D. Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs
13. Which of the following is most true of paroxysmal nocturnal 24. Which antibiotic(s) is (are) most often implicated in the
hemoglobinuria (PNH)? development of aplastic anemia?
A. It is a rare acquired stem cell disorder that results in A. Sulfonamides
hemolysis B. Penicillin
B. It is inherited as a sex-linked trait C. Tetracycline
C. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait D. Chloramphenicol
D. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait 25. Sickle cell disorders are:
14. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is characterized by all of A. Hereditary, intracorpuscular RBC defects
the following except: B. Hereditary, extracorpuscular RBC defects
A. Hemorrhage C. Acquired, intracorpuscular RBC defects
B. Thrombocytopenia D. Acquired, extracorpuscular RBC defects
C. Hemoglobinuria 26. Which of the following conditions may produce spherocytes
D. Reticulocytopenia in a peripheral smear?
15. An autohemolysis test is positive in all the following A. Pelger–Huët anomaly
conditions except: B. Pernicious anemia
A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
deficiency D. Sideroblastic anemia
27. A patient’s peripheral smear reveals numerous NRBCs, D. Decreased plasma iron, increased % saturation,
marked variation of red cell morphology, and pronounced
decreased TIBC
polychromasia. In addition to a decreased Hgb and
decreased Hct values, what other CBC parameters may be 6. Storage iron is usually best determined by:
anticipated? A. Serum transferrin levels
A. Reduced platelets B. Hgb values
B. Increased MCHC C. Myoglobin values
C. Increased MCV
D. Serum ferritin levels
D. Decreased red-cell distribution width (RDW)
28. What red cell inclusion may be seen in the peripheral blood 7. All of the following are associated with sideroblastic anemia
smear of a patient postsplenectomy? except:
A. Toxic granulation A. Increased serum iron
B. Howell–Jolly bodies
B. Ringed sideroblasts
C. Malarial parasites
D. Siderotic granules C. Dimorphic blood picture
29. Reticulocytosis usually indicates: D. Increased RBC protoporphyrin
A. Response to inflammation 8. What is the basic hematological defect seen in patients with
B. Neoplastic process
thalassemia major?
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Red cell regeneration A. DNA synthetic defect
30. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis (HP) is a red cell membrane B. Hgb structure
defect characterized by: C. β-Chain synthesis
A. Increased pencil-shaped cells D. Hgb phosphorylation
B. Increased oval macrocytes
9. Which of the following is the primary Hgb in patients with
C. Misshapen budding fragmented cells
D. Bite cells thalassemia major?
HYPOCHROMIC AND MICROCYTIC ANEMIA A. Hgb D
B. Hgb A
1. The osmotic fragility test result in a patient with thalassemia C. Hgb C
major would most likely be: D. Hgb F
A. Increased 10. A patient has an Hct of 30%, a hemoglobin of 8 g/dL, and an
B. Decreased RBC count of 4.0 × 1012/L. What is the morphological
C. Normal classification of this anemia?
D. Decreased after incubation at 37°C A. Normocytic normochromic
2. All of the following are characteristic findings in a patient B. Macrocytic hypochromic
with iron deficiency anemia except: C. Microcytic hypochromic
A. Microcytic, hypochromic red cell morphology D. Normocytic hyperchromic
B. Decreased serum iron and ferritin levels 11. In which of the following conditions is Hgb A2 elevated?
C. Decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) A. Hgb H
D. Increased RBC protoporphyrin B. Hgb SC disease
3. Iron deficiency anemia may be distinguished from anemia of C. β-Thalassemia minor
chronic infection by: D. Hgb S trait
A. Serum iron level 12. Which of the following parameters may be similar for the
B. Red cell morphology anemia of inflammation and iron deficiency anemia?
C. Red cell indices A. Normocytic indices
D. Total iron-binding capacity B. Decreased serum iron concentration
4. Which anemia has red cell morphology similar to that seen C. Ringed sideroblasts
in iron deficiency anemia? D. Pappenheimer bodies
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia syndrome MACROCYTIC AND NORMOCYTIC ANEMIA
C. Pernicious anemia
1. Which morphological classification is characteristic of
D. Hereditary spherocytosis megaloblastic anemia?
5. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by: A. Normocytic, normochromic
A. Decreased plasma iron, decreased % saturation, B. Microcytic, normochromic
increased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) C. Macrocytic, hypochromic
D. Macrocytic, normochromic
B. Decreased plasma iron, decreased plasma
2. Which anemia is characterized by a lack of intrinsic
ferritin, normal RBC porphyrin factor that prevents B12 absorption?
C. Decreased plasma iron, decreased % saturation, A. Tropical sprue
decreased TIBC B. Transcobalamin deficiency
C. Blind loop syndrome B. Dactylitis
D. Pernicious anemia C. Hemolytic anemia
3. All of the following are characteristics of megaloblastic D. Giant platelets
anemia except: 2. In a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
A. Pancytopenia infection, one should expect to see:
B. Elevated reticulocyte count A. Shift to the left in WBCs
C. Hypersegmented neutrophils B. Target cells
D. Macrocytic erythrocyte indices C. Reactive lymphocytes
4. 4. A patient with a vitamin B12 anemia is given a high D. Pelgeroid cells
dosage of folate. Which of the following is expected as 3. Which inclusions may be seen in leukocytes?
a result of this treatment? A. Döhle bodies
A. An improvement in neurological problems B. Basophilic stippling
B. An improvement in hematological C. Malarial parasites
abnormalities D. Howell–Jolly bodies
C. No expected improvement 4. Which of the following is contained in the primary
D. Toxicity of the liver and kidneys granules of the neutrophil?
5. 5. Which of the following disorders is associated with A. Lactoferrin
ineffective erythropoiesis? B. Myeloperoxidase
A. G6PD deficiency C. Histamine
B. Liver disease D. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Hgb C disease 5. What is the typical range of relative lymphocyte
D. Megaloblastic anemia percentage in the peripheral blood smear of a 1-year-
6. 6. A 50-year-old patient is suffering from pernicious old child?
anemia. Which of the following laboratory data are A. 1%–6%
most likely for this patient? B. 27%–33%
A. RBC = 2.5 × 1012/L; WBC =12,500/μL (12.5 × C. 35%–58%
109/L); PLT = 250,000/μL (250 × 109/L) D. 50%–70%
B. RBC = 4.5 × 1012/L; WBC = 6,500/μL (6.5 × 6. Qualitative and quantitative neutrophil changes noted
109/L); PLT = 150,000/μL (150 × 109/L) in response to infection include all of the following
C. RBC = 3.0 × 1012/L; WBC = 5,000/μL (5.0 × except:
109/L); PLT = 750,000/μL (750 × 109/L) A. Neutrophilia
D. RBC = 2.5 × 1012/L; WBC = 2,500/μL (2.5 × B. Pelgeroid hyposegmentation
109/L); PLT = 50,000/μL (50 × 109/L) C. Toxic granulation
7. 7. Which of the following may be seen in the D. Vacuolization
peripheral blood smear of a patient with obstructive 7. Neutropenia is present in patients with which absolute
liver disease? neutrophil counts?
A. Schistocytes A. <1.5 × 109/L
B. Macrocytes B. <5.0 × 109/L
C. Howell–Jolly bodies C. <10.0 × 109/L
D. Microcytes D. <15.0 × 109/L
8. 8. The macrocytes typically seen in megaloblastic 8. The morphological characteristic(s) associated with the
processes are: Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is (are):
A. Crescent-shaped A. Pale blue cytoplasmic inclusions
B. Teardrop-shaped B. Giant lysosomal granules
C. Ovalocytic C. Small, dark-staining granules and
D. Pencil-shaped condensed nuclei
9. 9. Which of the following are most characteristic of the D. Nuclear hyposegmentation
red cell indices associated with megaloblastic anemias? 9. The familial condition of Pelger–Huët anomaly is
A. MCV 99 fl, MCH 28 pg, MCHC 31% important to recognize because this disorder must be
B. MCV 62 fL, MCH 27 pg, MCHC 30% differentiated from:
C. MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34% A. Infectious mononucleosis
D. MCV 78 fL, MCH 23 pg, MCHC 30% B. May–Hegglin anomaly
10. 10. A patient has 80 nucleated red blood cells per 100 C. A shift-to-the-left increase in immature
leukocytes. In addition to increased polychromasia on granulocytes
the peripheral smear, what other finding may be D. G6PD deficiency
present on the CBC? 10. SITUATION: A differential shows reactive lymphocytes,
A. Increased platelets and the physician suspects a viral infection is the
B. Increased MCV cause. What is the expected laboratory finding in a
C. Increased Hct patient with a cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection?
D. Increased red blood cell count A. Heterophile antibody: positive
B. Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) immunoglobulin
QUALITATIVE AND QUANTITATIVE WBC DISORDER (IgM): positive
C. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT): positive
1. Which of the following is an unusual complication that D. CMV–IgM: positive
may occur in infectious mononucleosis? 11. Neutrophil phagocytosis and particle ingestion are
A. Splenic infarctions associated with an increase in oxygen utilization called
respiratory burst. What are the two most important D. Acute monocytic leukemia
products of this biochemical reaction? 8. 8. An M:E ratio of 10:1 is most often seen in:
A. Hydrogen peroxide and superoxide anion A. Thalassemia 11
B. Lactoferrin and NADPH oxidase B. Leukemia 9
C. Cytochrome b and collagenase C. Polycythemia vera
D. Alkaline phosphatase and ascorbic acid D. Myelofibrosis 13
12. Which of the morphological findings are characteristic 9. 9. Which of the following is a characteristic of Auer
of reactive lymphocytes? rods?
A. High nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio A. They are composed of azurophilic granules
B. Prominent nucleoli B. They stain periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)
C. Basophilic cytoplasm positive
D. All of these options C. They are predominantly seen in chronic
myelogenous leukemia (CML)
ACUTE LEUKEMIA D. They are nonspecific esterase positive
1. Auer rods may be seen in all of the following except: 10. 10. SITUATION: The following laboratory values are
A. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (M4) seen:
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
C. Acute myeloid leukemia without
maturation (M1)
D. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)
2. Which type of anemia is usually present in a patient
with acute leukemia? -, -
A. Microcytic, hyperchromic
B. Microcytic, hypochromic These results are most characteristic of:
C. Normocytic, normochromic Wbc 6.0; rbc 1.90
D. Macrocytic, normochromic A. Pernicious anemia
3. In leukemia, which term describes a peripheral blood B. Acute myeloid leukemia without
finding of leukocytosis with a shift to the left, maturation
accompanied by nucleated red cells? C. Acute erythroid leukemia
A. Myelophthisis D. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
B. Dysplasia 11. 11. A 24-year-old man with Down syndrome presents
C. Leukoerythroblastosis with a fever, pallor, lymphadenopathy, and
D. Megaloblastosis hepatosplenomegaly. His CBC results are as follows:
4. 4. The basic pathophysiological mechanisms
responsible for producing signs and symptoms in
leukemia include all of the following except:
A. Replacement of normal marrow precursors
by leukemic cells causing anemia WBC
B. Decrease in functional leukocytes causing
infection WBC These findings are suggestive of:
C. Hemorrhage secondary to WBC 10.8
thrombocytopenia PLT A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. Decreased erythropoietin production RBC B. Myeloproliferative disorder
5. 5. Which type of acute myeloid leukemia is called the C. Leukemoid reaction
true monocytic leukemia and follows an acute or D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
subacute course characterized by monoblasts, 12. 12. SITUATION: A peripheral smear shows 75% blasts.
promonocytes, and monocytes? These stain positive for both Sudan Black B (SBB) and
A. Acute myeloid leukemia, minimally peroxidase. Given these values, which of the following
differentiated disorders is most likely?
B. Acute myeloid leukemia without A. Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)
maturation B. CML
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia C. Acute undifferentiated leukemia (AUL)
D. Acute monocytic leukemia D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
6. 6. In which age group does acute lymphoblastic 13. 13. In myeloid cells, the stain that selectively identifies
leukemia occur with the highest frequency? phospholipid in the membranes of both primary and
A. 1–15 years secondary granules is:
B. 20–35 years A. PAS
C. 45–60 years B. Myeloperoxidase
D. 60–75 years C. Sudan Black B stain
7. 7. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most D. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
often associated with which of the following types of 14. 14. Sodium fluoride may be added to the naphthyl ASD
acute leukemia? DIC ni APL acetate (NASDA) esterase reaction. The fluoride is
A. Acute myeloid leukemia without added to inhibit a positive reaction with:
maturation A. Megakaryocytes
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia APL B. Monocytes
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia C. Erythrocytes
D. Granulocytes B. AML with mixed lineage
15. 15. Leukemic lymphoblasts reacting with anti-CALLA C. AML with t(8;21)
are characteristically seen in: D. AML with inv(16)
A. B-cell ALL 24. 24. What would be the most likely classification by the
B. T-cell ALL WHO for the FAB AML M7 by the French–American–
C. Null-cell ALL British classification?
D. Common ALL A. Acute myeloid leukemias with recurrent
16. 16. Which of the following reactions are often positive genetic abnormalities
in ALL but are negative in AML? B. Acute myeloid leukemia with multilineage
A. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase and dysplasia
PAS C. Acute myeloid leukemia not otherwise
B. Chloroacetate esterase and nonspecific categorized
esterase D. Acute leukemias of ambiguous lineage
C. Sudan Black B and peroxidase
D. New methylene blue and acid phosphatase LYMPHOPROLIFERATVE AND MYELOPROLIERATIVE DISORDER
17. 17. A patient’s peripheral blood smear and bone
marrow both show 70% blasts. These cells are negative 1. Repeated phlebotomy in patients with polycythemia
for Sudan Black B stain. Given these data, which of the vera (PV) may lead to the development of:
following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Folic acid deficiency
A. Acute myeloid leukemia B. Sideroblastic anemia
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia C. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia D. Hemolytic anemia
D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia 2. In essential thrombocythemia, the platelets are:
18. 18. Which of the following leukemias are included in A. Increased in number and functionally
the 2008 World Health Organization classification of abnormal
myeloproliferative neoplasms? C MEN L B. Normal in number and functionally
A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) abnormal
B. Chronic neutrophilic leukemia (CNL) C. Decreased in number and functional
C. Chronic eosinophilic leukemia (CEL) D. Decreased in number and functionally
D. All of these options are classified as abnormal
myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) Hematology/Evaluate laboratory data to
19. 19. In addition to morphology, cytochemistry, and
recognize health and disease
immunophenotyping, the WHO classification of myelo-
and lymphoproliferative disorders is based upon which states/CBCs/Platelets/2
characteristic? 3. Which of the following cells is considered
A. Proteomics pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s disease?
B. Cytogenetic abnormalities A. Niemann–Pick cells
C. Carbohydrate-associated tumor antigen B. Reactive lymphocytes
production C. Flame cells
D. Cell signaling and adhesion markers D. Reed–Sternberg cells
20. 20. The WHO classification requires what percentage 4. In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red blood
for the blast count in the blood or bone marrow for cell morphology is that of:
the diagnosis of AML? A. Target cells
A. At least 30% B. Schistocytes
B. At least 20% C. Teardrop cells
C. At least 10% D. Ovalocytes
D. Any percentage 5. PV polycythemia vera is characterized by:
21. 21. What would be the most likely designation by the A. Increased plasma volume
WHO for the FAB AML M2 by the French–American– B. Pancytopenia
British classification? C. Decreased oxygen saturation
A. AML with t(15;17) D. Absolute increase in total red cell mass
B. AML with mixed lineage 6. Features of secondary polycythemia include all of the
C. AML with t(8;21) following except:
D. AML with inv(16) A. Splenomegaly
22. 22. What would be the most likely designation by the B. Decreased oxygen saturation
WHO for the FAB AML M3 by the French–American– C. Increased red cell mass
British classification? D. Increased erythropoietin
A. AML with t(15;17) 7. The erythrocytosis seen in relative polycythemia
B. AML with mixed lineage occurs because of:
C. AML with t(8;21) A. Decreased arterial oxygen saturation
D. AML with inv(16) B. Decreased plasma volume of circulating
23. 23. Which AML cytogenetic abnormality is associated blood
with acute myelomonocytic leukemia with marrow C. Increased erythropoietin levels
eosinophilia under the WHO classification of AML with D. Increased erythropoiesis in the bone
recurrent genetic abnormalities? marrow
A. AML with t(15;17) 8. In PV, what is characteristically seen in the peripheral
blood? except:
A. Panmyelosis A. Monoclonal gammopathy
B. Pancytosis B. Hyperviscosity of the blood
C. Pancytopenia C. Bence–Jones protein in the urine
D. Panhyperplasia D. Osteolytic lesions
9. The leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain on a 18. What is the characteristic finding seen in the
patient gives the following results peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma?
A. Microcytic hypochromic cells
B. Intracellular inclusion bodies
C. Rouleaux
Calculate the LAP score. D. Hypersegmented neutrophils
A. 100 19. All of the following are associated with the diagnosis of
B. 117 multiple myeloma except:
C. 137 A. Marrow plasmacytosis
D. 252 B. Lytic bone lesions
10. CML is distinguished from leukemoid reaction by which C. Serum and/or urine M component
of the following? (monoclonal protein)
A. CML: low LAP; leukemoid: high LAP D. Philadelphia chromosome
B. CML: high LAP; leukemoid: low LAP 20. Multiple myeloma is most difficult to distinguish from:
C. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: normal WBC A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: higher WBC B. Acute myelogenous leukemia
C. Benign monoclonal gammopathy
Hematology/Evaluate laboratory and D. Benign adenoma
clinical data to specify additional 21. The pathology of multiple myeloma includes which of
tests/Leukemias/2 the following? POE
11. Which of the following occurs in idiopathic A. Expanding plasma cell mass
myelofibrosis (IMF)? B. Overproduction of monoclonal
A. Myeloid metaplasia immunoglobulins
B. Leukoerythroblastosis C. Production of osteoclast activating factor
C. Fibrosis of the bone marrow (OAF) and other cytokines
D. All of these options D. All of these options
12. What influence does the Philadelphia (Ph1) 22. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia is a malignancy of
chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with the:
chronic myelocytic leukemia? A. Lymphoplasmacytoid cells
A. It is not predictive B. Adrenal cortex
B. The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present C. Myeloblastic cell lines
C. The prognosis is worse if Ph1 is present D. Erythroid cell precursors
D. The disease usually transforms into AML 23. Cells that exhibit a positive stain with acid
when Ph1 is present phosphatase and are not inhibited with tartaric acid
13. Which of the following is (are) commonly found in are characteristically seen in:
CML? A. Infectious mononucleosis
A. Many teardrop-shaped cells B. Infectious lymphocytosis
B. Intense LAP staining C. Hairy cell leukemia
C. A decrease in granulocytes D. T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia
D. An increase in basophils 24. The JAK2(V617F) mutation may be positive in all of the
14. In which of the following conditions does LAP show the following chronic myeloproliferative disorders except:
least activity? A. Essential thrombocythemia
A. Leukemoid reactions B. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
B. Idiopathic myelofibrosis C. PV
C. PV D. CML
D. CML 25. All of the following are major criteria for the 2008
15. A striking feature of the peripheral blood of a patient WHO diagnostic criteria for essential thrombocythemia
with CML is a except:
A. Profusion of bizarre blast cells A. Platelet count >450 × 109/L
B. Normal number of typical granulocytes B. Megakaryocyte proliferation with large and
C. Presence of granulocytes at different stages mature morphology, and no or little
of development granulocyte or erythroid proliferation
D. Pancytopenia C. Demonstration of JAK2(V617F) or other
16. Which of the following is often associated with CML clonal marker
but not with AML? D. Sustained platelet count >600 × 109/L
A. Infections
B. WBCs greater than 20.0 × 109/L HEMATOLOGY PROBLEM SOLVING
C. Hemorrhage
D. Splenomegaly 1. A 19-year-old man came to the emergency department
17. Multiple myeloma and Waldenström’s with severe joint pain, fatigue, cough, and fever.
macroglobulinemia have all the following in common Review the following laboratory results:
A. MCV/perform reticulocyte count
B. Hct/perform manual Hct
C. WBC/perform manual WBC count
D. Hgb/perform serum:saline replacement
6. Review the following CBC results on a 2-day-old infant:
What is the corrected WBC count?

(WBC*100)/(NRBC+100)
A. 8.1 × 109/L
B. 16.7 × 109/L These results indicate:
C. 21.0 × 109/L A. Macrocytic anemia
D. 80.8 × 109/L B. Microcytic anemia
2. A manual WBC count is performed. Eighty WBCs are C. Liver disease
counted in the four large corner squares of a Neubauer D. Normal values for a 2-day-old infant
hemacytometer. The dilution is 1:100. What is the total 7. Review the following scatterplot, histograms, and
WBC count? automated values on a 21-year-old college student.
A. 4.0 × 109/L
B. 8.0 × 109/L
C. 20.0 × 109/L
D. 200.0 × 109/L
3. A manual RBC count is performed on a pleural fluid.
The RBC count in the large center square of the
Neubauer hemacytometer is 125, and the dilution is
1:200. What is the total RBC count?
A. 27.8 × 109/L
B. 62.5 × 109/L
C. 125.0 × 109/L
D. 250.0 × 109/L
4. Review the scatterplot of white blood cells shown.
Which section of the scatterplot denotes the number
of monocytes?
WBC differential: 5 band neutrophils; 27 segmented

neutrophils; 60 atypical lymphocytes; 6 monocytes; 1
eosinophil; 1 basophil What is the presumptive
diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Monocytosis
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. β-Thalassemia
8. Review the following scatterplot, histograms, and
a. A automated values on a 61-year-old woman.
b. B
c. C
d. D
5. Review the following automated CBC values.
Many sickle cells were observed upon review of the

peripheral blood smear. Based on this finding and the
results provided, what automated parameter of this
patient is most likely inaccurate and what follow-up
test should be done to accurately assess this
parameter?
What is the presumptive diagnosis? lipemia
A. Leukemoid reaction D. Warm the specimen at 37°C for 15 minutes;
B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia rerun the specimen
C. Acute myelocytic leukemia 12. Refer to the following scatterplot, histograms, and
D. Megaloblastic leukemia automated values on a 33-year-old woman. What
9. Review the automated results from the previous follow-up verification procedure is indicated before
question. Which parameters can be released without releasing these results?
further follow-up verification procedures?
A. WBC and relative percentages of WBC
populations
B. RBCs and PLTs
C. Hgb and Hct
D. None of the automated counts can be
released without follow-up verification
10. Refer to the following scatterplot, histograms, and
automated values on a 45-year-old man. What follow-
up verification procedure is indicated before releasing
these results?
A. Perform a manual hematocrit and redraw

the sample using a sodium citrate tube;
multiply PLT × 1.11
B. Dilute the WBC 1:10; multiply × 10
C. Perform plasma blank Hgb to correct for
lipemia
D. Warm the specimen at 37°C for 15 minutes;
rerun the specimen
A. Redraw blood sample using a sodium citrate
automated values on a 48-year-old man. What follow-
tube; multiply PLTs × 1.11
up verification procedure is indicated before releasing
B. Dilute the WBCs 1:10; multiply × 10
the five-part WBC differential results?
lipemia
D. Warm specimen at 37°C for 15 minutes;
rerun specimen
automated values on a 52-year-old woman. What
follow-up verification procedure is indicated before
releasing these results?
A. Dilute WBCs 1:10; multiply × 10

B. Redraw the sample using a sodium citrate
tube; multiply WBC × 1.11
C. Prepare buffy coat peripheral blood smears
and perform a manual differential
D. Warm specimen at 37°C for 15 minutes;
A. Redraw specimen using a sodium citrate rerun specimen
tube; multiply PLT × 1.11 14. Review the following CBC results on a 70-year-old man:
B. Dilute the WBCs 1:10; multiply × 10
A. Osmotic fragility
B. Hgb electrophoresis
C. G6PD assay
D. Methemoglobin reduction test
automated values on a 53-year-old man who had
preoperative laboratory testing. What is the most likely
diagnosis for this patient?
What is the most likely diagnosis based on these

values?
A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Myelodysplastic syndrome
automated values on a 28-year-old woman who had
preoperative laboratory testing. A manual WBC
differential was requested by her physician. The WBC
differential was not significantly different from the
automated five-part differential; however, the
technologist noted 3+ elliptocytes/ovalocytes while
reviewing the RBC morphology. What is the most likely
diagnosis for this patient?
A. Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)

B. Polycythemia vera (PV)
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. β-Thalassemia minor
18. Review the following CBC results:
Which of the following additional laboratory tests

would yield informative diagnostic information for this
A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation patient?
(DIC) A. Osmotic fragility
B. Hereditary elliptocytosis (ovalocytosis) B. Hgb electrophoresis
C. Cirrhosis C. Sugar water test
D. Hgb C disease D. Bone marrow examination
16. A 25-year-old woman saw her physician with
symptoms of jaundice, acute cholecystitis, and an HEMOSTASIS
enlarged spleen. On investigation, numerous COAGULATION AND FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEMS/REAGENTS AND
gallstones were discovered. Review the following CBC METHODS
results: 1. Which of the following initiates in vivo coagulation by
activation of factor VII?
a. Protein C
b. Tissue factor
c. Plasmin activator
d. Thrombomodulin
2. Which of the following clotting factors plays a role in
clot formation in vitro, but not in vivo? in vitro clot
formation and not in vivo coagulation?
a. VIIa
b. IIa
What follow-up laboratory test would provide valuable c. XIIa
d. Xa
information for this patient?
3. The anticoagulant of choice for most routine a. PT only
coagulation studies is: blue top b. PT and APTT
a. Sodium oxalate c. Fibrinogen level
b. Sodium citrate d. Thrombin time
c. Heparin 14. Which of the following is correct regarding the
d. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) international normalized ratio (INR)?
4. Which ratio of anticoagulant-to-blood is correct for a. It uses the International Sensitivity Ratio
coagulation procedures? (ISR)
a. 1:4 b. It standardizes PT results
b. 1:5 c. It standardizes APTT results
c. 1:9 =10 d. It is used to monitor heparin therapy
d. 1:10 15. Which of the following is referred to as an endogenous
5. Which results would be expected for the prothrombin activator of plasminogen?
time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time a. Streptokinase
(APTT) in a patient with polycythemia? b. Transamidase
a. Both prolonged c. Tissue plasminogen activator
b. Both shortened d. Tissue plasminogen activator inhibitor
c. Normal PT, prolonged APTT 16. Which protein is the primary inhibitor of the
d. Both normal fibrinolytic system?
6. What reagents are used in the PT test? a. Protein C
a. Thromboplastin and sodium chloride b. Protein S
b. Thromboplastin and potassium chloride c. α2-Antiplasmin
c. Thromboplastin and calcium d. α2-Macroglobulin
d. Actin and calcium chloride 17. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
7. Which test would be abnormal in a patient with factor the D-dimer test?
X deficiency? a. Levels are decreased in DIC
a. PT only b. Test detects polypeptides A and B
b. APTT only c. Test detects fragments D and E
c. PT and APTT d. Test has a negative predictive value
d. Thrombin time 18. A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and
8. Which clotting factor is not measured by PT and APTT platelet aggregation is:
tests? a. Factor I
a. Factor VIII b. Factor VIII
b. Factor IX c. Factor IX
c. Factor V d. Factor XI
d. Factor XIII 19. A standard 4.5-mL blue-top tube filled with 3.0 mL of
9. A modification of which procedure can be used to blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT and APTT
measure fibrinogen? tests. The sample is from a patient undergoing surgery
a. PT the following morning for a tonsillectomy. Which of
b. APTT the following is the necessary course of action by the
c. Thrombin time technologist?
d. Fibrin degradation products a. Run both tests in duplicate and report the
10. Which of the following characterizes vitamin K? average result
a. It is required for biological activity of b. Reject the sample and request a new
fibrinolysis sample
b. Its activity is enhanced by heparin therapy c. Report the PT result
c. It is required for carboxylation of glutamate d. Report the APTT result
residues of some coagulation factors 20. Which statement is correct regarding sample storage
d. It is made by the endothelial cells for the prothrombin time test?
11. Which statement about the fibrinogen/fibrin a. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is capped
degradation product test is correct? b. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is
a. It detects early degradation products (X and refrigerated at 4°C
Y) c. Stable for 4 hours if the sample is stored at
b. It is decreased in disseminated intravascular 4°C
coagulation (DIC) d. Should be run within 8 hours
c. It evaluates the coagulation system 21. In primary fibrinolysis, the fibrinolytic activity results
d. It detects late degradation products (D and in response to:
E) a. Increased fibrin formation
12. Which of the following clotting factors are measured b. Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis
by the APTT test? c. Increased fibrin monomers
a. II, VII, IX, X d. DIC
b. VII, X, V, II, I 22. Plasminogen deficiency is associated with:
c. XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I a. Bleeding
d. XII, VII, X, V, II, I b. Thrombosis - platelet
13. Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a c. Increased fibrinolysis
vitamin K–deficient patient? d. Increased coagulation
23. Which of the following clotting factors are activated by epinephrine, ristocetin, and collagen;
thrombin that is generated by tissue pathway (TF- decreased aggregation to ADP
VIIa)? 8. Which set of platelet responses would be most
a. XII, XI likely associated with Glanzmann’s
b. XII, I thrombasthenia? nPAR dACAE
c. I, II A. Normal platelet aggregation to ADP and
d. V, VIII closest ristocetin; decreased aggregation to
collagen
24. What substrate is used in a chromogenic factor assay?
B. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen;
P arm and q arm
decreased aggregation to ADP and
a. p-nitroanaline
ristocetin
b. Chloropheonol red C. Normal platelet aggregation to
c. Prussian blue ristocetin; decreased aggregation to
d. Ferricyanide collagen, ADP, and epinephrine
25. Which of the following antibodies is used in the D- D. Normal platelet aggregation to ADP;
dimer assay? decreased aggregation to collagen and
a. Polyclonal directed against X and Y ristocetin
fragments 9. Which of the following is a characteristic of acute
b. Polyclonal directed against D-dimer immune thrombocytopenic purpura?
c. Monoclonal against D and E fragments A. Spontaneous remission within a few
d. Monoclonal against D-dimer weeks
PLATELETS AND VASCULAR DISORDER B. Predominantly seen in adults
1. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is C. Nonimmune platelet destruction
characterized by: D. Insidious onset
A. Prolonged PT 10. TTP differs from DIC in that:
B. Increased platelet aggregation A. APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in
C. Thrombocytosis DIC
D. Prolonged APTT B. Schistocytes are not present in TTP but
2. Thrombocytopenia may be associated with: are present in DIC
A. Postsplenectomy C. Platelet count is decreased in TTP but
B. Hypersplenism normal in DIC
C. Acute blood loss D. PT is prolonged in TTP but decreased in
D. Increased proliferation of pluripotential DIC
stem cells 11. Several hours after birth, a baby boy develops
3. Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting petechiae and purpura and a hemorrhagic
the action of which enzyme? diathesis. The platelet count is 18 × 109/L. What is
A. Phospholipase the most likely explanation for the low platelet
B. Cyclo-oxygenase count?
C. Thromboxane A2 synthetase A. Drug-induced thrombocytopenia
D. Prostacyclin synthetase B. Secondary thrombocytopenia
4. Normal platelet adhesion depends upon: C. Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
A. Fibrinogen D. Neonatal DIC
B. Glycoprotein Ib 12. Which of the following is associated with post-
C. Glycoprotein IIb, IIIa complex transfusion purpura (PTP)?
D. Calcium A. Nonimmune
5. Which of the following test results is normal in a thrombocytopenia/alloantibodies
patient with classic von Willebrand’s disease? B. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia/
A. Bleeding time alloantibodies
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time C. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia/
C. Platelet count autoantibodies
D. Factor VIII:C and von Willebrand’s factor D. Nonimmune-mediated
(VWF) levels thrombocytopenia/ autoantibodies
6. Bernard–Soulier syndrome is associated with: 13. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is associated
A. Decreased bleeding time with:
B. Decreased factor VIII assay A. Fever, thrombocytosis, anemia, and
C. Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets renal failure
D. Abnormal platelet aggregation to ADP B. Fever, granulocytosis, and
7. When performing platelet aggregation studies, thrombocytosis
which set of platelet aggregation results would C. Escherichia coli 0157:H7
most likely be associated with Bernard–Soulier D. Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis
syndrome? 14. Storage pool deficiencies are defects of:
A. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, A. Platelet adhesion
ADP, and ristocetin nPAC dAR B. Platelet aggregation
B. Normal platelet aggregation to C. Platelet granules
collagen, ADP, and epinephrine; D. Platelet production
decreased aggregation to ristocetin 15. Lumi-aggregation measures:
C. Normal platelet aggregation to A. Platelet aggregation only
epinephrine and ristocetin; decreased B. Platelet aggregation and ATP release
aggregation to collagen and ADP C. Platelet adhesion
D. Normal platelet aggregation to D. Platelet glycoprotein Ib
16. Neurological findings may be commonly D. Obstructive jaundice
associated with which of the following disorders? 4. Which factor deficiency is associated with a
A. HUS prolonged PT and APTT?
B. TTP A. X
C. ITP B. VIII
D. PTP C. IX
17. Which of the following is correct regarding D. XI
acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura? 5. A prolonged APTT is corrected with factor VIII–
A. Autoimmune disease deficient plasma but not with factor IX–deficient
B. Decreased VWF plasma. Which factor is deficient?
C. Decreased platelet aggregation A. V
D. Decreased platelet adhesion B. VIII
18. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a C. IX
disorder of: D. X
A. Platelets 6. Which of the following is a characteristic of classic
B. Clotting proteins hemophilia A?
C. Fibrinolysis A. Prolonged bleeding time
D. Connective tissue B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
19. Which of the following prevents platelet C. Mild to severe bleeding episodes
aggregation? D. Prolonged PT
A. Thromboxane A2 7. Refer to the following results: PT = prolonged
B. Thromboxane B2 APTT = prolonged Platelet count = decreased
C. Prostacyclin Which disorder may be indicated?
D. Antithrombin A. Factor VIII deficiency
20. Which defect characterizes Gray’s syndrome? B. von Willebrand’s disease
A. Platelet adhesion defect C. DIC
B. Dense granule defect D. Factor IX deficiency
C. Alpha granule defect 8. Which of the following is a predisposing condition
D. Coagulation defect for the development of DIC?
21. The P2Y12 ADP receptor agonist assay may be A. Adenocarcinoma
used to monitor platelet aggregation inhibition to B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
which of the following drugs? (ITP)
A. Warfarin C. Post-transfusion purpura (PTP)
B. Heparin D. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
C. LMWH (HIT)
D. Clopidogrel (Plavix) 9. Factor XII deficiency is associated with:
22. Which of the following instruments can be used to A. Bleeding episodes
evaluate platelet function? B. Epistaxis
A. Platelet aggregometer C. Decreased risk of thrombosis
B. VerifyNow D. Increased risk of thrombosis
C. PFA-100 10. The following results were obtained on a patient:
D. All of the above normal platelet count and function, normal PT,
23. Which of the following platelet aggregating agents and prolonged APTT. Which of the following
demonstrates a monophasic aggregation curve disorders is most consistent with these results?
when used in optimal concentration? A. Hemophilia A
A. Thrombin B. Bernard–Soulier syndrome
B. Collagen C. von Willebrand’s disease
C. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) D. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
D. Epinephrine 11. The following laboratory results were obtained
COAGULATION SYSTEM DISORDERS from a 40-year-old woman: PT = 20 sec; APTT =
50 sec; thrombin time = 18 sec. What is the most
1. The APTT is sensitive to a deficiency of which probable diagnosis?
clotting factor? A. Factor VII deficiency
A. Factor VII B. Factor VIII deficiency
B. Factor X C. Factor X deficiency
C. PF3 D. Hypofibrinogenemia
D. Calcium 12. When performing a factor VIII activity assay, a
2. Which test result would be normal in a patient with patient’s plasma is mixed with:
dysfibrinogenemia? A. Normal patient’s plasma
A. Thrombin time B. Factor VIII deficient plasma
B. APTT C. Plasma with a high concentration of
C. PT factor VIII
D. Immunologic fibrinogen level D. Normal control plasma
3. A patient with a prolonged PT is given 13. The most suitable product for treatment of factor
intravenous vitamin K. The PT corrects to normal VIII deficiency is:
after 24 hours. What clinical condition most likely A. Fresh frozen plasma
caused these results? B. Factor VIII concentrate
A. Necrotic liver disease C. Prothrombin complex concentrate
B. Factor X deficiency D. Factor V Leiden
C. Fibrinogen deficiency 14. Which of the following is associated with an
abnormal platelet aggregation test? coagulation
A. Factor VIII deficiency 2. Which laboratory test is affected by heparin
B. Factor VIII inhibitor therapy?
C. Lupus anticoagulant A. Thrombin time
D. Afibrinogenemia B. Fibrinogen assay
15. Refer to the following results: PT = normal APTT = C. Protein C assay
prolonged Bleeding time= increased Platelet count D. Protein S assay
= normal Platelet aggregation to ristocetin = 3. An abnormal APTT caused by a pathological
abnormal Which of the following disorders may be circulating anticoagulant is:
indicated? A. Corrected with factor VIII–deficient
A. Factor VIII deficiency plasma
B. DIC B. Corrected with factor IX–deficient
C. von Willebrand’s disease plasma
D. Factor IX deficiency C. Corrected with normal plasma
16. Which results are associated with hemophilia A? D. Not corrected with normal plasma
A. Prolonged APTT, normal PT 4. The lupus anticoagulant affects which of the
B. Prolonged PT and APTT following tests?
C. Prolonged PT, normal APTT A. Factor VIII assay
D. Normal PT and APTT B. Factor IX assay
17. Fibrin monomers are increased in which of the C. VWF assay
following conditions? D. Phospholipid-dependent assays
A. Primary fibrinolysis 5. Which statement about Coumadin (warfarin) is
B. DIC accurate?
C. Factor VIII deficiency A. It is a vitamin B antagonist
D. Fibrinogen deficiency B. It is not recommended for pregnant and
18. Which of the following is associated with multiple lactating women
factor deficiencies? C. It needs antithrombin as a cofactor
A. An inherited disorder of coagulation D. APTT test is used to monitor its dosage
B. Severe liver disease 6. Which statement regarding protein C is correct?
C. Dysfibrinogenemia A. It is a vitamin K–independent zymogen
D. Lupus anticoagulant B. It is activated by fibrinogen
19. Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with a C. It activates cofactors V and VIII
poor wound healing may be associated with: D. Its activity is enhanced by protein S
A. Factor VII deficiency 7. Which of the following is an appropriate screening
B. Factor VIII deficiency test for the diagnosis of lupus anticoagulant?
C. Factor XII deficiency A. Thrombin time test
D. Factor XIII deficiency B. Diluted Russell’s viper venom test
20. Fletcher factor (prekallikrein) deficiency may be (DRVVT)
associated with: C. D-dimer test
A. Bleeding D. FDP test
B. Thrombosis 8. Which of the following is most commonly
C. Thrombocytopenia associated with activated protein C resistance
D. Thrombocytosis (APCR)?
21. One of the complications associated with a severe A. Bleeding
hemophilia A is: B. Thrombosis
A. Hemarthrosis C. Epistaxis
B. Mucous membrane bleeding D. Menorrhagia
C. Mild bleeding during surgery 9. A 50-year-old man has been on heparin for the
D. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia past 7 days. Which combination of the tests is
22. The most common subtype of classic von expected to be abnormal?
Willebrand’s disease is: A. PT and APTT only
A. Type 1 B. APTT, TT only
B. Type 2A C. APTT, TT, fibrinogen assay
C. Type 2B D. PT, APTT, TT
D. Type 3 10. Which of the following drugs inhibits ADP
23. A prolonged APTT and PT are corrected when mediated platelet aggregation?
mixed with normal plasma. Which factor is most A. Heparin
likely deficient? B. Warfarin
A. VIII C. Aspirin
B. V D. Prasugrel
C. XI 11. Thrombin-thrombomodulin complex is
D. IX necessary for activation of:
INHIBITORS, THROMBOTIC DISORDERS, AND A. Protein C
ANTICOAGULANT DRUGS B. Antithrombin
1. Which characteristic describes antithrombin C. Protein S
(AT)? D. Factors V and VIII
A. It is synthesized in megakaryocytes 12. What test is used to monitor heparin therapy?
B. It is activated by protein C A. INR
C. It is a cofactor of heparin B. APTT
D. It is a pathological inhibitor of C. TT
D. PT D. Heparin
13. What test is commonly used to monitor warfarin 24. Screening tests for thrombophilia should be
therapy? performed on:
A. INR A. All pregnant women because of the
B. APTT thrombotic risk
C. TT B. Patients with a negative family history
D. Ecarin time C. Patients with thrombotic events
14. What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by occurring at a young age
protein S? D. Patients who are receiving anticoagulant
A. V and X therapy
B. Va and VIIIa 25. Prothrombin G20210A is characterized by which
C. VIII and IX of the following causes and conditions?
D. VIII and X A. Single mutation of prothrombin
15. Which drug promotes fibrinolysis? molecule/ bleeding
A. Warfarin B. Single mutation of prothrombin
B. Heparin molecule/ thrombosis
C. Urokinase C. Decreased levels of prothrombin in
D. Aspirin plasma/ thrombosis
16. Diagnosis of lupus anticoagulant is confirmed by D. Increased levels of prothrombin in
which of the following criteria? plasma/ bleeding
A. Decreased APTT 26. Factor V Leiden promotes thrombosis by
B. Correction of the APPT by mixing preventing:
studies A. Deactivation of factor Va
C. Neutralization of the antibody by high B. Activation of factor V
concentration of platelets C. Activation of protein C
D. Confirmation that abnormal coagulation D. Activation of protein S
tests are time and temperature 27. What is the approximate incidence of
dependent antiphospholipid antibodies in the general
17. Which of the following abnormalities is consistent population?
with the presence of lupus anticoagulant? A. <1%
A. Decreased APTT/bleeding B. 2%
complications C. 10%
B. Prolonged APTT/thrombosis D. 20%
C. Prolonged APTT/thrombocytosis 28. Which of the following laboratory tests is helpful in
D. Thrombocytosis/thrombosis the diagnosis of aspirin resistance?
18. Which of the following is a characteristic of low A. APTT
molecular weight heparin (LMWH)? B. PT
A. Generally requires monitoring C. Platelet count and morphology
B. Specifically acts on factor Va D. Platelet aggregation
C. Has a longer half-life than 29. Which of the following complications may occur as
unfractionated heparin a result of decreased tissue factor pathway
D. Can be used as a fibrinolytic agent inhibitor (TFPI)?
19. Which of the following tests is most likely to be A. Increased hemorrhagic episodes
abnormal in patients taking aspirin? B. Increased thrombotic risk
A. Platelet morphology C. Impaired platelet plug formation
B. Platelet count D. Immune thrombocytopenia
C. Bleeding time 30. Factor VIII inhibitors occur in ____________ of
D. Prothrombin time patients with factor VIII deficiency?
20. Which of the following is associated with A. 40%–50%
antithrombin deficiency? B. 30%–40%
A. Thrombocytosis C. 25%–30%
B. Thrombosis D. 10%–20%
C. Thrombocytopenia 31. Which therapy and resulting mode of action are
D. Bleeding appropriate for the treatment of a patient with a
21. Which of the following may be associated with high titer of factor VIII inhibitors?
thrombotic events? A. Factor VIII concentrate to neutralize the
A. Decreased protein C antibodies
B. Increased fibrinolysis B. Recombinant factor VIIa (rVIIa) to
C. Afibrinogenemia activate factor X
D. ITP C. Factor X concentrate to activate the
22. Aspirin resistance may be associated with: common pathway
A. Bleeding D. Fresh frozen plasma to replace factor
B. Factor VIII deficiency VIII
C. Thrombosis 32. The Bethesda assay is used for which
D. Thrombocytosis determination?
23. A prolonged thrombin time is indicative of which A. Lupus anticoagulant titer
of the following antithrombotic therapies? B. Factor VIII inhibitor titer
A. Prasugrel C. Factor V Leiden titer
B. Clopidogrel D. Protein S deficiency
C. Aspirin 33. Hyperhomocysteinemia may be a risk factor for:
A. Bleeding
B. Thrombocythemia
C. Thrombosis
D. Thrombocytopenia
34. Which drug may be associated with deep venous
thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Aspirin
B. tPA
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Plavix (clopidogrel) These results are consistent with:
35. Argatroban may be used as an anticoagulant A. Factor VIII deficiency
drug in patients with: B. Factor VIII inhibitor
A. DVT C. Lupus anticoagulant (many APTT)
B. Hemorrhage D. Protein C deficiency
C. TTP 44. Which test may be used to monitor LMWH
D. Thrombocytosis therapy?
36. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) results A. APTT
from: B. INR
A. Antibodies to heparin C. Anti-Xa heparin assay
B. Antibodies to platelets D. Activated clotting time
C. Antibodies to PF4
D. Antibodies to heparin-PF4 complex HEMOSTASIS PROBLEM SOLVING
37. Which laboratory test is used to screen for 1. Patient History A 3-year-old male was admitted to
activated protein C resistance? a hospital with scattered petechiae and epistaxis.
A. Mixing studies with normal plasma The patient had normal growth and had no other
B. Mixing studies with factor-deficient medical problems except for chickenpox 3 weeks
plasma earlier. His family history was unremarkable.
C. Modified APTT with and without
activated protein C
D. Modified PT with and without activated
protein C
38. Ecarin clotting time may be used to monitor:
A. Heparin therapy
B. Warfarin therapy
C. Fibrinolytic therapy These clinical manifestations and laboratory
D. Hirudin therapy
39. Which of the following may interfere with the resultsare consistent with which condition?
activated protein C resistance (APCR) screening A. TTP
test? B. DIC
A. Lupus anticoagulant C. ITP
B. Protein C deficiency D. HUS
C. Antithrombin deficiency 2. Patient History A 12-year-old white male has the
D. Protein S deficiency following symptoms: visible bruising on arms and
40. Thrombophilia may be associated with which of legs, bruising after sports activities, and excessive
the following disorders? postoperative hemorrhage following tonsillectomy
A. Afibrinogenemia 3 months ago. His family history revealed that his
B. Hypofibrinogenemia mother suffers from heavy menstrual bleeding,
C. Factor VIII inhibitor and his maternal grandfather had recurrent
D. Hyperfibrinogenemia nosebleeds and bruising.
41. Which of the following anticoagulant drugs can be
used in patients with HIT?
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
C. Aspirin
D. Lepirudin
42. Which of the following is the preferred method to
monitor heparin therapy at the point of care
during cardiac surgery?
A. APTT
B. Activated clotting time test (ACT)
C. PT
D. TT
43. Mrs. Smith has the following laboratory results,
and no bleeding history:
These clinical manifestations and laboratory

results are consistent with which diagnosis?
A. Factor VIII deficiency
B. von Willebrand’s disease
C. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia preoperative PT and APTT testing. The results of
D. Bernard–Soulier syndrome both tests were elevated. The patient’s PT and
3. The following results are obtained from a patient APTT from the previous day were within normal
who developed severe bleeding: limits, and he is not on heparin therapy. Which is
Prolonged PT and APTT the most appropriate first step to investigate the
abnormal results?
Platelet count = 100 × 109 /L
A. Report the result as obtained
Fibrinogen = 40 mg/dL B. Perform a mixing study
Which of the following blood products should be C. Check the sample for a clot
D. Report the APTT only
recommended for transfusion?
9. A plasma sample submitted to the lab for PT
A. Factor VIII concentrate
testing has been stored for 25 hours at 4°C. The
B. Platelets
PT result is shortened. What is the most probable
C. Fresh frozen plasma
cause?
D. Cryoprecipitate
A. Factor VII deficiency
4. A 30-year-old woman develops signs and
B. Activation of factor VII due to exposure
symptoms of thrombosis in her left lower leg
to cold temperature
following 5 days of heparin therapy. The patient
C. Lupus inhibitor
had open-heart surgery 3 days previously and has
D. Factor X inhibitor
been on heparin ever since. Which of the following
10. The APTT results are not elevated in a patient
would be the most helpful in making the
receiving heparin. Which of the following factors
diagnosis?
may be associated with the lack of response to
A. Fibrinogen assay
heparin therapy in this patient?
B. Prothrombin time
A. Protein C deficiency
C. Platelet counts
B. Antithrombin deficiency
D. Increased heparin dose
C. Protein S deficiency
5. The following laboratory results were obtained on
D. Factor VIII deficiency
a 25-year-old woman with menorrhagia after
11. A 50-year-old patient was admitted to the
delivery of her second son. The patient has no
emergency department complaining of pain in her
previous bleeding history.
right leg. Her leg was red, swollen, and warm to
Normal platelet count; normal bleeding time; the touch. Deep venous thrombosis was
normal PT; prolonged APTT suspected, and the patient was started on heparin
Mixing of the patient’s plasma with normal plasma therapy. Which of the following is (are) the proper
protocol to evaluate patients receiving heparin
corrected the prolonged APTT on immediate therapy?
testing. However, mixing followed by 2-hour A. A baseline APTT and platelet count;
incubation at 37°C caused a prolonged APTT. APTT testing every 6 hours until the
target is reached
What is the most probable cause of these B. Repeat APTT after 5 days postheparin
laboratory results? therapy to adjust the therapeutic dose
A. Lupus anticoagulant C. Monitor the platelet count daily and
B. Factor VIII deficiency every other day after heparin therapy is
C. Factor IX deficiency completed
D. Factor VIII inhibitor D. Monitor PT daily to adjust the
6. A 62-year-old female presents with jaundice and therapeutic dose
the following laboratory data: 12. Patient History: A 46-year-old female was
Peripheral blood smear: macrocytosis, target cells admitted to the emergency department with
complaints of headache, dizziness, lethargy,
Platelet count: 355 × 109/L
nausea, vomiting, and weakness. The patient had
PT: 25 sec (reference range =10–14) a gastrectomy procedure 4 months earlier to
APTT: 65 sec (reference range = 28–36) remove adenocarcinoma of the stomach. She was
Transaminases: elevated (AST:ALT>1) placed on mitomycin therapy. Diagnostic
procedures indicated recurrence of the carcinoma.
Total and direct bilirubin: elevated
These clinical presentations and laboratory results
are consistent with:
A. Inherited factor VII deficiency
B. DIC
C. Cirrhosis of the liver
D. von Willebrand’s disease
7. When performing a mixing study, the patient’s
APTT is corrected to 12% of normal. What is the
most appropriate interpretation of these findings?
A. The APTT is considered corrected
B. The APTT is considered uncorrected
C. The mixing study needs to be repeated
D. A circulating anticoagulant can be ruled
out
8. A standard blue-top tube filled appropriately (with
4.5 mL blood) was submitted to the laboratory for
results are consistent with:
A. Factor VIII inhibitor
results are consistent with: B. Factor VIII deficiency
A. ITP C. Anticardiolipin antibodies
B. von Willebrand’s disease D. Lupus anticoagulant
C. TTP 15. A 60-year-old patient was admitted to a hospital
D. DIC for a liver biopsy. The biopsy was scheduled for
13. Patient History A 1-year-old infant was admitted to 11:00 a.m. The coagulation results performed at
the hospital with recurrent epistaxis for the past 5 the time of admission revealed a prolonged PT
days. The past medical history revealed easy with an INR of 4.5. What is the physician’s most
bruising and a severe nosebleed at 3 months of appropriate course of action?
age, necessitating transfusion therapy. The A. Proceed with biopsy, because a
mother had had a severe nosebleed 8 years ago. prolonged PT is expected in liver
The father was reported to bleed easily after disease
lacerations. The patient was transfused with 2 B. Postpone the procedure for a couple of
units of packed red cells upon admission. days
C. Cancel the procedure and start the
patient on vitamin K therapy
D. Put patient on vitamin K and proceed
with the procedure immediately
16. A fresh blood sample was sent to the laboratory at
8:00 a.m. for a PT test. At 4:00 p.m., the doctor
requested an APTT test to be done on the same
sample. What should the technologist do?
A. Rerun APTT on the 8:00 a.m. sample
and report the result
B. Request a new sample for APTT
C. Run APTT in duplicate and report the
average
D. Mix the patient plasma with normal
plasma and run the APTT
17. An APTT test is performed on a patient and the
These clinical manifestations and laboratory result is 50 sec (reference range 27–37 sec). The
results are consistent with which condition? instrument flags the result owing to failure of the
A. von Willebrand’s disease delta check. The patient had an APTT of 35 sec
B. Bernard–Soulier syndrome the previous day. The technologist calls the
C. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia nursing unit to check whether the patient is on
D. Factor VIII deficiency heparin therapy. The patient is not receiving
14. Patient History: A 30-year-old female was referred heparin. What is the next appropriate step?
to the hospital for evaluation for multiple A. Check the family history for an inherited
spontaneous abortions and current complaint of factor VIII deficiency
pain and swelling in her right leg. Her family B. Check to see if the patient has received
history is unremarkable any other anticoagulant medications
C. Perform mixing studies
D. Perform a factor VIII assay
18. A patient was put on heparin therapy
postoperatively for prevention of thrombosis. The
patient had the following laboratory results on
admission: Platelet count = 350 × 109/L; PT = 12 A. Factor VIII inhibitor
sec (reference: 10–13 sec); APTT = 35 sec B. Factor V inhibitor
(reference: 28–37). After 6 days of heparin C. Factor VIII deficiency
therapy, the patient complained of pain and D. Lupus anticoagulant
swelling in her left leg. Her platelet count dropped
to 85 × 109/L and her APTT result was 36 sec.
The physician suspected heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia (HIT) and ordered a platelet
aggregation test to be performed immediately. The
heparin-induced platelet aggregation test result
was negative. Heparin therapy was continued.
Several days later, the patient developed a
massive clot in her left leg that necessitated
amputation.
Which of the following should have been
recognized or initiated?
A. The patient should have been placed on
LMWH
B. The heparin dose should have been
increased
C. The negative platelet aggregation does
not rule out HIT
D. The patient should have been placed on
warfarin therapy
19. A 50-year-old female was admitted to a hospital
for hip replacement surgery. The preoperative
tests were performed and the results showed an
Hgb of 13.5 g/dL; Hct = 42%; PT = 12 sec; APTT =
36 sec. The patient was bleeding during surgery
and the postoperative test results revealed an Hgb
= 5.0 g/dL; Hct = 16%; PT = 8 sec; and APTT = 25
sec. What steps should be taken before releasing
these results?
A. No follow-up steps are needed; report
the results as obtained
B. Report Hgb and Hct results, adjust the
anticoagulant volume, and redraw a new
sample for PT and APTT
C. Call the nurse and ask if the patient is
receiving heparin
D. Because the patient is severely anemic,
multiply the PT and APTT results by two
and report the results
20. Patient and Family History A 45-year-old woman
visited her doctor complaining of easy bruising and
menorrhagia occurring for the past few weeks.
The patient had no history of excessive bleeding
during childbirth several years earlier nor during a
tonsillectomy in childhood. Her family history was
unremarkable.

results are consistent with:
1. In the diagnosis of parasitic infestation, aside from 19. What is the etiologic agent of Cochin Chiina diarrhea?
stool, which of the following specimens are commonly A. Strongyloides Stercoralis
utilized? (multiple answer) 20. Which of the following statements describes the
A. Urine rhabditiform larva od Strongyloides stercoralis?
B. Sputum A. It is the diagnostic form found in feces
C. CSF 21. Pathogenicity of intestinal roundworms may be related
D. Blood to the following EXCEPT
2. Which of the following fecal samples are acceptable A. Infection of RBC by the asexual forms of the
for testing parasite
A. Fecal samples collected in a clean but not in 22. Arrange the sequence of events in the life cycle of
a non-sterile container Ascaris lumbricoides
3. What parasitic stage is most likely killed by prolonged A. Larva are carried via the portal system and
refrigeration systemic circulation to the lungs
A. Trophozite B. Embryonated eggs are swallowed
4. Whoch of the following proportions is the correct C. Larva ascend the bronchial tree and
mixture of stool samples and preservatives? swallowed
A. 1 part stool to 3 parts preservatives D. Larva hatch and invade the intestinal
5. What is the recommended formalin concentration to mucosa
preserve protozoan cyst E. Larva develop into adult worms in the small
A. 5% intestine
6. Within how many hours from passage should formed BDACE
stools be examined and/or preserved in SAF fixative? 23. Which of the following symptoms is NOT experienced
A. 12 by patients who are heavily infected with hookworm?
7. Helminth eggs are generally observed in what stool A. Chest pains
consistency? (multiple answers) 24. Which helminth egg appears barrel shaped and with
A. Soft and watery only clear polar plugs at each end?
B. Formed or mushy only A. Trichuris trichiura
C. Watery only 25. The infective stage of the following parasites is the
D. Formed only larva EXCEPT:
8. What stool color is observed that may signify bile duct A. Trichuris trichiura
obstruction? 26. Abdominal pain, chronic diarrhea and borboygmi and
A. White symptoms of patients with__________
9. Given this observation A. Capillaria philippinensis
1 organism per 5-10 HPO 27. Which stage of the parasite may produce Loffler’s
Helminths with 1 egg/larva per 5-10 LPO syndrome in man?
What is the manner of reporting for this reading? A. Larva
Few 28. Which intestinal roundworm has a wing like expansion
10. What parasitic stage is rapidly killed and is sometimes of the cuticle at its anterior end?
unidentified upon addition of iodine? A. Pinworm
A. Trophozite 29. Which of the following lives in the large intestine
11. What is the characteristic feature of the rhabditiform A. Seatworm
larva of Strongyloides stercoralis 30. Which helminth produces an atypical egg which is thin
A. Prominent genital primordium shelled multi-segmented and without bipolar plugs?
12. Sanitary disposal of human feces had directly led to the A. Pudoc worm
reduction of all of the following infections EXCEPT: 31. Harada Mori can be used to recover larva of (select all
A. trichinosis possible answers) (multiple answers)
13. Which helminth egg appears as oval, thin shelled and A. Strongyloides stercoralis
with clear area of immature embryo? B. Hookworm
A. Hookworm 32. Rectal prolapsed may be observed in heavy chronic
14. Which of the following has a spear like projection at its infection with this parasite
anterior extremity that enables the worm to penetrate A. whipworm
into the intestinal mucosa of the host? 33. Which of the following is absent in the decorticated
A. Trichuris trichiura egg of Ascaris lumbricoides
15. Which of the following may complete its life cycle A. Albuminous coat
without leaving the host? 34. Which stage of the hookworm gains access to the host
A. Strongyloides stercoralis by skin penetration?
16. All of the following have life cycles that require larval A. Filariform larva
migration in the lungs EXCEPT: 35. Which of the following possess three lips at the
A. Trichuris Trichiura anterior end of its body?
17. Which stage is recovered in the feces of patients with A. Ascaris lumbricoides
Strongloidiasis? 36. Which of the following animal hookworms serve as the
A. Ascaris lumbricoides primary host for both dogs and cats?
18. Which of the following has a life cycle that involves A. Ancylostoma braziliense
embryonation of eggs in soil and larval migration in the 37. The mode of transmission for these nematodes of
lungs lower animals is larval skin penetration, EXCEPT:
A. Strongyloides stercoralis A. Ancylostoma spp.
38. The uterine tube of adult worm of this nematode of Column A Column B
lower animal is described as the “barber pole” pattern.
A. Parastrongylus cantonensis 51. Anisakis spp. E A. dogs
39. The intermediate host for Dracunculus medinensis is 52. Toxocara cati D B. dogs and
____: cats
A. Cyclops 53. Toxocara canis A C. pigs
40. The infective stage of Trichinella spiralis is: 54. Trichinella spiralis C D. cats
A. Encysted larva (L1 larva) 55. Ancylostoma braziliense B E. marine
41. The following Ancylostoma spp. can cause cutaneous mammals
larva mirgrans (CLM), EXCEPT:
Match the following stool preservative to its use.
A. Ancylostoma canium C. Ancylostoma
braziliense 56. is an all-purpose fixative; may be buffered with sodium
phosphate to preserve the morphological
B. Ancylostoma ceylanicum D. Ancylostoma characteristics of the organisms.
duodenale
A. Formalin
42. Which of the following nematodes cause visceral larva
migrans (VLM)? (Multiple answers) 57. is used to preserve fresh stool in preparation for
staining the stool smears; contains mercuric chloride
A. Toxocara canis C. A.
canium B. Schaudinn’s solution
B. Toxocara cati D. A. 58. is a plastic resin which serves to adhere a stool sample
ceylanicum onto a slide; for preservation and permanent staining
43. It is unlikely to recover larva in stool specimen from C. Polyvinyl alcohol

patient suffering from non-human nematodes for
diagnosis. 59. contains thimerosal; useful for the fixation of intestinal
protozoans, helminth eggs, and larvae
A. True B. False
D. Merthiolate-iodine-formalin
44. The following are important laboratory diagnosis for
non-human nematodes. (Multiple answers) 60. has the advantage of not containing a highly toxic
substance; a liquid fixative with a long shelf-life
A. Tissue bipsy C. Antibody
detection E. Sodium acetate-acetic acid formalin
B. ELISA D. 61. All of the following nematodes reside in organs other

Cellulose-tape swab than the intestines of man, EXCEPT:
45. What is the recommended formalin concentration to A. Loa loa

preserve Helminth egg?
B. Wuchereria bancrofti
A. 5% C. 15% E. 7%
C. Brugia malayi
B. 10% D. 3%
D. Ancylostoma duodenale
Match the lower animal nematodes with the infective stage to
man. (You may use the option more than once.) 62. Which nematode is larviparous?
Column A Column B A. Enterobius vermicularis
46. Parastrongylus cantonensis C A. Stage 1 B. Ancylostoma duodenale

larva (L1)
47. Toxocara spp. E B. Stage 2 C. Brugia malayi
larva (L2)
48. Dracunculus medinensis C C. Stage 3 D. Strongyloides stercoralis
larva (L3)
49. Acylostoma spp. C D. Stage 4 63. Which of the following requires an intermediate host?
larva (L4) (Multiple answers)
50. Anisakis spp. C E. Eggs 0.25
A. Wuchereria bancrofti
Match the lower animal nematodes with the primary host(s).
B. Strongloides stercoralis
C. Capillaria philippinensis A. Acute accumulation of microfilaria in the subcutaneous
tissue leading to edema
D. Loa loa
B. Inflammation of the tissue bitten by the intermediate
64. Which of the following methods will give a definitive host leading to loss of function
diagnosis of filariasis?
C. Prolonged obstruction of the lymph glands leading to
A. Identification of microfilaria in the lymph fluid fibrosis caused by live microfilaria
B. Detection of adult filarial worms in subcutaneous tissue D. Prolonged obstruction of the lymph glands leading to
biopsy fibrosis caused by dead adult worms
C. Identification of microfilaria in peripheral blood thick 70. Which is the diagnostic stage of Loa loa?
smear
A. Adult
D. Detection of microfilaria antigen in lymph fluid
B. Microfilaria
65. All of the following key features are used to clearly
differentiate various species of filarias EXCEPT: C. First stage larva
A. Number of columns of central nuclei D. Third stage larva
B. Pattern of nuclei in the tail 71. Which insect is the vector of Bancroftian filariasis?
C. Presence or absence of a sheath A. Chrysops
D. Length of cephalic space B. Aedes poecilus
66. In filariasis, man is considered a ________________. C. Mansonia bonnae
A. Dead end host D. Aedes aegypti
B. Intermediate host 72. Which insect vector is associated with Malayan

filariasis?
C. Definitive host
A. Chrysops
D. Accidental host
B. Aedes poecilus
67. Which of the following factors determine the
endemicity of filariasis in a locality? C. Mansonia bonnae
A. Presence of vegetation that harbour the microfilaria D. Aedes aegypti
B. Presence of vector that serve as the intermediate host 73. Which insect vector is associated with Loiasis?
C. Presence of humans that have travelled from an A. Chrysops

endemic province or country
B. Aedes poecilus
D. Ongoing program of filariasis control
C. Mansonia bonnae
68. Which developmental stage of Wuchereria bancrofti
causes the main pathology in filariasis? D. Aedes aegypti
A. Adult 74. Which sheathed microfilaria has nuclei that fill the
organism and are continuous to the tip of the tail?
B. Microfilaria
A. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. First stage larvae
B. Brugia malayi
D. Third stage larvae
C. Loa loa
69. Which of the following conditions is the main
pathology of Brugia malayi? 75. Which sheathed microfilaria has nuclei that appear
crowded in the body with two distinct subterminal and
terminal nuclei at the tip of the tail?
A. Wuchereria bancrofti 7. In paragonimiasis, where does the metacercaria
excyst?
B. Brugia malayi ANSWER: Small intestines
8. All of the following are digenetic trematodes EXCEPT:
C. Loa loa ANSWER: Schistosoma japonicum
9. In the Philippines, which of the following are second
76. Which sheathed microfilaria has 2-3 rows of distinctly intermediate hosts of heterophyid flukes? (SELECT ALL
conspicuous nuclei in the body and the tail tapers to APPLICABLE ANSWERS)
points where there are no nuclei present? ANSWER: Dalagang bukid, Dalag, Hito,
Bangus
A. Wuchereria bancrofti 10. All of the following diseases can be diagnosed based
on the morphology of the ova in the stool EXCEPT:
B. Brugia malayi ANSWER: Schistosomiasis
11. What is the second intermediate host of Paragonimus
C. Loa loa westermani in the Philippines?
Give the complete genus and species. Wrong spelling
77. What nematode has a nocturnal periodicity? Give is considered incorrect.
complete genus and species. ANSWER: sundathelpusa philippina
Wuchereria bancrofti PARASITOLOGY UNIT EXAM 1 AND 2
78. Which filarial worm exhibits subperiodic periodicity? Rosette Shaped Uterus Which of the following is true
Give complete genus and species. of Fish tapeworm
Three (3) In cases that scolex cannot be
Brugia malayi recovered, a stool examination
should be ordered after ___
79. Which filarial worm exhibits diurnal periodicity? Give months of treatment
complete genus and species. Cysticercus cellulosae Identify the cestode that
causes intestinal infection
Loa loa through ingestion of raw or
improperly cooked meat of
80. What is the term used for episodic andioedema in cow, buffalo and cattle
loaisis? harboring the larval stage of
this parasite
Calabar swellings  Taenia solium
Chemotheraphy This is the treatment given to
Calabar swelling patients infected with hydatid
cysts measuring less than 7
Calabar-swellings millimeter
Cirrus The copulatory organ of
Calabar-swelling cestodes which is enclosed in a
sac is called
Note: The following items are only those with high difficulty index. Echinococcus granulosus Identify the cestode that can
cause tissue necrosis and
organ impairment through the
1. Which of the following parasites lay eggs that develop
ingestion of embryonated eggs
into a ciliated larva?
which will develop further to a
ANSWER: Spirometra mansoni,
unilocular hydatid cyst?
Diphyllobothrium latum
Hymenolepis nana Which of the following
2. Which of the following stool examination techniques
tapeworms requires at least
can BEST demonstrate Taenia species ova?
two intermediate hosts (fleas
ANSWER: Formalin Ether Concentration
and rodents) and causes
Technique
accidental human infection
3. Which of the following statements is NOT true of
 Spirometra
Taenia solium?
mansoni
ANSWER: It has a dichotomous uterus with
7-10 lateral branches Diphyllobothrium latum Tapeworm that mimics the
clinical manifestation of
4. Which of the following drugs is not used for the
pernicious anemia
treatment of cestode infections?
ANSWER: Mebendazole Ingestion of hydatid cysts Canines most specifically dogs
5. In the life cycle of blood flukes, the cercaria transforms can be infected of
into a ______. echinococcosis by:
ANSWER: Schistosomula Dipylidium caninum Common intestinal parasite of
6. The eggs of these parasites possess an operculum dogs and cats and is
EXCEPT: characterized by the presence
ANSWER: Oriental blood fluke of two laterally located
gonopore on its body  Spirometra is responsible for the
segments mansoni attachment of the tapeworm
Spirometra mansoni Name the cestode that causes  Diphyllobothrium to the intestinal wall
“migrating tumor” and is latum
described as painful edema Cyclops acts as an
Echinococcus multilocularis Cestode causing alveolar intermediate host for:
echinococcosis  Raillietina garrisoni
The genital pore is situated at The following statement are  Echinococcus
the ventral midline true of Cyclophyllidean granulosus
cestodes; EXCEPT:  Diphylidium
 Absence of uterine caninum
pore Taenia solium Which tapeworm infects
 The scolex has cup- human through the ingestion
like suckers that of measly pork which contains
may or may not the cysticercoid larva
contain hookes Pork tapeworm Taenia solium
 Lays embryonated Beef taperworm Taenia saginata
eggs that may be Double-pored tapeworm Dipylidium caninum
expelled singly or Dwarf tapeworm Hymenolepis nana
passively Broad tapeworm Diphyllobotrium latum
Raillietina garrisoni Which of the following Rat tapeworm Hymenolepis diminuta
cestodes causses human Which of the following will
intestinal infection through differentiate Hymenolepis
ingestion of flour beetles and nana and Hymenolepis
ants infected with the diminuta
cysticercoid larva?  Presences of four
 Hymenolepis nana Which of the following cup-like suckers in
 Diphyllobothrium cestodes possess uterine pore? its scolex
latum  Echinococcus  Presence of three
 Dipylidium caninum granulosus ovoid testes and
 Taenia solium one ovary
 Spirometra  Ctenocephalides Name atleast two athropods
mansoni canis that serve as an intermediate
 Dipylidium caninum Which of the following  Trichoedectes canis host for Dog tapeworm
 Hymenolepis cestodes cause infection (GENUS AND SPECIES)
diminuta through ingestion of Schistosomes COPT is a serological test that
cysticercoid larva? demonstrate the formation of
 Spirometra septate precipitates attached
mansoni to the eggs of
 Taenia saginata Urine Which clinical specimen can be
 Diphyllobothrium used to recover the eggs of
latum Schistosoma haematobium
 Number of lateral Which of the following Snail Which of the following is the
uterine branches differentiate Taenia solium and second intermediate host of
 Number of testes Taenia saginata? Fasciolopsis buski?
follicles  Presence of Schistosoma mansoni Which of the following
 Presence of Acetabula trematodes is non
hooklets in the hermaphroditic
rostellum  Testes Which of the following
Raillietina garrisoni Hammer-shaped hooks are  Intestinal ceca structures can be used to
seen on  Ovary differentiate the adult
Hymenolepis An intestinal cestode that has trematodes
three ovoid testes and one Shouldered appearance What is the distinguishing
ovary in its mature proglottid feature of adult Fasciola
Echinococcus ____ it is considered the hepatica
shortest tapeworm having only Chinese liver fluke Which trematode egg
three proglottids (GENUS resembles an old-fashioned
ONLY) electric bulb?
 granulosus Echinostoma ilocanum The oral sucker of this
Hymenolepis nana Identify the cyclophyllidean trematode species is covered
cestode which does not with collar of spines:
require an obligatory Blood flukes All of the following have
intermediate host to complete operculated ova EXCEPT
its development
Fasciola buski The largest trematode species
Scolex Which of the following region that parasitize man is
Mollusks Animals that serve as genus only)
nd
intermediate hosts for blood 2 intermediate host (give snails
flukes are the common name)
Hematuria The characteristic symptom of Definitive host man
patients with urinary Diagnostic stage Unembryonated egg
bilharziasis is
Heterophyes heterophyes Which of the following is
considered as the smallest and Parasite Artyfechinostomum malayanum
deadliest fluke st
1 intermediate host (give Gyraulus convexiusculus
Halzoun Which of the following the genus and species)
disorders result from the nd
2 intermediate host (give Lymnaea cumingiana
ingestion of infected raw the genus and species)
sheep liver and the attachment Definitive host Man
of adult living worms to the Diagnostic stage Unembryonated egg
pharyngeal mucosa
Echinostoma ilocanum Which of the following
trematode species have TWO
Parasite Paragonimus westermani
snail intermediate hosts st
1 intermediate host (Give Antemelania dactylus
 Fasciola hepatica Which of the following require the genus and species)
 Opistorchis felineus 2 intermediate hosts in order nd
2 intermediate host (Give Sundathelphusa philippina
to complete its life cycle?
the genus and species)
Intestinal venules The main anatomic location of
Definitive host humans
Schistosoma mansoni adult
Diagnostic stage Unembryonated egg
worms in man is the
Tegument Which of these structures
serve to attach the trematode
Parasite Heterophyid flukes
to the host st
1 intermediate host (Give Snail
Fasciola hepatica Which trematode egg
the common name)
resembles a hen’s egg nd
2 intermediate host (Give Hito
Cercaria What is the infective stage of
the common name in
blood flukes
Tagalog)
Cercaria Developmental stage of the
Definitive host Man
fluke cause “swimmer’s itch”
in man Diagnostic stage Unembryonated egg
Oncomelania quadrasi Which of the following is
considered as the
intermediqte host of PARA – SELF TEST ON INTESTINAL & LUNG TREMATODES
Schistosoma japonicum (MIDTERMS) *1 MISTAKE
Miracidium Which larval stage of a fluke is METACERCARIA 1. Which of the following is
covered with cilia and swims considered to be the
about seeking out a snail to infective stage of MOST
serve as an intermediate host trematode species?
Schistosoma haematobium Which Schistosome species is MUSCULAR SUCKERS 2. Which of these structures
prevalent in Middle East serve to attach the
Metacercaria Which of the following is trematode to the host?
considered to be the infective WATER CHESTNUT 3. Which of the following is the
stage of MOST trematode second intermediate host of
species Fasciolopsis buski?
Muscular suckers Which of these structures FASCIOLOPSIS BUSKI 4. The largest trematode
serve to attach the trematode
species that parasitize man
to the host?
is:
ECHINOSTOMA 5. Which of the following
ILOCANUM trematode species have
Parasite Echinostoma ilocanum
st TWO snail intermediate
1 intermediate host (Give Hippeutis umbilicalis
hosts?
nd ECHINOSTOMA 6. The oral sucker of this
2 intermediate host (Give Pila luzonica
ILOCANUM trematode species is covered
Definitive host man with collar of spines:
Diagnostic stage Unembryonated egg HETEROPHYES 7. Which of the following is
HETEROPHYES considered as the smallest
and deadliest fluke?
Parasite Fasciolopsis buski Segmentina spp. – 8. Match the following
st
1 intermediate host (give the Segmentina Fasciolopsis buski intermediate snail host with
Pila luzonica – their corresponding
Echinostoma trematode species: assess the intensity of infection
ilocanum is eggs per gram (epg).
Brotia asperata – TRUE/FALSE 6. In Kato katz smear, if
Paragonimus hookworm is present, the slide
westermani should be read within 30-60
minutes. After that time, the
hookworm eggs disappear.
SELF TEST ON LIVER AND BLOOD FLUKES *2MISTAKES TRUE/FALSE 7. In Kato katz the use of glycerin-
CLONORCHIS SINENSIS 1. Which trematode egg malachite green solution or
resembles an old fashioned green cellophane soaked in
electric bulb? glycerin is for clearing.
SCHISTOMA MANSONI 2. Which of the following TRUE/FALSE 8. Kato katz method can detect
trematode species is NOT protozoan infection
hermaphroditic? 9.
URINE 3. Which of the following 10.
specimens can be used to MIDTERMS PARA UNITS
demonstrate the eggs of
Schistoma haematobium? 1. Which of the following is TRUE of the Fish tapeworm?
CERCARIA 4. What is the infective stage of a. Presence of four cup-like suckers
blood flukes? b. Infection is caused by cysticercoids larvae
CEPHALIC CONE 5. What is the distinguishing c. Gravid proglottid lays embryonated ova and
feature of adult Fasciola is passed through the definitive host’s feces
hepatica? d. Rosette-shaped uterus
ONCOMELANIA 6. Which of the following is e. Absence of uterine pore
QUADRASI considered as the 2. Which of the following cestodes cause infection
intermediate snail host of through ingestion of cysticercoids larva? (SELECT ALL
Schistosoma japonicum? THE POSSIBLE ANSWERS)
CERCARIA 7. Which of the following larval a. Taenia saginata
stages is NOT present in the b. Dipylidium caninum
life cycle of blood flukes? c. Hymenolepis diminuta
SCHISTOSOMA 8. Which Schistosome species d. Spirometra mansoni
HAEMATOBIUM is prevalent in Middle East? e. Diphyllobotrium latum
S. MANSONI 9. The eggs of which 3. _____it is considered the shortest tapeworm having
Schistosome species possess only three proglottids. (genus only)
a lateral spine? 4. Identify the tapeworm that mimics the clinical
CONSUMING RAW, 10. Which of the following is the manifestation of pernicious anemia (genus and
PICKLED FRESHWATER recommended prevention species)
FISH and control strategy a. Diphyllobotrium latum
designed to halt the spread b. diphyllobotrium latum
of Clonorchis? 5. Which of the following tapeworms requires at least
two intermediate hosts (fleas and rodents) and causes
accidental human infection?
SELF TEST ON KATO KATZ AND FECT a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Raillientina garrisoni
TRUE/FALSE 1. Formal ether (Formalin-Ethyl c. Spirometra mansoni
Acetate) sedimentation d. Echinococcus granulosus
6. Which tapeworm infects humans through the ingestion
technique use solutions of
of measly pork which contains cysticercoids larva?
lower specific gravity than the
parasitic organisms, thus (genus and species)
7. Common intestinal parasite of dogs and cats and is
concentrating the latter in the
characterized by the presence of two laterally located
sediment.
gonopore on its body segments
TRUE/FALSE 2. Acid-ether technique is
8. Which of the following cestodes possess uterine pore?
satisfactory for the useful in
(SELCET ALL POSSIBLE ANSWERS)
the detection of schistosome
a. Taenia solium
and other trematode eggs.
b. Hymenolepis nana
TRUE/FALSE 3. Kato katz technique can not be
c. Dipylidium caninum
used on liquid, soft or diarrheic
d. Diphylobotrium latum
specimen.
e. Echinococcus granulosus
TRUE/FALSE 4. In FECT, instead of formalin,
f. Spirometra mansoni
15% hydrochloric acid may be
9. Hammer-shaped hooks are seen on: (genus and
used, and the procedure of
species)
which is referred as acid-ether
10. Identify the cyclophyllidean cestodes which does not
concentration method.
require an obligatory intermediate host to complete its
TRUE/FALSE 5. In Kato katz technique, the development. (genus and species)
standard measurement to
11. In cases that scolex cannot be recovered, stool d. Presence of hooklets in the rostellum
examination should be ordered _____ months of 24. The following statements are true of Cyclophyllidean
treatment. cestodes EXCEPT:
a. Three a. Lays embryonated eggs that may be
b. One expelled singly or passively
c. Two b. The scolex has cup-like suckers that may or
d. Six may not contain hooks
12. Identify the cestode that can cause tissue necrosis and c. Absence of uterine pore
organ impairment through ingestion of embryonated d. The genital pore is situated at the ventral
eggs which will develop further to a unilocular hydatid midline
(genus and species) 25. The intestinal infection brought by the pork tapeworm
13. Which of the following tapeworm causes infection can be caused by the ingestion of its larval stage which
through the ingestion of the plerocercoid larva? is found embedded in the infected flesh of pigs. This
a. Broad tapeworm larval stage is called ____ (scientific name)
b. Rat tapeworm 26. The copulatory organ of cestodes which is enclosed in
c. Dog tapeworm a sac is called:
d. Double-pored tapeworm a. Strobila
14. This is the treatment given to patients infected with b. Testes
hydatid cysts measuring less than 7 milimenter. c. Scolex
a. Praziquantel d. Cirrus
b. Mebendazole 27. Which of the following region is responsible for the
c. Albendazole attachment of the tapeworm to the intestinal wall?
d. Chemotherapy a. Scolex
15. Carries most specially dogs can be infected of b. Proglottid
echinococcus by: c. Strobila
a. Ingestion of cysticercoids larva d. Neck
b. Ingestion of ciliated embryo 28. Match the following cestodes to its appropriate
c. Ingestion of hydatid cysts common name
d. Ingestion of plerocercoid larva a. Taenia solium
16. Which of the following cestodes cause human i. Pork tapeworm
intestinal infection through ingestion of flour beetles, ii. Beef tapeworm
and ants infected with the cysticercoids larva? iii. Double-pored tapeworm
a. RAILLIETINA GARRISONI iv. Dwarf tapeworm
b. raillientina garrisoni v. Broad tapeworm
c. Raillientina garrisoni vi. Rat tapeworm
17. Identify the cestode that causes intestinal infection b. Taenia saginate
through ingestion of raw or improperly cooked meat of i. Pork tapeworm
cow, buffalo, cattle harbouring the larval stage of this ii. Beef tapeworm
parasite. (genus and species) iii. Double-pored tapeworm
18. Identify the cestode causing alveolar echinococcosis iv. Dwarf tapeworm
(genus and species) v. Broad tapeworm
19. Cyclops acts as an intermediate host for: vi. Rat tapeworm
a. Spirometra mansoni c. Dipylidium caninum
b. Diphyllobothrium latum i. Pork tapeworm
c. Dipylidium caninum ii. Beef tapeworm
d. Raillientina garrisoni iii. Double-pored tapeworm
e. Echinococcus granulosis iv. Dwarf tapeworm
20. An intestinal cestode that has three ovoid and one v. Broad tapeworm
ovary in its mature proglottid. vi. Rat tapeworm
21. Which of the following differentiate Hymenolepis nana d. Hymenolepis nana
and Hymenolepis diminuta? (select all possible) i. Pork tapeworm
a. Presence of four cup-like suckers in its ii. Beef tapeworm
scolex iii. Double-pored tapeworm
b. Presence of polar thickenings in its ova iv. Dwarf tapeworm
c. Presence of three ovoid testes and one v. Broad tapeworm
ovary vi. Rat tapeworm
d. Presence of hooklets in the rostellum e. Diphyllobotrium latum
e. Presence of polar filaments in the ova i. Pork tapeworm
f. Drug of choice is Praziquantel ii. Beef tapeworm
22. Name the cestode that causes “migrating tumor” and iii. Double-pored tapeworm
is described as painful edema. (genus and species) iv. Dwarf tapeworm
23. Which of the following will differentiate Taenia solium v. Broad tapeworm
and Taenia saginate? (select all) vi. Rat tapeworm
a. Number of lateral uterine branches f. Hymenolepis diminuta
b. Number of testes follicles i. Pork tapeworm
c. Presence of acetabula ii. Beef tapeworm
iii. Double-pored tapeworm 40. The main anatomic location of Schistosoma mansoni
iv. Dwarf tapeworm adult worms in man is the __________
v. Broad tapeworm a. Intestinal venules
vi. Rat tapeworm b. Renal tubules
29. Name at least two arthropods that serve as an c. Lung alveoli
intermediate host of Dog tapeworm (genus and d. Bone marrow
species) 41. The characteristic symptom of patients with urinary
a. bilharziasis is ______
b. a. Splenomegaly
30. Which trematode egg resembles a hen’s egg? b. Hemopptysis
a. Heterophyes heterophyes c. Jaundice
b. Fasciola hepatica d. Hematuria
c. Opistorchis felineus 42. Each of the following statements concerning
d. Clonorchis sinensis schistosoma haematobium is correct EXCEPT:
31. Which larval stage of a fluke is covered with cilia and a. S. haematobium is acquired by humans
swims about seeking out to serve as an intermediate when cercariae penetrate the skin
host b. Snails are intermediate hosts of S.
a. Redia haematobium
b. Cercaria c. S. haematobium infection predisposes to
c. Miracidium bladder carcinoma
d. Sporocyst d. S. haematobium eggs have no spine.
32. All of the following have operculated ova EXCEPT: 43. Which trematode egg resembles an old fashioned
a. Blood flukes electric bulb?
b. Lung flukes a. Cat liver fluke
c. Liver flukes b. Sheep liver fluke
d. Intestinal flukes c. Oriental blood fluke
33. The animals that serve as intermediate hosts for blood d. Chinese liver fluke
flukes are ____ 44. Which of the following is considered as the
a. Mollusks intermediate host of Schistosoma japonicum?
b. Crustaceans a. Pila luzonica
c. Fishes b. Gyraulus convexiusculus
d. Amphibians c. Oncomelania quadrasi
34. Which of these structures serve to attach the d. Brotia aspirata
trematode to the host? 45. Which of the following trematodes is non
a. Intestinal ceca hermaphroditic?
b. Vitellaria a. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Muscular suckers b. Clonorchis sinensis
d. Tegument c. Opistorchis felineus
35. What is the infective stage of blood flukes? d. Fasciola hepatica
a. Redia 46. Which of the following disorder result from the
b. Adult worm ingestion of infected raw sheep liver and the
c. Metacercaria attachment of adult living worms to the pharyngeal
d. Cercaria mucosa?
36. which Schistosome species is prevalent in Middle East? a. Katayama’s disease
a. Schistosoma japonicum b. Opistorchiasis
b. Schistosoma mansoni c. Halzoun
c. Schistosoma haematobium d. Urinary biharziasis
37. Which of the following structures can be used to 47. Which of the following require 2 intermediate hosts in
differentiate the adult trematodes? (SELECT ALL order to complete its life cycle? (select all possible
POSSIBLE ANSWERS) answers)
a. Testes a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Internal ceca b. Fasciola hepatica
c. Esophagus c. Opistorchis felineus
d. Ovary d. Schistosoma mansoni
38. Which of the following developmental stages of the 48. COPT is a serological test that demonstrates the
fluke cause “swimmer’s itch” in man? formation of separate precipitates attached to the
a. Miracidium eggs of ____
b. Adult worm a. Opistorchis spp.
c. Eggs b. Schistosomes
d. Cercaria c. Clonorchis spp.
39. What is the distinguishing feature of adult Fasciola d. Fasciola hepatica
hepatica? 49. Which clinical specimen can be used to recover the
a. Spinous integument eggs of Schistosoma haematobium?
b. Genital sucker a. Bile
c. Coffee bean shape b. Pleural fluid
d. Shouldered appearance c. Urine
d. Stool
50. Fill in the table. Supply the mode of transmission,
infective stage to man:
Parasite Heterophyid flukes

st
1 intermediate host: (give the
common name)
nd
common name in Tagalog)
Defenitive host:
Diagnostic stage:

Parasite Echinostoma ilocanum

st
genus and species)
nd
2 intermediate host: (Give
Defenitive host:
Diagnostic stage:

Parasite Fasciolopsis buski

st
1 intermediate host: (give only
the genus)
nd
2 intermediate host: (Give the
common name)
Defenitive host:
Diagnostic stage:

Parasite Paragonimus westermani

st
genus and species)
nd
2 intermediate host: (Give
Defenitive host:
Diagnostic stage:
HCT - Laboratory b. Rotation Tech
Prelims Feedback c. Starfish Tech
d. Squash Tech
1. Which of the following is the study methods
7. Fluids collected in EDTA and Red top. Prepare
preparing the cells for microscopic examinations?
immediately (sediment). The cellularity viscosity
a. Histologic technique
and homogeneity influence the smear technique
b. Immunohistochemistry technique
used.
c. Cytochemistry technique
a. Blood smear
d. Cytologic technique
b. Fluid Preparation
2. The science of interpretation of cells that are
c. Line Smear
either exfoliated from epithelial surfaces or
d. Squash Prep
removed from various tissues
8. The ideal fixative recommended in most of the
a. Immunocytochemistry
laboratories for cytological specimen
b. Diagnostic Anatomic Pathology
a. 70% ethanol
c. Histopathology
b. Equal parts of ethanol and ether
d. Diagnostic Cytology
c. 10% Neutral buffered Formalin
3. Accurate interpretation of cellular material is
d. 95% ethyl alcohol
dependent on the ff. factors:
9. Which of the ff. is the ideal method for fixing
a. Methods of specimen collection,
gynecological and non-gynecological smears and
preservation of fluid specimens prior to
any of the following alcohols can be used?
processing
a. AAF Fixative
b. Preparation of material for microscopic
b. Coating Fixative
examination, fixation and decalcification
c. Special Fixative
c. Deparaffinization, Staining and mounting
d. Wet Fixative
of the cell sample.
10. What is the minimum required time of fixation
d. Fixatives and Labelling of the cell sample
prior to staining a cytological sample?
4. A technique used to obtain material from organs
a. 5 – 10 mins
that do not shed cells spontaneously, it is valuable
b. 10 – 15 mins
in diagnosis of lesions of the breast, thyroid,
c. 30 mins
lymph nodes, liver, lungs, skin, soft tissues, and
d. 60 mins
bones.
11. What method is normally utilized when a rapid
a. Abrasive cytology
diagnosis of the tissue in question is required
b. Fine Needle Aspirate Cytology
especially recommended when lipids and nervous
c. Exfoliative cytology
tissue elements are to be demonstrated?
d. Histopathology
a. Dissociation
5. Mass held firmly, needle with syringe pre-filled
b. Frozen Section
with air. Needle is moved rapidly back and forth
c. Smearing
through the mass 5 to 6 times along the same
d. Streaking
tract. Cells are collected by shearing and capillary
12. Which of the following methods that require fluid
action. Needle removed from mass, material is
samples with low cell content such as CSF and
expelled by depressing plunger.
urine to be centrifuged where the cells are
a. Aspirate
sedimented directly on the micro slides?
b. Imprints
a. Cryocentrifugation
c. Non-aspirate
b. Cytocentrifugation
d. Skin Scraping
c. Microcentrifugation
6. Risk of cell rupture, 2nd slide placed over the
d. Microspin
sample, smoothly slide apart w/o downward
pressure
a. Combo Tech
13. Which of the ff study of cellular samples obtained a. Clinical tool for the investigation of disease
through a fine needle under negative pressure is processes
relatively painless and inexpensive b. Quick process
a. Abrasive cytology c. Guide to the treatment of a lesion
b. Exfoliative cytology d. Gives a better cellular detail of the lesion
c. Fine needle Aspirate cytology e. Provides the final diagnosis for a tumor
d. Frozen section 21. Cytologic technique in slide preparation is
14. Which uses a small bottlebrush like device with characterized by the ff Except:
one end having fine bristles made up of nylons a. Complex procedure
which is strictly for taking materials from b. Requires a good quality microscope
endocervix? c. Requires a good quality sample
a. Cytobrush d. Requires quality slide monitoring
b. Cervex brush 22. Fine needle aspiration aims to _____
c. Endo-cervical Brush a. Obtain a high cell harvest with bloody
d. Vaginal Brush sample
15. Which of the ff criteria is reliable indicator of b. Obtain a high cell harvest with minimal
malignancy? artefactual damage
a. Absence of tumor capsule c. Obtain a high cell harvest with maximal
b. Evidence of distant metastases tissue trauma
c. Poor histological differentiation d. Obtain a high cell harvest with fluid
d. Presence of high mitotic activity e. Obtain a high cell harvest with mucus
16. Which of the following is the best fixative for 23. The ff. exfoliative cytology is dealing w/
exfoliative cytology? microscopic study of cells from surfaces
a. Equal part of ether & alcohol a. Mesencgymal
b. 10% formalin b. Epithelial
c. 50% alcohol solution c. Round cell
d. 95% ethyl alcohol d. Endodermal
17. The resulting color of the nucleus in Hematoxylin e. Muscle cell
and Eosin staining is _____ 24. Which of the ff alcohol fixative concentration is
a. Blue to blue-black recommended for NOT IMMEDIATE cytologic
b. Bright orange red examination of pleural and peritoneal
c. Deep pink a. 95%
d. Light pink b. 80%
18. Exfoliative cytology is usually recommended for c. 70%
the ff. EXCEPT: d. 50%
a. Assessment of female hormonal activity e. 30%
b. Detection of prostate cancer 25. Artifacts in a smear include the ff EXCEPT:
c. Determination of genetic sex a. Blood
d. Detection of cervical cancer b. Cotton fibers
19. Which of the following is a regressive, indirect and c. Hair
counter type of staining which provides an d. Water vacuoles
excellent demonstration of the nucleus, and the 26. An unfixed tissue sample was sent to the
cytoplasm is rendered translucent? histopathology laboratory with a proper request
a. Diff quick stain form but the container is NOT LABELED. The
b. Giemsa Stain medical technologist on duty should:
c. May Grunwald stain a. Discard the specimen
d. Papanicolaou stain b. Request the bearer of the specimen to
20. Diagnostic cytology characteristics include the ff. affix the label of the container
EXCEPT
c. Return the specimen and the request bacteria and preserves myelin better than
form to the ward buffered neutral formalin?
d. Receive the specimen and add the fixative a. Bouin’s solution
27. Which of the ff. is a diagnostic procedure that b. Moller’s fluid
deals with the excision and examination from c. Zenker’s fluid
living subjects? d. Orth’s fluid
a. Autopsy 35. All of the ff are characteristics of an “ideal fixative”
b. Biopsy EXCEPT:
c. Cytology a. Inexpensive
d. Necropsy b. Preserves tissue elements
28. Which of the ff. stain is used for cytological c. Penetrates tissue slowly
screening of women for cervical cancer? d. Prevents autolysis
a. Diff quick stain 36. What is the most ideal method of determining the
b. Hematoxylin and eosin extent of decalcification?
c. Orange green stain a. Mechanical
d. Papanicolau b. Radiological
29. What is the ideal tissue to formalin ratio? c. Chemical
a. 5:1 d. Physical
b. 1:20 37. Fine needle aspiration biopsy smears are fixed
c. 20:1 using ______:
d. 10:1 a. 95% Ethyl Alcohol
30. Which of the following chemical fixative b. 100% Methanol
precipitates nucleoproteins and for this reason is c. 10% Formalin
an essential constituent of most compound d. 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
nuclear fixatives? 38. Which of the ff solutions is used to remove the
a. Chromic acid excess osmic acid and black osmic oxide crystals in
b. Glacial acetic acid tissues?
c. Formic acid a. Alcoholic iodine
d. Picric acid b. Cold distilled water
31. Specimen submitted for electron microscopic c. Acid alcohol
examination should be fixed with_______. d. Equal parts of Ether and alcohol
a. 10% formaldehyde 39. Which of the ff solutions is used to remove the
b. 4% glutaraldehyde excess osmic acid and black osmic oxide crystals in
c. 95% ethanol tissues?
d. 70% isopropanol a. Alcoholic iodine
32. Which of the ff. solutions is used for the removal b. Cold distilled water
of mercuric chloride deposit in metallic fixative? c. Acid alcohol
a. Sodium thiosulfate d. Equal parts of Ether and alcohol
b. Saturated Solution of picric acid 40. Which of the ff is recommended for
c. Saturated solution of iodine demonstration of chromatin, mitochondria,
d. Distilled water mitotic figures, Golgi bodies, RBC and colloid
33. Schaudinn’s fixative contains_______ containing tissues?
a. Lead nitrate a. Bouins
b. Picric acid b. Orth’s fluid
c. Mercuric chloride c. Ethanol
d. Potassium dichromate d. Regauds fluid
34. Which of the ff fixative is recommended for the 41. Which of the ff fixative agent is excellent for
study of early degenerative processes and tissue demonstration of glycogen?
necrosis, demonstrates RIckettsiae and other a. Bouins solution
b. Moller’s 49. The most critical step in tissue processing which is
c. Picric acid too difficult to correct is ________:
d. Orth’s fluid a. Fixation
42. Which of the ff cytologic fixative is mainly used for b. Embedding
tumor biopsy? c. Dehydration
a. Moller’s fluid d. Clearing
b. Zenkers fluid 50. Which of the ff is a chemical agent used for
c. Heidenhein Susa decalcification and also for tissue softening?
d. Carnoys solution a. Perenyi’s fluid
43. All of the following are practical consideration of b. Phloroglucin-Nitric Acid
fixation EXCEPT: c. Formic Acid
a. Concentration 51. What is the most rapid decalcifying agent which is
b. Duration recommended for urgent works?
c. Penetration a. Hydrochloride Acid
d. Speed b. Formol-Nitric Acid
e. Volume c. Phloroglucin-Nitric Acid
44. Which of the ff fixative agent is generally d. Perenyi’s fluid
recommended for demonstration of acid 52. Which decalcifying agent produces better nuclear
mucopolysaccharides? staining with lesser tissue distortion that Nitric
a. Acetone acid or Hydrochloric acid?
b. Picric Acid a. Formic Acid
c. Lead Acetate b. Trichloroacetic acid
d. Zenkers Fluid c. Chromic acid
45. After decalcification is complete, acid can be d. Citric acid
removed from tissues or neutralized chemically by 53. Which of the following is a fixative of choice for
immersing the decalcified bone in either ___ enzyme studies?
a. Equal part of ethanol and ether a. Formalin
b. Formalin and Saline solution b. Alcohol
c. Glacial acetic acid and 40% formaldehyde c. Osmic acid
d. Saturated lithium carbonate and 5-10% d. Acetone
aqueous sodium bicarbonate solution 54. Which of the following is the BEST fixative for
46. Which of the following fixative is used for fixing routine post-mortem tissues?
embryo? a. Formol corrosive
a. Bouins fluid b. Glutaraldehyde
b. Heidenhein Susa c. Buffered neutral formalin
c. Brasil’s picroformol fluid d. Formol saline
d. Flemming’s fluid 55. The volume of decalcifying fluid must be ____
47. What is recommended for fixing small pieces of a. 50 to 100 times more than the specimen
liver, spleen, connective tissue, fibers and nuclei? b. 10 to 20 times more than the specimen
a. Helly’s solution 56. The yellow color imparted by nitric acid from the
b. Gendre’s Fluid formation of nitrous acid can be respectively
c. Heidenhein Susa removed and neutralized using ___
d. Zenker’s fluid a. Sodium sulfate and ammonia water
48. Which of the following fixative and dehydrating b. 0.1% urea and sodium thiosulfate
agent is used for blood and bone marrow smear? c. Sodium thiosulfate and sodium sulphate
a. Acid alcohol d. 0.1% urea and sodium sulfate
b. Ethanol 57. What compound is present when cloudiness of
c. Butanol the reagent results during chemical test for
d. Methanol complete decalcification?
a. Calcium phosphate
b. Calcium sulfate
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Calcium hydroxide
58. Fats are usually reserved best if the tissue is fixed
in _______
a. Osmium tetroxide
b. Carnoy
c. Boulin
d. Helly
59. Fixatives containing chromate salts usually require
a. Additional fixation
b. Washing in alcohol
c. Washing in water
d. No special treatment
60. Most routine cryostat work is performed with a
chamber temperature of _________
a. -5 C
b. -20 C
c. -80 C
d. -160 C

Medical Technology Reviewer

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Medical Technology Reviewer

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Medical Technology Reviewer

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

What is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in adult?

What is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in adult?

What term describes the change in shape of erythrocyte seen on a Wright’s stained peripheral blood smear?

What term describes the change in shape of erythrocyte seen on a Wright’s stained peripheral blood smear?

Yellow- from cahp (sure answers) c.

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

8. What is the length of storage for tissue slides?

HISTOPATHOLOGY 51/75= 24 MISTAKES

1. What is the main reason when tissue smells of clearing

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

CAHP, OCAS, MMM, MCL, EWNS

What is the corrected WBC count?

WBC differential: 5 band neutrophils; 27 segmented

Many sickle cells were observed upon review of the

A. Perform a manual hematocrit and redraw

A. Dilute WBCs 1:10; multiply × 10

What is the most likely diagnosis based on these

A. Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)

Which of the following additional laboratory tests

These clinical manifestations and laboratory

These clinical manifestations and laboratory

43. It is unlikely to recover larva in stool specimen from C. Polyvinyl alcohol

B. ELISA D. 61. All of the following nematodes reside in organs other

45. What is the recommended formalin concentration to A. Loa loa

Column A Column B A. Enterobius vermicularis

46. Parastrongylus cantonensis C A. Stage 1 B. Ancylostoma duodenale

A. Number of columns of central nuclei D. Third stage larva

C. Presence or absence of a sheath A. Chrysops

D. Length of cephalic space B. Aedes poecilus

66. In filariasis, man is considered a ________________. C. Mansonia bonnae

A. Dead end host D. Aedes aegypti

B. Intermediate host 72. Which insect vector is associated with Malayan

A. Presence of vegetation that harbour the microfilaria D. Aedes aegypti

C. Presence of humans that have travelled from an A. Chrysops

Wuchereria bancrofti PARASITOLOGY UNIT EXAM 1 AND 2

Parasite Heterophyid flukes

51. Fill in the table. Supply the mode of transmission,

Parasite Echinostoma ilocanum

52. Fill in the table. Supply the mode of transmission,