10/07/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 18 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
   
1. A car travels half of its destination with speed of 5. If A  B  A  B , then the angle between vector
40 km/h and another half with speed v. If the  
A & B is
average speed of the car is 48 km/h then the
value of v is (1) 60° (2) 30°
(1) 55 km/h (2) 60 km/h (3) 90° (4) 45°
(3) 52 km/h (4) 50 km/h 6. In uniform circular motion which of the following
quantity is zero?
2. In a case of a projectile projected from ground,
the velocity is perpendicular to acceleration at (1) Change in acceleration

(1) Highest point of projection (2) Magnitude of change in velocity

(3) Change in magnitude of velocity
(2) Point of project
(4) Magnitude of change in linear momentum
(3) Point of landing
7. Which of the following statement is correct for
(4) Point equal half of maximum height
friction?
3. A satellite is orbiting very close to surface of the (1) Static friction is self adjusting friction
earth. Its time period is approximately
(2) Kinetic friction is self adjusting friction
(1) 42.3 minutes (2) 4.4 hours
(3) Limiting friction is self adjusting friction
(3) 2.4 hours (4) 84.6 minutes
(4) Both (1) & (2)
4. Which of the following is a unit vector?
8. The change in surface energy when a drop of
iˆ iˆ  jˆ radius R splits into 8 droplets, each of radius r is
(1) (2) (surface tension is T)
2 2
(1) 2R2T (2) 4R2T
ˆj iˆ  jˆ  kˆ
(3) (4) (3) 8R2T (4) R2T
2 2
(1)
Test-18 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

9. Which of the following relation is correct? (Where 15. What is the work done by the electric field to take
symbol have their usual meanings) any charge q from point A to D?
     
(1) F    r (2)   r  F
     
(3) F  r   (4)   F  r 2 Qq
(1) Zero (2)
10. A body cooling from 70°C to 50°C in 1 minute. 3 40a
The time taken to cool same body from 50°C to
Qq 4 Qq
40°C is (Take surrounding temperature is 30°C) (3) (4)
340a 3 40a
(1) 1 minute
16. In an ideal thermodynamic system, gas is allowed
(2) Less than 1 minute to expand from volume V1 to V2. The work done
(3) Cannot be predicted by the system is maximum if it is
(4) Greater than 1 minute (1) Isothermal expansion
(2) Adiabatic expansion
11. Which of the following gates corresponds to the
given truth table? (3) Isobaric expansion
(4) Work done will be same for all processes
A B Y 17. Equation of a plane progressive harmonic wave
0 0 0  1 
is given as y = 0.02 sin  20t  x   . The
 25 6
1 0 1 speed of wave is (All quantities are in SI units)
0 1 1 5
(1) m/s (2) 250 m/s
4
1 1 0
(3) 500 m/s (4) 750 m/s
(1) NAND (2) NOR 18. If two identical wires have resistivity 1 and 2.
(3) XOR (4) OR They are connected in series, then the equivalent
resistivity is equal to
12. Which of the following regions of output
characteristic of transistor is used when it is used (1) 1 2 (2) 1 +2
as amplifier? 1  2 1  2
(3) (4)
(1) Saturation region (2) Cut off region 2 2
(3) Active region (4) All of these 19. A wire of resistance 20 is bent to form a
square. What will be the equivalent resistance
13. In hydrogen atom, for which transition minimum between diagonally opposite points?
energy is emitted? (1) 10  (2) 5 
(1) n1 = 2, n2 = 3 (2) n1 = 2, n2 = 4 (3) 15  (4) 2.5 
(3) n1 = 3, n2 = 4 (4) n1 = 4, n2 = 5 20. A ball is moving with velocity 5 m/s towards a
heavy wall moving towards the ball with speed 2
14. The potential difference between two points A m/s. Assuming collision to be elastic, what will be
and B is the speed of ball immediately after the collision?
(1) 9 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(3) 2.5 m/s (4) 5 m/s
 k
21. A force F  2 iˆ( x  0) acts on a particle moving
x
in x-direction. The work done by this force in
displacing a particle from x = +a to x = +2a
(k = Positive constant) is equal to
Q  1 
(1) Zero (2) 1 k k
40a  5
 (1) (2)
2a 2a
Q  1  Q  1  k k
(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) (4)
20a  5  40a  5  a a

(2)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-18 (Code-A)

22. In a velocity selector, electric field vector and 29. In Bohr’s atomic model, the time period of an
magnetic field vector must be oriented such that electron in nth orbit depends on
angle between them is n3 n3
(1) Tn  (2) Tn 
(1) 0° (2) 90° Z2 Z3
(3) 180° (4) 360°
n2 n
23. What will be the moment of inertia of a uniform (3) Tn  2
(4) Tn 
Z Z
square plate of mass M and side a about an axis
30. A magnet of length ‘L’ and magnetic moment M is
perpendicular to plane passing through its
given. If it is bent in the shape as shown in figure,
centre? then the new magnetic moment will be
Ma2 Ma2
(1) (2)
6 12
Ma2 2Ma 2 M 2M
(3) (4) (1) (2)
8 5 2 3
24. The principle of working of transformer is 2M 2M
(3) (4)
(1) Self induction (2) Mutual induction 3 
(3) Bernoulli’s principle (4) All of these 31. A PN junction diode is made up of a material
25. What is the pressure head in Bernoulli's theorem? which has energy gap of 3.0 eV. The maximum
wavelength or radiation that can be absorbed by
(p = pressure,  = density, g = acceleration due to the material is nearly equal to
gravity)
(1) 6216 Å (2) 5426 Å
p gp (3) 4140 Å (4) 3146 Å
(1) (2)
  32. An electron (rest mass = m0) is moving with
p 5
(3) (4) p speed v so that its mass becomes m0 , then the
g 3
value of v is
26. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature 10 cm
each. If the refractive index of the material of lens c
(1) 0.5c (2)
is 1.5, then the focal length of lens is 5
(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm 2 4
(3) c (4) c
(3) – 20 cm (4) – 10 cm 5 5
33. When 237 209,
27. Keeping all parameter fixed if distance between 92U nucleus is converted into 83Bi

two slits in Young’s double slit experiment is x and y number of and  particles are emitted
–

decreased, then fringe width will respectively then the value of x and y are
respectively
(1) Increase
(1) 5, 7 (2) 7, 6
(2) Decrease
(3) 7, 5 (4) 6, 7
(3) Remain same 34. The longest wavelength emitted in hydrogen
(4) May increase or decrease depends on atom belonging to Balmer series, is
intensity of source 16 36
(1) (2)
28. Which of the following relations is a correct 3R 7R
Einstein’s photoelectric equation? [All symbols 16 36
have their usual meaning] (3) (4)
7R 5R
hc 35. If a radiation of wavelength 200 nm is incident on
(1) Kmax = h –  (2) eV0   0
 a metal surface having work function 4 eV, then
the value of stopping potential required is
hc  1 1 
(3) V0   (4) All of these
e   0  (1) 1.08 V (2) 2.21 V
(3) 3.52 V (4) 6.21 V
(3)
Test-18 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

36. Ratio of intensities of two waves from slits S1 and 42. The instantaneous angular position of a point on
S2 is 4 : 1 respectively. Then the ratio of rotating wheel is given as = 4t3 – 12t2. The
maximum to that of minimum intensities in YDSE torque on the wheel is zero at
is (1) 1 s (2) 1.5 s
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 9 : 1 (3) 2 s (4) 2.5 s
(3) 9 : 5 (4) 3 : 2 43. When a bob is suspended by light string and it is
37. If angle of minimum deviation by an equilateral imparted a horizontal velocity to complete the full
prism is equal to its prism angle, then the circular trajectory in vertical plane. What is the
refractive index of material of prism can be difference in tension between lowest and highest
(1) 1.12 (2) 1.73 point of path?
(3) 1.40 (4) 1.08 (1) mg
38. An air bubble in a glass slab ( = 1.5) appears (2) 6mg
3 cm deep when viewed from one face and 4 cm (3) 5mg
when viewed from opposite face, then real (4) 3mg
thickness of glass slab is
44. A monatomic gas at 300 K is compressed
(1) 8.5 cm (2) 9 cm
1
(3) 9.5 cm (4) 10.5 cm adiabatically to th of its initial volume. The final
8
39. A transformer is used to illuminate a bulb rated as temperature of the gas is
100 W and 110 V, from a 220 V mains. If main
current is 0.6 A, then the efficiency of transformer (1) 1200°C (2) 927°C
is nearly (3) 527°C (4) 527 K
(1) 100% (2) 76% 45. If the current flowing in a conductor varies with
(3) 88% (4) 94% time as shown (in a semi-circular path), then find
the net charge flown in 2 seconds
40. 40 W, 220 V and 110 W, 220 V bulbs are
connected in series with 440 volt supply, then
(1) 110 W bulb will fuse
(2) 40 W bulb will fuse
(3) Both 110 W and 40 W will fuse
(4) No bulb will fuse
41. When plane of dip circle is in magnetic meridian it
shows dip angle 30°, if plane of dip circle is
turned by 30°, the new dip angle is
(1) 1.57 C
3 2
(1) tan–1   (2) tan–1   (2) 2.57 C
2 3
(3) 3.14 C
5
(3) tan–1(2) (4) tan–1   (4) 0.57 C
3

CHEMISTRY
46. Which metal carbonyl act as better oxidizing
agent? (1)
(1) Ni(CO)4 (2) Cr(CO)6
(3) Fe(CO)5 (4) V(CO)6 (2)
47. Among the following which is most likely
unhybridized molecule?
(1) PCl3 (2) PCl5
(3)
(3) PH3 (4) NH3
48. Among the following, the optically inactive
(4) Both (2) and (3)
compound is
(4)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-18 (Code-A)

55. Which of the following will not form

disproportionated product?
49.
Cold
(1) Cl2 + NaOH 
Number of lone pair present in compound (C), (dil)
obtained in above given reactions mechanism, Hot
is/are (2) Br2 + NaOH 

(conc)
(1) 2
(3) XeF4 + H2O 
(2) 3
(3) 4 (4) XeF2 + H2O 
(4) 1
56. Which of the following metal nitrate may
50. Which is not correct match in the following? decomposes into corresponding nitrites on
(1) 0.2 gm molecules – 2.4 gm atoms H heating?
C6H12O6
(1) NaNO3 (2) LiNO3
(2) 0.1 mol H2(g) – 4.08 L gas
(3) Mg(NO3)2 (4) Ba(NO3)2
(at one atm pressure
and 273°C temperature) 57. Dry ice is
(3) 6.022 × 1023 atoms – 0.1mole C4H10(g) (1) CO2(s) (2) H2O(s)
hydrogen (3) D2O(s) (4) H2O2(s)
(4) 50 ml Hg – 3.4 gm atoms Hg 58. The total number of voids in face centered cubic
(density = 13.6 gm/ml) unit cell is
(atomic mass Hg : 200 u)
(1) 4 (2) 8
51. Choose the incorrect order as the property
(3) 10 (4) 12
indicated
59. Consider the following statements.
(1) NH3  SbH3  AsH3  PH3 (Boiling point)
(i) On adding methyl alcohol to water, boiling
(2) NH3  SbH3  AsH3  PH3 (Melting point)
point of water increases
(3) NH3  PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (Bond angle) (ii) When NaCl is added to water, depression in
(4) N–H  P–H  As–H  Sb–H (Bond length) freezing point is observed
52. Which of the following species is diamagnetic in (iii) Diffusion of solution occurs from a region of
nature? its high concentration to a region of its low
(1) KO2 (2) Na2O2 concentration
Choose the correct options
(3) O2[PF6] (4) ClO2
(1) (i) and (ii)
53. Which of the following molecule has non-zero
(2) (i) and (iii)
dipole moment?
(1) PCl2F3 (3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) XeF2
60. What is the value of G° for the following cell
(3) I3 reaction?
(4) XeF4 Zn(s) + Ag2O(s)  H2O(l)  Zn2(+) (aq)+2Ag(s)+2OH() (aq)
54. Incorrect order of thermal stability is Given: EZn/Zn2(+)   0.76 V, EAg2O/Ag   0.80 V 
(1) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 (1) –1.9  107 kJ
(2) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 (2) – 301 kJ
(3) MgO < CaO < SrO < BaO (3) –1.8  103 kJ
(4) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 < SrSO4 (4) – 200 kJ

(5)
Test-18 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

61. Which of the following is the correct plot for 68. How much electricity in terms of faraday is
Freundlich adsorption isotherm? required to produce 3 g of Al from molten Al2O3?
(1) 1 F (2) 0.5 F
(3) 0.33 F (4) 0.22 F
(1) (2) 69. For a first order reaction, the time required for
99.9% completion is 100 min. What will be the
rate constant for the reaction?
(1) 1.25 × 10–4 s–1 (2) 1.15 × 10–3 s–1
(3) 2.2 × 10–2 s–1 (4) 4.5 × 10–2 s–1
(3) (4) 70. Consider the following statements
a. Molecularity of a reaction can be zero.
b. Order of a reaction can be fractional.
62. Iron is galvanised by c. Molecularity is not defined for a complex
(1) Cu (2) Zn reaction.
(3) Au (4) Ag Choose the incorrect statement(s)
63. Consider the following complex ions (1) a only (2) a and c only
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c
71. Which of the following is not an example of
The correct order of crystal field splitting energy heterogeneous catalysis?
is Pt(s)
(1) 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g)  2SO3 (g)
(1) I  II  III (2) II  III  I
(3) III  II  I (4) I  III  II Fe(s)
(2) N2 (g)  3H2 (g) 
 2NH3 (g)
64. The number of geometrical isomers possible for NO(g)
the complex of the type [Ma2b2c2] is (3) 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) 
 2SO3 (g)
(1) 4 (2) 3 Pt(s)
(4) 4NH3 (g)  5O2 (g)  4NO(g)  6H2O(l)
(3) 5 (4) 8
72. Consider the following statement.
a. H2S is less acidic than H2Te
65. b. PCl3 undergoes hydrolysis to give fumes of
The compound (C) is HCl
c. PH3 is basic as it forms phosphonium iodide
with HI
(1) (2)
d. PH3 has higher boiling point that NH3
Choose the correct statements
(1) a, b and c only (2) b, c and d only
(3) (4) (3) a, c and d only (4) a, b, c and d
73. Choose the correct statement among the
66. The reductive ozonolysis of natural rubber will
following
finally form
(1) OF2 is known as oxygen difluoride because F
(1) Acetone and Ethanal
is less electronegative than oxygen
(2) 4-Oxopentanal
(3) Acetone and Propanal (2) SO2 is both oxidising as well reducing but
(4) All of these SO3 is only oxidising
67. Which of the following is a biodegradable (3) SF4 can act as Lewis base and also as Lewis
polymer? acid
(1) Nylon–6, 6 (2) Nylon–2–nylon–6 (4) Ozone is a strong oxidising agent but less
(3) Nylon–6 (4) All of these powerful than O2

(6)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-18 (Code-A)

74. Which of the following is the correct match?

(1) Extent of hydration : Cl– > F– > Br– > I– 80. .
(2) Boiling point : F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 The compound ‘Z’ is
(3) Bond energy : Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
(4) Bond length : I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (1)
75. Identify the ion which should be colourless in
aqueous medium
(1) V3+ (2) Mn2+ (2)
(3) Co2+ (4) Sc3+
76. The complex in which Ni is sp3 hybridized with (3)
+2 oxidation state is
(1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [NiCl4]2–
(4)
(3) [Ni(CN)4]2– (4) All of these
77. Which of the following complexes is optically CH Cl KMnO /H
81. 
3
 A 
4

active? AlCl3

(1) [MA2B4] (2) [MA3B3] (i) SOCl

B 
2
 C
(ii) H2 /Pd  BaSO4 (Major)
(3) [M(AA)3] (4) All of these
The compound ‘C’ is
Br
78. 
2
 X(Major) .
h

The major product X is (1) (2)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

82. The compound which is not meso-tartaric acid

(1)
(3) (4)

79. Arrange the following in the correct order of acidic

strength
(2)

(a) (b)

(3)
(c) (d)

(1) (c) > (b) > (a) > (d)

(2) (a) > (b) > (c) > (d)
(4)
(3) (a) > (c) > (b) > (d)
(4) (a) > (d) > (b) > (c)

(7)
Test-18 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

83. Choose the incorrect match 87. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is

(1) Vitamin K : Increased blood clotting time (1) +10 (2) +8
(2) Vitamin D : Cheilosis
(3) +6 (4) +5
(3) Vitamin C : Bleeding gums
88. The ‘Calgon’ is
(4) Vitamin B12 : Pernicious anaemia
(1) Na6P6O18 (2) Na2S2O6
84. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O
and its molecular mass is 90 g. The molecular (3) NaAlSi2O8S (4) CaSO4. MgSO4
formula of the compound is
89. Number of B–O–B linkages present in borax is
(1) C4H8O4 (2) C3H6O3
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) C6H12O6 (4) C2H4O2
(3) 1 (4) Zero
85. The maximum number of electrons possible in an
atom having (n + l) value equal to 3, is 90. The compound which is aromatic is
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 10 (1) (2)
86. Ka for CH3COOH is 10–5 and Kb for NH4OH is
10–5. The pH value of ammonium acetate will be
(1) 10 (2) 5 (3) (4)
(3) 7 (4) 7.5

BOTANY
91. A are consumer decomposer protists. Under (1) Noctiluca (2) Gymnodinium
favorable conditions, they form B which may (3) Melosira (4) Navicula

grow and spread over several feet. Choose the 94. Select the mismatched pair.
correct option for A and B. Fruits Edible parts
A B (1) Cashew nut Cotyledons
(1) Slime moulds Fruiting bodies (2) Mango Fleshy mesocarp
(2) Euglenoids Plasmodium (3) Almond Mesocarp
(3) Slime moulds Plasmodium (4) Apple Fleshy thalamus
(4) Euglenoids Fruiting bodies 95. Read the following statements and identify the
92. How many of the following are incorrectly incorrect ones.
matched?
(a) Intrafascicular and interfascicular cambium
(a) Porphyra – chlorophyll a and d are the lateral meristems that participate in
(b) Dictyota – Fucoxanthin the secondary growth of dicot stem.
(c) Ulothrix – Mannitol (b) The heartwood comprises dead elements
(d) Sargassum – Laminarin with highly lignified cell walls.
(1) 1 (2) 3 (c) Phelloderm has thin walled parenchymatous
(3) 4 (4) 2 cells.
93. Identify the organism that shows the following (d) The oldest layer of phloem lies just outside
characteristics. the pericycle.
(a) Zygotic meiosis (e) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the
(b) Causes red tide of the sea monocots.
(c) Mesokaryon organisation (1) All except (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(d) Whirling whips (3) (d) only (4) (c) and (e)

(8)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-18 (Code-A)

96. Identify the stages of cell cycle in which the 101. Find the direction of water flow in the given
following events occur. system
(A) Duplication of most of the organelles
(B) Duplication of centrioles
(C) Synthesis of tubulin proteins
(A) (B) (C) (1) A 
 C (2) B 
 C
(1) G2 phase G1 phase M phase (3) C 
 A 
(4) A  B

(2) S phase M phase G0 phase 102. All the given plants are dioecious, except
(3) M phase Interphase G1 phase (1) Papaya (2) Date palm
(4) G1 phase S phase G2 phase (3) Marchantia (4) Coconut
97. Match the following columns 103. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen
grain.
Column-I Column-II
(1) Exine of the pollen grain has prominent
a. Mg2+ (i) Alcohol apertures called germ pores where
dehydrogenase sporopollenin is absent
b. Mo (ii) RuBisCO (2) Inner wall of the pollen grain is called intine
c. Zn2+ (iii) Catalase (3) Pollen grains are generally spherical in shape
d. Iron (iv) Nitrogenase (4) In 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen is shed
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) at three-celled stage
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) 104. The pure line round seeded pea plant was
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) crossed with wrinkled seeded pea plant. The F1
generation is _____ and it can be explained by
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) _____, (respectively)
98. In C4 plants, number of carbon atoms in (1) Wrinkled ; Law of segregation
(a) Primary CO2 acceptor (2) Round ; Law of dominance
(b) Primary CO2 fixation product (3) Round ; Codominance
(a) (b) (4) Wrinkled ; Law of dominance
(1) 5 3 105. "Pusa Swarnim" is a/an
(2) 3 4 (1) Aphid resistant variety of Brassica

(3) 3 5 (2) White rust resistant variety of Brassica

(4) 4 3 (3) Shoot and fruit borer resistant variety of flat

bean
99. All of the enzymes of Krebs’ cycle are found in
(4) Hill bunt resistant variety of wheat
mitochondrial matrix, except
106. In STP
(1) -ketoglutaric dehydrogenase complex
(1) Primary treatment is a biological process
(2) Malic dehydrogenase
(2) Flocs are anaerobic and autotrophic
(3) Fumarase microbes
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase (3) BOD measures the organic matter present in
100. Statement A: Shuttles do not occur in the water
prokaryotes. (4) Activated sludge is the effluent of tertiary
Statement B: NADH2 molecules produced during treatment
glycolysis can directly enter the mitochondria. 107. "Sexual deceit" is employed by
(1) Only A is correct (1) Ophrys to get pollinated
(2) Only B is correct (2) Orchids on mango for shelter
(3) Both A and B are correct (3) Cuckoo on crow
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (4) Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos island

(9)
Test-18 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

108. Humus is 114. Read the following and choose the incorrect
A. Dark coloured amorphous substance statement.
B. Highly resistant to microbial action (1) Majority of red algae are marine with greater
concentrations found in the warmer areas
(1) Both A & B are correct
(2) Thallus of Marchantia is dorsiventral and
(2) Both A & B are incorrect
closely appressed to the substrate
(3) A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) In Sequoia, reduced male gametophyte is
(4) A is incorrect but B is correct called pollen grain and its endosperm
109. Most important cause for biodiversity loss is represents future sporophytes
(1) Over exploitation (4) Wolfia is the smallest flowering plant
(2) Alien species invasion 115. Which of the following is not related to the floral
(3) Co-extinctions formula of belladonna?
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation (1) (2) G(2)
110. The international treaty to control ozone depletion
is (3) (4) K(5)
(1) Kyoto Protocol (2) Montreal Protocol 116. (i) cambium forms complete, continuous but
(3) Bali convention (4) Earth Summit wavy ring during secondary growth in (ii) .
111. Read the following statements and choose the (1) (i) Vascular (2) (i) Cork
correct pair.
(ii) Dicot stem (ii) Dicot leaf
(1) Collection of preserved – Herbarium
plant and animal specimens (3) (i) Vascular (4) (i) Cork
(2) Solanum, Panthera, – Genera (ii) Dicot root (ii) Dicot root
Triticum, Felis 117. Read the following statements w.r.t. prokaryotic
(3) Reproduction is – Albugo cell.
synonymous to growth I. Single envelope system present.
(4) Study of diversity of living – Taxonomy II. Mesosome increases surface area for
organisms along with their enzyme action.
evolutionary relationships III. The small circular DNA outside the genomic
112. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option. DNA confers unique phenotype.
A. Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate in class IV. Contains pseudo-vacuoles.
______. (1) Only I is correct
B. ______ undergoes rapid multiplication and (2) Only I and II are correct
causes red tide
(3) Only I, II and III correct
C. Sleeping sickness is caused by ______
(4) I, II, III and IV are correct
protozoan.
118. Crossing over
D. The protein coat of virus consist of small
subunits called ______. (1) Occurs in dyad stage of meiosis
(2) Causes recombination between genes of
homologous chromosomes
(3) Occurs after chiasmata formation in leptotene
(4) Occurs in diplotene, the longest phase of
meiosis
113. W.M. Stanley 119. Loss of water in liquid phase from the margin of
(1) Discovered TMV leaves in many herbaceous plants is/occurs
(2) Coined the term virus (1) Guttation
(3) Demonstrated that extract of infected plant (2) Transpiration
can cause tobacco mosaic disease in healthy (3) At noon
plants
(4) Due to cohesion-tension model of water
(4) Crystallised virus and showed that crystals movement
are largely made up of proteins

(10)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-18 (Code-A)

120. The essential element which maintains the 125. Choose the correct statements
ribosome structure is a. Perisperm is the persistant nucellus in the
(1) Responsible for carbohydrate translocation seeds of black pepper.
(2) Needed during mitotic spindle formation b. Single large cotyledon in grass is situated
(3) Constituent of ring structure of chlorophyll towards lateral side of the embryonal axis.
(4) Needed in the synthesis of auxin c. Seeds are the basis of agriculture.
121. Read the following statements. d. Citrus has only one embryo in a seed.
Statement-I : Water splitting complex is located (1) Only a
on the inner side of the thylakoid membrane. (2) Only a and b
Statement-II : During chemiosmosis breakdown (3) Only a, b and c
of proton gradient releases energy.
(4) a, b, c and d
(1) Both I and II are incorrect
126. A man suffering from haemophilia marries a
(2) I is correct but II is incorrect
normal woman without any history of haemophilia
(3) I is incorrect but II is correct in her family. What percentage of their sons are
(4) Both I and II are correct affected?
122. Complete the given reaction of the cycle present (1) 100% (2) 75%
in mitochondrial matrix (3) 50% (4) 0%
127. Study the given pedigree chart and choose the
correct statement.
(1) A–Succinic acid; B– Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(2) A–Malic acid; B–Transacetylase
(3) A–OAA; B–Citrate synthase
(4) A–-KGA; B–Thiokinase (1) The trait under study is dominant
123. The phytohormone which was first isolated from (2) Both parents are homozygous
human urine, shows
(3) The trait can be X-linked recessive disease
a. Bolting effect haemophilia
b. Apical dominance (4) The trait depicted is autosomal recessive like
c. Control of xylem differentiation cystic fibrosis
d. Promote leaf senescence 128. In prokaryotes, semi-conservative DNA replication
e. Ripening of fruit was first proved by using
f. Initiation of rooting in stem cutting (1) Radioactive 35S and 32P isotope
(1) b, c and f (2) a, d and e (2) Heavy 15N isotope
(3) b, e and f (4) a, b and d (3) Vicia faba
124. The given vegetative propagule is (4) 3H isotope in thymine
129. (i) The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA
referred to as A .
(ii) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
referred to as B regulation.
(iii) The secondary structure of tRNA looks like
C .
A B C
(1) Minisatellite Positive L-shaped
(1) Bulb of onion (2) Micro-satellite Negative Inverted
(2) Rhizome of turmeric L- shaped
(3) Tuber of potato (3) Minisatellite Negative Clover-leaf
(4) Bulbil of Agave (4) Micro-satellite Positive Clover-leaf

(11)
Test-18 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

130. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus 133. The natural reservoir for phosphorus is
is induced by (1) Ocean (2) Rock
(1) Mutation breeding (2) Hybridisation
(3) Atmosphere (4) Living organisms
(3) Selection (4) Polyploid breeding
134. “Hotspots of biodiversity”, are/show
131. The microbial biocontrol agent with species-
specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal (1) High degree of endemism
applications is (2) Slow rate of extinction
(1) Trichoderma (3) Less species richness
(2) Glomus (4) Only five in India
(3) Dragonflies 135. Natural aging of lake by biological enrichment of
(4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus its water is
132. Which of the following factors increases (1) Eutrophication
population density more significantly if new
(2) Biomagnification
habitat is colonised?
(1) Natality (2) Mortality (3) Biofortification
(3) Immigration (4) Emigration (4) Bioprospecting

ZOOLOGY
136. Endometrial thickening in the follicular or 143. The brain size of Neanderthal man was about
proliferative phase is mainly brought about by (1) 1400 cc (2) 2400 cc
(1) Inhibin (2) Progesterone (3) 1000 cc (4) 500 cc
(3) Estrogen (4) LH 144. Which of the following is/are non-ionising
137. Among the following which contraceptive method radiation(s)?
has the least failure rate? (1) Gamma rays (2) Ultraviolet
(1) Coitus Interruptus (2) Barrier methods (3) X-rays (4) Beta particles
(3) Oral contraceptives (4) Implants 145. Testosterone in human males is produced by
138. Human papilloma virus is responsible for causing (1) Sertoli cells (2) Leydig cells
(1) Syphilis (2) Genital herpes (3) Spermatogonia (4) Spermatozoa
(3) Chancroid (4) Genital warts 146. During cleavage, there is an increase in all of the
following, except
139. Stress leads to increase in all processes in the
body, except (1) Number of blastomeres
(1) Gluconeogenesis (2) Proteolysis (2) Size of blastomeres
(3) Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
(3) Lipolysis (4) Glycogenesis
(4) DNA content
140. HIV infection can be confirmed by which test?
147. All of the following factors affect enzyme activity
(1) PCR
directly, except
(2) ELISA (1) Temperature
(3) Southern blot (2) Exponential rise in enzyme concentration
(4) Western blot (3) Substrate concentration
141. Placenta has function similar as that of _____ (4) pH
with respect to progesterone secretion. 148. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t. the
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. events that occur in the life cycle of Plasmodium?
(1) Liver (2) Corpus luteum (1) Release of sporozoites : In salivary glands
(3) Uterus (4) Fallopian tube of humans
142. The idea that “Certain factors called mutations (2) Asexual reproduction : In human RBCs
can bring sudden change even in a span of single and liver cells
generation” was supported by (3) Development of : In gut of mosquito
(1) Darwin (2) Weismann gametes
(3) Ernst Haeckel (4) Hugo de Vries (4) Fertilisation : In gut of mosquito

(12)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-18 (Code-A)

149. Complete the following analogy: 157. The joint between prezygapophysis and post
Scorpion : Book lungs :: Prawn : _______ zygapophysis of adjacent vertebrae is same as
Choose the correct option that present between
(1) Book gills (2) Gills (1) Atlas and axis (2) Ribs and Sternum
(3) Coxal gland (4) Green gland
(3) Radius and ulna (4) Tibia and fibula
150. Hirudinaria differs from Nereis in all of the
following features, except 158. Which of the following is the 6th cranial nerve?
a. Nephridia to remove excretory waste (1) Trochlear nerve (2) Abducens nerve
b. Development is indirect (3) Occulomotor nerve (4) Optic nerve
c. Dioecious with sexual dimorphism
159. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. the reaction
d. Presence of parapodia
under the influence of brush border enzymes.
Choose the correct option.
(1) a only (2) a, b and c only (1)
(3) a and b only (4) a, b, c and d
(2)
151. Closed circulatory system is present in members
of (3)
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Annelida
(3) Aschelminthes (4) Cnidaria (4)
152. The production of uric acid is enhanced by the 160. Auerbach's plexus is present in
excessive metabolism of
(1) Submucosa of intestine
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Nucleic acid
(2) Muscularis layer in anterior part of
(3) Lipoprotein (4) Fat
oesophagus
153. Under which of the following conditions
appreciable amount of glucose does not appear (3) Muscularis layer of intestine
in urine? (4) Mucosal layer of alimentary canal
a. Diabetes mellitus
161. In female cockroach, which of the following
b. Diabetes insipidus
structures does not help in excretion?
c. Glucose concentration exceeds 180 mg/100
ml of blood (1) Fat bodies (2) Nephrocyte
d. Excessive secretion of insulin (3) Malpighian tubule (4) Uricose gland
Choose the correct option. 162. The maximum amount of air a person can
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only breathe in after forceful expiration is
(3) c and d only (4) b and d only
(1) TV + IRV (2) TLC – RV
154. Which of the following is an unpaired bone of
human body? (3) ERV + RV (4) TV + ERV
(1) Hyoid (2) Maxilla 163. Total number of spiracles present in abdomen of
(3) Palatine bone (4) Nasal bone cockroach are
155. Foramen ovale is one of the shunts in foetus (1) 10 pairs (2) 8 pairs
which connects
(3) 2 pairs (4) 4 pairs
(1) Pulmonary artery to pulmonary vein
(2) Right and left atria 164. Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from
(3) Pulmonary artery and aorta substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis
leaving double bonds belong to
(4) Interventricular septum
156. Choose the incorrect statement (1) Hydrolases (2) Lyases
(1) The opening of voltage gated Na+ channels (3) Dehydrogenases (4) Isomerases
causes depolarisation of axonal membrane 165. _______ is made up of a thin mesothelium
(2) Lubb sound appears at the beginning of (epithelium of visceral organs) with some
ventricular systole connective tissue. Choose the option which
(3) In myocardial infarction, ST segment is correctly fills up the given blank A.
depressed and T wave flattens
(1) Mucosa (2) Lamina propria
(4) Angina occur due to conditions that affect the
blood flow to heart (3) Serosa (4) Submucosa

(13)
Test-18 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

166. Partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated blood 173. Chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages
is similar to are features of
(1) pCO2 in tissue (1) Earthworm (2) Cockroach
(2) pO2 in alveoli (3) Sea star (4) Sycon
174. Which of the following is not a criticism of Natural
(3) pCO2 in oxygenated blood Selection theory?
(4) pCO2 in deoxygenated blood (1) Arrival of fittest
167. All of the following are responsible for increasing (2) Vestigeal organs
blood volume and pressure except (3) Discontinuous variation
(1) Renin (4) Mimicry and protective colouration
(2) Aldosterone 175. Choose the odd one w.r.t. connecting links
(3) Angiotensin II (1) Peripatus (2) Chimaera
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor (3) Neopilina (4) Limulus
168. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the cause of 176. Read the following characters
osteoporosis (a) Orthognathous face
(1) Accumulation of uric acid crystals (b) Cranial capacity of about 1650 cc
(2) Decreased level of estrogen (c) Omnivorous
(3) Decreased level of PTH (d) A well developed chin
Characters given above best describe
(4) Increased calcium consumption
(1) Homo erectus
169. Which of the following is considered as sensory
spot of ampulla and responsible for maintenance (2) Homo sapiens fossilis
of dynamic balance of body and posture? (3) Homo sapiens neanderthalis
(1) Tympanic membrane (4) Homo habilis
(2) Crista 177. Complete double circulation and amniotic cleidoic
eggs are found in
(3) Helicotrema
(1) Balaenoptera (2) Rabbit
(4) Ear ossicles
(3) Neophron (4) Humans
170. Squamous epithelium is present in the lining of
178. Lymph differs from serum in having
(1) Alveoli and capillaries
(1) Immunoglobulins (2) WBCs
(2) Lining of urinary bladder (3) RBCs (4) Water
(3) Trachea 179. Cytidine is a
(4) Stomach (1) Nitrogenous base
171. Which of the following is a direct method of gene (2) Nucleoside
transfer? (3) Nucleotide
(1) Cosmid mediated (4) Monomer of nucleic acid
(2) Phagemid mediated 180. Which of the following condition does not result
(3) Use of disarmed retrovirus in shifting of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve
to right?
(4) Electroporation
(1) High pH
172. Which of the following is an example of dense
regular connective tissue? (2) High pCO2
(1) Skin (2) Epimysium (3) High H+ concentration
(3) Ligament (4) Periosteum (4) High temperature



(14)
Edition: 2020-21