Test bank chapter (5)

Choose the most correct answer

1. A sample of oxygen occupies 47.2 liters under a pressure of 1240 torr at 25oC. What volume would it occupy at 25oC if
the pressure were decreased to 730 torr?
a) 27.8 L
b) 29.3 L
c) 32.3 L
d) 80.2 L

2. Under conditions of fixed temperature and amount of gas, Boyle's law requires that
I. P1V1 = P2V2
II. PV = constant
III. P1/P2 = V2/V1
a) I only
b) II only
c) III only
d) I, II, and III

3. The volume of a sample of nitrogen is 6.00 liters at 35oC and 740 torr. What volume will it occupy at STP?
a) 6.59 L
b) 5.46 L
c) 6.95 L
d) 5.18 L

4. The density of chlorine gas at STP, in grams per liter, is approximately:

a) 6.2
b) 3.2
c) 3.9
d) 4.5

Explanation: d = molar mass × p/ RT = 70 × 1/ 0.082× 273 = 3.17 g/L

5. What pressure (in atm) would be exerted by 76 g of fluorine gas in a 1.50 liter vessel at -37oC?
a) 26 atm
b) 4.1 atm
c) 19,600 atm
d) 84 atm

6. What is the density of ammonia gas at 2.00 atm pressure and a temperature of 25.0oC?
a) 0.720 g/L
b) 0.980 g/L
c) 1.39 g/L
d) 16.6 g/L

7. Convert 2.0 atm to mmHg

a) 150 mmHg
b) 0.27 mmHg
c) 150 mmHg
d) 1520 mmHg

1
8. A container with volume 71.9 mL contains water vapor at a pressure of 10.4 atm and a temperature of
465oC. How many grams of the gas are in the container?
a) 0.421 g
b) 0.222 g
c) 0.183 g
d) 0.129 g

Explanation: n = PV/RT = 0.0719× 10.4 = 0.0821 × (465 +273) = 0.012 mole

Mass = n × molar mass = 0.012 × 18 = 0.222 g

9. What is the molar mass of a pure gaseous compound having a density of 4.95 g/L at -35 oC and 1020 torr?
a) 24 g/mole
b) 11 g/mole
c) 72 g/mole
d) 120 g/mole

10. A 0.580 g sample of a compound containing only carbon and hydrogen contains 0.480 g of carbon and
0.100 g of hydrogen. At STP, 33.6 mL of the gas has a mass of 0.087 g. What is the molecular (true) formula
for the compound?
a) CH3
b) C2H6
c) C2H5
d) C4H10

11. Gas occupy 6L at 370C what will be its volume when its temperature is doubled?
a) 12 L
b) 6L
c) 3.2 L
d) 2L

12. A mixture of 90.0 grams of CH4 and 10.0 grams of argon has a pressure of 250 torr under conditions of
constant temperature and volume. The partial pressure of CH4 in torr is:

(a) 143
(b) 100
(c) 10.7
(d) 239

Explanation: from Dalton law >>> P CH4 = X CH4 P total , n CH4 = 90/ 16 =5.625 mole , n Ar = 10/39.95 =

0.250 mole X CH4 = n CH4 / n CH4 + n Ar = 5.625 / 5.625 + 0.250 = 0.96 >>>> P CH4 = 0.96 ×250 = 239.3 torr

13. What pressure (in atm) would be exerted by a mixture of 1.4 g of nitrogen gas and 4.8 g of oxygen gas in a
200 mL container at 57oC?
a) 4.7
b) 34
c) 47
d) 27

Explanation: P = n total RT/V , n N2 = 1.4/ 2×14 = 0.05 mole , n O2 = 4.8/2×16 = 0.15 mole
P = (0.05 +0.15) 0.0821×(57+273) /0.2 = 27 atm
14. A sample of hydrogen gas collected by displacement of water occupied 30.0 mL at 24oC and pressure 736 torr. What
volume would the hydrogen occupy if it were dry and at STP? The vapor pressure of water at 24.0oC is 22.4 torr.
a) 32.4 mL
b) 21.6 mL
c) 36.8 mL
d) 25.9 mL

Explanation: from Dalton law >>> P H2 = P total - P H2O , P H2 = 736 – 22.4 = 713.6 torr
n = PV /RT >>>>> n =(713.6/760) × 0.03/ 0.0821× (24+273) = 0.00115 mle
at STP >>>>> V = nRT/P = 0.00115× 0.0821×273 /1 = 0.026 L × 1000 = 25.89 mL

15. Ammonia burns in oxygen gas to form nitric oxide (NO) and water vapor. How many volumes of NO are obtained
from one volume of ammonia at the same temperature and pressure?
4 NH3 (g) + 5 O2 (g) → 4NO (g) + 6 H2O (g)
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

16. The pressure of 6.0 L of an ideal gas in a flexible container is decreased to one-third of its original value, and its
absolute temperature is decreased by one-half. What is the final volume of the gas?
a) 9.0 L
b) 6.0 L
c) 4.0 L
d) 1 L

Explanation: let V 1= 6 & V2 = ? , T1= T & T2 = ½ T , P1= P & P2 = 1/3 P

1
(3)P× V2
P×6 P ×6×T×3
From combined gas law P1V1 /T1 = P2V2/T2 >>>>> = 1
( )T >>> V2 = T ×2×P
T 2

17. Gas A is at 30°C and gas B is at 20°C. Both gases are at 1atmosphere. What is the ratio of the volume of 1 mole gas A
to 1 mole of gas B

a) 606:303
b) 3 : 2
c) 2 : 3
d) 303 :293
VA VB VA
Explanation: VA = VB >>>>> = ≫≫≫ VB
=
TA TB 30+273 20+273 303 293

18. The sample of argon occupies 50L at standard temperature. Assuming constant pressure, what volume with
the gas occupy if the temperature is doubled.

a) 25L
b) 50L
c) 100L
d) 100 mL
19. What total gas volume (in liters) at 520oC and 880 torr would result from the decomposition of 33 g of potassium
bicarbonate according to the equation:
2KHCO3(s) K2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)
(a) 56 L
(b) 37 L
(c) 10 L
(d) 19 L

20. Calculate the weight of KClO3 that would be required to produce 29.5 L of oxygen measured at 127oC and 760 torr.
2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
(a) 73.5 g
(b) 12.2 g
(c) 14.6 g
(d) 24.4 g

21. The ideal gas law predicts that the molar volume (volume of one mole) of gas equals:
(a) mRT/PV
(b) (MM)P/RT
(c) 1/2ms-2
(d) RT/P

22. For a gas, which pair of variables are inversely proportional to each other (if all other conditions remain constant)?
a) P, V
b) V, T
c) n, V
d) n, P

23. Convert 562 mmHg to atm

a) 0.739 atm
b) 4.27 × 105 atm
c) 1.05 atm
d) 0.562 atm

24. What is the volume of one mole of an ideal gas at STP?

a) 24.5 L
b) 22.4 L
c) 1.0 L
d) 10.0 L

25. What are standard temperature and pressure (STP)?

a) 0 °C, 1 torr
b) 25 °C, 1 torr
c) 0 °C, 1 atm
d) 25 °C, 1 atm

26. What is the unit of mole fraction

a) mol
b) mol-1
c) unitless
d) mol2
 27. Refer to Dalton's law of partial pressures explain what mole fraction is
a) The number of moles of one component
b) The ratio of the number of moles of one component to the number of moles of all components present.
c) The number of moles of one component divided by 100
d) The ratio of the number of moles of all components present to the number of moles of one component.

28. Write the ideal gas equation. Give the units for each term in the equation
a) PV = nRT; P in torr, V in L, n in mol, R in Latm/Kmol, T in °C.
b) PV = nRT; P in torr, V in L, n in mol, R in Latm/Kmol, T in K.
c) (c ) PV = nRT; P in atm, V in L, n in mol, R in Latm/Kmol, T in K.
d) PV = nRT; P in atm, V in L, n in mol, R in Latm/Kmol, T in °C .

29. What is the difference between a gas and a vapor?

a) A gas is a substance normally in the gaseous state at normal atmospheric conditions (25C, 1 atm); a
vapor is the gaseous form of any substance that is a liquid or a solid at normal temperatures and
pressures.
b) A gas is the gaseous form of any substance; a vapor refers to a gas over a water surface.
c) A gas is a substance normally in the gaseous state at normal atmospheric conditions (25C, 1 atm); a vapor is a
gas over a water surface.
d) A gas and a vapor are two interchangeable nomenclatures; they are identical.

30. What volume is occupied by 19.6 g of methane (CH4) at 27°C and 1.59 atm?
a) 1.71 L
b) 18.9 L
c) 27.7 L
d) 302 L

31. A 4.37 gram sample of a certain diatomic gas occupies a volume of 3.00 L at 1.00 atm and a temperature of 45°C.
Identify this gas.
a) F2
b) N2
c) H2
d) O2

Explanation: MM = mRT/ PV >>>> MM = 4.37 × 0.0821× (45+273) /1×3 = 37.77/2 = 18.88 g/mole ̴ F2

32. A sample of hydrogen gas was collected over water at 21C and 685 mmHg. The volume of the container was 7.80 L.
Calculate the mass of H2(g) collected. (Vapor pressure of water = 18.6 mmHg at 21C.)
a) 0.283 g
b) 0.571 g
c) 0.589 g
d) 7.14 g

33.Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of gases?

a) High compressibility
b) Relatively large distances between molecules
c) Formation of homogeneous mixtures regardless of the nature of gases
d) High compressibility, relatively large distances between molecules AND formation of homogeneous
mixtures regardless of the nature of gases
34. A small bubble rises from the bottom of a lake, where the temperature and pressure are 4C and 3.0 atm, to the water's
surface, where the temperature is 25C and the pressure is 0.95 atm. Calculate the final volume of the bubble if its
initial volume was 2.1 mL.

a) 0.72 mL
b) 6.2 mL
c) 41.4 mL
d) 7.1 mL

35.Calculate the mass, in grams, of 2.74 L of CO gas measured at 33C and 945 mmHg.

a) 0.263 g
b) 2.46 g
c) 3.80 g
d) 35.2 g

36. Which of the following gases will have the greatest density at the same specified temperature and pressure?

a) H2
b) CClF3
c) CO2
d) C2H6

37. Determine the molar mass of chloroform gas if a sample weighing 0.389 g is collected in a flask with a volume of
102 cm3 at 97C. The pressure of the chloroform is 728 mmHg.

a) 187 g/mol
b) 121 g/mol
c) 112 g/mol
d) 31.6 g/mol

38. What is the molar mass of Freon-11 gas if its density is 6.13 g/L at STP?

a) 0.274 g/mol
b) 3.64 g/mol
c) 78.2 g/mol
d) 137 g/mol

40. A mixture of three gases has a total pressure of 1,380 mmHg at 298 K. The mixture is analyzed and is found to
contain 1.27 mol CO2, 3.04 mol CO, and 1.50 mol Ar. What is the partial pressure of Ar?

a) 0.258 atm
b) 301 mmHg
c) 356 mmHg
d) 5,345 mmHg
41.A sample of hydrogen gas was collected over water at 21C and 685 mmHg. The volume of the
container was 7.80 L. Calculate the mass of H2(g) collected. (Vapor pressure of water = 18.6
mmHg at 21C.)
a) 0.283 g
b) 0.572 g
c) 0.589 g
d) 7.14 g

42. A 0.271 g sample of an unknown vapor occupies 294 mL at 140C and 847 mmHg. The
empirical formula of the compound is CH2. What is the molecular formula of the compound?
a) CH2
b) C2H4
c) C3H6
d) C4H8

43. How many liters of chlorine gas at 25C and 0.950 atm can be produced by the reaction of
12.0 g of MnO2? MnO2(s) + 4HCl(aq) → MnCl2(aq) + 2H2O(l) + Cl2(g)

a) 5.36  10-3 L
b) 0.138 L
c) 0.282 L
d) 3.55 L
 Test bank chapter (7)

Choose the most correct answer

1. The lowest energy state of an atom is referred to as its

a) bottom state.
b) ground state.
c) fundamental state.
d) original state.

2. All s orbitals are

a) shaped like four-leaf clovers.
b) dumbbell-shaped.
c) spherical.
d) triangular.

3. [He]2s22p2 is the electron configuration of which element?

a) Beryllium Be
b) Boron B
c) carbon C
d) nitrogen N

4. What are the valence electrons of vanadium (V)?

a) 4s2
b) 3d3
c) 4s23d3
d) 3d5

5. What are the valence electrons of gallium Ga?

a) 4s2
b) 3d3
c) 4s24p1
d) 3d5

6. The electron configuration of a neutral atom is [Ne] 3s23p1. The four quantum numbers of the last electron are:

a) (2, 1, -1, +1/2)

b) (3, 3, -1 , +1/2)
c) (3, 0, -1, +1/2)
d) (3, 1, -1, +1/2 )

7. How many unpaired electrons does chromium (Cr) have?

a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

8. How many unpaired electrons does selenium (Se) have?

a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
9. What is the maximum number of orbitals described by the quantum numbers: n = 3 l=2
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 9

10. What is the maximum number of orbitals described by the quantum numbers: n = 4
a) 7
b) 14
c) 16
d) 48

11.The maximum number of electrons that can occupy an energy level described by the principal quantum number, n, is
a) n + 1
b) 2n
c) 2n2
d) n2

12. A possible set of quantum numbers for the last electron added to complete an atom of sodium Na in its ground state is

a) n = 3 , l = 1 , ml = 0 , ms = ½
b) n = 3 , l = 0 , ml = 0 , ms = ½
c) n = 2 , l = 1 , ml = -1 , ms = ½
d) n = 2 , l = 0 , ml = -1 , ms = ½

13. The ground-state electron configuration of a calcium Ca atom is

a) [Ne]3s2
b) [Ne]3s23p6
c) [Ar]4s13d1
d) [Ar]4s2

14.Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible?

a) Row 1
b) Row 2
c) Row 3
d) Row 4

15. The number of orbitals in a d subshell is

a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
16. Which ground-state atom has an electron configuration described by the following orbital diagram?

a) phosphorus
b) germanium
c) selenium
d) tellurium

17. A ground-state atom of nickel has unpaired electrons and is .

a) 0, diamagnetic
b) 6, diamagnetic
c) 3, paramagnetic
d) 2, paramagnetic

18. What is the frequency (s-1) of electromagnetic radiation that has a wavelength of 0.53 m?

a) 5.7 x 108
b) 1.8 x 10-9
c) 1.6 x 108
d) 1.3 x 10-33

Explanation: The frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic radiation are related by the equation c = λν, where c is the
speed of light (=3.00 x 108 m/s ), λ is the wavelength in m and ν is the frequency is s-1 or Hz. The frequency can be
calculated by rearranging the above formula to get ν=c/ λ = 3 × 108/ 0.53 = 5.7× 108 s-1

19. The energy of a photon of light is proportional to its frequency and proportional to its wavelength.

a) directly, directly
b) inversely, inversely
c) inversely, directly
d) directly, inversely

20. The wavelength of a photon of energy 5.25 x 10-19 J is m.

a) 2.64 x 106
b) 3.79 x 10-7
c) 2.38 x 1023
d) 4.21 x 10-24

Explanation: The wavelength and energy are related by the formula E = hc/λ, where h (6.626 x 10-34 Js) is Planck’s
constant, c is the speed of light (3.00 x 108 m/s) and λ is the wavelength in meters. The wavelength can then be
calculated by rearranging the above formula as follows: λ = hc/E = 6.63×10-34× 3×108 / 5.25×10-19 = 3.79 x 10-7 m
21. What is the frequency (s-1) of a photon of energy 4.38 x 10-18J?

a) 438
b) 1.45 x 10-16
c) 6.61 x 1015
d) 2.30 x 107

Explanation: The frequency ν of this photon can be calculated by rearranging the equation E = h ν where E is the energy,
h = Planck’s constant and ν = frequency in s-1. ν =E/h =4.38 x 10-18/ 6.63 x 10-34 = 6.61 x 1015

22. An electron is a Bohr hydrogen atom has energy of -1.362 x 10-19J. The value of n for this electron is .

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Explanation: The energy of an electron in a particular energy state in the hydrogen atom can be calculated by using the
formula E = -RH/n2 = (-2.18 x 10-18 J)/n2, where n is the principal quantum number for the energy state. The value of n
can be found by rearranging the above formula as follows:

19. The n = 2 to n = 6 transition in the Bohr hydrogen atom corresponds to the of a photon with a wavelength of nm.

a) emission, 411
b) absorption, 411
c) absorption, 657
d) emission, 389

Explanation: There are 2 parts to this question. Since the electron is moving from a smaller value of n (ni) to a larger
value of n (nf), it must be absorbing energy. The wavelength responsible for this transition can be calculated by using the
formula: E = RH (1/n i2 – 1/nf2) & E = hc/ λ, RH is (Rydberg constant) = 2.18 x 10-18J

20. How many quantum numbers are necessary to designate a particular electron in an atom ?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1

21. The quantum number defines the shape of an orbital.

a) spin
b) magnetic
c) principal
d) angular
22. There are orbitals in the third shell

a) 25
b) 4
c) 9
d) 16

Explanation: The number of orbitals in a shell is easily calculated by the formula # of orbitals = n2 where n = principal
quantum number, which is 3 in this case.

23. The angular quantum number is 2 in orbitals.

a) s
b) p
c) d
d) f

24. The n = 1 shell contains p orbitals. All the other shells contain p orbitals.

a) 3, 6
b) 0, 3
c) 6, 2
d) 3, 3

Explanation: If n = 1, then the only possible value of ℓ is 0 which means that n = 1 can contain only s orbitals. When n >
1, the value of ℓ = 1 is possible making the existence of 3 p orbitals possible.

25. The principal quantum number of the first d subshell is .

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

26. The total number of orbitals in a shell is given by .

a) L2
b) n2
c) 2n
d) 2n + l

28. Each p-subshell can accommodate a maximum of electrons.

a) 6
b) 2
c) 10
d) 3

Explanation: There are 3 different p orbitals: px, py and pz. Each of these can contain 2 electrons leading to the
maximum number of electrons as 6.
29. Each p-subshell can accommodate a maximum of electrons.

a) 6
b) 2
c) 10
d) 3

Explanation: There are 3 different p orbitals: px, py and pz. Each of these can contain 2 electrons leading to the
maximum number of electrons as 6.

30. The 3p subshell in the ground state of atomic xenon contains electrons.

a) 2
b) 6
c) 36
d) 10

Explanation: Since Xe is a noble gas, its subshells will be completely filled regardless of their principal quantum
number. Thus, the 3p subshell will contain 6 electrons.

31. [Ar]4s23d104p3 is the electron configuration of a(n) atom.

a) As
b) V
c) P
d) Sb

Explanation: The easiest way to answer this question is to count the total number of electrons and find which element
that number corresponds to. The total number of electrons is = 18 (for the Ar) + 2 +10 + 3 = 33 which corresponds to As.

32. The principal quantum number for the outermost electrons in a Br atom in the ground state is .

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Explanation: The electronic configuration of bromine is [Ar]3d104s24p5 shows that the outermost electrons are in the s
and p orbitals in the 4th energy level making the principal quantum number = 4.

33. All of the have a valence shell electron configuration ns1.

a) noble gases
b) halogens
c) chalcogens
d) alkali metals
34. Which one of the following is correct?

a) ν+λ=c
b) ν/λ = c
c) λ = cν
d) νλ=c

35. In the Bohr model of the atom, .

a) electrons travel in circular paths called orbitals

b) electrons can have any energy
c) electron energies are quantized
d) electron paths are controlled by probability

36. Which one of the following is not a valid value for the magnetic quantum number of an electron in a 5d subshell?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 0
d) 1

Explanation: For an electron in the 5d subshell the value of ℓ = 2 and the magnetic quantum number mℓ can have values
from –l,…0,…+l, meaning mℓ could not have a value = 3.

37. Which of the subshells below do not exist due to the constraints upon the angular quantum number?

a) 2s
b) 2d
c) 2p
d) none of the above

Explanation: The values of the azimuthal quantum number “l” are decided by the values of the principal quantum
number “n”. The values of l will only be from 0…n – 1. Thus, for n = 2, only the values of 0 and 1 will be possible for ℓ,
which means that only the 2s and 2p orbitals will be possible.

38. An electron cannot have the quantum numbers n = ,ℓ= , mℓ = .

a) 2, 0, 0
b) 2, 1, -1
c) 3, 1, -1
d) 1, 1, 1

Explanation: The values of 1, 1, 1 would be impossible since if n = 1, the only value of ℓ would be = 0.

39. Which quantum number determines the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom?

a) n
b) n and ℓ
c) mℓ
d) ℓ
39. Which electron configuration represents a violation of the Pauli exclusion principle?

Explanation: According to the Pauli Exclusion Principle no two electrons in an atom cannot have the same 4 quantum
numbers. The2 electrons in the 2s orbital have the same value for their ms which is not allowed. (d)

40. Which of the following is a valid set of four quantum numbers? (n, ℓ, mℓ, ms)

a) 2, 0, 0, + ½
b) 2, 2, 1, - ½
c) 1, 0, 1, + ½
d) 2, 1, +2, + ½

Explanation: Here is why only option (a) is the correct answer: In option (b), ℓ =2 which is not allowed, in (c) mℓ ≠ 1
since l = 0 and in (d) m ℓ > l which are all not allowed.

41. Which of the following is not a valid set of four quantum numbers? (n, ℓ, mℓ, ms)

a) 2, 0, 0, + ½
b) 2, 1, 0, - ½
c) 1, 1, 0, + ½
d) 1, 0, 0, + ½

Explanation: Since n can never be equal to ℓ, option c is the only set that is not valid

8
 Test bank chapter (8)

Choose the correct answer

1. Elements in the modern version of the periodic table are arranged in order of increasing .
a) oxidation number
b) atomic mass
c) average atomic mass
d) atomic number

Explanation: The older version of the periodic table had the elements arranged in order of increasing atomic mass, but
the modern version of the periodic table is based on the increasing order of atomic number.

2. The first ionization energies of the elements as you go from left to right across a period of the periodic
table, and as you go from the bottom to the top of a group in the table.

a) increase, increase
b) increase, decrease
c) decrease, increase
d) decrease, decrease

Explanation: The ionization energies (IE s) of elements increase to the right in a row since larger amounts of energy need
to be supplied to remove an electron. The elements become more non-metallic making it harder to remove an electron.

3. The have the most negative electron affinities

a) alkaline earth metals

b) alkali metals
c) halogens
d) transition metals

Explanation: The electron affinity of an element is defined as the energy change that occurs when an electron is added to
a gaseous atom. The halogens have the most negative electron affinities indicating that they are most comfortable
accepting an electron. The formation of an anion essentially gives the halogen atom the electron configuration of the
nearest noble gas. The negative sign here indicates that the addition of an electron to the halogens results in energy being
released by the halogen atom.

4. Na reacts with element X to form an ionic compound with the formula Na3X. Ca will react with X to form .

a) CaX2
b) CaX
c) Ca2X3
d) Ca3X2

Explanation: The element X must have 3 negative charges for it to form the compound Na3X, since each Ca has 2
positive charges, the formula of the compound formed by the reaction of Ca and X would have to be Ca3X2.

5. Atomic radius generally increases as we move .

a) down a group and from right to left across a period

b) up a group and from left to right across a period
c) down a group and from left to right across a period
d) up a group and from right to left across a period
6. The atomic radius of main-group elements generally increases down a group because .

a) effective nuclear charge increases down a group

b) effective nuclear charge decreases down a group
c) both effective nuclear charge increases down a group and the principal quantum number of the valence orbitals
increases
d) the principal quantum number of the valence orbitals increases

7. Which of the following correctly lists the five atoms in order of increasing size (smallest to largest)?

a) O < F < S < Mg < Ba

b) F < O < S < Mg < Ba
c) F < O < S < Ba < Mg
d) O < F < S < Ba < Mg

Explanation: Fluorine and oxygen are in the same period (#2) and next to each other with F being the smallest of these 5
atoms. Ba is in group 2A and in row 6 (farthest “down” a group) and is the largest of the atoms. Mg is in group 2A and
in the third period and hence will be bigger than F, O and S. Even though S is in the same period as Mg it is in group 6A
making it smaller than Mg.

8. Which of the following correctly lists the five atoms in order of increasing size (smallest to largest)?
a) F < K < Ge < Br < Rb
b) F < Ge < Br < K < Rb
c) F < K < Br < Ge < Rb
d) F < Br < Ge < K < Rb

Explanation: Fluorine is in group 7A and period 2 making it the smallest of the 5 atoms here. Br is also in group 7A but
is in period 4 making it larger than F, Ge is in group 4A and also in period 4 but is to the left of Br making it larger than
Br. K and Rb are both in group 1A but K is in period 4 and Rb is in period 5, making the Rb atom the largest of all the 5
atoms.

9. Of the following atoms, which has the largest first ionization energy?

a) Br
b) O
c) C
d) P

Explanation: The ionization energy (IE) typically increases from left to right in a period and decreases from top to bottom
in a group. Thus for C and O which are in the same period, O will have the larger IE. Br is in period #4 and will have the
lowest IE out of these 4 elements.

10. Of the following elements, which has the largest first ionization energy?
a) Na
b) A1
c) Se
d) C1
Explanation: The ionization energy (IE) typically increases from left to right in a period and decreases from top to bottom
in a group. Na, Al and Cl are all in period 3 with the chlorine atom to the farthest right and will have the highest IE.
11. Which ion below has the largest radius?

a) C1-
b) K+
c) Br-
d) F-
Explanation: Typically cations are smaller than their parent atoms while anions are larger than the parent atoms. Of the
atoms here, the Br atom would be the largest as it is farthest down the group and hence its anion also will be the largest
ion.

12. The ion with the smallest radius is .

a) Br-
b) C1-
c) O2-
d) F-
Explanation: Typically anions are larger than the parent atoms. Of the atoms here, the F atom would be the smallest as it
is farthest up the group and hence its anion also will be the smallest ion

13.Which of the following is an isoelectronic series?

a) B5-, Si4-, As3-, Te2-

b) O2-, F-, Ne, Na+
c) S, C1, Ar, K

Explanation: Isoelectronic series contain a combination of atoms and ions or only ions with the same number of
electrons. Here the series containing the O2-, F-, Ne and Na+ is the only one where all atoms/ions contain 10 electrons.

14. is isoelectronic with argon and is isoelectronic with neon.

a) C1-, F-
b) C1-, C1+
c) F+, F-
d) Ne , Kr+

Explanation: The Cl- ion has 18 electrons and is isoelectronic with argon while the F- ion has 10 electrons making it
isoelectronic with neon.

15. Chlorine is much more ability to exist as an anion than is sodium. This is because .

a) chlorine is bigger than sodium

b) chlorine has a greater ionization energy than sodium does
c) chlorine has a greater electron affinity than sodium does
d) chlorine is a gas and sodium is a solid

16. The alkaline earth metals are found in of the periodic table.
a) Group 1A
b) Group 2A
c) Group 7A
d) Group 8A
17.How many valence electrons does a boron atom (B) have?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7

18. Which ion is isoelectronic with Ar?

a) Ni2+
b) F-
c) Br-
d) K+
3+)?
19. Which of these choices is the electron configuration of the iron (III) ion (Fe

a) [Ar]4s23d3
b) [Ar]4s13d5
c) [Ar]3d5
d) [Ar]3d6

20. In what group of the periodic table is the element with the electron configuration [Ar]4s23d104p1 ?

a) 1A
b) 2A
c) 3A
d) 4A

21. How many valence electrons does a tin (Sn) atom have?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 14
d) 36

22. Which of these ground-state ions has unpaired electrons?

a) P3-
b) V5+
c) S2-
d) Sc2+

23. Consider the element with the electron configuration [Xe]6s24f7. This element is

a) a representative element.
b) a lanthanide element.
c) a nonmetal.
d) an actinide element

24. If the radius of atom X is greater than the radius of atom Y, then it is also likely that

a) X has a larger electron affinity than Y does.

b) X has a larger first ionization energy than Y does.
c) X has greater metallic character than Y does.
25. Arrange these ions in order of increasing ionic radius: K+, P3-, S2-, Cl-.

a) Row 1
b) Row 2
c) Row 3
d) Row 4

26. Selenium (34Se) element is

a) a nonmetal
b) found in group 6A
c) found in period 2
d) both a and b

28. The outer electron configuration of the noble gases is

a) ns2 np6
b) ns2 nd10
c) ns2 np4
d) ns2 np8

29. Which of the following species is isoelectronic with Cl-

a) K+
b) Na+
c) O2-
d) F-

30. Gallium (Ga) element is found in the periodic table in

a) period 3, group 1B
b) period 3, group 4 A
c) period 4, group 1A
d) period 4, group 3A

31. Titanium (Ti) element is found in the periodic table in

a) s-block
b) P-block
c) d-block
d) f-block

32. Write the electronic configuration for Co+2

a) [Ar] 4s2 3d5

b) [Ar] 3d7
c) [Ar] 4s1 3d6
 d) [Ar] 4s23d7

33. Select the correct order of radius of the two ions

a) A+ > A-
b) A- < A
c) A2+ > A+
d) A2+ < A+

34. Two ions are referred to as isoelectronic if they have the same number of

a) electrons.
b) protons.
c) atoms.
d) neutrons.

35. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom in its ground state is known as the

a) potential energy.
b) activation energy.
c) electron affinity.
d) ionization energy.

36. Which will have the highest ionization energy?

a) C
b) N
c) O
d) B

37. Order the following (N-3 , Li+ , C , O2-)according to increasing atomic/ionic

radius.

a) C < Li+ < O2– < N3–

b) N3– < O2– < C < Li+
c) Li+ < C < N3– < O2–
d) Li+ < C < O2– < N3

6
 Test bank chapter (9)
Choose the most correct answer

1. What are the two types of chemical bonds commonly found in compounds ?
a) doric and covalent.
b) ionic and electrolytic.
c) ionic and covalent.
d) electrolytic and compound.

2.Which type of electrons are used by atoms to form chemical bonds ?

a) core electrons.
b) valence electrons.
c) lone pair electrons.
d) unpaired electrons.

3.What is the statement of “Atoms tend to gain, lose, or share electrons until they are surrounded by eight valence
electrons” called ?
a) the rule of octaves.
b) the double quartet rule.
c) the eight electron rule.
d) the octet rule.

4. What type of orbital will lost the electron firstly when a transition metal atom becomes a +ve ion?
a) p
b) f
c) d
d) s

5.What type of bonds dose a molecule of CS2 contain ?

a) two single bonds.
b) two double bonds.
c) one single bond and one double bond.
d) one single bond and one triple bond.

6. What is the correct electron-dot structure of an atom has atomic number Z= 5 in the ground state? ANS. B

1
7. Which compound below contains an atom that is surrounded by more than an octet of electrons?
a) PF5
b) CH4
c) NBr3
d) OF2

8. Which choice below correctly lists the elements in order of increasing electronegativity?
a) C < N < O < F
b) N < C < O < F
c) N < C < F < O
d) C < N < F < O

9. Which atom sometimes violates the octet rule?

a) C
b) N
c) O
d) S

10. How many resonance structures ca n be drawn for NO3–?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

11.Considerin g formal charge, what is the preferred Lewis structure of NCO –? ANS.1

12. What is the correct formal charge on sulfur (S) in Lewis structure of (SO4-2 ) that satisfy the
octet rule?
a) +2
b) -2
c) +1
d) 0

13. What is the correct formal charge on sulfur (S) in the favorable Lewis structure of (SO4-2 ) that
expanded the octet rule ?
a) +2
b) -2
c) +1
d) 0

2
14.Which of these pairs of elements would be most likely to form an ionic compound?
a) Cl and I
b) Al and K
c) Cl and Mg
d) C and S

15. which of these structures is the correct Lewis structure for CS2 ? ANS.c

a)

b)

c)

d)

16. How many lone pairs in the N2 molecule are there?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

17.Classify the O-H bond in CH3OH as ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent?
a) Ionic
b) polar covalent
c) nonpolar covalent

18. How many single bond(s), double bond(s) and lone pair(s) are there in Lewis structure for a chlorate ion, ClO3-
that satisfy the octet rule?
a) 2, 1, 10
b) 3, 0, 9
c) 2, 1, 8
d) 3, 0, 10

19. How many resonance structures are there for the sulfur dioxide molecule that satisfy the octet rule ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) none of these.

3
20. What is the formal charge on the oxygen atom in N2O (the atomic order is N-N-O)?
a) 0
b) +1
c) -1
d) -2

21. Which of these substances will display an incomplete octet in its Lewis structure?
a) CO2
b) Cl2
c) ICl
d) NO

22. How many paired and unpaired electrons are there in the Lewis symbol for a phosphorus atom?
a) 4, 2
b) 2, 4
c) 4, 3
d) 2, 3

Explanation: Read the question carefully here, you are being asked for how many valence electrons are paired and how
many are unpaired. The abbreviated electron configuration of the P atom is given by [Ne] 3s23p3. The outermost electrons
would be arranged as 2 electrons paired and 3 electrons unpaired as shown below:

23. What is the most likely forms of magnesium ion based on the octet rule?

a)Mg2+ 2-
b)Mg2- 2+
c)Mg6+ 6-
d)Mg6- 6+

Explanation: According to the octet rule the Mg atom will achieve an octet by losing its 2 outermost electrons and thus
gaining 2+ charges. Since Mg is located in the alkali metal group it will lose electrons rather than gaining them.

24. What is most likely forms of phosphorus ion based on the octet rule?
a) P3+
b) P5-
c) P5+
d) P3-
Explanation: According to the octet rule the phosphorus atom should gain 3electrons, thus gaining 3 negative charges
and forming the phosphide ion.

4
25- What is the only noble gas without eight valence electrons ?
a) Ar
b) Ne
c) He
d) Kr
Explanation: The noble gases are characterized by the presence of eight electrons in their outermost shell with one
notable exception of Helium. Since He has only 2 electrons it can never have 8 in its outermost shell.

26- What is the maximum number of double bonds that a hydrogen atom can form?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

Explanation: Each hydrogen atom has a single electron in its valence shell and as a result can form only one bond. It
cannot form a double bond as it does not have the necessary electrons to share.

28. What is the maximum number of double bonds that a carbon atom can form?
a) 4
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0

Explanation: Each carbon atom has 4 valence electrons that it can share with other atoms. Since each double bond
corresponds to a pair of electrons, the carbon atom can form only 2 double bonds.

29. Given the electronegativities below, which covalent single bond is most polar?

a) C-H
b) N-H
c) O-H
d) O-N

Explanation: Bond polarity can be judged based on the differences between the electronegativities of the atoms involved.
Of the available choices, the bond between O and H will have the largest electronegativity difference making it the most
polar bond in this group.

30. How many valence electrons dose the ICI4- ion have?
a) 34
b) 36
c) 35
d) 28

Explanation: valence electrons A = (7×1) +(7×4) +1 = 36

5
31-What is the trend of the electronegativity from left to right within a period and from top to bottom within a group?
a) decreases, increases
b) increases, increases
c) stays the same, increases
d) increases, decreases

32. How many nonbonding and bonding electron pairs in the central phosphorus atom are there in Lewis structure of PF3 ?
a) 2, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 3, 1
d) 1, 2

33. Which of the following molecules contains both ionic and covalent bonds?
a) C5H12
b) NaClO4
c) CaCl2
d) H2O

34. What is the term of the ability of an atom in a molecule to attract electron density to itself ?
a) Electronegativity
b) Electron affinity
c) Diamagnetism
d) Ionization energy

35-Which one of the below is the most polar bond ?

a) Br-H
b) I-H
c) Cl-H
d) H-H

36-.Which of these covalent bonds is the most polar (i.e., highest percent ionic character)?
a)
b)
c)
d)