Williams Obstetrics

Following questions was reproduced based on past exams, taken from williams 22ed.

2-32. The uterus and fallopian tubes arise embryologically from which of the following?
a. mullerian ducts
b. wolffian ducts
c. urogenital sinus
d. mesonephric ducts

2-41. Which is the narrowest diameter of the pelvic inlet through which the fetal head must pass?
a. true conjugate
b. diagonal conjugate
c. transverse diameter
d. obstetrical conjugate

2-50. Engagement occurs when the biparietal diameter of the fetal head descends below the level of
which of the following?
a. midpelvis
b. pelvic inlet
c. pelvic floor
d. ischial tuberosities

3-17. The zone of fibrinoid degeneration known as the Nitabuch layer is found at the junction of
which of the following?
a. decidua parietalis and decidua vera
b. decidua basalis and trophoblastic layer
c. decidua capsularis and decidua parietalis
d. decidua capsularis and trophoblastic layer

3-20. The time window surrounding ovulation that allows for fertilization of an oocyte in humans
is which of the following?
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 9 days

3-21. What is the solid ball of cells formed by 16 or more blastomeres?

a. zygote
b. morula
c. embryo
d. blastocyst

D.L & U.A

3-47. In comparing structurally related glycoprotein the biologically distinct portion of the hCG
molecule consists of which of the following?
a. α-subunit
b. β-subunit
c. both subunits
d. carbohydrate moieties

3-53. The hCG receptor is also the receptor for what other hormone?
a. LH
b. FSH
c. estriol
d. progesterone

3-54. Human placental lactogen (hPL) is structurally MOST similar to which of the following
hormones?
a. LH
b. FSH
c. insulin
d. prolactin

3-56. Highest levels of hPL can be found in which of the following?

a. fetal urine
b. fetal serum
c. amnionic fluid
d. maternal serum

4-1. How many days does human pregnancy last, on average, counting from the first day of the last
menstrual period?
a. 260
b. 270
c. 280
d. 290

4-27. Direct transfer of nutrients and oxygen from mother to fetus occurs primarily across which of
the following interfaces?
a. decidua capsularis
b. fetal membranes
c. syncytiotrophoblast
d. yolk sac

4-33. How is glucose transferred across the placenta?

a. active transport
b. simple diffusion
c. facilitated diffusion (carrier-mediated)
d. endocytosis

D.L & U.A

4-34. Of the following proteins involved in glucose transport, which are located in the
syncytiotrophoblast plasma membrane?
a. Glut-3
b. HPL
c. FGF-2
d. IGF-1

4-53. Which of the following immunological factors ingested in colostrum provides protection
against enteric infections?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

4-75. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of female pseudohermaphroditism?

a. Miillerian-inhibiting substance is not produced.
b. The fetus is exposed to excess androgen.
c. The karyotype is 46,XX.
d. A testis is present on one side.

4-76. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of male pseudohermaphroditism?

a. Mullerian-inhibiting substance is produced.
b. Androgenic representation is variable.
c. Karyotype is 47,XXY.
d. Testes or no gonads are present.

4-77. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of androgen insensitivity syndrome?

a. female phenotype
b. short, blind-ending vagina
c. no uterus or fallopian tubes
d. ovarian remnants on one side

5-13. In pregnancy, what is the Chadwick sign?

a. bluish discoloration of the hyperemic vaginal mucosa
b. lower uterine segment softening
c. tenderness of breasts with enlargement
d. uterus palpable above the pubic symphysis

5-17. What is the average weight gain during pregnancy?

a. 5.5 kg
b. 9.5 kg
c. 12.5 kg
d. 15.5 kg

D.L & U.A

5-18. What is the minimum amount of extra water that the average woman accrues during normal
pregnancy?
a. 1.0 L
b. 3.5 L
c. 6.5 L
d. 8.0 L

5-19. Of the total 1000 g net gain of protein in normal pregnancy, how much is used by the fetus
and placenta?
a. 100 g
b. 300 g
c. 500 g
d. 750 g

5—50. Which of the following is decreased during normal pregnancy?

a. glomerular filtration rate
b. renal plasma flow
c. creatinine clearance
d. serum concentration of urea nitrogen

5-52. At what level does compression of the ureters by the gravid uterus occur?
a. bladder trigone
b. pelvic brim
c. sacrospinous ligaments
d. ureterovesical junction

6-33. Where is oxytocin primarily synthesized?

a. adrenal gland
b. placenta
c. posterior pituitary
d. ovary

8-12. What is the mean gestational age at which the fetal heartbeat can be detected by auscultation
with a stethoscope?
a. 17 weeks
b. 19 weeks
c. 21 weeks
d. 23 weeks

8-14. At what gestational age can an examiner typically first detect fetal movements?
a. 14 weeks
b. 16 weeks
c. 20 weeks
d. 24 weeks

D.L & U.A

8-51. To minimize the gastrointestinal side effects of iron, when is it recommended that patients
take their iron?
a. at bedtime
b. with breakfast
c. during the first trimester
d. only if the hemoglobin is less than 10 mg/dL

8-54. Which of the following is NOT associated with severe zinc deficiency?
a. impaired wound healing
b. poor appetite
c. dwarfism in the fetus
d. seizures

8-56. Severe maternal hypothyroidism has been linked to which of the following in offspring?
a. cretinism
b. dwarfism
c. hypogonadism in children
d. limb reduction deformities

8-60. What percentage of neural-tube defects are related to folic acid metabolism and therefore,
preventable by folic acid supplementation?
a. 5
b. 15
c. 25
d. 50

8-61. What amount of daily folic acid intake is currently recommended during the preconceptual
period and early pregnancy?
a. 40 µg
b. 100 µg
c. 400 µg
d. 1000 µg

9-12. Your patient has had two first-trimester and one second-trimester spontaneous abortions. Her
screen for anticardiolipin antibodies is positive. The most appropriate treatment option for this
patient during her next pregnancy includes which of the following?
a. low-dose aspirin plus heparin
b. low-dose aspirin plus plaquenil sulfate
c. low-dose aspirin plus steroids
d. reassurance

10-2. Which poses the greatest risk of maternal death in the first trimester?
a. ectopic pregnancy
b. elective abortion
c. term pregnancy
d. all pose equal risk

D.L & U.A

10—4. What is the approximate rate of recurrent ectopic pregnancy after one previous ectopic?
a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 90%

11-13. Routine postevacuation treatment of molar pregnancy typically includes which of the
following?
a. oral contraceptive pills
b. methotrexate chemotherapy
c. methotrexate plus actinomycin D chemotherapy
d. methotrexate plus cisplatin chemotherapy

13-13. Isolated fetal structural defects are most commonly found in which of the following organs?
a. liver
b. heart
c. bladder
d. neural tube

13-32. In screening your patient's fetus for neural-tube defects at 17 weeks gestation, you obtain an
MSAFP result of 5.0 MoM. Your patient has no history that points to an increased risk for this
defect. Ultrasonography reveals a viable singleton gestation with no structural anomalies, normal
amnionic fluid index, and fetal measurements consistent with gestational age. Which of the
following is the next best step in her management?
a. reassurance
b. repeat MSAFP level measurement
c. amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping
d. amniocentesis for amnionic fluid AFP level measurement

14-1. What percentage of children in the United States are born with a major structural
malformation detectable at birth?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

14-4. What percentage of congenital anomalies (structural or functional) are caused by teratogens?
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75

15-5. At which gestational age do fetuses begin to exhibit rest-activity cycles?

a. <1.0 weeks
b. 10 to 20 weeks
c. 20 to 30 weeks
d. 30 to 40 weeks

D.L & U.A

15-13. All of the following are descriptions of respiratory movements in the fetus EXCEPT
a. gasping
b. paradoxical breathing
c. glossopharyngeal breathing
d. irregular bursts of breathing

15-21. What is the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists' (ACOG) definition of a
reactive nonstress test (NST)?
a. 1 acceleration in 20 min
b. 2 accelerations in 20 min
c. 8 accelerations in 20 min
d. 15 accelerations in 20 min

15-25. During acoustic stimulation testing, what fetal response is measured?

a. breathing
b. heart rate
c. eye movements
d. body movements

16-5. According to AIUM, which of the following should be evaluated during a first-trimester
ultrasound?
a. fetal weight
b. fetal presentation
c. placental location
d. maternal adnexal evaluation

16-17. What is the average diameter in millimeters of the lateral ventricular atrium at 15 weeks'
gestation and older?
a. 2 to 4
b. 6 to 8
c. 10 to 12
d. 14 to 16

17-3. What is the lie if the fetal and maternal axes cross at a 45-degree angle?
a. longitudinal
b. breech
c. oblique
d. transverse

17-4. What percentage of term labors present with a longitudinal lie?

a. 20
b. 50
c. 70
d. 99

D.L & U.A

17-8. In which presentation is the fetal head partially flexed and a large anterior fontanel
presenting?
a. vertex
b. face
c. brow
d. sinciput

17-10. The incidence of breech presentation between 29 and 32 weeks gestation is 14%. What is its
incidence at term?
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 7%
d. 9%

17-16. What is the most common position of the fetal vertex as it enters the pelvis?
a. right occipitoanterior (ROA)
b. right occipitotransverse (ROT)
c. left occipitoanterior (LOA)
d. left occipitotransverse (LOT)

17-21. What part of the fetal anatomy is palpated easily with extreme asynclitism of the vertex?
a. nose
b. mouth
c. ear
d. shoulder

17-29. What is edematous swelling of the fetal scalp during labor?

a. molding
b. caput succedaneum
c. subdural hematoma
d. erythema nodosum

17-38. In the presence of uterine contractions, what cervical dilatation reliably represents the onset
of active labor?
a. 0 to 2 cm
b. 3 to 5 cm
c. 4 to 6 cm
d. 6 to 7 cm

18-5. What is baseline fetal bradycardia?

a. <90 bpm
b. < 100 bpm
c. <110 bpm
d. < 120 bpm

D.L & U.A

18-6. What is baseline fetal tachycardia?
a. >160 bpm
b. >170 bpm
c. >180 bpm
d. >190 bpm

18-8. What is the most common cause of fecal tachycardia?

a. drug-induced
b. thyroid storm
c. maternal fever
d. cardiac arrhythmia

19-13. Which nerve roots are responsible for the pain of vaginal delivery?
a. T10, T11
b. T11, T12
c. T10, T11, T12, L1
d. S2, S3, S4

19-15. Which centrally acting agent is used to control convulsions caused by local anesthetic-
induced CNS toxicity?
a. succinylcholine
b. thiopental
c. magnesium sulfate
d. phenytoin

19-19. What is the etiology of spinal headaches?

a. puncture of meninges followed by leaking fluid
b. hypotension after spinal block
c. vasodilation of cerebral vessels
d. drug-induced hormonal changes

19-21. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to spinal analgesia?

a. preeclampsia
b. skin infection at site of needle entry
c. controlled seizure disorder
d. diabetes

19-25. What are the effects of labor epidurals on the cesarean birthrate according to current
information?
a. no change
b. slightly decreased
c. slightly increased
d. markedly increased

D.L & U.A

20-15. In a nulliparous woman, how long is a prolonged deceleration phase?
a. >1 hr
b. >2 hr
c. >3 hr
d. >20 hr

20-25. Which of the following factors is amenable to radiographic measurement (x-ray)?

a. fetal head size
b. molding of fetal head
c. size of bony pelvis
d. amount of amnionic fluid

20-47. Which of the following is NOT part of the management of shoulder dystocia?
a. Woods screw maneuver
b. fundal pressure
c. McRoberts maneuver
d. delivery of posterior shoulder

20-53. Which of the following has the weakest association with fetal head molding?
a. multiparity
b. oxytocin labor stimulation
c. vacuum extraction delivery
d. prolonged labor

21-10. In cases of anencephaly, fetal increases in which of the following is the most likely cause of
hydramnios?
a. swallowing
b. transudation
c. inspiration
d. vasopressin secretion

21-17. Which of the following is a side effect of using indomethacin for the management of
hydramnios?
a. altered neonatal bleeding times
b. increased amnionic fluid volume
c. constriction of the fetal ductus arteriosus
d. premature separation of the placenta

21-20. Which of the following is typically NOT an underlying cause of oligohydramnios?

a. chronic severe placental insufficiency
b. defect and leak from fetal membranes
c. fetal Lyme disease infection
d. fetal renal anomalies

D.L & U.A

23-1. What is the incidence of operative vaginal delivery?
a. <1%
b. 5 to 10%
c. 15 to 20%
d. 25 to 30%

23-5. Engagement, of the fetal head occurs when the occiput reaches what station?
a. -2
b. 0
c. +2
d. + 4

23-6. Which of the following is true of high forceps deliveries?

a. forceps applied at +1 station
b. fetal head engaged
c. indicated for fetal distress
d. no place in obstetrics today

23-7, Obstetrical practice over the past 20 years has shown which of the following trends?
a. increased cesarean delivery
b. decreased forceps delivery
c. increased vacuum delivery
d. all of the above

23-8. When forceps are applied to the fetal head with the scalp visible at the introitus and without
manual separation of the labia, what type of delivery-occurs?
a. outlet forceps
b. low forceps
c. midforceps
d. either outlet or low forceps

23-14. Which of the following forceps is best suited for low forceps delivery of a fetus with a
rounded head?
a. Simpson
b. Tucker-McLane
c. Kielland
d. Chamberlain

23-17. Which of the following is a fetal indication for termination of labor by forceps assuming
other requisites are present?
a. prolapse of umbilical cord
b. meconium-stained amnionic fluid
c. placenta previa
d. reactive fetal heart rate pattern

D.L & U.A

23-18. When exceeded which of the following is the most correct definition of a prolonged second
stage in the parous patient?
a. 1 hr without regional anesthesia
b. 1 hr with regional anesthesia
c. 2 hr without regional anesthesia
d. 3 hr with regional anesthesia

24-1. What is the approximate incidence of breech presentation at term?

a. <1%
b. 3 to 4%
c. 7 to 8%
d. 12 to 15%

24-5. Which of the following best describes a complete breech presentation?

a. lower extremities flexed at the hips and extended at knees
b. lower extremities flexed at the hips and one or both knees flexed
c. one or both hips not flexed or both feet or knees below breech
d. a foot is in the birth canal

24-6. Which of the following best describes the incomplete breech presentation?
a. lower extremities flexed at the hips and extended at knees
b. lower extremities flexed at the hips and one or both knees flexed
c. one or both hips not flexed or both feet or knees below breech
d. both feet are in the right fundal area

24-7. When examining a woman at term, hearing fetal heart tones loudest above the umbilicus
suggests which type of presentation?
a. cephalic presentation
b. transverse lie
c. breech presentation
d. multiple pregnancy

24-8. Which of the following help to differentiate a frank breech from a cephalic presentation
during vaginal examination?
a. ischial tuberosities and anus form a straight line
b. ischial tuberosities and anus form a triangle shape
c. ischial tuberosities and anus form a circular shape
d. mouth and malar eminences form a straight line

24-14. In the Hannah randomized controlled trial comparing planned vaginal breech delivery to
planned cesarean delivery, which of the following was significantly decreased in the vaginal
delivery group?
a. maternal hemorrhage
b. maternal sepsis
c. perinatal mortality
d. perinatal morbidity

D.L & U.A

24-17. During early labor in a breech presentation the fetal heart rate should be evaluated how
often?
a. every 5 min
b. every 15 min
c. every 30 min
d. continuously

24-18. How should traction in a breech extraction be employed?

a. gentle and parallel to the floor
b. marked 30-degree angle pull toward the ceiling
c. gentle and downward plus 180 degree rotation of fetal pelvis
d. marked downward pull until the axilla are visible

24-19. In which maneuver are the index and middle finger applied over the maxilla in order to free
the head?
a. Pinard
b. Bracht
c. Mauriceau
d. Zavanelli

24-23. According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, what is the
approximate success rate of external cephalic version for breech presentations late in pregnancy?
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%

25-7. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of low transverse cesarean deliveries?
a. easier to repair
b. less blood loss
c. fewer problems with adhesions to bowel
d. ability to safely extend incision laterally

25-18. What is the average blood loss with an elective cesarean hysterectomy?
a. 500 mL
b. 1000 mL
c. 1500 mL
d. 3000 mL

25-19. Which of the following prophylactic antimicrobials has been shown to decrease postpartum
endometritis?
a. metronidazole
b. cephalosporins
c. tetracycline
d. azithromycin

D.L & U.A

26-1. A trial of labor following cesarean delivery has the highest incidence of which of the
following?
a. uterine rupture
b. perinatal death
c. maternal death
d. thromboembolism

26-2. Compared with patients undergoing elective repeat cesarean delivery, women undergoing trial
of labor following cesarean delivery have a higher risk of all of the following EXCEPT
a. endometritis
b. uterine rupture
c. thromboembolism
d. fetal hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

26-3. What is the rate of uterine rupture in women undergoing a trial of labor following cesarean
delivery?
a. <1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%

26-4. What is the rate of fetal death or injury attributable to trial of labor following cesarean
delivery?
a. 1 per 1000
b. 5 per 1000
c. 10 per 1000
d. 15 per 1000

26-5. Which of the following is true of a planned repeat cesarean delivery compared with a trial of
labor following cesarean delivery?
a. lower hospital charges
b. higher rates of patient fear regarding their route of delivery
c. lower patient satisfaction regarding their route of delivery
d. none of the above

26-6. Which of the following criteria reflects fetal maturity?

a. 30 weeks have passed since a positive urinary hCG test result
b. fetal heart sounds have been heard for 20 weeks by Doppler
c. fetal heart sounds have been heard for 10 weeks by non-electronic fetoscope
d. crown-rump length at 6 to 11 weeks documents a gestational age of 39 weeks

D.L & U.A

26-7. Your patient presented for initial prenatal care at 22 weeks' gestation by last menstrual period.
At her initial visit, fetal heart tones were heard by non-electronic fetoscope. Fundal height
measurement was 22 cm. Ultrasonongraphic measurements were consistent with a 22-week
gestation. She has selected a repeat planned cesarean delivery rather than a trial of labor. She is
currently at 38 Weeks gestation. The next step in the management of this patient includes which of
the following?
a. perform amniocentesis to document fetal lung maturity
b. schedule her repeat cesarean for 39 weeks gestational age
c. schedule her repeat cesarean for 40 weeks gestational age
d. repeat ultrasonographic examination to document fetal gestation age and weight

26-8. Selection criteria set forth by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists
regarding trial of labor candidacy include which of the following?
a. delivery at a tertiary care facility
b. no more than two prior cesarean deliveries
c. clinician available during latent and active labor phases
d. prior low transverse or low vertical incisions without extension

26-9. Women with which of the following incision types would be candidates for a trial of labor
following cesarean delivery?
a. classical
b. T-shaped
c. low vertical without extension
d. low transverse in a bicornuate uterus

26-10. Your patient is contemplating a trial of labor following her prior cesarean delivery She
should be counseled that an increased risk of uterine rupture is associated with all of the following
EXCEPT
a. cervical ripening
b. prior vaginal delivery
c. oxytocin augmentation
d. increasing number of prior cesarean deliveries

26-11. Generally, what is the success rate for trial of labor following cesarean deliver)'?
a. 20 to 40%
b. 40 to 60%
c. 60 to 80%
d. 80 to 100%

26-12. Which of the following indications for the prior cesarean delivery are associated with the
highest success rates in subsequent trials of labor?
a. fetal distress
b. breech presentation
c. dystocia with cervical dilation ≤5 cm
d. dystocia during the second stage of labor

D.L & U.A

26-15. The most common fetal sign of uterine rupture in women undergoing a trial of labor
following prior cesarean delivery is which of the following?
a. change in presenting part
b. sustained fetal tachycardia
c. loss of fetal station
d. fetal heart rate decelerations

27-1. What is the name for incomplete division of the placenta into separate lobes with fetal vessels
extending from one lobe to the other?
a. placenta bipartita
b. placenta succenturiata
c. placenta membranacea
d. placenta fenestrata

27-2. Which type of placenta contains small accessory lobes in the fetal membranes distant from the
main placenta?
a. fenestrated placenta
b. membranaceous placenta
c. placenta bilobata
d. placenta succenturiata

27-3. Of the abnormal placentations, which is NOT associated with postpartum hemorrhage?
a. membranaceous placenta
b. placenta bipartita
c. placenta succenturiata
d. ring-shaped placenta

27-4. Of the abnormal placentas listed, which is associated with fetal growth restriction?
a. fenestrated placenta
b. placenta bilobata
c. placenta succenturiata
d. ring-shaped placenta

27-5. What name is given to a placenta whose central portion is missing?

a. fenestrated placenta
b. membranaceous placenta
c. placenta accreta
d. placenta succenturiata

27-6. In which placental type is the chorionic plate smaller than the basal plate?
a. extrachorial
b. fenestrated
c. membranaceous
d. ring-shaped

D.L & U.A

27-7. What placental type is associated with antepartum fetal hemorrhage, placental abruption,
preterm delivery and fetal malformations?
a. circumvallate placenta
b. fenestrated placenta
c. placenta bipartita
d. triplex placenta

27-8. Which of the following are risk factors for the development of placenta accreta, increta, and
percreta?
a. placenta previa
b. prior cesarean delivery
c. uterine perforation in prior pregnancy
d. all of the above

27-9. By mid-third trimester, what percentage of placentas demonstrate calcification?

a. <1
b. 10
c. 25
d. >50

30-1. The commonly used definition of the puerperium describes which of the following time
periods?
a. 2 weeks following delivery
b. 4 weeks following delivery
c. 6 weeks following delivery
d. 12 weeks following delivery

30-2. Typical permanent anatomical characteristics of the cervix following delivery include which
of the following?
a. wider external os
b. scarred, narrowed external os
c. cervical length is doubled from prepregnancy
d. cervical length is halved from prepregnancy

33-6. What is the current mortality rate directly related to laparoscopic sterilization?
a. 1.5 in 100,000
b. 1.5 in 10,000
c. 1.5 in 1000
d. 1.5 in 100

33-7. Which of the following is NOT an established complication of laparoscopic tubal

sterilization?
a. anesthetic complications
b. chronic pelvic pain
c. injury of adjacent structures
d. sterilization failure

D.L & U.A

33-8. How often is unplanned laparotomy performed with attempted laparoscopic sterilization?
a. 1 in 10
b. 1 in 100
c. 1 in 1000
d. 1 in 10,000

34-2. How is hypertension in pregnancy defined?

a. blood pressure 160/100 or greater
b. blood pressure 140/90 or greater
c. increased systolic pressure by 30 mm Hg
d. increased diastolic pressure by 15 mm Hg

34-4. What percentage of eclamptic women do not have proteinuria?

a. 0
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

37-4. What happens to perinatal mortality after 42 weeks gestation?

a. markedly decreased
b. slightly decreased
c. no change
d. increased

37-5. What is the likelihood of a subsequent postterm birth if the first birth was postterm?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 18%
d. 27%

37-6. Which of the following fetal factors are NOT associated with postterm pregnancy?
a. renal agenesis
b. X-linked placental sulfatase deficiency
c. adrenal hypoplasia
d. anencephaly

38-2. How is macrosomia defined?

a. >3800 g
b. >4000 g
c. >4200g
d. >4500g

51-2. Which of the following may increase in pregnancies complicated by anemia in the second
trimester?
a. pregnancy-induced hypertension
b. gestational diabetes
c. preterm birth
d. urinary tract infection

D.L & U.A

54-8. Which of the following autoantibodies is most specific for SLE?
a. anti-ribonucleic acid (RNA)
b. anti-nuclear
c. anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (dsDNA)
d. anti-ribonucleoprotein

54-8. which of the following maybe used for the good treatment of migraine headache during
pregnency
a.atenolol
b. acupunctue
c. sumitriptan
d. all of the above

56-1. Hyperpigmentation of pregnancy is related to which of the following?

a. Cortisol
b. aldosterone
c. melanocyte-stimulating hormone
d. unknown cause

58-27. Which of the following techniques is best for the diagnosis of fetal cytomegalovirus
infection?
a. amniocentesis or cordocentesis
b. chorionic villus sampling
c. ultrasonography
d. magnetic resonance imaging

D.L & U.A