Chemistry a. crystallization b.

fractional crystallization
c. sublimation d. filtration
1. 20 ml of a gas of NTP contains…….ml at 273 0 C at 2 atm 10. Given the numbers: 161 cm, 0.161cm, 0.0161 cm. The
pressure. number of significant figures for three numbers is
a. 20 b. 30 c. 50 d. 10 a. 3,4 and 5 respectively b. 3,3 and 3 respectively
2. A has valency 3, B has 4, the possible compound is c. 3, 3 and 4 respectively d. 3, 4 and 4 respectively
a. A2B3 b. A3B4 c. A4B3 d.AB 11. A substance which can’t be further decomposed by ordinary
3. The atomic mass and molecular mass is based on chemical means is
a. O16 b. H1 c. C12 d. C 35.5 a. water b. air c. sugar d. silver
4. One mole of He gas represent 12. Which of the following processes is a chemical change?
a. 6.02 × 10 23 He b. 6.02 × 10 23 He2 a. Dissolution of common salt in water
23
b. heating platinum wire
c. 3.011 × 10 He2 d. 12.069 × 10 23 He c. Dissolution of sodium metal in water
5. Fractional crystilization is based on the difference between d. heating of water
a. melting point b. solubilities 13. Which one is a physical change?
c. vapor pressure d. boiling point a. Burning of S in air
6. Chromatography is used for separating b. Burning of C in air
a. gases b. liquids c. Conversion of white phosphorus to red
c. solids d. all of the above d. Heating of water
7. Essential oil can be extracted by 14. A mixture of ZnCl2 and PbCl2 can be separated by
a. sublimation a. distillation b. crystallization
b. steam distillation c. sublimation d. adding acetic acid
c. fractional distillation 15. A mixture that can be separated by sublimation method is
d. distillation under reduced pressure a. MgCl 2 + NaCl b. HgCl 2 + NaCl
8. Mixture of liquids having close boiling point can be separated c. AgCl + NaCl d. BaCl 2 + NaCl
by 16. Calcium phosphate containing magnesium sulphate as
a. separating funnel impurity is separated by
b. steam distillation a. distillation b. crystallization
c. fractional distillation c. chromatography d. fractional crystallization
d. distillation under reduced pressure 17. Fractional at.wt. of an element is because
9. Solids soluble in solvent can be obtained from its aq. Solution a. of the existence of allotropic forms
by b. valency of elements have fractional values
 c. equivalent weights are not whole members is a constant, approximately 6.4. This is known as
d. of the existence of isotopes for all elements a. Dalton’s law b. Avogador’s law
18. Which of the following pairs is isomorphous? c. Newton’s law d. Dulong and Pettit law
a. FeSO4 .7 H 2 OandCuSO 4 .5H2O 26. The specific heat of a metal is 0.11 and its equivalent weight
b. FeSO4.7H2O and MnSO4.4H2O is 18.61. Its exact atomic weight is
c. FeSO4.7H2O and ZnSO4. 7H2O a. 58.2 b. 29.1
d. CuSO4.5H2O and MnSO4.4H2O c. 55.83 d. 27.91
19. 1 amu is equal to 27. Approxmaite atomic weight of an element is 26.89. If its
a. 1/12 of C12 b. 1 g of H2 equivalent weight is 8.9, the exact atomic weight of the
c. 1/14 of O 16
d. 1.66 × 10 −23 kg element would be
20. A gas A of molecular weight of 4 diffuse thrice as fast as the a. 25.89 b. 8.9
gas, the molecular weight of B is c. 17.8 d. 26.7
a. 24 b. 4 c. 36 d. 18 28. The crystals of which pair are isomorphous?
21. One of important postulation of Dalton’s atomic theory is a. ZnSO4,SnSo4 b. MgSO4, CaSO4
a. an atom is made up of electrons, protons and neutrons c. ZnSO4, MgSO4 d. PbSO4, NiSO4
b. atom can be neither be created nor destroyed 29. Atomic weight of a trivalent element of equivalent weight 9 is
c. atoms of the same element are not alike a. 9 b. 18
d. all elements are available naturally as atoms only c. 27 d. 36
22. According to Dalton’s atomic theory, in a chemical change 30. In chemical scale the relative mass of the isotopic mixture of
a. atoms are destroyed oxygen atom (O16, O17, O18) assumed to be equal to
b. atoms are made into new and of different kind a. 16.0002 b. 16.00
c. atoms are created c. 16.20 d. 15.89
d. atoms are rearranged 31. Which property of an element is always a whole number
23. The weight of one atom of uranium is 238 amu. Its actual a. atomic number b. equivalent weight
weight is c. atomic number d. atomic volume
32. The molecular weight of hydrogen peroxide is 34, What is the
a. 1.43 × 10 26 g b. 3.94 × 10 −22 g
unit of molecular weight?
c. 6.99 × 10 −27 g d. None of these a. g b. mol
24. The specific heat of an element of 0.214 cal/gm. The atomic c. g mol −1
d. mol g −1
weight is nearly 33. The equivalent weight of an element is 4. Its chloride has a
a. 6.6 b. 12 c. 30 d. 65 V.D. 59.25. then the valency of the element is
25. The product of atomic weight and specific heat of any element a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1
34. Which of the following has the largest no. of atoms? b. 6.02 × 10 23 atoms of oxygen
a. 5 g atom of Cu b. 0.635g of Cu c. 6.02 × 10 23 atoms of C
c. 0.25 moles of Cu atom d. 1 g of Cu d. 3 grams of atoms of CO 2
35. Compound having similar molecular formulae and identical
43. Avogadro number is the number of molecules present at NTP
crystal structures are called
in
a. Allotropes b. Isomers
a. 22.4 ml of gas b. 1ml of gas
c. Isomorps d. Polymers
c. 22.4 L of gas d. 1 L of gas
36. No. of electron of present in CO2 is
44. Equal volumes of all gases at some temperature and pressure
a. 22 b. 44
contain equal number of
c. 11 d. 24
a. molecules b. atoms
37. One Fermi is
c. electrons d. protons
a. 10-13 cm b. 10-15 cm
-10 45. Equivalent weight of an element varies with
c. 10 cm d. 10-12 cm
a. valency b. oxidization number
38. No. of mole of in 16 gm of oxygen gas is
c. electronic number d. none
a. 1 b. 0.5
46. Magnetic quantum no. is related to
c. 2 d. 0.25
a. size b. shape
39. No. of molecules in 2 gm of H2 is
c. orientation d. spin
a. 6.023 × 10 23 b. 2 × 6.023 × 10 23 47. Isotopes were discovered by
6.023 × 10 23 a. Pauling b. Thomson
c. d. 1.2018 × 10 22
2 c. Powel d. Soddy
40. 22 gm of Co 2 at NTP occupies 48. The orbital diagram of an atom in the ground state
a. 22.4 L b. 1.12 L is not correct because
c. 11200 cc d. 2.24 L a. Aufbau principle is violated
41. Which of the following pairs of gases contain the same number b. Hund’s rule is violated
of molecules c. Pauli’s exclusion principle is violated
a. 16g oxygen , 14 g of nitrogen d. Uncertainty principle is violated
b. 8g of oxygen and 22g of nitrogen 49. A free neutron decays in to
c. 28g of nitrogen, 22 g of Co2 a. proton b. electron
d. 32g of oxygen, 32g of nitrogen c. meson d. both a & b
42. One mole of CO2 contains 50. Cathode rays are:
a. 18.1 × 10 23 molecules of CO 2 a. electron b. proton
c. neutron d. positron
51. The number of unpaired electrons in ground state of carbon is 60. Which of the following sets of quantum number is not
a. 1 b. 2 allowed?
c. 3 d. 4 n l m s
52. Cathode rays lead to discovery of a. 3 2 -2 ½
a. electron b. proton b. 4 0 -3 ½
c. neutron d. nucleus c. 4 0 0 ½
53. The name electron was given by d. 5 3 0 -½
a. Stoney b. Thomson 61. Wavelength associated with electron motion.
c. Goldesteion d. Pauling a. Increases with increase in speed of electron
54. When n = 3, the permissible value of 1 are b. Remains same irrespective of speed of electron
a. 1, 2, 3 b. 0, 1, 2 c. Decreases with increasing speed of electron
c. +1, 0, -1 d. +2, 1, -2 d. Is zero
55. CO has same electron as 62. Which of the following a pair of isobar?
a. N2+ b. CN a. 30Si 14 & 32 S 16
+
c. O2 d. O2- b.35 Cl 17 & 37 Cl 17
56. Total number of electrons in a molecule of CO2 is c. Diethyl ether & butyl alcohol
a. 22 b. 44 d. 40 Ar 18 & 40 Ca 20
c. 66 d. 30 63. If the distribution of electrons were disturbed by some applied
57. Proton is the name of energy, the electrons were supposed to vibrate about their
a. Hydrogen atom equilibrium positions causing emission of light waves.This is
b. Nucleus of deuterium in accordance with
c. Fundamental particle a. J. J. Thomson’s model b. Rutherford’s model
d. Ionised hydrogen molecule c. Bohr’s Model d. None of the above
58. Which of the following sets of quantum number is possible? 64. “Scintillation” is concerned with
n l m s a. particle nature of electron b. wave nature of light
a. 3 2 3 ½ c. wave nature of electron d. none of the above
b. 3 1 0 +½ 65. Thershold frequency depends upon
c. 3 3 1 -½ a. frequency of radiation incident on metallic surface
d. 2 1 -2 ½ b. intensity of radiation
59. The ratio of the radii of 1st three Bohr’s orbit is c. nature of metal surface
a. 5 : 6 : 7 b. 1 : 4 : 9 d. none of the above
c. 1 : 9 : 27 d. √2 : √3 : √9 66. The magnetic quantum number for valence electron of sodium
 in ground state is c. 1s2 2s2 2 p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d7
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none d. 1s2 2s2 2 p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d10
67. Maximum no. of electrons that can be accommodated in a sub- 76. The type of bonding is formed, enery
shell is a. pure covalent b. polar covalent
a. n2 b. 2n2 c. 2(2l + 1) d. none c. highly polar d. hydrogen bond
68. Total number of orbitals in a shell is 77. When an atomic bond is formed, energy
a. n2 b. 2n2 c. 4l + 2 d. all a. is released
69. The quantum number which is designed by letters s, p, d and f b. is consumed
instead of number is c. is constant
a. n b. l c. m d. s d. depends on nature bonding
70. The statement “orbitals equivalent energy are filled before 78. Which of the following contains both covalent and ionic bond
electrons before spin pairing occurs” a. CCl 4 b. CaCl 2 c. NH 4 Cl d. H 2 O
a. Uncertainty principle b. Pauli exclusion principle 79. Which has covalent bond?
c. Hund’s rule d. Zeeman effect a. NaH b. NaCl c. MgCl 2 d. NaBr
71. Which of the following is correct configuration?
80. In covalency
a. 2 2 -1 -1/2 b. 3 2 1 +1/2
a. Transference of electrons take place
c. 3 0 -2 +1/2 d. b & c
b. Electrons are shared by only one electron
72. Splitting of line spectra in electric field is called
c. Sharing of electron takes place
a. Zeeman effect b. Stark effect
d. None of these
c. De – Broglie hypothesis d. None of the above
81. Element of A is strongly electropositive and element of B is
73. As electron jumps from higher orbit, Then energy of electron:
strongly electronegative both univalent. Compound formed
a. increases b. decreases
between A and B.
c. remains constant d. 1st increase then decrease
74. In a set of degenerate orbitals the electron distribute themselves a. A + B − b. A − B +
To retain like spins as far as possible. c. A-B d. A → B
a. Paul’s exclusion principle 82. In a double covalent bond connecting two atoms involves
b. Aufbau principle sharing of
c. Hund’s rule of maxim multiplicity a. 2 electrons b. 4 electrons
d. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle c. 6 electrons d. all
75. The electronic configuration of Cu2+ is 83. Kinetic theory of gases states that the force of attraction
a. 1s2 2s2 2 p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8 between molecules is
b. 1s2 2s2 2 p6 3s2 3p6 4s0 3d9 a. strong b. negligible
c. very strong d. not sure
84. Which of the following bond is non-directional a. Li<Na<K<Cs b. Li>Na>K>Cs
a. Covalent b. Ionic c. Cs<K<Li>Na d. None
c. Davite d. None of these 94. The oxidation number of P in H3PO4 is
85. Which of the following is covalent compound? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 0
a. H2 b. NaCl 95. The oxidation number of P in PCl5 is
c. KCl d. Na2S a. +1 b. -5 c. +5 d. 0
86. Which has maximum percentage of ionic character? 96. In which of the following compounds, O.N. of C is +5,
a. CsF b. LiI a. HClO4 b. HClO3 c. HClO2 d. HClO
c. MgCl2 d. AlCl3 97. The oxidation number of P in Na3PO4 is
87. Which is the strongest reducing agent s or weakest oxidizing a. +2 b. +5 c. -7 d. 0
agent 98. The oxidation number of Pb in Pb3O4 is
a. F b. CI a. +2 b. +8/3 c. +8 d. 0
2- 2-
b. Br d. I 99. For the reaction, 2S2O3 + I2 → S4O6 + 2I, choose the
88. The best oxidizing agent or weakest reducing agent among correct statement.
following is, a. I2 is reduced and S2O32- is oxidized
a. F b. CI b. I2 is reduced and S2O2 3 - is oxidized
c. Br d. I c. I2 is oxidized and S2O2 3 - is reduced
89 The strongest reducing agent among following is d. It is not a redox reaction
a. Li b. Na 100. In the reaction, SO3 2- + MnO4- → Mn2+ + SO42-
c. K d. Cs a. SO3 2- is oxidized and MnO4- is reduced
90. The strongest reducing agent in solution is b. SO3 2- gains electrons and MnO4- looses electron
a. Li b. Na c. SO3 2- looses electrons and MnO4- gains electrons
c. K d. Cs d. Both a & c
91. The strongest oxidizing agent among following is 101. I - +IO3 - + H+ → I2 + H2O,
a. O3 b. O2 a. I – is oxidized and IO3 – is reduced
c. Br d. CI b. I – is reduced and IO3 – is oxidized
92. The order of oxidizing power (to gain e-) of element in gr. c. I – loses electrons and IO3 – gains electron
VIIA of periodic table, is d. Both a & c
a. CI < Br < I < F b. CI< I< Br< F 102. I - + O2 + H2O → I2 + OH - ,
c. I< F< CI<Br d. I< Br<CI<F a. I- is oxidized to I2 and O2 is reduced to OH-
93. The order of reducing power ( to gain e-) of element in gr. IA b. It is redox reaction
of periodic table is c. It is a auto – oxidation reaction
 d. Both a & b b. Cl2 + H2O2 → 2HCl + O2
103. When K2Cr2O7 is converted into K2CrO4, the change in c. 2HI + H2O2 → 2H2O + I2
oxidation number of Cr is d. H2SO3 + H2O2 → H2SO4 + H2O
a. 0 b. 6 c. 4 d. 3 117. The color of K2Cr2O7 changes from red orange to lemon
104. The oxidation number of C in CH2O is yellow on treatment with aq. KOH because of
a. 0 b. +2 c. -2 d. +4 a. reduction of Cr6+ to Cr3+
105. Oxidation number of P in Mg2P2O7 is b. formation of chromium hydroxide
a. +1 b. +3 c. +5 d. +7 c. conversion of dichromate ion to chromate
106. The O.N. of Hydrogen in CaH2 is, d. oxidation of KOH to potassium peroxide
a. +1 b. +2 c.-2 d. -1 118. In which of the following O.N. is not changed
107. The O.N. of Cl2 in CaOCl2 is, a. VO2+ → V2O3 b. Na → Na+
a. 0 b. +1 c. -1 d. +2 c. CrO42- → Cr2O72- d. Zn2+ → Zn
108. The O.N. of Cl in Ca (OCl) Cl, -
119. The O.N. of I in H4IO6 is
a. one has +1 and other has -1 b. 0 a. +7 b. -1 c. +5 d. +1
c. both Cl has +1 d. both Cl has -1 120. O.N. of Fe in K3 [Fe(CN)6] is
109. The O.N. of C in C12H22O11 is a. +2 b. +3 c. 0 d. +4
a. 0 b. – 6 c. +2 d. +6 121. O. N. of P in H3PO5 and H4P2O8 (peroxyphosphoric acid)
110. The O.N. of S in S2Cl2 is a. +5 b. +3 c. 0 d. +4
a. 0 b. +1 c. +2 d. +6 122. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?
111. O.N. of which of the following element does not change or a. Burning of candle
fixed in any compound. b. Rusting of iron
a. F b. Cl c. Br d. I c. Action of d. 1. H2SO4 on Zn
112. In M (HxO3)2, the O.N. of X is d. Inversion of can sugar
a. +1 b. +2 c. +3 d. +4 123. Which of the following oxides when heated strongly reduced
113. In Haemoglobin, iron has O. N. to metal?
a. +1 b. +2 c. +3 d. +4 a. ZnO b. HgO
114. In Chlorophyll Mg has O.N. c. CuO d. Fe2O3
a. +1 b. +2 c. +3 d. +4 124. In an oxidation reaction, oxidation number
115. Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent? a. increases b. decreases
a. Cr(s) b. Fe+(aq) c. Zn(s) d. H2(g) c. does not change d. both a & b
116. In which of the following reaction H2O2 is reducing agent?
a. 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + H2O2 → 2FeCl3 + 2H2O 125. In a chemical reaction, an oxidant
 a. loses electrons b. gains electrons 137. The general formula for alkenes is
c. neither a & b d. both a & b a. CnH2n b. CnH2n-2
126. Oxidation number of Nitrogen in NH3 is c. CnH2n+2 d. CnH2n+4
a. +3 b. -1 c. +1 d. -3 138. Which of the following gas in biogas ?
127. O. N.of O in OF2 is a. C2H6 b. CH4
a. Zero b. -1 c. +1 d. -3 c. CO2 d. CO
128. Oxidation state of carbon in sucrose (C12 H22 O11) is 139. The compound of water gas is
a. 0 b. +1 c. +2 d. +4 a. Water vapour b. CO+H2
129. Oxidation number of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is c. CO+N2 d. CO2+C2H4
a. +6 b. -6 c. +2 d. -4 140. Which of the following has maximum protein?
3+
130. If 3 electrons are lost by a metal ion M , final oxidation a. ground nut b. egg
numbers will be c. wheat d. cow milk
a. 0 b. +2 c. +3 d. +6 141. Maximum freezing point falls in
131. Nitrogen was discovered by: a. Camphor b. Naphthalene
a. Rutherford b. Henry Cavendish c. Benzene d. water
c. Loyher Hayer d. none 142. Which of the following chemical reaction is an example of
132. The first organic compound synthesized in laboratory from decomposition reaction?
its element is a. 2Na +Cl2 2NaCl
a. Urea b. CH4 b. N2+3H2 2NH3
c. CH3COOH d. H2H2 c. 2AgBr 2Ag+Br2
133. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to d. Both a & b
a. Reduction b. Oxidation 143. Which of the following is the strongest acid?
c. Hydrolysis d. Its acidic nature a. HF b. HCl
134. Diagonal relationship is shown by b. HBr d. HI
a. elements 1st period b. elements of 2nd period 144. Which of the following is the strongest acid?
rd
c. element of 3 period d. none a. HCN b. HClO2
135. B.H.C. is used as……… c. HNO2 d. HF
a. antiseptic b. disinfectant 145. FeCl3 solution is
c. insecticide d. None a. Acidic b. Basic
136. Thermal decomposition of organic compounds is known as c. Amphoteric d. Neutral
a. Cracking b. Pyrolysis 146. Strength of an acid depends upon
c. Isomerisation d. Rearrangement a. its density b. its viscosity
 c. its degree of ionization d. all of the above 157. Liquid diffuses slowly as compared to gases because
147. Thermal decomposition of organic compounds is known as a. liquids have no definite shape
a. Cracking b. Pyrolysis b. the molecules of liquids are heavy
c. Isomerisation d. Rearrangement c. the molecules of liquids move fast
148. Lightest gas is d. the molecules are held together by strong intermolecular
a. H2 b. O2 forces
c. He d. Xe 158. At high altitudes, the b.p. of water gets lowered because
149. Slag is the product of a. temperature is low b. atmosphere pressure is low
a. Gangue b. Gangue + Flux c. both a & b d. none of the above
c. Colloidal d. None 159. Density of oxygen at N.T.P. is 16, if pressure remains
150. The allotrope of oxygen is constant, at what temperature its density will be equal to that
a. hydrogen b. nitrogen of nitrogen
c. ozone d. ammonia a. 312oc b. 39oc c. 58.50c d. 273 K
151. Natural rubber is polymer of 160. 2.016 g hydrogen and 16g oxygen are enclosed in a flask, the
a. butadiene b. ethylene partial pressure of oxygen in flask is
c. isoprene d. propylene a. 1/3 of total pressure b. 2/3 of total pressure
152. In long form of periodic table, elements are arrange in c. ½ of total pressure d. about eight times that of H2
a. increasing mass b. increasing volume 161. If P, V and T stands for Pressure, Volume and Temperature
c. increasing atomic number d. alphabetically of a gas, which of the following express Boyle’s Law.
153. Which of the following was first discovered in the a. VαT (when P is constant)
chormosphere of the sum? b. Vα1/P (when T is constant)
a. He b. Ne c. Ar d. Rn c. PV = CRT
154. One g hydrogen contains d. PV = RT
a. 6.02 x 1023 no. of molecules 162. Equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of atoms at
b. 3.02 x 1023 no. of molecules the same temperature and pressure. This hypothesis was
c. 6.02 x 1026 no. of molecules proposed by
d. 4.6 x 1020 no. of molecules a. Avogadro b. Berzelius
155. Pressure remaining constant at what temperature the volume c. Dalton d. Gay Lussac
of a gas will be doubled of its volume at 0oC 163. The temperature at which the volume of a gas therretically
a. -546oc b. 546oc c. 273 K d. 546 K becomes zero is
156. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is a. 273 K b. 1/273 K
a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 1.0 d. infinite c. -273 K d. -273oc
164. Gases deviate from ideal gas behavior because molecules. a. 1 × 1 × 273 liters b. 1 × 2 × 273 liters
a. contain covalent bonds b. attract each other 2 27 1 × 273
c. repel each other d. are colorless c. 1 × 1 × 273 liters d. 1 × 2 × 300 liters
165. A gas is heated in such a way that its volume and absolute 171. Equal volumes of H2 and Cl2 were mixed. How will the
temperature both are doubled. The pressure of the gas mixture change after the reaction?
a. becomes 2 times b. becomes 4 times a. It will not change b. It will increase two fold
c. becomes 6 times d. remains same c. It will be halved d. None of these
166. The critical temperature of a gas is that temperature 172. A vessel is filled with a mixture of oxygen and nitrogen. At
a. at which a gas is liquefied what ratio of the partial pressure will the masses of the gases
b. at which a gas is solidified be identical? [Assuming partial pressure of O2 is P1 and
c. above which a gas can not be liquefied partial pressure of N2 is P2]
d. above which a gas can not remain in gaseous state a. P1 = P2 b. P1 = 0.875 P2
167. The relative rate of diffusion of a gas (of molecular weight c. P1 = 1.14 P2 d. none of these
128) as compared to oxygen will be 173. 100 c.c. oxygen is collected over water at 23oc and 80.0 mm
a. ½ b. 1/4th c. 1/8th d. 2 times pressure. Calculate the volume of gas at NTP
168. If equal weights of oxygen and nitrogen are placed in (vapour pressure of water vapour at 23oC 21.mm)
separate containers of equal volume at the same temperature, a. 90 cc b. 94.5 cc c. 150 cc d. 100 cc
which of the following statement is true. 174. How should the conditions be changed to prevent the volume
a. both flasks contain same number of molecules of given gas from growing when mass is increased?
b. the pressure in the oxygen flask is smaller than in the a. temperature is lowered and pressure is increased
nitrogen flask b. temperature is increased and pressure is lowered
c. more molecules are present in the oxygen flask c. temperature and pressure both are lowered
d. the pressure in the nitrogen flask is smaller than in the d. temperature and pressure both are increased
oxygen flask 175. The rate of diffusion of a gas is
169. According to Avogadro’s hypothesis, under similar a. directly proportional to its density
conditions of temperature and pressure equal volumes of all b. directly proportional to its mol. Wt.
gases contain equal number of c. directly proportional to square root of its mol. Wt.
a. Atoms b. Molecules d. inversely proportional to square root of its mol. Wt.
c. Electrons d. Charged atoms 176. Equal weights of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an
170. One liter of a gas collected at STP will occupy ……. At 2 empty container at 25oC . The fraction of the total pressure
atmosphere and 27oC. due to hydrogen is
2 300 1 300 a. ½ b. 1/9
 c. 8/9 d. 16/17 a. It can not be converted into a liquid
177. According to Kinetic theory of gas there are b. There is no interaction between the molecules
a. intermolecular attractions c. All molecules of the gas move with same speed
b. molecule have considerable volume d. At a given temperature PV is proportional
c. no intermolecular attraction 183. The temperature at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws
d. the velocity of molecules decreases of each collision over a wide range of pressure is called
178. Postulate of Kinetic theory is a. Critical temperature b. Boyle temperature
a. atom is indivisible c. Inversion temperature d. Reduced temperature
b. gases combine in a simple ratio 184. The temperature at which the second virial coefficient of a
c. there is no influence of gravity on the molecules of a gas real gas is called
d. none of the above a. critical temperature is always above 0oC
179. The Kinetic theory of gases predicts that, the total kinetic b. eutectic point
energy of a Gaseous assembly depends on. c. boiling point
a. pressure of the gas d. Boyle’s temperature
b. temperature of the gas 185. The liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour at its boiling
c. volume of the gas point. On the average, the molecules in the two phases have
d. pressure, temperature and volume of the gas equal
180. Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule. a. potential energy b. total energy
At 298 K, the average kinetic energy of a helium atom is c. kinetic energy d. intermolecular forces
a. two times that of a hydrogen molecule 186. A closed flask contains water in all its three states, solid,
b. same as that of hydrogen molecule liquid and vapour at 0oC. In this situation the average kinetic
c. four times that of hydrogen molecule energy of water molecules will be
d. half that of hydrogen molecule a. the greatest in the vapour state
181. In deriving the kinetic gas equation, the root mean square b. the same in all the three states
velocity of the molecules is used because it is c. the greatest in the solid state
a. The average velocity of the molecule d. less than that of water
b. The most probable velocity of the molecule 187. Vibrational energy is
c. The square root of the average square velocity of the a. partially potential and partially kinetic
molecules b. only potential
d. The most accurate form in which velocity can be used in c. only kinetic
these calculations d. none of the above
182. Which is not true in case of an ideal gas? 188. An ideal gas can’t be liquefied because
 a. its critical temperature is always above 0oC 194. The constant R is
b. its molecular are relatively smaller in size a. work done per molecule
c. it solidifies before becoming a liquid b. work done per degree absolute
d. forces operative between its molecules are negligible c. work done per degree par mole
189. When an ideal gas undergoes unrestricted expansion, no d. work done per molecules
cooling occurs because the molecules 195. Pressure of a gas is due to
a. are above the inversion temperature a. collisions of gas molecules
b. exert no attractive forces on each other b. the random movement of gas molecules
c. do work equal to the loss in kinetic energy c. the intermolecular forces of attraction between the gas
d. cooled without loss of energy molecules
190. An ideal gas, obeying kinetic theory of gases, can be d. the collision of gas molecules against the walls of the
liquidified if container
a. it can be liquidified an any P and T 196. Volume of a gas at 27 0 C is 4 liters. If temperature of a gas is
b. Its pressure is more than P at a temperature less than T lowered to 150K at the same pressure, its volume will be
c. its temperature is more than critical temperature T a. 0.5 litre b. 1.0 litre
d. Its pressure is more than critical pressure p c. 2.0 liter d. 4.0 litre
191. When there is more deviation in the behaviour of a gas from 197. Hydrogen diffuses five times as rapidly as another gas X,
the ideal gas equation PV=nRT? the molecular weight of X will be?
a. At high temperature and low pressure a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d.100
b. At low temperature and high pressure 198. Correct gas equation is,
c. At high temperature and high pressure PT P T PT V
d. At low temperature and low pressure a. 1 1 = 2 2 b. 1 2 = 2
V1 V2 P2T1 V1
192. A relation between vapour pressure and temperature is known
as PP VV
c. 1 2 = 1 2 d. PR=VT
a. gas equation T1 T2
b. Calpeyron equation 199. At constant pressure, the volume of gas is doubled, the
c. Claussius equation R.M.S. velocity become
d. Claussius Clapeyron equation a. 2 times b. ½ times
193. Which of the following mixtures of gases does not obey c. 2 times d. constant as previous
Dalton’s law of partial pressure?
a. O2 and CO2 b. N2 and O2
c. Cl2 and SO2 d. CO2 and H2 200. Equal weight of methane & oxygen are mixed in empty
 container at 25oC . The fraction of total pressure exerted is . a. 400 g. b. 4 L c. 300 g. d. 22.4 L
a. 1/3 b. 2/3 c. 8/9 d. 9/8 210. A solution contains 10 g of a solute in 10 3 Kg of solutions.
201. Which of the following mixture of gases does not obey Its concentration in the units of ppm is
Dalton's law of partial a. 1000 b. 1 c. 10 d. 10 −3
a. O2, CO2 b. N2, O2 211. The solubility of a salt at 90 degree C is 80 and at 30C it is
c. Cl2,O2 d. NH3, HCl 20. The amount of salt crystallite out on cooling 60gm
202. He intermolecular space between the particles in gaseous saturated solution is,
state: a. 20 g b. 40 g c. 500 g d. 30 g
a. is less than in liquid state 212. The atmospheric pollution is generally measured in the units
b. is more than that in solid state of:
c. increases with in temperature a. mass percentage b. volume percentage
d. increase with in pressure c. ppm d. volume fraction
203. Maximum deviation from ideal behavior is shown by 213. Molality is preferred unit for measuring concentration
a. N2 b. NO because it is
c. NH3 d. NF3 a. convenient to measure b. a small quantity
204. At what temperature, the kinetic energy of 0.3 mol. of. He is c. concentration of gases in liquid d. volume
equal to the kinetic energy of 0.4 mol of Ar at 400 k. 214. The solubility of gases in liquids increases with an increase
a. 533 K b. 400 K of
c. 300 K d. 270 a. pressure b. temperature
205. Which gas has density 1.6 g/l at 26.5oC under 680.2 mmHg c. concentration of gases in liquid d. volume
pressure? 215. Which of following is colligative property?
a. CH4 b. C2H6 c. CO2 d. SF6 a. molar mass b. osmotic pressure
206. Diamond is an example of c. viscosity d. optical activity
a. covalent solid b. electrovalent solid 216. The properties of a solution which depends only on the
c. solid with h- bond d. pseudo solid number of particles and not on their nature are called
207. How many types of space lattice are possible in a crystal ? a. constitutive property b. colligative property
a. 23 b. 7 c. 230 d. 4 c. additive property d. non ideal property
208 The material used in solar cell contain 217. A mixture which boils off like a single pure compound is
a. Cs b. Si c. Sn d. Ti called
209. The solubility of a salt in water is 40 at 30 0 C. the amount of a. eutectic b. zoetrope
water required to dissolve 120 g of the salt at the same temp c. ideal solution d. non ideal solution
is about 218. A non-volatile solute when dissolved is a violet solvent
 lowers the vapour pressure of the liquid. This happens due to 224. What is the mole fraction of methanol in solution containing
a. stronger solute solvent interaction 3.3 g of method in 18 g of water
b. loss of kinetic energy of the liquid molecules a. 0.18 b. 0.41
c. lowering of surface layer concentration c. 0.09 d. 0.33
d. decrease of the boiling point of the liquid 225. What is the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol and water in a
219. Solution I contains 1 mole of urea in 100 g of water, while solution in which 46 kg of ethyl alcohol and 180 g of water
solution II contains 1 mole of cansugar in 100g of water are mixed together?
(molar mass of urea = 60 gmol −1 and that of cansugar = 342 a. X alco = 0.46, X water = 0.18
gmol −1 ) b. X alco = 0.09, X water = 0.91
a. Solution I boils at higher temperature c. X alco = 0.08, X water = 0.81
b. solution II boils at higher temperature
c. both the solution boils at the same temperature d. none
d. none of above 226. If 4 g of NaOH are dissolved in 100 cm 3 of the solution,
220. Which of 0.1 M aqueous solution will have lowest freezing what shall be the difference in its normality and molarity?
point? a. 2 b. 1
a. Potassium sulphate b. sodium chloride c. NO different d. 3
c. Urea d. sucrose 227. The temperature independent ways of expressing
0
221. If mortality of a solution is X at 25 C then molarity at higher concentration is
a. Normality b. Molarity
temperature 50 0 C is
c. Molality d. Formality
a. X/2 b. more than X
228. A normal solution contains
c. less than X d. none
a. 1 geq of solute per kg of solution
222. One of the disadvantage of normality, molarity and formality
b. 1 geq wt of solute per litre of solution
of solution is that they
c. 1 g mol of solute per litre of solution
a. are independent of temperature
d. 1 g mol of solute per kg of solution
b. changes with temperature
229. 1 centi molar solution contains
c. changes with pressure
a. 1 g mole of solute per litre of solution
d. both (a) and (b)
b. 1/100th of g mol of solute per litre of solution
223. Molality is preferred over molarity, because
c. 100th of mol of solute per litre of solution
a. molality is independent temperature
d. none
b. molality involves wt. of solvent
230. The morality of water in pure water is
c. both (a) and (b)
a. 55.55 b. 55.65 c. 55.75 d. None
d. none
231. The molarity of solution containing 10 m moles of solute in cell membrane?
100ml of solution is a. Fructose b. Glycogen
a. 0.1 b. 0.01 c. 1 d. none c. Hemoglobin d. Catalose
232. The normality of the resulting mixture obtained by mixing 239. Maximum freezing point falls in
150 ml of 0.2 M HCl and 100 ml of 0.04 M H 2SO4 a. Camphor b. Naphthalene
a. 0.40 b. 0.44 c. 0.82 d. none c. Benzene d. water
233. The most convenient way of expressing concentration is 240. The osmotic pressure of dilute solution increase when
a. Normality b. Molarity a. more of the solute is added
c. Molalilty d. Mole fraction b. more of solvent is added
234. Molality is the most inconvenient unit for concentration c. temp is increased
because d. any of the change in made
a. it depends on temp. 241. The concentration of a saturated solution of a certain
b. it involves measurement of wt. of liquid polypeptide is 1 × 10 −3 M at 25 0 C. The osmotic pressure of
c. both (a) and (b) this solution in mm of Hg is (R=0.082lit atm deg −1 mol −1 )
d. none a. 18.6 b. 0.0245 c. 24.5 d. 0.76
235. Which is the heaviest? 242. The number of moles of sucrose that should be present in 1
a. 25 g of Hg b. 2 mole of H2O litre of solution to exert an osmotic pressure of 56 atm at
c. 2 moles of CO 2 d. 4 g atoms of O 2 27 0 C.
236. For preparing 0.1N solution of a compound from its impure a. 4 b. 0.25 c. 0.227 d. 0.454
sample of which percentage purity is known, the weight of 243. Which of the following decrease with increase of
substance required will be temperature?
a. more than the theoretical weight a. molarity b. molality
b. less than the theoretical weight c. mole fraction d. mole number
c. same as the theoretical weight 244. A solution of FeCl 3 (molecular mass = 162) has density 1.19
d. none of the above g/ml molar concentration is
237. During dialysis a. 8.35 m b. 7.35M c. 5.35 M d. 6.35M
a. solvent molecules and ions diffuse 0
245. A compound has solubility 90 at 80 C. 25 g of saturated
b. solvent molecules, ions and colloidal diffuse solution has……..amount of the compound present in it
c. all kinds of particles can diffuse through semi a. 10.5 b. 12.5 c. 13.5 d. 11.5
permeable membrane
246. 200 ml of 1 NH 2 SO4 ( f = 1.05) has………g of H 2 SO4
d. only solvent molecules can diffuse
238. Which of the following molecules would diffuse through a a. 200 b. 96 c. 48 d. 10.299
247. Which of the following conditions is not correct for ideal a. Na + b. Mg 2+ c. Al 3+ d. Si 4+
solution? 256. Which is not a group 18 element?
a. no change in volume on mixing a. He b. Be
b. It obeys Raoult’s law c. Ve d. Ne
c. Its vapour pressure is negligible 257. Iron falls under group
d. No change in enthalpy in mixing a. 1 b. 4
248. A can sugar solution has an osmotic pressure of 2.46 atm at c. 8 d. 16
7 0 C. Determine the strength of the solution 258. Atomic number of Fe is
a. 34.22 g/L b. 2 g/L c. 11.2 g/L d. 0.5 g/L a. 17 b. 27
249. Which one is a colligative property? c. 26 d. 47
a. Boiling point b. Vapour pressure 259. The most reactive form of carbon is
c. Osmotic pressure d. Freezing point a. diamond b. graphite
250. Boiling point of liquids depends on all of the following c. coal d. charcoal
factors except 260. Portland cement is manufacture by using
a. viscosity of liquid a. Limestone, clay and sand
b. external pressure b. Limestone, gypsum and sand
c. volume of liquid taken c. Limestone, gypsum and alumina
d. vapour pressure of the liquid d. Limestone, clay and gypsum
e. hexane and heptane 261. Hydrogen is
251. The component of blood which maintain osmotic pressure is a. reducing agent b. oxidizing agent
a. mineral salt b. globulin c. both a and b d. None
c. red blood cells d. blood platelets 262. Water has PH 7. A salt is added to it even though the pH of
252. Terylene is solution remains same. The salt is made up of
a. polyamide b. polyester a. strong acid + strong base
c. poly acid d. polypeptide b. strong acid + weak base
253. How many valance electrons are there in an argon atom ? c. strong base + weak base
a. 7 b.8 d. weak acid + weak base
c. 9 d. 10 263. pH is
254. Aluminium nitrate is a. +ve logarithm of H + concentration
a. AlNO3 b. Al2(NO3)3 b. – ve logarithm of H + concentration
c. Al(NO3)3 d. Al(NO3)2 c. +ve logarithm of OH − concentration
255. Smallest among the following is
d. - ve logarithm of OH − concentration
264. pH of solution on dilution solution acetate. When the ratio of the concentration of salt
a. Increase b. Decrease to acid is increased tenfold the pH of the solution
c. Remains constant d. None a. increases 10 fold b. decreases ten fold
265. Indicator having pH range 4.2 of 6.3 is c. increases by 1 d. decreases by 1
a. methylene blue b. phenolphthalein 273. The extent of ionization increase
c. methyl orange d. methyl red a. with the increase in the concentration of the solute
266. What NH 4 OH is reacted with acid at end point, pH of the b. by adding excess of water to the solution or dilution
solution will be c. on decreasing temp of the solution
a. 0 b. 11 c. 7 d. 13 d. on starting the solution vigorously
267. Which of the following indicator is used for pH 31 to 4.5 274. The degree of dissociation of weak electrolyte increases
a. methyl orange b. Phenolphthalein a. with increasing dilution
c. litmus d. none b. with increasing pressure
268. Which of the following will not change the pH on addition of c. with decreasing dilution
drops of acid or alkali? d. concentration of the solution
a. CH3COOH solution 275. The degree of ionization of an electrolyte does not depend on
b. mixture of 0.1 M HCL and 0.1 M HCO 3 a. the nature of solute and solvent
b. size of the solvent molecules
c. solution containing mixture of CH 3 COOH and c. the temperature
CH 3 COOHNa d. concentration of the solution
d. solution containing 1 M KOH and 1 M NaOH 276. Ethyl chloride does not give white ppt with AgNO 3 solution
269. If a solution of pH = 0, 100 ml of pure water added, the because
mixture will be a. AgNO3 doesn’t dissociates as Ag+ and NO3- in the
a. acidic (pH = 2) b. alkaline (pH = 18) presence of ethyl chloride
c. amphoteric d. Neutral (pH = 7) b. ethyl chloride is very stable compound
270. The pH of a solution of NH 4 OH has been measured if c. ethyl chloride does not dissociate to give Cl-
NH 4 Cl is now added d. ethyl radicals interfere between the reaction of ethyl
a. the pOH will increase b. the pH will increase chloride and AgNO3 solution
c. the pH will decrease d. the acidity will decrease 277. Molten NaCl conducts electricity due to the presence of
a. free electrons b. free ions
271. The [OH] of a solution is 1 × 10 −8 . The pH of the solution is
c. Free molecules d. Na and Cl atoms
a. 10.0 b. 8.0 c. 6.0 d. 4.0
278. The degree of ionization of a compound depends on
272. In a mixture of an aqueous solution of acetic acid and
a. size of solutes
 b. Nature of solutes c. may be acidic, neutral or alkaline d. fairly acidic
c. nature of vessels 289. The aqueous solution of Aluminum sulphate is acidic due to
d. Quantity of electricity passed a. cationic hydrolysis
279. An electrolyte b. anionic hydrolysis
a. undergoes dissociation into atoms c. both cationic and anionic hydrolysis
b. undergoes dissociation in water ions d. dissociation to ions
c. generate ions on passing electric current 290.The compound, whose 0.1 M solution is basic is
d. is ionized in solid state a. Ammonium acetate b. KOH
280. The degree of ionization of a substance c. AlCl 3 d. Sodium acetate
a. decrease with dilution b. increase with dilution 291. A solution of NH4Cl is
c. may increase or decrease d. is constant a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. amphoteric
281. When CuSO4 is dissolved in water pH of the solution 292. The one which has highest value of pH is
a. is increased b. is decreased a. Distilled water b. NH3 solution of water
c. remains unchanged d. may increase or decrease c. NH3 d. water saturated with O2
282. The addition of solid sodium carbonate to pure water causes 293. A buffer solution
a. an increase in [H 3 O + ] b. an increase in pH a. is a weak acid and its conjugate base
c. no change in pH d. a decrease in [ OH −1 ] b. is a weak base and its conjugate acid
283. The solution f KCl in water is c. shows no change in pH on adding small amount of acid
a. acidic b. alkaline c. acidic d. neutral or base
284. If acid to salt concentration is increased 10 times, pH d. All
a. decreases by 10 b. increases by 10 294. An acidic buffer solution can be obtained by mixing aqueous
c. decreases by 1 d. increases by 1 solution of
285. An aqueous solution of 0.1M NH 4 Cl will have a pH close to a. CH 3 COONa and excess of HCl
a. 9.1 b. 8.1 c. 5.1 d. 7.1 b. CH 3 COONa and CH 3 COOH
286. If the pH of a solution is 2, its normally will be c. NaCl and HCl
a. 2 N b. 0.5N c. 0.01 N d. 0.001 N d. CH 3 COOH and excess of NaOH
287. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is
295. pH of blood is
a. change blue litmus to red b. do not affect litmus
a. less than 6
c. neutral d. none
b. greater than 7 and less than 8
288. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is
c. greater than 8 and less than 9
a faintly acidic b. faintly alkaline
d. acidic
296. Fear on excitement generally causes on to breath rapidly and c. +ve or –ve d. Always constant
it result in the decrease of CO 2 concentration in blood, the 306. A catalyst
pH of blood will a. Increase the free energy change of reaction
a. increase b. decrease b. Decrease the free energy change
c. not change d. will adjust to 7 c. Does not alter free energy of a reaction
297. If pH of A,B, C and D are 9.5, 2.5, 3.5 and 5.5 respectively, d. May do any one of above depending upon the reaction
then strongest acid is ( AFMC – 95) 307. The rate of a zero order reaction is independent of the
a. A b. B c. C d. D a. Temperature of the reaction
298. If a neutral solution has Pk w =13.36 at 50 degree C, then pH b. concentration of the reactant
c. Concentration of product
of the solution is
d. None of these
a. 6.68 b. 7 c. 7.63 d. none
308. The rate of reaction is independent of
299. pH of boiling water is
a. temperature b. concentration
a. 7 b. < 7 c. > 7 d. none
c. nature of reactants d. molecularity
300. Calculate pH when [OH] = 4.8 × 10 −3 309. In photosynthesis
a. 11.6 b. 2.4 c. 8.4 d. 1.2 a. Chlorophyll is completely converted to carbohydrate
301. A buffer solution prepared by mixing two solutions b. Chlorophyll is partly converted to carbohydrate
a. strong acid and its salt with strong base c. Chlorophyll acts as photosensitizers
b. weak acid and its salt with strong base d. Chlorophyll has a little role
c. weak base and its salt with strong base 310. The rate of reaction is independent of
d. both b and c a. Pressure b. Temperature
302. Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by dissolving 2 gram c. Concentration d. Catalyst
of NaOH (Mw =40) in water and diluting to 500 ml 311. The rate of chemical reaction
a. 1.3 b. 3.1 c. 13 d. 31 a. increases with time
303. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of b. decreases with time
the reaction, the reaction of…….order c. may increase or decrease during the reaction
a. Zero b. first c. Second d. third d. remains constant with time
304. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends 312. The enzymic activity of Human body enzyme is maximum at
on the a. 298 K b. 310 K
a. concentration of reactant b. time c. 320 K d. 330 K
c. Temperature d. concentration of product 313. Rusting of iron is catalyzed by
305. The rate of reaction is
a. always positive b. Always –ve
 a. Fe b. O2 a. dilution b. number of ions
c. Zn d. H+ c. current density d. volume of the solution
314. Hydrolysis of sugar to glucose and fructose is catalyzed by 324. The best conductor of electricity is 1 M solution of
a. Invertase b. Zymase a. boric acid b. acetic acid
c. Lactic Bacilli d. Disatase c. sulphuric acid d. phosphoric acid
315. Ethylene readily undergoes 325. Electrolytic conduction differs from metallic conduction in
a. addition reactions that in the case of electrolytic conduction
b. substitution reactions a. Resistance increases with increasing temp
c. elimination reactions b. Resistance decreases with increasing temp
d. rearrangement c. The flow of current does not generate heat
316. Zinc displaces d. the resistance is independent of temp
a. Cu b. Li c. Na d. K 326. The molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte
317. In the Daniel cell, current in the external circuit flows from a. increases on dilution
a. Cu to Zn b. Zn to Cu b. does not charge considerably on dilution
c. Do not flow d. None c. decreases on dilution
318. In a dry cell, the depolarizer is d. depends on density
a. NH4Cl b. Zn 327. Pure water is poor conductor of electricity because it
c. MnO2 d. Charcoal powder a. has low boiling point b. is almost unionized
319. Galvanization is a process which involves the coating of iron c. is neutral d. is readily decomposed
surface with 328. As a lead storage battery is charged
a. Rn b. Al c. Sn d. Cu a. PbO2 dissovles
320. Primary cells are b. is almost unionized
a. reversible b. everlasting c. lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulphate
c. non-reversible d. none d. the amount of sulphuric acid decreases
321. The emf of an electrochemical cell is measured by the null 329. When a lead storage battery is discharged
method at a constant temperature to a. SO2 is evolved b. Lead sulphate is
a. avoid heat generation b. avoid corrosion consumed
c. avoid charge in electrolyte concentration d. none c. Lead is formed d. H2SO4 is consumed
322. Corrosion always occurs at 330. Calomel is electrode is made from
a. cathodic area b. anodic area a. ZnCl2 b. CuSO4
c. both d. none c. Hg2Cl2 d. HgCl2
323. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to 331. If a stripe of copper metal is placed in a solution of ferrous
 sulphate 340. When a lead battery is discharged
a. copper will precipitate out a. SO2 dissolved b. PbSO4 consumed
b. Iron will precipitate out c. Lead formed d. H2SO4 consumed
c. Cu and Fe both will dissolve 341. Process in which no heat is transferred to and from the
d. No reaction will take place system is
332. Which of the following does not displace hydrogen from a. Isothermal b. adiabatic
dilute hydra acids c. isochoric d. isolated
a. Na b. K c. Ca d. Pb 342. The apparatus used for the experimental determination of
333. When a copper wire is placed in a solution of AgNo3, the heat of a reaction is called
solution acquires blue color due to formation of a. thermometer b. voltmeter
a.Cu 2+ ions c. calorimeter d. colorimeter
b. Cu+ ions 343. Which of the following is the correct consequence of
c. Soluble complex of AgNO3 radioactivity?
d. Cu − ion by the reduction of Cu a. emission of only α particle
334. H2/O2 fuel cells are used in spacecraft to supply b. emission of only β particle
a. power of heat and light b. power of pressure c. stability of the nucleus
c. oxygen d. water d. instability of the nucleus
335. Which of the following cells convert chemical energy of H2 344. The diameter of the nucleus is of the order
and O2 directly into electrical energy a. 10 −10 m b. 10 −15 m
a. Hg cell b. Daniel cell c. 10 −14 cm d. 10 −10 cm
c. Fuel cell d. Lead storage cell 345. The rate of nuclear reaction
336. A coulomb of charge corresponds to a. Increase with increase of temperature
a. 6.2 × 1015 e − b. 6.2 × 1016 e − b. Decrease with decrease of temperature
c. 6.2 × 1017 e − d. 6.2 × 1018 e − c. Decrease with increase of temperature
337. Gold is found in electrolytic refining of copper d. Independent of temperature
a. at anode b. in anode mud 346. Which of the following has one proton and no neutron?
c. in electrolyte d. in cathode mud a. Protium b. Deuterium
338. In metals conduction of electron is due to c. Tritium d. F
a. free electrons b. bound electrons 347. Radioactivity lead to
c. ions d. atoms a. Stability of nucleus
339. Copper does not displace…………..from their salt solution. b. Instability of nucleus
a. Ag b. g/A c. g/C d. C/g
 c. Emission of α particle only a. C-14 fraction is same in all objects
d. emission of only β particle only b. C-14 is highly unstable and is readily lost from objects
348. The rate of decay of radioactive element c. C-14/C-12 ratio is always constant in atmosphere
a. Increase with increase in time d. Living tissue will not absorb C-14 but absorb C-12
b. Decrease with increase in time 357. Age of fossil is determined by
c. Remains constant with increase in time a. U-Pb method
d. Decrease exponently with time b. C-14 method
349. The alpha particle is c. C-H-N cycle
a. An ionized H atom b. Ionized He atom d. Neutron activation analysis
c. Doubly ionized He atom d. Neutral particle 358. The heaviest particle is
350. Which of the does not contain material particles? a. Electron b. Proton c. Neutron d. Meson
a. α- rays b. β-rays c. anode rays d. γ-rays 359. Atomic bomb is discovered by
351. In nuclear reactors D 2 O or graphite is used as a. E. Rutherford b. O. Hann
a. Fuel b. Moderator c. Curie d. Einstein
c. Energy producer d. None 360. Colloidal solutions are not purified by
352. In carbon dating following is used a. Dialysis b. Electrophoresis
a. C12 b. C13 c. Electro dialysis d. Ultra filtration
c. C 14
d. C15 361. Butter is a collide containing
353. The most effective projectile file is a. Water dispersed in fat
a. Electron b. Proton b. Fat globules are dispersed in water
c. Neutron d. α particle and meson c. Fat is dispersion in casein
354. The total weight of fission products is always d. Suspension of casein in water
a. More than that of parent nucleus 362. Which of following methods is used for sol destruction?
b. Less than that of parent nucleus a. Condensation
c. Depends upon external condition b. Dailysis
d. Neither more nor less c. Diffusion through animal membrane
355. Large energy in an atomic bomb explosion is due to d. Addition of an electrolyte
a. Conversion of heavier to lighter atom 363. Dialysis is a process of
b. Products having a lesser mass than initial substance a. Precipitating colloids by addition of electrolyte
c. Release of neutrons b. Separating suspension from colloidal solution
d. Release of electrons c. Removing suspensions from colloidal solutions
356. The basic of C-14 dating is that the d. Dispersion of freshly precipated substance into colloids
364. Colloidal systems are 373. Tyndall effect is shown by
a. Homogeneous b. Heterogeneous a. True solutions b. Colloidal solution
c. Suspensions d. None of these c. Dilute solution d. Suspensions
365. Who is regarded as founder of colloidal chemistry 374. Gelatin is often used as an ingredient in manufacture of ice-
a. Goldberg and wage b. Rutherford cream
c. Thomas Graham d. Berzelius a. to prevent the formation of colloid
366. Those substances which reality diffuse through animal b. to stabilize the colloid and prevent crystal growth
membrane are known as c. for improving the flavor
a. Crystalloid b. Colloids d. to stabilize the mixture
c. Suspensions d. Electroly 375. The coagulating power of an ion depends on
367. Soap is alcohol is a. its size b. sign of charge on it
a. Crystalloid b. Colloid c. magnitude of charge on it
c. Suspension d. None of these d. Both magnitude and sign of charge
368. Which of the following is not a colloid? 376. Berdig’s are method used for preparation of colloidal
a. Ruby glass b. Gum Arabic solution is
c. Chlorophyll d. Albumin a. Dispersion method
369. Suspensions are b. Condensation method
a. Invisible c. Combination of dispersion and condensation
b. Visible under microscope d. Neither dispersion nor condensation
c. Visible under naked eyes 377. The stability of lyophilic colloids is due to
d. Visible under electron microscope a. Charge on their particles
370. Fog is an example of colloidal system containing b. a layer of dispersion medium on their particles
a. Gas dispersed b. Liquid dispersed in gas c. large size of particles
c. Solid dispersed in gas d. Liquid dispersed in solid d. small size of particles
371. Collodial systems containing solid dispersed in liquid are 378. When dispersion method of a colloidal system is gas, it is
known as known as
a. Aerosol b. Gel c. Sol d. Emulsion a. Aerosol b. Sol
372. Milk is an emulsion containing c. emulsion d. Hydrosol
a. Fat is dispersed in solid casein 379. Which of the following gives positively charged sol?
b. Fat globules are dispersed in water a. Gold b. Metal sulphide
c. Water is dispersed in fat c. Ferric hydroxide d. Acidic dye
d. Suspension of casein in water 380. When a small quantity of an electrolyte is added to a freshly
 prepared precipate, it readily passes into colloidal state, it is d. Colloidal particles carry no charge
known as 388. Hydrophillic colloids are readily coagulated by addition of
a. Electrophoresis b. Dispersion a. An electrolyte
c. Peptisation d. Coagulation b. An ethanol
381. Tyndall effect in colloidal solutions is due to c. An electrolyte with ethanol
a. Reflection of light by colloidal particles d. Hydrophobic colloid
b. Scattering of light by colloidal particles 389. Which of the following is not related with colloidal systems?
c. Absorption of light a. Ultrafication b. Brownian movement
d. Presence of charged particles c. Wave length d. Coagulation
382. The size range of colloidal particles range from 390. Which of the following does not contain a hydrophobic
a. 5A to 100 A 0 b. 1m μ to 200 m μ structure?
c. 1 m μ to 5 m μ d. 200 m μ to 500 m μ a. Linseed oil b. Lanolin
c. Glycogen d. Rubber
383. The sky looks blue due to
391. Purple of cassius is a colloidal solution of
a. Dispersion of effect b. reflection
a. Cu b. Ag c. Au d. Pt
c. Transmission d. Scattering
392. Enulsifying agents are generally
384. Gold number represents
a. Ions with negative charge b. Protective colloids
a. Amount of god present in the colloid
c. Ions with positive charge d. Lyphobic substance
b. Amount of gold required to break the colloid
393. Whipped cream is an example of
c. Amount of gold required to protect the colloid
a. Gas dispersed in liquid b. Liquid dispersed in gas
d. None of these
c. Liquid dispersed in liquid d. Liquid dispersed in solid
385. Brownian movement was discovered by
394. Alum is added in purification of water
a. Zsigmondy b. Robert Brown
a. to make in conducting
c. Hardy – Schulze d. Graham
b. as germicide
386. Medicines are generally used in colloidal state because these
c. to settle down the suspended impurities
a. are cheaper
d. for making dirt particles electrically charged
b. are more effective and readily assimilated
395. The emulsifying agent in milk is
c. act as germicide
a. lactic acid b. casein
d. are easily prepared
c. Lactose d. fat
387. At isoelectric point
396. Butter is
a. Peptisation occurs
a. gel b. emulsion c. sol d. none
b. colloidal solutions become stable
397. Gels on standing exude amount of liquid. This phenomenon
c. coagulation is not possible
 is known as 405. Copper is extracted from copperpyrites (CuFeS2) by
a. synersis b. efflorescence roasting the concentrated ore in air to form Cu2S, the
b. thixotropy d. absorption impure Cu2S in then heated in air forming CH2O which
398. Which is used is treating eye diseases? is finely reduced to copper by
a. Colloidal sulphur b. Collidal antimony a. Heating with unchanged Cu2S
c. colloidal gold d. Colloidal silver b. Heating with Si in a closed furnance
399. The blue colour of water in the sea is due to c. Heating with coke in the absence of air
a. scattering of blue light by water molecules d. Heating with coke in a blast furnance
b. reflection of blue sky by sea water 406. Which of the follwing is reduced by H2
c. refraction of the blue of light by the impurities in sea a. CuO b. SnO2
water c. Al2O3 d. Fe2O3
d. absorption of other colors except the blue color by water 407. Chromatography a method for the separation of mixture
molecules and purification of compound is based on
400. Blue color of the sky is due to a. absorption b. solubility
a. dispersion effect b. reflection c. colour change d. selective absorption
c. transition d. scattering 408. Dolomite is…… form of Mg
401. Alum purify muddy water by a. Carbonate b. Sulphate
a. dialysis b. absorption c. Oxide d. Carbite
c. coagulation d. peptization 409. Gold is found in electrolytic refining of copper
402. Addition of salt to colloid lead to a a. at anode b. In anode mud
a. dialysis b. absorption c. at cathode d. In cathode mud
c. coagulation d. peptization 410. Copper does not displace which of the following metal
403. The minimum concentration of an electrolyte required to from their salt solution
cause coagulation of a sol is called a. Ag b. Au
a. flocculation value b. gold number c. Zn d. Hg
c. protective value d. none of these 411. Granite is an
404. A lump of coal burns slowly in air while coal dust burns a. Alloy b. Amalgam
explosively. This is because of c. Ore d. Rock
a. high mass of lump of coal 412. Which among the following is an ore of copper?
b. lower ignition temperature of coal dust a. Calamite b. Bauxite
c. higher ignition temperature of coal dust c. Malachite d. Haemitite
d. lager surface are coal dust 413. Which is an element?
 a. Sand b. Gun powder a. Topaz b. Corrundom
c. Brass d. Hydragyrum c. Anglesite d. Mica
414. Iron is made soft during extraction using 424. Forth floatation process is based on
a. CO b. CO2 a. Wetting characteristic of ore and gangue
c. H2O d. C b. Floating properties of one ore and gangue
415. Cinnabar is the ore of c. Both a and b
a. Zn b. Cd d. None
c. Hg d. Fe 425. Mixture of powdered ore and water is called
416. The waste material in an ore ( mineral) is called a. Slurry b. slag
a. flux b. Litter c. eluant d. none
c. Gangue d. Slag 426. Froth floatation process involves
417. Malachite is an ore of a. absorption b. adsorption
a. Zn b. Cu c. coagulation d. sedimentation
c. Hg d. Fe 427. Calcination is carried out mostly for
418. Which of the following is not an ore of sulphur a. Carbonate b. sulphide
a. Galena b. Iron pyrites c. Oxide d. Hydroxide
c. Zinc blende d. Malachite 428. Calcined ore is
419. Froth floating is the process of purification a. oxide b free metal
of……….ore c. sulphide d. infusible compound
a. Oxide b. Sulphide 429. Roasting is mainly for
c. Carbonate d. Sulphate a. sulphide b. Hydrated oxide
420. Dolomite is c. Oxide d. None
a. MgSO4, 7H2O b. MgCO3 430. Wolframite is ore of
c. MgCO3,CaCO3 d. None a. W b. X
421. The process of converting hydrated alumina to c. Y d. Z
anhydrous alumina is known as 431. The ore of Mg is
a. Roasting b. Smelting a. Asbestos b. Siderite
c. Calcination d. Cupellation c. Galena d. Diaspore
422. Acid flux is 432. The precious stone originating from Beryllium is
a. CaCO3 b. CaO a. Granite b. Garnet
c. SiO2 d. MgO c. Salinanite d. Shale
423. Which one is not ore of Aluminium 433. Quartzite is
 a. Igneous rock b. Sedimentary rock 442. The method used for the concentration of sulphide ores
c. Metamorphic rock d. stone of copper is
434. The silicate layer of earth correspond to a. Magnetic separation b. electro refining
a. Lithophil b. Siderophil c. Smelting d. Froth floatation
c. Chalcophil d. Atmophil 443. Froth floatation process is applicable for
435. Elements which have tendency to associate with iron a. Sulphates ore b. Sulphide ore
are c. Oxides ore d. Chloride ores
a. Lithophil b. Siderophil 444. An alloy is
c. Ferophil d. Atmophil a. A solid containing two or metals
436. Manganese nodule b. Mixture of two or more non metal
a. is potato shaped nodule b. is nodule of potato c. Intermetallic compound
c. is potato containing Mn d. none d. a solid containing one non metal
437. The metals occurring in the form of their compounds in 445. During smelting an addition all substance is added
nature is called which combines with impurity to form a fusible product
a. Minerals b. Flux which is called
c. Slag d. Ores a. Gangue b. Mud
438. The oil used in froth floatation process is c. Slag d. Flux
a. Pine oil b. Mustard oil 446. Electrolytic reduction method is used in the extraction
c. Coconut oil d. None of above of
439. Flux is used to a. Noble metals b. Transitioned metal
a. Remove all impurities form ore c. Highly electro –ve d. Highly electro +ve
b. Remove silica 447. Heating of ore in limited air is called
c. Remove silica and undesirable metal oxide a. Smelting b. Roasting
d. Reduce metal oxide c. Calcination d. Bessemerisation
440. Metallurgy is process in which 448. Which of the following is extracted by electrolytic
a. Pure metal is extracted process?
b. Alloy in nature a. Cu b. Na
c. Ore is concentrated c. Fe d. Al
d. Metal is extracted from ore 449. Calcination is the process of heating ore
441. The impurities associated with minerals are called a. in absence of air b. in presence of air
a. Ore b. Slag c. in a blast furnance d. None
c. Flux d. Gangue 450. A naturally occurring substance form which metal can
 be profitably extraction is known as 460. Product obtained by heating AgNO3 are
a. Gangue b. Slag a. Ag2O+NO2+O2 b. AgNO2+NO2
c. Ore d. Mineral c. Ag+NO2 ↑ + O2 d. AgNO2+O2
451. Which of the following statement is true? 461. Amaglam is an alloy of
a. An ore can not be minerals a. Mercury b. Iron
b. A mineral can not be done c. Aluminium d. Chromium
c. All minerals are ore 462. Brass is an alloy of
d. All ores are minerals a. Cu+Sn b. Cu+Zn
452. The roasting is done in case of c. Zn+Sn d. Cu+Fe+
a. Carbonates b. Sulphide 463. Bauxite is an ore of
c. Oxide ore d. Silicate ores a. Lead b. Aluminium
453. Alumino thermic process is used for the extraction of c. iron d. Copper
a. Zn b. Fe 464. Bronze is an alloy of
c. Al d. Cr a. . Cu+Sn b. Cu+Fe
454. Zinc hydroxide, when heated gives c. Cu+Cr d. Cu+Zn
a. Zn+H2O b. ZnO+H2 465. Stainless steel consist of
c. ZnO+O2 d. ZnO+H2O a. Fe+Zn+Cu b. Fe+Ni+Al
455. Which of the following is ore of lead c. Fe+Ni+Cr d. Fe+C+Cr
a. Galena b. Magentite 466. Important ore of iron is
c. Cinnabar d. Calamine a. Hamatite b. Malachite
456. Zn(NO3)2 when heated gives c. Pitch blend d. Cinnabar
a. ZnO+O2+N2 b. Zn+NO2+O2 467. Which of the following is soluble in water
c. ZnO+NO2+O2 d. ZnNO2+O2 a. K2O b. BaSO4
457. Product obtained when KNO3 is heated are c. CuO d. All of above
a. NO2+O2+K2O b. KNO2+O2 468. Which of the following is insoluble in water?
c. KNO2+N2+O2 d. K2O+O2+NO2 a. eCl2 b. Hg2Cl2
458. Which of the following is soluble in water c. NaCl d. CaO
a. Zn(NO3)2 b. NaNO3 469. Which of the following is the ampphoteric oxides
c. Cu(NO3)2 d. All of above a. PbO b. SiO2
459. Molecular formula of calamine is c. ZnO d.CaO
a. CaSO4 b. Al2O3 470. The substance which converts infeasible ore into fusible
c. ZnCO3 d. ZnS ore is called
 a. Gangue b. Slag a. Ca(OH)2 b. NaOH
c. Flux d. Matrix c. Fe(OH)3 d. Cu(OH)2
471. Which of the following is the acidic oxides 481. Which of the following gives a mixture of NO2 and O2
a. ZnO b. SiO2 on heating
c. MgO d. CaO a.NaNO3 c. LiNO3
472. Which of the following doesnot decompose on heating d. RbNO3 d. KNO3
a. K2CO3 b.CaCO3 482. Which of the following gives a mixture of NO2 and O2
c. ZnCO3 d. Cu(NO3)2 on heating
473. Which of the following does not decompose on heating a. LiNO3 b. NaNO3
a. Na2CO3 b. KOH c. Hg(NO3)2 d. KNO3
c. NaOH d. all of above 483. Malachite is a basis carbonate of
474. Which of the following is the iron ore a. Zn b. Fe
a. Dolomite b. Bauxite c. Cu d. Pb
c. Galena d. Haematite 484. Pearl ash is a basis carbonate of
475. Which of the following sulphate is insoluble in water? a. a b. Fe
a. FeSO4 b. BaSO4 c. Cu d. Fe
c. Na2SO4 d. CuSO4 485. Calamine in an ore of
476. Na2CO3 is a. Cu b. Zn
a. decomposes when heated c. Fe d. K
b. insoluble in water 486. The ppt which remains undissolved in water and
c. soluble in water dil.acid is
d. sparingly soluble in water a. BaSO4 b. BaSO3
477. Froth floatation is used for the concentration of c. CuS d. BaCO
a. Sulphide ore b. carbonate ore 487. From a solution of ZnCl2, zinc carbonate can be
c. Oxide ore d. none of above precipitated by adding
478. Sal Soda is a. Na2CO3 b. CaCO3
a. AgNO3 b. Na2O3 c. MgCO3 d. NaHCO3
c. Na2CO3.10H2O d. NH4Cl 488. The sulphate which is slightly soluble in water is
479. Which of the following metal gives hydrated chloride a. CuSO4 b. Hg2SO4
a. Mg b. Ag c. PbSO4 d. BaSO4
c. Hg d. Na 489. The metal which gives basic carbonate by adding
480. Which of the following hydroxide is stable to heat Na2CO3 solution, to its salt solution in water is
 a. Mg b. Ba a. Na + b. Mg 2+ c. Al 3+ d. Si 4+
c. Ag d. Sr 499. Correct order of 1st I.P. among the following
490. The substance added to remove impurities is called a. N>O>C>B b. C>B>N>O
a. Slag b. Flux c. B>C>O>N d. O>B>C>N
c. Gangue d. Catalyst 500. Which of the following elements show variable
491. Electrolytic reduction method is used in the extraction valency?
of a. Li b. Cl c. F d. Fr
a. highly electropositive element 501. Which of the following elements shows variable
b. highly electronegative element valency?
c. inert metals a. Typical element b. normal elements
d. transitional metals c. Transitional element d. S- block element
492. Which of the following properties of elements always 502. The chemist who has helped in the discovery of
increases down the groups in the periodic table maximum number of transuranic elements is
a. Ionization energy b. Electronegativity a. Seaborg b. Thomson c. Robinson d. Bohr
c. melting point d. None of above 503. No of group represents the valency of elements with
493. Which of the following pairs of elements is expected to respect to
form the least polar covalent bond? a. H b. O c. N d. Cl
a. Al & Cl b. N & F c. O & F d. H and Cl 504. Which one is false?
494. Given is the successive ionization energies in KJ mole-1 a. Oxidising power of elements decreases along a
an element, 740, 1500, 7700, 10500. The element could period
be b. Reducing power of element increases along a
a. Na b. Mg c. Al d. Si period
495. Which of the following acts as bridge elements c. electronegativity of elements increase along a
a. Li b. Na c. K d. Mg period
496. Arrange these in increasing atomic size d. Basic number of oxides increase along a group
a. Na,K,P,N b. N,P,Na,K 505. Which of the following has highest 1st I.P?
c. P,Na,K,N d. K,N,Na,P a. Li b. Be c. N d. O
497. The correct order of second ionization potential of C, N, 506. Which of the following is most active non metal?
O and F is a. F b. N c. O d. S
a. O>F>N>C b. O>N>F>C 507. Which of the following electronic configuration shows
c. C>N>O>F d. F>O>N>C lowest 1st I.P?
498. Smallest among the following is a. 1s −1 b. 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6
 c. 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3s 1 d. 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 5 a. N 3− b. O 2− c. F − d. N +
508. Which one form coloured salts? 517. The size of the following species increases in the order
a. Cu+ b. Zn2+ a. Mg 2 < Na + < F < Al
2+
c. Mn d. all of above b. F < AL < Na + > Mg 2+
509. Form the left to right along a period
a. acidic nature of oxide decreases c. Al < Mg < P < Na +
b. atomic size increases d. Na + < Al < F < Mg 2+
c. basic nature of oxides decreases 518. Which has maximum atomic radius
d. reducing power of elements increases a. Al b. Si
510. Which of the following is rough element? c. p d. Mg
a. H b. Li c. He d. C 519. Who developed the long form of the periodic table?
511. The telluric helix was given by a. LotherMayer b. Niels
a. De chan courtois b. Newlands c. Mendeleef d. Mosseley
c. Meyer d. Mendeleef 520. Which one is not paramagnetic?
512. The most important active step in the development of a. Cl b. Be
periodic table was taken by c. Ne 2+
d. As +
a. Mendeleef b. Dalton 521. Which of the following is ferroelectric compounds?
c. Avogardo d. Cavendish a. BiTiO2 b. K 4 [Fe(CN )6 ]
513. Mendeleef’s periodic law is based on
c. Pb2O3 d. None of these
a. atomic number b. atomic weight
522. E.A. of Mg is
c. number of neutrons d. none of above
a. 1.3 b. 2.5 c. 0 d. 4
514. In long form of periodic table, elements are arrange in
523. Variable valency is due to
a. increasing mass b. increasing volume
a. Lone pair effect b. inert pair effect
c. increasing atomic number d. alphabetically
c. high m.p d. high b.p
515. Bohr’s periodic table is based on the atomic number of
524. The lighest metal and non metal respectively are
elements. The experiment which proved the
a. H,Li b. Na, O c. Fe,F d. Be, He
significance of the atomic number was
525. The first element of the rate earth metal is
a. Mulliken’s oil drop experiment
a. Cerium b. Actinium
b. Mosley’s work on X-ray spectra
c. Uranium d. Lanthanum
c. Bragg’s work on x- diffraction
526. Set containing isoelectric species is
d. Discovery of x rays by Rontgen 2+
516. The smallest one is a. C 2− 2 , NO + , CN − , O2
 b. CO,NO,O 2 , CN − a. Na<P<N<Ne b. Na<N<P<Ne
c. CO2, NO2, O2, N2O5 c. Rb<K<Na<Li d. Na<Ne<P<N
d. CO, CO2, NO, NO2 536. The density of neon will be highest at
527. The element with atomic number 51 exist is a. STP b. 0 0 C
a. s-block b. d-block c. 273 0 C, 1 atm d. 273 0 C, 2 atm
c. p-block d. f-block 537. Which of the following gas is used in conducting tube
528. The odd one is to tube light for colouring propose
a. N 3− b. Na + c. F − d. Ti + a. Neon b. Argon
529. The incorrect statement among the following is: c. Xenon d. nitrogen
a. The IE 1 of AI is less than that of Mg 538. First stable compound of noble gas was prepared by
b. The IE2 of Mg is greater than that of Na a. Rayleigh b. Rutherford
c. The I E1 of Na is less than that of Mg c. Ramsay d. Neil Bertlett
d. The IE3 of Mg is greater than that of Al 539. Clatherate is
530. The IE of 2nd group element is higher than the member a. Cage compound b. Liquid crystal
of 3rd group because of c. Mixture d. solid solution
a. partially filled p-orbital of 2nd group element 540. Helium is used with oxygen in the apparatus of divers
b. completely filled s-orbital of 2nd group element because it………….
c. completely filled p-orbital of 3rd group element a. is lighter than N2
d. half filled p-orbital of 3rd group element b. is not soluble in blood in high pressure
c. is easily available
531. Which has the least first ionization enthalphy(IE 1 )
d. is less reactive than N2
a. H b. He c. Xe d. Li 541. The spectrum of He is similar to that of
532. Atomic radius is nearly equal in
a. He 2 b. He 2+
a. Na, K, Cs, Fr b. B, C, N, O
c. Cr, Mn, Fe, Co d. He, Ne, Ar, Kr c. Li + d. He +
e− 542. XeF 2 and XeF 6 on hydrolysis gives
533. An ion has 18 in the outermost shell, it is
a. Cu + b. Th 4+ a. XeO3 b. XeO
c. XeO2 d. Xe
c. Cs + d. K +
543. The gases used for treatment of asthma
534. The decreasing order of size of following ion is
a. Mixture of He and O2
a. Li>H + >H − b. H + > H +> Li + b. Mixture of Ne and O2
c. H + > Li + > H + d. H − > H + > Li +
535. Correct the order of increasing ionization energy is:
 c. Mixture of Xe and N2 chormosphere of the sum?
d. Mixture of Ar and O2 a. He b. Ne c. Ar d. Rn
544. Beacon lights are obtained from 557. Mixture of inert gas when kept in contact with charcoal
a. Tungsten lamps b. Hydrogen lamps at -100 degree celcius then which are not absorbed?
c. neon Lamps d. Xenon lamps a. He, Kr, Ar b. Ar, Kr, Xe
545. In incandescent and fluorescent lamps the gas filled c. He, Ne d. Xe, Kr
extensively is 558. The ratio of Cp/Cv for inert gases is
a. Ne b. Ar c. N2 d. Xe a. 1.33 b. 1.66 c. 2.33 d. 1.5
546. In coloured discharge tube the one used is 559. The one used in radio valves is
a. Ne b. Ar c. Kr d. He a. He b. Ne c. Ar c. Rn
547. The gas that surrounds a radioactive element is 560. Which cannot be obtained from air?
a. He b. Ne c. N2 d. O2 a. He b. Kr c. Xe d. Rn
548. The most useful noble gas is 561. The one used in filling electric bulb.
a. He b. Ar c. Ne d. Xe a. He b. Ne c. Ar d. Xe
549. Which has least tendency to form compound? 562. The noble gas having lowest ionization energy is
a. He b. Ne c. Kr d.Xe a. He b. Ar c. Rn d. Ne
550. Monozite is source of 563. Which one is not present in air?
a. He b. Kr c. Ar d. Ne a. He b. Ne c. Ar d. Rn
551. Nuclear fusion produces 564. Which one has highest b.p?
a. Ar b. 1 D 2 c. He 4 d. Kr a. He b. Ne c. Kr d. Xe
552. Percentage of Ar in air is about 565. Which one is least polarizeble?
a. 10% b. 0.1% c. <0.1% d. 1% a. He b. Ne c. Kr d. Xe
553. Which one is abundant in air 566. B.P. and m.p. of inert gas are
a. He b. Ne c. Ar d. Kr a. High b. Low
554. The forces acting between noble gas atoms are c. very high d. very low
a. van der waals forces 567. The chemistry of noble gas was discovered by
b. Ion-dipole forces a. Bohr b.Bartlet
c. London dispersion forces c. Ramsay d. Rutherford
d. magnetic forces 568. The forces acting between noble gas atoms are
555. The valency of noble element is a. Van der waals forces
a. 0 b.1 c. 2 d. 3 d. Ion-dipole forces
556. Which of the following was first discovered in the
 c. London dispersion forces a. Efflorescent b. Deliquescent
d. Magnetic forces c. Hygroscopic d. None
569. The gas tha surrounds a radioactive element is 577. Sodium is kept under
a. He b. Ne a. Alcohol b. Water c. Kerosene d. Aqua regia
c. N2 d. O2 578. The material used in solar cell contains
570. The odd one is a. Cs b. Si c. Sn d. Ti
a. CF 4 b. SF 6 579. Alkali metals are good reducing agent because
c. HeF 4 d. XeF 4 a. they are metal
b. they are monovalent
571. Out of noble gas only Xe forms compound like oxygen
c. their ionization potential is low
because
d. they have small atomic
a. ionization enthalpies of Xe and O2 is almost same
580. A solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia is strongly
b. electron affinity of X and O2 is almost same
reducing due to the presence of
c. they are present of Xe and O2 is almost same
a. Sodium atoms b. Sodium hydride
d. none of these
c. Sodium amide d. Solvated electrons
572. Which of the following substance can be purified by
581. A solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia is blue due to
sublimation
the presence of
a. urea
a. Sodium atoms b. ammonium ions
b. benzoic acid
c. Solvated sodium ion d. Solvated electrons
c. Ammonium cyanate
582. Which one is not suitable for sorting sodium metal?
d. none
a. Benzene b. Kerosene
573. Petroleum is mixture of
c. Alcohol d. Tolune
a. alkane and alkenes b. cycloalkanes
583. Causticization process is used for the preparation of
c. aromatic hydrocarbons d. all above
a. Caustic soda b. Caustic potash
574. The water which contain calcium bicarbonate and calcium
c. Baryta d. Slaked lime
chloride is……..
584. Which one is soluble in non-polar solvent?
a. Temprorary b. Permanent
a. NaCl b. LiCl c. RbCl d. CsCl
c. a and b d. None
585. NaOH is manufactured by electrolysis of brine solution. The
575. Hydrogen, deuterium, tritium has
product of the reaction are
a. different proton b. different electron
a. Cl2 and H2 b. Cl2 and Na-Hg
c. different neutron d. same no. of neutron
c. Cl2 and Na d. Cl2 and O2
576. A hydrated salt when exposed to air loses water, it is called
586. White phosphorous reacts with caustic soda to produce PH3
as
 and NaH2PO4. The reaction is an example of a. Li b. Na c. K d. Cs
a. oxidation b. reduction 596. Li can store in
c. neutralization d. oxidation-reduction a. Kerosene b. Paraffin wax
587. Glauber’s salt is c. Alcohol d. Water
a. Na2CO3. 10H2O b. CuSO4. 5H2O 597. Conductance of ions follows the order
c. Na2SO4. 10H2O d. FeSO4. 7H2O a. Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ >Na+ >Li+
588. Fires that results from the combustion of alkali metals can be b. Cs+ < Rb+ < K+ < Na+< Li+
extinguished by c. Li+ > Rb+ < Cs+ >K+
a. Kerosene b. CCl4 c. Sand d. Water d. Li+ < Rb+ < Cs+ >K+
589. Molten sodium is used in nuclear reactors to 598. Which does not form alumnus?
a. absorb neutrons in order to control the chain reaction a. Li b. Na
b. slow down the fast reactions c. K d. Rb
c. absorb the heat generated by nuclear fission 599. Which one is liquid at room temperature 37 degree
d. extract radio isotope produced in the reactor celsius
590. Squashes are stored by adding a. Na b. Hg
a. Citric acid b. KCI c. Os d. Ce
c. Na2SO3 d. sod. metabisulphite 600. Salt of following undergo hydrolysis
591. Sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2O3. 5H2O) is used in a. Li b.Na
photography to c. Os d. Ce
a. reduce AgBr to Ag 601. Fenton reagent is
b. convert Ag to Ag- salt a. SnCl2+HCl b. AgNO3+NH2OH
c. remove undecomposed Ag Br as a soluble silver c. CUSO4+NaOH d. FeSO4+H2O2
thiosulphate complex 602. When hair dyes and H2O2 are mixed H2O2
d. removed unreduced Ag a. is added to it, the solution of dye
592. Which one is possible? b. odxidies the dye to give the desired colour
a. Li3N b. Na2N c. K2N d. Cs3N c. acidifies the solution of the dye
593. Li3N is d. reduce the dye to give the desired colour
a. covalent b. ionic c. coordinate d. dative 603. Kingzett’s formula of H2O2 is accounted for
594. L3N dissolves in water liberating a. oxidizing properties of H2O2
a. NH3 and LiOH b. Li and N2 b. for reducing properties of H2O2
c. LiOH and N2 d. None c. both a and b
595. Which one does not form soluble bicarbonate? d. None
604. Merk’s process is for a. 1:2 b.1:1
a. H2 b. NaOH c. 2:1 d. None
c. Na2CO3 d. H2O2 613. At is melting point ice is lighter than water because
605. 20 volume of H2O2 means a. H2O molecules are more closely packed in solid
a. 20 ml and 1.785 m state
b. 1 ml of H2O2 give 20ml O2 at NTP b. ice crystals have hollow hexagonal arrangement
c. 20 ml H2O2give 1 ml O2 at NTP of H2O molecule
d. None c. on melting of ice of H2O molecules shrinks in
606. Reaction velocity in D2O is size
a. less b. more d. ice forms mostly heavy water on first melting.
c. same as water d. none 614. Heavy water freezes at
607. Calgon process is for a. 0 degree C b. 3.8 degree C
a. Prepartion of H2O c. 3-3.8 degree C d. 4 degree C
b. removing permanent hardness 615. Hardness of water is expressed in
c. preparation of H2 a. molality b. mole fraction
d. preparation of H2O2 c. ppm d. 9/L-1
608. The strongest hydride is 616. The hydride of an element E reacts with water
a. complex b. metallic producing hydrogen and an alkaline solution. The
c. molecular d. ionic element E is probably
609. The reactive form of hydrogen is a. an alkali metal
a. Atomic b. ordinary b. a transition metal
c. nascent d. absorbed c. a metal low in activity series
610. Ortho and para form of hydrogen can be separated by d. a metal in group IV
a. Ion exchange process b. solvent extraction 617. Metallic luster of sodium metal can be explained on the
c. gas chromatography d. chromatography basis of
611. Para hydrogen can be converted to ortho form by a. diffusion of Na ions
a. mixing with atomic hydrogen b. oscillation of loose electrons
b. treatment with catalyst like pt c. excitation of free protons
c. heating para form to 800 0 C d. existence of body centered cubic lattice
d. All of the above 618. Fire extinguisher contain H2SO4 and
612. At the temperature of liquefaction of air para:ortho a. NaHCO3 and Na2CO3
ratio in ordinary hydrogen is b. NaHCO3 solution
 c. Na2CO3 628. The formula of plaster of paris is
d. NaOH a. CaSO4 b. CaSO4. 2H2O
619. The oxide that gives H2O2 on treatement with dilute acid c. 2CaSO4.H2O d. CaSO4. H2O
is 629. Bordeaux mixture is
a. PbO2 b. Na2O2 a. Lime + CuSO4 b. Lime + CuO
c. MnO2 d. TiO2 c. Lime + CaCO3 d. CuO +CuSO4
620. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by adding 630. Which of the following acts as bridge element:
a. CaO b. Ca(OH)2 a. Li b. Na c. K d. Mg
c. CaCO3 d. Cal2 631. Atomic no. of calcium is
621. H2O2 is manufactured from a. 11 b. 20 c. 40 d. 19
a. BaO2 b. PbO2 632. Dolomite is the ……….. form of magnesium
c. MnO2 d. none a. Carbonate b. Sulphate
622. The formula of nitre is c. Oxide d. Carbide
a. KNO3 b. NaNO3 633. Slaked lime is
c. NaCl d. HNO3 a. Ca(OH)2 b. CaO
623. Surface water contains c. CaCO3 d. None
a. salt + organic matter b. only salt 634. CaSO4. 2H2O is called
c. organic matter d. suspended impurity a. Plaster of paris b. Gypsum
624. Which has maximum basicity c. Both d. None
a. NaCl b. NaF 635. When H2O is added to CaO, a cracking sound appears
c. NaCN d. NaNO3 because there is the formation of
625. Which is solid at room temperature? a. Quick lime b. Slaked lime
a. CS2 b. RaCl2 c. Plaster of paris d. None
c. HCN d. F2 636. Which of the following oxides is soluble in water and gives
626. Which of the following is a measure of organic pink color when phenolphthalein is added?
pollution of water? a.K2O b. MgO
a. DO b. BOD c. ZnO d. None
c. COD d. MOD 637. Be lies above Mg in periodic table, when Be dust is added to
627. Which of the following oxides is unlikely to dissolve in MgCl2 solution, then
aqueous sodium hydroxide? a. Nothing happens b. Evolution of gas
a. Al2O3 b. MgO c. Mg precipitates d. MgO precipitates
c. SiO2 d. SO2 638. Used in tooth paste
 a. BeF2 b. SnF2 c. BaF2 d. SrF2 d. Plaster of paris can be obtained by hydration of Gypsum
639. Mg burns in air forming 649. Which of the fillowing salts becomes plaster of paris on
a. MgO b. MgCO3 c. Mg3N2 d. both a & c being appropriately hydrated?
640. Which of the following imparts brick red color to the flame? a. CaCO3 b. MgSO4
a.Ca b. Ba c. CaSO4 d. Zn CO3
c. Sr d. None of these 650. Setting of cement is an
641. The wire of flash bulb is made of a. Exothermic reaction
a. Mg b. Cu c. Ba d. Ag b. Endothermic reaction
642. Bone ash contains c. Neither exothermic nor endothermic
a. CaO b. CaSO4 d. None
c. Ca3(PO4)2 d. Ca(H2PO4)2 651. Setting (hardening) of plaster of paris is
643. Lithopone is a combination of ZnS and a. Oxidation with atmospheric oxygen
a. PbSO4 b. CaSO4 c. SrSO4 d. BaSO4 b. Combination with atmospheric CO2
644. A substance absorbs CO2 and violently reacts with water that c. Dehydration
substance is d. Hydration to yield another hydrate
a. CaCO3 b. CaO c. H2SO4 d. ZnO 652. Of the following the commonly used as a laboratory
645. Gypsum is dessicator is
a. Mg SO4. 2H2O b. CaSO4. 2H2O a. Na2CO3 b. CaCl2
c. 2CaSO4 d. CaSO4. 3H2O c. NaCl d. None of the above
646. Gypsum CaSO4 . 2H2O on heating to about 120oC from 653. Which of the following is not a drying and dehydrating
plaster of paris which has chemical composition represented agent?
by a. Silica gel b. P2O5
a. 2CaSO4. 3H2O b. CaSO4. H2O c. Conc. H2SO4 d. Hydrated CaCl2
c. 2CaSO4.. H2O d. CaSO4 654. Which is quick lime?
647. Plaster of paris is a. Ca(OH)2 b. Calcium carbonate
a. CaSO4. H2O b. CaSO4. 2H2O c. Ca O d. Slaked lime
c. CaSO4. ½ H2O d. CaSO4. 1½ H2O 655. Mark the compound which does not contain calcium
648. Identify the correct statement carbonate
a. Plaster of paris is obtained by partial oxidation of gypsum a. Fluorspar b. Iceland spar
b. Gypsum is obtained by heating plaster of paris c. marble d. Lime stone
c. Gypsum contains a lower percentage of calcium than 656. Slaked lime is used in the manufacture of
plaster of paris a. Cement b. Fire bricks
 c. Pigment d. Medicine 665. Which of the following oxides is unlikely to dissolve in
657. Which one of the following substances is used in the aqueous sodium hydroxide?
laboratory for a fast drying of neutral gases? a. Al2O3 b. MgO
a. P2O5 b. Activated charcoal c. SiO2 d. SO2
c. Anhydrous CaCl2 d. Na3PO4 666. Which element from diods?
658. The formula for calcium chloride is a. Si b. Cl c. O d. B
a. Ca(ClO4)2 b. Ca(ClO3)2 667. Which of the following has discrete molecules?
c. CaClO2 d. Ca(ClO2)2 a. Soda-lime b. CCl4
659. All the following substances react with water. The pair that c. White vitriol d. Green vitriol
yields the same gaseous product is 668. The chief ore of aluminium s
a. K and KO2 b. Na and Na2O2 a. Alunite b. Bauxite
c. Ca and CaH2 d. Ba and BaO2 c. Cryolite d. Felspar
660. A major constituent of Portland cement except lime 669. Bauxite is an oxide mineral of
a. Silica b. Alumina a. Barium b. Boron
c. Iron oxide d. Magnesia c. Bismuth d. Aluminium
661. Portland cement is manufacture by using 670. Sapphire is mineral of
a. Limestone, clay and sand a. Cu b. Zn c. Al d. Mg
b. Limestone, gypsum and sand 671. Which is not a compound of aluminum?
c. Limestone, gypsum and alumina a. Corundum b. Ruby
d. Limestone, clay and gypsum c. Diaspora d. dolomite
662. Which one of the following components of cements sets at 672. Aluminum is present in
the lowest rate? a. Ultramarine b. Lapis lazuli
a. dicalciium silicate c. Ruby d. All
b. tricalcium silicate 673. Which is amphoteric in nature?
c. tricalciium aluminate a. K2O b. CaO
d. tetracalcium aluminoferrite c. MgO d. Al2O3
663. On heating quick lime with coke in electic furnance, we get 674. Alumina
a. Ca & CO2 b. CaCO3 a. is a good conductor of electricity
c. CaO d. CaC2 b. is a bad is conductor of electricity
664. Principle component of limestone: c. melts at 1000 degree Celsius
a. CaO b. CaCO3 d. is an electrovalent compound
c. Na2CO3 d. Ca(OH)2 675. Which metal is extracted only by electrolytic reduction?
 a. Al b. Ag c. Cu d. Fe 685. The inner pair effect is predominant in
676. Aluminum becomes passive in a. Si b. Sn
a. conc. HNO3 b. H2CrO4 c. Pb d. Ge
c. HClO4 d. all 686. Diamond is used in glass cutting due to its
677. Aluminum is not acted upon by pure water as a. hard nature
a. Impurities in water are essential for the reaction to occur b. high refractive index
b. It is protected by a film of aluminum oxide c. high m.p.
c. it is light metal d. high metallic bonding
d. it is not a reactive metal 687. Among the various allotropes of carbon
678. When Al is added to KOH solution a. diamond is the hardest and graphite is the softest
a. no action takes place b. oxygen is evolved b. diamond is the hardest and coke is the softest
c. water is produced d. hydrogen is evolved c. diamond is the hardest and lamp black is the softest
679. Which metal is protected by a layer of its own oxide? d. coke is the hardest and graphite is the softest
a. Aluminum b. Silver 688. The nature of chemical bonding in diamond is
c. Gold d. Iron a. Ionic b. covalent
680. Aluminum is more reactive than iron but aluminum is less c. coordinate d. metallic
less easily corroded than iron because 689. Carbon atoms in diamond are bonded with each other in
a. aluminum is a noble metal a configuration
b. oxygen forms a protective oxide layer a. linear b. tetrahedral
c. iron undergoes reaction easily with water c. planar d. octahedral
d. iron forms mono and divalent ions 690. Which of the following statement is false?
681. Which one is amphoteric oxide? a. the lattice structure of diamond and graphite are
a. Na2O b. MgO c. Al2O3 d. SO2 different
682. Which of the following halide is not expected to exist? b. graphite is an impure form of carbon while
a. PbF 4 b. PbCl 4 diamond is a pure form
c. PbBR 4 d. PbBP 4 c. graphite conducts electricity while diamond does
not
683. Lead is present in the petrol in the form of
d. graphite has lower density than diamond
a. Triethyl lead b. Tetraethly acid
691. Which of the following is a conductor of electricity?
c. Lead powder d. Pentethyl lead
a. graphite b. Diamond
684. The chloride of which element is insoluble in water
c. CO2 d. SiO2
a. Mg b. Al
692. Which of the following is not an allotrope of carbon?
c. Ca d. C
 a. Graphite b. Diamond same number of atoms.
c. Soot d. carborundum 700. The charcoal used to decolorize brown sugar solution is
693. Which of the following is a good conductor of heat a. wood charcoal b. coconut charcoal
and electricity? c. animal charcoal d. sugar charcoal
a. anthracite b. diamond 701. Moderate electrical conductivity is shown by
c. charcoal d. graphite a. silica b. graphite
694. Graphite is a conductor of electricity c. diamond d. carborundum
a. Because all the carbon bonds are satisfied 702. Activated charcoal is employed to remove coloring
b. Because some of the electrons are free to move through matter from pure substance. Its works by
the crystal a. Bleaching b. oxidation
c. Because it is soft c. reduction d. adsorption
d. Because it has giant molecule structure 703. Variety of carbon used in gas makes is
695. Most impure form of carbon is a. lamp black b. wood charcoal
a. wood charcoal b. animal charcoal c. graphite d. gas carbon
c. lamp black d. graphite 704. Which of the following is used in making printer’s ink
696. Graphite is used in nuclear reactors shoe polish, black varnish and paint?
a. as a lubricant a. Bone black b. Carbon black
b. as a fuel c. Gas black d. Lamp black
c. for lining inside of the reactors as an insulator 705. Wood charcoal is used for decolourization of sugar
d. for reducing the velocity of neutrons because
697. In the sale of diamonds the unit of weight is carat. One a. it oxidizes coloured material
carat is equal to b. it reduces coloured material
a. 100 mg b. 200 mg c. it converts coloured material into colourless
c. 300 mg d. 400 mg d. it adsorbs coloured materials
698. The refractive index of diamond is highest among 706. Charcoal is
solids, its value is a. crystalline b. amorphous
a. 1.843 b. 2.122 c. 2.235 d. 2.417 c. efflorescent d. hygrosopic
699. Diamond and graphite have which thing common? 707. The common variety of coal is
a. their crystalline structures are identical a. coke b. anthracite
b. they are both forms of carbon c. semiituminous . bituminous
c. both are extremely hard substances 708. Coke is obtained from coal by
d. the same volume of each substance contains the
 a. cracking a. back π- bonding b. available d-orbital
b. destructive distillation c. lack of d orbital d. none of these
c. fractional distillation 718. On heating quick lime coke in electric furnance,we get
d. fractionation a. Ca & CO b. CaCO3
709. The purest form of coal is c. CaO d. CaC2
a. peat b. bitumimous 719. Which of the following species from gaint molecular
c. anthracite d. lignite structure
710. If the two compounds have the same crystal structure a. Si b. O2 c. Na d. Fe
and analogous formula, they are called 720. Glass is
a. isobars b. isomers a. micro crystalline solid b. super cooled liquid
c. isotopes d. isomorphs c. gel d. polymeric mixture
711. The most reactive form of carbon is 721. Amongst the oxides of nitrogen, the neutral oxide is
a. diamond b. graphite
c. coal d. charcoal s. NO b. N2O5 c. N2O3 d. NO2
712. The inert form of carbon is 722. Aqua-regia is
a. diamond b. graphite a. 3 parts of conc. HNO3+ 1 part of conc.HCl
c. coal d. charcoal b. 1 parts of conc. HNO3+3 part conc. HCl
713. A gas which burns with blue flame is c. 3 parts conc.HNO3+2 part conc. HCl
a. CO b. O2 d. 2 parts conc. HNO3+3 part conc. HCl
c. N2 d. CO2 723. When Zn reacts with cold and dilute nitric acid it
714. Piosonous gas present in the exhaust fumes of car is produces
a. CH4 b. C2H2 a. NO b. NH4NO3 b. NO2 c. H2
c. CO d. CO2 724. Fertility of acidic soil can be increased by treating with
715. Which one is the strongest oxidizing agent a. Lime b. ammonium phosphate
a. Pb2+ b. Pb4+ c. Urea d. Calcium super phosphate
2+
c. Ge d. Ge4+ 725. Nitrogen molecule and cyanide ion are isoelectronic, but
716. CCl 4 cannot hydrolyse in water due to N2 is comparatively less reactive due to
a. available d-orbital a. presence of longer bonding electron
b. lack of vacant d-orbital b. Absence of bond polarity
c. lack of d-orbital c. Both a and b
d. none of these d. None of the above
717. BF 3 is weakest Lewis acid among boron halides due to 726. The most important property of Nitrous oxide is
 a. It is highly soluble in cold water c. High temperature and low pressure
b. It is highly soluble in hot water d. Low temperature and low pressure
c. It is acidic in nature 734. Which of the following doesn’t form pentahalide
d. it supports the combustion of burning sulphur a. P b. N
727. The bonds present in N2O5 are c. Sb d. As
a. Only ionic 735. The reaction P+ conc. HNO3 would yield
b. only covalent a. P2O5 b. H3PO3
c. Covalent and ionic c. H3PO4 d. H4P2O7
d. Covalent and coordinate 736. Of the following the most acidic is
728. Catalytic hydration of NH3 gives a. As2O3 b. P2O3
a. NO b. NO2 c. SbO3 d. Bi2O3
c. N2O d. N2O2 737. Which of the following sulphides is black in colour?
729. Which is false? a. As2S3 b. Sb2S3
a. Red P with NaOH gives PH3 c. Bi2S3 d. SnS2
b. In safety match white P is used 738. Which of the following compound is not known?
c. Red P is more active than white P a. NCl3 b. NI3
d. PH3 may be prepared by heating dil. Acid with c. NCl5 d. SbCl3
phosphate 739. Which of the following fluorides does not exist?
730. A nitrate salt on heating with Aluminium powder and a. NF5 b. PF5
NaOH gives which of the follwing c. AsF5 d. SbF5
a. N2O b. NO 740. Which one electron deficient?
c. NH3 d. NO2 a. NCl3 b. BCl3
731. Which of the following leaves on residue on heating? c. PCl3 d. PCl5
a. AgNO3 b. NH4Cl 741. Anomalous behavior nitrogen is due to
c. NH4NO3 d.Ag2O a. small size and high electro negativity
732. When Cu reacts with conc.HNO3 then the brown gas b. lack of d-orbital in valence shell
evolved is c. tendency to form multiple bond
a. N2O b. NO d. all of the above
c. NO2 d. NO3 742. Which gives nitrogen on heating?
733. NH3 is prepared in a. NaNO2 b. AgNO2
a. High temperature and high pressure c. Ba(NO2)2 d. NH4NO2
b. Low temperature and high pressure 743. A solution containing NH4Cl and NaNO2 on boiling
 produces 751. Man dies when nitrous oxide inhaled in large quantity
a. nitrous oxide b. nitrogen because
c. nitrogen dioxide d. ammonia a. it is poisonous
744. Nitrogen is produced by heating b. it cause laughing hysteria
a. HNO3 b. NH4Cl c. deactivates haemoglobin
c. NH4NO3 d. NH4Cl+NaNO2 d. none
745. Pure N2 gas is obtained from 752. Nitrogen is used to fill electric bulbs because it
a. NH3+NaNO2 b. NH4Cl+NaNO2 a. is lighter than air
c. N2O+Cu d. (NH4)2Cr2O7 b. makes the bulb give more light
746. Nirogen can be prepared by heating c. does not support combustion
a. ammonium nitrate d. is non toxic
b. ammonium sulphides 753. Conc.HNO3 stains skin yellow because
c. ammonium dichromate a. the proteins are converted into xanthoprotein
d. ammonium chloride b. the water is removed by the acid
747. Pure N2 can be prepared from c. the skin is burnt by the acid
a. NH4OH b. Ca3NO2 d. nitrocellulose is formed
c. NH4NO2 d. Ba(NO3)2 754. Reb P is less reactive than yellow because
748. When ammonia is passed over heated CuO, it is a. its colour is red
oxidized to b. it is highly polymerized
a. N2 b. NO2 c. it is hard
c. N2O d. HNO3 d. it is insoluble ib C2H5OH
749. By warming a paste of bleaching powder with a 755. Ammonium chloride is used to clean metal surface
solution of ammonia we get because
a. hydrogen b. nitrogen a. it is volatile chloride
c. chlorine d. oxygen b. it forms soluble complex with metal
−
750. The cyanide ion, CN and N2 are isoelectric. But in c. it dissociates into NH3 and HCl
contrast to CN, N2 is chemically inert because of d. none of above
a. low bond energy 756. H2 is evolved by the action of cold and dil.HNO3 on
b. absence of bond polarity a. Fe b. Cu
c. unsymmetrical electron distribution c. Mn d. Al
d. presence of more number of electrons in bonding 757. A hydride of nitrogen which is acidic
orbitals
 a. NH3 b. N2H4 a. 50% of H2SO4
c. N2H2 d. N3H b. an intermediate product during hydrogenation of oil
758. Ammonia can be dried by c. Pyro sulphuric acid (H2S2O7)
a. conc. H2SO4 b. P4O10 d. HCl+HNO3
c. CaO d. Anhyd. CaCl2 766. A solution of sulfur dioxide in water reacts with H2S
759. Pick out the correct statement? precipitating sulphur. Here sulphur dioxide acts as
a. sulphur is laboratory reducing agent a. An oxidizing agent b. A reducing agent
b. O2 has highest electronegativity c. An acid d. A catalyst
c. H2 is fire extinguisher gas 767. When SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution
d. Cl2 bleaches by oxidation and SO2 by reduction a. KMnO4 is reduced
760. When SO2 is passed through acidified KMnO4 b. The solution is decolorized
solution c. SO2 is reduced
a. KMnO4 is oxidized d. Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed
b. KMNO4 solution is turned green 768. When SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7
c. SO2 is reduced solution
d. KMNO4 is reduced a. The solution turns blue
761. Which of the following act both as oxidizing and b. the solution is decolorized
reducing agent c. SO2 is reduced
a. H2S b. H2SO4 d. Green Cr2(SO4) is formed
c. HNO3 d. H2SO3 769. When SO2 is passed through cupric chlorine solution
762. A solution of SO2 in water reacts with H2S precipitating a. A white precipitate is obtained
sulphur. Here SO2 acts as b. the solution becomes colourless
a. an oxidizing agent b. a reducing agent c. the solution becomes colourless and a white
c. an acid d. a catalyst precipitating of CuCl2 obtainded
763. What happens when sulphur reacts with HNO3? d. no visible change takes place
a. Oxidation b. Reduction 770. Which of the following is oxidized by SO2?
c. Sublimation d. Crystalization a. Mg b. K2Cr2O7 c. KMnO4 d. All
764. Mercuy looses its mensiscus in contact with ozone which is 771. SO2 is incombustible and non supporter of combustion but
due to the formation of strongly burning potassium or magnesium continues to burn
a. mercury oxide b. Mercury Polyoxide in
c. Mercurous oxide d. Mercury suboxide a jar of the gas because
765. Oleum of a. Magnesium has high molecular energy
 b. The heat of the reaction is enough to dissociate 780. Low volatility of H2SO4 is due to
the gas into S and free oxygen a. Hydrogen bonding b. Strong bonds
c. Mg has low ignition point b. Van der Waal’s force d. None
d. Mg has great affinity for SO2 781. The reason why conc. H2SO4 is used extensively to
772. Sulfur dioxide reduces prepare other acids is that conc. H2SO4
a. Mg b. H2S a. has a high boiling point
c. KMnO4 d. All b. has a high specific gravity
773. Sulfur dioxide can be used as c. is an excellent dehydrating agent
a. Bleaching agent b. Antichlor d. highly ionized
c. Disfinfectant d. All 782. Sulfuric acid has great affinity for water because it
774. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to a. Decomposes water
a. Reduction b. Oxidation b. forms hydrate with water
c. Hydrolysis d. Its acidic nature c. Decomposes the acid
775. When moist colored flowers are put into a gas jar of d. hydrolyses
SO2, the flowers are decolorized because 783. If conc. H2SO4 is treated with caustic potash it finally
a. SO2 gives colorless oxidized product give the compound
b. SO2 absorbs coloring matter a. K2SO3 b. K2SO4
c. SO2 oxidizes the vegetable coloring matter c. KHSO4 d. K2HO4
d. SO2 reduces the vegetable coloring matter 784. In the reaction 2Ag+ H2SO4
776. Which of the following is acidic? Ag2SO4+2H2O+SO2H2SO4 acts as
a. SO3 b. N2O a. Reducing agent b. oxidizing agent
c. BeO d. HgO c. Catalytic agent d. dehydrating agent
777. Sulfuric acid is manufactured by lead chamber process, 785. The reaction between copper and hot conc. H2SO4
the catalyst used is produces
a. Platinum b. ferric acid a. SO3 b. SO2
c. Vanadium pentoxide d. all c. Cu+ d. H2
778. About H2SO4 which is incorrect ? 786. Potassium Ferrocyanide on heating with conc. H2SO4 forms
a. Reducing agent b. Dehydrating agent a. CO b. SO2
c. Suiphonating agent d. highly viscous c. SO3 d. HCN
779. Concentrated sulfuric acid is not 787. Which of the following liberates hydrogen gas from dil .
a. Efflorescent b. Hygroscopic H2SO4 ?
c. Oxidizing agent d. Sulphonating agent
 a. Cu b. Al a. HF b. HCl
c. ZnO d. HCN c. HBr d. HI
788. Which of the following reactions depicts the reducing 796. Pick out the correct statement
property of SO2 ? a. No is acidic oxide
a. CaO+SO2 CaSO3 b. Phenol is alcohol
b. 2H2S+SO2 3S+2H2O c. CO2 is dried by passing through lime water
c. Cl2 +SO2 SO2Cl2 d. the highest oxidation state of halogen (except
d.Cr2O7 2− +2H + +3SO2 SO4 2− +H2O+2Cr3+ fluorine) has oxidation state +7
789. Charring of carbohydrate by sulphuric acid is due to its 797. Which is the most reactive halogen?
a. Oxidising property b. dehydrating property a. F b. Cl
c. acidic property d. all of these c. Br d. I
790. Hypo is used in photography because of its 798. Which one is more stable?
a. reducing property b. oxidizing property a. HF b. HCl
c. complex forming property d. reaction with light c. HBr d. HI
791. Carbogen is 799. HCl is gas where HF is liquid due to
a. pure form of carbon a. H-F bond being strong
b. COCl2 b. H-F being weak bond
c. mixture of CO and CO2 c. H – bonding in HF being strong
d. mixture of O2 and CO2 d. None of the above
792. Oxygen has a positive oxidation state in 800. Which of these is pseudo- halide?
a. H2O2 b. ClO2 a. PO4 b. CN −
c. F2O d. NaOCl c. HF d. CuCl 3
793. Charring of sugar by conc. H2SO4 is its 801. German silver does not contain
a. oxidizing action a. Ni b. Cu c. Zn d. Ag
b. reducing action 802. Bronze is the alloy of
c. dehydrating action a. Zn and Al b. Cu and Sn
d. dehydrogenation action c. Cu and Zn d. Cu and Cr
794. Which of the following halogens has the maximum 803. One of the following compound gave effervescence with
value of electron affinity? HCl. When it is heated, residue was obtained which turned
a. F b. Cl yellow on standing and white on cooling the compound is
c. Br d. I a. CaCo3 b. ZnO c. ZnCl2 d. ZnC
795. Which of the following is the strongest acid? 804. Iron gets rusted by action of
 a. H2O and Co2 b. H2O only a. H2O b. K2O c. Na2O2 d. ZnO
c. CO2 only d. ZnCo3 816. Which has maximum ferromagnetic character?
805. Gold is found in electrolyte refining of copper a. Fe b. Co c. Ni d. All
a. At anode b. In anode mud 817. Copper sulphate is commercially made form copper craps by
c. In electrolyte d. In cathode mud a. Dissolving in hot concentration H2SO4
806. Metal used for galvanizing iron sheets is b. The action of dilute H2SO4
a. Zn b. Cu c. Cr d. W c. Heating with Na2SO4
807. Spiegeleisen is an alloy of d. Heating with sulphur
a. Fe, Mg, Si b. Mg,C,Cu 818. The electronic configuration of Cu 2+ is
c. Fe, C, Mn d. Si, C, Cu a. 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 4s 2 3d 8
808. Purest form of iron is 2 2 6 2 6 0
a. Steel b. wrought c. Cast d. Pig b. 1s 2s 2 p 3s 3 p 4s 3d 9
809. Iron is rendered passive by the treatment with c. 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 4s 2 3d 7
a. HCl b. H2SO4 c. HNO3 d. NaOH
810. Which of the following is not an alloy? d. 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 4 s 1 3d 10
a. Amalgam 819. The core of electromagnets are prepared from
b. Steel a. Pig iron b. steel
c. Homogeneous mixture of metal c. Stainless steel d. wrought iron
d. Homogeneous mixture of non metal 820. Copper is extracted mainly from:
811. Stainless steel is a. Dolomite b. Malachite
a. Fe, Cr, Ni, C b. Ni, Ca c. Haematite d. Cinnabar
c. Fe, Mn d. Mg, Ca 821. Which has maximum unpaired electrons?
812. Which is an element? a. Ag b. Mo c. Cd d. Sn
a. Sand b. Gun powder 822. Element can form +3 ion
c. Brass d. Hydragynim a. Y b. Sr c. In d. Ru
813. German silver is an alloy of 823. Isomerism is not possible for the complex of CN less than
a. Ag & Zn b. Cu, Zn, M a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
c. Ag & Cu d. Cu, Zn & Ag 824. Vitamin B12 contains
814. The common element in the alloy of brass, bronze and gun a. Co2+ b. Mg2+ c. Fe2+ d. Co3+
metal is 825. Mohr’s salt is
a. Cu b. Zn c. Sn d. Al a. simple salt b. Normal salt
815. Which one is paramagnetic? c. Complex salt d. Double salt
826. The pH indicators are a. Kekule b. Wohler
a. salts of strong acids and strong bases c. Liebig d. Lavoiser
b. salts of weak acids and weak bases 834. Main source of organic compounds is
c. Either weak acids or weak base a. Coat- tar b. petroleum
d. Either strong acids or strong base c. Both coal- tar and petroleum d. None of these
827. Simple distillation is a process in which 835. First systematic classification of naturally occurring
a. Dissolution and crystallization occur side by side compounds was given by
b. Vaporization and condensation occur side by side a. Bergmann b. Lemery
c. Vaporization and crystallization occur side by side c. Leibig d. Lavoisier
d. condensation and crystallization occur side by side 836. Organic chemistry is the chemistry of
828. Which of the following substances can be purified by a. Compounds derieved from living organisms
sublimation? b. compounds derived from non living organisms
a. Urea b. Benzoic acid c. compounds of organic origin
c. Ammonium cynate d. All of these d. Carbon compounds
829. The first organic compound synthesized in laboratory from 837. According to lavoisier’s analysis is the essential constituents
its element is of organic compounds are
a. Urea b. acetic acid a. C and O b. C and H
c. Methane d. Benzene c. C and N d. C and Cl
830. Vital theory was given by 838. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2, one mole of
a. Lemery b. Kolbe this compound has mass 42 gms, its molecular formula is
c. Berzelius d. Lavoisier a. CH2 b. C2H2
831. The first organic compound synthesized in laboratory from c. C3H6 d. C2H4N
its element is 839. The percentage composition of a compound is C = 90%, H =
a. Urea b. CH4 10% its molecular formula will be
c. CH3COOH d. H2H2 a. C7H15 b. C8H10
832. Carbon forms a large number of compounds because c. C15H20 d. C15H10
a. of high electrons affinity 840. A process in which a solid vaporizes directly without melting
b. it is non metal and its valency is four is known as
c. it forms compound a. Evaporation b. Sublimation
d. of catenation c. Distillation d. Vaporization
833. The first organic compound was synthesized in laboratory by 841. Organic compounds are studied separately from organic
compounds because
 a. Formation of organic compound is not based on laws of separated by
chemical combination a. Distillation b. Steam distillation
b. Organic compounds occur in living organism c. Fractional distillation d. Vacuum distillation
c. Organic compounds are covalent and inorganic 849. Which of the following methods is used for preparation of
compounds are electrovalent pure H2O from a solution of salt in water?
d. of their specific characteristic of form large number of a. Filtration b. Distillation
compounds by catenation c. Chromatography d. Steam distillation
842. There are several criteria of purity of organic compounds, 850. IN steam distillation on liquid distills at a temperature
which of the following is considered the best? a. Equal to its boiling point
a. Melting point b. Microscopic examination b. Lower than its normal boiling point
c. Mixed melting point d. colour c. Higher than its normal boiling point
843. Vital force theory was failed after the d. Between freezing and boiling point
a. Discovery of stereo isomerism 851. Mixture of benzene ( b.p. = 80 0 C) and toluene (b.p..
b. Synthesis of CH3COOH by Kolbe 110 0 can separated by
c. Synthesis or urea by Wohler a. Distillation b. Fractional distillation
d. Formation of alcohol by fermentation c. Vauum distillation d. Vaporization
844. Boiling point of glycerol is 290 0 C with slight 852. The IUPAC name of the compound having structure
decomposition. Impure glycerol can be purified by H3C.CH.(CH3).CH2.CH(OH).CH2Cl is
a. Distillation b. Steam distillation a. 1- chloro- 4 methyl hexan- 2 –ol
c. Vacuum distillation d. solvent extraction method b. 1 – chloro – 4 – ethyl- 2- pentanol
845. A bottle contains two immiscible liquids which may be c. 1- chloro- 4- methyl pentanol – 2
separated by d. 1 – chloro-2-hydroxy-4-methyl hexane
a. Using a fractionation column 853. The compounds CH3NH2 and CH3CH2NH2 are
b. Fractional Distillation a. isomers b. isobars
c. A separating funnels c. homologus d. allotropes
d. Steam distillation 854. Optical isomerism is shown by
846. The purify of a solid organic substance can be checked by its a. Butanol- 1 b. Butanol – 2
a. Boiling point b. Melting point c. Butene – 2 d. Pentanol – 3
c. Specific gravity d. crystalline nature 855. The IUPAC name CH3-CH2-C(CH2)H-NH2 is
847. Kjeldahl’s method is used for quantities estimation of a. 1-methyl-1-amino propane b. 2-amino butane
a. N b. S c. Halogens d. P c. 3-methly-1-1-amino propane d. none of these
0 0
848. Acetone (b.p. 56 C) and methonal (b.p. 65 C) can be 856. An isomer of ethanol is
 a. methanol b. dimethyl ether b. chain and position isomers .
c. diethyl ether d. acetaldehyde c. chain , position and geometrical isomers
857. Number of isomers represented by molecular formula d. only optical isomers
C4H10O is 865. IUPAC name of the compound,
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 4 a. 2- phenyl butane b. 3- phenyl butane
858. IUPAC name of the compound of formula (CH3)3C-CH=CH2 c. 2- cyclohexl butane d. 3- chyclohexyl butane
a. 3,3,30-trimethyl propane – 1 867. Which of the following is electrophilic reagent
b. 1,1,1-trimethyl propane -2 a. NH3 b. HOH
c. 3,3-dimethyl but -1-ene c. BF3 d. ROH
d. 1,1-dimethyl butane – 1 868 The IUPAC name of the compound CH3 –CH2 –CH(CH3) –
859. Isomers have similar CH(OH)- CH(C2H5)- CH2-CH3
a. structular formulae b. chemical properties a. 3- ethyl, 5-methyl heptanol-4
c. molecular formula d. none of these b. 5- ethyl, 3-methyl heptanol-4
860. AC name of (CH3)2 CHCH = CHCH3 c. 1,1-diethyl, 3- methyl pentanol-2
a. 2- methyl pentene -3 b. 4- methyl pentene -2 d. 4- hydroxyl 3- ethyl, 5- methyl heptane
c. 1,2 – isopropyl propene d. 3 isopropyl propene -2 869. The least number of carbon atoms in an alkene , which forms
861 In IUPAC system of naming organic compounds , which of isomer, is
the following will be considered as principal functional a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4.
group in a polyfunctional compound 870. Glucose and Fructose are
a. –OH b. –CHO a. Chain isomers
c. –COOH d. –CN b. Position isomers
862. Two compound have same empirical formula but different c. Functional isomers
molecular formulae, these must have d. optical isomers
a. same viscosity 871. All member of a homologous serious posses same
b. vapor density a. molecular formula
c. different percentage composition b. physical properties
d. different molecular weight c. alkyl group
863 IUPAC name of CH3-O-C2H5 is d. chemical properties
a. ethoxyl methane b. methoxy ethance 872. Dehydration of ethyl alcohol proceeds via formation of
c. methlyl ethyl eather d. ethyl methyl ether a. carbonium ion
864. The compound corresponding to the formula C4H8 are b. carbanion
a. only chain and position isomers. c. ehylium
 d. free redicals c. carrbonion ion
873. Which of the following is an isomer of diethyl ether ? d. carbene
a. (C2H5)2CHOH 879. The IUPAC name of (CH3)3 C- CH= CH2 is :
b. (CH3)2CHOH a. 2, 2-dimethyl but -3-ene
c. (CH3) 3COH b. 3,3-dimethyl but – 1- ene
d. None c. 2, 2- dimetyl pent-4-ene
874. The correct IUPAC name of the compound: CH2=CH- d. Hex-1-ene
C=CH2 is
a. bul-13-diene 880. IUPAC name of Ch2 = CH – CH (CH3)2 is
b. Hex-3-yne-ene,1,5 a. 3-methyl 1-butene
c. 1,5yne-3-hexene b. 2,2-dimethyl 2 butene
d. none c. 3,3-dimthy 1 propene
875. Two consecutive member of a homologous serious differ d. 2,2-dimethyl 2 butane
from each other by 881. Simple distillation is a process is which
a. –C2H5 group a. dissolution and crystallization occur side by side.
b. –CH2 group b. vaporization and condensation occur side by side
c. –CH3 group c. vaporization and crystallization occure side by side
d. –CH group d. condensation and crystallization side by side
876. Which of the following is not a nucelophile? 882. Which of the following substance can be purified by
a. CN- sublimation
b. OH- a. urea
c. NH3 b. benzoic acid
d. BF3 c. Ammonium cyanate
877. What of the following compounds is capable of H-bonding? d. none
a. C6H5CH3 883. The first organic compound prepared in laboratory was
b. C6H5NO2 a. Urea
c. C2H5OH b. Acetic acid
d. C6H5CI c. Methane
878. An organic ion with a pair of available electron and negative d. Benzene
charge on the central atom is called a 884. Vital force theory was given by
a. Free radical a. lemery
b. carbonium ion b. Kolbe
 c. berzelius c. leibig
d. lavoisier d. lavoiser
884. vital force theory was given by 890. Organic chemistry is the chemistry of
a. lemery a. compound derived from living organisms
b. Kolbe b. compound derived from nonliving organisms
c. berzelius c. compounds of organic origin
d. lavoisier d. carbon compounds
885. The first organic compound synthesized in laboratory from 891. According to lavoisier’s analysis constitutes of organic
its element is compound are
a. Urea a. C and O
b. CH4 b. C and H
c. Ch3 c. C and N
d. H2H2 d. C and CI
886. Carbon form a large number of compound because 892. A process in which a solid vaporize directly without melting
a. of high electron affinity is know as
b. it is non metal and its valency is four a. Evaporation
c. it froms compound b. Sublimation
d. Of catenation c. Distillation
887. The frist organic compound was synthesized in laboratory by d. Vaporization
a. kekule 893. There are several criteria of purity of organic compound,
b. wohler which of the following is
c. liebig a. melting Point
d. berzelius b. Microscopic examination
888. Main source of organic compound is c. Mixed melting point
a. coat-tar d. Colour
b. petroleum 894. Empirical formula of a compound is C2H5O, its Molecular
c. both coal –tar and petroleum weight is 90. The molecular formula of compound s
d. none a. C2H5O
889. First systematic classification of naturally occurring b. C2H10O2
compounds given by c. C4H10O2
a. Bergmann d. C3H6O3
b. lemery 895. Vital force theory was faild after the
 a. Discovery of stereo isomerism a. Filtration
b. Synthesis of CH3 COOH by Kolbe b. Distillation
c. Synthesis of Urea by Wohler c. Chromatography
d. Formation of alcohol by fermentation d. Stream distillation
896. Boiling point of glycerol is 290o C with slight decomposition . 902. In steam distillation a liquid distills at a temperature.
Impure glycerol can be purified by a. equal to its boiling point
a. Distillation b. Steam distillation b. lower then its normal boiling point
c. Vacuum distillation d. Formational Distillation c. higher then its normal boiling point
897. A bottle contain two immiscible liquids , which may be d. between freezing and boiling points
separated by. 903. Aniline is generally purified by
a. Using a fractionating Column a. simply distillation
b. Fractional distillation b. stem distillation
c. A separating c. distillation under reduction pressure
d. Steam distillation d. between freezing and boiling point
898. The purity of a solid organic substance can be checked by its 904. In paper chromatography
a. boiling point a. mobile phase is liquid and stat nary phase is solid
b. melting point b. mobile phase is solid and stat nary phase is solid
c. specific gravity c. both phase are liquid
d. crystalline nature d. both phase are solid
899. Kjeldahl’s methods is used for quantitative estimation of 905. The most satisfactory method to separate mixture of sugar is
a. N a. fractional crystallization
b. S b. sublimation
c. Halogens c. chromatography
d. P d. benedict’s reagent
900. Acetone (b.p 56oC) and methanol (b.p.65oC) can be seprated 906. Chromatography technique is used for the separate mixture
by of sugar is
a. Distillation a. small samples of mixture
b. Steam distillation b. plant pigments
c. Fractional distillation c. dystuffs
d. Vacuum distillation d. all
901.Which of the following methods is used for preparation of 907. Elution is the process for
pure H2O from a solution of salt in water a. crystallization of compound
 b. extraction of compound d. mineral oils
c. separation of compound 914. Acetylene molecule contains
d. distillation of compound a. 5 sigma bonds
908. Silica gel is used for keeping away the moisture because it b. 3 sigma and 2 pi bond
a. absorbs water c. 4 sigma and 1 pi bond
b. adsorbs water d. 2 sigma and 3 pi bond
c. reacts with water 915. In C2H6 the ∠HCH is about
d. none a. 90o b. 120o
909. Elutent is c. 109.5o d. 180o
a. mobile pahse 916. Alkynes are generally
b. ststionary pahse a. more reactive than alkenes towards electrophilic reagent
c. adsorbent b. less reactive than alkenes towards electrophilic reagent
d. absorbent c. less reactive than alkenes
910. A compound which does not give positive test for nitrogen is d. more reactive than alkenes towards nucleophilic reagent
a. urea 917. Mixture of methane, ethane, ethylene and acetylene is passed
b. azobenzene through ammonical silver nitrate and then through cone.
c. glycine H2SO4, the unabsorbed gases contain
d. phenylhydrazine a. methane only
911. Chromatography was discovered by b. methane and ethane
a. kekule c. methane, ethane & ethylene
b. pauling d. methane, ethane, ethylene & acetylene
c. Rutherford 918. Which of the following gives both methane and ethane in
d. Tswett one step?
912. Terpentine oil can be purified by a. CH3Br b. C2H2Br c. C2H4Br2 d. CH3COOH
a. vaccum distillation 919. Potassium acetate solution on electrolysis gives
b. steam distillation a. CH4 b. C2H6
c. fractional distillation c. C3H8 d. C4H10
d. heating 920. Which of the following contains acidic H atom?
913. Stream distillation is used for the extraction of. a. Ethylene b. Ethyne
a. essential oil c. Ethane d. Butylene
b. fatty acids 921. Which of the following reagents can distinguish alkyne from
c. heavy oils alkene?
 a. Ammonical silver nitrate a. C2H2 b. CH4
b. Fehling’s solution c. H2S d. CHCl3
c. Bayer’s reagent 930. General formula of alkene is
d. Luca’s reagent a. CnH2n+2 b. CnH2n
922. Product obtained by heating sodium acetate with sodalime is c. CnH2n-2 d. CnHn
a. CH4 b. C2H6 931. Which of the following reacts with water to produce
c. C2H4 d. C2H2 methane?
923. Which of the following possesses highest boiling point? a. Silicon carbide b. Calcium carbide
a. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 c. Aluminium carbide d. Iron carbide
b.CH3 --- C(CH3)H ---CH2 --- CH3 932. Methane on chlorination produces.
c. (CH3)4C a. methyl chloride
d. CH4 b. chloroform
924. Which of the following is used for artificial ripening of green c. carbon tetra chloride
fruits d. mixture of chlorinated methane
a. CH4 b. C2H4 933. Mixture of methyl and ethyl bromide when heated with
c.C2H6 d. CCl4 sodium in dry ether, which of the following is formed?
925. Methane mixed with oxygen when passed through copper a. Ethane b. Propane
tubes at 200oC and 100 atmosphere pressure, which of the c. Butane d. All of the above
following is formed? 934. Which of the following dihalide when heated with zinc gives
a. HCHO b. CH3CHO alkene?
c. CH3OH d. HCOOH a. BrCH2CH2CH2CH2Br
926. Mixture of methane and steam when passed over heated b. CH3CHBrCH2CH2Br
nickel, the product formed is c. CH3CH2CHBrCH2Br
a. Water gas b. CH3OH d. BrCH2CH2CH2Br
c. HCHO d. mixture of CO and hydrogen 935. Main product obtained by treating 2-bromo butane with
927. Orlon is a polymer of alcoholic KOH is
a. syrene b. tetrafluore ethylene a. butene-1 b. butene-2
c. vinyl chloride d. acrylonitrile c. ethene d. ethyne
928. Ehylene reacts with alkaline KMnO4 solution (1%) to give 936. General formula of alkynes is
a. ethane b. ethyl alcohol a. CnH2n+2 b. CnH2n
c. ethylene glycol d. acetic acid c. CnH2n-2 d. CnHn
929. Marsh gas mainly contains 937. Which of the following is expected to have highest boiling
 point? like garlic due to presence of
a. iso-octane a. NH3 b. PH3
b. n-octane c. AsH3 d. H2S
c. 2, 2, 3, 3 – tetra methylbutane 945. Polythene is addition polymer of
d. n- butane a. ethylene b. acetylene
938. Alkanes are generally resistant towards oxidizing agents but c. methane d. ethane
which one of the following alkane is oxidized by KMnO4? 946. Ethylene readily undergoes
a. CH4 a. addition reactions
b. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 b. substitution reactions
c. CH3 --- C(CH3)H ---CH2 --- CH3 c. elimination reactions
d. C(CH3)4 d. rearrangement
939. Acetylene reacts with HBr to give 947. Acetylene is prepared in laboratory by action of
a. methyl bromide b. ethyl bromide a. water on aluminium carbide
c. ethylene bromide d. ethylidene bromide b. H2SO4 on ethyl alcohol
940. Acetylene when treated dilute H2SO4 in presence of HgSO4, c. water on calcium carbide
the product formed is d. water on sodium maleate
a. C2H5OH b. CH3COCH3 948. Natural rubber is polymer of
c. CH3CHO d. mercuric carbide a. butadiene b. ethylene
941. Ethylene is obtained by dehydration of c. isoprene d. propylene
a. CH3OH b. C2H5OH 949. Natural silk is
c. C3H7OH d. CH3COOH a. polyamide b. polyester
O3 boiled with H2O c. polyisoprene d. polysaccharide
942. C2H4 B C. Compound C will be 950. Terylene is
a. HCHO b. CH3CHO a. polyamide b. polyester
c. HCOOH d. CH2OH c. poly acid d. polypeptide
951. Reactivity of hydrogen atom is maximum when it is attached
CH2OH with
943. Molecule in which the distance between the adjacent carbon a. primary carbon atom
atoms is largest is b. secondary carbon atom
a. Ethane b. Ethene c. tertiary carbon atom
c. Ethyne d. Benzene d. neo carbon atom
944. Pure acetylene has sweet ethereal smell while impure smells 952. An aqueous solution of a substance, on electrolysis, gives
 ethane. The substance is c. a disaccharide d. a polysaccharide
a. Acetic acid 962. Chemical name of vitamin C is
b. Acetamide a. Thiamine b. Riboflavin
c. Potassium succinate c. Ascorbic acid d. Calciferol
d. Sodium Acetate 963. Starch is a polymer of
953. Raw material used in preparation of nylon is a. glucose b. fructose
a. butadiene b. adipic acid c. both glucose and fructose d. none of these
c. ethylene b. methyl methanoate 964. Which of the following carbohydrate is used for silvering of
954. The component of blood which maintain osmotic pressure is mirrors?
a. mineral salt b. globulin a. glucose b. starch
c. red blood cells d. blood platelet c. sucrose d. cellulose
955. Cane sugar when heated with cons. H2SO4, it gives 965. Deficiency of vitamin A causes
a. carbon b. glucose a. Beriberi b. Scurvy
c. oxalic acid d. glucoside c. Rickets d. Night blindness
956. Which of the following has maximum protein? 966. Molecular formula of simple disaccharide is
a. ground nut b. egg a. C10H18O b. C10H20O
c. wheat d. cow milk c. C12H22O11 d. C18H32O16
957. Which of the following in a disaccharide? 967. Starch is converted into disaccharide in presence of
a. glucose b. fructose a. Zymase b. Maltase
c. sucrose d. cellulose c. Diastase d. Invertase
958. Disaccharide present in milk 968. Glucose is
a. glucose b. lactose a. an oxidizing sugar
c. maltose d. raffinose b. a reducing sugar
959. Starch on hydrolysis finally gives c. both oxidizing and reducing sugar
a. glucose b. fructose d. neither oxidizing nor reducing sugar
c. glucose and fructose d. sucrose 969. Which of the following is an essential constituent of our
960. Sucrose on hydrolysis yields glucose and fructose, this food?
process is known as a. Glucose b. Carbohydrate
a. Mutarotation b. inversion c. Amino acid d. Vitamins
c. inhibition d. esterfication 970. Which of following monosaccharide is a pentose?
961. Glucose is a. Glucose b. Fructose
a. a aldose b. a ketose c. Arabinose d. Cellobiose
971. Gun cotton is a. monosaccharides b. hydroxy acids
a. Nitroglycerine b. Nitroglucose c. amino acids d. fatty acids
c. Nitrocellulose d. Picric acid 981. Chemically digestion is mainly
972. Which of the following is known as antisterlity vitamin? a. hydrolysis b. bacterial change
a. vitamin A b. vitamin C c. hydrogenation d. dehydrogenation
c. vitamin E d. Vitamin K 982. Proteins are
973. Which of the following gives blue color with iodine a. acidic b. alkaline
solution? c. amphoteric d. none of these
a. Glucose b. Fructose 983. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
c. Sucrose d. Starch a. Rickets b. Sterlity
974. Lipids are c. Beriberi d. Nervous disorder
a. proteins occurring is living organisms 984. Which of the following is natural polymer
b. naturally occurring carbohydrates a. Polythene b. P.V.C
c. oils and fats and their derivatives occurring in living c. Acetic acid d. protein
organisms 985. Water soluble vitamins are
d. structural units of glycogen a. A.D,E and K b. A and b
975. Deficiency of iodine causes c. B and C d. C and D
a. Beriberi b. Goitre 986. Which of the following contains cobalt?
c. scurvy d. night blindness a. Chlorophyll b. Haemoglobin
976. Which of the following vitamins are generally present in c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin 12
citrus fruits? 987. In our body carbohydrates
a. A b. K c. C d. E a. provide energy
977. Proteins are hydrolysed by enzymes into b. act as shock absorbing pads
a. hydroxy acids b. aminoacids c. build new cells
c. aromatic acids d. dicarboxylic acids d. vitamin 12
978. Ascorbic acid is 988. Invert sugar is
a. an enzyme b. a vitamin a. mixture of glucose and sucrose
c. a protein d. a harmone b. mixture of glucose and fructose
979. Which of the following vitamin contains metal atom c. optically active form cane sugar
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B6 d. maltose
c. Vitamin B12 d. riboflavin 989. Deficiency of which of the following causes diabetes?
980. The structural units of proteins are a. calciferol b. insulin
 c. thiamine d. amino acids reaction between the two compound is an example
990. Fatty acids which must be obtained from diet are called a. aromatic electrophilic substitution
a. essential fatty acids b. non essential fatty acids b. aromatic nucleophillic substitution
c. saturated fatty acids d. unsaturated fatty acid c. free radical reaction
991. Alkaline hydrolysis of esters is c/a d. aldol reaction
a. esterification b. dehydration 1000. Plexiglass (PMMA) is a polymer of
c. alkalination d. saponification a. acrylic acid b. methyl acrylate
992. the enzyme pepsin hydrolysises c. methyl methacrylate d. none of these
a. proteins to amino acids 1001. Which is an example of thermosetting polymer?
b. fats to fatly acid a. Polyethene b. Neoprene
c. starch to glucose c. PVC d. Bakelite
d. Nucleotide to nitrogen bases 1002. Dyes are used in
993. Which of the following is a measure of organic pollution of a. photography b. volumetric analysis
water? c. dyeing fabrics d. all
a. DO b. BOD 1003. Which of the following is not antipyretic?
c. COD d. MOD a. Asprin b. paracetamol
994. Which one is naturally occurring polymer? c. salol d. pheriacetin
a. Polyethene b. PVC 1004. The one that can be used bothe as analgesic and antipyretic
c. Telfon d. protein is
995. An example of a natural bio-polymer is a. Analgin b. Asprin
a. telfon b. rubber c. paracetamol d. All
c. nylon-66 d. DNA 1005. Acetyl salicyclic acid is an
996. Which one is present in Teflon? a. antibiotic b. analgesic
a. I b. Cl c. insecticide d. anaesthetic
c. Br d. F 1006. Salol is
997. Orlon is a polymer of a.antiseptic b. antipyretic
a. styrene b. Tetrafluoroethlyene c. both d. none
c. Vinyl chloride d. Acrylonitrile 1007. Moth ball contain
998. Polymer of choloroprene is a. camphor b. benzoic acid
a. isoprene b. neoprene c. naphthalene d. cinnamic acid
c. both d. none 1008. ‘Placedo’ is often given to patients, it is
999. Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial a. an antidepressant b. a sugar pill
 c. a broad spectrum antibiotic d. a tonic 1019. Which of the following is used as a fuel in propellants?
1009. Amoxicilllin in semi- synthetic modification of a. Natural rubber b. Petrol
a. penicillin b. streptomycin c. synthetic rubber d. all
c. tetracycline d. chloramphenicol 1020. Which one is azodyes?
1010. DDT is prepared by reacting chlorobenezene with a. methyl orange b. Phenolphthalein
a. CCl4 b. CCl3.CHO c. malachite green d. methylene blue
c. CHCl3 d. ethane 1021. Which can act as propellant?
1011. 1 % solution of phenol is used as a. Liquid hydrogen
a. an antiseptic b. a disinfectant b. Liquid oxygen
c. an insecticide d. a styptic c. liquid H2 + liquid O2
1012. Alizarin is d. Liquid nitrogen = liquid O2
a. direct dye b. mordant 1022. Nylons are:
c. vat dye d. acid dye a. Polythene b. polyesters
1013. Gammexane is c. Polyamides d. polyninyl chlorides
a. DDT b. BHC 1023. Dettol consists of
c. Chlorobenezene d. none of these a. xylenol + tripineol b. carboxylenal + tripineol
1014. Which of the following is an insecticide? 1024. Which of the following fibres are made of polyamides?
a. Bakelite b. TNT a. Dacron b. Orlon
c. BHC d. Asprin c. Nylon d. Rayon
1015. Penicillin was first discovered by 1025. Soft drinks and bab 7 feedings bottles are generally made
a. Fleming b. S.A. Wakne up of
c. Lipasteur d. Thompson a. Polyster b. Polyethene
1016. Chloramphenicol is used as an c. Polyurea d. Polyamide 40
a. analgesic b. antipyretic 1026. Orlon is polymer of
c. antibiotic c. antiseptic a. Styrene b. Tetrafluoroethylene
1017. Propellents may be c. Vinyl chloride d. Acrylonitrile
a. solid b. liquid c. both a & b d. gas 1027. Bakelite is obtained by the condensation of
1018. Dynamite contains a. Formaldehyde and phenol
a. Nitroglycerine mixed with saw dust b. acetaldehyde and phenol
b. Nitroglycerine mixed with H2SO4 c. formaldehyde and acetone
c. Both of these d. acetone and phenol
d. None of these 1028. Oils and fats are
 a. acids b. alcohols 1038. A vegetable oil is
c. esters d. hydrocarbons a. essential oil derived from plant
1029. A detergent is a b. unsaturated fatty acid
a. drug b. soap c. glyceride of saturated fatty acids
c. cleansing agent d. catalyst d. glyceride of unsaturated fatty acids
1030. Alkaline hydrolysis of oils and fats is known as 1039. Fat is a
a. neutralization b. esterification a. protein b. lipid
c. saponification d. polymerization c. carbohydrate d. vitamin
1031. Waxes possess 1040. Kerosene oil is
a. acid group b. ester group a. animal oil b. vegetable oil
c. ketonic group d. alcoholic group c. essential oil d. mineral oil
1032. Paraffin was 1041. Candles are generally made up of
a. an ester a. paraffin wax and stearic acid
b. mixture of higher alkanes b. bees wax
c. higher monohydric alcohol c. spermacetic wax
d. higher monohydric alcohol d. bees wax and palmitic acid
1033. Which of the following is not a glyceride? 1042. Soaps are
a. fat b. Oil a. esters of higher fatty acids with monohydric alcohol
c. Phospholipid d. soap b. higher fatty acid
1034. Bees wax is chemically c. sodium and potassium salts of higher fatty acids
a. mixture of higher alkanes b. mericyl palmitate d. higher alcohols
c. cetly palmitate d. mericyl cerotate 1043. Which of the following represents a detergent?
1035. Which of the following enzyme hydrolyses triglycerides to a. RCOONa b. RONa
fatty acids and glycerol? c. RC6H4SO3ONa d. RSNa
a. Amylase b. Pepsin 1044. Laundary soap is obtained by saponification of which of the
c. Lipase d. Maltase following oil by alkali?
1036. Oils can be converted into fat a. Paraffin oil b. kerosene oil
a. saponitication b. hydrogenation c. Groundnut oil d. Rose oil
c. hydrolysis d. hydrogenolysis 1045. Toilet soaps are
1037. The reaction between fat and NaOH is known as a. sodium salt of higher fatty acids
a. esterification b. saponification b. potassium salts of higher fatty acids
c. hydrolysis d. hydrogenolysis c. salts of metals other than sodium or potassium
 d. detergents to much volatile alkanes are coverted into much volatile
1046. Higher fatty acids (like stearic or palmitic acids) are mixed hydrocarbons by application of heat only is known as
with wax in preparation of candles a. thermal decomposition b. pyrolysis
a. for acidity c. cracking d. isomerisation
b. to give strength to candles 1054. Gasoline is a mixture of alkane having carbon atoms
b. to produce colour to candles a. C 3 → C 5 b. C 5 → C 6
d. to remove the initial colour of wax c. C 6 → C8 d. C 7 → C10
1047. Oils and fats are on storage in contact with air and moisture
develop unpleasant smell and bad taste this process is known as 1055. Which of the following is extensively used in antiknock
a. Hydrogenolysis b. Rancification compound?
c. Hydrolysis d. Hardening a. Lead bromide b. tetra ethyl lead
1048. Oils on hydrogenation yield vegetable ghee in this process c. Lead oxide d. Ethyl carbonate
a. hydrogen dissolved in oil 1056. Paraffin’s are soluble in
b. hydrogen interacts with oxygen present in oil a. distilled water b. salted water
c. glycerides of unsaturated fatty acids are converted into c. benzene d. all above
glycerides of saturated fatty acids 1057. Kerosene oil is mixture of
d. glycerides of saturated fatty acids are decomposed a. alkanes b. aromatic compounds
1049. Oils and fats when treated with hydrogen under pressure in c. alcohol d. carboxylic acids
presence of Cu-Cr catalyst, glycerol and higher monohydric 1058. A liquid hydrocarbon can be converted into gaseous
alcohols are formed, this process is known as hydrocarbons by
a. Hydrogenation b. Hydrogenolysis a. cracking
c. Hydrolysis d. Rancifacation b. hydrolysis
1050. In precipitation of soap which can be used in place of NaCL c. oxidation
a. NaOH b. NA d. distillation under reduced pressure
c. Sodium silicate d. Sodium acetate 1059. Thermal decomposition of organic compounds is known as
1051. Degree of unsaturation of an oil is measured by a. Cracking b. Pyrolysis
a. Iodine value b. Saponification c. Isomerisation d. Rearrangement
c. Acid value d. R/M value 1060. Isooctane is added to petrol to
1052. Petroleum is mixture of a. precipitate the inorganic substances
a. alkane and alkenes b. cycloalkanes b. Increase the boiling point of petrol
c. aromatic hydrocarbons d. all above c. prevent the freezing of petrol
1053. The process by which less volatile alkanes are converted in d. prevent the knocking
1061. A hydrocarbon cyclohexane floats over water , because
 a. it is immiscible in water c. acetylene, propane and butane
b. its density is less than water d. propane and butane
c. it is nonpolar 1069. The minimum temperature at which an oil gives sufficient
d. it is immiscible and lighter than water vapours to from an explosive mixture with air is known as
1062. According of modern theory petroleum is believed to be a. isoelectric point b. flash point
produced by c. boiling point d. none of these
a. decomposition of marine animals 1070. BTX can be used as
b. action of steam on metallic carbides a. fire extinguisher b. antiseptic
c. decomposition of vegetable organisms c. antiknock compound d. insecticide
d. decomposition of animals and vegetable 1071. Diagonal relationship is shown by
1063. A sample of petrol has same knocking power as the mixture a. elements 1st period b. elements of 2nd period
containing 75% isooctane and 25% n-heptane. The octane c. element of 3rd period d. none
number of petrol is 1072. The electonegativity of Be is same as
a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 a. Al b. Mg c. Na d. Li
1064. Knocking is produced in an engine when fuel 1073. For azimuthal quantum no l = 3, the maximum no. of
a. burns slowly b. burns rapidly electrons is the subshell will be
c. contains water d. is mixed with machine oil a. 10 b. 2 c. 6 d. 14
1065. The octane number of a fuel can be increased by 1074. Wolframite is………………………ore
a. isomerisation b. burns rapidly a. sand and earthly impurities
c. contains water d. is mixed with machine oil b. magnetic impurities
1066. In fractional distillation of anhyd. AlCl3 and conc. HCl at c. Non magnetic
175 degree and 35 atmosphere pressure converted into d. an element
isobutene, this process is known as 1075. Ioden contains
a. aromatization b. alkylation a. Methyl salicytate b. Magnetic salicytate
c. reformation d. isomerisation c. salicylicacid d. Benzyl salicylate
1067. The quality of a diesel fuel is expressed in terms of 1076. Marshall’s acid is
a. octane number b. cetane number a. H2SO3 b. H2SO5
c. gold number d. rubin number c. H2S2O8 d. H2SO4
1068. The cooking gas in cylinders generally contains 1077. Most active metal known as
a. methane and ethane a. Na b. Li c. Fe d. Cs
b. ethylene and acetylene 1078. Which of the following is a covalent solid?
a. CCl4 b. CO2 c. SiC d. I2
1079. Which element is used in burns? c. CO+N2 d. CO2+C2H4
a. Au b. Ag c. Na d. Mg 1091. Which of the following reagents is used as a purgative?
1080. Limonite is the ore of a. MgSO4 b. CaSO4
a. fe b. Cu c. Zn d. Pb c. (NH4)SO4 d. FeSO4
1081. Haemoglobin contains the metal 1092. Anaqueous solution whose pH is zero is
a. Fe b. Cu c. Cn d. Mn a. acidic b. neutral
1082. Which of the following is used as a hypnotic? c. basic d. amphoteric
a. Paraldehyde b. Metaldehyde 1093. Substance used to reduce fever are:
c. paraformaldehyde d. Acetaldehyde a. antibiotics b. pyretics
−9
1083. pH of 10 N NaOH will be c. antipyretics d. analgesics
a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. none 1094. Molecular formula of Calomel is
1084. Which of the following will not displace hydrogen a. Hgo b. Hg2Cl2
a. Ba b. Pb c. Hg d. Sn c. HgCl2 d. K2(HgI4)
1095. Oxidation no. of Fe in the Fe(CO)5 is
1085. The set of quantum numbers which is allowed as a. 0 b. +5 c. +1 d. -5
a. 3, 2 1, 0 b. 2,0,-1,-1/2 1096. The maximum no. of electron in an orbital is governed by
c. 1,0, -1/2 d. 4,3,2,1/2 a. Aufbau principle
1086. The V.V rays can be checked by b. Pauli’s exclusion principle
a. Flint glass b. Crooke’s glass c. Hund’s rule
c. Soda glass d. Pyrex glass d. De Broglie’s rule
1087. In which of the following oxidation number of oxygen is 1097. The radius of an atom is of the order of:
+2? a. 10 −10 Cm b. 10 −13 cm
a. Na2O b. Na2O2 c. 10 15 cm d. 10 −8 cm
c. F2O d. Cl2O 1098. What is tincture of iodine?
1088. The oxidation state of Fe in Hb is a. I 2 + H 2 o +C 2 H 5 b. KI+ C 2 H 5 OH
a. +2 b. +6
c. I 2 + C 2 H 5 OH d. I 2 + C 2 H 5 OH + KI
c. +3 d. +4
1089. Producer gas consists of: 1099. Elements is a
a. CO+N2 b. CO2+N2 a. pure substance b. mixture
c. CO+N2 d. CO2+H2O c. compound d. none
1090. The component of water goes is 1100. The process of converting solid to vapour and vapour back
a. Water vapour b. CO+H2 to solid by cooling is
 a. Evaporation b. Distillation a. O2 b. CO c. CO2 d. CO+CO2
c. Sublimation d. Filtration 1110. 2H2O………2H2 ↑ O2 ↑
1101. Pure crystals of CuSO4 can be obtained from impure ores a. H b. H2 c. ZnH2 d. Zn2H
by: 1111. 2HgO = 2Hg+…………..?
a. Distillation b. Fermentation a. O2 b. O c. Hg2O d. HgO
c. Crystallization d. Evaporation 1112. Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4+……………?
1102. In paper, chromatography, a strip of paper acts as a a. H b. H2 c. ZnH2 d. Zn2H
a. mobile phase b. stationary phase 1113. Fe+CuSO4= FeSO4+CU is an example of
c. gas phase d. none a. simple displacement reaction
1103. Conversion of water into ice is b. double displacement reaction
a. Physical change b. chemical change c. decomposition reaction
c. organic change d. none d. None
1104. Physical change is 1114. …………..+AgNO3=NaNO3+AgCl ↓
a. temporary b. Permanent a. Na b. NaCl c. C2 d. AgNa
c. both a and b d. none 1115. In the above reaction the down arrow represents
1105. In physical change the mass of the new substance a. flotation b. Precipitation
a. is smaller b. greater c. Bubbling d. none
c. equal d. none 1116. HCl+NaOH → NaCl+H2O is and example of
1106. NH3 is synthesized by: a. double displacement b. neutralization reaction
a. Haber process b. Harver process c. both a and b d. none
c. Harper process d. Hooligans’ process
1117. …………..?+FeCl3=3NH4Cl+Fe(OH)3 ↓
1107. A+B = AB is a
a. 3NH3 b. 3NH4OH
a. decomposition reaction
c. 3NH4Cl d. 4NH4Cl
b. simple displacement reaction
1118. NH4CNO=CO(NH2)2 is a……..
c. complex displacement reaction
a. synthesis reaction
d. combination reaction
b. polymerization reaction
1108. 2KClO3= 2KCl+3O2 is a:
c. simple displacement reaction
a. decomposition reaction
d. rearrangement reaction
b. simple displacement reaction
c. both a and b 1119. Na2CO3+2H2O → 2NaOH+H2CO3 is a
d. none a. rearrangement reaction
1109. CaCO3=CaO+…………. b. polymerization reaction
 c. hydrolysis reaction 1130. Plumbum is the latin name of
d. none a. gold b. silver
1120. Which of the following cant displace H2 from acid? c. sodium d. lead
a. K b. Ca 1131. Cd is the symbol for
c. Cu d. Na a. carbon b. compound
1121. Which of the following doesn’t react with water? c. cadmium d. copper
a. K b. fe 1132. Cs is the symbol for:
c. Au d. Na a. carbon b. cadmium
1122. 2K+2H2O=2KOH +……………… c. chlorine d. cesium
a. K b. H2 1133. The symbol for uranium is:
c. KOH d. K2O a. U b. Ur
1123. 3Fe+4H2O=………………+4H2 c. Un d. Um
a. Fe2O3 b. FeO 1134. The symbol of Neon is
c. Fe2O4 d. none a. N b. Nn
1124. Zn+……….= ZnSO4 + Cu c. No d. Ne
a. SO4 − b. CuS 1135. The symbol Palladium is
c. CuSO4 d. SO2 a. Pl b. pd c. Pa d. P
2+ −
1125. Zn=Zn +2e , Here Zn is 1136. The symbol for silicon is
a. oxidized b. reduced a. S b. Si c. Sc d. So
c. both a and b d. none 1137. The symbol for Titanium is
a. Ti b. T c. Tt d. Tn
1126. Zn+Cu 2+ = Zn 2+ + Cu , here cu is 1138. The symbol for manganese is
a. oxidized b. reduced a. M b. Mn c. Mg d. Me
c. both a and b d. none 1139. The symbol for tungsten is:
1127. Aurum is the Latin name for a. U b. W c. T d. Tu
a. sodium b. gold 1140. Acetic acid is
c. silver d. diamond a. CH3CO b. CH3COO
1128. Stannum is the latin name for c. CH3COOH d. CH3COH
a. tin b. Sodium 1141. The symbol for Vanadium is
c. gold d. Mercury a. Va b. V c. Vd d. Vu
1129. Natrium is the latin name for 1142. Sand is
a. Tin b. Sodium a.Si b. SiO c. SiO2 d. SiO3
c. gold d. Mercury
1143. Washing soda is a. 1 b. 2
a. NaCo3 b. CaCO3 c. 3 d. both b and c
c. Na2CO3 d. NaC 1156. Mercury has valency
1144. Lime is a. 1 b. 2
a. Ca b. O2 c. Cao d. Ca2O c. both a and b d. 3
1145. Marble is 1157. Gold has valency
a. CuO b. CaCo3 c. Ca2Na d. CaH2 a. 1 b. 2
1146. Caustic soda is c. 3 d. both a and c
a. Nao b. NaOH c. Na d. KOH 1158. Cl − is a……….
1147. Hydrogen monoxide is a. molecule b. radical
a. H2O b. OH2 c. H2O3 d. H2O2 c. compound d. element
1148. Copper sulphate is +
1159. NH 4 is a
a. CoS b. CuSO4 c. CU2S d. Cu2(SO)3
a. atom b. molecule
1149. Ammonium sulphate is
c. radical d. element
a. NH4SO4 b. (NH3)2SO4
1160. Compound radical is
c. (NH4)2SO4 d. NH3SO4
a. Co2 b. NH4+
1150. Calcium chloride is
c. NH3 d. CO
a. CaCl2 b. CaCl
1161. Ferrous radical is
c. (CaCl)2 d. Ca2Cl2
a. Fe+ b. Fe2
1151. Silver nitrate is
c. Fe3+ d. Fe4+
a. AgNo2 b. AgNO3
1162. Cupric radical is
c. Ag(NO3)3 d. AgNO4
a. Cu+ b. Cu2+
1152. Aluminium nitrate is
c. Cu3+ d. Cu4+
a. AlNO3 b. Al2(NO3)3
1163. Mercurous radical is
c. Al(NO3)3 d. Al(NO3)2
a. Hg+ b. Hg2+
1153. Copper has valency
c. Hg3+ d. Hg4+
a. 1 b. 2
1164. Sulphate is
c. both a and b d. none − 2−
1154. Ca has valency a. So 4 b. So 4
3− 4−
a. 1 b. 2 c. SO 4 d. SO 4
c. 3 d. both a and c 1165. Carbonate is
1155. Fe has valency
 a. CO32- b. CO3- 1175. CaCO3+2HCl CaCl2+H2O………….?
c. CO2- d. CO23- a. CO b. CH4
1166. Nitrate is c. Cl2 d. CO2
a. NO2- b. NO3 1176. (NH4)2SO2+NaOH → Na2SO4+H2O+……….?
c. NO3- d. NO2 a. N2 b. NH3
1167. Permagnate is c. Na d. SO2
a. MnO4- b. MnO4+ 1177. KClO3 → KCl+…………?
c. MnO4 d. MnO2 a. K2O b. O
1168. Stannous ion is c. O3 d. O2
a. Sn+ b. Sn2+ 1178. Who proposed the atomic theory?
c. Sn3+ d. Sn4+ a. Rutherford b. Darwin
1169. Nitrate is c. Dalton d. Landolt
a. NO3+ b. NO2- 1179. Atoms of the same element are:
c. NO2 d. NO2+ a. alike b. all different
1170. Ammonium carbonate is c. mixed d. not sure
a. NH4CO3 b. (NH4)2CO3 1180. Law of conservation of mass was proposed by
c. NH3CO3 d. (NH4)3CO3 a. Dalton b. Darwin
1171. Ferric phosphate is c. Landolt d. Lomonosov
a. FePO4 b. Fe(PO4)3 1181. In the formula E=mc2, E= energy in erg, m = mass in gram
c. Fe3(PO4)2 d. Fe(PO4)4 and c = velocity is
1172. Cupric chloride is a. m/s b. Km/s
a CuCl2 b. CaCl c. mile/hour d. cm/s
c. CoCl2 d. Co2Cl2 1182. Amu is
1173. Zinc nitrate is a. atomic meter unit b. Average mass unit
a. ZnNO2 b. Zn(NO3)3 c. atomic mass unit d. Average meter unit
c. Zn2NO3 d. Zn(NO3)2 1183. 1 amu is the 1/12 the mass of…………..
Fe/…….? a. C13 b. C12..5
1174. N2+3H2 2NH3 c. C12 d. C15
. 600 atm 1184. Atomic weight of hydrogen is
450 0 C a. 1 amu b. 0.06 amu
a. Me b. Mo c. 1.01 amu d. 1.008 amu
c. Mn d. Mg 1185. Molecular weight of CO2 is
 a. 100 b. 64 V1 V2
c. 44 d. 54 a. = b. V1T1=V2T2
T1 T2
1186. 1 mole contains…………atoms in C12 isotope
a. 100 b. 64 V V
c. 1 = 2 d. V1P1=V2P2
c. 44 d. 54 P1 P2
1187. 1 gram molecule of oxygen is 1194. Combined gas equation is
a. 8 grams b. 16 grams a. PV=nRT b. PR=VnT
c. 32 grams d. 64 grams c. PT=Vrt d. VT=Prn
12
1188. 1 mole contains… atoms in C istopes 1195. In the equation PV=nRT, R is
a. 6.022 × 10 24 b. 6.022 × 10 22 a. earthly constant b. solar constant
c. 6.022 × 10 23 d. 6.022 × 10 25 c. universal gas constant d. none of the above
1189. In solid state, the particles are 1196. Standard pressure is
a. loosely packed a. O degree C b. 273 K
b. closely packed c. both a and b d. 0 degree F
c. very far away from each other 1197. Standard pressure is
d. none of above a. 750mm of Hg b. 755 mm of Hg
1190. Solids are c 770 mm of Hg d. 760 mm of Hg
a. compressible 1198. Unit of ‘R’ is
b. Incompressible a. litre × atmk −1 mol −1 b. ergk −1 mol −1
c. sometimes compressible sometime not c. JouleK −1 mol −1 d. all of the above
d. none of the above 1199. Graham’s law of diffusion says
1191. Liquids have r d1 r d2
a. definite shape b. indefinite shape a. 1 = b. 1 =
r2 d2 r2 d1
c. acquire the shape of the vessel they are kept in
d. none of the above r1 d1 r d
c. = d. 1 = 1
1192. Boyle’s law says r2 d 2 r2 d 2
P P 1200. Kinetic energy gases explains that all gases are made up of
a. P1V1=P2V2 b. 1 = 2
V1 V2 minute particles called
T T a. atoms b. compounds
c. T1V1=T2V2 d. 1 = 2 c. elements d. molecules
V1 V2
1201. Molecular collisions as started by kinetic theory of gases is
1193. Charle’s law says
 a. elastic b. plastic 1210. A solution which cannot dissolve any more solute at a
c. both d. same particular temperature is
1202. Kinetic theory of gases states that the force of attraction a. saturated b. unsaturated
between molecules is c. supersaturated d. none
a. strong b. negligible 1211. A solution which holds more solute than that is possible for
c. very strong d. not sure a saturated solution at that temperature
1203. A solution is a……mixture of 2 or more substances a. saturated b. unsaturated
a. hetergenous b. homogenous c. supersaturated d. none
c. mixed d. none 1212. A Salt was found to have solubilities of follows
1204. Molarity of a solution means the number of moles of solute Temp Solubilities
per……of solution 60 degree C 132
a. Kg b. mole 30 degree C 95
c. litre d. milliliter Calculate the weight of crystals, formed on cooling 80 gm of
1205. Molality means number of moles of solute per…….of saturated solution form 60oC to 30oC
solution a. 7.12 gm b. 12.7 gm
a. Kg b. mole c. 13.8 gm d. 8 gm
c. litre d. milliliter 1213. How much sodium iodide will saturate 60gm of water at 20
1206. Mole fraction is the ratio of moles of solute to the total degree C if its solubility is 178 at that temperature
moles of a. 100 gm b. 300 gm
a. solute b. solute and solvent c. 105.9 gm d. 106.8 gm
c. solvent d. None 1214. Which is not crystal
1207. Normality means the no. of……..the solute dissolved in a a. diamond b. quartz
liter of solution c. calcite d. none
a. moles b. gram 1215. Blue vitriole is
c. gram equivalent d. none a. CUSO4.2H2O b. CuSO4.3H2O
1208. Solution can be c. CUSO44H2O d.CUSO4.5H2O
a. saturated b. Unsaturated 1216. Green vitriol is
c. supersaturated d. all of the above a. FeSO4 b. FeSO47H2O
1209. A solution which can dissolve more of the solute at the c. FeSO4.8H2O d. FeSO4.10H2O
same temperature is 1217. Gypsum salt is
a. saturated b. unsaturated a. MgSO4 b. MgSO4.2H2
c. supersaturated d. none c. CaSO4 d. CaSO4.2H2O
1218. Washing soda crystal is dissolved in 50 gm of hot water & slowly cooled to 20oC.
a. Na2.CO3.10H2O b. Na2CO3 What amount of KClO3 will separate out?
c. CaCO3 d. CaCO3.10H2O a. 6 gm b. 5.5 gm
1219. 20 gms of a saturated solution of a salt or being evaporated c. 6.5gm d. 7.5 gm
gave 4.5 gms of the day salt. Calculate the solubility of the 1227. 20 gm of a solution saturated with a salt at 80oC is cooled to
salt 30oC. How much of the salt will crystallize out o fthe
a. 20 b. 25.03 solution. If its solubilities at 80oC & 30oC are 100 & 25
c. 29.03 d. 30.03 respectively?
1220. Pecentage by volume is weight o f solute in gram per a. 6.5 gm b. 5.5 gm
a. ml of solution b. 100 ml of solution c. 7.5 gm d. 8.5 gm
c. mg of solution d. 100 mg of solution 1228. A gas occupies 10 liters under a pressure of 1.5 atm. What
1221. Calculate the weight of CuSO4 contained in 400 ml of a would be its volume be if the pressure were increased to 4
5% solution of CuSO4 (% by volume) atm? Assume that temperature remains constant.
a. 10 gm b. 30 gm a. 2.15 l b. 3.25 l
c. 15 gm d. 20 gm c. 3.75 l d. 2.225 l
1222. Calculat the molarity of a solution that contains 3.56 gm of 1229. A gas occupies a certain volume under a pressure of 100 t
pure HCl in 10 litres of solution or r. What pressure will be required to compress the volume to
a. 1M b. 0.01m 1/3 rd , temperature remainng constant?
c. 0.001 M d. 2M a. 1000 torr b. 3000 torr
1223. Calculate the weight of K2SO4 required to prepare 500 ml c. 200 torr d. 3000 torr
of 0.05M solution of K2SO4. 1230. The volume of gas is 720 m/at 20 degree celcius. At what
a. 4.355 gm b. 3.355 gm temperature will its volume be 960 ml.
c. 2 gm d. 3.1 gm ( pressure remaining constant)
o
1224. The solubility of a salt at O C is 12. How much salt will 50 a. 111.7 degree celcius b. 1112.7 degree celcius
gm of its saturated solution contain at that temperature? b. 115.2 degree celcius d. 117.7 degree celcius
a. 5.357 gm b. 6.234 gm 1231.A sample of nitrogen occupies 100 cc at 27 degree celcius.
c. 2.123 gm d. 4.547 gm At what temperature will its volume be double, if the
1225. How much NaI will saturate 60 gm of water at 60oC, if its pressure doesnot change?
solubility be 178? a. 127oC b. 227oC
a. 106 b. 106.1 c. 327oC d. 300oC
c. 106.2 d. 106.3 1232. A 350 ml sample of O2 gas exerts a pressure of 830 mm Hg
1226. The solubility of KClO3 at 20oC is 7.10 gm of KClO3 is at 22oC. At what temperature will it exert a pressure of 600
 mm Hg in a volume of 500ml. 1241. A gas occupies 12.3 litres at a pressure of 40 cm of Hg.
a. 32oC b. 42oC What is the volume in ml when pressure is increased to 600
c. 30oC d. 40oC mm?
1233. A given mass of moist H2 occupies 75 ml at 20oC & 750 a. 800 ml b. 8000 ml
mm pressure, what volume does it occupy at NTP? c. 80 ml d. 8200 ml
a. 71.2 ml b. 67.33 ml 1242. 200 cc of Nitrogen at 27oC are cooled to -20oC. Find the
c. 59.2 ml d. 23 ml new volume?
1234. Convert 0oC to Kelvin scale. a. 166 cc b. 168.66 cc
a. 173 K b. -173 K c. 166.22 cc d. 164.22 cc
c. 0 K d. 273 K 1243. Given 600 ml of a gas at standard conditions. If the pressure
1235. Convert -63oC to Kelvin scale. is trebled & temperature is raised to 546oC, what volume
a. 210 K b. 110 K will the gas then occupy?
c. -63 K d. 0 K a. 500 ml b. 600 ml
1236. Convert 547oC to Kelvin scale. c. 700 ml d. 550 ml
a. 280 K b. 820 K 1244. Hydrogen diffuses five times as fast as another gas A. Find
c. 440 K d. 0 K the molecular weight of A.
1237. Convert 0 K to Celsius scale. a. 20 b. 30
a. 2 o C b. -273oC c. 40 d. 50
O
c. 273 C d. 373oC 1245. The density of Hz is 0.0899 gm/lit, & the density of
1238. Convert 450 K to Celsius scale. chlorine is 3.21 gm/lit. Compare the ratio of diffusion of
a. 177 oC b. 277oC these gases, i.e. r4 : rcl
o
c. 0 C d. 129oC a. 5 : 1 b. 5.975 : 1
1239. Three volumes of oxygen & 2 volumes of chlorine are c. 5.22 : 1 d. 4.23 : 1
mixed. What will the partial pressure of each be when the 1246. Atomic number of Potassium is
barometer stands 760 mm? a. 2 b. 8 c. 11 d. 19
a. 450 & 300 mm b. 444 & 326 mm 1247. Atomic number of Uranium is
c. 432 & 464 mm d. 456 & 304 mm a. 5 b. 50 c. 69 d. 92
1240. 100 ml of a gas are enclosed in a cylinder under a pressure 1248. Atomic number of Zn is
of 760 mm. What would be the volume at pressure of 1520 a.20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35
mm? 1249. Atomic weight of Phosphorus is
a. 5 ml b. 50 ml a.15 b. 30 c. 31 d. 32
c. 100 ml d. 200 ml 1250. Atomic weight of Argon is
 a. 18 b. 40 c. 36 d. 22 1263. Law of Octave was given by
1251. Atomic weight of Al is a. Joseph Proust b. John Dalton
a. 13 b. 27 c. 26 d. 30 c. Dobereiner d. John Newland
1252. Atomic weight of Carbon is 1264. Who plotted atomic volume against atomic weight?
a. 12 b. 13 c. 12.5 d. 13.5 a. Joseph Proust b. Lothermeyer
1253. Fluorine is a c. Mendeelev d. John Newland
a. metal b. halogen 1265. The most important contribution in the field of Periodic
c. alkali metal d. alkali earth metal table is by
1254. Magnesium has atomic weight a. John Newland b. Mendeelev
a. 12 b. 24 c. 25 d. 26 c. Proust d. Lothermeyer
1255. Sodium has atomic weight 1266. Mendeelev’s Periodic Law states: The chemical & physical
a. 11 b. 22 c. 23 d. 24 properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic
1256. Sulphur has atomic weight a. weights b. numbers
a. 8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 33 c. both a & b d. none
1257. Oxygen has atomic weight 1267. Mendeelev predicted 3 elements would be discovered
a. 8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 64 which is not the element of those three.
1258. Oxygen has molecular weight a. Scandium b. Uranium
a. 8 b. 16 c. Gallium d. Germanium
c. 32 d. 64 1268. The horizontal rows in the periodic table are
1259. Isotopes are atoms of same element but with different a. columns b. rows
a. atomic weight b. atomic number c. periods d. lines
c. mass number d. none 1269. The vertical columns in the periodic table are
1260. Isobars are atoms of different elements having same mass a. groups b. columns
number but different c. rows d. vertical lines
a. atomic weight b. atomic number 1270. Which one is not a group 1 element?
c. mass number d. none a. H b. Li
1261. Isotopes of hydrogen is c. Si d. Fr
a. Protium b. Deuterium 1271. Na is a group element
st
c. Tritium d. All of the above a. 1 b. 2nd
1262. Who arranged elements in the form of triads? c. 3rd d. 4th
a. Joseph Proust b. Mendeelev 1272. Ve falls under group .
c. John Newland d. None
 a. 1 b. 8 1285. Na, Mg, & Av lie in the period
c. 18 d. 4 a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
1273. Which is not a group 18 element? 1286. Ni lies in the group
a. He b. Be a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 18
c. Ve d. Ne 1287. Group 13 element is
1274. Iron falls under group a. B b. Al
a. 1 b. 4 c. Ga d. All the above
c. 8 d. 16 1288. Hg lies in the same group as
1275. Atomic number of Fe is a. Fe b. Ni c. Co d. Zn
a. 17 b. 27 1289. Ti lies in the period
c. 26 d. 47 a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
1276. Co falls under group 1290. Alkaline earth metal includes
a. 7 b. 8 a. group 1 elements b. group 2 elements
c. 9 d. 10 c. group 3 elements d. group 4 elements
st
1277. 1 group is also called group of: 1291. Noble gases are in the group……..
a. transition elements b. alkali metals a. a. 1 b. 10 c. 15 d. 18
c. alkaline earth metals d. none 1292. V lies in the group
1278. Group 18 is also called a. 1 b. 3
a.0 b. 8 c.16 d. 10 c. 5 d.7
1279. Modern periodic law is based on 1293. Ba is a group element.
a. atomic number b. atomic mass a. 1st b. 2nd
rd
c. molecular mass d. molecular number c. 3 d. 4th
1280. Ba is under group 1294. Cs is a group element.
st
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 a. 1 b. 2nd
1281. Which is not a group of two element? c. 3rd d. 4th
a. Be b. Mg c. Ca d. Br 1295. Hydrogen resembles
1282. N falls group a. alkali metals b. holohgens
a.. 1 b. 12 c. 13 d. 15 c. both a & b d. none
1283. Which of the following are not in same period? 1296. Lanthanides include atomic numbers
a. Li b. Be c. Al d. B a. 57 – 70 b. 58 – 70
1284. Zn lies in the period. c. 58 – 71 d. 59 -72
a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th 1297. Achnodes include atomic numbers
 a. 90 – 103 b. 99 – 109 1307. Peptic ulser paitent is treated with
c. 91 – 102 d. 92 – 103 a. Al(OH)3 b. Mg(OH)2
1298. Rare earth elements are : c. a and b d. None
a. lanthanides b. actinides 1308. If honey bee bites, we use
c. both a & b d. none a. calamine lotion b. vinegar
1299. The elements constituting subgroup A are c. caustic soda d. none
a. bridge elements b. transitional elements 1309. If wasp bites, we use generally …………
c. representative elements d. all of the above a. Vinegar b. calamine lotion
1300. Group VIII contains columns. c. Hydrochloroic acid d. None
a. 1 b. 2 1310. If we go from left to right in the periodic table the acidic
c. 3 d. 4 character of the element…..
1301.The M.F. of calamite lotion a. increase b. decreases
a. ZnCO3 b. Zns c. No any change d. None
c. Zncl2 d. None 1311. If we go form top to bottom in the same group, the
1302. Bakelite plastic is example of…………….. electronegativity of the element…..
a. Thermoplastic b. Themosetting a. increases b. decreases
c. a and b d. None c. No any change d. None
1303. The subatomic particle of an atom, which has no charge, is 1312. If we go form left to right in the same period, the a tomic
known as radius of the element
a. proton b. Neutron a. increases b. decreases
c. electon d. None c. No any change d. None
1304. From the given mixture of sand + iodine, Iodine is 1313. The example of group vth of the periodic table is……..
separated by……….. a. sodium b. Aluminium
a. Distillation b. sublimation c. oxygen d. nitrogen
c. Crystallization d. None 1314. Give the example of one covalent compound formed in
1305. Black ink is separated into between Gr-I and Gr-IV
a. sublimation b. chromatography a. NaCl b. CH4
c. Distillation d. none c. Na2O d. HCl
1306. The water which contain calcium bicarbonate and calcium 1315. Give the example of electrovalent compound formed in
chloride is…….. between gr-I and Gr-VII is……..
a. Temporary b. Permanent a. Na2O b. KCl
c. a and b respectively d. None c. CaCl2 d. None
1316. Valency of phosphate is…………. a. FeO b. Fe3O4
a. 1 b. 2 c. Fe2O3.XH2O d. none
c. 3 d. none 1326. The chemical formula of pyrex glass is………..
1317. If water contains calcium sulphate compound, hardness is a. Aluminium silicate b. Aluminium boron silicate
separated by c. Boron silicate d. None
a. lime water b. boiling 1327. Thickening of window glass after sometime is known
c. washing soda d. None as……..
1318. If slaked lime is heated with salammoniac, we get gas like a. Hydration b. Higroscopic
a. NH3 b. N2 c. Supercooled d. None
c. O2 d. None 1328. Lunar eclipse takes place
1319. If sodium nitrite is heated with ammonium chloride, we get a. every moon day b. Moon day
gas like ……. c. new moon day d. None
a. NH3 b. N2 1329. Hottest part of the earth is………..
c. O2 d. None a. Crust b. Mantle
1320. If sodium peroxide is reacted with water, we get a gas like c. inner core d. none
a. H2 b. O2 1330. Diamond is a example of……
c. CO2 d. None a. Sedimentary b. Igneous
1321. The molecular formula of galena is………. c. metamorphic d. None
a. ZnS b. HgS 1331. Protein is the example of ………..
c. PbS d. None a. Natural polymer b. Artificial
1322. The molecular formula of baking soda is……… c. Man made d. None
a. Na2CO3 b. CaCO3 1332. Blood is example of……….
c. NaHCO3 d. None a. Colloidal solution b. true solution
1323. When sodium metal is reacted with water, we get a gas, c. Suspension d. none
which is absorbed by palladium metal is 1333. Particle size of solute in true solution is…….
a. O2 b. CO2 a. 100-100A degree b. 1-10 A degree
c. H2 d. None c. 4000-7000 A degree d. None
1324. When potassium nitrate is heated, we get a gas, which is 1334. If the solubility of compound at 25 is 30%, find the salt
absorbed by alkaline pyrogallate solution is deposited from 50 gram of its saturated solution at 30degree
a. H2 b. NH3 celcius is
c. O2 d. none a. 100 b. 10
1325. The molecular formula of rust is……. c. 15 d. 150
1335. Solubility curve of sodium chloride in water with rise of a. Natural polymer b. Synthetic polymer
temperature………. c. a and b d. None
a. increased rapidly 1344. The smallest particle of matter which, generally participates
b. Slightly increase in chemical reaction but has no free of existence is known
c. no any change in solubility as……
d. none a. atom b. molecule
1336. The gas which is neither supporter of combustion nor c. element d. none
combustible in nature is………… 1345. The chemical properties of the element are determined
a. N2 b. O2 by……….
c. H2 d. none a. atomic number b. atomic mass
1337. The aqueous solution of gas which turns red to blue litmus c. neutron d. None
paper is………. 1346. The father of chemistryof………….
a. CO2 b. O2 a. Dalton b. Lavosier
c. H2 d. None c. Rutherford d. none
1338. The gas is collected in gas jar by down ward displacement 1347.The nucleus of atom is discovered by…………
of water is known as……. a. Avogardo b. Rutherford
a. CO2 b. N2 c. Dalton d. none
c. CO d. both b & c 1348. The molecule term is given by………….
1339. The gas which is collected in gas jar by upward a. Dalton b. Ruther ford
displacement of air is…….. c. Avogardo d. None
a. NH3 b. CO2 1349. Match the following pairs:
c. Co d. None 1. Quick lime a. CaO
1340. % of silica is in ordinary glass 2. Lime water b. FeSO4. 7H2O
a. 15% b. 25% 3. Blue vitriol c. (CaSO4) 2H2O
c. 50% d. none 4. Green vitriol d. H2SO4
1341. Formaline is used as…………. 5. Plaster of paris e. ZnCO3
a. Insecticides b. pesticide 6. Bleaching powder f. Fe2O3
c. Antiseptic d. none 7. Oil of vitriol g. C6H5OH
1342. B.H.C. is used as……… 8. Milk of Magnesia h. H2CO3
a. antiseptic b. disinfectant 9. Vinegar i. CH3COOH
c. insecticide d. None 10. Carbolic Acid j. Mg(OH)2
1343. PVC is example of………. 11. Carbonic Acid k. CaOCl2
 12. Calamine lotion l. AgNO3 c. C2H5OH d. C4H9OH
13. Zinc blende m. CuSO4.5H2O 1359. What is boiling point of alcohol?
14. Lunar Caustic n. Ca(OH)2 a. 78.6oC b. 99oC
oC
15. Hematite o. ZnS c. 80 d. 81oC
1350. Which is the following compound is not organic 1360. Which of the following compound is soluble in water?
compound? a. Ethane b. propane
a. CO2 b. CO c. Alcohol d. Ether
c. CH4 d. Both a and b 1361. What is the functional group of ether?
1351. What is general formula of alkane ? a. –OH b. –O-
a. CnH2n b. ChH2n c. –NH2 d. –CO
c. CnH2n+1 d. CnH2n+2 1362. Which of the following compound is used in thermometer?
1352. Which of the following gas in biogas ? a. Ether b. Alcohol
a. C2H6 b. CH4 c. potassium chloride d. Sodium hydroxide
c. CO2 d. CO 1363. Which of the following compound is iodo form ?
1353. What happens when sodium acetate is treated with sodium a. CHI3 b. CHBr3
hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide ? c. C3H8 d. C2H4
a. Ethane gas is formed . b. Propane gas is formed . 1364. Which of the following compound is unsaturated
c. Methane gas is formed . d. All of the above compound?
1354. Which of the following compound is used as anesthesia a. CH4 b. C2H6
a. CCl4 b. CHCl3 c. C3H8 d. C2H4
c. CH3CL d. CH2Cl2 1365. What is the general formula of alkyne ?
1355. What is the general formula of alkyl group? a. CnH2N-2 b. CnH2n+2
a. CnH2n + 1 b. CnH2n + 2
c. CnH2n d. CnH2n - 2 c. CnH2n d. CnH2n+1
1356. What is the M.F of acetylene? 1366. Which of the following bond are found in alcohol ?
a. C2H4 b. C2H2 a. Electrovalent bond
c. C2H6 d. None of above b. Covalent bond
1357. What is the M.F of ethanol ? c. Hydrogen bond
a. Ch3OH b. C2H5OH d. both b and c
c. C3H7OH d. C4H9OH 1367. What is the M.F of dim ethyl ether ?
1358. Which of the following compound is called glycol? a. C2H5OC2H5 b. CH3OC2H5
a. CH2OHCHOHCH2OH b. CH2OHCH2OH c. CH3OCH3 d. None of the above
1368. What is the boiling point ether? a. s b. p
a. 38oC b. 35oC c. d d. f
c. 37oC d. 36oC 1379 Which of the following metal is called alkaline earth metal
1369. How many blocks are there in a periodic table ? a. Li b. Na
a. 1 b. 2 c. Ca d. Al
c. 5 d. 4 1380. In which group of the periodic table should halogen group
1370. Who introduced the modern periodic table ? be placed
a. John Newland b. Hochar Meyer a. I-A b. VI-A
c. Henery Moseley d. John Dalton c. III-A d. VII-A
1371. How many elements are there in a Lanthanides series? 1381. Which of the following element is also called
a. 13 b. 14 electropositive element?
c. 15 d. 16 a. 16 b. 17
1372. In which block of the periodic table should aluminum be c. 18 d. 20
place? 1382. How many electrons are there in Ca++ ion ?
a. s b. p a. 13 b. 20
c. d d. f c. 11 d. 18
1373. How many elements are there in actinides series ? 1383. Which of the following gas is also called noble gas ?
a. 14 b. 15 a. O2 b. Ne
c. 16 d. None of above c. Ar d. Both b& c
1374. In which Group of the periodic table should calcium be 1384. What is the other name of lanthanides and actinides series ?
placed ? a. Alkalina meatal
a. I-A b. III-A b. Alkalina earth
c. II-A d. IV-A c. Rare- earth element
1375. How many valance electrons are there in an argon atom ? d. None of the above
a. 7 b.8 1385. Which of the following chemical reaction is an example of
c. 9 d. 10 decomposition reaction?
1376. According to duplet rule , how many electrons are there in a. 2Na +Cl2 2NaCl
the valance shell ? b. N2+3H2 2NH3
a. 3 b. 4 c.2AgBr 2Ag+Br2
c. 5 d. 2 d. Both a & b
1378. Which of the periodic table should actinides group be 1386. What is the gram molecular weight of oxygen molecule ?
placed ? a. 30 gram b. 32 gram
 c. 34 gram d. 40 gram c. suspension d. all of the above
1387. How many molecules are there in 1 mole of carbon dioxide 1395. Which of the following is the formula of solubility?
gas ? Wt. of solute (gram) X 100
a. 6.02x1023 molecules a. Solubility = Wt. of solvent (gram)
b. 6.02x1027 molecules
c. 6.02x1030 molecules Wt. of solution (gram)
d. 6.02x10-32 molecules b. Solubility = Wt. of solvent (gram) X 100
1388. Which of the following chemical reaction is not balanced? Wt. of solvent (gram)
a. C+O2 CO2 c. Solubility = Wt. of solute (gram) X 100
b. Cu+O2 CuO
c. Zn+H2SO4 ZnSO4+H2 d. None of the above
d. CaCO3 CaO+CO2 1396. If the solubility of given compound at 30oC is 40. Find the
1389. Which of the following number is Avogadro’s number ? weight of solvent when of solvent when 80 gram its
a. 6.02x1024 b. 6.023x1023 saturated solution is heated at 30oC
25
c. 6.02x10 d. 6.02x10-23 a. 9.300gram b. 22.8gram
1390. Which of the following chemical reaction is an example of c. 500gram d. 600gram
acid- base reaction? 1397. Aqueous solution containing gas is example of
a. H2SO4+ CaO CaSO4 + H2O a. brass b. coca cola
b. 2Zn+O2 2ZnO c. Salt + solution d. none of the above
c. 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2 1398. When 20 gram of saturated solution is cooled gram 60oC
d. CaCO3 CaO + CO2 to 45oC , find the salt deposited .If the solubility of given
1391. Which of the following catalyst is used for the salt at 60oC and 45oC are 45 and 40 respectively .
manufacturing of ammonia gas ? a. 3 gram b. 4gram
a. Ni b. Fe/Mo c. Cu d. Sn c. 1 gram d. 0.68 gram
1392. Which of the following gas is monatomic gas ? 1399. For the solubility of given compound amount of solvent
a. Cl2 b. F2 c. N2 d. Xe necessary is ………
1393. In the given mixture of sand + camphor, camphor is a. 250gram b. 100gram
separated by……… c. 150gram d. 105gram
a. distillation process b. sublimation process 1400. Generally , When the saturated solution is heated it
c. evaporation process d. decantation process becomes ……….
1394. Tooth paste is the example of …………. a. unsaturated b. saturated
a. colloids b. solution c. Super saturated d. none
1401. From the given solution of NaCl + NaCl is separated by 1411. What is the M.F of horn silver ?
a. filtration b. evaporation a. Ag2S b. (AgCu2)2S
c. sublimation d. decantation c. AgCl d. Ag
1402. Mixture of alcohol and water is example of 1412. What happens when silver is treated with dil. Hydrochloric
a. colloid b. Solution acid ?
c. suspension d. all of the above a. Silver chloride is formed
1403. In which block of alcohol and water is example b. Hydrogen gas is evolved
a. s- block b. p – block c. Oxygen gas is evolved
c. f- block d. d- block d. It does not react with dill. Hydrochloric acid .
1404. Which of the following compound is called magnetic oxide 1413. What is the specific density of gold ?
of iron ? a. 20 gram\cm3 b. 19.3 gram\cm3
a. Fe2O3 b. Fe3O4 c. 21 gram\cm3 d. 24.3gram\cm3
c. FeCO3 d. FeO 1414. What is the atomic wt. gold?
1405. What is the M.F. of sodium meta aluminate? a. 179 b. 35
a. NaAlO2 b. Na3AlO3 c. 35.5 d. None
c. FeCO3 d. FeO 1415. What is the M.F of Auric chloride
1406. Which of the following is the At . No .Of copper a. AuCl b. AuBr 3
a. 30. b. 29 c. AuCl3 d. AgBr
c. 31 d. 32 1416. Which of the following compound is used as a negative in
1407. Which of the following is the ore of copper ? a photocopy ?
a. CuCl3 b. Cu2S a. AgCl b. AgI
c. CuCl3 d. Both a &b c. AgBr d. AgNO3
1408. What is the specific specific density of the copper ? 1417. % of oxygen in calcium oxide is
a. 8 b. 7.75 a. 28.4 b. 56.8
c. 8.85 d. None of the above c. 60 d. None
1409. Which of the following gas is evolved when copper is 1418. Amalgam is
treated with conc. Sulphuric acid? a. an alloy b. slag
a. H2S b. SO2 c. flux d. none
c. O2 d. N2 1419. Slag is the product of
1410. Which of the following metal is also called coinage metal ? a. Gangue b. Gangue + Flux
a. Na b. Li c. Colloidal d. None
c. Cu d. Ca 1420. The composition of brass is
 a. Cu+Sn b. Cu+ Zn 1430. Other name of hard glass is
c. Cu+Hg d. None a. Pyrex glass b. Ordinary glass
1421. The composition of bronze is c. Potashlime glass d. Soft glass
a. Cu+ Zn b. Cu + Zn +Ni 1431. In the given example , which is whole number
c. Cu+Sn d. None a. Atomn mass b. Atomic number
1422. The composition of German silver is c. Equivalent d. None
a. Cu+Zn b. Cu+Sn 1432. Molecular formula of urea fertilizer is
c. Cu+Zn +Ni d. None a. (NH4)2 SO4 b. CO(NH2)2
1423. What is the M.F . of sodium zincate ? c. NH4NO3 d. KCl
a. Na2S b. Na2ZnO2 1433. Vital force theory was given by
c. Na2Z d. None a. Dalton b. Lanosver
1424. What is the M.F .of gypsum ? c. Berzelius d. None
a. Al2O3. SiO2 b. CaSO4.2H2O 1434. Blood is the example of the
c. CaCO3 d. Al of the above a. True solution b. Colloidal
1425. Which of the following glass is soluble in water ? c. Suspension d. None
a. Oridinary b. Hard glass 1435. Example of good conductor is
c. Borosilicate glass d. Water glass a. Diamond b. Coal
1426. Carbolic acid and formalin is reacted to each other , we c. Graphite d. None
get………. 1436. Example of Metalloid is
a. Polyethylene b. polyvinyl chloride a. Be b. Ge
c. Bakelite plastic d. None of the above c. As d. All of them
1427. In the given example, which one is detergent ? 1437. Example of transition elements is
a. Sodium striate b. Alkyl benzene a. K b. Cu
c. Bakelite Plastic d. None of the above c. Fe d. None
1428. Molecular formula of soap is 1438. Example of transitional elements is
a. C17H35COONa b. SiO2 a. Ca b. Na
c. AlCl3 d. C17H35COOLi c. Cu d. None
1429. P.V.C is the example of 1439. Phosphoric acid is used with hydrogen peroxide acts as
a. Thermoplastics a. – Ve catalyst b. +ve catalyst
b. Thermoplastics plastics c. Autocatalyst d. None
c. Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics 1440. MnO2 is used in the prepration of oxygen gas as
d. None of the above
 a. + Ve catalyst b. – ve catalyst d. none of the above
c. Autocatalyst d. None 1450. The amount of energy required to remove an electron from
1441. Atoms of the same element, which have same atomic an gaseous atom is known as ………….
number but different atomic mass are known as a. ionization potential b. electron affinity
a. isobars b. isotones c. electro negativity d. none
c. isotopes d. none 1451. The word organic means
1442. Total number of groups in morden long periodic table are a. death b. life c. birth d. oil like
a. 14 b. 16 1452. Which of the following is inorganic?
c. 18 d. 20 a. fat b. oil c. sugar d. none
1443. Maximum number of electrons in given . orbital is 1453. Vital force theory was given by
a. 1 b. 2 a. Rutherford b. Berzelius
c. 3 d. 4 c. Dalton d. None
1444. The number of orbital in “ d” subs be is 1454. Vital force theory says
a. 3 b. 4 a. every organic matter is made of carbon
c. 5 d. 7 b. every organic matter can be created
1445. Total number of electron in oxide ion is c. no organic compounds can be prepared in the lab
a. 8 b. 10 d. none
c. 12 d. None 1455. The first organic compound prepared in the lab is
1446. In modern periodic table, elements are arranged on the basis a. Ammonic b. CH4
of their increasing c. C2H2 d. Urea
a. atomic mass b. atomic number 1456. Carbon has special property of combining with themselves
c. mass number d. none & with other elements to form long chains. This is called
1447. Symbol of quick silver is ………….. a. Catenation b. Oxidation
a. Ag b. Hg c. Reduction d. Animation
c. Au d. none 1457. Organic compounds are
1448. Total number of electrons in ferric ion are ……. a. Combustible b. Incombustible
a. 26 b. 23 c. Both a and b d. none
c. 24 d. none 1458. Organic compounds are
1449. Generally, ionic radius of cation decrease, due to……….. a. Electric b. Co-ordinate
a. decrease effective nuclear charge c. Covalent d. None
b. increased effective nuclear charge 1459. Which of the following is not used as a method of
c. increased atomic number purification of organic compounds?
 a. Crystallization b. Sublimation c. Eicosane d. Triacontane
c. Distillation d. None 1470. C40H82 is
1460. Ethyl alcohol is a. Eicosane b. Triacontane
a. C2H10 b. CH3OH c. Tetracontane d. Heptacontane
c. C2H5OH d. C2H6 1471. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 → IUPAC name is
1461. Pentane is a. Pentane b. Methane
a. C5H10 b. C5H12 c. Hexane d. Butane
c. C5H14 d. C6H6
1462. Lassigne’s test is used for the detection of compounds CH3
containing:
a. S b. O 1472. CH3 – C - CH3 → common name is
c. N d. both a & c
1463. Open chained compounds are CH3
a. aliphatic b. Aromatic a. Dimethyl hexane b. Tetra methane
c. Allycyclic d. Polycyclic c. Neo pentane d. Di-methyl propane
1464. Benzene is
a. aliphatic b. Aromatic 1473. When a lead battery is discharged
c. Allycyclic d. Polycyclic a. SO2 dissolved b. PbSO4 consumed
1465. Aldehyde is c. Lead formed d. H2SO4 consumed
a. –OH b. CHO
c. – COOH d. – NH2
1466. Amino is
a. – NH3 b. – COOH 1474. CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH3 → IUPAC name is
c. – CHO d. – NH2
1467. C8H18 is CH3
a. heptane b. henane a. 3 – methyl pentane b. 3 – methyl hexane
c. nunane d. octane c. Hexane d. n – hexane
1468. C11H24 is 1475. CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH3 → IUPAC name is
a. Decane b. Undecane
c. Nonane d. Tridecane CH3 CH3
1469. C20H42 is a. 2, 2 – dimethyl butane b. 2, 3 – dipropyl hexane
a. Eicosane b. Ocatadecane c. 2, 3 – dimethyl pentane d. Hexane
 CH3 a. Kolbe’s b. Sabatier reaction
c. Wurtz reaction d. None
1476. CH3 – CH2 – C - CH3 → IUPAC name is 1488. Kolbe’s electrolysis causes production of
a. Alkanes b. Alkenes
CH3 c. Alkynes d. All
a. 2, 2 – dimethyl butane b. Neo – hexane 1489. In hydrogenation reaction, the catalyst used is
c. 2, 2 dipropyl propane d. hexane a. Fe b. Co c. Ni d. Cu
1477. The general formula for alkenes is 1490. CH3COONa + NaOH ….…. + Na2CO3
a. CnH2n b. CnH2n-2 a. CH3 b. C2H2
c. CnH2n+2 d. none c. C2H4 d. CH4
1479. The general formula for alkenes is 1491. Al4C3 + l2 H2O ………. + 4 Al(OH)3
a. CnH2n b. CnH2n-2 a. CH3 b. CH4
c. CnH2n+2 d. CnH2n+4 c. C2H4 d. C2H6
1480. C3H4 is 1492. The melting point & boiling point of alkanes with
a. Propane b. Propene increase in molecular weight.
c. Butane d. Propyne a. increases b. decreases
1481. Acetylene is c. not certain d. no change
a. C2H4 b. C2H6 1493. Alkanes are also called
c. C2H2 d. C3H4 a. Paraffins b. Olefines
1482. IUPAC name of CH3CH2CH = CH2 is c. Acetylenes d. none
a. 1 – butene b. 1 – propane 1494. C6H14 + HNO3 ……… + H2O
c. 1 – propene d. 1 – butane a. C6H14 NO3 b. C6H13 NO2
1483. CH3 – C ≡ C- C H3 is c. C6H12 NO3 d. None
a. Butene – 2 b. Butyne – 2 1495. C2H6 + O2 ……….. + H2O + heat
c. Butyne – 1 d. Butane a. CH4 b. CO
1484. The precious stone originating from Beryllium is c. CO2 d. C2H6
a. Granite b. Garnet Δ
c. Salinanite d. Shale 1496. CH3CH2CH3 …….. + CH4
1485. Alkenes are also called > 500oC
a. Paraffins b. Olefines a. CH4 b. CH2 = CH2
c. Acetylenes d. All of the above c. C2H6 d. C3H8
1487. 2RX + 2Na RR + 2 NaX is 600oC
1497. n – hexane …….. + H2 c. ozone d. ammonia
Cr2O3/Al2O3 1506. Water has maximum density at
a. alkane b. alkene a. 0oC b. 2oC c. 4oC d. 6oC
c. benzene d. propanol 1507. The density of water is than that of ice.
a. higher b. equal to
Conc.H2SO4 c. lower d. all the above
1498. C2H5OH …….. + CH4 1508. Density of water at 4oC is
170oC a. 0.5 gm/ml b.2 gm/ml
a. C2H4 b. C2H6 c. 1 gm/ml d. 0.02 gm/ml
c. CH4 d. C3H8 1509. Specific heat of water is
Al2O3 a. 4.18 J/gm/K b. 4.18 J/Kg/K
1499. CH3CH2OH ………… + H2O c. 2.18 J/Kg/K d. None
o
350 C 1510. The bond angle of HoH in water is
a. C2H4 b. C2H6 a. 100o b. 104.5o
o
c. CH4 d. C3H8 c. 105.2 d. 106o
1500. CH2Br + Zn ……. + ZnBr2 1511. Water acts as
a. acid b. base
CH2Br c. both a & b d. none
a. C2H2 b. C2H4 1512. Water is a electrolyte.
c. C2H6 d. CH4 a. strong
1501. Ozone is b. weak
a. O b. O2 c. O3 d. O4 c. sometimes weak & sometimes strong
1502. Hole in Ozone is mainly due to d. all of the above
a. CO2 b. CH4 c. CFC d. CO 1513. The compound which is insoluble in water is
1503. Ozone is a. AgCl b. BaSO4
a. Oxidant b. Reductant c. CaF2 d. All of the above
c. Both a and b d. None 1514. Organic compound which is soluble in water is
1504. Ozone is used as a. alcohol b. sugar
a. germicide b. disinfectant c. carboxylic acid d. all of the above
c. steritizing agent d. all of the above 1515. Rain water is
1505. The allotrope of oxygen is a. Hard water b. Soft water
a. hydrogen b. nitrogen c. mined d. none
1516. Temporary hardness of water is caused by 1526. 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
o
a. Bicarbonates b. Sulphates 200- 300 C
c. Phosphates d. Chlorides a. Mn b. Co
1517. Temporary hardness can be removed by c. Ni d. MnO2
a. Boiling b. Clark’s process 1527. Na2O2 + H2O NaOH + …………..
c. Both a & b d. None a. H2 b. H2O
1518. Clarke’s process of removing hardness includes addition of c. O2 d. All the above
a. Lime b. Slaked lime 1528. Oxygen is
c. Stone d. Salt a. Colorless b. odourless
1519. Permanent hardness of water is caused by c. Heavier than air d. All the above
a. Chlorides b. Sulphates 1529. CH4 + 2O2 …….. + H2O + heat
c. Both a & b d. None a. CO b. CO2
1520. Permanent hardness can be removed by c. CH4 d. None
a. Washing soda b. Ion exchange process 1530. Na + O2 …………. ( room temp)
c. Deionization water d. All of the above a. Na2O + O2 b. Na2O
1521. Oxygen was discovered by c. Na2O2 d. O2 + Na2O2
a. Rutherford b. Dalton 1531. Fe + O2 ……….
c. Joseph Priestly d. None a. FeO b. Fe3O4
1522. HgO Hg +…………… c. Fe2O3 d. All of the above
Δ 1532. C + O2 ………..
a. Hg2O2 b. O2 a. CO b. CO2
c. O d. All of the above c. Both a & b d. None
1523. Pb3O4 PbO + ………….. electric arc
a. Pb2O2 b. O2 1533. N2 + O2 …………..
c. O d. None 3000oC
1524. KMnO4 ……….+ MnO2 + O2 a. NO2 b. NO
a. KMn b. K2Mn c. NO3 d. NH3
c. K2MnO4 d. K2MnO2 1534. NaOH is a
1525. Pb (NO3)2 2PbO + ………. + O2 a. Basic oxide b. Acidic oxide
a. N2 b. NH3 c. Mixed oxide d. All of the above
c. NO3 d. NO2 1535. CO2 + H2O …………
……….? a. HCO3 b. H2CO2
 c. H2CO3 d. None 1545. Ca+H2O ………….
1536. Amphoteric oxide is a. CaO b. Cu(oH)2
a. Al2O3 b. ZnO c. Ca(OH)2 d. None
c. Both a & b d. None 1546. Mg + H2O ………….
1537. Oxygen is used in a. Mg(OH)2 b. MgO
a. Steel manufacture b. Rocket fuel c. Mgo d. None
c. Oxidizing agent d. All of the above 1547. LiH+H2O …………….
1538. Oxygen is absorbed by a. LiO+H2O b. LiOH+H2
a. Hydrogen c. H2 d. LiO+H2O
b. Pallidium 1548. Fe+HCl ……….
c. Copper oxide a. Fe2Cl3+H2 b. FeCl3+H2
d. Alkaline pyrogallate solution c. FeCl2+H2 d. None
1539. Selenium lies in the same group as: 1549. Zn+H2SO4 ………
a. O2 b. S a. ZnSO4+H2 b. ZnO+SO2
c. Both a & b d. None c. Both a and B d. None
1540. H2 was discovered by 1550. C+H2O …………….
a. Joseph Lister b. Dalton a. CO2+O2 b. C+H2O
c. Henryr Cavendish d. Mendeelev c. CO2+H2O d. CO+H2O
1541. Atomic mass of Hydrogen is 1551. H2+CO+H2O ……….
a. 1 amu b. 1.002 amu a. CO+H2 b. CO2+H2O
c. 1.004 amu d. 1.008 amu c. CO2+H2 d. CO+H2O
1542. Hydrogen & alkali metals are similar Ni
a. of outer electronic configuration 1552. CH4 + H2O ………
b. univalent Δ
c. to form similar compounds a. CO+H2 b. CO2+H2O
d. all of the above c. CO+H2 d. All of the above
1543. Hydrogen is 1553. Hydrogen is
a. reducing agent b. oxidizing agent a. Colorless b. Odourless
c. both a and b d. None c. Insoluble water d. All of the above
1544. Na + H2O NaOH+…… 1554. Lightest gas is
a. H2 b. NaOH a. H2 b. O2
c. NH3 d. NO2 c. He d. Xe
1555. PbO + H2 a. O2 b. H2
a. PbO + H2O b. Pb + H2O c. N2 d. Xe
c. Pb + H2 d. None 1566. As we go down the group, the non-metallic character
1556. NH3 is manufactured by using a. decreases b. increases
a. High pressure b. High temperature c. both d. constant
c. Catalyst d. All the above 1567. In Nitrogen family, there are………..electrons in the
1557. Haber’s process is for the manufacture of outershell.
a. NH3 b. NO2 a. 3 b. 2
c. NO d. Nz c. 4 d. 5
1558. Isotope of hydrogen is 1568. In Nitrogen family, electro negatively…………………..
a. Protium b. Deuterium down the group.
c. Tritium d. All of the above a. increases b. decreases
1559. Deuterium has ………… proton & ……….. neutron. c. both d. constant
a. 1 & 1 b. 1 & 2 1569. Oxidation state of Nitrogen in NH3
c. 0 & 1 d. 1 & 0 a. 0 b. 1
1560. Tritium has …………neutron and ………….proton. c. -3 d. +3
a. 0 and 1 b. 1 and 0 1570. Oxidation state of Nitrogen in NO
c. 2 and 1 d. 1 and 2 a. O b. +1
1561. Molecular weight of hydrogen is: c. +2 d. -2
a. 1.008 b. 2.016 1571. Oxidation state of Nitrogen in N2O
c. 3.012 d. 4.032 a. 0 b. +1
1562. Nitrogen was discovered by: c. +2 d. -1
a. Rutherford b. Henry Cavendish 1572. NH3+Cl2 …………..
c. Loyher Hayer d. none a. NCl3 + HCl b. N2+HCl
1563. N2 makes………. % by volume of atmosphere. c. both a and b d. none
a. 70% b. 71% 1573. (NH4)2Cr2O7→.............+Cr2O3+H2O+……..
c. 72% d. 78% a. NH3 b. O2
1564. N2 lies in the group: c. N2O d. N2
a. |VA b. |VB 1574. NaNO2+NH4Cl→……….NaCl+H2O+………..
c. VA d. VB a. NH3 b. O2
1565. Anitomy lies in the group: c. N2O d. N2
1575. Nitrogen is slightly
 a. lighter than air obtained if there is:
b. heavier than air a. high pressure
c. sometimes light and sometimes heavy b. low temperature
d. none c. high concentration of reactants
1576. N2 is d. all of the above
a. colourless b. odourless 1585. Ammonia is:
c. slightly soluble in water d. all of the above a. no smell b. sweet smell
electric arc c. pungent smell d. rotten egg smell
1577. N2+O2 ……….. 1586. Ammonia is
300oC a. no smell b. sweet smell
a. N2O b. NO c. pungent smell d. rotten egg smell
c. NO2 d. N2O3 1587. NH3 is
1578. Al+N2→…………. a. Soluble in water
a. AlN b. Al2N3 b. Not soluble in water
c. Al5N3 d. Al3N5 c. Sometimes soluble & sometimes not
1579. The gas used in bulbs is: d. None
a. H2 b. O2 1588. Fountain experiment is for
c. NH3 d. N2 a. O2 b. H2
1580. N2 can be fixed by c. N2 d. NH3
a. air b. water 1589. The subatomic particle is
c. bacteria d. viruses a. Proton b. Neutron
1581. Root nodules of leguminuous plants contain: c. Electron d. All of the above
a. proteins b. O2 1590. Electron was discovered by
c. N2 fixing bacteria d. all of the above a. Rutherford b. Dalton
1582. In lab preparation: c. J. J. Thomson d. John Ray
NH4Cl+Ca (OH)2→ CaCl2+………….H2O 1591. 1 e =
a. N2 b. O2 a. 1.76 x 10-9 coulomb b. 1.6 x 10-19 coulomb
-28
c. H2 d. NH3 c. 9.09 x 10 coulomb d. None of the above
1583. NH3 can be dried by using 1592. Proton was discovered by
a. H2SO4 b. quicklime a. Rutherford b. J.J. Thomson
c. both a and b d. none c. Dalton d. Goldstein
1584. In Haber's process for synthesis of NH3:hgher yield will be 1593. Neutron was discovered by
 a. Goldstein
c. Chadwick
b. Rutherford
d. Mendeelev ] Best of Luck ^
1594. Neutron is a
a. Positively charged particle
b. Negatively charged particle
c. Neutral particle
d. All of the above
1595. ‘Water melon model’ was given by
a. Rutherford b. Thomson
c. Both a & b d. None
1596. X-ray scattering experiment was done by
a. Rutherford b. Thomson
c. Chadwick d. Goldstein
1597. Mass number is
a. Number of protons
b. Number of electrons
c. Total numbers of protons & neutrons
d. None
1598. Cathodic protection against corrosion of iron is done by
a. Mg b. Zn
c. Al d. All of the above
1599. Van der Waal’s force of attraction is
a. Weak b. Strong
c. Weak & strong d. None
1600. Hydrogen bond is formed when hydrogen is linked
with…….
a. Fluorine b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen d. All of the above
 Answer Sheet

S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans
1 D 27 D 53 B 79 A 105 C 131 A 157 D 186 A
2 C 28 C 54 A 80 D 106 D 132 C 158 B 187 A
3 C 29 C 55 B 81 A 107 A 133 A 159 B 188 D
4 A 30 B 56 B 82 B 108 A 134 B 160 A 189 B
5 B 31 C 57 A 83 b 109 A 135 C 161 B 190 A
6 B 32 C 58 B 84 B 110 B 136 B 162 B 191 B
7 B 33 B 59 B 85 A 111 A 137 A 163 B 192 B
8 C 34 D 60 B 86 A 112 D 138 B 164 B 193 C
9 A 35 C 61 C 87 D 113 B 139 B 165 D 194 C
10 B 36 A 62 D 88 A 114 B 140 A 166 C 195 D
11 D 37 A 63 C 89 D 115 C 141 A 167 A 196 C
12 C 38 B 64 D 90 A 116 B 142 c 168 B 197 C
13 C 39 A 65 A 91 A 117 C 143 D 169 B 198 B
14 B 40 C 66 D 92 D 118 C 144 B 170 B 199 A
15 B 41 A 67 C 93 A 119 A 145 A 172 B 200 D
16 D 42 C 68 A 94 C 120 B 146 C 173 B 201 D
17 D 43 C 69 B 95 C 121 A 147 B 174 A 202 B
18 C 44 A 70 C 96 B 122 D 148 A 175 D 203 C
19 A 45 A 71 D 97 B 123 B 149 B 176 C 204 C
20 C 46 C 72 B 98 B 177 C
21 B 47 D 73 B 99 A 124 A 150 C 178 C 205 A
22 D 48 C 74 C 100 D 125 B 151 C 179 B 206 A
23 B 49 D 75 B 101 D 126 D 152 C 180 B 207 D
24 C 50 A 76 B 102 D 127 D 153 a 182 C 208 B
25 D 51 B 77 A 103 A 128 A 154 B 183 B 209 C
26 C 52 a 78 c 104 A 129 A 155 D 184 D 210 C
130 d 156 c 185 c 211 A
 S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans
S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans 316 A 342 C 368 C 394 C
212 C 238 A 264 A 290 D 317 A 343 C 369 C 395 B
213 C 239 A 265 D 291 A 318 C 344 B 370 C 396 A
214 A 240 B 266 C 292 B 319 C 345 D 371 C 397 B
215 D 241 B 267 A 293 C 320 C 346 A 372 B 398 B
216 B 242 C 268 C 294 B 321 C 347 A 373 B 399 A
217 B 243 A 269 A 295 B 322 B 348 D 374 A 400 D
218 A 244 B 270 C 296 A 323 B 349 D 375 D 401 C
219 C 245 D 271 C 297 B 324 C 350 D 376 C 402 C
220 C 246 D 272 C 298 A 325 B 351 B 377 B 403 A
221 A 247 C 273 B 299 B 326 A 352 C 378 A 404 D
222 B 248 A 274 A 300 A 327 B 353 C 379 C 405 A
223 C 249 C 275 B 301 D 328 B 354 B 380 C 406 A
224 C 250 C 276 C 302 B 329 D 355 B 381 B 407 D
225 B 251 B 277 B 303 A 330 C 356 C 382 B 408 A
226 C 252 B 278 B 304 B 331 A 357 B 383 D 409 B
227 C 253 B 279 B 305 C 332 D 358 C 384 D 410 C
228 B 254 C 280 B 306 B 333 D 359 B 385 B 411 D
229 B 255 D 281 B 307 B 334 B 360 B 386 B 412 C
230 A 256 B 282 B 308 D 335 C 361 A 387 D 413 D
231 A 257 C 283 D 309 C 336 D 362 D 388 C 414 A
232 A 258 C 284 C 310 A 337 B 363 C 389 C 415 A
233 C 259 D 285 C 311 C 338 A 364 B 390 D 416 C
234 C 260 A 286 C 312 B 339 C 365 C 391 C 417 B
235 A 261 A 287 C 313 D 340 D 366 A 392 B 418 A
236 A 262 A 288 C 314 A 341 B 367 A 393 B 419 D
237 A 263 B 289 A 315 A
S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans
420 C 446 D 472 A 498 D 524 A 550 A 576 A 602 B
421 C 447 C 473 D 499 A 525 B 551 C 577 C 603 A
422 C 448 D 474 D 500 D 526 A 552 D 578 A 604 D
423 C 449 A 475 B 501 C 527 B 553 C 579 C 605 B
424 A 450 C 476 C 502 A 528 A 554 A 580 D 606 A
425 A 451 D 477 A 503 B 529 A 555 A 581 D 607 B
426 B 452 B 478 C 504 C 530 B 556 A 582 C 608 B
427 A 453 C 479 A 505 C 531 D 557 C 583 A 609 A
428 A 454 D 480 B 506 A 532 C 558 B 584 B 610 C
429 A 455 A 481 C 507 C 533 A 559 C 585 A 611 D
430 A 456 C 482 A 508 C 534 D 560 D 586 D 612 B
431 A 457 B 483 C 509 C 535 A 561 C 587 C 613 B
432 B 458 D 484 A 510 A 536 B 562 C 588 B 614 B
433 C 459 C 485 B 511 A 537 A 563 D 589 C 615 C
434 A 460 C 486 A 512 A 538 C 564 D 590 D 616 B
435 A 461 A 487 C 513 B 539 A 565 A 591 C 617 B
436 A 462 B 488 B 514 C 540 B 566 D 592 A 618 A
437 A 463 B 489 A 515 B 541 C 567 C 593 B 619 B
438 A 464 C 490 B 516 C 542 D 568 A 594 A 620 B
439 C 465 C 491 A 517 B 543 A 569 A 595 A 621 A
440 A 466 A 492 D 518 D 544 C 570 C 596 B 622 A
441 D 467 A 493 C 519 D 545 B 571 A 597 A 623 C
442 D 468 B 494 D 520 A 546 A 572 B 598 A 624 A
443 B 469 C 495 D 521 A 547 A 573 D 599 B 625 B
444 A 470 C 496 B 522 C 548 A 574 C 600 A 626 C
445 c 471 b 497 a 523 b 549 A 575 C 601 d 627 B
S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans
628 C 654 B 680 B 706 B 732 C 758 A 785 B 811 A
629 A 655 C 681 C 707 A 733 B 759 D 786 A 812 D
630 A 656 A 682 D 708 B 734 B 760 D 787 B 813 B
631 B 657 A 683 B 709 C 735 C 761 D 788 D 814 A
632 A 658 C 684 D 710 D 736 B 762 A 789 B 815 D
633 A 659 D 685 C 711 D 737 C 763 A 790 C 816 A
634 B 660 C 686 A 712 D 738 C 764 C 791 D 817 B
635 B 661 A 687 C 713 A 739 A 765 C 792 C 818 B
636 A 662 D 688 B 714 C 740 B 766 A 793 C 819 D
637 B 663 C 689 B 715 B 741 D 767 D 794 B 820 B
638 B 664 B 690 B 716 B 742 D 768 D 795 D 821 B
639 D 665 B 691 A 717 A 743 B 769 C 796 D 822 C
640 A 666 D 692 D 718 D 744 D 770 A 797 A 823 C
641 A 667 B 693 D 719 A 745 B 771 B 798 A 824 A
642 C 668 B 694 B 720 B 746 C 772 A 799 C 825 D
643 D 669 D 695 A 721 A 747 C 773 D 800 B 826 C
644 B 670 C 696 D 722 B 748 A 774 A 801 D 827 B
645 B 671 D 697 B 723 B 749 B 775 D 802 B 828 D
646 C 672 D 698 D 724 A 750 B 776 A 803 B 829 B
647 C 673 D 699 B 725 B 751 B 778 A 804 A 830 C
648 C 674 B 700 A 726 A 752 C 779 A 805 B 831 C
649 C 675 A 701 B 727 D 753 A 780 A 806 A 832 D
650 A 676 D 702 D 728 A 754 B 781 A 807 C 833 B
651 D 677 B 703 B 729 B 755 C 782 B 808 B 834 C
652 B 678 D 704 D 730 C 756 C 783 B 809 C 835 B
653 d 679 a 705 D 731 C 757 d 784 B 810 D 836 D
S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans
837 B 863 B 889 B 915 C 941 B 967 C 993 B 1019 C
838 C 864 C 890 D 916 B 942 C 968 B 994 D 1020 A
839 C 865 A 891 B 917 B 943 A 969 B 995 B 1021 C
840 B 866 C 892 B 918 A 944 B 970 C 996 D 1022 C
841 D 867 C 893 C 919 B 945 A 971 C 997 D 1023 B
842 C 868 D 894 C 920 B 946 A 972 C 998 A 1024 C
843 C 869 D 895 C 921 A 947 C 973 D 999 A 1025 B
844 C 870 C 896 C 922 A 948 C 974 C 1000 C 1026 D
845 C 871 D 897 C 923 A 949 A 975 B 1001 D 1027 A
846 B 872 C 898 B 924 B 950 B 976 C 1002 D 1028 C
847 A 873 C 899 B 925 C 951 C 977 B 1003 C 1029 C
848 C 874 A 900 C 926 D 952 D 978 B 1004 D 1030 C
849 B 875 B 901 B 927 D 953 B 979 C 1005 B 1031 B
850 B 876 D 902 B 928 C 954 B 980 C 1006 A 1032 B
851 B 877 C 903 B 929 B 955 A 981 A 1007 C 1033 D
852 C 878 C 904 A 930 B 956 A 982 C 1008 B 1034 B
853 C 879 B 905 C 931 C 957 C 983 A 1009 A 1035 C
854 B 880 A 906 D 932 D 958 B 984 A 1010 B 1036 B
855 B 881 B 907 C 933 D 959 A 985 C 1011 B 1037 B
856 B 882 B 908 B 934 C 960 B 986 D 1012 B 1038 D
857 C 883 A 909 A 935 B 961 A 987 A 1013 B 1039 B
858 C 884 C 910 C 936 C 962 C 988 B 1014 C 1040 D
859 C 885 C 911 D 937 B 963 A 989 B 1015 A 1041 D
860 B 886 D 912 B 938 B 964 A 990 A 1016 C 1042 C
861 C 887 D 913 A 939 D 965 D 991 D 1017 C 1043 C
862 B 888 C 914 B 940 C 966 C 992 A 1018 A 1044 A
S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans
1045 B 1071 B 1097 D 1124 C S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans
1046 B 1072 A 1098 D 1125 A 1151 B 1177 D 1203 B 1229 B
1047 B 1073 D 1099 A 1126 A 1152 C 1178 C 1204 C 1230
1048 C 1074 B 1100 C 1127 B 1153 C 1179 A 1205 A 1231 C
1049 B 1075 A 1101 C 1128 A 1154 B 1180 D 1206 B 1232 A
1050 A 1076 C 1102 B 1129 B 1155 D 1181 D 1207 B 1233 B
1051 A 1077 D 1103 A 1130 D 1156 C 1182 C 1208 D 1234 D
1052 D 1078 C 1104 A 1131 C 1157 D 1183 C 1209 B 1235 A
1132 D 1158 B 1184 D 1210 A 1236 B
1053 C 1079 B 1105 C 1133 A 1159 C 1185 C 1211 C 1237 B
1054 C 1080 A 1106 A 1134 D 1160 B 1186 A 1212 B 1238 A
1055 B 1081 A 1107 D 1135 B 1161 B 1187 C 1213 D 1239 D
1056 C 1082 A 1108 A 1136 B 1162 B 1188 C 1214 D 1240 B
1057 A 1083 D 1109 C 1137 A 1163 A 1189 B 1215 D 1241 D
1058 A 1084 C 1110 A 1138 B 1164 B 1190 B 1216 B 1242 B
1059 B 1085 D 1112 B 1139 B 1165 A 1191 C 1217 D 1243 B
1060 D 1086 B 1113 A 1140 C 1166 C 1192 A 1218 A 1244 D
1061 D 1087 C 1114 B 1141 C 1167 A 1193 A 1219 C
1062 D 1088 A 1115 B 1142 C 1168 B 1194 A 1220 B
1063 C 1089 A 1116 C 1143 C 1169 B 1195 C 1221 D
1064 B 1090 B 1117 B 1144 C 1170 B 1196 C 1222 B
1065 D 1091 A 1118 D 1145 B 1171 A 1197 D 1223 A
1066 A 1092 A 1119 C 1146 B 1172 A 1198 D 1224 A
1067 B 1093 C 1120 C 1147 A 1173 D 1199 A 1225 D
1068 D 1094 B 1121 C 1148 B 1174 B 1200 D 1226 C
1069 B 1095 A 1122 B 1149 C 1175 D 1201 A 1227 C
1070 C 1096 A 1123 C 1150 A 1176 B 1202 B 1228 C
S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans
1245 B 1271 A 1297 A 1323 C 1349 - 1375 B 1401 B 1427 D
1246 D 1272 C 1298 A 1324 C 1350 D 1376 D 1402 B 1428 A
1247 D 1273 B 1299 C 1325 C 1351 D 1377 C 1403 D 1429 A
1248 C 1274 C 1300 C 1326 B 1352 B 1378 D 1404 A 1430 A
1249 C 1275 C 1301 A 1327 C 1353 C 1379 C 1405 A 1431 B
1250 B 1276 C 1302 B 1328 B 1354 B 1380 D 1406 B 1432 B
1251 B 1277 B 1303 B 1329 C 1355 A 1381 D 1407 B 1433 C
1252 A 1278 A 1304 B 1330 B 1356 B 1382 D 1408 C 1434 B
1253 B 1279 A 1305 B 1331 A 1357 B 1383 D 1409 B 1435 C
1254 B 1280 B 1306 C 1332 A 1358 B 1384 C 1410 C 1436 B
1255 C 1281 D 1307 C 1333 B 1359 A 1385 C 1411 C 1437 B
1256 C 1282 C 1308 A 1334 B 1360 C 1386 B 1412 D 1438 C
1257 B 1283 C 1309 A 1335 B 1361 B 1387 A 1413 B 1439 A
1258 C 1284 D 1310 A 1336 A 1362 B 1388 B 1414 A 1440 A
1259 A 1285 C 1311 B 1337 D 1363 A 1389 B 1415 C 1441 C
1260 A 1286 B 1312 B 1338 D 1364 D 1390 A 1416 C 1442 C
1261 D 1287 D 1313 D 1339 B 1365 A 1391 B 1417 A 1443 B
1262 C 1288 D 1314 B 1340 C 1366 D 1392 B 1418 A 1444 C
1263 C 1289 D 1315 B 1341 C 1367 C 1393 B 1419 B 1445 B
1264 B 1290 B 1316 C 1342 C 1368 B 1394 D 1420 B 1446 B
1265 B 1291 D 1317 C 1343 B 1369 D 1395 A 1421 C 1447 B
1266 A 1292 C 1318 A 1344 A 1370 C 1396 B 1422 C 1448 B
1267 B 1293 B 1319 B 1345 A 1371 B 1397 B 1423 B 1449 B
1268 C 1294 A 1320 B 1346 B 1372 B 1398 D 1424 B 1450 A
1269 A 1295 C 1321 C 1347 B 1373 A 1399 B 1425 D 1451 B
1270 C 1296 C 1322 C 1348 C 1374 C 1400 A 1426 C 1452 D
S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans S.n. Ans
1453 B 1479 A 1505 C 1531 D 1557 A 1583 B
1454 C 1480 D 1506 C 1532 C 1558 D 1584 D
1455 D 1481 C 1507 A 1533 B 1559 A 1585 A
1456 A 1482 A 1508 C 1534 A 1560 C 1586 A
1457 A 1483 B 1509 A 1535 C 1561 B 1587 A
1458 C 1484 B 1510 B 1536 C 1562 A 1588 D
1459 D 1485 B 1511 C 1537 D 1563 D 1589 D
1460 C 1512 B 1538 D 1564 C 1590 C
1461 B 1487 C 1513 D 1539 C 1565 C 1591 B
1462 D 1488 A 1514 D 1540 C 1566 A 1592 D
1463 A 1489 C 1515 B 1541 D 1567 D 1593 C
1464 B 1490 D 1516 A 1542 D 1568 B 1594 D
1465 B 1491 B 1517 C 1543 A 1569 C 1595 B
1466 D 1492 A 1518 B 1544 A 1570 C 1596 A
1467 D 1493 A 1519 C 1545 C 1571 B 1597 C
1468 B 1494 B 1520 D 1546 C 1572 B 1598 D
1469 A 1495 C 1521 C 1547 B 1573 D 1599 A
1470 A 1496 B 1522 B 1548 C 1574 D 1600 D
1471 D 1497 C 1523 B 1549 A 1575 A
1472 C 1498 A 1524 C 1550 D 1576 D
1473 D 1499 A 1525 D 1551 C 1577 B
1474 A 1500 B 1526 D 1552 C 1578 A
1475 C 1501 C 1527 C 1553 D 1579 D
1476 A 1502 C 1528 D 1554 A 1580 C
1477 A 1503 C 1529 B 1555 B 1581 C
1504 d 1530 B 1556 A 1582 D