Chapter 1

General question

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1) Donor blood 2-week-old blood characterized by low…
a) Protein.
b) Anticoagulant.
c) Hb.
d) Fibrinogen

2) Not use fatty acid as energy…

a) Brain.
b) Heart muscles.
c) Skeletal muscles.
d) Liver.

3) The best anticoagulant for whole blood is …

a) EDTA.
b) Heparin.
c) Sodium chloride.
d) Sodium citrate.

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4) Which of the following should be collected for a CBC analysis?
a) RBCs
b) Serum
c) Plasma
d) Whole blood

5) A 30 year old female come to the emergency department with tiredness.

Headache, and weakness. A blood sample was taken from the arm with an IV
infusion.
a) Unmixed sample
b) Clotted sample
c) Diluted sample
d) Old sample

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6) Which of the following specimens is used for viral diagnosis of respiratory
tract infection?
a) Conjunctiva swab
b) Cerebrospinal fluid
c) Stool sample
d) Nasal swab (a nasal aspirate)

7) Which of the following is found in the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic

hormone?
a) Hypernatremia
b) Hypovolemia
c) Hypoprotinemia
d) Hyperglaycimia

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8) Which of the following fungi can be stained by gram staining
a) Candida albicans

b) Aspergillus
c) Trichophyton
d) Penicillium species

9) What can be diagnosis by determine the PTH level?

a) Hypercalcemia
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Hyperlipidemia
d) Hyperkalemia

10) What is the most likely organism?

a) Escherichia coli
b) Protus vulgar
c) Nesseria gonorrhoeae
d) Pseudomonas

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11) Which of the following analyte is separated with thin layer
chromatography?
a) Non-volatile mixtures
b) Hormones
c) Electrolytes

12) Which of the following is used grow virus in the laboratory?

a) Neutrant agar
b) Blood agar
c) Nutrient agar
d) Tissue culture

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13) Falling ph. in asthmatic patient…
a) Respiratory acidosis
b) Respiratory alkalosis
c) Metabolic acidosis
d) Metabolic alkalosis

14) Common cause of bacterial diarrhea

a) Campylobacter jejune
b) Campylobacter fetus
c) Campylobacter fetus
d) Campylobacter fetus

15) The universal blood donor is

a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O

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16) The universal recipient is
a) A
b) B
c) AB
d) O

17) PCR probe length is

a) 20-200 bp. f
b) 10-200 bp. f
c) 20-100 bp. f
d) 20-500 bp. F

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18) Volumetric pipette?
a) Extremely accurate.
b) .
c) .
d) .

19) Which of the following leukocyte responses for parasitic & allergic reaction.
a) Neutrophil
b) Monocyte
c) Basophile
d) Eosinophil

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20) Which of the following organism appear in gram stained film as a chain?
a) Gonococci
b) Streptococci
c) Staphylococci
d) Meningococci

21) What is the streptolycin O?

a) Pilli
b) Flagella
c) Endotoxin
d) Exotoxin

22) A 45 year old-male come to blood donating center. His past medical history
confirmed that he previously had been infected with hepatitis B surface antigen
- How long is deferral period?
a) 2 week
b) One month
c) Three years
d) Permanent

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23) In a sandwich reaction with an ELIZA. Which of the following is attached to
solid phase?
a) Patient Ag
b) Patient Ab
c) Specific Ag
d) Specific Ab

24) A 25 year old patient has O blood group, and a request for two unit packed
RBCs has been received.
Which blood group should be used in the cross match?
a) A
b) A or B
c) O
d) AB

25) What dose quality control sample check out

a) Stander
b) Reproductivety
c) Sample blank
d) Reagent blank

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26) What should be the first measure an individual should take after swalling an acid
or alkali?
a) Immediately rinse a mouth with water and neutralize with suitable chemical
b) Put the acid or alkali away from the patient
c) Transfer the patient to another area
d) Calm the patient down

27) Which of the following gel separate large DNA fragment?

a) Agarose
b) Cellulose Acetate sodium
c) Denaturation polyacrylamide
d) Dodecyl sulfate polyacrylamide

28) In apostive anti-streptolysin O test which of the following

result can be confirmed
a) Agglutination
b) No Agglutination
c) Hemolysis
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 d) No heamolysis

29) Which of amino acid produce vasodilator on decarboxylation

a) Glutamic acid
b) Histadine
c) Ornithine
d) Cystin

30) Appositive coombs test may be caused by which of the following?

a) Marked reteculocytosis
b) Intravascular hemolysis
c) Congestive heart fuler
d) An autoantibody on the red cells surface

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31) Neisseria
a) Intracellular neutrophil G-ve rod
b) Intracellular neutrophile G+ve rod
c) Intracellular neutrophile G+ve cocci
d) Intracellular neutrophile G-ve cocci

32) The most common causes of amoebic dysentery is

a) Ascaris lumbercoid
b) Trichuris trichura
c) G. lambleia
d) E. histolytica

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33) Sever high reticulocyte see in
a) A plastic anemia
b) Iron defency
c) Hereditary hemolytic anemia
d) Megaloblastic anemia

34) RBCs indicate by the arrows in this illustration are

a) Over drying of blood smear
b) Rouleax formation
c) Cold agglutination
d) Sickle cell

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35) RBCs indicate by the arrows in this illustration are
e) Over drying of blood smear
f) Rouleax formation
g) Cold agglutination
h) Sickle cell

36) Which of the following organism is motile at room temp?

a) Listeria monocytogenes
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Nocardia
d) None of the above

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37) Basophilic stippling most frequently seen
a) Thalassemia
b) Sickle cell anemia
c) G6PD (‫انيميا الفول‬
d) Vit B12 deficiency

38) Sites on antigen which antibody’s react are called

a) Receptor
b) FC receptor
c) TLC
d) Epitope

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39) Which of the following is correct
a) We should give every sensitized women anti-e
b) We should give every sensitized women anti-E
c) We should give every sensitized women anti-D
d) We should give every sensitized women anti-C

40) listeria meningitis is

a) Gram positive rods
b) Gram positive cocci
c) Gram negative rods
d) Gram negative cocci

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41) Picture of blood agar show growth of G+ cocci B-heamolytic identify …
a) Staph oureus
b) Sterptopyogen
c) Staphpyogen
d) Sterptoureus

42) PCV divided by RBCs to calculate

a) MCV
b) MCH
c) MCHC
d) HB

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43) Media contain inhibitor such as dye or antibiotic is?
a) Differential media
b) Selective media
c) Enriched media
d) Enrichment media

44) The infective stage of chlamydia?

a) Reticulate bodies
b) Elementary bodies
c) Egg
d) Trophozoite

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45) Amount of ATP at glucose metabolism
a) 10 pb
b) 30pb
c) 100pb
d) 500pb

46) Blood agar are

a) Enrichment and differential
b) Enrichment and differential
c) Enrichment and differential
d) Enrichment and differential

47) Normal In urine

a) Chloride
b) Glucose
c) Protein
d) Acetone

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48) Causes wound infection
a) S. aureus
b) S. aureus
c) S. aureus
d) S. aureus

49) Precision
a) Random error
50) Accuracy
a) Systemic error

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51) HCG used to diagnosis
a) tumer marker
b) Finding protin
c) Pregnancy test
d) tumer marker

52) Parasite cause crescent shape of RBCs?

a) P. falciparum
b) P. malaria
c) P. oval
d) P. vivax

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53) Germ tube test used for diagnosis of?
a) Candida albicans
b) Nematode
c) Hemophilia
d) Hemophilia

54) The life Spain of RBCs

a) 90-120
b) 70-100
c) 60-190
d) 90-200

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55) Urine after two hour?
a) Reject
b) Accept
c) Accept
d) Accept

56) Final product of anaerobic pathway of glucose?

a) Lactate
b) Sucrose
c) Fructose
d) Amino acid

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57) What type of water in most quantity lab & some quality lab?
a) Type i
b) Type ii
c) Type iii
d) Tap water

58) If infant has Rh+ve & mother RH-ve must give

a) Anti-D immunoglubin
b) Anti-E immunoglubin
c) Anti-C immunoglubin
d) Anti-e immunoglubin

59) RBCs stored for years by add?

a) Glycerol ‫جيل‬
b) EDTA
c) CPDA
d) Heparin

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60) DNA strand that
a) 5 prim-3prim
b) 10 prim-3prim
c) 5 prim-10prim
d) 4prim-5prim

61) To differentiate between major and minor sickle cell anemia

a) Hemoglobin
b) PCV
c) Osmatic fragility test
d) Electrophoresis

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62) Which of the following organism are capsulated
a) E.coli
b) Salmonella
c) Streptococci
d) Klebsiella

63) Dimorphic fangi

a) Yeast and mold
b) Yeast and mold
c) Yeast and mold
d) Yeast and mold

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64) The sickle test depends on which of the following?
a. RBC count
b. Solubility of HB S.
c. Reticulocyte count
d. Hb concentration of the patien.

65) Which of following is included in the functions of neutrophils?

a. Granule Circulation
b. Antibodies reaction.
c. Diapedesis is for chemotaxis
d. Immunoglobin production

66) The prolactin hormone functions to stimulate which of

following?
a. Saliva secretion
b. Mucous secretion
c. Milk secretion.
d. Sweat secretion.

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67) Some patient’s platelets clump in EDTA or satellite, making
platelet counts falsely low?
How should this be correct?
a. Mix the sample
b. Warm the sample
c. Do manual count
d. Use sodium citrate tube.

68) Which is the following blood collecting tubes could be used for serological
test?
a. Plain tube.
b. EDTA tube
c. Sodium citrate tube
d. Lithium heparin tube

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69) Which is the following organ synthesized and secreted high-density
lipoproteins?
a. Pancreas
b. Kidney
c. Muscle
d. Liver.

70) Which of the following is first viral marker detected after hepatitis B
infection?
a. HBsAg
b. HBsAb.
c. HBcAg
d. Anti-HBc

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71) What is the color of the label sample of hepatitis C patient?
a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Orange

72) Which reagent is used in the oxidase test?

a. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Acetyl methyl carbinol
c. Tetramethyl para-phenylenediamine- dihydrocholoride
d. Pomasum hydrozde (KOH)

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73) Which of the following sample will be rejected from the laboratory?
a. Grossly cleared.
b. Labeled as dangerous.
c. Insufficient in quantity.
d. Patient identification labels.

74) Which of the following blood sample is required for glucose estimation in
an emergency situation?
a. Four sample after every half and hour.
b. Postprandial (2 hours)
c. Fasting (8 hours)
d. Random.

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75) Which of the following health hazard is associated with ethylene oxide?
a. Irritant.
b. Carcinogen.
c. Nophrotoxin.
d. Hepatotoxin.

76) Which of the following indicates standard PCR steps?

a. Denaturation, annealing and Extension.
b. Denaturation, annealing and ligation.
c. Denaturation, annealing.
d. Denaturation and ligation.

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77) Which of the following is the best laboratory test for neonatal
primary hypothyroidism?
a. Free T3
b. Free T4
c. Thyroid Binding Globuli.
d. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH).

78) 26-A blood donor comes to the blood Donation center. He says he
wishes to donate blood. An examination of both arms there were skin
lesions.
-What is the next step to be taken?
a. Ask donor to return from donation after 2 weeks

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79) When blood clot forms inappropriately inside a blood vessel,
what is that process called?
a. Hemostasis
b. Thrombosis.
c. Hematopoiesis
d. Blood coagulation

80) Before taking blood from a donor the phlebotomist routinely inspects
blood bag.
-What is the most important item to be inspected?............
a. Defects
b. Expiry date.
c. Capacity
d. Anticoagulant.

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81) Transfer amino acid to site of protein synthesis?
a. tRNA.
b. mRNA.
c. rRNA.
d. tDNA.

82) Antigens which can directly stimulate the B cell to produce antibody
without the requirement for T cell help is?
a. Thymus independent.
b. T- independent antigens.
c. T- dependent antigens.

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83) Hormone that stimulates secretion of free fatty acids is:
a. Estradiol.

84) …………………. Are stored at 20-25 C for 5 days:

a. Platelets
b. RBCs
c. WBCs

85) Which of the following sampling error can result in a falsely

elevated potassium level?
a. Hemolysis
b. Timing error
c. Contamination
d. Interfering substance

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86) Which of the following organism produce macroconidia and microconidia?
a. Bactria
b. Viruses
c. Yeasts
d. Filamentous fungi.

87) What is the most common method of automated immunoassay?

a. Nepholometry
b. Atoic absorption
c. Spectrophotometer
d. Chemiuminescence

88) Which of the following technique is commonly used for hormonal estimation?
a. Electrophoresis.
b. Flamphotometery.
c. Immune diffusion.
d. Microscopy.

89) Transmission of which of the following cause schistosoma hematobium infection?

a. Ingestion of Oocyst
b. Ingestion of egg

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 c. Penetration of the skin by cercaria
d. Penetration of the skin by cysticerus

90) What is the high specific diagnostic test for ANA?

a. RIBA
b. Immunofluorescence
c. Reverse passive agglutination
d. Agglutination inhibition

91) A request for ABO typing has been received; a blood Bank technician has started the procedure of forward
groping by labeling the test tubes.
Which of the following is the correct sequence to be followed befor reading the result?
a. Add cells, add antisera, spin and mix
b. Add plasma, add cells, spin and mix
c. Add Serum, add antisera, spin and mix
d. Addantisera, add cells, spin and mix

92) Which of the following is the standard cycle of autoclaving?

a. 20 Lb pressure, 100 C temperature for 10 minutes
b. 15 Lb pressure, 121 C temperature for 15 minutes
c. 10 Lb pressure, 130 C temperature for 15 minutes

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 d. 05 Lb pressure, 140 C temperature for 30 minutes

93) Calculate the MCHC given in this data?

RBC 4.63x1012. - hemoglobin 15 g/dl - Hct 45 %
a. 30
b. 33
c. 35
d. 37

94) The technician left the tourniquet on for more than the recommended time period. Which of the following will be
falsely increased in the blood sample?
a. Sodium.
b. Glucose
c. Protein
d. Triglyceride

95) Which of the foiling is the most convenient time for cortisol blood sampling?
a. At 8 am and 10 pm
b. At 8 am and 4 pm
c. At 8 am and 8 pm.
d. At 2 am and 4 pm

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96) Which part of the virus is detected by PCR
a. Antigen
b. Viral particles
c. DNA
d. Envelope.

97) What does an indirect ELISA technique detect?

a. Antigen to virus and parasites.
b. Antigens as protein and drugs.
c. Epitope.
d. Label.

98) The word "decontamination" is used with which of the following?

a. Disinfection of removal of a living organism
b. Reduction of Gram-negative Bactria
c. Increased Gram-negative Bactria
d. Damage of spores and capsules

99) Which is the following organ synthesized and secreted high density lipoproteins?
a. Brain
b. Muscle

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 c. Liver
d. Stomach

100) Which of the following enzymes is stable with refrigerated at 4c for 24 hours?
a. Peroxidase.
b. Creatin kinase.
c. Valtase.
d. Aspartate Aminotransferase.

101) Positive stranded RNA in viruses acts as which of the following?

a. Viral RNA
b. DNA-dependent RNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. tRNA

102) Which of the following statements best describes fungi?

a. Has one chromosome
b. Reproduce by binary fission
c. Cell wall made of peptedoolycan
d. Have 805 ribosomes

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103) What could be used to determine the osmolality of serum and urine?
a. Osmometter
b. Colorimeter
c. Turbidemetery
d. Chemiumnescence

104) Which of the following are the chocolate agar containing vancomycin, colistin, nystatin and trimethoprim?
a. EMP agar
b. Skirrows media
c. Thayer-Martin agar
d. Columba MBA agar

105) A patient attending Emergency Department was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (see lab results.)
Urine analysis.
Test Result
Gram Stain Gram -ve rods
Glucose Fermented
Nitrates Reduced to Nitrites
Oxidase Negative
• What is the most likely organism?
a. Escherichia coli.
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 b. Proteus vulgars
c. Nessere gonorrhoeae
d. Pseudomonas aerugnosa

106) What does a urine collection container include?

a. Acid
b. Sedum fluoride
c. EDTA
d. Heparin

107) Examination of sample from which of the following is best done for the diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhea in a
female patient?
a. Vaginal discharge
b. Blood
c. Urine
d. Cervix

108) Which of the following a gonadotropic hormone?

a. LH
b. TSH
c. T4

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 d. Prolactin

109) Which of the following physical hazard is associated with ethanol?

a. Explosive
b. Flammable
c. Irritant
d. Oxidizer

110) Which of the following is pre-analytical error?

a. Improper preparation of patient
b. Calibration
c. Record
d. Interpretation of the data

111) Which of the following is post-analytical error?

a Improper preparation of patient
b Calibration
c Record
d Interpretation of the data

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112) Which of the following reagent is used to perform oxidase test?
a. Tetramethyl para-phenylenediamine- dihydrocholoride
b. alpha naphthylamine
c. Pomasum hydrozde (KOH)
d. Para d-methyl ammo bent-aldehyde

113) Which of the following organism produces " mycelium"?

a. Parasite.
b. Filamintus fungi.
c. Viruses.
d. Bactria.

114) A 30-year-old male comes to blood Donation center, the donor was fit for donation and 500 ml of blood is
collected. this unit of blood was unsuitable for platelets transfusions.
What is the most likely cause?
a Platelets unit was not irradiated
b The draw time was longer that the 20 minutes.
c Platelets prepared 5 hours after collecting time.
d Platelets was not prepared by plateletphoress

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115) ABO typing on patient indicates a subgroup of the A blood group. Which reagent should be used to resolve an A
subgroup?
a Anti-A
b Anti-A1
c Anti-D
d Anti-E

116) While cross-matching ABO blood types, what test is used to determine when cells are coated with antibodies?
a Direct coombs test.
b Indirect comb test.

117) What phase does quality control assess?

a Analytical
b Post analytical
c Pre analytical
d extra-analytical

118) Which of the following viruses is classified as a paramyxovirus?

a Mumps
b H5N1
c Rhino

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 d Influenza

119) Which of the following parasites is a significant intestinal protozoon to human health?
a Entamoeba histolytica
b Lumbercodes
c Facola hepatica
d Tama sauna.

120) Which of the following fraction of bilirubin is water soluble and reacts with diazo reagent without adding an
accelerator?
a Unconjugated
b Conjugated
c Total
d Indrect.

121) Which of the following techniques is commonly used for hormonal estimations?
a Microscope
b Electrophoresis
c Flamphotometery
d Immune diffusion

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122) Which of the following is resistant to penicillin?
a Cyanobactere
b Mycoplasmas
c Spirochaetes
d Vibrios

123) What is the specific stain for DNA zone in electrophoresis?

a Ponceaus.
b Amido black.
c Ethidium bromide.
d Coomassie brilliant blue.

124) Which of the following phase is the most problematic in a Laboratory test?
a Analytical
b Pre- analytical
c Post- analytical
d Extra-analytical

125) What is the difference between plasma and A ?

a Fibrinogen
b Transferrin

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 c Turbid colour ask
d Ceruleplasmn

126) For inoculation or plating of bacteria on of bacteria on arm agar plate, which of the following should be used?
a A loop with handle
b A hand finger
c A pencil
d A needle

127) Patient is experiencing glucosuria (glucose in urine). An excess of which hormone could be the cause?
a Glucagon
b Calcitonin
c Somatostatin
d Antidiuretic hormones

128) Which is the compound of choice for fixation of blood films for hematological examination?
a Acetone
b Propanol.
c Methanol.
d acid – alcohol

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129) lieshimenia diagnostic by?
a Blood film
b Stool
c Urine
d CSF

130) Polychromatic non nucleated red cell called ...?

a Reticulocyte
b Erythrocyte
c Pronormoblast
d Late normoblast

131) Adult stage and sexual development in the......host:

a Definitive host
b Intermediate host
c All of the above
d None the above

132) CPDA1 anticoagulant to store blood for:

a 42 day
b 35 day

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 c 21 day
d 10 day

133) Which of the following cause cerebral malaria?

a Plasmodium malaria
b Plasmodium falciparum
c Plasmodium ovali
d Plasmodium vivax

134) Glycatedhemoglobin test is show the level of glucose during

a 8-12 weeks
b 2 months
c 1 years
d 3 years

135) Enzyme elevated in acute pancreatitis is?

a SGPT
b B-amylase
c CKmb
d Lipase

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136) What is the type of reaction for alanine transaminase measurement activity?
a End points colorimetric.
b End points enzymatic.
c Kinetics.
d Potentiomehic.

137) What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for CRP?

a Western blot
b Immunofluorescence.
c Reverse passive agglutination.
d Agglutination inhibition reaction.

138) 0.025 gm equal to?

a 25 mg
b 2.5 mg
c 0.25 mg
d 2500 mg

139) Hormone stimulate adrenal cortex hormone?

a ACTH
b Aldosterone
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 c Testesterone
140) 1 g agarose in 100%...?
a 10 gm agarose powder in 100m1.
b 1gm agarose powder in 100m1.
c 1gm agarose powder in 10 ml.
d 100g agarose powder in 100 ml.

141) In preschool children with high fever and meningitis caused by:
a Heamophilus Infleunzae.

142) The body obtain energy from lipid or protein called.

a Glycolysis
b Glycolgenesis
c Gluconeogenesis
d Glucogenisis

143) The action of sodium fluoride is...?

a Increase glycolysis
b Decrease glycolysis
c Inhibit glycolysis

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 d Increase gluconeogenesis

144) Reed-Sternberg cells are found in cases of '

a Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c Hodgkin's lymphoma

145) In complement fixation test incubation of a patient sera for 30 mints allowed to lyse complement of patient sera
 What is the temperature required in degree centegrate for the incubation?
a 46
b 56
c 66
d 76
146) Positive direct coombs test may be caused by which of the following?
a Marked retrulocylosis
b Intravascular hemolysis
c Congestive heart disease
d An autoantibody in red cell surface

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147) Carbon dioxide is required for primary isolation of which organism?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Streptococcus pneumonia
c) Pseudomonas aerugnosa
d) Enterococcus faecales
148) What is the reagent blank used for in an instrument?
a. Calculation
b. Calibration
c. Linearity check
d. Zeroing the observance

149) Why the monochromatic filter is used for the spectrophotometer?

a. Allow the desired light to reach the sample
b. Eliminate ultraviolet wavelengths of light
c. Inhibit transmission of light
d. Increase luminescence
150) While working up a case of hemolytic disease of a newborn due to Rh incompatibility, a technician would most
likely carry out an indirect Coombs test on which of the following?
a. Newborns serum
b. Newborns RBCs

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 c. Mother s serum
d. Mothers RBCs

151) What could be diagnosed by using modified Zeil-Neelson stain?

a. Entamoeba coli
b. Giardia Iamblia
c. Balantidium coli
d. Cryptosporidium sp.

152) Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

 Organism ---- None motile.
 Catalase test ---- Positive.
 Haemolysis ---- No hemolytic.
a. staphylococcus aureus.
b. Listeria monocytogenes.
c. Streptococcus pyogenes.
d. Corynebacterium diphtheria.

153) Which of the following method is used for quantitative assay of creatinine kinase isoenzyme?
a. atomic absorption spectrophotometer

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 b. Ion-exchange chromatography
c. Flame absorption spectrophotometer
d. Flow cytometry

154) Which of the following structures can be detected by India ink preparation?
a. Spore
b. Capsule
c. Pilli
d. Flagella

155) Cells not contain nucleus.

a. Erythrocyte
b. Leukocyte
c. Platelets
d. blast cell

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156) Which of the following is an example of a selective media?
a. Nutrient agar
b. Nutrient agar
c. Blood agar
d. XLD media

157) A patient with deep subcutaneous tissue was admitted with necrotizing facilities
(See lab result)
Test result
Organism gram +ve cocci
Hemolysis beta
Catalase - ve
Which of the following most likely organism?
a Streptococcus pneumonia.
b Streptococcus lugduness.
c Streptococcus pyogenes.
d Viridians streptococcus.

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158) Which of the following is falsely increased when clenching the first prior to vein puncture?
a Sodium
b Chloride
c Potassium
d Ionized calcium
159) Which of the following light doesa turbidimeter measure?
a Transmission
b Absorbed
c Scatter
d Emitted
160) DAT is used to do what?
a Determine the red cell phenotype
b Demonstrate in vivo ab coating of red cells
c Demonstrate in vitro ab coating of red cells

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161) A 35 y old female complain of irritability, heat intolerance and muscle aches. She also complaining of diarrhea and
irregular heart beat (see lab result)

Test Result NR
TSH 1.2 0.4 – 6.5
T4 200 60- 160
T3 4.5 1.3 – 3.1

a Primary hyperthyroidism
b Secondary hyperthyroidism
c Non- thyroid illness
d T3 thyrotoxicosis
162) A 19 y –old man come to donation center and during donation the donor start to feel faint and nauseous?
a Stop collecting blood for 5 min then contenou.
b Reassurance and continue collecting the blood
c Remove tourniquet and withdraw the needle
d Call blood bank doctor
163) What measured with the arterial blood sample?
a PCo2
b Lipid profile
c Enzymes
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 d Electrolyte
164) Which indicator system can be used in a complement fixation test?
a Lattice
b Substrate
c Human RBCs
d Precipitate

165) Which of the following tests is used for the detection of viral Ab?
a Tissue culture
b PCR
c Hemagglutination
d Immunofluorescence

166) How is the fraction of separated solute detected in high pressure liquid chromatography?
a Visible spectrophotometer.
b UV spectrophotometer.
c Infrared spectrophotometer.
d Electrophoresis.

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167) Which of the following is the most sensitive tests for cardiac troponin?
a Fluorescent –labeled immunoassay
b Chimiluminescence immunoassay
c Enzyme labeled immunoassay
d Spectrophotometer

168) leukemia found in adult over 40 years old?

a AML
b ALL
c CML
d CLL

169) The protein that related with thyroid hormones is

a Prelabumine .
b Albumin.
c Thyroglobin.
d Thyroxin binding globin.

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170) All of these are not true for reticulocytes except:
a. Supravital stain
b. Nucleated RBCs
c. Not contain RNA
d. Decrease in Hemolytic Anemia

171) ACD for blood storage

a 21
b 35
c 42

172) albinism
a Tyrosinase deficiency.

173) Main enzyme for carbohydrate.

a Amylase
b Lipase
c Tyrosinase

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174) One of these has the fastest move through lipid bilayer
a Glucose
b Co2
c K
d Starch

175) Polychromatic non-nucleated cell in blood?

a. Reticulocyte
b. Erythrocyte
c. Pronormoblast
d. Late normoblast

176) AHG is used for detection of

a Complete antibody.
b Complete antibody & antigen.
c Incomplete antibody.
d Incomplete antibody & antigen.

177) Trisomy 21 also known by?

a Down syndrome.

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178) This result of patient may be due to
albumin Decreased
Alpha 1 Decreased
Alpha 2 Increased
Beta Increased
Gamma Decreased
a Immune deficiency
b Chronic infection
c Nephrotic syndrome

179) Cause serious atherosclerosis?

a Cholesterol
b HDL
c LDL
d VLDL

180) Pyrimidine base…

a T G
b A C
c T c

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181) Hemophilia gene
a autosomal recessive
b autosomal dominant
c X. linked recessive
d X. linked dominant

182) Its caused by liver parenchyma damage, the excretion of bile greatly decreased and concentration of bilirubin in
the blood rise:
a Hemolytic jaundice
b Hepatogenous jaundice
c Obstructive jaundice
d None of the above

183) Pattern of inheritance cystic fibrosis

a autosomal recessive
b autosomal dominant
c X. linked recessive
d X. linked dominant

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184) Enzyme affected by hemolysis
a Amylase
b Lipase
c AST
d LDH

185) where is the genetic defect cause familial hypercholesrolemia?

a LDL
b VLDL
c LDLR
d LDH

186) What is the hormone retaining the water and Na and release H+ & K+?
a Androgen.
b GH.
c Aldosterone.
d Cortisol.

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187) To investigation quality assurance within vein puncture should doing this?
a Meet patient and give his name
b Sureness for the correct tubes
c Ask the patient name and birth day
d Sureness the patient.

188) If cannot avoid delayed of CSF culturing should save the specimen at?
a 4c.
b 4-6 c.
c 12-18 c
d 37c

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