UDX Mock test paper 2

Section : English
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence
has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most
appropriate way.
Question:1
Farmers are able to get viable price for this rice in the market.
_______________________________________. The paddy straw, got after the harvest, is almost
double the quantity compared with the normal varieties, he said.
The government has taken the decision after considering the views of the state
A.
governments.

Now after the revision in MSP, the returns of Safflower has been increased to Rs
B.
4,945, providing a 50.1 per cent returns to farmers.

One of the advantages for them is that they do not have to spend on fertilizers or
C.
pesticides

D. He switched over to organic cultivation and traditional varieties over three years ago.
Question:2
One of the most disturbing aspects of the ongoing bad loan saga was that GNPAs officially recognized by
the banks were only the tip of the iceberg. In 2013,
________________________________________________there was another dicey one hidden from
public view because of a cozy arrangement with the borrower to restructure the loan.
A. For all banks was at a comfortable 13.4% as of September 2018.

The immense effort put in by the stakeholders so far is required to be buttressed

B.
with substantive reforms in governance

C. For capital infusions from the government may continue

D. For every bad loan that banks had recognized as NPA

Question:3
Thankfully, elections happen every five years in India. But for that, the word rural, it appears,
____________________. If ‘rural economy’ is the core for India, why is it that the legitimate concerns of
the rural population are sought to be addressed only in the eleventh hour (at almost the end of their
terms) by governments?
would have remained in the realm of a distant memory in the minds of political
A.
masters

B. State-driven institutional support mechanisms for the masses

The word ‘rural’ has become the fulcrum around which the final full-fledged budget
C.
of the NDA-government is structured.

D. is incorrect to indulge in comparisons with developed economies on the subsidy

1
 issue
Question:4
Dark matter is thought to make up most of the mass of the universe. However since it does not interact
with light in the same way as normal matter, it can only be observed through its gravitational effects.
___________________________________________________________. When stars form, strong winds
can push gas and dust away from the heart of the galaxy. As a result, the galaxy’s centre has less mass,
which affects how much gravity is felt by the remaining dark matter.
This spinning motion, at speeds of hundreds of kilometers per second, may cause
A.
matter in the disk to take on a distinctive spiral shape

B. The key to studying it may however lie in how stars are formed in these galaxies

C. Older stars reside in the bulge at the center of the galactic disk

These intergalactic processes may be part of natural evolution by which irregular

D.
galaxies transform into one of the other shapes.
Question: 5
Feeding a hungry planet is growing increasingly difficult as climate change and depletion of land and
other resources undermine food systems, the U.N.F.A.O. said.
_______________________________________________ but increasing farm output is hard given the
“fragility of the natural resource base” since humans have outstripped Earth’s carrying capacity in terms
of land, water and climate change,
A. It's also endangered by civil strife and other conflicts.

B. adequately nourishing diets for a variety of reasons

C. Population growth requires supplies of more nutritious food at affordable prices

Increasing farm output beyond sustainable levels can cause permanent damage to
D.
ecosystems
Question: 6
According to the banking sector agenda, approved at the PSB Manthan November 2017, banks have to
undertake rationalization of overseas operations
__________________________________________________________ and a differentiated banking
strategy to leverage bank’s competitive advantage, which may include branch network rationalization
for a strong regional connect.
The higher proportion of complaints from urban areas in recent years is largely due
A. to increasing awareness about grievance redressal mechanism among bank
customers

foreign branches have jointly taken the initiative to prepare a note in mutual
B.
consultation for rationalization

These offices were established under Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006, and are
C.
the first points of contact for consumers seeking grievance redressals

2
 D. None of these
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: In the questions given below few sentences are given which are
grammatically correct and meaningful. Connect them by the word given above the statements in the
best possible way without changing the intended meaning. Choose your answer accordingly from the
options to form a correct, coherent sentence.
Question: 7
WHILE
It was true that the state governments were insisting on keeping the rates high for
A.
fear of tax collections falling short.

The GST Council, though, has to be careful about applying zero rates on more
B.
commodities.

It was never clear why the Centre didn’t push for lower rates as it was guaranteeing
C.
that states would get 14% growth in their tax revenues in the next five years.

The GST Council has also done well to simplify filing for around 95% of assessees
since, instead of having to file 37 returns a year, those with a turnover of less than Rs
5 crore a year will file one return a quarter plus one master return in a year.
D. A. B-D
B. A-D
C. A-C
D. Both A-D and B-D
Question: 8
ALTHOUGH
They had to diagnose network issues, where the labels were written in pencil on
A.
paper, plastic, metal and after 10 years they start to fade.

They examined the rest of the garments and each, upon careful observation, was
B.
identified in a like fashion.

Graphite is a compressed powder, it can be worn off, brushedoff, and if it's on

C. something bound like a notebook, it will most definitely smudge into illegible
markings.

Some of the markings were so faded they were no longer legible.

A.A-D
D. B. C-D
C. B-C
D. B-D
Question: 9
HOWEVER
The Taiwanese government is claiming that the People’s Republic of China would
A.
invade the island state if the U.S. withdrew its support for Taipei.

3
 It is dubious that Beijing has the amphibious assault capacity or capability to conduct
B.
a successful sea-based invasion of Taiwan where a forcible entry is required.

One of the factors that hastraditionally prevented Beijing from forcibly retaking the
C.
island state by force is geography.

Chinese capabilities have markedly improved over the course of the past decade and
the People’s Liberation Army continues to make strides in capability.
A. C-D
D.
B. A-C
C. A-B
D. A-D
Question: 10
AS
A:The central bank issued a circular three months ago, banning all financial institutions under its control
from providing services to companies dealing in crypto currencies.
B:The crypto banking ban by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) went into effect at the end of last week.
C: A growing number of exchanges have stopped fiat support.
D: Indian crypto currency exchanges ramp up peer-to-peer andcrypto-to-crypto trading.
A. A-B

B. C-D

C. A-C

D. both A-D and B-C

DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside it.
During the 2014 national and State elections, for the first time women’s safety and empowerment were
topics of debate, marking a significant shift in how gender concerns are viewed by the political class as
well as by voters in India. In the two years since, policy focus and public scrutiny on persistent gender
inequality has grown exponentially. In 2015, 194 member states, including India, adopted the
Sustainable Development Goals. Gender equality is one of the 17 goals to “transform our world”. This
year, India ratified the Paris Agreement. The direct link between empowering women and alleviating
poverty, increasing productivity, and combating climate change is well-recognised. However, the lack of
targeted resources is often stated to be the biggest reason behind the sluggish progress in furthering the
gender agenda. Therefore, it is important that India’s budget priorities reflect its commitment to invest
in women and girls. Last year, the World Economic Forum’s annual Global Gender Gap Report ranked
India 87 in terms of gender equality in economy, education, health, and political representation.
Women’s declining labour participation, under-representation in Parliament, skewed child sex ratio, and
prevalent gender-based violence are recognised challenges. To bridge these gaps, India formally
adopted Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) in 2005. The rationale behind GRB is that policy outcomes
are not as gender-neutral as commonly believed, and can reinforce or exacerbate exiting hierarchies.
Hence, gender budgeting initiatives aim to integrate critical gender concerns into fiscal policies and
administration to address disparities.
Every annual budget since 2005 has included a statement that lists out two parts. There is Part A, which
reflects ‘Women Specific Schemes’, namely, those which have 100 per cent allocation for women, and
Part B, which reflects ‘Pro Women Schemes’, namely, where at least 30 per cent of the allocation is for

4
women. Over the years, India has stood out for its implementation of gender budgeting, and with the
Ministry of Finance (MoF) playing the central role, it has managed to successfully institutionalise the
concept at both the national and State levels (16 States have embraced the exercise). Studies
substantiate the positive link between GRB and improved indicators for women. For instance, a recent
International Monetary Fund study found that States that employ GRB also show better female to male
school enrolment ratios. Further, it was observed that GRB also has a positive impact on infrastructure
spending. Despite the successes, better implementation and planning are needed to ensure that these
policies percolate right down to the last woman in the most remote parts of the country. In recent years,
allocations have either remained stagnant or have been on the decline. For instance, Budget 2016-17
was widely considered to be a mixed bag for women. While the Ministry of Women and Child
Development and National Commission for Women saw nominal increases, the scheme meant for
implementing the Domestic Violence Act did not receive any allocation. Further, there was a decline in
the number of ministries and departments that fall under GRB. The budget also initiated the
decentralisation of funding in GRB, thus shifting the onus for budgeting and implementation from the
Central Ministry to State counterparts. While this did empower the States to come up with women-
specific policies as per their respective challenges, the obvious downside was the risk that States could
choose to not prioritise gender in their budgeting. In this way, the intent of universalising the process, so
that it equally benefits women in all States, was lost in the pragmatism of the move and for it to be truly
effective, GRB must be viewed as an essential tool to tackle societal inequality that hinders progress
instead of a symbolic exercise for pleasing the emerging women constituency.
Question: 11
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
A. Gender is a key dimension for analysis of the impact of climate change.

Requirement of funds in the Ministry of Women and Child Development has always
B.
been met.

C. No concrete action has been taken towards women empowerment before 2005.

India’s current rank in the World Economic Forum’s annual Global Gender Gap report
D.
is satisfactory to some extent.
Question 12
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside it.
During the 2014 national and State elections, for the first time women’s safety and empowerment were
topics of debate, marking a significant shift in how gender concerns are viewed by the political class as
well as by voters in India. In the two years since, policy focus and public scrutiny on persistent gender
inequality has grown exponentially. In 2015, 194 member states, including India, adopted the
Sustainable Development Goals. Gender equality is one of the 17 goals to “transform our world”. This
year, India ratified the Paris Agreement. The direct link between empowering women and alleviating
poverty, increasing productivity, and combating climate change is well-recognised. However, the lack of
targeted resources is often stated to be the biggest reason behind the sluggish progress in furthering the
gender agenda. Therefore, it is important that India’s budget priorities reflect its commitment to invest
in women and girls. Last year, the World Economic Forum’s annual Global Gender Gap Report ranked
India 87 in terms of gender equality in economy, education, health, and political representation.
Women’s declining labour participation, under-representation in Parliament, skewed child sex ratio, and
prevalent gender-based violence are recognised challenges. To bridge these gaps, India formally
adopted Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) in 2005. The rationale behind GRB is that policy outcomes

5
are not as gender-neutral as commonly believed, and can reinforce or exacerbate exiting hierarchies.
Hence, gender budgeting initiatives aim to integrate critical gender concerns into fiscal policies and
administration to address disparities.
Every annual budget since 2005 has included a statement that lists out two parts. There is Part A, which
reflects ‘Women Specific Schemes’, namely, those which have 100 per cent allocation for women, and
Part B, which reflects ‘Pro Women Schemes’, namely, where at least 30 per cent of the allocation is for
women. Over the years, India has stood out for its implementation of gender budgeting, and with the
Ministry of Finance (MoF) playing the central role, it has managed to successfully institutionalise the
concept at both the national and State levels (16 States have embraced the exercise). Studies
substantiate the positive link between GRB and improved indicators for women. For instance, a recent
International Monetary Fund study found that States that employ GRB also show better female to male
school enrolment ratios. Further, it was observed that GRB also has a positive impact on infrastructure
spending. Despite the successes, better implementation and planning are needed to ensure that these
policies percolate right down to the last woman in the most remote parts of the country. In recent years,
allocations have either remained stagnant or have been on the decline. For instance, Budget 2016-17
was widely considered to be a mixed bag for women. While the Ministry of Women and Child
Development and National Commission for Women saw nominal increases, the scheme meant for
implementing the Domestic Violence Act did not receive any allocation. Further, there was a decline in
the number of ministries and departments that fall under GRB. The budget also initiated the
decentralisation of funding in GRB, thus shifting the onus for budgeting and implementation from the
Central Ministry to State counterparts. While this did empower the States to come up with women-
specific policies as per their respective challenges, the obvious downside was the risk that States could
choose to not prioritise gender in their budgeting. In this way, the intent of universalising the process, so
that it equally benefits women in all States, was lost in the pragmatism of the move and for it to be truly
effective, GRB must be viewed as an essential tool to tackle societal inequality that hinders progress
instead of a symbolic exercise for pleasing the emerging women constituency.
Question:
According to the author, India’s marking a significant shift in the outlook of the political class and that of
the voters towards gender concerns is best illustrated by the fact that:
India’s political class and the mass have become aware that a comprehensive growth
A.
can’t be achieved without bringing gender equality to the system.

The issues regarding women’s safety and empowerment have been discussed during
B.
the 2014 national and State elections for the first time.

The government has recently taken a lot of sincere steps to curb corruption that
C.
exists in the women empowerment policy making body.

Indian government has recently built and strengthened its targeted resources in
D.
furthering the gender agenda.
Question 13
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside it.
During the 2014 national and State elections, for the first time women’s safety and empowerment were
topics of debate, marking a significant shift in how gender concerns are viewed by the political class as
well as by voters in India. In the two years since, policy focus and public scrutiny on persistent gender
inequality has grown exponentially. In 2015, 194 member states, including India, adopted the
Sustainable Development Goals. Gender equality is one of the 17 goals to “transform our world”. This

6
year, India ratified the Paris Agreement. The direct link between empowering women and alleviating
poverty, increasing productivity, and combating climate change is well-recognised. However, the lack of
targeted resources is often stated to be the biggest reason behind the sluggish progress in furthering the
gender agenda. Therefore, it is important that India’s budget priorities reflect its commitment to invest
in women and girls. Last year, the World Economic Forum’s annual Global Gender Gap Report ranked
India 87 in terms of gender equality in economy, education, health, and political representation.
Women’s declining labour participation, under-representation in Parliament, skewed child sex ratio, and
prevalent gender-based violence are recognised challenges. To bridge these gaps, India formally
adopted Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) in 2005. The rationale behind GRB is that policy outcomes
are not as gender-neutral as commonly believed, and can reinforce or exacerbate exiting hierarchies.
Hence, gender budgeting initiatives aim to integrate critical gender concerns into fiscal policies and
administration to address disparities.
Every annual budget since 2005 has included a statement that lists out two parts. There is Part A, which
reflects ‘Women Specific Schemes’, namely, those which have 100 per cent allocation for women, and
Part B, which reflects ‘Pro Women Schemes’, namely, where at least 30 per cent of the allocation is for
women. Over the years, India has stood out for its implementation of gender budgeting, and with the
Ministry of Finance (MoF) playing the central role, it has managed to successfully institutionalise the
concept at both the national and State levels (16 States have embraced the exercise). Studies
substantiate the positive link between GRB and improved indicators for women. For instance, a recent
International Monetary Fund study found that States that employ GRB also show better female to male
school enrolment ratios. Further, it was observed that GRB also has a positive impact on infrastructure
spending. Despite the successes, better implementation and planning are needed to ensure that these
policies percolate right down to the last woman in the most remote parts of the country. In recent years,
allocations have either remained stagnant or have been on the decline. For instance, Budget 2016-17
was widely considered to be a mixed bag for women. While the Ministry of Women and Child
Development and National Commission for Women saw nominal increases, the scheme meant for
implementing the Domestic Violence Act did not receive any allocation. Further, there was a decline in
the number of ministries and departments that fall under GRB. The budget also initiated the
decentralisation of funding in GRB, thus shifting the onus for budgeting and implementation from the
Central Ministry to State counterparts. While this did empower the States to come up with women-
specific policies as per their respective challenges, the obvious downside was the risk that States could
choose to not prioritise gender in their budgeting. In this way, the intent of universalising the process, so
that it equally benefits women in all States, was lost in the pragmatism of the move and for it to be truly
effective, GRB must be viewed as an essential tool to tackle societal inequality that hinders progress
instead of a symbolic exercise for pleasing the emerging women constituency.
Question:
What idea, according to the passage, does the author clearly want to convey?
Indian government must work towards bringing more number of women welfare
A.
policies and development programmes the floor.

Gender responsive budgeting must be seen as an essential tool to tackle societal

B.
inequality instead of a symbolic change.

India must shift its focus from Digitalization to core problem areas like ‘Women
C.
empowerment’ and ‘Gender inequality’.

D. Both A and B

7
Question 14 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given
beside it.
During the 2014 national and State elections, for the first time women’s safety and empowerment were
topics of debate, marking a significant shift in how gender concerns are viewed by the political class as
well as by voters in India. In the two years since, policy focus and public scrutiny on persistent gender
inequality has grown exponentially. In 2015, 194 member states, including India, adopted the
Sustainable Development Goals. Gender equality is one of the 17 goals to “transform our world”. This
year, India ratified the Paris Agreement. The direct link between empowering women and alleviating
poverty, increasing productivity, and combating climate change is well-recognised. However, the lack of
targeted resources is often stated to be the biggest reason behind the sluggish progress in furthering the
gender agenda. Therefore, it is important that India’s budget priorities reflect its commitment to invest
in women and girls. Last year, the World Economic Forum’s annual Global Gender Gap Report ranked
India 87 in terms of gender equality in economy, education, health, and political representation.
Women’s declining labour participation, under-representation in Parliament, skewed child sex ratio, and
prevalent gender-based violence are recognised challenges. To bridge these gaps, India formally
adopted Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) in 2005. The rationale behind GRB is that policy outcomes
are not as gender-neutral as commonly believed, and can reinforce or exacerbate exiting hierarchies.
Hence, gender budgeting initiatives aim to integrate critical gender concerns into fiscal policies and
administration to address disparities.
Every annual budget since 2005 has included a statement that lists out two parts. There is Part A, which
reflects ‘Women Specific Schemes’, namely, those which have 100 per cent allocation for women, and
Part B, which reflects ‘Pro Women Schemes’, namely, where at least 30 per cent of the allocation is for
women. Over the years, India has stood out for its implementation of gender budgeting, and with the
Ministry of Finance (MoF) playing the central role, it has managed to successfully institutionalise the
concept at both the national and State levels (16 States have embraced the exercise). Studies
substantiate the positive link between GRB and improved indicators for women. For instance, a recent
International Monetary Fund study found that States that employ GRB also show better female to male
school enrolment ratios. Further, it was observed that GRB also has a positive impact on infrastructure
spending. Despite the successes, better implementation and planning are needed to ensure that these
policies percolate right down to the last woman in the most remote parts of the country. In recent years,
allocations have either remained stagnant or have been on the decline. For instance, Budget 2016-17
was widely considered to be a mixed bag for women. While the Ministry of Women and Child
Development and National Commission for Women saw nominal increases, the scheme meant for
implementing the Domestic Violence Act did not receive any allocation. Further, there was a decline in
the number of ministries and departments that fall under GRB. The budget also initiated the
decentralisation of funding in GRB, thus shifting the onus for budgeting and implementation from the
Central Ministry to State counterparts. While this did empower the States to come up with women-
specific policies as per their respective challenges, the obvious downside was the risk that States could
choose to not prioritise gender in their budgeting. In this way, the intent of universalising the process, so
that it equally benefits women in all States, was lost in the pragmatism of the move and for it to be truly
effective, GRB must be viewed as an essential tool to tackle societal inequality that hinders progress
instead of a symbolic exercise for pleasing the emerging women constituency.
Question:
Which of the following argument/arguments supports the author’s mentioning the term ‘Gender-
neutral’ with reference to adoption of GRB?
A. The benefits of a policy are not reaching every single woman of the country.

8
 The gender discrimination existed is not letting one gender bear the equal benefits of
B.
a policy over the other and hence creates disparity.

A few policies that have been formalized with a view to benefit both the genders
C.
equally have actually created a neutral effect so far on either of the genders.

D. Both A and B
Question 15 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given
beside it.
During the 2014 national and State elections, for the first time women’s safety and empowerment were
topics of debate, marking a significant shift in how gender concerns are viewed by the political class as
well as by voters in India. In the two years since, policy focus and public scrutiny on persistent gender
inequality has grown exponentially. In 2015, 194 member states, including India, adopted the
Sustainable Development Goals. Gender equality is one of the 17 goals to “transform our world”. This
year, India ratified the Paris Agreement. The direct link between empowering women and alleviating
poverty, increasing productivity, and combating climate change is well-recognised. However, the lack of
targeted resources is often stated to be the biggest reason behind the sluggish progress in furthering the
gender agenda. Therefore, it is important that India’s budget priorities reflect its commitment to invest
in women and girls. Last year, the World Economic Forum’s annual Global Gender Gap Report ranked
India 87 in terms of gender equality in economy, education, health, and political representation.
Women’s declining labour participation, under-representation in Parliament, skewed child sex ratio, and
prevalent gender-based violence are recognised challenges. To bridge these gaps, India formally
adopted Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) in 2005. The rationale behind GRB is that policy outcomes
are not as gender-neutral as commonly believed, and can reinforce or exacerbate exiting hierarchies.
Hence, gender budgeting initiatives aim to integrate critical gender concerns into fiscal policies and
administration to address disparities.
Every annual budget since 2005 has included a statement that lists out two parts. There is Part A, which
reflects ‘Women Specific Schemes’, namely, those which have 100 per cent allocation for women, and
Part B, which reflects ‘Pro Women Schemes’, namely, where at least 30 per cent of the allocation is for
women. Over the years, India has stood out for its implementation of gender budgeting, and with the
Ministry of Finance (MoF) playing the central role, it has managed to successfully institutionalise the
concept at both the national and State levels (16 States have embraced the exercise). Studies
substantiate the positive link between GRB and improved indicators for women. For instance, a recent
International Monetary Fund study found that States that employ GRB also show better female to male
school enrolment ratios. Further, it was observed that GRB also has a positive impact on infrastructure
spending. Despite the successes, better implementation and planning are needed to ensure that these
policies percolate right down to the last woman in the most remote parts of the country. In recent years,
allocations have either remained stagnant or have been on the decline. For instance, Budget 2016-17
was widely considered to be a mixed bag for women. While the Ministry of Women and Child
Development and National Commission for Women saw nominal increases, the scheme meant for
implementing the Domestic Violence Act did not receive any allocation. Further, there was a decline in
the number of ministries and departments that fall under GRB. The budget also initiated the
decentralisation of funding in GRB, thus shifting the onus for budgeting and implementation from the
Central Ministry to State counterparts. While this did empower the States to come up with women-
specific policies as per their respective challenges, the obvious downside was the risk that States could
choose to not prioritise gender in their budgeting. In this way, the intent of universalising the process, so
that it equally benefits women in all States, was lost in the pragmatism of the move and for it to be truly

9
effective, GRB must be viewed as an essential tool to tackle societal inequality that hinders progress
instead of a symbolic exercise for pleasing the emerging women constituency.
Question:
Which of the following steps with reference to the passage was not supported by the author
completely?
A. Ratification of Paris Agreement by India

B. Integration of critical gender concerns into financial policies through GRB.

C. Institutionalisation of GRB at both the national and State levels.

D. Decentralisation of funding in GRB

Question 16
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:In this question you are required to choose the correct meaning of the
idiom/phrase given in italics in the sentence.
Question:
These spooky creatures like spiders at times make our skin crawl.
A. to cause infection

B. to cause one to feel frightened or unnerved

C. to leave someone’s skin shivering

D. to try to regain one’s senses

Question 17 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:In this question you are required to choose the correct
meaning of the idiom/phrase given in italics in the sentence.
Question:
At the time of my sister’s marriage I found Mohan as a friend at court.
A. a legal advisor in court

B. a hidden enemy

C. a domestic help

D. an influential acquaintance
Question 18.
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:In this question you are required to choose the correct meaning of the
idiom/phrase given in italics in the sentence.
Question:
My thesis is almost done—the only loose ends are formatting and proofreading.
A. Unresolved aspects

B. Loose strings

C. Important parts

10
 D. Delayed portions
Question 19.
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:In this question you are required to choose the correct meaning of the
idiom/phrase given in italics in the sentence.
Question:
That crook hasn't been arrested yet because he's always one step ahead of the cops.
A. Faster in running

B. More prepared or skilled

C. More important

D. Giving chase
Question 20 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:In this question you are required to choose the correct
meaning of the idiom/phrase given in italics in the sentence.
Question:
It took a while for solar panels to catch on for ordinary consumers, but now it's full speed ahead.
A. Without any support

B. Gaining popularity

C. Better

D. As quickly and efficiently as possible

Question 21 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Each question consist of two words which have a certain
relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same
relationship.
Question:
DIVA:OPERA
A. producer:theatre

B. director:drama

C. conductor:bus

D. thespian:play

DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to
each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.
Question: 22
GRAIN:SALT
A. shard:pottery

B. shred:wood

11
 C. blades:grass

D. chip:glass
Question 23
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to
each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.
Question:
THRUST:SPEAR
A. mangle:iron

B. scabbard:sword

C. bow:arrow

D. fence:epee

Question 24
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to
each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.
Question:
PAIN:SEDATIVE
A. comfort:stimulant

B. grief:consolation

C. trance:narcotic

D. ache:extraction

Question 25
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to
each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.
Question:
LIGHT:BLIND
A. speech:dumb

B. language:deaf

C. tongue:sound

D. voice:vibration

Question 26.

12
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:In each of the following questions there are four parts a, b, c and d, among
which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark ‘e’ if no error is
found.( Ignore punctuation errors)
Question:
A. She danced

B. very well

C. on the dance floor

D. isn’t it?
Question 27 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:In each of the following questions there are four parts a, b, c
and d, among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark ‘e’
if no error is found.( Ignore punctuation errors)
Question:
A. A successful woman

B. is any that

C. maintains a good balance between

D. her professional and personal lives

Question 28 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:In each of the following questions there are four parts a, b, c
and d, among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark ‘e’
if no error is found.( Ignore punctuation errors)
Question:
A. My sister is

B. appreciated by

C. her friends for

D. her honestness
Question 29 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:In each of the following questions there are four parts a, b, c
and d, among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark ‘e’
if no error is found.( Ignore punctuation errors)
Question:
A. She has started

B. to learning

C. Mathematics through a

D. correspondence course

13
Question 30.
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:In each of the following questions there are four parts a, b, c and d, among
which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark ‘e’ if no error is
found.( Ignore punctuation errors)
Question:
A. My Professor suffered

B. from the illusion

C. that I was a

D. Science student
Question 31 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:Each question below has a blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
Question:
Neither the parties nor the government in power can erase the fact that the RTI Act is one of
independent India’s greatest legislative attempts to bring in a measure of _____________ and
_____________ in the functioning of the government.
A. Conspiracy, Accountability

B. Transparency, Accountability

C. Translucency, Liability

D. Transparency, Burden
Question 32 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:Each question below has a blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
Question:
Regional rural banks may be less expensive, but are slow in ______________ technology and have high
______________ risks.
A. Neglecting, Systematic

B. Returning, Unsystematic

C. Adopting, Unsystematic

D. Adopting, Systematic
Question 33 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:Each question below has a blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
Question:
Countries like the US and Russia, ________________ in the Cryogenic technology, refused to share the
know-how with India, forcing us to develop it ______________.

14
 A. Adventurer, Organically

B. Speculators, Naturally

C. Pioneers, Indigenously

D. Adventurer, Indigenously
Question 34
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:Each question below has a blank indicating that something has been
omitted. Choose the set of words for the blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Question:
There should be modern storage facilities for _____________ commodities, rural infrastructure must be
improved and _____________ reforms implemented in the agricultural marketing system.
A. Imperishable, Moderate

B. Perishable, Extrinsic

C. Imperishable, Secondary

D. Perishable, Radical
Question 35 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS:Each question below has a blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
Question:
There is a need to separate those who work ____________ for the uplift of the people and those who
cheat for _____________ gain, a need to recognise that many of today’s god men are in fact devil men.
A. Meanly, Ordinary

B. Selflessly, Personal

C. Selfishly, Personal

D. Greedily, Special

Section : GK And Current Affairs

Question 36
Which Indian city has recently got its bonds listed on Bombay Stock Exchange?
A. Kanpur

B. Surat

C. Gandhinagar

15
 D. Lucknow

Question 37
What amount of grant has been allotted under “Mission COVID Suraksha”, by the Central Government?
A. Rs.100 crore

B. Rs.500 crore

C. Rs.900 crore

D. Rs.1000 crore
Question 38 Which country has introduced a Veto Power on any agreements entered with foreign
countries?
A. Pakistan

B. Afghanistan

C. Japan

D. Australia
Question 39
The CLMV Countries are the group of countries belonging to which regional organisation?
A. ASEAN

B. Common Wealth

C. G-20

D. G-7
Question 40.
Shaheen (Eagle)-IX is a joint air force exercise between which countries?
A. India – Bangladesh

B. India – Japan

C. China – Pakistan

D. China – Sri Lanka

Question 41.
Which of the following are considered as ‘indirect farm subsidies’ extended by the government?
1: Farmer training
2: Investment in agricultural research
3: Farm loan waivers
4: Cheaper credit facilities for farmers
Select the correct answer code:

16
 A. 1, 2

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 3, 4
Question 42.
Ambrose Dlamini, who passed away recently after testing positive for COVID-19, was the Prime Minister
of which nation?
A. Botswana

B. Lesotho

C. Eswatini

D. Malawi
Question 43.
Which of the following international organization has recently announced 2021 as ‘International Year of
Creative Economy for Sustainable Development’?
A. UNESCO

B. IMF

C. WTO

D. OECD
Question 44 Which county’s rubber plantations have been recently affected by Leaf Fall Disease?
A. Indonesia

B. Malaysia

C. Bhutan

D. Thailand
Question 45
When is the ‘International Day of Banks’ celebrated by the UN for the first time in 2020?
A. December 2

B. December 4

C. December 6

D. December 8
Question 46 Indian origin Anil Soni has been appointed as the 1st CEO of which organisation?

17
 A. WHO Foundation

B. World Bank

C. IMF

D. UNESCO
Question 47 Which country has recently conducted a referendum for euthanasia?
A. China

B. Japan

C. Australia

D. New Zealand
Question 48.
Who is the chairman of the committee constituted to review guidelines on Television Rating agencies in
India?
A. Atul Mishra

B. ShashiShekharVempati

C. InjettiSrinivas

D. AlokVerma
Question 49.
As per a recent report by WHO and CDC, India has failed to vaccinate 1.2 million infants against which
disease?
A. Hepatitis

B. Cholera

C. Polio

D. Measles
Question 50.
Consider the following statements:
1: Project Arth Ganga is aimed at promoting economic activities along the Ganga river bank.
2: Centre for Ganga River Basin Management and Studies (cGanga) is a statutory body under Ministry of
Jal Shakti.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

18
 C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 51
Which of the following institution has released the Emission Gap Report 2020?
A. United Nations Environment Program

B. World Wide Fund for Nature

C. Intergovernmental Panel for Climate Change

D. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

Question 52.
What was the mandate of the Ashok Dalwai Committee?
A. Doubling Farmer’s Income

B. Review of Agriculture Produce Marketing Committee (APMC) laws

C. Reforms in Criminal Laws

D. Electoral Reforms
Question 53 Which of the following disease(s) have zoonotic origin?
1: Lyme disease
2: COVID-19
3: Brucellosis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Question 54.
Consider the following statements regarding the Cancer Genome Atlas:
1: It is a catalogue of genetic mutations responsible for cancer developed using genome sequencing.
2: Indian Cancer Genomics Atlas (ICGA) has been developed by the Biotechnology Industry Research
Assistance Council (BIRAC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

19
 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Question 55 Consider the following statements regarding the RT-LAMP:

1: It can be used as a serological test for viral diagnosis.
2: It is faster than a RT-PCR test for diagnosis of disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 56.
What is Torrefaction?
A. Reducing volatile content of coal

B. Thermal degradation of organic biomass

C. Conversion of crude oil into refined petroleum

D. Force of attraction between two moving bodies in space

Question 57 The Cyclonic Storm ‘Burevi’ is developing in which of the following region?
A. North Pacific Ocean

B. Southwest Bay of Bengal

C. Arabian Sea

D. South Indian Ocean

Question 58 Where is Arecibo Observatory located?
A. Puerto Rico

B. Venezuela

C. Mauna Kea

D. International Space Station

Question 59 The Brahmaputra River flows through which of the following region(s)?
1: Bhutan
2: Nepal
3: China
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only

20
 B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only
Question 60 Consider the following statements:
1: Six states of India share their border with Nepal.
2: SURYA KIRAN is a joint military training exercise between India and Nepal.
3: India and Nepal award each other’s Army Chief with the honorary rank of General.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Question 61 Which of the site(s) in Asia is/are related to Buddhism?
1:AjinaTepe
2:Termez
3:SahriBahlol
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Question 62 Which of the following country(s) is/are member to Shanghai CooperationOrganisation as
well as Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership?
1: China
2: India
3: Russia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 3 only
Question 63 What is the objective of the SHINE trial?
A. Trial for potential COVID-19 vaccines

21
 B. Shortened treatment for drug-susceptible tuberculosis in children

C. Trial for diagnostic tests for SARS-COV2

Development of next generation antibiotics to counter Antimicrobial Resistant

D.
pathogens
Question 64 Which of the following dams in Afghanistan have been/are to be constructed by India’s
assistance?
1: Salma dam
2:Shatoot dam
3:Kajaki dam
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Question 65 Consider the following statements regarding the Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI):
1: It projects market conditions, as viewed by purchasing managers, are expanding, staying the same, or
contracting.
2: It is published by the National Statistical Office (NSO) for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Question 66 Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”?
a. It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the
supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth

b. It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in

the country
c. It is Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement
of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and
contain food inflation
d. It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of
financial inclusion
Question 67 According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be
laid before the Parliament which of the following?

22
1: The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2: The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3: The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4: The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A. 1 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 3, and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 68 Which of the following pardoning powers of president are correctly matched?
1: Remission = It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some
special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
2: Respite = It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a
death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a
simple imprisonment.
3: Commutation = It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For
example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment
for one year.
A. Only 1 and 2

B. Only 2 and 3

C. Only 3

D. None of the above

Question 69 Consider the following statement about Tsunami, a Japanese word, which means Harbour
waves
1: The Tsunami originates in the ocean only due to earthquakes that occur on the ocean-bed.
2: To generate Tsunami waves, there should be vertical displacement of water column, which happens
in the case of strike fault.
3: As the Tsunami waves travels over a shallow and gradual slope, its wavelength decrease, this is called
shoaling effect.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. Only 3

D. 2 and 3 only
Question 70 Consider the following statements about major events/occurrences in 1930-1940s.
1: Poona Pact gave away the Hindu joint electorate and reserves special electorates to the depressed
classes.

23
2: C. Rajagopalachari became the first governor-general of the Dominion of India.
3: The members of the interim government were members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council, and the
council came to be vice-chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 2 only

Section: Legal Aptitute

Question 71 Principle: I: If someone has consented to a harm, then no harm is done.
II: In order to construct consent, there has to be some affirmative action.
Facts: There was a hepatitis vaccine drive going on in a colony. There was a huge line in front of the
vaccination booth. Azad enters the line and raises his arm like everyone. The doctor gives him a shot of
the hepatitis vaccine but the vaccine reacts and leads to certain complications in Azad’s body. Azad sues
the doctor for battery. Will he succeed?
A. Yes, doctor should have asked him before vaccinating him.

B. No, Azad consented to the vaccination.

C. No, doctor could not have foreseen that the vaccine would react.

D. Yes, doctor should have foreseen the results of the vaccine.

Question 72 Principle: I: If someone has consented to a harm, then no harm is done.

II: In order to construct consent, there has to be some affirmative action.
Facts: Jack threatened Jones that he would shoot him if he keeps standing there. Jones did not move
and kept standing there. Jack shot Jones and the bullet hit Jones. Jones sues Jack. Will he succeed?
A. No, Jones should have moved. By standing there he consented to the harm.

B. Yes, there was no consent.

C. No, Jack warned Jones.

D. Yes, Jack shot without any reason.

Question 73 Principle: In case of a breach of contract, compensation can be awarded for the personal
inconvenience suffered by a party by reason of the breach, which naturally arose in the usual course of
things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract to be likely to result
from the breach of it.
Facts: Pihu bought the bus ticket from the Neeta Travel Company for journey from Mumbai to Lonavala.
The final destination of the bus was Pune. The bus driver took a wrong route and dropped Pihu in an
isolated place called Maban, around 15 km, from Lonavala, at 10 pm. Pihu could not find any
conveyance this late at night and thus, had to take a hotel in Maban. She also had to walk for half an
hour to find a hotel on the isolated streets of Maban. Later, she sued the bus company for Rs. 2500/- for

24
the hotel booking, Rs. 2500/- for the inconvenience caused due to being stranded at an unknown place
in the middle of the night as well as walking the distance to find a hotel and Rs 3000/- for catching a cold
while looking for a hotel in such a chilly weather.
The bus company is liable to pay total of Rs. 8000/- because the loss was suffered
A. due to the fault of the bus driver and all the damages arose in the usual course of
things resulting from the breach of contract.

The bus company is liable to pay only Rs. 2500/- for the inconvenience caused by
B. being obliged to walk and not for hotel room booking because they did not expect
that she would have to book a room at a hotel.

The bus company is liable to pay Rs. 5000/- for the hotel room booking and
C. inconvenience caused by being obliged to walk and not for Rs. 3000/- as the
company did not expect Pihu to catch a cold.

The bus company is liable only for Rs. 2500- spent in booking the hotel because Pihu
D. did not suffer any inconvenience in walking and the illness was a cause to her own
weakness.
Question 74 Principle: I: Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act an employer is liable to compensate
his workmen for injuries sustained by them in the course of and arising out of their employment.
II: If the workman dies, then his legal heirs can claim compensation.
III: A person is considered to be in course of employment in a public place only when the nature of his
employment demands him to be there.
Facts: A, B, and C were employed in the Company named Litwiz Ltd., engaged in salt manufacturing. The
workers had to first cross a creek and then a sandy footpath to reach the salt works. The footpath was
usually taken only by the workers to reach the saltworks. There was facility of ferry to cross the creek.
People generally crossed the creek by the ferry for a nominal charge. Thus, the workmen also had to
take the ferry. Once, A was crossing the creek by the boat and it drowned. A’ death was caused by
drowning. A’s wife and children claimed compensation under the Workman’s Compensation Act.
The employers are liable to compensate A’s wife because A was in the course of
A. employment when he boarded the boat. A person is said to be in the course of
employment from the moment he board a vehicle to reach the workplace.

The employers are not liable to compensate because A was not in the course of
B. employment when he boarded the ferry. A was on the ferry as a general member of
public and not in the capacity of an employee.

The employers may be morally obligated to pay the compensation but not legally
C. because a person is said to be in course of employment only when he is in the
precincts of saltworks.

The employer is liable to pay the compensation because A was on the ferry because
D.
his employment demands him to be there.
Question 75 Principle: The relief of Specific performance is granted only when the damages are
inadequate unless the subject matter of the contract is unique and not available anywhere else.
Facts: Ankita contracted with Ruby where Ankita agreed to buy and Ruby agreed to sell her land situated
near the lake for a consideration of Rs. 1 crore. Ankita had planned to gift the land to her daughter, who

25
has always desired to have a house near the lake. Ankita has always provided her daughter with
whatever she desired to have. Ankita paid the amount to Ruby but she failed to deliver the title to
Ankita. In fact, Ruby disposed the land by selling it to Himani for a higher amount. Ankita sued Ruby for
the damages as well as asked for transfer of the land to Ankita.
Ruby is liable to pay damages as well as transfer the title of the land to Ankita
A. because the land was unique and Ankita wanted to gift her daughter the land by the
side of the lake.

B. Ruby is liable only to pay the damages since the damages is an adequate relief.

Ruby is not liable to transfer the land to Ankita because the damages are an
C.
adequate relief and nor does the subject matter is unique.

Ruby is liable to pay only the damages and not transfer the land because she has
D.
already disposed off the land and cannot affect the title of the third party.

Question 76 Principle: Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, treating a spouse with cruelty is a valid
ground for divorce.
Facts: Arun and Priya had been married for 5 years. They were happily married and never had problem
with each other. Arun’s sister, Rashi just went through a divorce and came to Arun’s house for living.
Since, Rashi began living with Arun and Priya, Priya’s behaviour changed towards Arun. She became
ignorant towards him. She kept commenting that Arun loves his sister more than Priya. She had also
threatened Arun by telling him that she will ruin his reputation in his office and tell everyone that he is
an abusive husband. When Arun confronted Priya about her behaviour, she apologised and said that she
is losing her mind and feels that Arun’s attention has shifted to Rashi. After few days, Priya again started
fighting with Arun, threatened to humiliate him in front of his office colleagues and accused him of
incestuous relationship. Arun could no longer live with her and filed for divorce on grounds of cruelty.
Arun would succeed because Priya’s actions amounted to cruelty and he could no
A.
longer continue his marital relationship with her.

Arun would not succeed because Priya actually loved Arun and was apologetic for
B.
her behaviour. She was out of her mind while behaving so.

Arun would succeed because Priya was out of her mind and he could not live with a
C.
mad woman.

Arun would not succeed because Priya’s actions would not amount to cruelty since
D.
she never tortured him or actually humiliated him in front of anyone.
Question 77
Principles: I: If a person’s cattle or other animal trespasses on another’s land, the owner of the animal is
responsible for the trespass and consequential damage.
II: The person who suffers such damage has a right to seize and detain animal causing trespass.
Facts: Ms. Amy Santiago and Jack Malone were two known enemies who had farm lands nearby. Amy
had 10 cows which were grazing in her land. 6 of them went to Jack’s farm land. On earlier occasions as
well, the herd has entered Jack’s farm to damage his crops. This time, when the herd entered his farm,
he shot the herd with his gun, due to which they died on the spot. Ms. Amy brought action against Jack

26
to claim compensation but Jack defended by saying that he had all rights to shoot the herd because they
had been creating nuisance and causing damage to his farm. Which of the following is correct?
Amy is responsible for the loss of crops of Jack and cannot claim compensation from
A.
Jack since it was her own fault to let her cows enter Jack’s farm.

Amy cannot claim compensation from Jack because Jack had the right to shoot the
B.
herd if it causes damage to his farm.

Amy can claim compensation from Jack because even though Amy’s cows trespassed
C.
Jack’s land but it does not give him the right to shoot the cattle.

Amy can claim compensation from Jack because he had already planned to kill Amy’s
D.
cows because he was jealous of Amy.
Question 78 Principles: I: When one party to the contract is in such a relation with the other party as to
be able to dominate his/her will and uses his superior position to obtain the consent of the other party,
then it is said to be a consent obtained under undue influence.
II: Any consent to the contract obtained under undue influence renders the contract void.
Facts: Aman and Akshita were two best friends. They used to share everything with each other. Aman
had told Akshita about an incident where he had stolen money from his father to buy a gift for his
girlfriend. Aman had asked Akshita to never disclose this information to anyone particularly to Aman’s
father. Akshita had promised Aman to keep this a secret as long as they are good friends. Aman owns a
general store where he sells rice and grains. The fixed price of rice at Aman’s general store is Rs. 100/kg.
Akshita contracted with him to buy a kilo of rice. She asked Aman to sell the rice at the half rate. Aman
refused to sell at half price. Therefore, Akshita again asked Aman to sell at half price saying that they are
good friends and share everything with one another. Aman agreed to sell the rice at the rate of Rs.
50/kg. Is the contract between Aman and Akshita valid?
The contract between Aman and Akshita is valid because they are good friends and
A.
he can reduce the price for a friend.

The contract between Aman and Akshita is void because the Akshita obtained the
B.
consent of Aman to sell at half price under undue influence.

The contract between Aman and Akshita is valid because Aman consented to sell rice
C.
at half price.

The contract between Aman and Akshita is void because while contracting with
D. Aman though the consent was appropriate but Akshita exercised her superior
position since she had the knowledge of Aman’s secret.

Question 79 Principles: I: A criminal conspiracy takes place when two or more people get together and
plan to commit a crime and then take some action towards carrying out the plan. The action taken need
not be a crime in itself but shall be in furtherance of the conspiracy.
II: A criminal conspiracy is a continuing offence which means that anyone who joins the conspiracy at
later point of time until the object of the conspiracy is achieved cannot be said to be taking part in the
conspiracy.
Facts: Three friends, A, B and C planned to rob a bank on 1st November and therefore procured
weapons to threaten people. D had also planned to rob the bank on the same day i.e. 1st November and

27
therefore bought a gun. D had informed about his plan to E. E did not tell anyone about the plan
because D was his friend. On 1st November, A, B, C and D entered the bank and started threatening the
officers and people in the bank. They had mask on their face. While robbing the bank, D asked A to point
the gun towards the manager who was trying to call the Police. Who is liable for criminal conspiracy to
rob the bank?
A. A, B and C are liable for criminal conspiracy and D is liable for the offence of robbery.

A, B, C, D and E are all liable for criminal conspiracy because they were more than
B.
two people and had planned to rob the bank.

A, B and C are separately liable for criminal conspiracy and D & E are separately liable
C. for criminal conspiracy because they all did not come together and planned the
robbery.

A, B, C and D are liable because Criminal conspiracy is a continuing offence i.e

D. anyone who joins the conspiracy at a later point of time is also liable until the object
of conspiracy is achieved.
Question 80 Principles: I: Any law passed or judgement laying the law will have prospective application
i.e. will have application from the date when it was passed and will not affect already decided cases.
II: Whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman or
animal is punished under Section 377 of IPC. 1860.
III: Supreme Court on 6th September 2018 read down Section 377 to hold that consensual adult gay sex
is natural.
Facts: Amit and Sahil are Mindu by religion. Mindu religion clearly prohibits any sexual activity between
two men and two women. They were found to be involved in carnal intercourse on 1st January, 2016.
They were arrested and punished by the Police. They challenged their prosecution and also challenged
Section 377 before the High Court. The High Court dismissed their challenge. They further moved to
Supreme Court challenging their prosecution and Section 377. Their case is pending before the Supreme
Court as on 6th September 2018.
They would be prosecuted because the Supreme Court judgement will not have any
A.
application on them, since their case has already been decided.

They will not be prosecuted because the Supreme Court judgement will have effect
B.
on pending case of Amit and Sahil.

C. They would be prosecuted because their personal law governs them which is Mindu.

They will not be prosecuted because any such prosecution can be challenged in light
D.
of the Supreme Court judgement.
Question 81 Principles: I: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of
care causing injury to the victim.
II: The defendant can apply all defences available under tort law in case an action of negligence is
brought against him.
Facts: Veda is a lawyer representing Tia in a court case. Veda is colour blind and can only recognize black
and white. While going to the court one day to attend a hearing, she wore a tie which did not match her
shirt. The judge who was hearing the matter had a reputation for being finicky about appearances. After
seeing Veda’s tie, he immediately decided the case against Tia. Has Veda been negligent?

28
 No, she was colour blind and the same will be a defence in the case of negligence
A.
against her.

No, negligence only extends to breach of a reasonable duty of care and this case
B.
imposes and unreasonable duty of care upon Veda.

Yes, her duty of care to the client extends to all matters relating to the case. When
C. she knew about the fact that the judge is finicky about appearances, she breached
her duty for not accounting for it.

No, this is clearly illegal. Judges cannot decide cases based on what the lawyer
D.
appearing before him is wearing.
Question 82 Principles: I: A person intoxicated without his own will shall be relieved of tortious liability
for their actions committed in inebriated state. This defence shall cease to exist if intoxication is
voluntary.
II: Duty of Care- In tort law, a duty of care is a legal obligation which is imposed on an individual
requiring adherence to a standard of reasonable care while performing any acts that could foreseeably
harm others. It is the first element that must be established to proceed with an action in negligence.
III: If at the time of commission, the defendant could reasonably foresee the harm that can inflict upon
the plaintiff, he owes him a duty to prevent that injury and is liable in case of failure to do the same. No
liability shall be imposed for injuries beyond the scope of reasonable foresight of a normal, prudent
man.
Facts: Robert and James spent the afternoon drinking beer at their apartment. At about 8 p.m., they
went to a downtown bar to meet friends and continued to drink beer. The two had taken Robert's car to
the bar. At closing time, even though the bartenders knew that Robert and James were very drunk, they
let Robert and James leave the bar tossing the car keys between them. Ultimately they decided Robert
would drive and James climbed into the passenger seat. As Robert drove out of the parking lot and
accelerated into traffic, he was unable to control the car and crossed the centre line and into the path of
an on-coming car. The driver of the other car was majorly injured, while James and Robert suffered
relatively minor injuries. Blood tests taken shortly after the accident showed that Robert's blood-alcohol
level was three times the legal limit.
Can the spouse of the other driver sue the bar for negligence?
Yes, because the bar is responsible for the subsequent actions of every patron who
A.
walks out of the bar, intoxicated or otherwise.

B. No, because Robert caused the accident and the bar had no relation to him

Yes, because the bar had a duty of care not to serve alcohol to an inebriated person
C.
and to ensure that a drunk does not leave the bar and then too, drive.

D. No, because the bar owed no duty of care to the injured driver.
Question 83 Principle: An agreement in restraint of trade is void. But any agreement which bars a person
from doing a certain activity, for a certain period of time is not void.
Facts: Archan, a milk man, got into an agreement with Varsha, an owner of a milk union, manufacturing
milk products. Under this agreement, Archan agreed that for an unlimited time, he would sell all his milk
only to Varsha who will in-turn use the same in her plant to manufacture various milk products. Decide
the validity of this agreement.

29
 A. The agreement is valid as this arrangement does not amount to a restraint of trade.

B. The agreement is invalid as this arrangement amounts to restraint of trade.

The agreement is valid as this arrangement has been entered into between Archan
C.
and Varsha freely.

D. The agreement is invalid as the arrangement is unreasonable in character.

Question 84 Principles: Derivativapotestas non potestesse major primitiva - The power which is derived
cannot be greater than that from which it is derived.
Facts: H gives his house on lease to J. J is the lessee for a period of 10 years. Around the ninth year, he
wishes to solidify his title on the house for the sake of convenience, and sells the house to his son. Is J
authorised to do so?
Yes, because during the period of 10 years, J was given absolute control of the
A.
property and had all rights over it.

B. Yes, because J has acted in good faith and has done nothing wrong.

C. No, because he cannot transfer a greater title than he has.

D. No, because he must return the property after 10 years to H, the rightful owner.

Question 85 Facts: R finds a gold watch on the ground, and appropriates it. He exchanges it for money at
a shop. It turns out that the watch belongs to another customer X who comes to the shop, identifies it
and seeks to take it back the next day.
A. R must pay back the shop owner, and the latter must give the watch back to X.

B. If X wants the watch, he must buy it back from the shop.

C. The shop owner must return the watch to X, but has no claim against R.

D. R must pay back the cost of the watch to X.

Question 86 Principles: I: Any act done by a person to protect himself or his property is considered to be
private defence.
II: The defence used by a person in order to protect himself or his property must be reasonable and
proportionate.
III: There is no right of private defence against the right of private defence.
Facts: X trespasses on Y’s property and attempts to take away a potted plant from Y’s backyard. Y is
angered, and shoots X, resulting in X’s death. Is Y protected under private defence?
Yes, because he was trying to protect his property and can go to any lengths for the
A.
same.

B. No, because it is unlawful to take someone’s life while acting in defence of property.

C. Yes, because X was committing a crime and was a danger to society.

30
 D. No, because the force used by Y was not reasonable or proportionate.
Question 87 Principles: Mens rea (guilty mind) and actus reus (guilty act) result in a crime only when
they occur together. Else, no crime is committed.
Facts: Reema wanted to injure her neighbour Sheela as she held a grudge against Sheela. She went to
Sheela’s house, armed with a metal rod, but no one was at home. Later, Reema’s car accidentally
bumped into Sheela’s car from behind, and Sheela suffered a head injury as she wasn’t wearing her
seatbelt. Has Reema committed a crime?
A. Yes, because Reema had a guilty mind to injure Sheela.

B. No, because the injury was Sheela’s fault since she didn’t wear a helmet.

C. Yes, because perpetrators of road accidents must be severely punished.

D. No, because the guilty mind of Reema was not the reason behind Sheela’s injury.
Question 88 Principles: Mens rea (guilty mind) and actus reus (guilty act) result in a crime only when
they occur together. Else, no crime is committed.
Facts: Jagat had a plan to kidnap Siya from her school on Monday. She did not, however, attend school
that day, and thus he postponed his plan by 2 days, successfully kidnapping her on Wednesday. Has
Jagat committed a crime?
No, because the mens rea was to kidnap her on Monday while the actual kidnapping
A.
took place 2 days later.

Yes, because even though the kidnapping was postponed, the mens rea was not
B.
extinguished and was present on Wednesday as well.

Yes, because even though act and guilty mind don’t coincide, the severity of his act
C.
makes Jagat guilty.

D. No, because Jagat was unsuccessful in performing the crime on Monday.

Question 89 Principle: Under Indian Constitution, everybody shall be equal before law.
Facts: The Income Tax Act happens to provide that those whose annual income is up to Rs. 60,000/-
shall pay 10% of their income as tax: and those whose annual income exceeds Rs. 60,000/- shall pay the
tax at the rate of 20%. Those citizens whose annual income exceeds Rs. 60,000/- challenge the
legislation on the ground that it is in violation of the principle of equality before law.
They will succeed, because the law discriminates against the people who earn more
A.
than Rs. 60,000/- per annum.

They will not succeed, because the people who earn more than Rs. 60,000/- are not
B.
equal to the people who earn less than Rs. 60,000/-.

They will not succeed, because this law enables the Government to equalise the
C.
incomes of all the people in the country.

D. They will succeed because as per the constitution evey one shall be treated equally.

31
Question 90 Principle: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid act or
omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbor. The neighbor for this purpose is any person
whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.
Facts: Krishnan, while driving his car at a high speed in a crowded road, knocked down a cyclist. The
cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around. Lakshmi, a pregnant woman passing by,
suffered from a nervous shock, leading to abortion. Laakshmi filed a suit against Krishnan claiming
damages.
Krishnan will be liable, because he owed a duty of reasonable care to everybody on
A.
the road including Lakshmi.

Krishnan will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Lakshmi suffering
B.
from nervous shock as a result of his act.

C. Krishnan will be liable, to Lakshmi because he failed to drive carefully.

Krishnan will not be held liable because Lakshmi’s injuries are remotely connected to
D.
the incident.
Question 91
Principle: A person is liable for all direct consequences of his act, which he could have reasonably
foreseen as naturally flowing from his act.
Facts: Anant, while driving his scooter at a high speed, knocked down Shankar, a middle-aged person,
walking on the road. Shankar broke his leg as a result of the accident. But since Shankar was suffering
from diabetes, the leg had to be amputated. Shankar filed a suit against Anant for the loss of leg.
A. Anant is liable, since the loss of leg is directly attributable to his act.

Anant is not liable for the loss of leg, since he did not know Shankar was suffering
B.
from diabetes.

Anant is not liable, since a diabetes-patient like Shankar should not have walked on
C.
the road.

D. Anant is not liable since loss of leg is not due to the act of Anant.
Question 92
Principle: A master will be liable for the wrongful acts of his servants done in the course of employment.
Facts: Ramadevi was an old widow who opened an account with the Syndicate Bank, where she would
deposit Rs. 5 every day in the Bank. Sundar was the neighbour who used to collect the amounts and
deposit them in the Bank. Sundar would get a small commission from the Bank for the money deposited.
It was discovered one day that Sundar for more than three months did not deposit the money and
vanished with that money. Ramadevi filed a suit against Syndicate Bank.
A. Syndicate Bank would not be liable, because Sundar was not its employee.

Syndicate Bank would not be liable for the failure of Ramadevi to check the status of
B.
her accounts.

Syndicate Bank would be liable, because Sundar was paid commission by the Bank
C.
for doing its work.

32
 Syndicate Bank would be liable because Sunder being an employee of the Bank had
D.
misappropriated the money.
Question 93 Principle: Contract is an agreement freely entered into between the parties.
Facts: Ramlal was a dealer in cement. The Government of India, by an order issued under the Essential
Commodities Act, fixed the price of cement and also the quantity which a person can buy from the
dealer. Ramlal carried on his business under this new order for sometime, but he refused to pay the
sales tax on his sale transactions on the ground that these were not the contracts freely entered into by
him.
A. Ramlal would succeed, because the price and quantity were not negotiated by him;

Ramlal wouldnot succeed, because free consent between the parties was there
B.
despite the restriction on price and quantity.

Ramlal would succeed, because the Government under the new order forced him to
C.
enter into contracts.

D. None of the above

Question 94
Principle: Law does not take notice of trifles.
Facts: A proposes to his neighbour B that they both should go together for a morning walk. B agrees to
the proposals and it is decided that both of them would meet at a particular point 6 A.M. from where
they would set off for the morning walk. Instead of the agreement B does not turn up. A waits for him at
6 a.m. every day for a continuous period of seven days. There after he files a suit against B claiming
damages for the agony and mental torture suffered by him. Decide.
A. B is guilty of breach of contract and is liable to pay damages

B. There is no intention to enter into legal relations

C. The matter is too small and the court will refuse to go into it.

D. Such contracts are not enforceable in the court of law.

Question 95 The Section 8 of the RP Act, 1951 was in news recently, it deals with which of the following?
A. Voting through postal ballot

B. Disqualification of MPs and MLAs

C. Ceiling on expenditure

D. Electoral funding
Question 96
Consider the following statements:
1: Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides for maintenance not only to the wife but
also to child and parents.
2: The Supreme Court can use extraordinary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution to grant
divorce in a case of “irretrievable breakdown of marriage”.

33
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 97
Right to Bail in India is which type of right?
A. Fundamental Right

B. Statutory Right

C. Natural Right

D. Both (a) and (b)

Question 98 Consider the following statements:
1: In India, there are no written rules on the recusal of judges from hearing cases listed before them in
constitutional courts.
2: As per the Supreme Court guidelines, a judge must indicate reasons for his recusal from a particular
case.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2
Question 99
Article 363-A was inserted in the Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971, this amendment is
best known for which of the following?
A. The President’s assent to Constitutional Amendment Bill was made compulsory

B. Fundamental Right to Property was curtailed

C. Privy Purse and privileges of former rulers of princely states were abolished

The voting age was decreased from 21 to 18 for both Lok Sabha and Legislative
D.
Assemblies elections
Question 100
The escape clause under the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management) Act can be invoked
during which of the following situations:
1: an Act of God

34
2: collapse of agriculture
3: a sharp decline in real output growth
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 3

B. 2 and 3

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3
Question 101 Supreme Court Collegium has recommended justice S Muralidhar as the chief justice of
which of the following High court?
A. Telangana High court

B. Orissa high Court

C. Punjab & Haryana High court

D. Bombay High court

Question 102 The first virtual court was started in which of the following city?
A. Delhi

B. Chennai

C. Bombay

D. Kolkata
Question 103
Which High Court had recently reiterated that Denying married daughter benefit of compassionate
appointment is unconstitutional?
A. Karnatka high court

B. Delhi High court

C. Madras high court

D. Kerala High court

Question 104
Who is the present chairman of National company Law appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)?
A. Justice Bansi Lal Bhat

B. Justice PP Bhatt

C. Justice Adarsh kumar goel

35
 D. Justice L Narasimha Reddy
Question 105 The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with which of the following?
A. Continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment.

B. Free and compulsory education for a children be been the age of 6 and 14 years.

C. Reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments.

D. Allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States.

Section : Numerical Ability

Question 106 Each member in a kitty party contributed twice as many rupees as the total number of
members present and total collection was Rs. 9248. The number of members present in the party was?
A. 68

B. 56

C. 42

D. 66
Question 107
Rahul borrowed Rs. 830 from Mr. Lal at the rate of 12% p.a. SI for 3 years. He then added some money
to the borrowed sum and lent it to Shobha for the same period at the rate of 14% p.a. interest. If Rahul
gains Rs. 93.90 in the whole transaction, what amount did he add from his side?
A. Rs. 115

B. Rs. 120

C. Rs. 125

D. Rs. 105
Question 108: 48 litre of Glycerin is mixed with 144 litre Rose water. D litre of total mixture is taken out
and 32 litre Glycerin and 48 litre Rose water are added in the mixture. The final mixture contains 30%
Glycerin, find the quantity of the mixture that is taken out.
A. 24 litre

B. 32 litre

C. 40 litre

D. 20 litre
Question 109
A bag contains 5 yellow and 2 green and 3 red colour dice. If one dice from the bag are choosen at
random, what is the probability that dice is either yellow or red colour?

36
 A. 3/4

B. 4/5

C. 3/10

D. 7/10
Question 110 A roller with diameter 84 cm and length 120 cm, makes 500 complete rotation to flat a
field. If cost to flat the field is Rs. 5 per m2, then what will be the complete cost to flat the field?
A. Rs. 7920

B. Rs. 8270

C. Rs. 6850

D. Rs. 7380
Question 111. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27
seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds
is:
A. 1:3

B. 3:2

C. 3:4

D. None of these

Question 112 In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged?
A. 72

B. 144

C. 360

D. 720
Question 113 A reduction of 10% in the price of sugar enables a man to buy 25 kg more for Rs. 225.
What is the original price of sugar (per kilogram)?
A. Rs. 1

B. Rs. 3

C. Rs. 5

D. Rs. 6

37
Question 114 It is being given that (232 + 1) is completely divisible by a whole number. Which of the
following numbers is completely divisible by this number?
A. (1216 + 1)

B. (216 - 1)

C. (7 x 223)

D. (296 + 1)

Question 115 There is a conical tent, its slant height is 13 m and diameter is 10 m. Find the cost of
painting the curved surface area of the tent at the rate of Rs. 1.4 per m2.

A. Rs. 286

B. Rs. 290

C. Rs. 274

D. Rs. 268

Section ; Logical Reasoning

Question 116 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given beside:
There are six officers Aditya, Raman, Arbind, Kishore, Mohan and Rajan who work in three different
departments of Central Government, viz Income Tax Department, Sales Tax Department and Customs
Department. Out of these six, three officers work in Income Tax Department, two in Sales-Tax
Department and one in Customs Department. Each officer has one city as his jurisdiction. Three officers
work in Agra, two in Kanpur and one in Lucknow.
A: No Income Tax officer has Kanpur as his jurisdiction.
B: Two Sales Tax officers work in different cities.
C: The Income Tax officer works in Lucknow.
D: Arbind, who is not in Sales Tax department, works in Kanpur.
E: Aditya does not have Agra as his jurisdiction and he does not work in Income Tax department.
F: Mohan and Rajan work in different departments.
G: Raman and Kishore are officers in the same department but in different cities.

38
H: Mohan does not work in Income Tax Department and Kishore does not have Lucknow as his
jurisdiction.
Question:
The Sales Tax officers work in which of the following cities?
A. Agra, Lucknow

B. Lucknow, Kanpur

C. Kanpur, Agra

D. Can’t be determined
Question 117
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
beside:
There are six officers Aditya, Raman, Arbind, Kishore, Mohan and Rajan who work in three different
departments of Central Government, viz Income Tax Department, Sales Tax Department and Customs
Department. Out of these six, three officers work in Income Tax Department, two in Sales-Tax
Department and one in Customs Department. Each officer has one city as his jurisdiction. Three officers
work in Agra, two in Kanpur and one in Lucknow.
A: No Income Tax officer has Kanpur as his jurisdiction.
B: Two Sales Tax officers work in different cities.
C: The Income Tax officer works in Lucknow.
D: Arbind, who is not in Sales Tax department, works in Kanpur.
E: Aditya does not have Agra as his jurisdiction and he does not work in Income Tax department.
F: Mohan and Rajan work in different departments.
G: Raman and Kishore are officers in the same department but in different cities.
H: Mohan does not work in Income Tax Department and Kishore does not have Lucknow as his
jurisdiction.
Question:a
Raman and Kishore work in which of the following departments?
A. Income Tax Department

B. Either Custom or Income Tax Department

C. Either Sales Tax or Income Tax Department

D. Custom Department
Question 118
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
beside:
There are six officers Aditya, Raman, Arbind, Kishore, Mohan and Rajan who work in three different
departments of Central Government, viz Income Tax Department, Sales Tax Department and Customs
Department. Out of these six, three officers work in Income Tax Department, two in Sales-Tax
Department and one in Customs Department. Each officer has one city as his jurisdiction. Three officers
work in Agra, two in Kanpur and one in Lucknow.
A: No Income Tax officer has Kanpur as his jurisdiction.
B: Two Sales Tax officers work in different cities.

39
C: The Income Tax officer works in Lucknow.
D: Arbind, who is not in Sales Tax department, works in Kanpur.
E: Aditya does not have Agra as his jurisdiction and he does not work in Income Tax department.
F: Mohan and Rajan work in different departments.
G: Raman and Kishore are officers in the same department but in different cities.
H: Mohan does not work in Income Tax Department and Kishore does not have Lucknow as his
jurisdiction.
Question:
Which of the following is/are not correct?
I: Raman, Kishore and Arbind work in Income Tax Department.
II: Both the Sales Tax officers work in Agra.
III: Kishore works In Lucknow.
A. Only I and II

B. Only II and III

C. None of I, II and III is true

D. Can’t be determined
Question 119
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
beside:
There are six officers Aditya, Raman, Arbind, Kishore, Mohan and Rajan who work in three different
departments of Central Government, viz Income Tax Department, Sales Tax Department and Customs
Department. Out of these six, three officers work in Income Tax Department, two in Sales-Tax
Department and one in Customs Department. Each officer has one city as his jurisdiction. Three officers
work in Agra, two in Kanpur and one in Lucknow.
A: No Income Tax officer has Kanpur as his jurisdiction.
B: Two Sales Tax officers work in different cities.
C: The Income Tax officer works in Lucknow.
D: Arbind, who is not in Sales Tax department, works in Kanpur.
E: Aditya does not have Agra as his jurisdiction and he does not work in Income Tax department.
F: Mohan and Rajan work in different departments.
G: Raman and Kishore are officers in the same department but in different cities.
H: Mohan does not work in Income Tax Department and Kishore does not have Lucknow as his
jurisdiction.
Question:
Who among the following work in Kanpur?
A. Aditya and Arbind

B. Raman and Arbind

C. Aditya and Kishore

D. Mohan and Rajan

Question 120 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given beside:

40
There are six officers Aditya, Raman, Arbind, Kishore, Mohan and Rajan who work in three different
departments of Central Government, viz Income Tax Department, Sales Tax Department and Customs
Department. Out of these six, three officers work in Income Tax Department, two in Sales-Tax
Department and one in Customs Department. Each officer has one city as his jurisdiction. Three officers
work in Agra, two in Kanpur and one in Lucknow.
A: No Income Tax officer has Kanpur as his jurisdiction.
B: Two Sales Tax officers work in different cities.
C: The Income Tax officer works in Lucknow.
D: Arbind, who is not in Sales Tax department, works in Kanpur.
E: Aditya does not have Agra as his jurisdiction and he does not work in Income Tax department.
F: Mohan and Rajan work in different departments.
G: Raman and Kishore are officers in the same department but in different cities.
H: Mohan does not work in Income Tax Department and Kishore does not have Lucknow as his
jurisdiction.
Question:
Who among the following works in Lucknow?
A. Custom officer

B. Income Tax officer

C. Mohan

D. Aditya
Question 121 Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, "This man's son's sister is my mother - in - law'.
How is the woman's husband related to the man in the photograph?
A. Son in law

B. Son

C. Grandson

D. Nephew
Question 122 Statement: The X-Airlines has decided to increase the passenger fare by 15 percent with
immediate effect.
Assumptions:
I: The demand for seats of X-Airlines may remain unchanged even after the hike of fare.
II: Other airline companies may also hike the passenger fares.
A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Either I or II is implicit

D. Neither I nor II is implicit

Question 123 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Below given a series of some five numbers:
446 362 576 495 241

41
Answer the following questions based on these numbers:
Question:
If the middle digit in all the numbers are removed, then which of the following number will be
minimum?
A. 446

B. 576

C. 241

D. 362
Question 124 What is Rakhi's position from the left end of a row?
I: There are 4 students between Gauri and Rakhi. Bhavna is 6th to the right of Gauri.
II: Gini is 6th to the left of Rakhi and is 2nd from the left end.
A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer
C.
the question.

D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Question 125 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: In the following questions, the symbols $,#,@,% and * are
illustrate the following meanings.
P$Q – P is not smaller than Q
P#Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
P@Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P%Q – P is not greater than Q
P*Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
Question:
Statements:
K # L, L % M, M * N, N # O
Conclusions:
I: K # M
II: K * M
I II: L % O
A. I only

B. Either I or II only

C. III only

D. All I, II and III

Question 126 Based on the given details answer the following questions:
1: D lives between B and F.
2: E and A live on successive floors.

42
3: B lives in the topmost floor.
4: There is exactly one person between C and E.
5: There are exactly two people between F and G.
Question:
Who lives in the seventh floor?
A. D

B. F

C. A

D. B
Question 127 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Each question presents a situation and asks you to make a
judgment regarding that particular circumstance. Choose an answer based on given information.
Question:
Eileen is planning a special birthday dinner for her husband's 35th birthday. She wants the evening to be
memorable, but her husband is a simple man who would rather be in jeans at a baseball game than in a
suit at a fancy restaurant. Which restaurant below should Eileen choose?
Alfredo's offers fine Italian cuisine and an elegant Tuscan decor. Patrons will feel as
A.
though they've spent the evening in a luxurious Italian villa.

Pancho's Mexican Buffet is an all-you-can-eat family style smorgasbord with the best
B.
tacos in town.

The Parisian Bistro is a four-star French restaurant where guests are treated like
C.
royalty. Chef Dilbert Olay is famous for his beef bourguignon.

Marty's serves delicious, hearty meals in a charming setting reminiscent of a baseball

D. clubhouse in honor of the owner, Marty Lester, a former major league baseball all-
star.
Question 128 The film director wants an actress for the lead role of Lucy who perfectly fits the
description that appears in the original screenplay. He is not willing to consider actresses who do not
resemble the character as she is described in the screenplay, no matter how talented they are. The
screenplay describes Lucy as an average-sized, forty something redhead, with deep brown eyes, very fair
skin, and a brilliant smile. The casting agent has four actresses in mind.
Actress #1 is a stunning red-haired beauty who is 5'9" and in her mid-twenties. Her eyes are brown and
she has an olive complexion.
Actress #2 has red hair, big brown eyes, and a fair complexion. She is in her mid-forties and is 5'5".
Actress #3 is 5'4" and of medium build. She has red hair, brown eyes, and is in her early forties.
Actress #4 is a blue-eyed redhead in her early thirties. She's of very slight build and stands at 5'.
A. 1, 2

B. 2, 3

C. 1, 4

43
 D. 2, 4
Question 129 The school principal has received complaints from parents about bullying in the school
yard during recess. He wants to investigate and end this situation as soon as possible, so he has asked
the recess aides to watch closely. Which situation should the recess aides report to the principal?
A. A girl is sitting glumly on a bench reading a book and not interacting with her peers.

B. Four girls are surrounding another girl and seem to have possession of her backpack.

Two boys are playing a one-on-one game of basketball and are arguing over the last
C.
basket scored.

Three boys are huddled over a handheld video game, which isn't supposed to be on
D.
school grounds.
Question 130
Mrs. Carson took a taxi to meet her three friends for lunch. They were waiting for her outside the
restaurant when she pulled up in the car. She was so excited to see her friends that she left her tote bag
in the taxi. As the taxi pulled away, she and her friends took notice of the license plate number so they
would be able to identify the car when they called the taxi company.
#1: The four women seem to agree that the plate starts out with the letter J.
#2: Three of them agree that the plate ends with 12L.
#3: Three of them think that the second letter is X, and a different three think that the third letter is K.
The four license plate numbers below represent what each of the four women thinks she saw. Which
one is most likely the license plate number of the taxi?
A. JXK 12L

B. JYK 12L

C. JXK 12I

D. JXX 12L
Question 131
The four women seem to agree that the plate starts out with the letter J. Three of them agree that the
plate ends with 12L. Three of them think that the second letter is X, and a different three think that the
third letter is K. The plate description that has all of these common elements is "Option A".
Zachary has invited his three buddies over to watch the basketball game on his wide-screen television.
They are all hungry, but no one wants to leave to get food. Just as they are arguing about who should
make the food run, a commercial comes on for a local pizze-ria that delivers. The phone number flashes
on the screen briefly and they all try to remember it. By the time Zachary grabs a pen and paper, each of
them recollects a different number.
#1: All of the men agree that the first three numbers are 995.
#2: Three of them agree that the fourth number is 9.
#3: Three agree that the fifth number is 2.
#4: Three agree that the sixth number is 6; three others agree that the seventh number is also 6.
Which of the numbers is most likely the telephone number of the pizzeria?
A. 995-9266

44
 B. 995-9336

C. 995-9268

D. 995-8266
Question 132
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
853 670 246 586 324 195
Question:
If all the digits in the number are arranged in the descending order within the number from right to left,
then which among the following will be the second highest number after re arrangement?
A. 853

B. 670

C. 324

D. 195
Question 133
If all the digits in the number are arranged in the ascending order within the number from right to left,
then which among the following will be the second lowest number after re arrangement?
A. 853

B. 670

C. 324

D. 246
Question 134 If 9 is subtracted from each number than how many numbers thus formed are odd
numbers?
A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four
Question 135
What is the product of the second digit of lowest number and first digit of the highest number?
A. 86

B. 40

C. 72

45
 D. 90
Question 136 If all the numbers are added, then what will be the second digit from the left of the new
number formed?
A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 8
Question 137
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Point P is 10m to the East of Point O. Point P is 10m to the South of Point X. Point K is 10m to the East of
Point X. Point K is 5m to the North of Point Z. Point Z is 10m to the West of Point Y.
Question:
In which direction is Point Y with respect to Point O?
A. North West

B. North East

C. East

D. South
Question 138
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Point P is 10m to the East of Point O. Point P is 10m to the South of Point X. Point K is 10m to the East of
Point X. Point K is 5m to the North of Point Z. Point Z is 10m to the West of Point Y.
Question:
In which direction is Point Z with respect to Point X?
A. North West

B. North

C. East

D. South East
Question 139 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Point P is 10m to the East of Point O. Point P is 10m to the South of Point X. Point K is 10m to the East of
Point X. Point K is 5m to the North of Point Z. Point Z is 10m to the West of Point Y.
Question:
In which direction is point X with respect to point Y?

46
 A. North West

B. North

C. East

D. South
Question 140
How many such numerals are there in the number ‘7384821084’ which will remain at the Same position
when arranged in ascending order from right to left?
A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four
Question 141 How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘Newton’, each of which have as many
letters between then in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four
Question 142 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIOINS: In each of the questions below are given some statements
followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Question:
Statements: J>K>L; L<N<A; A=B
Conclusion I: J>A II: B>K
A. If only conclusion I follows.

B. If only conclusion II follows.

C. If either conclusion I or II follows.

D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Question 143 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIOINS: In each of the questions below are given some statements
followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Question:

47
Statements: P>Q>R>S<T=U<V
Conclusion I: V>P II: P>S
A. If only conclusion I follows.

B. If only conclusion II follows.

C. If either conclusion I or II follows.

D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Question 144 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIOINS: In each of the questions below are given some statements
followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Question:
Statements: J>K<L<M<O=P>Q
Conclusion I: J>M II: Q>K
A. If only conclusion I follows.

B. If only conclusion II follows.

C. If either conclusion I or II follows.

D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Question 145 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIOINS: In each of the questions below are given some statements
followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Question:
Statements: Z>X=U; U<K<L; L>A
Conclusion I: L>X II: Z<A
A. If only conclusion I follows.

B. If only conclusion II follows.

C. If either conclusion I or II follows.

D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Question 146 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIOINS: In each of the questions below are given some statements
followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Question:
Statements: Q>R<S; S=T<V; V<N
Conclusion I: Q=N II: N>Q

48
 A. If only conclusion I follows.

B. If only conclusion II follows.

C. If either conclusion I or II follows.

D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Question 147 How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘TROLLS’, each of which have as many
letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A. one

B. two

C. three

D. None of these
Question 148 DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
A: There is a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E.
B: One of them is a horticulturist, one is a physicist, one is a journalist, one is an industrialist and one is
an advocate.
C: Three of them A, C and advocate prefer tea to coffee and two of them — B and the journalist prefer
coffee to tea.
D: The industrialist and D and A, are friends to one another but two of them prefer coffee to tea.
E: The horticulturist is C's brother.
Question:
Who is the horticulturist?
A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Question 149
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A: There is a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E.
B: One of them is a horticulturist, one is a physicist, one is a journalist, one is an industrialist and one is
an advocate.
C: Three of them A, C and advocate prefer tea to coffee and two of them — B and the journalist prefer
coffee to tea.
D: The industrialist and D and A, are friends to one another but two of them prefer coffee to tea.
E: The horticulturist is C's brother.
Question:
Who is the industrialist?

49
 A. E

B. C

C. B

D. A
Question 150
DIRECTION FOR QUESTIONS: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
A: There is a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E.
B: One of them is a horticulturist, one is a physicist, one is a journalist, one is an industrialist and one is
an advocate.
C: Three of them A, C and advocate prefer tea to coffee and two of them — B and the journalist prefer
coffee to tea.
D: The industrialist and D and A, are friends to one another but two of them prefer coffee to tea.
E: The horticulturist is C's brother.
Question:
Which of the following groups includes a person who likes tea but is not an advocate?
A. ACE

B. DE

C. BCE

D. None of theses

50
Answer key:
Q.1 Explanation : C
The given stanza is talking about the advantages of harvesting the paddy straw. As it explains that this
kind of paddy variety gives them (farmers) just the double yield so they need not spend on other things
like pesticides or other chemicals to increase the yield of this kind of paddy.
Option (d) can be easily omitted as it is giving information about some person. Option (b) is talking
about revised Minimum Support Prices (MSP) that has resulted in the increase of return to farmers.
Option (c) is the most viable answer choice making whole of the stanza meaningful. Hence option (c) is
the correct answer choice.
Q.2. Explanation : D
The given stanza is talking about the worsening Non-Performing Assets situation in banks. Tip of the
iceberg- Only a hint or suggestion of a much larger or more complex issue or problem Saga- a long story
of heroic achievement, especially a medieval prose narrative in Old Norse or Old Icelandic/ epic. Option
(a) can be easily omitted as it is talking about stakeholders and their efforts regarding something, Option
(b) is conveying an idea like it is talking about some rate that has been fixed for banks to follow on.
Q.3. Explanation : A
The given stanza has questioned the government that if agriculture has a great contribution in the
economy of the country then why is it so that politicians don’t give it priority and they abstain
themselves from talking on the topic agriculture? Option (d) can be easily omitted as it has mentioned
some issue regarding subsidy. Option (c) can’t be the answer as it is not going to fill up the given blank
both grammatically and contextually correct. Option (a) is the only option which is making sense while
completing the stanza. Hence option (a) is the correct answer choice.
Q.4. Explanation : B
The given stanza is talking about the dark matter, it’s characteristics and why is it necessary to study it.
Stanza has shown a relation among the galaxy, star formation and the dark matter. Option (d) can be
easily omitted as it is talking about some process through which the irregular shape galaxies transform
into other shapes, which is totally out of context. In option (b) ‘how stars are formed’ gives us the clue
that this could be the correct answer choice. Option (b) is the most viable answer choice making whole
of the stanza meaningful. Hence option (b) is the correct answer choice.
Q.5. Explanation : C
The given stanza has talked about a U.N. report which explains that how fragile climate has brought the
food security at risk. Because of the unsustainable use of land and water has led to the depletion of the
natural resources, resulting into the scarcity of the food and less yielding farm output. Option (d),
though being in the context of the given stanza doesn’t fit in the blank contextually so can be easily
omitted. Option (c) is the most viable answer choice as it is talking about population growth and to
provide the food at affordable price thus making whole of the stanza meaningful. Hence option (c) is the
correct answer choice.
Q.6. Explanation : D
The given stanza is talking about the idea of Govt. banks rationalizing the foreign units. Banks would
have to take on rationalization of overseas operations for cost efficiencies and the interaction or
cooperation of two or more organizations.
None of the given options can get up with the given context of the stanza.
The correct option filling the blank contextually could be, “for cost efficiencies and synergies in overseas
markets, based on competitive strength and viability.”

51
Hence option (d) is the correct answer choice.
Q.7. Explanation : C
The appropriate choice is option (c).The sentence can be used with the conjunction while in such a way,
“While it was true that the state governments were insisting on keeping the rates high for fear of tax
collections falling short, it was never clear why the Centre didn’t push for lower rates as it was
guaranteeing that states would get 14% growth in their tax revenues in the next five years.” All the
other options fail to satisfy the given conjunction while
Q.8. Explanation : D
The most suitable choice here is option (d).Although and though both mean “in spite of something.”
They are subordinating conjunctions. This means that the clause that they introduce is a subordinate
clause which needs a main clause to make it complete. The sentences can be combined with the given
conjunction in such a form, “They examined the rest of the garments and each, upon careful
observation, was identified in a like fashion although some of the markings were so faded they were no
longer legible.”
Q.9. Explanation : C
The appropriate option here is option (c).However is a conjunction which is used to introduce a
statement that contrasts with or seems to contradict something that has been said previously. Here
however can be used in the following way to combine the given sentences (A) and (B) i.e. “The
Taiwanese government is claiming that the People’s Republic of China would invade the island state if
the U.S. withdrew its support for Taipei, however, it is dubious that Beijing has the amphibious assault
capacity or capability to conduct a successful sea-based invasion of Taiwan where a forcible entry is
required.”
Q.10 Explanation : B
The most suitable choice is option (b). As, when used in the form of conjunction is used to indicate that
something happens during the time when something else is taking place. The two sentences (C) and (D)
can be combined in the given way by using this conjunction: “A growing number of exchanges have
stopped fiat support as Indian crypto currency exchanges ramp up peer-to-peer and crypto-to-crypto
trading.
Q.11. Explanation : A
The direct link between empowering women and alleviating poverty, increasing productivity, and
combating climate change is well-recognised. ... Statement A quotes ‘gender’ as a key dimension to
analyse ‘climate change’ while the statement taken as reference here confirms ‘a direct link’ between
these two.
Q.12. Explanation : B
During the 2014 national and State elections, for the first time women’s safety and empowerment were
topics of debate, marking a significant shift in how gender concerns are viewed by the political class as
well as by voters in India. ...
The author clearly states that the discussion or debate that has been held during 2014 national and
state elections for the first time has actually marked the shift regarding gender concerns as discussed in
the passage.
Q.13. Explanation : B
... In this way, the intent of universalising the process, so that it equally benefits women in all States,
was lost in the pragmatism of the move and for it to be truly effective, GRB must be viewed as an
essential tool to tackle societal inequality that hinders progress instead of a symbolic exercise for
pleasing the emerging women constituency.
The later part of the last sentence of the last paragraph clearly supports the idea stated in statement B.
However, the ideas mentioned in statement A and C can’t be inferred from the passage.
Q.14. Explanation : B

52
The rationale behind GRB is that policy outcomes are not as gender-neutral as commonly believed, and
can reinforce or exacerbate exiting hierarchies. ... It can be inferred from the underlined part in
reference given above that the GRB has been formulated on the rationale of the gender discrimination
which exists in the system and which hampers the delivery of benefits of a policy to both the genders
equally.
Statement A, however true, is not stated with reference to the term ‘Gender-neutral’.
Q.15. Explanation : D
The budget also initiated the decentralisation of funding in GRB, thus shifting the onus for budgeting
and implementation from the Central Ministry to State counterparts. While this did empower the States
to come up with women-specific policies as per their respective challenges, the obvious downside was
the risk that States could choose to not prioritise gender in their budgeting.
The author does not evidently support the idea of decentralisation of funding in GRB by presenting a
disadvantageous aspect of the move.
Q.16. Explanation : B
Make someone's skin crawl (Idiom): if someone or something makes your skin crawl, you think they are
extremely unpleasant or frightening.
That horror movie made my skin crawl.
Synonyms: make flesh crawl, make skin creep.
Q.17. Explanation : D
A friend at court (Idiom): a person in a position to use their influence on one's behalf.
Ex. I knew that it never hurt to have a friend at court.
Q.18. Explanation : A
Loose ends (idiom)
A loose end is a fragment of unfinished business. It is basically a part of something (such as a job or
story) that has not been completed. The aspects of something that are unresolved or unfinished are
called loose ends. For example, Thearrangements have been made, except for a few loose ends. I just
need to tie up a few loose ends before I put the house up for sale.
Q.19. Explanation : B
One step ahead (idiom)
It means ‘managing to avoid competition or danger from someone or something.’ For example, The
teacher really has to work to keep one step ahead of the class. She always seems to be one step ahead
of me.
Q.20. Explanation : D
Full speed ahead (idiom)
It means ‘as quickly and efficiently as possible; with all possible energy and determination.’ For example,
We’ll have to go full speed ahead if we want to get this done by the deadline. We're ready to go full
speed ahead once the health inspector signs off.
Q.22. Explanation : D
No explanation provided
Q.23. Explanation : D
No explanation provided
Q.24. Explanation : b
Q.25. Explanation : A
No explanation provided
Q.26. Explanation : D
Replace ‘isn’t it?’ by ‘didn’t she?’
Q.27. Explanation : B
Replace ‘any that’ by ‘someone who’

53
Q.28. Explanation : D
Replace ‘honestness’ by ‘honesty’.
Q.29. Explanation : b
Remove ‘to’ from the sentence.
Q.30. Explanation : b
Replace ‘Illusion’ by ‘delusion’
Q.31. Explanation :b
As per the meaning of the sentence the words, ‘Transparency’ and ‘Accountability’, fit in the blanks.
Q.32. Explanation : d
As per the meaning of the sentence the words, ‘Adopting’ and ‘Systematic’, fit in the blanks.
Q.33. Explanation : c
As per the meaning of the sentence the words, ‘Pioneers’ and ‘Indigenously’, fit in the blanks.
Q.34. Explanation : d
As per the meaning of the sentence the words, ‘Perishable’ and ‘Radical’, fit in the blanks.
Q.35. Explanation : b
As per the meaning of the sentence the words, ‘Selflessly’ and ‘Personal’, fit in the blanks.
Q.36. Explanation : d
No explanation provided
Q.37 Explanation : c
No explanation provided
Q.38 Explanation : d
No explanation provided
Q.39 Explanation : a
No explanation provided
Q.40. Explanation : c
No explanation provided
Q.41. Explanation : d
No explanation provided
Q.42. Explanation : c
No explanation provided
Q.43 Explanation : a
No explanation provided
Q.44. Explanation : d
No explanation provided
Q.45 Explanation : b
No explanation provided
Q.46. Explanation : a
No explanation provided
Q.47. Explanation : d
No explanation provided
Q.48. Explanation : b
No explanation provided
Q.49. Explanation : d
No explanation provided
Q.50. Explanation : a
No explanation provided
Q.51. Explanation : a
No explanation provided

54
Q.52. Explanation : a
No explanation provided
Q.53. Explanation : d
No explanation provided
Q.54.Explanation :a
No explanation provided
Q.55. Explanation : b
No explanation provided
Q.56. Explanation : b
No explanation provided
Q.57. Explanation : b
No explanation provided
Q.58. Explanation : a
No explanation provided
Q.59. Explanation : c
No explanation provided
Q.60. Explanation : b
No explanation provided
Q.61. Explanation :d
No explanation provided
Q.62.Explanation :a
No explanation provided
Q.63. Explanation : b
No explanation provided
Q. 64. Explanation : a
No explanation provided
Q.65. Explanation : a
No explanation provided
Q.66. Explanation : b
No explanation provided
Q.67. Explanation :c
No explanation provided
Q.68. Explanation : d
No explanation provided
Q.69. Explanation : c
No explanation provided
Q.70. Explanation : a
No explanation provided
Q.71. Explanation : b
By standing in that line and raising his arm like all other patients, Azad was consenting to be vaccinated
and hence, he consented to the harm.
Q.72. Explanation : b
There was no consent. There has to be an affirmative action. Mere silence or non-movement does not
amount to consent.
Q.73. Explanation : c
The Bus Company is liable to pay Rs. 5000/- for the hotel booking and inconvenience caused by being
obliged to walk and not for Rs. 3000/- as the company did not expect Pihu to catch cold. Whereas, the

55
inconvenience caused by walking and booking the hotel arose in usual course of the act of dropping Pihu
in an isolated place where no other conveyance was available.
Q.74. Explanation : b
The employer will not be liable to pay the compensation because the injury suffered by A was not in the
course of his employment. When he boarded the ferry, he was a general member of public, who
boarded the ferry by paying the charge as any member of public would have. If the employer had any
relationship with ferry for carrying the employees, then the company would have been liable.
Q.75. Explanation : c
Ruby is not liable to transfer the land because the damages would constitute an adequate relief.
Moreover, Ankita could buy any other land by the side of lake and the land of ruby was not the unique
land. Also, since Ruby had disposed off the property to the third party, specific performance cannot be
claimed. Therefore, option (d) is also correct but according to the principle, option (c) is the more
appropriate option.
Q.76. Explanation : a
run would succeed in the divorce petition because Priya’s actions and words amounted to mental
cruelty such that Arun could no longer continue his relationship with Priya and re-establishment of
matrimonial relationship was not possible. Actual physical torture or humiliation in public is not a
requirement of cruelty. Even a mental cruelty or threats would amount to cruelty as a ground for
divorce.
Q.77. Explanation : c
Amy can claim compensation from Jack because Jack had only the right to seize and detain the cattle but
not shoot them as per Principle 2. Though, Amy would be liable for trespass but Jack would also be liable
to compensate Amy for shooting the cows.
Q.78. Explanation : c
Akshita had not obtained the consent of Aman under undue influence by dominating his will and using
her superior position. Though she had the knowledge of his secret but that was not a reason why Aman
reduced the price of rice for Akshita
Q.79. Explanation : a
For the offence of criminal conspiracy, two or more people are required. Thus, A, B and C are liable for
criminal conspiracy but D had separately planned to commit robbery and has not come together with
anyone to plan. E is not liable for conspiracy because he had not come together with D to plan to
commit a crime and had not taken any action towards commission of a crime.
Q.80. Explanation : b
By application of Principle I, the judgement will have prospective effect and on the date when
judgement was passed, Amit and Sahil’s case was pending before the Court. Though it had been decided
by Trial Court and the High Court but was still pending before the Supreme Court. As per principle 1, any
new law could not affect already decided case but has effect on pending cases. Thus, the carnal
intercourse between Amit and Sahil does not amount to any offence as per the Supreme Court
judgement.
Q.81. Explanation : b
Option 2 as the principle given says that negligence occurs when there is lack of reasonable duty of care.
And in the case scenario, the duty of care imposed is unreasonable given that Veda is colour blind.)
Q.82. Explanation : d
Self-explanatory
Q.83. Explanation :b
Q.84. Explanation : c
J merely has a permanent right of enjoyment of the property; he is not the owner of the property. He
cannot transfer right of ownership to another, seeing as it is a greater power than he himself has.

56
Option 2 as the agreement that Archan can supply milk only to Varsha for an unlimited period of time, is
in restraint of trade.)
Q.85. Explanation : a
R had no right to sell the watch, as he could only do so if he was the owner of it. He had misappropriated
it from the rightful owner of the watch, X, and must be held liable for the same by facilitating the return
of the watch to the owner.
Q.86. Explanation : d
It is evident from the facts that the act of shooting and killing X by Y is much greater in gravity than the
crime that Y was trying to prevent. Thus, private defence cannot protect Y.
Q.87. Explanation : d
Sheela’s injury was caused by an accident and not by the prior mens rea possessed by Reema. Thus, it
does not constitute a crime seeing as the act and the guilty mind occurred at different times.
Q.88. Explanation : b
The mens rea existed at the time of the kidnapping. That is, act and guilty mind coincided, which means
that the perpetrator is guilty of the crime.
Q.89. Explanation : b
According to the Principle, the Constitution provides for equality before law. In the given question, the
tax slabs are different for different income groups. This is not discriminatory as people who earn more
than Rs. 60,000 cannot be treated equally with people who do not earn that amount of income.
Q.90. Explanation : b
Applying the Principle directly, Krishnan owed a duty of ‘reasonable care’ towards people on the road.
However, it could not have been reasonably foreseen that a passer-by lady would undergo abortion on
seeing the accident. Thus, Krishnan cannot be held liable for the shock caused to the lady.
Q.91. Explanation :b
There is direct application of the Principle to the given facts. Anant could be held responsible for the
fracture of Shankar’s leg. However, he cannot be held liable for the amputation of his leg, since it could
not have been reasonably foreseen that he was suffering from diabetes.
Q.92 Explanation :c
The bank paid commission to Sundar for collection and deposition of money. Thus, the bank would be
held liable for any wrongful act done by Sunder in the course of employment.
Q.93. Explanation :b
Ramlal would not succeed as he agreed to the contract by carrying on his business under the new order
issued by the government.
Q.94. Explanation : c
There is direct application of the Principle to the given facts.
Q.95. Explanation :b
No explanation provided
Q.96. Explanation :c
No explanation provided
Q.97. Explanation :d
No explanation provided
Q.98. Explanation :a
No explanation provided
Q.99. Explanation : c
No explanation provided
Q.100. Explanation :b
No explanation provided
Q.101. Explanation :b

57
No explanation provided
Q.102. Explanation :a
No explanation provided
Q.103. Explanation :a
No explanation provided
Q104. Explanation :a
No explanation provided
Q.105. Explanation :a
No explanation provided
Q. 106. Explanation :a
Let the number of members in the party be x.
As, per the given condition:
Each member has given twice as many rupees as number of members,
∴ x × 2x = 9248
2x2 = 9248
x2 = 4624
Taking square root of both the sides,
x = 68.
Option A, is hence the correct answer.
Q.107. Explanation :d

Q.108.Explanation :b

58
Q.109. Explanation :b

Q.110. Explanation :a

Q.111. Explanation :b

59
Q.112. Explanation :c

Q.113. Explanation : a

Q.114. Explanation :d

Q.115. Explanation :a

Q.116. Explanation :c
By referring to the final seating arrangement chart, we get
Department Name City

60
Sales Tax Aditya Kanpur

Income Tax Raman Lucknow

Customs Arbind Kanpur

Income Tax Kishore Agra

Sales Tax Mohan Agra

Income Tax Rajan Agra

We can clearly observe that Sales Tax officers work in Kanpur and Agra.
Hence, option C is correct.
Q.117. Explanation :
By referring to the final seating arrangement chart, we get
Department Name City

Sales Tax Aditya Kanpur

Income Tax Raman Lucknow

Customs Arbind Kanpur

Income Tax Kishore Agra

Sales Tax Mohan Agra

Income Tax Rajan Agra

We can clearly observe that Raman and kishore work in Income tax department.
Hence, option A is correct.
Q.118. Explanation :
By referring to the final seating arrangement chart, we get
Department Name City

Sales Tax Aditya Kanpur

Income Tax Raman Lucknow

Customs Arbind Kanpur

Income Tax Kishore Agra

Sales Tax Mohan Agra

Income Tax Rajan Agra

We can clearly observe that none of the statement is true.

61
Hence, option C is correct.
Q.119. Explanation :
By referring to the final seating arrangement chart, we get
Department Name City

Sales Tax Aditya Kanpur

Income Tax Raman Lucknow

Customs Arbind Kanpur

Income Tax Kishore Agra

Sales Tax Mohan Agra

Income Tax Rajan Agra

We can clearly observe that Aditya and Arbind work in Kanpur.
Hence, option A is correct.
Q.120. Explanation :
By referring to the final seating arrangement chart, we get

Department Name City

Sales Tax Aditya Kanpur

Income Tax Raman Lucknow

Customs Arbind Kanpur

Income Tax Kishore Agra

Sales Tax Mohan Agra

Income Tax Rajan Agra

We can clearly observe that Raman who is an income tax officer works in Lucknow.
Hence, option B is correct.
Q.121. Explanation :
As per the given information, we get

62
We can clearly observe from the figure that woman's husband is grandson to the man in the
photograph.
Hence, option C is correct.
Q.122. Explanation :a
Clearly, such decisions are taken only after making sure that it will not affect the company's business
adversely. So, I is implicit. However, the impact of this increase on other airlines cannot be ascertained.
So, II is not implicit.
Q. 123. Explanation :c
If the middle digit in all the numbers are removed, it will be as
446 = 46
362 = 32
576 = 56
495 = 45
241 = 21
Minimum number = 21, 241 is correct answer.
Q.124. Explanation :b
From I: it is given that Gauri is 5th to Rakhi but not given left or right From II: Gini is 2nd from left end,
and then rakhi is 6th to right of Gini, so Rakhi is 8th from left end. So the data in statement II alone is
sufficient to answer the question.
Q.125 Explanation :a
No explanation provided
Q.126. Explanation :d
7B
6D
5F
4A
3E
2G
1C
Q.127. Explanation :d
Since Eileen's husband does not enjoy fancy restaurants, choices a and c can be ruled out. Choice b,
although casual, doesn't sound as though it would be the kind of special and memorable evening that
Eileen is looking for. Choice d, which is owned by a former baseball star and is described as "charming"
and "reminiscent of a baseball clubhouse", sounds perfect for Eileen's husband, who is described as a
baseball fan and a man with simple tastes.
Q.128. Explanation :b
Actresses #2 and #3 possess most of the required traits. They both have red hair and brown eyes, are
average-sized, and are in their forties. Actress #1 is very tall and is only in her mid-twenties. She also has
an olive complexion. Actress #4 is of very slight build and is in her early thirties. She also has blue eyes.
Q.129. Explanation :b
Seeing four girls surrounding another girl, while in possession of her backpack, is the most suspicious of
the incidents described.
Q.130. Explanation :a
No explanation provided
Q.131. Explanation :a
All of the men agree that the first three numbers are 995. Three of them agree that the fourth number is
9. Three agree that the fifth number is 2. Three agree that the sixth number is 6; three others agree that

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the seventh number is also 6. "Option A" is the best choice because it is made up of the numbers that
most of the men agree they saw.
Q.132. Explanation :a
No explanation provided
Q.133. Explanation :d
No explanation provided
Q.134. Explanation :d
No explanation provided
Q.135. Explanation :c
No explanation provided
Q.136. Explanation :d
No explanation provided
Q. 137. Explanation :b

Q.138. Explanation :d

Q.139. Explanation :a

Q. 140. Explanation :a

Q.141. Explanation :a

Q.142. Explanation :d

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Q.143. Explanation :b

Q.144. Explanation :d

Q.145. Explanation :a

Q.146. Explanation :d

Q.147. Explanation :d
No explanation provide
Q.148. Explanation :a
A is the horticulturist
A prefers tea. So, from (iv), the industrialist and D prefer coffee. From (iii), B and the journalist prefer
coffee. So, B is the industrialist and D is the journalist.
Now, A, C and advocate remain. Clearly, E is the advocate. The horticulturist is C’s brother. It can be only
A. C is a physicist.
A B C D E

Profession Horticulturist Industrialist Physicist Journalist Advocate

Preference Tea Coffee Tea Coffee Tea

Q.149. Explanation :c
B is the industrialist
A prefers tea. So, from (iv), the industrialist and D prefer coffee. From (iii), B and the journalist prefer
coffee. So, B is the industrialist and D is the journalist.
Now, A, C and advocate remain. Clearly, E is the advocate. The horticulturist is C’s brother. It can be only
A. C is a physicist.
A B C D E

Profession Horticulturist Industrialist Physicist Journalist Advocate

Preference Tea Coffee Tea Coffee Tea

Q.150. Explanation :d

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Clearly, A and C are the persons who like tea but are not advocates.
A prefers tea. So, from (iv), the industrialist and D prefer coffee. From (iii), B and the journalist prefer
coffee. So, B is the industrialist and D is the journalist.
Now, A, C and advocate remain. Clearly, E is the advocate. The horticulturist is C’s brother. It can be only
A. C is a physicist.
A B C D E

Profession Horticulturist Industrialist Physicist Journalist Advocate

Preference Tea Coffee Tea Coffee Tea

66