Compiledendo Perio

Centro Escolar University
School College of Dentistry

PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION
ENDODONTICS AND PERIODONTOLOGY
1. Generally speaking, the bacteria associated with periodontal health are characterized as:
a. Gram-negative, motile, aerobes b. Gram-negative, non motile, anerobes
c. gram-positive, nonmotile, facultative anaerobes d. Gram-positive, motile, aerobes
2. Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide component of the cell wall of :

a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
d. Neither Gram positive and gram-negative
3. In a healthy sulcus, which bacteria below are most abundant?

a. A. actinomycetemcomitans and B. forsythus
b. streptococcus species and actinomyces species
c. Treponema and Capnocytophaga
d. P. intermedia and P.gingivalis
4. Which of the following statements regarding periodontitis is incorrect?

a. Periodontitis does not always begi Gingivitis n with gingivitis
b. Gingivitis and periodontitis cannot be induced without bacteria
c. There are no radiographic features of gingivitis
d. The presence of pockets cannot be determined from radiographs
e. Chronic gingivitis does not always lead to periodontitis
5. Which of the following is most significant in regard to the prognosis of a periodontally involved
tooth?
A. Pocket depth b. attachment loss
c. anatomical crown length d. Bleeding upon probing
6. In the older patient, the exit of the canal is:

a. Closer to the radiographic apex. c. easier to detect tactilely
b. Closer to the true apex d. More variable because of cementum
formation
7. Gingivitis is most often caused by:

a. a hormonal imbalance b. inadequate oral hygiene
c. occlusal trauma d. vitamin deficiency e. aging
8. Pseudopockets are most likely to be seen in a patient with:

a. acute gingivitis b. advanced periodontitis
c. Inflammatory gingival enlargement d. desquamative
9. The most important plaque retentive factor is:

a. overhanging margins of restorations b. calculus
c. crowded teeth d. furcations
10. Gingival changes evident during pregnancy probably result from the effect of:
a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Histamine d. Vit. Deficiency
11. In the chronic stage of gingivitis which cells predominate?

a. Mast cells b. Plasma cells c. Lymphocytes d. Macrophages
12. Which of the following cells participate in the early phase of inflammation (early lesion of
gingivitis)?
A. Eosinophils b. kupffer’s cells c. Mast cells d. Epitheloid
13. The first leukocytes to arrive as a result of inflammation caused by plaque formation in the
initial lesion of gingivitis are the
a. Eosinophils b. Lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Basophils e. Monocytes
14. Which local sign of acute inflammation is caused by the dilation of capillaries?
a. Redness b. Heat c. swelling d. Pain
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15. all of the following are diagnostic of occlusal trauma except:
a. Periodontal pocket formation b. thickening of lamina dura
c. Fremitus d. angular bone destruction e. tooth mobility
16. The collagen found in the gingival:

a. Type 1
b. biochemically similar to the collagen found elsewhere
c. accounts for 90% of the gingival protein
d. has turn over rate as rapid as in the PDL
17. All of the following are clinical signs of bruxism except:

a. TMJ symptoms b. Muscle soreness
c. Periodontal pocket formation d. wear facets on teeth
e. widened PDL space on radiograph
18. All of the following statements concerning B cells are true except:
a. They mature in the bone marrow and migrate to lymphoid organs
b. They are found in the germinal centers of the spleen and lymph nodes
c. They are progenitors of plasma cells
d. They are involved in humoral and cell mediated immunity
19. Which of the following is least affected by occlusal trauma?

a. Alveolar bone b. gingival attachment
c. Periodontal ligament d. Cementum
20. Supragingival plaque:

a. Is unattached or loosely adherent
b. is dominated by gram-negative organisms
c. acquires nutrition from saliva and host diet
d. Is dominated by anaerobes
21. The key etiologic agent in the initiation of gingivitis and PD is:
a. calculus b. plaque c. toothbrush abrasion d. saliva
22. The bacteria that form plaque & calculus release toxins that stimulates the immune system
to over produce powerful infection-fighting factors called:
a. Free radicals b. cytokines c. amides d. Lymphokines
23. Which of the following is the single major preventable risk factor for PD?
A. smoking b. diabetes c. genetics d. pathogenic bacteria
24. Gingiva which is free from significant accumulation of inflammatory cells:

a. Normal b. clinically healthy c. pristine d. free gingival
25. Risk factors for gingivitis, except

a. plaque b. hormones c. drugs d. occlusal trauma
26. When using the balanced-force technique for canal preparation, which of the following
statements is accurate?
a. The cutting stroke involves apical pressure and a counterclockwise rotation.
b. Clockwise rotation balances the tendency of the file to be drawn into the canal during the
cutting stroke.
c. Dentin is engaged with a counterclockwise rotation and cut with a 45-to 90-degree, clockwise
rotation
d. It requires the use of a crown down technique.
27. A problem with nickel-and-titanium (NiTi) spreaders is which of the following?

a. Tendency to buckle under compaction pressure.
b. Tendency to break during condensation.
c. Creation of greater wedging forces, leading to root fracture.
d. They do not penetrate as deeply as stainless spreaders under equal force.
28. A fragment of a barbed broach is broken off and wedged in the middle third of a canal in a
maxillary incisor. A radiolucency is present at the apex. The fragment cannot be bypassed or
removed. Treatment of choice includes:
1. extracting the tooth
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2. preparing and obturating to the point of blockage
3. performing an apicoectomy and retrofilling
4. placing formocresol to permeate and fix necrotic tissue.
a. 1, 2 & 3 b. 1 & 2 c. 2 & 3 d. 2, 3 & 4 e. 3 only
29. Erratic and inconsistent results from electric pulp testing may be caused by:
1. saliva on the tooth
2. secondary dentin obliterating the pulp chamber
3.multiple canals presenting various stages of pulp pathosis
a. 1 & 2 b. 1 & 3 c. 2 & 3 d. 1 only e. 1,2 & 3
30.Which of the following are considerations in coronal pretreatment of an endodontic case

1. removing caries
2.removing occlusal contacts
3. preventing leakage during therapy
4. providing for secure position of the rubber-dam clamp
a. 1, 2 & 3 b. 1, 2 & 4 c. 1, 3 & 4 d. 2 & 3 only e. 2, 3 & 4
30. Leukotoxin is a product of which bacteria

a. P. gingivalis b. B.forsythus
c A. actinomycetemcomitans d. P. intermedia
31. The following are innate responses, except:

a. saliva b. gingival epithelium c. GCF d. B cells e. PMN
32. Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation:

a. loss of function b. pain c. tumor d. infection e. redness
33. Responsible for remodeling and degradation of matrix components:

a. proteinases b. MatrixMetalloPproteinases c. cytokines
d. LipoTeichoicAcid e.LipoPolySaccharide
34. Products of Subgingival microorganisms that activate chemical mediators of inflammation:

a. proteinases b. MatrixMetalloPproteinases c. cytokines
d. LipoTeichoicAcid e. LipoPolySaccharide
35. Stimulates bone resorption

a. cytokines b. interleukins c. LipoPolySaccharide
d. LipoTeichoicAcid e. MatrixMetalloPproteinases
36. acts as messenger molecules transmitting signals to other cells:
a. cytokines b. interleukins c. LipoPolySaccharide
d. LipoTeichoicAcid e. MatrixMetalloPproteinases
37. Localized aggressive periodontitis is confined in

a. incisor and canine area b. premolars
c. first molar and incisor d. molara area
38. Circumpubertal onset:

a. Localized Aggressive Periodontitis
b. Generalized Aggressive Periodontitis
c. Chronic periodontitis
d. Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis
e. Necrotizing Ulcerative Periodontitis
39. Non contributory medical history :

a. Localized Aggressive Periodontitis b. periodontal abscess
c. Chronic periodontitis d. Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis
40. Rapid attachment loss and bone destruction:

41. Usually affects persons under 30 years of age:
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a. Localized Aggressive Periodontitis b. Generalized Aggressive Periodontitis
42. Formed by Occlusion or trauma to the orifice of the periodontal pocket:

43. Generalized interproximal attachment loss affecting at least 3 permanent teeth other than
first molars and incisors :
e.Necrotizing Ulcerative Periodontitis
44. Host factors influence the pathogenesis and progression of disease:

45. A cuplike resorptive area at the crest of the alveolar bone is a radiographic finding of :
a. Gingivitis b. occlusal trauma c. Early periodontitis d. NUG
46. Which of the following is most significant in regard to the prognosis of a periodontally
involved tooth?
a. Pocket depth b. attachment loss
c. Anatomical crown length d. bleeding upon probing
47. Which of the following needs to be evident in order to make a diagnosis of periodontitis?
A. bleeding b. pocket depth of 5mm or more
c. radiographic evidence of bone loss d. a change in tissue color and tone
a. acute gingivitis b. advanced periodontitis

c. inflammatory gingival enlargement d. NUG
49. All of the following are diagnostic of occlusal trauma except:

a. thickening of the lamina dura b. periodontal pocket formation
c. wear facets d. tooth mobility

a.TMJ symptoms b. muscle soreness
c. pocket formation d. widened PDL space on radiograph
51. Which of the following is not correctly matched with regards to a periodontal treatment plan?
a. preliminary phase-plaque control b. phase I-mouth preparation
c. phase II-periodontal surgery d. phase III-restorative phase
52. When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth, the measurement is taken from
the :
a. Base of the pocket to the CEJ
b. free gingival margin to the CEJ
c. Junctional epithelium to the margin of the free gingiva
d. base of the pocket to the mucogingival junction
53. How should a periodontal probe be adapted in an interproximal area?

a. it should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the point angle
b. it should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the contact area
c. it should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the
contact area
e. it should be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth in front of the contact area
54. How should the periodontal probe be inserted into the sulcus?
a. perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth b. with a firm pushing motion
c. with a short oblique stroke d. parallel to the tooth surface
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55. If you should meet resistance after inserting the periodontal probe into the sulcus, you
should:
a. remove the probe and reinsert it in a different spot
b. lift the probe away from the tooth and attempt to move it apically
c. force the probe beyond the obstruction
d. remove the probe and select one with a narrower diameter
e. record the measurement where the probe stopped
56. Which of the following is the most common error when performing periodontal probing?
a. using the wrong type of probe
b. incorrectly reading the periodontal probe
c. excessively angling the probe when inserting it interproximally beyond the long axis of
the tooth
d. forgetting to also probe the lingual of every tooth
57. Which of the following presents the most difficulty in performing a thorough scaling and root
planning on?
a. mesial surfaces of maxillary premolars b. proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
c. trifurcations of maxillary molars d. distal surfaces of mandibular molars
58. The main objective of root planning is:

a. to remove chronically inflamed tissues b. to change the bacterial microflora
c. to provide optimally smooth root surfaces d. to eliminate pockets
59. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is:
a. fibrotic b. edematous
c. fibroedematous d. formed within an infrabony pocket
60. The success of a pulpotomy for a primary molar depends primarily upon:
a vital root pulp b. the amount of root resoprtion
c. the patient’s age d. the absence of internal root resoprtion
61. The result of RCT in establishing patency is:

a. It prevents procedural errors, such as canal blockage and transportation.
b. It causes irritation of the periodontal attachment apparatus & increased post operative pain.
c. It enlarges the apical terminus and increases the potential for extrusion of obturating material.
d. It requires insertion of a file 1.0 to 2.0 mm beyond the canal terminus.
62. Which of the following root surfaces is the most likely to be strip-perforated during canal
instrumentation of the mesial root of a mandibular first molar?
A. facial B. lingual C. mesial D. distal
63. The literature suggests that the majority of vertical root fractures of endodontically treated
teeth result from:
a. traumatic occlusion d. locking temporaries into prepared teeth
b. cementing the cast post and core e. permanent cementing crowns.
c. condensation forces during gutta-percha fill
64. One objective of root canal obturation is to develop a fluid tight seal. Another objective is to
create a favorable biologic environment for the process of tissue healing.
a. Both statements are TRUE.
b. Both statements are FALSE
c. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE
d. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
65. The least important factor influencing the pathogenicity of endodontic flora is:
a. Microbial interaction. c. Endotoxins released after bacterial death.
b. Exotoxins released by living bacteria d. Enzymes produced by bacteria.
66. In which of the following is one-visit root canal treatment not recommended?
a. The pulp is necrotic and not symptomatic
b. The pulp is necrotic and symptomatic.
c. The pulp is necrotic and there is a draining sinus tract.
d. The pulp is vital and symptomatic.
e. None of the above.
67. The action of calcium hydroxide in promoting formation of an apical calcified barrier in a
tooth with an open apex and a necrotic pulp is probably best explained by:
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a. creation of a zone of liquefaction necrosis at the apex
b. creation of a zone of coagulation necrosis at the apex
c. creation of an environment that promotes hard tissue deposition
d. calcium ions from the canal dressing precipitating apically to form an apical bridge.
68. Which of the following is the best indicator of success of a pulpotomy in an immature
permanent tooth?
a. patient comfort
b. stable vitality readings
c. continuation of root formation
d. formation of a dentinal bridge covering the pulp stumps in the root canal.
69. A healthy 8-year old child has fractured permanent central incisor. The pulp is widely
exposed and vital. From radiographs, root ends appear incompletely calcified. The
recommended procedure is to:
a. cap the pulp c. perform a pulpotomy
b. extract the tooth d. remove the entire pulp.
70. A radiograph of a maxillary lateral incisor reveals a radiolucent area circumscribing the
apex. The tooth does not respond to vitality tests, and a sinus tract is present. In conjunction
with endodontic treatment, the sinus tract should be treated by:
a. enucleation c. irrigation with sodium hypochlorite
b. cauterization d. none of these. It does not require treatment.
71. Perforation on the mesial in the cervical third of the root of a maxillary first premolar is a
common error in performing an endodontic procedure because:
a. the crown tipped distally. d. The root tends to curve distally
b. The entire tooth tends to tip distally e. The bur tends to be directed mesially
c. concavity on the mesial root frequently exists.
72. A periapical lesion was discovered 1 ½ years after RCT on a maxillary central incisor. Apical
curettage and biopsyshowed the lesion to be an apical cyst. Two years later, the lesion is larger
than it was before surgery. Which of the following is the most likely cause of continued failure?
a. Actinomycotic infection d. Failure to resect the apex.
b. An unobturated accessory canal e. Incomplete removal of the apical cyst
c. Leakage from a poorly debrided and obturated canal.
73.The root end is ultrasonically prepared during endodontic surgery for which of the following
reasons?
a. It results in apical cracks at low setting.
b. It results in larger, but cleaner, cavity walls.
c. It can make a deeper cavity more safely than a bur.
d. It does not require as acute an angle of root resection.
74. The following are true regarding shaping procedures, except:

a. Shaping is performed after cleaning of the apical one third of the canal to ensure
patency.
b. Shaping facilitates placement of instruments to the working length by increasing the coronal
taper.
c.Shaping permits a more accurate assessment of the apical, cross-sectional canal diameter.
d. Shaping is necessary procedure because calcification occurs from the coronal portion of the
canal to the apex.
75. Piezoelectric, ultrasonic devices differs from magneto-strictive devices in which of the
following?
a. The piezoelectric unit transfers more energy to the files.
b. The piezoelectric unit produces heat that requires a coolant.
c. The piezoelectric unit uses a RispiSonic, SharperSonic, and TrioSonic file system
d. The piezoelectric unit vibrates at 2 to 3 kHz.
76. Percolation can cause periapical irritation because of:

a. dead spaces b. unclean canal c. excess cement
d. egress of degraded tissue fluid into the periapex e. all of them.
77. A good master cone will have a snug fit at the apical third by:
a. minimum of 4mm b. 5mm c. 0.5 to 1mm
d. no specific length e. 2 mm.
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78. Post operative pain after obturation occur when:
a. there is excess cement
b. there is excessive force applied during lateral condensation
c. patient failed to take analgesic after treatment.
79. The most reliable factor that will help determine if canal is ready for obturation is:
a. tooth is asymptomatic and functional c. negative culture test result
b. no foul odor d. all of the choices.
80. Appropriate time for obturation is:

a. when the canal is free from hemorrhage
b. when the tooth is symptomatic
c. when the canal has eased to exude tissue fluid
d. before post cementation
81. The spreader reach is:

a. 2mm short of the working length
b. the depth the spreader has penetrated during compaction
c. refers to the force exerted by the spreader during compaction
d. all of the them.
82. Blood at the tip of the paper point removed from the root canal indicates:
a. possible hematoma c. possible incomplete instrumentation
b. possible incomplete irrigation d. possible root perforation
83. Biologic rationale dictates:

a. overinstrumentation c. the working length stops at the apical constriction
b. underinstrumentation d. partial pulp removal
84. Smooth broach is used in :

a. debridement b. exploration c. obturation d. all of the choices
85. This instrument is used with a rasping or pulling motion:

a. smooth broach b. file c. barbed broach d. all of the choices
86. The distance from the apical exit of the root canal up to the reference point on the crown of
the tooth is referred to as:
a. root length b. root canal length c. computed working length d. all of these
87. EDTA stands for:

a. ethylaminotetracycline acid c. ethyldiaminotetracycline acid
b. ethyldiaminotetraacetic acid d. all of the choices
88. The access preparation for root canal treatment should be:
a. as small as possible to conserve tooth structure
b. confined to the area where carious destruction occurs
c. extended to the full periphery of the pulp chamber to remove the overhanging enamel
and dentin
d. all of the these
89. Presence of lingering pain after the removal of the stimulus is an indication of :
a. irreversible pulpitis b. reversible pulpitis c. necrosis d. all of these
90. In an infected root canal, the two most commonly found organisms are:
a. staphylococcus and enterococci c. streptococci and staphylococci
b. lactobacilli and streptococci d. all of them.
91. N2, Endomethasone, and Reibler,s paste are sealers that:

a. Produce liquefaction necrosis in the periradicular tissues.
b. Induce healing in the apical pulp wound after vital pulp extirpation.
c. Can cause periapical inflammation.
d. Do not produce a seal when used in combination with a core material.
92. Which of the following statements regarding pulp stimulation with cold is accurate?
a. It is best accomplished with cardon dioxide snow.
b. It is an accurate assessment of pulp vitality.
c. It directly stimulates the pain fibers in the pulp.
d. It is best determined with a blast of air.
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93. When is endodontic treatment is contraindicated?
a. The patient has no motivation to maintain the tooth.
b. The canal appears to be calcified.
c. Class III mobility and loss of bone support.
d. The tooth needs periodontal crown lengthening before restoration.
94. Based on instrument design and method of manufacturing, which is most susceptible to
fracture?
a. K-type file fabricated from tapered, square SS blank.
b. K-flex file fabricated from rhomboidal SS blank.
c. Hedstrom file fabricated from round SS blank.
d. Reamer fabricated from triangular SS blank.
95. Which of the following regarding gauging and tuning is correct?

a. Gauging is performed in the coronal portion of the canal to confirm if the coronal enlargement
is complete
b. Tuning identifies the most apical, cross-sectional diameter of the canal.
c. Gauging and tuning verify the completed shaping f the apical portion of the canal.
d. Gauging and tuning produces a uniform, cylindric diameter to the canal in the apical 2 to 3mm
that enhances obturation and sealing.
96. A preoperative finding that predisposes to a decreased prognosis is which of the following:
a. The tooth is in hyperocclusion.
b.The pulp is necrotic with no periradicular lesion
c. The pulp is necrotic with a periradicular lesion present.
d. The pulp is vital
e. Treatment is in an elderly patient.
97. Which of the following teeth is most likely to exhibit C-shaped morphology?
a. Maxillary first premolar c. Mandibular first premolar
b. Maxillary first molar d. Mandibular first molar.
98. Presence of gutta-percha beyond the apex is usually caused by which of the following?
a. Use of too small master cone.
b. Excessive heating and compaction during warm, vertical condensation.
c. Destruction of the natural apical constriction.
d. All of the above.
a. The pulp is necrotic and not symptomatic
b. The pulp is necrotic and symptomatic.
c. The pulp is necrotic and there is a draining sinus tract.
d. The pulp is vital and symptomatic.
100. The most important route of bacteria into the dental pulp is from:
a. General circulation via anachoresis.
b. Exposure to the oral cavity via caries.
c. The gingival sulcus.
d. None of these.

School of Dentistry
1. The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is
evidenced by which of the following?
A. An increase in salivary hyaluronidase
B. An increased number of bacteria in saliva.
C. An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva.
D. A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque.
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2. Radiographically, which of the following statements regarding canals that appear
calcified are accurate?
A. They are seldom able to be instrumented.
B. They have a different appearance than the surrounding dentin.
C. They should be opened up with rotary rather than ultrasonic instruments.
D. All of the above.
3. The epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) is characterized by:

1. the formation of cellrests in the periodontal ligament when the sheath’s functions
have been accomplished
2. progressive involution, thereby aiding in actual tooth movement during eruption
3. the absence of a stellate reticulum and a stratum intermedium
4. the absence of mitotic ability and thus, stretching as the root grow.
A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4
4. Chronic apical periodontitis is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis by

which of the following?
A. Pulp testing and radiographic appearance.
B. Pulp testing and nature of symptoms
C. Radiographic appearance and nature of symptoms.
D. Pulp testing, radiographic appearance and nature of symptoms.

following?
A. The piezoelectric unit transfers more energy to the files.
B. The piezoelectric unit produces heat that requires a coolant.
C. The piezoelectric unit uses a RispiSonic, SharperSonic, and TrioSonic file system
D. The piezoelectric unit vibrates at 2 to 3 kHz.
6. Normally, the free gingiva can be distinguished from the epithelial attachment because
the:
A. Underlying connective tissue of the gingiva does not contain lymphoid cells.
B. Epithelium of the epithelial attachment does not have rete pegs
C. Epithelium of the gingiva is not keratinized.
D. Underlying connective tissue of the epithelial attachmentis less vascular.
7. Which of the following regarding acute apical periodontitis is/are accurate?

A. It is limited to the periodontal ligament (histologically).
B. It is detectable radiographically.
C. It may heal if induced by a nonintectious agent.
D. All of the above statements are accurate.
8. The majority of patients with symptoms of severe odontogenic pain have a diagnosis of :
A. periodontal abscess C. acute apical periodontitis
B. irreversible pulpitis D. acute apical abscess E. none of
these.
9. The most likely source of bacteria found in diseased periodontal tissue is:
A. serum B. saliva C. subgingival plaque D. supragingival plaque.

A. Closer to the radiographic apex. C. easier to detect tactilely
B. Closer to the true apex D. More variable because of cementum
formation
evidenced by:
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A. an increased number of bacteria in saliva
B. an increased in salivary hyaluronidase.
C. An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva
D. New pathogenic strains in the involved area.
E. A reduction of inflammatory states with antibiotic treatment.
12. A luxated tooth should be splinted in which of the following situations?

A. If the tooth is mobile after splinting. C. Until the RCT is
completed.
B. With the composite as close to the gingiva as possible. D. All of the above.
13. Circular fibers are present in the:

A. Free gingiva and encircle the tooth. C. Free gingiva and encircle
alveolar bone
B. Attached gingivl and encircle alveolar bone D.Periodontal ligament and encircle
the tooth.
14. Used for anterior teeth:

A, Gracey 7/8 B. Gracey 13/14 C. Gracey 11/12 D. Gracey ½, 2/4 and 5/6 E.
Gracey 9/10
15. Used for facial surfaces of posterior teeth:

Gracey 9/10
16. Used for mesial surfaces of posterior teeth:

Gracey 9/10
17. Used for lingual surfaces of posterior teeth:

Gracey 9/10
18. Used for distal surfaces of posterior teeth:

Gracey 9/10
19. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding gutta-percha points?

A. They contain 40% to 50% pure gutta-percha. C. They adhere to dentin when
compacted
B. They can be heat sterilized. D. They are not compressible.
20. Which of the following statements regarding internal root resoprtion is accurate?
A. It is rare in deciduous tooth C. It is initiated by
odontoblasts
B. It is seldom confused with external resoprtion. D. It is usually
asymptomatic.
21. Pulp necrosis is most likely to occur after which of the following?
A. Midroot fracture C. Concussion
B. Intrusive luxation D. Complicated crown fracture
22. Which of the following statements regarding unltrasonic root canal instrumentation is
accurate?
A. It should be performed in a dry environment.
B. It poses little risk of file breakage.
C. It is not very useful for dentin removal.
D. It is most useful in small canals where file contact with the wall is maximized.
23. Which of the following statements regarding guided tissue regeneration (GTR) is false?
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A. GTE is an effective adjuncts to treatment of periodontal disease but has limited
value in treating endodontic pathosis.
B. The combined endodontic periodontic lesion has the least favorable
prognosis for GTR because of the relationship of the lesion to the gingival
margins.
C. Bioresorbable membranes exhibit results similar to nonresorbable membranes.
D. Evidence suggest that GTR enhances bone formation by preventing contact of
connective tissue with the bone.
24. The normal gingival sulcus is bounded by the:

A. tooth surface and epithelial covering of attached gingiva.
B. Tooth surface and epithelial covering of free gingiva.
C. Epithelial covering of free and attached gingiva.
D. Free gingival groove and mucogingival junction.
E. Tooth surface and gingival lamina propria.
25. The junctional epithelium of the dentogingival attachment is characterized by:

A. orthokeratinization. D. All of these
B. The presence of rete pegs E. None of these
C. Hemidesmosomes in the cells facing the tooth surface
26. The cribriform plate (alveolar bone proper) reveals minute openings which represent:
A. areas of osteoclastic activity. D. Regions of hematopoietic activity.
B. Resoprtion sites of the spongiosa. E. Attachment sites of Sharpey’s
fibers.
C. Regions for passage of vascular and nerve elements.
27. The major reason for failure, requiring retreatment is:

A. persistent pain B. restorative indications C. draining sinus tract D.
microleakage
28. Used to dislodge heavy supragingival calcular deposits:

A. sickles B. chisels C. Hoes D. Files E. curettes
29. Used to remove gross and supragingival calcular deposits on mandibular anterior region:
30. Used to crushed and removed heavy calcular deposits:

31. Instruments used for scaling, root planing and removal of soft lining of perio pocket;
32. Any tissue organ used for implantation or transplantation:

A. graft B. allograft C. Alloplast
33. The acute apical abscess is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis by which of
the following?
A. pulp testing B. presence of swelling C. radiographic appearance D. degree
of mobility
34. Which of the following cell types may be found in the periodontal ligament?
1. fibroclasts 2. osteoblasts 3. macrophages 4. cementoblasts
A. 1,2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 4 only E. all
of them.
35. A pulp has been damaged and is inflamed because of deep caries and cavity preparation.
What material placed on the floor of the cavity aids the pulp in resolving the
inflammation?
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A. Calcium hydroxide C. Steroid formulations
B. Zinc oxide-eugenol D. none, there is no material that promotes
healing
36. An inert foreign body used for implantation into tissue:

37. Elective endodontic treatment is contraindicated in which of the following?

A. Patient is a borderline diabetic.
B. Patient has had a heart attack within the last 6 months.
C. Patients has had numerous opportunistic infections secondary to HIV infection
D. Patient has an implanted pacemaker.
38. A tissue graft between individuals of the same species but with non-identical genes:
39. Scalers
A. push stroke B. Pull stroke C. twisting stroke D. Sawing motion
40. The calcified bodies sometimes found in the periodontal ligament are best described as
A. Cementicles C. bone
B. Denticles D. enamel pearls E. mineralized interstitial
tissue.
41. Although the exact mechanism of formation of calculus is not understood, it is known
that the organic matrix of calculus in humans includes:
A. no living microorganisms C. an abundance of microorganisms
B. a fusospirochetal complex D. only by-products of bacterial metabolism
42. Area-specific curettes: B

A. push stroke B. Pull stroke C. twisting stroke D. Sawing motion.
43. Hoes: B
44. Chisels: A
45. Files; B
46. Universal curettes: B

47. From which of the following is the periodontal ligament derived?

A. dental sac C. dental papilla
B. enamel organ D. epithelial root sheath E. outer enamel epithelium
48. Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament is the first to offer resistance to
movement of the tooth in an occlusal direction?
A. alveolar crest B. horizontal C. interradicular D. oblique E.
apical
49. The bacterial population in the gingival sulcus or the pocket that influences the course of
periodontal disease involves”
A. mostly aerobic bacteria
B. essentially a pure culture
C. bacteria not indigenous to the oral cavity
D. essentially the same organism found in the healthy sulcus.
12
50. Which of the following groups of periodontal ligament fibers has a cementum-to-
cementum attachment?
A. Oblique C. free gingival
B. Transseptal D. interradicular E. dentoalveolar crest
51. The alveolar bone proper usually consist of:

A. woven bone C. lamellar bone only
B. bundle bone only D. bundle bone and lamellar bone.
52. Gingiva is different from alveolar mucosa in that gingival is:

A. elastic fibers C. muscularis mucosa
B. simple epithelium D. stratified epithelium E. high connective tissue
papillae
53. Which of the following species of streptococci is usually not found in human dental
plaque?
A. S. mutans B. S. sanguis C. S. pyogenes D. S. salivarius E. S. mitior (S.
mitis)
54. Blood vessels in interdental papillae anastomose freely with:

A. periodontal vessels only C. both periodontal and interalveolar vessels
B. interalveolar vessels only D. none of these.
55. Which of the following is not a “principal” collagenous fiber group of the periodontal
ligament?
A. Apical B. horizontal C. Oblique D. Gingivodental E.
none of these.
56. Which of the following organisms is least likely to be found among normal anaerobic
flora of the gingival sulcus?
A. Treponema C. Actinobacillus
B. Bacteroides D. Fusobacterium E. Mycobacteria
57. Percussion of a tooth is a test of:

A. pulpal inflammation C. acute periradicular inflammation
B. pulpal necrosis D. chronic
58. Acute, apical periodontitis is characterized by which of the following?

A. a focus of neutrophils within the lesion.
B. A focus of granulomatous tissue in the lesion.
C. A focus of lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages in the lesion.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.
59. Which of the following regarding chronic, apical periodontitis is/are accurate?
A. It is a neutrophil-dominated lesion encapsulated in a collagenous connective
tissue.
B. It may contain epithelial arcardes or rings.
C. It represents a continuous, slow process that is asymptomatic.
D. It has a predominance of B-cells over T-cells.
60. Which of the following is correct in relation to the periradicular lesion formed in
response to dental caries and subsequent pulp necrosis?
A. Bacteria are commonly found in granuloma.
B. T-helper cells predominate over T-suppressor cells.
C. Formation of the granuloma is mediated through a specific immunologic
response.
D. The release of interleukins can mediate bone resorption.
13
61. Which of the following statements best describe retrograde periodontitis?
A. Inflammation from the periodontal sulcus migrates apically, causing pulp
inflammation and eventually pulp necrosis.
B. Pulp necrosis occurs, and the toxic irritants cause inflammation that
migrates to the gingival margin, creating a periodontal pocket.
C. Irritants gain access to the periodontal tissues at the site of a vertical-root fracture
producing tissue destruction that mimics periodontitis.
D. Pulp necrosis results in the formation of an apical , radioluscent lesion
characterized by the loss of the apical lamina dura.
62. Each of the following are direct advantages of pre-enlarging the radicular space, except:
A. It provides better tactile control of instruments when negotiating a small, curved
canal
B. It removes the bulk of tissue and contaminants before apical preparation.
C. It facilitates obturation.
D. It provides a reservoir for the irrigant.
63. Paraformaldehyde-containing obturating materials results in which of the following?

A. Eliminate bacteria that remain in the canals.
B. Mummify tissue remnants in the canals.
C. Reduce post treatment pain.
D. Are below the standard of care for RCT
64. The root end is ultrasonically prepared during endodontic surgery for which of the
following reasons?
A. It results in apical cracks at low setting.
B. It results in larger, but cleaner, cavity walls.
C. It can make a deeper cavity more safely than a bur.
D. It does not require as acute an angle of root resection.
E. None of these.
A. Produce liquefaction necrosis in the periradicular tissues.
B. Induce healing in the apical pulp wound after vital pulp extirpation.
C. Can cause periapical inflammation.
D. Do not produce a seal when used in combination with a core material.
A. It is best accomplished with cardon dioxide snow.
B. It is an accurate assessment of pulp vitality.
C. It directly stimulates the pain fibers in the pulp.
D. It is best determined with a blast of air.

A. The patient has no motivation to maintain the tooth.
B. The canal appears to be calcified.
C. Class III mobility and loss of bone support.
D. The tooth needs periodontal crown lengthening before restoration.
68. Based on instrument design and method of manufacturing, which is most susceptible to
fracture?
A. K-type file fabricated from tapered, square SS blank.
B. K-flex file fabricated from rhomboidal SS blank.
C. Hedstrom file fabricated from round SS blank.
D. Reamer fabricated from triangular SS blank.
14
A. Gauging is performed in the coronal portion of the canal to confirm if the coronal
enlargement is complete
B. Tuning identifies the most apical, cross-sectional diameter of the canal.
C. Gauging and tuning verify the completed shaping f the apical portion of the
canal.
D. Gauging and tuning produces a uniform, cylindric diameter to the canal in the
apical 2 to 3mm that enhances obturation and sealing.
E. None of these.
70. A preoperative finding that predisposes to a decreased prognosis is which of the

following:
A. The tooth is in hyperocclusion.
B. The pulp is necrotic with no periradicular lesion
C. The pulp is necrotic with a periradicular lesion present.
D. The pulp is vital
E. Treatment is in an elderly patient.
71. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an interappointment medication primarily because of:

A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue. D. Its antimicrobial activity.
B. Its ability to stimulate hard-tissue formation. E. Its ability to temporarily seal
the canal.
C. None of the above.
72. An advantage to AH26 as an endodontic sealer is:

A. The release of formaldehyde on setting.
B. Low toxicity.
C. Long working time, but quick setting at body temperature.
D. It can be distinguished from gutta-percha radiographcally.
E. None of these.
73. Pulpal and periradicular pathosis results primarily from:

A. Traumatic injury cause by heat during cavity preparation. C. Bacterial invasion.
B. Toxicity of dental materials. D. Immunologic
reactions.
74. The highest incidence of pulp necrosis is associated with:

A. Class V preparation on root surface C. Partial veneer preparation
B. Inlay preparation D. Full-crown preparation.
75. Extending a no. 10 file with a 0.02 taper 1.0mm beyond the apical foramen will result in
A. It opens the apical foramen to a minimum diameter of 0.12mm.
B. It increases postoperative discomfort to occlusal forces.
C. It reduces the percentage of change from a no. 10 file to a no. 15 file by 50%.
D. It eliminates the natural constriction of the foramen and increases the chance for
an overfill.
76. Which of the following statements regarding Hedstrom files are accurate?
A. They are manufactured by machining a round cross-sectional wire.
B. They are effective when used in a reaming action.
C. They are safer than K-files, because external signs of stress are more visible as
changes in flute design.
D. They are aggressive because of a negative-rake angle that is parallel to the shaft.
77. The smear layer on dentin walls acts to prevent pulpal injury for which of the following?
A. It reduces diffusion of toxic substance through the tubules.
B. It resists the effects of acid etching of the dentin.
C. It eliminates the need for cavity liner or base.
15
D. Its bactericidal activity acts against oral microorganisms.
78. Moderate extrusion of obturating materials beyond the apex is undesirable because of
A. There is more likelihood of postoperative discomfort.
B. Sealer and gutta-percha cause a severe, inflammatory reaction in periradicular
tissue.
C. The prognosis is poorer.
79. Which of the following is an indication for RCT of primary teeth?

A. Radiographic evidence of internal root resorption
B. Periapical lesion
C. Dentigerous cysts
D. Mechanical or carious perforation of the chamber floor.
80. Which of the following statements regarding sodium hypochlorite used as a root canal
irrigating solution is accurate?
A. It is buffered to a pH of 12 to 13, which increases toxicity.
B. It exhibits a chelating action on dentin.
C. It should be used in higher concentrations because of the increased free chlorine
available.
D. It is a good wetting agent that permits the solution to flow into canal irregularities.
E. All of the above statements are accurate.
81. A barbed roach is most useful for:

A. Removal of cotton, paper points and other objects from the canal.
B. Removal of vital tissue from fine canals.
C. Initial planing of the canal walls.
D. Coronal-orifice enlargement before establishing the correct working length.
E. All of the above.
82. An increasingly popular technique for pulpotomy in primary teeth is:

A. Formocresol C. Electrosurgery
B. Calcium hydroxide D. Laser surgery

A. Shaping is performed after cleaning of the apical one third of the canal to
ensure patency.
B. Shaping facilitates placement of instruments to the working length by increasing
the coronal taper.
C. Shaping permits a more accurate assessment of the apical, cross-sectional canal
diameter.
D. Shaping is necessary procedure because calcification occurs from the coronal
portion of the canal to the apex.
84. The following statements are true regarding endogram, except:

A. Provide information on the extent of internal resoprtive lesion.
B. Visualization of fractures and leaking restoration is attributed to the incorporation
of Hypaque in the irrigating solution.
C. Conventional radiography and digital radiography may both be used in producing
an endogram.
D. It is used to confirm the correct working length.
85. When is an application of heater-injected gutta-percha potentially beneficial?

A. When there is an open apex.
B. When there are aberrations or irregularities of the canal.
C. When the clinician cannot master lateral condensation.
D. When the canal are curved and small after preparation.
16
86. The mandibular, 2nd molar should be restored with crown after RCT for which of the
following reasons?
A. The pulp chamber is relatively large in comparison to the crown, making the tooth
susceptible to fracture.
B. The tooth is in close to the insertion of the muscle of mastication, and the
percentage of preexisting fractures is high.
C. There is a tendency for the buccal cusps to shear off under occlusal loading.
D. Providing a post can be placed in the distal root to strengthen the root.
A. Microbial interaction.
B. Endotoxins released after bacterial death.
C. Exotoxins released by living bacteria
D. Enzymes produced by bacteria.

A. It prevents procedural errors, such as canal blockage and transportation.
B. It causes irritation of the periodontal attachment apparatus and increased post
operative pain.
C. It enlarges the apical terminus and increases the potential for extrusion of
obturating material.
D. It requires insertion of a file 1.0 to 2.0 mm beyond the canal terminus.

A. Tendency to buckle under compaction pressure.
B. Tendency to break during condensation.
C. Creation of greater wedging forces, leading to root fracture.
D. They do not penetrate as deeply as stainless spreaders under equal force.
90. The response of the pulp to a recently placed amalgam without cavity lining is usually
A. slight-to-moderate inflammation C. slight but increasing severe in

time
B. moderate-to-severe inflammation D. none of these.
91. The primary reason/s in using a sealer and cement is/are:

A. Attainment of an impervious seal C. Lubrication of the master cone.
B. Canal disinfection. D. Adhesion to dentin. E. All of the
above.
A. Maxillary first premolar C. Mandibular first premolar
B. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first molar.
93. Presence of gutta-percha beyond the apex is usually caused by which of the following?
A. Use of too small master cone.
B. Excessive heating and compaction during warm, vertical condensation.
C. Destruction of the natural apical constriction.
A. The pulp is necrotic and not symptomatic
B. The pulp is necrotic and symptomatic.
C. The pulp is necrotic and there is a draining sinus tract.
D. The pulp is vital and symptomatic.
17
A. General circulation via anachoresis.
B. Exposure to the oral cavity via caries.
C. The gingival sulcus.
D. None of these.
96. When using the balanced-force technique for canal preparation, which of the following
statements is accurate?
A. The cutting stroke involves apical pressure and a counterclockwise rotation.
B. Clockwise rotation balances the tendency of the file to be drawn into the canal
during the cutting stroke.
C. Dentin is engaged with a counterclockwise rotation and cut with a 45-to 90-
degree, clockwise rotation
D. It requires the use of a crown down technique.
97. A calcium hydroxide pulpotomy performed on a young, permanent tooth is judged to be

successful during which of the following?
A. When the patient is asymptomatic.
B. When the tooth responds to pulp testing.
C. When normal root development continues.
98. Direct pulp capping is recommended for primary teeth with which of the following?
A. Carious exposures C. Calcification in the pulp chamber
B. Mechanical exposures D. All of these.
99. Retreatment has the most favorable prognosis during which of the following?
A. When the cause of failure is identified and is correctable.
B. When the patient is asymptomatic.
C. When gutta-percha was used instead of paste.
D. When a surgical microscope is used.
100. Canals may be missed during treatment because of which of the following?
A. Calcification C. Inadequate access
B. Anomalous location D. All of the above.

1. What instrument will you use in debridement of an edematous gingival:

A. subgingival curet B. hoe C. scaler D. ultrasonic
scaler
2. Pathologic pockets are deepened sulci characterized by:

A. Bone loss and migration of junctional epithelium C. Bone loss only.
B. Ulceration of lamina propia. D. Loss of circular
epithelium
3. Each of the following can occur as a result of a successful root canal treatment, except:
A. Apical seal of cementum C. Regeneration of alveolar bone
B. Regeneration of the periodontal ligament D.Formation of reparative dentin
4. Which of these is a radiopaque area in the apices of young permanent teeth with chronic
pulpitis?
A. apical abscess C. condensing osteitis
B. radicular cyst D. apical granuloma
5. The common microorganisms in deep pockets are:

18
A. Gram (-) anaerobic microorganisms C. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus D. B & C
6. Which of these virulence factors of A.Actinomycetemcomitans is responsible to the

killing of PMN’s resulting in the destruction of the periodontal disease?
A. Leukotoxins C. Endotoxins
B. Enzymes D. Polyclonal B lymphocytes activation
7. Metallic salts are included in root canal sealers to make the sealers:
A. set hard C. antibacterial
B. radiopaque D. set more rapidly E. better tolerated by periapical
tissues

9. Which of the following periapical conditions is often associated with a vital pulp?
A. apical cyst C. condensing osteitis
B. apical scar D. chronic apical periodontitis E. suppurative apical
periodontitis
10. The most effective means to reduce root canal microbes is:
A. systemic medication
B. complete debridement of the root canal
C. intracanal medication with a non-specific drug
D. intracanal medication with multiple antibiotic preparations.
11. Subgingival curettage is indicated for:

A. edematous gingival C. periodontitis simplex
B. hyperplastic gingival D. hypertrophied gingival
12. If you were to do a periodontal surgery, when will you do a beveled incision?
A. When the attached gingiva were fibrotic. C. When the marginal gingiva is
narrow.
B. In performing gingivectomy D. In performing gingivoplasty.
13. What is the most important to prevent recurrence of periodontal disease?

A. plaque control B. oral hygiene C. oral physiotherapy D. all
of them.
14. An infrabony pocket is a periodontal pocket with the epithelial attachment located:
A. coronal to the crest of alveolar bone C. within the alveolar bone
B. apical to mucogingival junction D. apical to the crest of the
alveolar bone
15. Which of the following perforations has the poorest prognosis?

A. Perforation near the apex D. Perforation into the furca
B. Perforation through the crown E. Perforation at the DEJ
C. perforation at the CEJ
16. Which of these is not a diagnostic feature if occlusal trauma?

A. Widening of periodontal surface C. Loss of alveolar bone
B. Periodontal pocket formation D. Increased in tooth mobility
17. Which of these gingival connective tissue component acts as a molecular filter and
regulates cell migration:
A. Glucoronic acid B. Glycoproteins C. Proteoglycans D.
Heparatan
18. Individuals with cyclic neutropenia or agranulocytosis frequently develop severe

periodontal disease because the function of which cell is depressed:
19
A. Eosinophils C. polymorphonuclear leucocytes
B. Lymphocytes D. plasma cells
19. Tetracycline are used as an anti infective agent in the treatment of periodontal disease
because of its added property of:
A. inhibition of collagenose synthesis C. inhibition of arachidonic synthesis
B. inhibition of interleukin alpha D. enhances PMN’s chemotaxis
20. Bone-fill procedures (new attachment) are most successful in treating:

A. trifurcation involvements C. deep, two-wall craters
B. narrow, three-wall defects D. osseous defects with one
remaining wall
21. During calculus removal, the surface of the root feels smoothest following scaling with:
A. a hoe C. an unltrasonic instrument
B. periodontal files D. a rotary driven metal scaler E. a periodontal
curet
22. The open flap curettage in periodontal surgical procedures is the:

A. Neumann flap C. Original Widman flap
B. Modified Widman flap D. Nabers flap
23. Craters in interseptal bone are best eliminated by:

A. gingivectomy C. subgingival curettage
B. osseous recontouring D. interseptal massage with stimulators
24. The primary difference between gingivitis and periodontitis is:

A. bone infection D.. depth of pockets
B. Lack of stippling of the gingival E. changes in color of the gingival
C. apical migration of junctional epithelium beyond the CEJ.
A. periodontal abscess C. acute apical periodontitis
B. irreversible pulpitis D. acute apical abscess E. none of
these.
A. serum C. saliva
B. subgingival plaque D. supragingival plaque.

A. Free gingiva and encircle the tooth. C. Free gingiva and encircle
alveolar bone
B. Attached gingivl and encircle alveolar bon D.Periodontal ligament and encircle
the tooth.
29. Scalers
A. push stroke B. Pull stroke C. twisting stroke D. Sawing
motion
30. Which of the following groups of periodontal ligament fibers has a cementum-to-
cementum attachment?
A. Oblique C. free gingival
B. Transseptal D. interradicular E. dentoalveolar crest

20
32. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an interappointment medication primarily because of:
A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue. C. Its antimicrobial activity.
B. Its ability to stimulate hard-tissue formation. D. Its ability to temporarily seal
the canal.
A. General circulation via anachoresis. C. Exposure to the oral cavity
via caries.
B. The gingival sulcus. D. None of these.
34. Generally speaking, the bacteria associated with periodontal health are characterized
as:
A. Gram-negative, motile, aerobes C. Gram-negative, non motile, anerobes
B. gram-positive, nonmotile, facultative anaerobes D. Gram-positive,
motile,aerobes
35. Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide component of the cell wall of :

A. Gram-positive bacteria C. Gram-negative bacteria
a. B. both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria D. Neither Gram + and
negative
35. In a healthy sulcus, which bacteria below are most abundant?

b. A. actinomycetemcomitans and B. forsythus
c. streptococcus species and actinomyces species
d. Treponema and Capnocytophaga
e. P. intermedia and P.gingivalis

A. acute gingivitis C. advanced periodontitis
B. Inflammatory gingival enlargement D. desquamative
37. The most important plaque retentive factor is:

A. overhanging margins of restorations C. calculus
B. crowded teeth D furcations
38. Gingival changes evident during pregnancy probably result from the effect of:
A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Histamine D Vit.
Deficiency
39. In the chronic stage of gingivitis which cells predominate?

A Mast cells B. Plasma cells C. Lymphocytes D.
Macrophages
.
40. Which of the following cells participate in the early phase of inflammation (early lesion of
gingivitis)?
A. Eosinophils B. kupffer’s cells C. Mast cells D
Epitheloid
41. The first leukocytes to arrive as a result of inflammation caused by plaque formation in
the initial lesion of gingivitis are the
A. Eosinophils C Lymphocytes E.
Neutrophils B. Basophils D Monocytes

A. Alveolar bone C. gingival attachment
B. Periodontal ligament D. Cementum
43. Supragingival plaque:

A. Is unattached or loosely adherent
B. is dominated by gram-negative organisms
C. acquires nutrition from saliva and host diet
D. Is dominated by anaerobes
44. The key etiologic agent in the initiation of gingivitis and PD is:
A. calculus B. plaque C. toothbrush abrasion D. saliva
21
45. The bacteria that form plaque & calculus release toxins that stimulates the immune
system to over produce powerful infection-fighting factors called:
A. Free radicals B. cytokines C. amides D. Lymphokines
46. Which of the following is the single major preventable risk factor for PD?
A. smoking B. diabetes C. genetics D. pathogenic bacteria
47. Responsible for remodeling and degradation of matrix components:

A. proteinases C. MatrixMetalloPproteinases E. cytokines
B. LipoTeichoicAcid D.LipoPolySaccharide
48. Products of subgingival microorganisms that activate chemical mediators of

inflammation: A. proteinases C. MatrixMetalloPproteinases
E. cytokines B. LipoTeichoicAcid D. LipoPolySaccharide
49. Stimulates bone resorption

A. cytokines C. interleukins E. LipoPolySaccharide
B. LipoTeichoicAcid D. MatrixMetalloPproteinases
50. Acts as messenger molecules transmitting signals to other cells:

A. cytokines C. interleukins
B. LipoPolySaccharide D. LipoTeichoicAcid e.
MatrixMetalloproteinase
51. Localized aggressive periodontitis is confined in

A. incisor and canine area C. premolars
B. first molar and incisor D. molar area
52. Circumpubertal onset:

A. Localized Aggressive Periodontitis C. Generalized Aggressive Periodontitis
B. Chronic periodontitis D. Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis

A. there is excess cement
b. there is excessive force applied during lateral condensation
C. patient failed to take analgesic after treatment.
A. tooth is asymptomatic and functional C. negative culture test result
B. no foul odor D. all of the choices.

A. when the canal is free from hemorrhage
B. when the tooth is symptomatic
C. when the canal has eased to exude tissue fluid
D. before post cementation

A. 2mm short of the working length
B. the depth the spreader has penetrated during compaction
C. refers to the force exerted by the spreader during compaction
D. all of the them.
A. possible hematoma C. possible incomplete instrumentation
B. possible incomplete irrigation D. possible root perforation

A. overinstrumentation C. the working length stops at the apical
constriction B. underinstrumentation D. partial pulp removal
22
A. debridement C. exploration
B. obturation D. all of the choices

A. smooth broach B. file C. barbed broach D. all of the
choices
62. The distance from the apical exit of the root canal up to the reference point on the crown
of the tooth is referred to as:
A. root length C. root canal length
C. computed working length D. all of these

A. ethylaminotetracycline acid C. ethyldiaminotetracycline acid
B. ethyldiaminotetraacetic acid D. all of the choices
A. as small as possible to conserve tooth structure
B. confined to the area where carious destruction occurs
C. extended to the full periphery of the pulp chamber to remove the overhanging
enamel and dentin
D. all of the these
65. The Plaque Index of Silness and Loe measures:

A. area of plaque covering the clinical crown
B. thickness of plaque at the gingival margin
C. colony forming units of gram-negative bacteria
D. weight of plaque obtained from facial surfaces.
E. Weight of plaque obtained from the clinical crown.
1. The primary reason for placing a surgical dressing after a gingivectomy is to:
A. prevent hemorrhage C. stabilize the teeth
B .accelerate healing D. retard plaque accumulation E.none of the above.
65. Clinical criteria for diagnosing periodontal and gingival diseases include alteration in the:
1. depth of the gingival sulcus and the level of the epithelial attachment
2. free gingival groove
3. color of gingival tissue
4. contour of gingival tissue.
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 1,2, 3& 4
66. Pulpal inflammation is most commonly caused by:

A. Bacteria C. traumatic occlusion
B. accidental trauma D. irritants in dental materials E. cavity preparation
67. Gutta-percha may be softened or dissolved within the root canal by using:
1. alcohol 4. eugenol
2. ethyl chloride 5. xylene
3. chloroform
A. 1 & 5 B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 3 & 4 E. 3 & 5

Perforation near the apex
A. Perforation into the furca C. Perforation through the crown
B. Perforation at the DEJ D. perforation at the CEJ
69. The action used for placing K-type file into a canal should resemble:
A. an up-and-down motion
B. a straight apical pressure
C. complete rotation of the instrument with pressure directed apically.
D. a clockwise-counterclockwise motion with pressure directed apically.
23
70. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast post-and-core and a metal
ceramic crown. Tree months later, the patient calls and complains of pain, especially on
biting. Tooth mobility is normal, as are the radiographs. The most probable cause of pain
is:
A. a loose crown C. a vertical root fracture
B. psychosomatic D. a premature eccentric contact
71. The literature suggests that the majority of vertical root fractures of endodontically
treated teeth result from:
A. traumatic occlusion D. condensation forces during gutta-
percha fill
B. locking temporaries into prepared teeth E.cementing the cast post and core
C. permanent cementing crowns.

operative pain.
C. It enlarges the apical terminus and increases the potential for extrusion of obturating
material.
D. It eliminates the natural constriction of the foramen and increases the chance for an
overfill.

A.persistent pain C. restorative indications
B..draining sinus tract D. microleakage
A. Glucoronic acid C. Glycoproteins
B. Proteoglycans D. Heparatan

A. Eosinophils C. Lymphocytes
B. polymorphonuclear leucocytes D. plasma cells
79. The index used for assessment of average severity of periodontal disease in large
population groups is:
A. Loe and Silness index C.. Russel index
B. Greene and Vermillon index D. Ramfjord index
82. Which of the following statements regarding periodontitis is incorrect?

A. Periodontitis does not always begi Gingivitis n with gingivitis
B. Gingivitis and periodontitis cannot be induced without bacteria
C. There are no radiographic features of gingivitis
D. The presence of pockets cannot be determined from radiographs
24
E. Chronic gingivitis does not always lead to periodontitis
83. Which of the following is most significant in regard to the prognosis of a periodontally
involved tooth?
A. Pocket depth C. attachment loss
B. anatomical crown length D. Bleeding upon probing

formation
85. The collagen found in the gingival:

A. Type 1
B. biochemically similar to the collagen found elsewhere
C. accounts for 90% of the gingival protein
D. has turn over rate as rapid as in the PDL

A. TMJ symptoms C. Muscle soreness
B. Periodontal pocket formation D. wear facets on teeth
E. widened PDL space on radiograph
87. All of the following statements concerning B cells are true except:
A. They mature in the bone marrow and migrate to lymphoid organs
B. They are found in the germinal centers of the spleen and lymph nodes
C. They are progenitors of plasma cells
D. They are involved in humoral and cell mediated immunity

A. Alveolar bone C. gingival attachment
B. Periodontal ligament D. Cementum
89. When using the balanced-force technique for canal preparation, which of the
following statements is accurate?
A. The cutting stroke involves apical pressure and a counterclockwise rotation.
B. Clockwise rotation balances the tendency of the file to be drawn into the canal during
the cutting stroke.
C. Dentin is engaged with a counterclockwise rotation and cut with a 45-to 90-degree,
clockwise rotation

C Creation of greater wedging forces, leading to root fracture.
1. Which of the following sensory responses can be elicited from a tooth after root canal
therapy?
A. tactile sensation B. sensitivity to EPT C. thermal sensation D. sensitivity
to sweets
A. a vital root pulp C. the amount of root resoprtion
B. the patient’s age D. the absence of internal root resoprtion

B. It causes irritation of the periodontal attachment apparatus & increased post
operative pain.
25
83. Which of the following perforation \s has the poorest prognosis?

A. perforation of a furcation area of a molar.
B. Perforation of a midroot area with a small file
C. Perforation slightly apical to the epithelial attachment
D. Perforation slightly coronal to the epithelial attachment
E. Perforation at the apex, 1mm. from its radiographic termination.
84. In treating a root canal before obturation, the most important consideration is:
A. general health of the patient
B. cleaning and shaping of the canal
C. efficacy of the irrigating solution
D. amount and concentration of medication used.
E. Sterilization of the canal as evidenced by negative cultures
85. A negative response to the electric pulp tester immediately after a severe luxation of a
tooth indicates that the:
A. pulp is inflamed
B. electric pulp tester is giving a false reading
C. pulp is necrotic and should be removed
D. blood supply is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary
E. neural transmission is interrupted ,and the negative response may be
temporary.
86. Normally, the free gingiva can be distinguished from the epithelial attachment because
the:
C. Underlying connective tissue of the gingiva does not contain lymphoid cells.
D. Epithelium of the epithelial attachment does not have rete pegs
E. Epithelium of the gingiva is not keratinized.
F. Underlying connective tissue of the epithelial attachmentis less vascular.
87. Which of the following regarding acute apical periodontitis is/are accurate?
following reasons?
G. The pulp chamber is relatively large in comparison to the crown, making the tooth
H. The tooth is in close to the insertion of the muscle of mastication, and the
I. There is a tendency for the buccal cusps to shear off under occlusal loading.
J. Providing a post can be placed in the distal root to strengthen the root.

College of Dentistry
0106A
89. During a stepback enlargement of the canal space, one reason for recapitulation
after each increase in instrument size is to:
A. maintain coronal curvature of the canal
B. maintain the apical stop for filling with gutta-percha
C. create a coronal funnel to facilitate filling with gutta-percha
26
D. clean the apical segment of dentin fillings that are not
removed by irrigation
90. Aging of the pulp is evidenced by an increase in:

A. Vascularity C. fibrous elements
B. cellular elements D. pulp stones
B. the patient’s age D. the absence of internal root
resoprtion
92. When root canal therapy is indicated for a vital tooth, which of the following is the
most biologically acceptable?
A. Filing to the radiographic apex and filling to the radiographic apex
B. Filing 0.5-1.0mm short of the radiographic apex and filling to
the same length
C. Filing to the radiographic apex and filling 0.5-1.0mm short of the
radiographic apex
D. Filing 0.5-1.0mm beyond the radiographic apex and filling to the
radiographic apex.
93. Which of the following root surfaces is the most likely to be strip-perforated
during canal instrumentation of the mesial root of a mandibular first molar?

A. Bacteria D. traumatic occlusion
B. accidental trauma E. irritants in dental materials
C. cavity preparation
96. A patient complains of intermittent and spontaneous pain on a tooth that was
previously pulp capped. Radiographs disclose no periapical pathology. The tooth
is not sensitive to percussion. Both cold and heat stimulate a severe and lasting
pain. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. reversible pulpitis.
B. Irreversible pulpitis
C. Cracked tooth syndrome
D. Acute apical periodontitis
E. Chronic apical periodontitis
97. A negative response to the electric pulp tester immediately after a severe
luxation of a tooth indicates that the:
A. pulp is inflamed
D. blood supply is interrupted, and the negative response may be
temporary
E. neural transmission is interrupted ,and the negative
response may be temporary.
98. Each of the following can occur as a result of a successful root canal treatment,
except:
27
A. Apical seal of cementum
B. Regeneration of alveolar bone
C. Regeneration of the periodontal ligament
D. Formation of reparative dentin
99. Endodontic therapy is contraindicated for a single rooted tooth that has:
A. discoloration
B. an acute apical abscess
C. a chronic abscess and a draining sinus tract
D. a horizontal fracture of the apical third of the root.
E. A vertical fracture of the root and an associated deep
periodontal defect
100. Internal resoprtion should be treated by :

A. pulpotomy C. extraction
B. pulpectomy D. pukp capping E. periodic
recall
101. The most important principle governing the location and outline of the
lingual or occlusal opening into the pulp chamber is:
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. Direct access along straight lines.
C. Complete removal of the roof of the pulp chamber
D. Removal of all caries and defective restorative material.
102. In which of the following conditions are pulps of the involved teeth likely to
be vital?
1. Globulomaxillary cysts
2. radicular cysts
3. periapical osteofibrosis (cementoma)
4. traumatic bone cyst
5. fibrous dysplasia
A. 1,3,4 ,5 B. 1,3,5 C. 1 & 4 D. 2,3,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5
103. Which of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically

treated tooth?
A. Ether D. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Chloroform E. Sodium hypochlorite
C. Hydrogen peroxide
6. chloroform
A. 1 & 5 B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 3 & 4 E. 3 & 5

A. Perforation near the apex
B. Perforation into the furca
C. Perforation through the crown
D. Perforation at the DEJ
E. perforation at the CEJ
C. complete rotation of the instrument with pressure directed
apically.
D. a clockwise-counterclockwise motion with pressure directed
apically.
28
107. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast post-and-
core and a metal ceramic crown. Tree months later, the patient calls and
complains of pain, especially on biting. Tooth mobility is normal, as are the
radiographs. The most probable cause of pain is:
108. The literature suggests that the majority of vertical root fractures of
endodontically treated teeth result from:
A. traumatic occlusion
B. condensation forces during gutta-percha fill
C. locking temporaries into prepared teeth
D. cementing the cast post and core
E. permanent cementing crowns.
109. One objective of root canal obturation is to develop a fluid tight seal.
Another objective is to create a favorable biologic environment for the process of
tissue healing.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE
D. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
A. set hard D. antibacterial
B. radiopaque E. set more rapidly
C. better tolerated by periapical tissues
111. Histologically, the normal dental pulp most closely resembles:

A. nervous tissue D. loose connective tissue
B. endothelial tissue E. dense connective tissue
C. granulomatous tissue
112. Which of the following sensory responses can be elicited from a tooth
after root canal therapy?
A. tactile sensation C. sensitivity to EPT
B. thermal sensation D. sensitivity to sweets
113. Which of the following are indications for surgical endodontic

intervention?
1. a non-negotiable canal with periapical pathosis
2. a sinus tract that persists after repeated treatment
3. periapical pathosis in a tooth with a post and core retained crown.
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 3 only

A. It prevents procedural errors, such as canal blockage and
transportation.
B. It causes irritation of the periodontal attachment apparatus and increased
post operative pain.
115. Which of the following teeth is most likely to exhibit C-shaped

morphology?
29
116. Extending a no. 10 file with a 0.02 taper 1.0mm beyond the apical foramen
will result in which of the following?
C. It reduces the percentage of change from a no. 10 file to a no. 15 file by
50%.
D. It eliminates the natural constriction of the foramen and increases the
chance for an overfill.
117. Retreatment has the most favorable prognosis during which of the
following?

A. persistent pain C. restorative indications
B. draining sinus tract D. microleakage
119. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding gutta-percha

points?
A. They contain 40% to 50% pure gutta-percha.
B. They adhere to dentin when compacted
C. They can be heat sterilized.
D. They are not compressible.

C. Patients has had numerous opportunistic infections secondary to HIV
infection
121. The least important factor influencing the pathogenicity of endodontic flora
is:
122. In which of the following is one-visit root canal treatment not

recommended?
123. The action of calcium hydroxide in promoting formation of an apical

calcified barrier in a tooth with an open apex and a necrotic pulp is probably best
explained by:
A. creation of a zone of liquefaction necrosis at the apex
B. creation of a zone of coagulation necrosis at the apex
C. creation of an environment that promotes hard tissue deposition
D. calcium ions from the canal dressing precipitating apically to form an
apical bridge.
30
124. Which of the following is the best indicator of success of a pulpotomy in
an immature permanent tooth?
A. patient comfort
B. stable vitality readings
C. continuation of root formation
D. formation of a dentinal bridge covering the pulp stumps in the root canal.
125. A healthy 8-year old child has fractured permanent central incisor. The
pulp is widely exposed and vital. From radiographs, root ends appear
incompletely calcified. The recommended procedure is to:
A. cap the pulp C. perform a pulpotomy
B. extract the tooth D. remove the entire pulp.
126. A radiograph of a maxillary lateral incisor reveals a radiolucent area

circumscribing the apex. The tooth does not respond to vitality tests, and a sinus
tract is present. In conjunction with endodontic treatment, the sinus tract should
be treated by:
A. enucleation C. irrigation with sodium hypochlorite
B. cauterization D. none of these. It does not require treatment.
127. Perforation on the mesial in the cervical third of the root of a maxillary first
premolar is a common error in performing an endodontic procedure because:
A. the crown tipped distally.
B. The root tends to curve distally
C. The entire tooth tends to tip distally
D. The bur tends to be directed mesially
E. A concavity on the mesial root frequently exists.
128. A periapical lesion was discovered 1 ½ years after RCT on a maxillary

central incisor. Apical curettage and biopsyshowed the lesion to be an apical
cyst. Two years later, the lesion is larger than it was before surgery. Which of the
following is the most likely cause of continued failure?
A. Actinomycotic infection
B. Failure to resect the apex.
C. An unobturated accessory canal
D. Incomplete removal of the apical cyst.
E. Leakage from a poorly debrided and obturated canal.
129. The primary function of a root canal sealer is to:

A. prevent discoloration
B. seal dentinal tubules
C. stimulate healing in the apical region
D. medicate the canal to eliminate remaining bacteria
E. fill the space between the solid cone material and the pulp canal wall.
130. Which of the following periapical conditions is often associated with a vital
pulp?
B. apical scar D. chronic apical periodontitis
E. suppurative apical periodontitis
132. In the pulp myelinated nerves function to transmit impulses interpreted as:
1. pain
2. cold
31
3. proprioception
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 only D. 2 & 3 E. all of
them.
133. Sodium hypochlorite may be used effectively as:

1. an antimicrobial agent
2. a tissue solvent
3. a chelating agent
4. an anodyne dressing
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 1 & 3
134. A fragment of a barbed broach is broken off and wedged in the middle
third of a canal in a maxillary incisor. A radiolucency is present at the apex. The
fragment cannot be bypassed or removed. Treatment of choice includes:
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 3
only
135. Erratic and inconsistent results from electric pulp testing may be caused
by:
3. multiple canals presenting various stages of pulp pathosis
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 1,2 & 3
136. Which of the following are considerations in coronal pretreatment of an

endodontic case?
1. removing caries
2. removing occlusal contacts
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 only E. 2, 3
&4
137. Once the root canal is obturated, what usually happens to the organisms
that had previously entered periapical tissues from the canal?
A. They persist and stimulate formulation of a granuloma.
B. They are eliminated by the natural defenses of the body.
C. They re-enter and reinfect the sterile canal unless periapical surgery is
performed.
D. They will have been eliminated by various medicaments that were used in
the root canal.

139. Which of the following would you consider in the treatment plan of a
patient with NUG (Necrotizing Ulceration Gingivitis)?
A. Radiograph
B. Case history and clinical experiences.
C. Oral prophylaxis & sublingual curettage and root planing
32
140. Where there are deepened pathologic pockets range from 6-8 mm,
gingivectomy is indicated. Will you do the procedure in:
A. one quadrant at a time C. three quadrant at a time
B. two quadrant at a time D. all at the same time.
141. In gingivectomy, the incision must follow the bleeding points because they
refer to the bottom of the pockets.
A. The statement and reason is related.
B. The statement and reason is correct but is not related.
C. The statement is correct but the reason is incorrect.
D. The statement is incorrect but the reason is correct.

143. If you were to do a periodontal surgery, when will you do a beveled

incision?
A. When the attached gingiva were fibrotic.
B. When the marginal gingiva is narrow.
C. In performing gingivectomy
D. In performing gingivoplasty.

A. plaque control C. oral hygiene
B. oral physiotherapy D. all of them.

A. subgingival curet C. hoe
B. scaler D. ultrasonic scaler

A. Bone loss and migration of junctional epithelium
B. Bone loss only.
C. Ulceration of lamina propia.
D. Loss of circular epithelium
147. Changes that occurs in edematous gingiva are:

A. Hyperemia in lamina propia.
B. Congestion in the connective tissue bed.
C. Venous stasis in the connective tissue bed.
D. Ulceration of the outer epithelium.

149. A 45 year old male presents mobile teeth of molars 1 020 mobility, clinical
examination reveal swollen gums of posterior teeth upper right and left;
radiograph presents bone level to the middle third of roots; medical history- he is
diabetic. The diagnosis is:
A. marginal gingivitis C. trauma from occlusion
B. juvenile periodontitis D. advance periodontitis
150. Juvenile Periodontitis is manifested by:

A. Migration or wandering teeth from the upper 1st molars
B. Bone resoprtion
C. 30 mobility
33
D. retractable gingival

152. Which type of periodontitis causes continued attachment loss inspite of

apparently appropriate therapy?
A. Juvenile periodontitis C. Adult periodontits
B. Refractory periodontitis D. Rapidly progressive
periodontitis
153. Which of these is a radiopaque area in the apices of young permanent

teeth with chronic pulpitis?
154. Which of these virulence factors of A.Actinomycetemcomitans is

responsible to the killing of PMN’s resulting in the destruction of the periodontal
disease?
155. An infrabony pocket is a periodontal pocket with the epithelial attachment

located:
A. coronal to the crest of alveolar bone
B. within the alveolar bone
C. apical to mucogingival junction
D. apical to the crest of the alveolar bone
156. Pockets of biologically active enzymes in the cytoplasm of

polymorphonuclear leucocytes which play an important role in inflammatory
periodontal disease are:
A. Cristae C. lysosomes
B. Endoplasmicreticulum D. lysozymes
157. Furcal periodontal involvement with loss of attachment thru and thru from
buccal to lingual in the mandibular molars is this type:
A. Class II C. Class I
B. Class III D. Class IV

159. When indicated, occlusal correction should be performed:

A. after healing after surgery
B. before surgery for gross corrections and after surgery for line
corrections
C. immediately after inflammation occurs
D. before the start of scaling and root planning
160. PMN leucocytes migrate through the blood vessel wall in the early stage
of inflammation by means of:
A. Diapedesis C. chemotaxis
B. Rhexis D. phagocytosis
161. Restoring contours of teeth are necessary in restorative dentistry because:

A. contours prevents plaque formation
B. contours reduces trauma from occlusion
34
C. contours deflect food from impacting into the gingiva
D. contours increase masticatory surfaces
162. Alveolar bone loss may be a feature of the following conditions, except:
A. Hyperparathyroidism C. eosinophilic granuloma
B. Hypophosphatasia D. erosive lichen planus

A. Widening of periodontal surface
B. Loss of alveolar bone
C. Periodontal pocket formation
D. Increased in tooth mobility
164. Which of these gingival connective tissue component acts as a molecular

filter and regulates cell migration:
165. Individuals with cyclic neutropenia or agranulocytosis frequently develop

severe periodontal disease because the function of which cell is depressed:
166. The index used for assessment of average severity of periodontal disease
in large population groups is:
A. Loe and Silness index C. Greene and Vermillon index
B. Russel index D. Ramfjord index
167. Barriers are used in the management of infrabony defects, except:

A. prevent proliferation of gingival connective tissue and epithelium to
the root surface
B. allow long junctional epithelium attachment
C. permit regeneration of periodontal tissues to form a fibrillar attachment
from bone to cementum
D. regenerate periodontal collagen fibers
168. The periodontal ligament is vital to the tooth, except:

A. contains nerves and vascular elements
B. provides the cellular elements of bone and cementum
C. furnishes an elastic sling for holding the tooth
D. allows for physiologic movement of the teeth
169. Which of the following medical conditions may not influence the defense
mechanism of the gingival to bacterial infection?
A. Rheumatic heart disease C. Diabetes
B. Agranulocytosis D. Cyclic neutropenia
170. Which of these inhibit collagenase formation in the management of

periodontal disease:
A. Amoxycillin C. Metronidazole
B. Erythromycin D. Minocycline
171. Gingivectomy is indicated in the following, except:

A. Leukemic gingival enlargement
B. Idiopathic fibromatosis of the gingiva
C. Dilantin gingival enlargement
D. Nifedipine gingival enlargement
172. Gingival bleeding in chronic gingivitis is due to:

A. Detachment of epithelial attachment from tooth
35
B. Periodontal ligament is detached
C. Increased capillary fragility due to lack of vitamin C
D. Micro ulceration of crevicular epithelium
173. Unilateral mastication will tend to result in:

a. Greater accumulation of plaque in the unused side
A. Heavier and denser bone support in the unused side
B. Greater accumulation of plaque in the used side
C. Greater degree of periodontal disease in the used side
174. The main objective of occlusal equilibration in natural dentition is:

A. Increase shearing action in mastication
B. Prevent myofacial pain syndrome
C. Prevent TMJ pain syndrome
D. Achieve a more favorable distribution of forces to the periodontal
ligament
175. Which of the following periodontal diseases show a strong genetic

etiologic relationship?
A. Adult periodontitis C. Juvenile periodontitis
B. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis D. Gingivitis
176. Lymphokines are produce by which cells:

A. B lymphocytes C. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes
B. Plasma cells D. T lymphocytes
177. Expanded Tetrafluoro ethylene membrane is used in periodontal therapy

to:
A. regenerate bone
B. cover and protect surgical wound
C. barrier against collagen regeneration
D. barrier for epithelial and gingival connective tissue proliferation
178. Tetracycline are used as an anti infective agent in the treatment of

periodontal disease because of its added property of:
A. inhibition of collagenose synthesis
B. inhibition of arachidonic synthesis
C. inhibition of interleukin alpha
D. enhances PMN’s chemotaxis

A. trifurcation involvements
B. deep, two-wall craters
C. narrow, three-wall defects
D. osseous defects with one remaining wall
180. During calculus removal, the surface of the root feels smoothest following
scaling with:
A. a hoe D. an unltrasonic instrument
B. periodontal files E. a rotary driven metal scaler
C. a periodontal curet
181. Sulcular brushing is best accomplished by suing a:

A. natural-bristle brush
B. soft 2- or 3- row brush with rounded bristle tips.
C. Brush with angular-cut bristle tips and a soft texture
D. Brush with square-cut bristle tips and a medium texture

36

A. bone infection
B. depth of pockets
C. changes in color of the gingiva
D. lack of stippling of the gingiva
E. apical migration of junctional epithelium beyond the CEJ.
184. If a dentist finds only a thin ring of calculus in the bottom third of a deep
pocket, it may be assumed that:
A. calculus calcified before the pocket reached this depth
B. calculus previously extended to the enamel, but the top part was
removed.
C. Bacterial plaque formed only in the deeper region of the pocket.
D. Calculus migrated apically as the pocket grew deeper, and new calculus
formed on the apical side while that on the occlusal side dissolved.

186. The primary reason for placing a surgical dressing after a gingivectomy is
to:
A. prevent hemorrhage
B. accelerate healing D. retard plaque accumulation
C. stabilize the teeth E. none of the above.
187. Clinial criteria for diagnosing periodontal and gingival diseases include
alteration in the:
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 1,2, 3& 4
188. Treatment of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis should include:

1. steroid therapy
2. palliative treatment
3. control of secondary infection
4. application of dilute hydrogen peroxide
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 2 &
4
“…..set your heart on spiritual gifts and you will receive abundantly!”
1 Corinthians 14:12
/dent
07/05/06
CENTRO ESCOLAR UNIVERSITY

School of Dentistry
Pre-Board Theoretical Examination
37
A. pulpotomy B. extraction C. pulpectomy
D. pulp capping E. periodic recall
2. Which of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically treated tooth
A. Ether B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Chloroform
D. Sodium hypochlorite E. Hydrogen peroxide
A. set hard B. antibacterial C. radiopaque
D. set more rapidly E. better tolerated by periapical tissues
A. Vascularity B. fibrous elements
C.cellular elements D. pulp stones
A. Maxillary first premolar B. Mandibular first premolar
C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first molar.
A. Bone loss and migration of junctional epithelium B. Bone loss only.
C. Ulceration of lamina propia. D. Loss of circular epithelium
7. Changes that occurs in edematous gingiva are
A. Hyperemia in lamina propia. B. Congestion in the connective tissue bed.
C. Venous stasis in the connective tissue bed. D. Ulceration of the outer epithelium.
8. Which of these is a radiopaque area in the apices of young permanent teeth with chronic
pulpitis?
A. apical abscess B. condensing osteitis
C. radicular cyst D. apical granuloma
9. Which of these virulence factors of A.Actinomycetemcomitans is responsible to the killing of

PMN’s resulting in the destruction of the periodontal disease?
A. Leukotoxins B. Endotoxins
38
C. Enzymes D. Polyclonal B lymphocytes activation
A. Hyperparathyroidism B. eosinophilic granuloma
C. Hypophosphatasia D. erosive lichen planus
A. Microbial interaction. B. Endotoxins released after bacterial death.
C. Exotoxins released by living bacteria D. Enzymes produced by bacteria
permanent tooth?
A. patient comfort B. stable vitality readings C. continuation of root

formation D. formation of a dentinal bridge covering the pulp stumps in the root canal.
A. cap the pulp B. perform a pulpotomy
C. extract the tooth D. remove the entire pulp.
A. edematous gingival B. periodontitis simplex
C. hyperplastic gingival D. hypertrophied gingival
A. coronal to the crest of alveolar bone B. within the alveolar bone
C. apical to mucogingival junction D. apical to the crest of the alveolar bone
16. Furcal periodontal involvement with loss of attachment thru and thru from buccal to lingual in
the mandibular molars is this type:
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
17. PMN leucocytes migrate through the blood vessel wall in the early stage of inflammation by
means of:
A. Diapedesis B. chemotaxis C. Rhexis D. phagocytosis
39
A. Widening of periodontal surface B. Loss of alveolar bone
C. Periodontal pocket formation D. Increased in tooth mobility
19. Which of these gingival connective tissue component acts as a molecular filter and regulates
cell migration:
A. Glucoronic acid B. Glycoproteins C. Proteoglycans D. Heparatan
20. Individuals with cyclic neutropenia or agranulocytosis frequently develop severe periodontal
disease because the function of which cell is depressed:
A. Eosinophils B. polymorphonuclear leucocytes
C. Lymphocytes D. plasma cells
21. Which of the following medical conditions may not influence the defense mechanism of the
gingival to bacterial infection?
A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Diabetes
C. Agranulocytosis D. Cyclic neutropenia
A. a hoe B. an unltrasonic instrument C. periodontal files
D. a rotary driven metal scaler E. a periodontal curet
A. Neumann flap B. Original Widman flap

C. Modified Widman flap D. Nabers flap
a. gingivectomy B. subgingival curettage
C. osseous recontouring D. interseptal massage with stimulators
A. bone infection B. depth of pockets C. Lack of stippling of the gingival

D. changes in color of the gingival E. apical migration of junctional epithelium
beyond the CEJ.
26. Which of the following would you consider in the treatment plan of a patient with NUG
(Necrotizing Ulceration Gingivitis)?
40
A. Radiograph B. Case history and clinical experiences
C. Oral prophylaxis & sublingual curettage and root planning D. All of the above.
27. Where there are deepened pathologic pockets range from 6-8 mm, gingivectomy is
indicated. Will you do the procedure in:
28. In gingivectomy, the incision must follow the bleeding points because they refer to the
bottom of the pockets.
B.The statement and reason is correct but is not related.
C. The statement is correct but the reason is incorrect
29. The Plaque Index of Silness and Loe measures
A. area of plaque covering the clinical crown B. thickness of plaque at the gingival margin
C. colony forming units of gram-negative bacteria D. weight of plaque obtained from
facial surfaces. E. Weight of plaque obtained from the clinical crown.
A. Perforation near the apex B. Perforation into the furca
C. Perforation through the crown D. Perforation at the DEJ E. perforation at the

CEJ
A. Microbial interaction. B. Endotoxins released after bacterial death.
C. Exotoxins released by living bacteria D. Enzymes produced by bacteria.
32. A periapical lesion was discovered 1 ½ years after RCT on a maxillary central incisor.
Apical curettage and biopsyshowed the lesion to be an apical cyst. Two years later, the lesion is
larger than it was before surgery. Which of the following is the most likely cause of continued
failure?
A. Actinomycotic infection B. Failure to resect the apex.
C. An unobturated accessory canal D. Incomplete removal of the apical cyst.
E. Leakage from a poorly debrided and obturated canal.
41
A. B lymphocytes B. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes
C. Plasma cells D. T lymphocytes
34. Which of the following are considerations in coronal pretreatment of an endodontic case?
5. removing caries
9. A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 only E. 2, 3 & 4
10.
11. 35. The main objective of occlusal equilibration in natural dentition is:
B. Increase shearing action in mastication
C. Prevent myofacial pain syndrome
D. Prevent TMJ pain syndrome
E. Achieve a more favorable distribution of forces to the periodontal ligament
1. alcohol 2. eugenol 3. ethyl chloride 4. xylene 5. chloroform
A. 1 & 5 B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 3 & 4 E. 3 & 5
38. The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced
by which of the following?
K. An increase in salivary hyaluronidase

L. An increased number of bacteria in saliva.
M. An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva.
N. A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque.
39. Radiographically, which of the following statements regarding canals that appear calcified
are accurate?

42
8. the absence of mitotic ability and thus, stretching as the root grow
41. Chronic apical periodontitis is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis by which of
the following?

following?
C. The piezoelectric unit uses a RispiSonic, SharperSonic, and TrioSonic file system
43. Normally, the free gingiva can be distinguished from the epithelial attachment because the:

D. Underlying connective tissue of the epithelial attachmentis less vascular
A. periodontal abscess B. . acute apical periodontitis
C. irreversible pulpitis D. acute apical abscess E. none of these.
A. Closer to the radiographic apex. B. . easier to detect tactilely
C. Closer to the true apex D. More variable because of cementum formation
47. The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced
A. an increased number of bacteria in saliva
43
B. an increased in salivary hyaluronidase.
C. An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva
D. New pathogenic strains in the involved area.
E. A reduction of inflammatory states with antibiotic treatment.
A. If the tooth is mobile after splinting. B. Until the RCT is completed.
C. With the composite as close to the gingiva as possible. D. All of the above.
A. Free gingiva and encircle the tooth. B. Free gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
C. Attached gingivl and encircle alveolar bone D.Periodontal ligament and encircle the
tooth.
50. Used for anterior teeth:
A, Gracey 7/8 B. Gracey 13/14 C. Gracey 11/12
D. Gracey ½, 2/4 and 5/6 E. Gracey 9/10
51. Used for facial surfaces of posterior teeth:
52. Used for mesial surfaces of posterior teeth:
53. Used for lingual surfaces of posterior teeth:
54. Used for distal surfaces of posterior teeth:
55. Which of the following statements regarding internal root resoprtion is accurate?
44
A. It is rare in deciduous tooth B. It is initiated by odontoblasts
C. It is seldom confused with external resoprtion. D. It is usually asymptomatic.
A. Midroot fracture B. Concussion
C. Intrusive luxation D. Complicated crown fracture
57. Which of the following statements regarding unltrasonic root canal instrumentation is
accurate?
A. It should be performed in a dry environment. B. It poses little risk of file breakage.
C. It is not very useful for dentin removal.
D. It is most useful in small canals where file contact with the wall is maximized.
58. Which of the following statements regarding guided tissue regeneration (GTR) is false?
A. GTE is an effective adjuncts to treatment of periodontal disease but has limited value in
treating endodontic pathosis.
B. The combined endodontic periodontic lesion has the least favorable prognosis for
GTR because of the relationship of the lesion to the gingival margins.
D. Evidence suggest that GTR enhances bone formation by preventing contact of connective
tissue with the bone.
A. orthokeratinization. B. All of these
C. The presence of rete pegs D. None of these
E. Hemidesmosomes in the cells facing the tooth surface
61. The cribriform plate (alveolar bone proper) reveals minute openings which represent:
A. areas of osteoclastic activity. B. Regions of hematopoietic activity.
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C. Resoprtion sites of the spongiosa. D. Attachment sites of Sharpey’s fibers.
E. Regions for passage of vascular and nerve elements.
62. Used to dislodge heavy supragingivalcalcular deposits:
63Used to remove gross and supragingivalcalcular deposits on mandibular anterior region:
64. Used to crushed and removed heavy calcular deposits:
65. Instruments used for scaling, root planing and removal of soft lining of perio pocket;
66. Any tissue organ used for implantation or transplantation:
67. The acute apical abscess is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis by which of
the following?
A. pulp testing B. presence of swelling
C. radiographic appearance D. degree of mobility
A. 1,2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 4 only E. all of them.
69. A pulp has been damaged and is inflamed because of deep caries and cavity preparation.
What material placed on the floor of the cavity aids the pulp in resolving the inflammation?
A. Calcium hydroxide B. Steroid formulations
C. Zinc oxide-eugenol D. none, there is no material that promotes healing
70. An inert foreign body used for implantation into tissue:
46
73. Scalers
A. push stroke B. Pull stroke C. twisting stroke D. Sawing motion
74. The calcified bodies sometimes found in the periodontal ligament are best described as
A. Cementicles B. bone
C. Denticles D. enamel pearls E. mineralized interstitial tissue.
A. dental sac B. . dental papilla
C. enamel organ D. epithelial root sheath E. outer enamel epithelium
76. Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament is the first to offer resistance to movement
of the tooth in an occlusal direction?
A. alveolar crest B. horizontal C. interradicular D. oblique E. apical
77. The bacterial population in the gingival sulcus or the pocket that influences the course of
periodontal disease involves”
A. mostly aerobic bacteria B. essentially a pure culture
78. Which of the following groups of periodontal ligament fibers has a cementum-to-cementum
attachment?
A. Oblique B. free gingival
C. Transseptal D. interradicular E. dentoalveolar crest
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A. woven bone B. lamellar bone only
C. bundle bone only D. bundle bone and lamellar bone.
80. Which of the following species of streptococci is usually not found in human dental plaque?
A. S. mutans B. S. sanguis C. S. pyogenes D.S. salivarius E. S. mitior (S. mitis)
A. periodontal vessels only B. both periodontal and interalveolar vessels
C. interalveolar vessels only D. none of these.
82. Which of the following is not a “principal” collagenous fiber group of the periodontal
ligament?
A. Apical B. horizontal C. Oblique
D. Gingivodental E. none of these.
83. Which of the following organisms is least likely to be found among normal anaerobic flora of
the gingival sulcus?
A. Treponema B. Actinobacillus
C. Bacteroides D. Fusobacterium E. Mycobacteria
a. pulpal inflammation B. acute periradicular inflammation
C. pulpal necrosis D. chronic
D. All of the above
86. Which of the following regarding chronic, apical periodontitis is/are accurate?
A.It is a neutrophil-dominated lesion encapsulated in a collagenous connective tissue.
B. It may contain epithelial arcardes or rings.
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C. It represents a continuous, slow process that is asymptomatic.
D. It has a predominance of B-cells over T-cells.
87. Which of the following is correct in relation to the periradicular lesion formed in response to
dental caries and subsequent pulp necrosis?
A. Bacteria are commonly found in granuloma.
B. T-helper cells predominate over T-suppressor cells.
C. Formation of the granuloma is mediated through a specific immunologic response.
D. The release of interleukins can mediate bone resorption.
A. Inflammation from the periodontal sulcus migrates apically, causing pulp inflammation and
eventually pulp necrosis.
B. Pulp necrosis occurs, and the toxic irritants cause inflammation that migrates to the
gingival margin, creating a periodontal pocket.
C. Irritants gain access to the periodontal tissues at the site of a vertical-root fracture producing
tissue destruction that mimics periodontitis.
D. Pulp necrosis results in the formation of an apical ,radioluscent lesion characterized by the
loss of the apical lamina dura.
89. Each of the following are direct advantages of pre-enlarging the radicular space, except:
A. It provides better tactile control of instruments when negotiating a small, curved canal
90. Paraformaldehyde-containing obturating materials results in which of the following?
A. Eliminate bacteria that remain in the canals.
B. Mummify tissue remnants in the canals.
C. Reduce post treatment pain.
D. Are below the standard of care for RCT
91. The root end is ultrasonically prepared during endodontic surgery for which of the following
reasons?

49
E. None of these.
A. The release of formaldehyde on setting. B. Low toxicity. C. Long working time, but
quick setting at body temperature. D. It can be distinguished from gutta-percha radiographcally.
95. Pulpal and periradicularpathosis results primarily from:
A. Traumatic injury cause by heat during cavity preparation. B. Bacterial invasion.
C. Toxicity of dental materials. D. Immunologic reactions.
A. Class V preparation on root surface B. Partial veneer preparation
C. Inlay preparation D. Full-crown preparation.
D. It eliminates the natural constriction of the foramen and increases the chance for an overfill.
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C. They are safer than K-files, because external signs of stress are more visible as changes in
flute design.
D. They are aggressive because of a negative-rake angle that is parallel to the shaft.
99. The smear layer on dentin walls acts to prevent pulpal injury for which of the following?
B. Sealer and gutta-percha cause a severe, inflammatory reaction in periradicular tissue.
College of Dentistry 0208

1. The following are requirements of an ideal root canal filling materials:

I. should not be impervious to moisture
II. should not shrink
III. should not stain tooth structure
IV. should be radiopaque
A. I, II & III B. I, III & IV C. II, III & IV D. I, II, III & IV E. I &
III only
2. Gutta percha as a root canal sealer:

A. can be condensed and well adapted to the irregularities and
contours of the canal walls
B. is rigid and easily adapted to canals smaller than size 30
C. cannot be displaced by pressure therefore, overfilling is not a hazard
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D. relatively insoluble and difficult to remove from the canal when necessary
E. has an adhesive property or quality, therefore, use of sealers is optional
3. Body defenses that facilitates disinfection of root canals:

A. phagocytic cells C. antibiotics
B. antibodies D. both A & B E. both B & C
4. Internal resorption is detected in a vital, asymptomatic tooth. Treatment of choice

is to:
A. extract the tooth
B. perform a pulpotomy
C. keep the tooth under observation
D. remove the pulp and proceed with endodontic treatment at this time
E. none of the above
5. The action used for placing a K-type file into a canal should resemble:
C. complete rotation of the instrument with pressure directed apically
D. a clockwise-counterclockwise motion with pressure directed apically
E. none of the above.
6. Which condition is contraindicated for endodontic treatment?

A. carious exposure with pulpal involvement
B. a non-functional tooth with no future strategic importance
C. necrotic tooth with internal resorption
D. horizontal crown fracture above the gingival margin
E. none of the above.
7. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points:

A. boiling C. chemical solutions
B. autoclave D. flame sterilization E. dry heart
sterilization
8. Used as an intertreatment dressing material:

A. fermin B. Cavit C. NaoCL D. CMCP E. EDTA
9. In which of the following pathologic conditions would a single-rooted teeth be

expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp tester?
A. apical cyst C. chronic apical periodontitis
B. acute apical abscess D. suppurative apical periodontitis
E. Periapical cemental dysplasia
(cementoma)
10. Which of the following is characteristic of sensory fibers of the pulp?

A. They can selectively differentiate thermal stimuli
B. They have special neuronal endings that are specific for proprioception
C. They are non-selective to all stimuli indicating only pain when the
threshold has been exceeded.
D. None of the above.
11. Common compacting instrument:

A. file B. spreader C. plugger D. lentulofiller
12. Characterized as the 3-dimensional filling of the entire root canal system is as
close to the DCJ as possible:
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A. master cone B. obturation C. mechanical preparation D.
apical cone
13. A 3-dimensionally well-filled root canal system:

A. prevents percolation of periapical exudates into the root space
B. maximizes the amount of sealer and minimizes the cone material
C. is independent of the endodontic cavity design
D. is dependent upon the use of intracanal medications to sterilize the canal
E. none of the above
14. Desired periapical tissue responses after endodontic therapy on a tooth with a
periapical lesion include:
I. regeneration of dentin
II. regeneration of alveolar bone
III. deposition of apical cementum
IV. re-establishment of the periodontal ligament
A. I, II & IV B. I & IV only C. II & IV only D. II, III & IV E. III
& IV only
15. Which of the following is least likely to cause discoloration of a tooth with a
necrotic pulp?
A. decomposition of necrotic tissue
B. hemolysis of unremoved blood cells
C. failure to include pulp horns in a coronal access
D. frequent ingestion of heavy doses of tetracycline
E. use of a root canal sealer that contains precipitated silver
16. Biomechanical preparation of the root canal is necessary to:

A. straighten minor canal curvature
B. prevent post operative discoloration
C. remove areas that can retain bacteria and debris
D. create a space easy to obliterate
E. all of the above
17. Ideal root canal medication and dressing:

A. carbolic acid C. oil of cloves E.
formocresol
B. penicillin preparation D. Camphorated monochlorophenol
18. Ideal root canal obturant:

A. zinc oxide eugenol cement C. silver points
B. gutta percha D. both A & B E. all of the
above

operative pain.
53
following reasons?

23. A common gutta percha solvent:
A. alcohol C. beachwood creosote
B. chloroform D. camphorated monochlorophenol E. sodium
hypochlorite
tissue.
E. both A & B only
following?
C. The piezoelectric unit uses a RispiSonic, SharperSonic, and TrioSonic file
system
26. Once the root canal is obturated, what usually happens to the organisms that had
previously entered periapical tissues from the canal?
performed.
D. They will have been eliminated by various medicaments that were used in the
root canal.
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 1,2 & 3

6. a tissue solvent
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 1 & 3
54
F. prevent discoloration
G. seal dentinal tubules
H. stimulate healing in the apical region
I. medicate the canal to eliminate remaining bacteria
J. fill the space between the solid cone material and the pulp canal wall.
30. Perforation on the mesial in the cervical third of the root of a maxillary first premolar is a
common error in performing an endodontic procedure because:
A. the crown tipped distally.
B. The root tends to curve distally
C. The entire tooth tends to tip distally
D. The bur tends to be directed mesially
E. A concavity on the mesial root frequently exists.
32. The action of calcium hydroxide in promoting formation of an apical calcified barrier in a
tooth with an open apex and a necrotic pulp is probably best explained by:
D. calcium ions from the canal dressing precipitating apically to form an apical
bridge.

55
37. Which of the following are indications for surgical endodontic intervention?
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 3 only

39. One objective of root canal obturation is to develop a fluid tight seal. Another objective is
to create a favorable biologic environment for the process of tissue healing.
40. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast post-and-core and a metal
ceramic crown. Tree months later, the patient calls and complains of pain, especially on
biting. Tooth mobility is normal, as are the radiographs. The most probable cause of pain
is:

A. Perforation near the apex
B. Perforation into the furca
C. Perforation through the crown
D. Perforation at the DEJ
E. perforation at the CEJ
42. Which of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically treated tooth?
A. Ether C. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Chloroform D. Sodium hypochlorite E. Hydrogen
peroxide
43. The most important principle governing the location and outline of the lingual or occlusal
opening into the pulp chamber is:
A. discoloration
E. A vertical fracture of the root and an associated deep periodontal defect
56
A. pulp is inflamed
D. blood supply is interrupted, and the negative response may be
temporary
E. neural transmission is interrupted ,and the negative response may
be temporary.
a. general health of the patient

b. cleaning and shaping of the canal
c. efficacy of the irrigating solution
d. amount and concentration of medication used.
e. Sterilization of the canal as evidenced by negative cultures
a. a vital root pulp C. the amount of root resoprtion

b. the patient’s age D. the absence of internal root resoprtion
49. During a stepback enlargement of the canal space, one reason for recapitulation after each
increase in instrument size is to:
a. maintain coronal curvature of the canal

b. maintain the apical stop for filling with gutta-percha
c. create a coronal funnel to facilitate filling with gutta-percha
d. clean the apical segment of dentin fillings that are not removed by
irrigation
D. a clockwise-counterclockwise motion with pressure directed
apically.
51. Radiographically, the level of the normal interproximal alveolar crest is related to
the:
A. epithelial attachment. D. Amount of underlying trabecular
bone.
B. Anatomy of the alveolar process E. Position of the CEJ of
approximal teeth.
C. Location of the gingival attachment
52. Which of the following oral bacteria have been implicated as periodontal pathogens?
A. Porphyromonas gingivalis, Eubacterium sp., and Campylobacter recta
B. Streptococcus gordonii, Streptococcus mutans, and Giamella sp.
C. Lactobacillus casei and Veillonella sp.
D. Streptococcus mitior, Streptococcus gordonii, and Bacteriodes gracillis
E. None of the above
57
54. Histologic examination of the tissues in desquamative gingivitis (gingivosis) reveals:

A. hyperkeratosis D. aggregations of gisnt cells.
B. no inflammatory response E. local loss of the basement
membrane
C. elongation of rete pegs
55. Which of the following periodontal diseases causes the most rapid destruction of
alveolar bone?
A. Periodontal abscess C. Phenytoin-induced gingival enlargement
B. Chronic periodontitis D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
56. In primary occlusal traumatism, the most diagnostic finding is:
A. Mobility C. bone loss

B. Faceting D. gingival recession E. vertical pocket formation
57. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient with HIV-
associated necrotizing ulcerative gingivo-periodontitis?
A. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses. C. Gingivectomy and gingivoplasty
B. Definitive root planing and curettage D. administration of antibiotics
A. plaque control C. oral hygiene
B. oral physiotherapy D. all of them.
59. A bacterial enzyme capable of altering the ground substance of the periodontal ligament is:
A. lysozyme C. collagenase
B. peroxidase D. streptokinase E. hyaluronidase
60. Which of the following has been associated with localized juvenile periodontitis?
A. Cyclic eosinophils C. Increased phagocytosis
B. Lysis of neutrophils D. Neutrophil chemotactic defects
A. Bone loss and migration of junctional epithelium
B. Bone loss only.
58
C. Ulceration of lamina propia.
D. Loss of circular epithelium
62. Pronounced bony ledges and interproximal cratering are indicators for performing:
I. gingivectomy IV. flap surgery

II. osseous grafting V. infrabony therapy
III. osseous resection and contouring
A. I & III B. I & V C. II & IV D. III & IV E. IV &
V
63. The highest incidence of fibrous gingival enlargement (hyperplasia) is related to:
A. Puberty . C. leukemia D. medication
B. Diabetes D. pregnancy
65. Increasing the zone of attached gingival in the area of mandibular second and third molars
is often complicated by the presence of the:
A. mylohyoid ridge C. internal oblique ridge

B. vestibular fornix D. external oblique ridge E. none of
these.
66. Desquamation of the gingival with ulceration of the lamina propia is:
A. Gingivosis C. herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. necrotic ulceration gingivitis D. gingivitis
A. Migration or wandering teeth from the upper 1st molars
B. Bone resoprtion
C. 30 mobility
D. retractable gingival
68. Brushing with a hard multi-bristled toothbrush could cause:
I. cervical erosion III. Gingival recession

II. facial clefts IV. cervical abrasion
A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. I, III & IV D. II, III & IV E. all of the choices
69. The col is found in which of these?

59
A. Alveolar mucosa C. Attached gingiva
B. Marginal gingival D. Interdental papilla
70. Which type of periodontitis causes continued attachment loss inspite of apparently
appropriate therapy?
B. Refractory periodontitis D. Rapidly progressive periodontitis
71. Which of the following cell types contains a biologically active amine which is released in the
inflammatory process and is active in causing vascular permeability?
A. Mast cell C. T lymphocyte

B. Plasma cell D. B lymphocyte E. none of these.
72.Dental plaque is believed to adhere to teeth because

A. Levans are soluble and sticky
B. dextrans are insoluble and sticky
C. the surface tension of plaque is low
D. bacteria secrete a lipoprotein-cementing substance
73. Which of these virulence factors of A.Actinomycetemcomitans is responsible to the killing of

PMN’s resulting in the destruction of the periodontal disease?
74. ////Soft tissue curettage is most successful in reducing pocker depth in which of the
following?
A. infrabony pocket C. hyperplastic fibrotic gingival tissue

B. edematous gingival tissue D. gingival enlargement E. none of
these.
75./// Pronounced bony ledges and interproximal cratering are indicative for:
A. Gingivectomy C. Periodontal flap
B. Modified Widmans flap D. Scaling, root planing and curettage
76./// Pockets of biologically active enzymes in the cytoplasm of polymorphonuclear leucocytes

which play an important role in inflammatory periodontal disease are:
A. Cristae C. lysosomes
B. Endoplasmicreticulum D. lysozymes
77. A periodontal pocket can be seen radiographically on which of the following surfaces?
A. lingual B. facial C. mesial D. distal E. none of these
78. The first fiber group destroyed to allow the junctional epithelium to migrate in an
apical direction is the:
A. circular C. dentogingival
60
B. horizontal D. alveologingival E. none of these.
80. Although no causal relationship between particular bacteria and periodontal diseases have
been determined, there does appear to be an association between localized juvenile
periodontitis and the presence of:
A. Actnobacillus actinomycetemcomitans C. Treponema denticola

B. Porphyromonas gingivalis D. Actinomyces viscosus
81. Which of the following components or products of plaque bacteria are antigenic in
humans?
I. enzymes and other proteins
II. hydrogen sulfide IV. endotoxins
III. polysaccharides V. Ammonia
A. I, II & IV B. I, III & IV C. II, III & V D. III, IV & V E. all
of these
82. PMN leucocytes migrate through the blood vessel wall in the early stage of inflammation by
means of:
A. Diapedesis C. chemotaxis
B. Rhexis D. phagocytosis
83. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient with HIV-
associated necrotizing ulcerative gingivo-periodontitis?
A. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses. C. Gingivectomy and

gingivoplasty
B. Definitive root planing and curettage D. administration of antibiotics
84.Loss of periodontal attachment is determined by measuring the distance between

the:
A. gingival margin and the CEJ
B. gingival margin and the bottom of the periodontal pocket
C. CEJ and the bottom of the periodontal pocket
D. Gingival margin and the most coronal portion of the connective tissue
attachment
61
A. prevent proliferation of gingival connective tissue and epithelium to the
root surface
C. permit regeneration of periodontal tissues to form a fibrillar attachment from

bone to cementum
87. Which of the following factors is most critical in determining whether or not to extract
a tooth involved with periodontal disease?
A. depth of pockets C. amount of attachment loss
B. mobility of the tooth D. relationship to adjacent teeth
88. Which of these gingival connective tissue component acts as a molecular filter and regulates
cell migration:
A. Greater accumulation of plaque in the unused side

B. Heavier and denser bone support in the unused side
C. Greater accumulation of plaque in the used side
D. Greater degree of periodontal disease in the used side
90. Apical migration of the epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of the
marginal gingival results in
A. a shallow sulcus C. infrabony pocket formation
B. gingival pocket formation D. periodontal pocket formation
92.. Which of the following periodontal diseases show a strong genetic etiologic relationship?
93.Apical migration of the epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of the

marginal gingival results in
A. a shallow sulcus C. infrabony pocket formation
B. gingival pocket formation D. periodontal pocket formation

62
95. Pocket where gingival sulcus is deepened because of the increased bulk of the
gingiva:
A. gingival pocket B. periodontal pocket C. suprabony pocket D. infrabony
pocket
96. The most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma is the presence of:
A. wear facets C. tooth mobility
B. enamel cracks D. cuspal fracture E. tooth
sensitivity
97. Which of these inhibit collagenase formation in the management of periodontal disease:
A. Amoxycillin C. Metronidazole
B. Erythromycin D. Minocycline
98 Pocket where the bottom of the pocket is apical to the level of the adjacent alveolar
bone. :
pocket.
99. Which of the following is the current method-of-choice for removing or disrupting
bacterial masses in the mouth?
A. Biologic C. Mechanical (brush and floss)
B. Chemical (mouthwashes) D. Antibiotic (penicillin, tetracycline)
A. a hoe D. an unltrasonic instrument
B. periodontal files E. a rotary driven metal scaler
C. a periodontal curet
/dent
11-26-2008
189. Which of the following sensory responses can be elicited from a tooth after root
canal therapy?
A. tactile sensation B. sensitivity to EPT C. thermal sensation D. sensitivity
to sweets
63

B. It causes irritation of the periodontal attachment apparatus & increased post
operative pain.

195. A negative response to the electric pulp tester immediately after a severe
luxation of a tooth indicates that the:
A. pulp is inflamed
D. blood supply is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary
E. neural transmission is interrupted ,and the negative response may be
temporary.

A. subgingival curet B. hoe C. scaler D. ultrasonic scaler

B. Ulceration of lamina propia. D. Loss of circular
epithelium
198. Each of the following can occur as a result of a successful root canal treatment,
except:
B. Regeneration of the periodontal ligament D. Formation of reparative dentin
64
A. Hyperemia in lamina propia. C. Congestion in the connective
tissue bed.
B. Venous stasis in the connective tissue bed. D. Ulceration of the outer
epithelium.
A. Discoloration
B. a chronic abscess and a draining sinus tract
C. a horizontal fracture of the apical third of the root.
D. A vertical fracture of the root and an associated deep periodontal defect

A. pulpotomy B. extraction C. pulpectomy D. pukp capping E. periodic
recall
202. In which of the following conditions are pulps of the involved teeth likely to be
vital?
7. radicular cysts
A. 1,3,4 ,5 B. 1,3,5 C. 1 & 4 D. 2,3,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5
203. Which type of periodontitis causes continued attachment loss inspite of

apparently appropriate therapy?
204. Which of these is a radiopaque area in the apices of young permanent teeth with
chronic pulpitis?
205. Which of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically treated

tooth?
A. Ether C. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Chloroform D.. Sodium hypochlorite E. Hydrogen peroxide
9. chloroform
A. 1 & 5 B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 3 & 4 E. 3 & 5
207. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast post-and-core and
a metal ceramic crown. Tree months later, the patient calls and complains of pain,
especially on biting. Tooth mobility is normal, as are the radiographs. The most probable
cause of pain is:
65
A. traumatic occlusion D. locking temporaries into prepared teeth
B. cementing the cast post and core E. permanent cementing crowns.
C. condensation forces during gutta-percha fill
209. One objective of root canal obturation is to develop a fluid tight seal. Another
objective is to create a favorable biologic environment for the process of tissue healing.

211. Which of these virulence factors of A.Actinomycetemcomitans is responsible to

the killing of PMN’s resulting in the destruction of the periodontal disease?
B. radiopaque D. set more rapidly E. better tolerated by periapical
tissues

A. Vascularity B. fibrous elements C.cellular elements
D. pulp stones
215. When root canal therapy is indicated for a vital tooth, which of the following is the
most biologically acceptable?
B. Filing 0.5-1.0mm short of the radiographic apex and filling to the same length
C. Filing to the radiographic apex and filling 0.5-1.0mm short of the radiographic
apex
D. Filing 0.5-1.0mm beyond the radiographic apex and filling to the radiographic
apex.
216. Extending a no. 10 file with a 0.02 taper 1.0mm beyond the apical foramen will
result in which of the following?
an overfill.
66
A. contours prevents plaque formation
B. contours reduces trauma from occlusion
C. contours deflect food from impacting into the gingiva
D. contours increase masticatory surfaces

A. persistent pain C. restorative indications
B. draining sinus tract D. microleakage
A. Microbial interaction. C. Endotoxins released after
bacterial death.
B. Exotoxins released by living bacteria D. Enzymes produced by bacteria.
223. The action of calcium hydroxide in promoting formation of an apical calcified

barrier in a tooth with an open apex and a necrotic pulp is probably best explained by:
D. calcium ions from the canal dressing precipitating apically to form an apical
bridge.
224. Which of the following is the best indicator of success of a pulpotomy in an

immature permanent tooth?
A. patient comfort
B. stable vitality readings
C. continuation of root formation
D. formation of a dentinal bridge covering the pulp stumps in the root canal.
225. A healthy 8-year old child has fractured permanent central incisor. The pulp is
widely exposed and vital. From radiographs, root ends appear incompletely calcified.
The recommended procedure is to:
67
circumscribing the apex. The tooth does not respond to vitality tests, and a sinus tract is
present. In conjunction with endodontic treatment, the sinus tract should be treated by:
227. Perforation on the mesial in the cervical third of the root of a maxillary first
premolar is a common error in performing an endodontic procedure because:
A. the crown tipped distally. D. The root tends to curve distally
B. The entire tooth tends to tip distally E. The bur tends to be directed
mesially
C. A concavity on the mesial root frequently exists.
228. A periapical lesion was discovered 1 ½ years after RCT on a maxillary central
incisor. Apical curettage and biopsyshowed the lesion to be an apical cyst. Two years
later, the lesion is larger than it was before surgery. Which of the following is the most
likely cause of continued failure?
A. Actinomycotic infection D. Failure to resect the apex.
B. An unobturated accessory canal E. Incomplete removal of the apical
cyst.
C. Leakage from a poorly debrided and obturated canal.

root surface
C. permit regeneration of periodontal tissues to form a fibrillar attachment from bone
to cementum


A. prevent discoloration D. seal dentinal tubules
B. stimulate healing in the apical region E. medicate the canal to eliminate
remaining bacteria
C. fill the space between the solid cone material and the pulp canal wall.
B. apical scar D. chronic apical periodontitis E. suppurative apical
periodontitis
68
234. A fragment of a barbed broach is broken off and wedged in the middle third of a
canal in a maxillary incisor. A radiolucency is present at the apex. The fragment cannot
be bypassed or removed. Treatment of choice includes:
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 3 only
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 1,2 & 3

A. B lymphocytes C. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes
B. Plasma cells D. T lymphocytes
237. Expanded Tetrafluoro ethylene membrane is used in periodontal therapy to:

A. regenerate bone
B. cover and protect surgical wound
C. barrier against collagen regeneration
D. barrier for epithelial and gingival connective tissue proliferation

endodontic case?
12. removing caries
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 only E. 2, 3 & 4
239. Once the root canal is obturated, what usually happens to the organisms that
had previously entered periapical tissues from the canal?
performed.
root canal.

B. accidental trauma D. irritants in dental materials E. .cavity
preparation
241. Which of the following would you consider in the treatment plan of a patient with
NUG (Necrotizing Ulceration Gingivitis)?
A. Radiograph
B. Case history and clinical experiences.
C. Oral prophylaxis & sublingual curettage and root planing
69
242. Where there are deepened pathologic pockets range from 6-8 mm, gingivectomy
is indicated. Will you do the procedure in:
243. In gingivectomy, the incision must follow the bleeding points because they refer
to the bottom of the pockets.
D. clean the apical segment of dentin fillings that are not removed by
irrigation
previously pulp capped. Radiographs disclose no periapical pathology. The tooth is not
sensitive to percussion. Both cold and heat stimulate a severe and lasting pain. The
most probable diagnosis is:
A. reversible pulpitis. C. Irreversible pulpitis
B. Cracked tooth syndrome D. Acute apical periodontitis E. Chronic apical
periodontitis

A. When the attached gingiva were fibrotic. C. When the marginal gingiva is
narrow.

A. plaque control B. oral hygiene C. oral physiotherapy D. all
of them.

250. A 45 year old male presents mobile teeth of molars 1020 mobility, clinical
examination reveal swollen gums of posterior teeth upper right and left; radiograph
presents bone level to the middle third of roots; medical history- he is diabetic. The
diagnosis is:
A. marginal gingivitis C. trauma from occlusion
B. juvenile periodontitis D. advance periodontitis
70
251. The most important principle governing the location and outline of the lingual or
occlusal opening into the pulp chamber is:
D .Removal of all caries and defective restorative material.

A. Migration or wandering teeth from the upper 1st molars C. Bone
resoprtion
B. 30 mobility D. retractable
gingival

located:
B. apical to mucogingival junction D. apical to the crest of the
alveolar bone

A. Perforation near the apex D. Perforation into the furca
B. Perforation through the crown E. Perforation at the DEJ
C. perforation at the CEJ
256. Pockets of biologically active enzymes in the cytoplasm of polymorphonuclear

leucocytes which play an important role in inflammatory periodontal disease are:
A. Cristae B. lysosomes C. Endoplasmicreticulum D.
lysozymes

A. nervous tissue C. loose connective tissue
B. endothelial tissue D. dense connective tissue E. granulomatous
tissue
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 3 only
259. Furcal periodontal involvement with loss of attachment thru and thru from buccal
to lingual in the mandibular molars is this type:
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
260. PMN leucocytes migrate through the blood vessel wall in the early stage of
inflammation by means of:
A. Diapedesis B. chemotaxis C. Rhexis D. phagocytosis
71
262. Which of these gingival connective tissue component acts as a molecular filter
and regulates cell migration:
A. Glucoronic acid B. Glycoproteins C. Proteoglycans D.
Heparatan

264. The index used for assessment of average severity of periodontal disease in
large population groups is:

A. They contain 40% to 50% pure gutta-percha. C. They can be heat
sterilized
B. They adhere to dentin when compacted D. They are not
compressible.

267. Which of the following medical conditions may not influence the defense
mechanism of the gingival to bacterial infection?
A. Rheumatic heart disease C. Diabetes
B. Agranulocytosis D. Cyclic neutropenia
268. Which of these inhibit collagenase formation in the management of periodontal

disease:
A. Amoxycillin B. Metronidazole C. Erythromycin D. Minocycline

A. Leukemic gingival enlargement C. Idiopathic fibromatosis of the
gingiva
B. Dilantin gingival enlargement D. Nifedipine gingival enlargement
270. If a dentist finds only a thin ring of calculus in the bottom third of a deep pocket, it
may be assumed that:
B. calculus previously extended to the enamel, but the top part was removed.
72
D. Calculus migrated apically as the pocket grew deeper, and new calculus formed
on the apical side while that on the occlusal side dissolved.

A. prevent hemorrhage C. accelerate healing D. retard plaque
accumulation
B. stabilize the teeth D. none of the above.


4. pain 2. cold 3. proprioception
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 only D. 2 & 3 E. all of them.

9. an antimicrobial agent 3. a chelating agent a chelating agent
10. a tissue solvent 4. an anodyne dressing
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 1 & 3
277. Clinical criteria for diagnosing periodontal and gingival diseases include alteration
in the:
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 1,2, 3& 4
278. Treatment of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis should include: 1. palliative

treatment
2. control of secondary infection 3. application of dilute hydrogen
peroxide
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 2 & 4
73
D. Achieve a more favorable distribution of forces to the periodontal ligament
280. Which of the following periodontal diseases show a strong genetic etiologic
relationship?
281. Tetracycline are used as an anti infective agent in the treatment of periodontal
disease because of its added property of:

remaining wall
scaling with:
curet

A. Neumann flap B. Original Widman flap C. Modified Widman flap E.
Nabers flap

B. before surgery for gross corrections and after surgery for line corrections



A. bone infection D.. depth of pockets
B. Lack of stippling of the gingival E. changes in color of the gingival

74
School of Dentistry
D. Pre-Board Theoretical Examination
101. Which of the following statements regarding sodium hypochlorite used as a root
canal irrigating solution is accurate?
available.

ensure patency.
the coronal taper.
diameter.

operative pain.
105. In which of the following conditions are pulps of the involved teeth likely to be
vital?
2. radicular cysts
A. 1,3,4 ,5 B. 1,3,5 C. 1 & 4 D. 2,3,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5
75
106. Which of the following represents the basic constituent of most root canal
sealers?
A. Zinc oxide C. Zinc stearate
B. Polyvinyl resin D. Polycarboxylate E. Zinc oxyphosphate
D. They are aggressive because of a negative-rake angle that is parallel to the
shaft.
108. Which of the following statements regarding pulp stimulation with cold is
accurate?
109. A preoperative finding that predisposes to a decreased prognosis is which of the

following:
A. The tooth is in hyperocclusion.
B. The pulp is necrotic with no periradicular lesion
C. The pulp is necrotic with a periradicular lesion present.
D. The pulp is vital
E. Treatment is in an elderly patient.
A. discoloration
E. A vertical fracture of the root and an associated deep periodontal defect

A. pulpotomy C. extraction
B. pulpectomy D. pulp capping E. periodic recall
112. In shaping and cleansing the canal of a vital maxillary central incisor, a
practitioner has inadvertently perforated the apical foramen. This error can result in each
of the following, except:
A. Pain to the patient.
B. Enlargement of the foramen.
C. Trauma to the apical tissue.
D. Necrotic tissue being forced into the apical tissues.
76
113. A size 30 root canal file is broken 1mm short of the apex in the distofacial canal
of a maxillary second molar. The instrument can neither be removed nor by-passed. The
remaining pulp is vital. In this situation, the dentist should complete the root canal
treatment and:
A. amputate the distofacial root.
B. Perform an apicoectomy of the distofacial root
C. Perform an apicoectomy and a retrofill of the distofacial root
D. Place the patient on recall for further evaluation.
B. maintain coronal curvature of the canal
C. maintain the apical stop for filling with gutta-percha
D. create a coronal funnel to facilitate filling with gutta-percha
E. clean the apical segment of dentin fillings that are not removed by
irrigation

116. The smear layer on dentin walls acts to prevent pulpal injury for which of the
following?
118. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast post-and-core and
a metal ceramic crown. Tree months later, the patient calls and complains of pain,
especially on biting. Tooth mobility is normal, as are the radiographs. The most probable
cause of pain is:
119. To remain stable, a rubber dam clamp must contact the anchor tooth gingival to
the height of contour. Which other criterion must the clamp satisfy?
A. All four points must be sharp.
B. All four points must contact the tooth.
C. The bow must be directed to the distal side of the tooth..
77
A, facial B. lingual C. mesial D. distal
121. Paraformaldehyde-containing obturating materials results in which of the

following?
A. Eliminate bacteria that remain in the canals. D. Mummify tissue remnants in the
canals.
B. Reduce post treatment pain. E. Are below the standard of care
for RCT
122. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an interappointment medication primarily

because of:
A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue. D. Its antimicrobial activity.
B. Its ability to stimulate hard-tissue formation. E. Its ability to temporarily seal the
canal.
A. traumatic occlusion D. condensation forces during gutta-
percha fill
B. locking temporaries into prepared teeth E. cementing the cast post and core
124. One objective of root canal obturation is to develop a fluid tight seal. Another
objective is to create a favorable biologic environment for the process of tissue healing.
A. Both statements are TRUE. C. The first statement is TRUE, the second is
FALSE
B. Both statements are FALSE D. The first statement is FALSE, the second is
TRUE.
an overfill.

127. A healthy 8-year old child has fractured permanent central incisor. The pulp is
widely exposed and vital. From radiographs, root ends appear incompletely calcified.
The recommended procedure is to:
78

circumscribing the apex. The tooth does not respond to vitality tests, and a sinus tract is
present. In conjunction with endodontic treatment, the sinus tract should be treated by:
performed.
root canal.

131. The mandibular, 2nd molar should be restored with crown after RCT for which of
the following reasons?

133. A fragment of a barbed broach is broken off and wedged in the middle third of a
canal in a maxillary incisor. A radiolucency is present at the apex. The fragment cannot
be bypassed or removed. Treatment of choice includes:
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 3 only
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 1,2 & 3
79
endodontic case?
16. removing caries
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 only E. 2, 3 & 4
A. General circulation via anachoresis. C. Exposure to the oral cavity via
caries.
B. The gingival sulcus. D. None of these.
bacterial death.


140. Which of the following sensory responses can be elicited from a tooth after root
canal therapy?
an overfill.
5. pain
80
6. cold
7. proprioception
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 only D. 2 & 3 E. all of them.

12. a tissue solvent
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 1 & 3
145. Each of the following are direct advantages of pre-enlarging the radicular space,
except:
A. It provides better tactile control of instruments when negotiating a small, curved
canal

148. The response of the pulp to a recently placed amalgam without cavity lining is
usually
time
B. moderate-to-severe inflammation D. none of these.

A. The cutting stroke involves apical pressure and a counterclockwise
rotation.
81
151. Moderate extrusion of obturating materials beyond the apex is undesirable
because of which of the following?
tissue.
152. Premature occlusal contacts of the teeth are most harmful to the periodontium of
patient:
A. Consumes high nondetergent diet C. Has maligned teeth
B. Clenches and grinds his teeth D. Wears a partial denture.

formation


of them.
157. Although the exact mechanism of formation of calculus is not understood, it is

known that the organic matrix of calculus in humans includes:
158. Which of these virulence factors of A.Actinomycetemcomitans is responsible to

the killing of PMN’s resulting in the destruction of the periodontal disease?
A. Leukotoxins C. Enzymes
B. Endotoxins D. Polyclonal B lymphocytes activation

located:
B. apical to mucogingival junction D. apical to the crest of the alveolar
bone
82
A. Cristae C. endoplasmicreticulum
B. Lysosomes D. lysozymes
161. After subgingival curettage, the expected result would be:

A. increased edema C. deeper gingival sulcus
B. increased tooth mobility D. shallower gingival sulcus
162. Dental plaque arises primarily as a result of enzymatic reactions using which of
the following?
A. Glucose and protein C. Sucrose and lipid
B. Sucrose and saliva D. Glucose and saliva
163. The index used for assessment of average severity of periodontal disease in
large population groups is:
A. Loe and Silness index C. Russel index
B. Greene and Vermillon index D. Ramfjord index
164. Clinical criteria for diagnosing periodontal and gingival diseases include alteration
in the:
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 1,2, 3& 4

1. steroid therapy
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 2 &
4

remaining wall
scaling with:
curet

83
169. Which of the following statements regarding guided tissue regeneration (GTR) is
false?
A. GTE is an effective adjuncts to treatment of periodontal disease but has
limited value in treating endodontic pathosis.
B. The combined endodontic periodontic lesion has the least favorable prognosis for
GTR because of the relationship of the lesion to the gingival margins.

171. The acute apical abscess is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis by
A. pulp testing C. presence of swelling
B. radiographic appearance D. degree of mobility
172. Chronic apical periodontitis is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis

D. All of the above
174. Tetracycline are used as an anti infective agent in the treatment of periodontal
disease because of its added property of:

A. Gingivectomy D. osseous recontouring
B. subgingival curettage E. interseptal massage with stimulators

A. bone infection D. depth of pockets
B. changes in color of the gingival E. lack of stippling of the gingiva
177. Gingiva is different from alveolar mucosa in that gingival is:

A. elastic fibers C. muscularis mucosa
84
B. simple epithelium D. stratified epithelium E. high connective tissue
papillae
178. Which of the following species of streptococci is usually not found in human
dental plaque?
A. S. mutans B. S. sanguis C. S. pyogenes D. S. salivarius E. S. mitior (S.
mitis)

A. periodontal vessels only C. both periodontal and interalveolar
vessels
B. interalveolar vessels only D. none of these.

root surface
C. permit regeneration of periodontal tissues to form a fibrillar attachment from bone
to cementum

182. The cribriform plate (alveolar bone proper) reveals minute openings which
represent:
A. areas of osteoclastic activity. D. Regions of hematopoietic activity.
B. Resoprtion sites of the spongiosa. E. Attachment sites of Sharpey’s fibers.
C. Regions for passage of vascular and nerve elements.

A. orthokeratinization. D. The presence of rete pegs
B. Hemidesmosomes in the cells facing the tooth surface
C. All of these E. None of these.
184. The calcified bodies sometimes found in the periodontal ligament are best
described as which of the following?
tissue.
apical
85

A. Leukemic gingival enlargement C. Idiopathic fibromatosis of the
gingiva


190. A calcium hydroxide pulpotomy performed on a young, permanent tooth is

judged to be successful during which of the following?
A. When the patient is asymptomatic. C. When the tooth responds to pulp
testing.
B. When normal root development continues. D. All of the above.
191. Direct pulp capping is recommended for primary teeth with which of the
following?
A. Carious exposures C. Calcification in the pulp chamber
B. Mechanical exposures D. All of these.
192. Presence of gutta-percha beyond the apex is usually caused by which of the
following?

relationship?
A. Adult periodontitis C. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
B. Juvenile periodontitis D. Gingivitis

A. B lymphocytes C. Plasma cells
B. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes D. T lymphocytes
86
A. prevent hemorrhage C. accelerate healing
B. stabilize the teeth D. retard plaque accumulation E. none of
the above.
198. The bacterial population in the gingival sulcus or the pocket that influences the
course of periodontal disease involves”
A. mostly aerobic bacteria
B. essentially a pure culture
199. Normally, the free gingiva can be distinguished from the epithelial attachment
because the:
D. Underlying connective tissue of the epithelial attachmentis less vascular.

School of Dentistry
ENDODONTICS AND PREIODONTOLOGY
201. The root end is ultrasonically prepared during endodontic surgery for which of the
following reasons?

ensure patency.
87
the coronal taper.
diameter.

operative pain.
A. General circulation via anachoresis.
B. Exposure to the oral cavity via caries.
C. The gingival sulcus.
bacterial death.
206. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an interappointment medication primarily

because of:
A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue. C. Its antimicrobial activity.
B. Its ability to stimulate hard-tissue formation. D. Its ability to temporarily seal the
canal.
D. They are aggressive because of a negative-rake angle that is parallel to the
shaft.

209. The smear layer on dentin walls acts to prevent pulpal injury for which of the
following?
210. Which of the following statements regarding sodium hypochlorite used as a root
canal irrigating solution is accurate?
88
available.

212. The following statements are true regarding endogram, except:

A. Provide information on the extent of internal resoprtive lesion.
B. Visualization of fractures and leaking restoration is attributed to the incorporation
of Hypaque in the irrigating solution.
C. Conventional radiography and digital radiography may both be used in producing
an endogram.
D. It is used to confirm the correct working length.

A. Gauging is performed in the coronal portion of the canal to confirm if the coronal
enlargement is complete
B. Tuning identifies the most apical, cross-sectional diameter of the canal.
C. Gauging and tuning verify the completed shaping f the apical portion of the
canal.
D. Gauging and tuning produces a uniform, cylindric diameter to the canal in the
apical 2 to 3mm that enhances obturation and sealing.

A. The release of formaldehyde on setting.
B. Low toxicity.
C. Long working time, but quick setting at body temperature.
D. It can be distinguished from gutta-percha radiographcally.

217. Pulpal and periradicular pathosis results primarily from:

A. Traumatic injury cause by heat during cavity preparation. C. Bacterial invasion.
B. Toxicity of dental materials. D. Immunologic
reactions.

89
219. The response of the pulp to a recently placed amalgam without cavity lining is
usually
time
B. moderate-to-severe inflammation
220. Which of the following statements regarding pulp stimulation with cold is
accurate?


A. The cutting stroke involves apical pressure and a counterclockwise
rotation.
224. Moderate extrusion of obturating materials beyond the apex is undesirable

because of which of the following?
tissue.
225. Presence of gutta-percha beyond the apex is usually caused by which of the
following?
90
227. Canals may be missed during treatment because of which of the following?
A. Calcification C. Inadequate access
B. Anomalous location D. All of the above.
A. Midroot fracture C. Concussion
B. Intrusive luxation D. Complicated crown fracture

A. If the tooth is mobile after splinting.
B. Until the RCT is completed.
C. With the composite as close to the gingiva as possible.
231. A pulp has been damaged and is inflamed because of deep caries and cavity
preparation. What material placed on the floor of the cavity aids the pulp in resolving the
inflammation?
A. Calcium hydroxide C. Steroid formulations
B. Zinc oxide-eugenol D. none, there is no material that promotes
healing

233. Piezoelectric, ultrasonic devices differs from magneto-strictive devices in which

of the following?
C. The piezoelectric unit uses a RispiSonic, SharperSonic, and TrioSonic file
system
234. Percolation can cause periapical irritation because of:

A. dead spaces C. unclean canal
B. excess cement D. egress of degraded tissue fluid into the periapex E. all
of them.
235. A good master cone will have a snug fit at the apical third by:
A. minimum of 4mm B. 5mm C. 0.5 to 1mm D. no specific length E. 2 mm.

A. there is excess cement
B. there is excessive force applied during lateral condensation
91
C. patient failed to take analgesic after treatment.
A. tooth is asymptomatic and functional C. negative culture test result
B. no foul odor D. all of the choices.

A. when the canal is free from hemorrhage C. when the tooth is
symptomatic
B. when the canal has eased to exude tissue fluid D. before post cementation

A. 2mm short of the working length
B. the depth the spreader has penetrated during compaction
C, refers to the force exerted by the spreader during compaction
D. all of the them.
A. possible hematoma C. possible incomplete instrumentation
B. possible incomplete irrigation D. possible root perforation

A. overinstrumentation C. the working length stops at the apical constriction
B. underinstrumentation D. partial pulp removal

A. debridement B. exploration C. obturation D. all of the choices.

A. smooth broach B. file C. barbed broach D. all of the choices
244. The distance from the apical exit of the root canal up to the reference point on
the crown of the tooth is referred to as:
A. root length B. root canal length C. computed working length D. all
of these

A. ethylaminotetracycline acid C. ethyldiaminotetracycline acid
B. ethyldiaminotetraacetic acid D. all of the choices
92
A. as small as possible to conserve tooth structure
B. confined to the area where carious destruction occurs
C. extended to the full periphery of the pulp chamber to remove the overhanging
enamel and dentin
D. all of the these
247. Presence of lingering pain after the removal of the stimulus is an indication of :
A. irreversible pulpitis B. reversible pulpitis C. necrosis D. all of these
248. In an infected root canal, the two most commonly found organisms are:
A. staphylococcus and enterococci C. streptococci and staphylococci
B. lactobacilli and streptococci D. all of them.
249. Zinc oxide eugenol is ideal for root canal obturation because:
A. it can be easily removed if necessary
B. it has antibacterial property D. it is slow setting
C. none irritating to host tissue E. all of the above.
250. Symptoms of internal resorption:

A. pain in one quick stab
B. constant unexplainable toothache
C. pulpal discomfort in the morning
D. completely asymptomatic or mild pain at tolerable level

A. dental sac C. dental papilla
B. enamel organ D. epithelial root sheath E. outer enamel epithelium
252. The calcified bodies sometimes found in the periodontal ligament are best
described as which of the following?
tissue.
apical
93


of them.

dental plaque?
A. S. mutans B. S. sanguis C. S. pyogenes D. S. salivarius E. S. mitior
(S. mitis)

94
of them.

dental plaque?
A. S. mutans B. S. sanguis C. S. pyogenes D. S. salivarius E. S. mitior
(S. mitis)

266. Chronic apical periodontitis is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis

D. All of the above
268. Which of the following regardibg acute apical periodontitis is/are accurate?

95
A. Inflammation from the periodontal sulcus migrates apically, causing pulp
inflammation and eventually pulp necrosis.
B. Pulp necrosis occurs, and the toxic irritants cause inflammation that
migrates to the gingival margin, creating a periodontal pocket.
C. Irritants gain access to the periodontal tissues at the site of a vertical-root
fracture producing tissue destruction that mimics periodontitis.
D. Pulp necrosis results in the formation of an apical , radioluscent lesion
characterized by the loss of the apical lamina dura.
272. Which of the following statements regarding guided tissue regeneration (GTR) is
false?
A. GTE is an effective adjuncts to treatment of periodontal disease but has limited
value in treating endodontic pathosis.
B. The combined endodontic periodontic lesion has the least favorable
prognosis for GTR because of the relationship of the lesion to the gingival
margins.

For numbers 74-78 , the following are the choices:
A. Gracey 7/8 C. Gracey 13/14
B. Gracey 11/12 D. Gracey ½, 2/4 and 5/6 E. Gracey 9/10
274. Used for anterior teeth: D

275. Used for facial surfaces of posterior teeth: A
276. Used for mesial surfaces of posterior teeth:B
277. Used for lingual surfaces of posterior teeth: E
278. Used for distal surfaces of posterior teeth: C
For numbers 79-82, the following are the choices:
279. Used to dislodge heavy supragingival calcular deposits: C

280. Used to remove gross and supragingival calcular deposits on mandibular anterior
region: B
281. Used to crushed and removed heavy calcular deposits: D
282. Instruments used for scaling, root planing and removal of soft lining of perio
pocket; E
283. Gingiva becomes inflamed and varies in color from bright red to a bluish and
usually described as “old rose” and usually appears on the 3rd or 4th month of pregnancy:
A. recurrent aphthous stomatitis C. gingivostomatitis herpetica
B. acute ulcerative gingivitis D. pregnancy gingivitis E. Francois

Syndrome
96
284. Its clinical features are ulcers at tips of interdental papillae occasionally
spreading among margins, soreness, gingival bleeding, halitosis, rarely fever malaise,
anorexia and cervical lymph node enlargement. :

Syndrome
285. An acute infection involving the gingiva, lips, other oral tissues and cause by
herpes simplex virus which is known as one of the largest virus:

Syndrome
286. This disease is characterized by skin lesions osteochondrodeptropy of finger and

toe bones and bilateral ocular white opacities resulting from corneal deptrophy:

Syndrome
287. This disease is common in females which occurs in the postonulation period prior
to menstruation.

Syndrome
288. Another name for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis:

A. Trench mouth C. Vincent’s Infcetion
B. Stillman’s Cleft D. all of these E. A & C only.
289. Characterized by development of painful hyperemic gingiva and sharply punched

out erosions of interdental papilla:
A. periodontal abscess B. Juvenile periodontitis C. gingival cyst D. Stillman’s Cleft
E. NUG
290. Indicates the beginning of gingival recession:

A. hyperplasia B. adult cyst C. periodontitis D. gingival recession E. Stillman’s
cleft.
291. Gingival enlargement can be classified into:

A. gingival recession B. non-inflammatory C. inflammatory D. combination E.
B,C, and D
97
292. Alveolar defect wherein there’s dipping of the crestal bone margins exposing the
root surface:
A. cementicles C. alveolar dehiscence
B. hypercementosis D. alveolar fenestration E. enamel pearl
293. After gingival curettage, the expected result would be :

A. increased edema C. shallower gingival sulcus
B. increase tooth mobility D. deeper gingival sulcus
294. Which of this drugs does not produce gingival enlargement?

A. naproxen B. nefedipine C. sodium hydantoin D.
cyclosporine
295. An acute gingival lesion characterized by cratering and ulceration.

A. ANUG B. monilliasis C. herpetic gingivostomatitis D. cancrum
oris
296. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is caused by:

A. herpes zoster B. rubella virus C. herpes simplex A virus D. herpes simplex
B virus
297. The probing pocket depth is the distance from:

A. the CEJ to the bottom of the pocket
B. CEJ to the crest of the gingiva
C. crest of the gingiva to the bottom of the pocket
D. incisal or occlusal edge to the bottom of the pocket
298. Which of these is the recommended management of an acute apical abscess

with a pointing in the alveolar mucosa of the vestibule?
A. relief of occlusion B. incision and drainage C. analgesic D. antibiotics
299. Which of the following extracellular polysaccharide in dental plaque serves as the
structural stabilizer of the intermicrobial matrix :
A. fructan B. mutan C. dextran D. glucan
300. Calculus should be removed because:

A. it abrades the soft tissue of the gingival
B. interferes with the attachment of junctional epithelium
C. a retention site for bacterial plaque
D. maybe located inside the connective tissue causing inflammation
School of Dentistry
98

Shade AE if the answer is not in the choices given.
289. Which of the following would you consider in the treatment plan of a patient with NUG
(Necrotizing Ulceration Gingivitis)?
A. Radiograph C. Case history and clinical experiences.
B. Oral prophylaxis & sublingual curettage and root planning D. All of the above.
291. In gingivectomy, the incision must follow the bleeding points because they refer to the
bottom of the pockets.

A. edematous gingival B. periodontitis simplex C. hyperplastic gingivalD. hypertrophied
gingival
A. When the attached gingiva were fibrotic. C. When the marginal gingiva is narrow.
294. A 45 year old male presents mobile teeth of molars 1 020 mobility, clinical examination
reveal swollen gums of posterior teeth upper right and left; radiograph presents bone level to
the middle third of roots; medical history- he is diabetic. The diagnosis is:
A. marginal gingivitis B. trauma from occlusion C. juvenile periodontitisD. advance
periodontitis

A. Migration or wandering teeth from the upper 1st molars C. Bone resoprtion
B. 30 mobility D. retractable gingival

99
297. Which type of periodontitis causes continued attachment loss inspite of apparently
appropriate therapy?
298. Which of these is a radiopaque area in the apices of young permanent teeth with
chronic pulpitis?
A. apical abscess B. condensing osteitis C. radicular cyst D. apical granuloma
A. discoloration D. an acute apical abscess
B. a chronic abscess and a draining sinus tract E. a horizontal fracture of the apical third of
the root.
C. A vertical fracture of the root and an associated deep periodontal defect

A. pulpotomy B. extraction C. pulpectomy D. pukp cappingE. periodic
recall
301. Which of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically treated tooth?
A. Ether B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Chloroform D. Sodium hypochlorite E. Hydrogen peroxide
A. preservation of tooth structure. C. Complete removal of the roof of the pulp chamber
B. Direct access along straight lines. D. Removal of all caries and defective restorative
material.
303. In which of the following conditions are pulps of the involved teeth likely to be vital?
12. radicular cysts
13. periapicalosteofibrosis (cementoma)
A. 1,3,4 ,5 B. 1,3,5 C. 1 & 4 D. 2,3,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5
304. If a dentist finds only a thin ring of calculus in the bottom third of a deep pocket, it may
be assumed that:
100
B. calculus previously extended to the enamel, but the top part was removed.
D. Calculus migrated apically as the pocket grew deeper, and new calculus formed on the apical
side
while that on the occlusal side dissolved.

A. area of plaque covering the clinical crown D. thickness of plaque at the gingival margin
B. colony forming units of gram-negative bacteria E. weight of plaque obtained from

facial surfaces.
C. Weight of plaque obtained from the clinical crown.
A. prevent hemorrhage C. stabilize the teeth
B .accelerate healing D. retard plaque accumulation E.none of the above.
307. Clinical criteria for diagnosing periodontal and gingival diseases include alteration in
the:
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3, & 4 D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 1,2, 3& 4

B. accidental trauma D. irritants in dental materials E. cavity preparation
12. chloroform
A. 1 & 5 B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 3 & 4E. 3 & 5

Perforation near the apex
A. Perforation into the furca C. Perforation through the crown
B. Perforation at the DEJ D. perforation at the CEJ
101
312. A dentist restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast post-and-core and a
metal ceramic crown. Tree months later, the patient calls and complains of pain, especially on
biting. Tooth mobility is normal, as are the radiographs. The most probable cause of pain is:
A. a loose crown B. a vertical root fracture C. psychosomatic D. a premature eccentric
contact
313. The literature suggests that the majority of vertical root fractures of endodontically
treated teeth result from:
A. traumatic occlusion D. condensation forces during gutta-percha fill
B. locking temporaries into prepared teeth E.cementing the cast post and core

B. It causes irritation of the periodontal attachment apparatus and increased post operative
pain.
C. It enlarges the apical terminus and increases the potential for extrusion of obturating
material.
D. It eliminates the natural constriction of the foramen and increases the chance for an overfill.

102

A.persistent pain B. restorative indications C..draining sinus tract D. microleakage
A. Glucoronic acid B. Glycoproteins C. Proteoglycans D. Heparatan

A. Eosinophils B. Lymphocytes C. polymorphonuclear leucocytes D. plasma cells
A. Loe and Silness index B. Russel index C. Greene and Vermillon index D. Ramfjord index

A. prevent proliferation of gingival connective tissue and epithelium to the root surface
C. permit regeneration of periodontal tissues to form a fibrillar attachment from bone to

cementum

A. contains nerves and vascular elements C. provides the cellular elements of bone and
cementum
B. furnishes an elastic sling for holding the tooth D. allows for physiologic movement of
the teeth

A. They contain 40% to 50% pure gutta-percha. C. They adhere to dentin when compacted
B. They can be heat sterilized. D. They are not compressible.
A. cap the pulp B. perform a pulpotomy C. extract the tooth D. remove the entire pulp.
103
A. Microbial interaction. C. Endotoxins released after bacterial
death.
329. The action of calcium hydroxide in promoting formation of an apical calcified barrier in
a tooth with an open apex and a necrotic pulp is probably best explained by:
D. calcium ions from the canal dressing precipitating apically to form an apical bridge.
permanent tooth?
A. patient comfort C. formation of a dentinal bridge covering the pulp stumps in the
root canal.
B. stable vitality readings D. continuation of root formation
331. A radiograph of a maxillary lateral incisor reveals a radiolucent area circumscribing the
apex. The tooth does not respond to vitality tests, and a sinus tract is present. In conjunction
with endodontic treatment, the sinus tract should be treated by:
104
332. Perforation on the mesial in the cervical third of the root of a maxillary first premolar is
a common error in performing an endodontic procedure because:
A. the crown tipped distally. D. The root tends to curve distally
B. The entire tooth tends to tip distally E. The bur tends to be directed
mesially
C. A concavity on the mesial root frequently exists.
333. A periapical lesion was discovered 1 ½ years after RCT on a maxillary central incisor.
Apical curettage and biopsyshowed the lesion to be an apical cyst. Two years later, the lesion is
larger than it was before surgery. Which of the following is the most likely cause of continued
failure?
A. Actinomycotic infection D. Failure to resect the apex.
B. An unobturated accessory canal E. Incomplete removal of the apical

cyst.
C. Leakage from a poorly debrided and obturated canal.
334. A fragment of a barbed broach is broken off and wedged in the middle third of a canal
in a maxillary incisor. A radiolucency is present at the apex. The fragment cannot be bypassed or
removed. Treatment of choice includes:
20. placingformocresol to permeate and fix necrotic tissue.
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2 C. 2 & 3D. 2, 3 & 4 E. 3 only
335. Pocket where the bottom is coronal to the underlying alveolar bone:
pocket.

A. plaque control B. oral hygiene C. oral physiotherapy D. all of them.

A. subgingivalcuret B. hoe C. scaler D. ultrasonic scaler
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1 only E. 1,2 & 3
339. Which of the following are considerations in coronal pretreatment of an endodontic

case?
20. removing caries
105
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 1, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 only E. 2, 3 & 4
C. They re-enter and reinfect the sterile canal unless periapical surgery is performed.
D. They will have been eliminated by various medicaments that were used in the root canal.


B. Ulceration of lamina propia. D. Loss of circular epithelium

A. Hyperemia in lamina propia. C. Congestion in the connective tissue bed.
B. Venous stasis in the connective tissue bed. D. Ulceration of the outer epithelium.

A. prevent discoloration D. seal dentinal tubules
B. stimulate healing in the apical region E. medicate the canal to eliminate remaining bacteria
C. fill the space between the solid cone material and the pulp canal wall.
A .apical cyst C. condensing osteitis
B. apical scar D. chronic apical periodontitis E. suppurative apical periodontitis
106
8. pain
9. cold
10. proprioception
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 only D. 2 & 3E. all of them.

A.Vascularity B. fibrous elements C.cellular elements D. pulp stones

A.Neumann flap B. Original WidmanflapModifiedWidman flap D. Nabers flap

16. a tissue solvent
A. 1, 2 & 3 B. 1 & 2C. 2, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3E. 1 & 3
351. During a stepback enlargement of the canal space, one reason for recapitulation after
each increase in instrument size is to:
D. clean the apical segment of dentin fillings that are not removed by irrigation
353. When root canal therapy is indicated for a vital tooth, which of the following is the most
biologically acceptable?
B. Filing 0.5-1.0mm short of the radiographic apex and filling to the same length
C. Filing to the radiographic apex and filling 0.5-1.0mm short of the radiographic apex
D. Filing 0.5-1.0mm beyond the radiographic apex and filling to the radiographic apex.
107
354. Which of the following root surfaces is the most likely to be strip-perforated during
canal instrumentation of the mesial root of a mandibular first molar?
A. facialB. lingual C. mesial D. distal
355. Which of these virulence factors of A.Actinomycetemcomitans is responsible to the

killing of PMN’s resulting in the destruction of the periodontal disease?
A. Leukotoxins B. Endotoxins C. EnzymesD. Polyclonal B lymphocytes activation
B. apical to mucogingival junction D. apical to the crest of the alveolar

bone

A. Cristae B. lysosomes C. Endoplasmicreticulum D. lysozymes
358. Furcal periodontal involvement with loss of attachment thru and thru from buccal to
lingual in the mandibular molars is this type:
A. Class II B. Class I C. Class III D. Class IV

B. before surgery for gross corrections and after surgery for line corrections
360. PMN leucocytes migrate through the blood vessel wall in the early stage of
inflammation by means of:
A.Diapedesis B. chemotaxis C.Rhexis D. phagocytosis

362. Which of these inhibit collagenase formation in the management of periodontal disease:
A. Amoxycillin B. Metronidazole C. ErythromycinD. Minocycline

A. contours prevents plaque formation C. contours reduces trauma from
occlusion
108
C. contours deflect food from impacting into the gingiva D. contours increase
masticatory surfaces
A. Hyperparathyroidism B. eosinophilic granuloma C. HypophosphatasiaD..erosive lichen
planus
365. Which of the following medical conditions may not influence the defense mechanism of
the gingival to bacterial infection?
A.Rheumatic heart disease B. Diabetes C. Agranulocytosis D. Cyclic neutropenia

A. Leukemic gingival enlargement C. Idiopathic fibromatosis of the gingiva

A. Detachment of epithelial attachment from tooth C. Periodontal ligament is detached
B. Increased capillary fragility due to lack of vit. C D. Micro ulceration of crevicular

epithelium

A. A. Greater accumulation of plaque in the unused side

relationship?
109
A. B lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes D. T
lymphocytes
372. Expanded Tetrafluoro ethylene membrane is used in periodontal therapy to:

A. regenerate bone
B.cover and protect surgical wound
C,barrier against collagen regeneration
D.barrier for epithelial and gingival connective tissue proliferation
373. Tetracycline are used as an anti infective agent in the treatment of periodontal disease
because of its added property of:
B. radiopaque D. set more rapidly E. better tolerated by periapical tissues
375. One objective of root canal obturation is to develop a fluid tight seal. Another objective
is to create a favorable biologic environment for the process of tissue healing.
A.Both statements are TRUE. C. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE
B. Both statements are FALSE D. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.

A. nervous tissue C loose connective tissue
B. endothelial tissue D. dense connective tissue E. granulomatous tissue
377. Which of the following sensory responses can be elicited from a tooth after root canal
therapy?
10. a non-negotiable canal with periapicalpathosis
12. periapicalpathosis in a tooth with a post and core retained crown.
A. 1 & 2B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 3 only

B. narrow, three-wall defects D. osseous defects with one remaining wall

110
B. periodontal files D. a rotary driven metal scaler E. a periodontal curet



A. bone infection D. depth of pockets
B. changes in color of the gingiva E. lack of stippling of the gingiva
A. general health of the patient D. cleaning and shaping of the canal
B. efficacy of the irrigating solution E. amount and concentration of medication

used.
C. Sterilization of the canal as evidenced by negative cultures
previously pulp capped. Radiographs disclose no periapical pathology. The tooth is not sensitive
to percussion. Both cold and heat stimulate a severe and lasting pain. The most probable
diagnosis is:
A. Reversible pulpitis. C. Irreversible pulpitis
B. Cracked tooth syndrome D. Acute apical periodontitis E. Chronic apical

periodontitis
A.blood supply is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary D. pulp is inflamed
B. electric pulp tester is giving a false reading E. pulp is necrotic and should be
removed
111
C. neural transmission is interrupted ,and the negative response may be temporary.
387. Each of the following can occur as a result of a successful root canal treatment, except:
B. Regeneration of the periodontal ligament D. Formation of reparative dentin

1. steroid therapy
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 2 & 4
112

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Centro Escolar University

School College of Dentistry

2. Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide component of the cell wall of :

3. In a healthy sulcus, which bacteria below are most abundant?

4. Which of the following statements regarding periodontitis is incorrect?

6. In the older patient, the exit of the canal is:

7. Gingivitis is most often caused by:

8. Pseudopockets are most likely to be seen in a patient with:

9. The most important plaque retentive factor is:

11. In the chronic stage of gingivitis which cells predominate?

16. The collagen found in the gingival:

17. All of the following are clinical signs of bruxism except:

19. Which of the following is least affected by occlusal trauma?

20. Supragingival plaque:

24. Gingiva which is free from significant accumulation of inflammatory cells:

25. Risk factors for gingivitis, except

27. A problem with nickel-and-titanium (NiTi) spreaders is which of the following?

30.Which of the following are considerations in coronal pretreatment of an endodontic case

30. Leukotoxin is a product of which bacteria

31. The following are innate responses, except:

32. Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation:

33. Responsible for remodeling and degradation of matrix components:

34. Products of Subgingival microorganisms that activate chemical mediators of inflammation:

35. Stimulates bone resorption

37. Localized aggressive periodontitis is confined in

38. Circumpubertal onset:

39. Non contributory medical history :

40. Rapid attachment loss and bone destruction:

41. Usually affects persons under 30 years of age:

42. Formed by Occlusion or trauma to the orifice of the periodontal pocket:

44. Host factors influence the pathogenesis and progression of disease:

48. Pseudopockets are most likely to be seen in a patient with:

a. acute gingivitis b. advanced periodontitis

49. All of the following are diagnostic of occlusal trauma except:

50. All of the following are clinical signs of bruxism except:

53. How should a periodontal probe be adapted in an interproximal area?

58. The main objective of root planning is:

61. The result of RCT in establishing patency is:

74. The following are true regarding shaping procedures, except:

76. Percolation can cause periapical irritation because of:

80. Appropriate time for obturation is:

81. The spreader reach is:

83. Biologic rationale dictates:

84. Smooth broach is used in :

85. This instrument is used with a rasping or pulling motion:

87. EDTA stands for:

91. N2, Endomethasone, and Reibler,s paste are sealers that:

95. Which of the following regarding gauging and tuning is correct?

Centro Escolar University

ENDODONTICS AND PERIODONTOLOGY

3. The epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) is characterized by:

4. Chronic apical periodontitis is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis by

5. Piezoelectric, ultrasonic devices differs from magneto-strictive devices in which of the

7. Which of the following regarding acute apical periodontitis is/are accurate?

10. In the older patient, the exit of the canal is:

12. A luxated tooth should be splinted in which of the following situations?

13. Circular fibers are present in the:

14. Used for anterior teeth:

15. Used for facial surfaces of posterior teeth:

16. Used for mesial surfaces of posterior teeth: