EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

SECTION A
FORCE AND MOTION
1. (a) (i) Explain relative motion.
(ii) Two cars moving in opposite direction on the same straight road with
velocities 80 km h-1 and 60 km h-1 respectively pass each other at a point.
Determine the velocity of the first car relative to the second.
(b) (i) Define force.
(ii) Classify the following forces as either contact forces or field forces: push;
tension; gravitational; electrostatic; reaction and magnetic.
(c) A body starts from rest and travels in a straight line for 2 seconds with uniform
acceleration of 1 ms-2. It then travels at a constant speed for some time before
coming to rest with a uniform retardation of 2 ms-2. The total distance covered by
it is 15 m.
(i) Draw and label a velocity-time graph for the motion.
(ii) Calculate the:
(A) velocity attained after the first 2 seconds;
(B) total time taken for the journey.

2. a. i. What is a projectile?
ii. Give four examples of projectiles in everyday life.
b. Define the following terms:
I. Elasticity
ii. Young’s modulus
iii. Force constant
c. A force of 40 N is applied at the end of a wire 4 m long and produces an
extension of 0.24 mm. if the diameter of the wire is 2.00mm. Calculate the;
i. stress of the wire
ii. strain in the wire.
3. a. Using a suitable diagram, explain how the following can be obtained from a
velocity-time graph.
i. acceleration
ii. retardation
iii. total distance covered.
 b. Show that the displacement of a body moving with uniform acceleration, a, is
1
given by s = ut + 2 at2 where u is the velocity of the body at time t = 0.

c. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly for 20s to attain a speed of 25ms-
1
. It maintains this speed for 30s before decelerating uniformly to rest. The total
time for the journey is 60s.
i Sketch the velocity-time graph for the motion.
ii Use the graph to determine the;
I. total distance travelled
II. deceleration
III. average velocity of the car in that journey.
4. a. Define the following:
i. Angular speed
ii. Impulse
iii. Terminal speed
b. i. What is the difference between inertia and momentum
ii. A body makes six complete revolutions in 4.0 s. if it moves in a circle of
radius 25.0 cm, calculate the;
I. linear velocity
II angular velocity.
c. A uniform bar XY of mass 5.0 kg and length 300 cm is suspended by two
inextensible identical wires P and Q. P is attached 50 cm from the end X and Q to
the centre of mass C of the bar, such that they are vertical. A mass of 10.0 kg is
attached to the end X of the bar.
I. draw and label a diagram of the arrangement.
II. determine the distance from the centre of mass C where another mass of
10.0 kg should be hung on the bar to keep the bar horizontal and to make
the tension in Q four times the tension in P. [g = 10 ms-2].
5. a. i. What is projectile motion?
ii. Give four examples of projectiles in everyday life.
𝑼𝟐 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝟐
b. The horizontal range of a projectile is given by the equation; ,
𝑹

i. What does  in the equation represent?

ii. For what value of  would R be maximum?
 c.

The diagram above illustrates the trajectory of a projected object. Neglecting

friction, how does the;
i. horizontal component Ux of the initial velocity U change at the points A,
B, C?
ii. vertical component Uy of the initial velocity U change at the A, B, C?
6. a i. State two differences between mass and weight.
ii.

Two forces F and 250 N acts on a uniform rigid body of weight 50 N as

illustrated in the diagram above. Calculate the:
a. clockwise moment about the pivot;
b. value of F.
b.
 The diagram above illustrates the positions P, Q and R of the object moving
clockwise in a circular path of centre T. Copy the diagram. Draw straight lines
with arrows to indicate the:
i. net force F at P;
ii. acceleration a at P;
iii. velocity v at R.
c. A man weighs 100 N on the surface of the moon. If the acceleration due to gravity
on the moon is one-sixth the value on the surface of the earth, calculate the mass
of the man on the earth. [g = 10ms-2].
7 a. List three facts about the acceleration of a free falling object due to gravity.
b. List two objects each which may be considered as projectiles in:
i. Sports
ii. Warfare.
c. A ball of mass 120 g was projected vertically upward from the earth surface with
a speed of 25 ms-1. The height of the ball was determined at regular interval as
shown in the table below.

Height H(m) Time t(s)

11.25 0.50
20.00 1.00
26.25 1.50
30.00 2.00
31.25 2.50
i. Plot a graph with height, H on the vertical axis and time, t, on the
horizontal axis starting both axes from the origin (0, 0).
[draw a smooth curve through the points]
ii. Using the graph, determine the height of the ball at t = 1.7 s.
d. The combined mass of a bicycle and its rider is 60 kg. Calculate the magnitude of
the forward force produced by the bicycle if its speed increases from 10ms -1 to
15ms-1 in 3.0 s. [neglect friction and air resistance].
8. a. Define Uniform acceleration.
b. Forces act on a car in motion. List the;
(i) horizontal forces and their directions:
(ii) vertical forces and their direction.
 c. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly for 20s to attain a speed of 25ms -
1
. It maintains this speed for 30s before decelerating uniformly to rest. The total
time for the journey is 60s.
i. Sketch the velocity-time graph for the motion.
ii. Use the graph to determine the;
(a) total distance travelled
(b) deceleration of the car.
d.

The figure above illustrates force-extension graph for a stretched spiral spring.
Determine the work done on the spring.

SECTION B
MECHANICAL ENERGY, GAS LAWS AND THERMAL PHYSICS

9. a. i. Distinguish between heat and temperature.

ii. State two physical properties of substances which may be used to measure
temperature
b. i. Mention two modes of heat transfer other than convection.
ii. Explain land and sea breezes.
c. State three advantages and two disadvantages of thermal expansion of solids.
d. An iron rod of length 30 cm is heated through 50 K. Calculate its increase in
length. [Linear expansivity of iron is 1.2 x 10-5 K-1].
10 a. i. What is meant by a machine?
ii. List two examples of a simple machine.
b. i. Define the efficiency of a machine.
 ii. Explain why a machine can never be 100% efficient.
c. A screw jack, 25% efficient and having a screw of pitch 0.4 cm is used to raise a
load through a certain height. If in the process, the handle turns through a circle of
radius 40.0 cm, calculate the;
i. velocity ratio of the machine
ii. Mechanical advantage of the machine
iii. Effort required to raise a load of 1000 N with the machine. [ = 3.14]
11. a List TWO factors that affect heat loss by
i. Radiation
ii. Convection
b. State TWO factors that determine the quantity of heat in a body.
c. Explain the statement: The specific latent heat of vapourisation of mercury is 2.72
X 105 k-1.
d. A jug of heat capacity 250JK-1 contains water at 28oC. An electric heater of
resistance 35 connected to a 220V source is used to raise the temperature of the
water until it boils at 1000C in 4 minutes. After another 5 minutes, 300g of water
has evaporated. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, calculate the;
i. mass of water in the jug before heating;
ii. the specific latent heat of vaporization of steam.
[specific heat capacity of water = 4200JKg-1K-1].
12. a. i. State Boyle’s law.
ii. State two assumptions of the kinetic theory of gas necessary for a real gas
to be considered as ideal.
b. i. Explain the term “Renewable energy”
ii. List four examples of renewable energy?
c. Why is the maximum arm of the Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer not
completely filled with alcohol whereas the minimum arm is filled.
d. An electric heater rated 100 W is used to raise the temperature of 200 g of water
in a flask from 30oC to 100oC. The water is boiled for further 2 minutes before the
heater is switched off. Neglecting heat losses, calculate the:
I. quantity of energy supplied to the water in raising its temperature to
100oC.
II. Mass of steam that escaped.
 [Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 x 103JKg-1K-1; Specific latent heat of
vaporization of steam = 3.3 x 106JKg-1].
13. a. i. Define heat capacity and state its unit.
ii. Explain sensible heat.
b. Show that the efficiency E, the mechanical advantage M.A and the velocity ratio
𝑀𝐴
V.R of a machine are related by the equation; E = x 100%.
𝑉𝑅

c. Explain why it is not advisable to sterilize a clinical thermometer in boiling water

at normal atmospheric pressure.
d. A vessel X of volume 0.5 m3 contains air at a pressure of 5.0 x 103 Pa. If the
vessel X is connected to an evacuated vessel Y of volume 1.5 m3 at constant
temperature, calculate the final pressure of the air.
14. a. i. What is mechanical energy?
ii. A ball of mass M raised to a height H above the ground is allowed to fall
freely towards the ground. Show that at a point T when it has fallen
through a distance, h, the total mechanical energy remains unchanged.
b. i. What is a thermometric property?
ii. Copy and complete the table below
Thermometric Thermometric Kind of
substance property thermometer
Mercury Liquid-in-glass
Platinum
resistance
Gas Pressure
Thermocouple

c. An inclined plane is used to raise a box 25.0 kg to the top of the plane by an effort
of 180 N. Assuming the plane is 60% efficient, calculate the;
i. mechanical advantage;
ii. velocity ratio;
iii. angle the plane makes with the horizontal. [g = 10ms-2]
15. a. Define specific latent heat of vapourization.
b. Why is the freezing compartment containing the evaporator normally located at
the top of a fridge?
 c. Using the kinetic theory of matter, explain how addition of heat to a substance
causes an increase in its temperature.
d.

The diagram above illustrates two capillary tube of uniform cross-sectional area
containing air trapped by mercury. If Boyle’s law is obeyed, calculate the
atmospheric pressure.
e. Red beans of mass 100 g is capable of releasing 240 kcal of energy. In a day, an
adult requires 2200 kcal to perform optimally, calculate the;
i. mass of beans required to sustain 500 adults;
ii. mass of fuel that would be required if a nuclear reactor were to produced
the same amount of energy as in 9(e)(i). [1 kcal = 4184 J; c = 3.0 x 108ms -
1
]
16 a. Name the energy transformations which occurs in a functioning
i. car engine
ii. steam turbine
b. List the three main features of a clinical thermometer.
c. Explain why water becomes cooler when kept in clay pot for sometime in a room.
d. Water of mass 0.4 kg losses 210 kJ of energy when taken from the Earth’s surface
to Mars of surface temperature – 60o. The water temperature decreases until the
water freezes. The temperature of ice formed decreases until it becomes equal to
that on Mars. Calculate the temperature of the water while on Earth.
[Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.3x 105Jkg-1; specific heat capacity of
water = 4200 Jkg-1K-1, specific heat capacity of ice = 2100Jkg-1K-1].
 SECTION C
WAVE PHENOMENA (WAVES, LIGHT AND SOUND)

17. a. i. Explain interference in waves.

ii. With the aid of diagrams distinguish between constructive and destructive
interference of transverse waves.
b. A stretched wire under tension T produces a note of frequency 60Hz when
plucked. Calculate the frequency if the tension in the wire is increased by 125%.
c. The displacement of a plane progressive wave is given by the equation.
Y = 12.5 sin (240t – 0.50x),
Where the symbols have their usual meanings,
Y and x are in metres and t in seconds.
For the wave, determine the:
i. frequency;
ii. wavelength;
iii. speed.
18. a i. What is an echo?
ii. State two useful applications of echoes.
b. Why are the walls, floors and ceiling of a recording studio heavily padded?
c. i. Explain timbre and overtones
ii. What is resonance?
d. As a ship approaches a cliff, its siren is sounded and the echo is heard in the ship
after 12 seconds. 2.1 minutes later the siren was sounded again and the echo was
heard 8 seconds later. If the speed of sound in air is 340 ms-1, calculate the
velocity at which the ship was approaching the cliff.
19. a. State the THREE characteristics of sound and the factor on which each of them
depends.
b. Explain resonance as applied to sound
c. What role does echo play in the construction of a concert hall.
d. The surface of an ear drum (assumed circular) has a radius 2.1mm. It resonates
with amplitude of 0.8 x 10-7 m as a result of impulses received from an external
body vibrating at 240Hz. If the resulting pressure change on the ear drum is 3.6 x
10-5 Nm-2, calculate the;
i. Period of Oscillation
 ii. velocity
iii. acceleration
iv. force. [ = 3.14]
20. a. State three differences between sound and light waves.
b. i. Sketch and label a ray diagram to illustrate the image formed by the
converging lens if an object is situated at twice the focal length of the lens.
ii. State the nature, position and size of the image formed in b (i)
c. State why an observer cannot see round corners.
d. In a game reserve, the converging lens of the camera used to observe a giraffe 36
m away, forms an inverted image of height 2.5 cm at 0.030 cm behind the lens.
Calculate the:
i. magnification produced;
ii. height of the giraffe;
iii. focal length of the lens
iv. power of the lens.

21. a. List the three secondary colours of light.

b.

The diagram above illustrates a defect of the human eye.

i. State the type of defect.

ii. Name the type of lens to be used in correcting the defect.

c.
 An object O is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at right angles to each
other as illustrated in the diagram above.

i. calculate the number of images formed.

ii. copy the diagram.

iii. On the diagram, locate and label all the positions of the images formed by
the mirrors.

d. A mirror of focal length 60.0 cm is used to produce a virtual image 3 times larger
than the object. Determine the image distance from the mirror.

22. a. A blue object is illuminated with blue light and viewed through a yellow filter.
State the colour of the object as seen through the filter. Explain your answer.
b.

The diagram above illustrates an object placed at O, between C and F on the

principal axis of a concave mirror.
i. Copy the diagram into the space below.
ii. On your diagram, draw rays to show the image formed.
iii. State three charasscteristics of the images.
c. A mirror of focal length 20.0 cm produces an image 40.0 cm behind the mirror.
Calculate the object distance from the mirror.
 d. The focal lengths of the objective and eye piece lenses of an astronomical
telescope, in normal adjustment, are 50 cm and 20 cm respectively. Determine the
separation of the lenses.
23. a. i. What is meant by ‘critical angle?’
ii. Mention the factors necessary for total internal reflection.
b. i. State the “laws of refraction of light”
ii. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 90o. If an object is placed
between them, calculate the number of images formed.
c. State two similarities and two differences between the human eye and the
photographic camera.
d. An object is placed at a distance of 12.0 cm beyond the principal focus of a
converging lens. If the image is formed at a distance of 8.0 cm beyond the other
focus, calculate the
i. focal length of the lens
ii. magnification of the image formed.
24. a i. What is a mechanical wave?
ii. Give two examples of mechanical waves.
b. Draw ray diagrams to illustrate each of the following:
i. an astronomical telescope adjusted for normal use;
ii. correction of long-sightedness.
c. The first and second resonance lengths of an air column in a resonance tube are
0.10 m and 0.40 m respectively. Calculate the
i. frequency of sound in air;
ii. end correction of the tube; [Velocity of sound in air = 340 ms-1].

SECTION D

ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

25. a. State Lenz’s law.

b. State two applications of magnets.
c.
 The diagram above illustrates a step-down transformer.
i. State the reason for using:
a. two coils
b. an iron core
c. an alternating supply.
ii. Calculate the current in the secondary winding.
d.

A circuit is connected as shown above. If the resistance of the voltmeter is 200,

calculate the voltmeter reading

26. a. Define the electric potential at a point in an electric field.

b. Why is soft iron not used to make permanent magnets?

c. State the relationship between resistivity () and conductivity ().

d. A wire of length 2 m and cross-sectional area 0.02 mm2 has a resistance of 5.
Calculate the conductivity of the wire.

e.
 A circuit is as shown in the diagram above. Calculate the voltage V if I1 is 2 A.

27. a. Define
i. reactance
ii. Impedance in an a.c circuit.

b. The diagram above illustrates an a.c generator. When the coil is rotated, an emf is
induced in the coil.
i. Explain why an emf is induced.
ii. State the purpose of a slip-ring.
iii. Name and state the law used to determine the direction of the induced
current.
iv. State TWO ways to increase the induced emf.
c. A lamp is rated 12V, 6W. Calculate the amount of energy transformed by the
lamp in 5 minutes.
28. a. Define magnetic flux

b. Sketch a diagram to illustrate magnetic lines of force for a magnet placed in a

uniform earth’s magnetic field with its north pole pointing north.
c. State two ways in which the earth’s magnetic field is important to life on the earth
surface.
d. List two applications of electromagnets.
 e. In a certain house, three ceiling fans each of 80 W, an air-conditioner rated 1500
W are operated for 6 hours each day. Seven lamps each rated 40 W are switched
on for 10 hours each day. The home theater 100 W and television set 80 W are
also operated each day for 5 hours after which they are kept in the standby mode.
In the power consumption is 5% of the power rating. Calculate the:
i. total energy consumed in the house for 30 days in kWh;
ii. Cost of operating all the appliances for 30 days at N10.00 per kWh.
29. a. State:
i. three ways by which the emf of an ac generator can be increased.
ii. how an ac generator could be modified to produce dc.
b. define the root mean square value of an alternating current.
c. Explain the term ‘resonant frequency’ as it relates to a series R – L – C circuit.

d. A particle of charge – 6 C released from rest in a uniform electric field E moves a

distance of 5 cm. if its kinetic energy is 4 x 10-3 J, calculate the;
i. work done by the electric field;
ii. potential at its initial position;
iii. magnitude of the electric field intensity.
30. a. State two advantages and one disadvantage of alkaline cells over lead-acid cells.
b. Explain why High-Tension transmission of power is done with low current and
high voltage.
c.

The diagram above illustrates a uniform potentiometer wire AB of length 100 cm

and resistance 2 . A cell of e.m.f. 1.5 V and a variable resistor R are connected
in series with AB. If R = 4  and the key K1 is closed, calculate the
i. current in the potentiometer circuit;
ii. length AJ of the wire for which the galvanometer shows no deflection,
when key K2 is also closed.
 d. A heating coil is rated at 70 W. Calculate the time it will take this coil to heat 1.4
kg of water at 30o C to 100o C.
[Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 Jkg-1 K-1].
31. a. State two factors that determine the sensitivity of a moving-coil galvanometer.
b. Define the Farad.
c. i. What happens in a series circuit if more bulbs are added in series?
ii. A laboratory technician wishes to reduce the current passing through a
galvanometer to 0.05 of its initial value by means of a resistor. If the
internal resistance of the galvanometer is 100.
a. how should the resistor be connected?
b. calculate the resistance of the resistor.
d. The current I in a sinusoidal a.c circuit is giving by I = 40 sin 500 t, where t is
the time in seconds. Use the equation to determine the:
a. frequency
b. peak value;
c. r.m.s value of the current.
32. a. i. What is a “lightning conductor”?
ii. Why are lightning conductors used to protect tall buildings from the
undesirable effect of thunderstorms?
b. Draw the lines of force associated with the following situations:
i. Two unlike point charges of equal magnitude;
ii. A positive charge in insolation;
iii. Two parallel plates carrying unlike charges of equal magnitude.
c. Two equal point charges exerts a force F on each other when they are 5.0 x10-2 m
apart in a vacuum. Determine the distance between the charges if the force is to be
doubled.

SECTION E

ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS.

33. a. Explain
i. nuclear fission
ii. Nuclear fusion.
b State three applications of atomic energy.
 c. i. Define half life
ii. Give the expression that relates half life, 𝑇1 , and the decay constant, k, of
2

a radioactive material.
d. A radioactive element X with atomic number 88 and mass number 226 emits in
succession
i. an alpha particle
ii. a beta particle and
iii. gamma radiation.
Explain using equations where necessary, the changes that take place in the
atomic structure of the element at each stage.
34. a. i. What is a photon?
ii. Explain the occurrence of photoelectric effect.
b. Calculate the energy of an electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 3.0 x 10-4 m.
[h = 6.6 x 10-34Js, c = 3.0 x 108 ms-1].
c. State three precautions taken to ensure safety of workers at a nuclear plant.
d. A piece of radioactive material which contains 1010 atoms has a half life of 30
days. Calculate the number of days require for 105 atoms to be left?
e. State two phenomena which show that light has a wave nature?
35. a. State two;
i. properties of X-rays
ii. reasons to show that X-rays are waves.
b. State the four postulate of the Bohr’s theory of the hydrogen atom.
c. Define the following as used in photo-electricity:
i. threshold frequency
ii. Work function of a metal.
d. The counting rate registered at various times after preparation of a radioactive
sample is:
Time 0 10 20 30 40 50 100 200 300 400
(min)
Counts 5000 3710 2670 1980 1530 1290 947 770 510 430
(sec)
By plotting a suitable graph using the above data, determine the half life of the
sample.
36. a. Explain the terms:
i. transmutation as it relates to radioactivity;
ii. stopping potential.
+ 21𝐵 → 𝑝𝑞𝐶 + proton.  𝑝
b. 23
11𝐴 𝑞𝐶 → 𝑟𝑠𝐸 + beta
A nucleus C, formed artificially from A and B, is radioactive and quickly decays
to another nucleus E as indicated in the nuclear equation above. Determine the
values of p. q, r and s.
c. A certain metal of work function 1.6 eV is irradiated with an ultraviolet light of
wavelength 3.6 x 10-7m. Calculate the maximum
i. kinetic energy of an ejected electron in joules;
ii. speed of an emitted electron.
[1eV = 1.6 x 10-19J, C = 3.0 x 108 ms-1; Me = 9.1 x 10-31kg; h = 6.6 x 10-34Js.]
d. If the source of the ultra-violet light in (c) above is moved away from the surface
of the metal, state the effect on the maximum speed of the ejected electron.
37. a. Can other elements besides uranium be used in nuclear fission reactions? Give a
reason for your answer.
b. A radioactive element has a half-life of 5 years. A detector placed near the
element records an initial count rate of 4000 min-1 as stated in the table below.
t/ years 0 5 10 15 20
Count rate/ min 4000
(i) Copy and complete the table.
(ii) Plot a graph with count rate on the vertical axis and t on the horizontal
axis.
(iii) Using the graph, determine the count rate at t = 12 years
(iv) List two detectors of radioactive radiations.
c.

The diagram above illustrates the energy levels for a certain atom.
i. Which of the transitions A, B and C produces radiation with the shortest
wavelength? Give a reason for your answer.
 ii. An electron jumps from Eo to E2 by absorbing light energy. Calculate the
wavelength of the light used. [h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js, c = 3.0 x 108 ms-1, 1eV =
1.6 x 10-19 J]
38. a. i. Define decay constant.
ii. An isotope of Radon has Radon has a half-life of 3.8 days. Calculate its
decay constant.
b. State the function and material used for each of the under listed components in a
nuclear fission reactor.
i. moderator;
ii. Control rods;
iii. Coolant.
c. A nucleon of hydrogen – 3 is formed when a neutron is absorbed by a nucleus of
hydrogen – 2. The table below gives the masses of the particles in atomic mass
unit (u).
1 2 3
Particle 0𝑛 1𝐻 1𝐻

Mass/u 1.00867 2.00141 3.00160

i. Write a balanced equation for the reaction.
ii. Calculate the energy released in this reaction.
39. a. State two sources of background radiation.
b. Why is the count rate of background radiation not constant at a particular place?
c. Name two materials that cannot be dated using carbon dating.
d. Name the types of nuclear radiation that can be used to detect leakage in an
underground pipe
e. Two metal surfaces X and Y of work functions 2.90eV and 4.82eV respectively
are each illuminated by light of wavelength 330 nm.
i. which of the surfaces will emit photoelectrons? Justify your answer by
calculation.
ii. Calculate the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons.
[h = 6.6 x 10-34Js; c = 3.0 x 108 ms-1; 1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19J].
40. a. State two substances the ages of which can be determined by carbon dating.
b. State two disadvantages of nuclear power generation.
c. State one property of nuclear radiation on which penetration ability depends.
d. What type of nuclear radiation should be used for sterilization?
e. A fission reaction equation is as stated below
 235
92𝑈 + 10𝑛 → 37
93
𝑅𝑏 + 141 1
55𝐶𝑠 + 2 0𝑛 + Energy

Use the following information to calculate the energy released in the reaction.

235 141 93 1
Particle 92𝑈 55𝐶𝑠 37𝑅𝑏 0𝑛

Mass/x 10-27kg 390.173 233.927 154.248 1.675

f. What gas is used to fill a Geiger Muller tube.