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QUESTION BOOKLET

Please read the following instructions carefully:

1 Mention carefully your Roll Number, Question Booklet response and mark your response by darkening the
number in the OMR Answer Sheet and sign at the relevant CIRCLE with Black/Blue Ball Point Pen on
appropriate place. Write your Roll Number on the the OMR Answer Sheet and do not on the Question
question booklet. Booklet.
2. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Centre 8. All questions are COMPULSORY. There will be “No
Supervisor/ Room Invigilator and those given on the NEGATIVE MARKING”.
Question Booklet.
9. Completely darken the CIRCLE so that the number
3. Please mark the answer ONLY with a Black/Blue Ball
inside the CIRCLE is not visible. Darken ONLY ONE
Point Pen on the OMR Answer Sheet.
CIRCLE for each answer as shown in the example
4. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, below. The CORRECT and the WRONG method of
books, log table, calculators or calculating devices, darkening the CIRCLE on the OMR sheet is given
scanning devices, communication devices like below.
cellular phone/pager/ducopen, etc. to the examination
hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of CORRECT Method WRONG Method
such unauthorized material, indulging in copying or
impersonation, adopting unfair means is liable to be
summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal
action.
5. After finishing the examination, hand over the
complete question booklet and OMR Answer Sheet
to the Room Invigilator. DO NOT carry the question 10.DO NOT make any stray marks anywhere on the
booklet or any part there of outside the examination OMR answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the OMR
room. Doing so, is a punishable offence. answer sheet. Rough work MUST NOT be done on
6. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet the answer sheet. Use your test booklet for this
contains three parts, with a total of 180 questions and purpose.
the total time alloted is 2.00 hours. 11. In case you notice any questions missing in the
7. Each objective type question is followed by four question booklet, kindly bring it to the attention of
responses. Your task is to choose the correct/best the Invigilator.

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Space for rough work

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1. 0.3010 x 10 = ? 15. In a school 70% students are girls. The number of

(a) 0.30100 (b) 3.010 (c) 30.10 (d) 30.100 boys are 510. Then the total number of students in
the school is.
2. The price of a pen was Rs.5 in 1995. How much (a) 850 (b) 1700 (c) 1830 (d) 1900
price will be now if the price index is 140%.
(a) Rs.6 (b) Rs.7 (c) Rs.8 (d) Rs.9 16. The average of five numbers is 27. If one number is
excluded, the average becomes 25. The excluded
3. 15689 - 12534 + 8972 = ? number is.
(a) 12131 (b) 12127 (c) 13127 (d) 12138 (a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 30 (d) 35

4. Find out 53 - 23 = ? 17. A person sells two machines at Rs.369 each. On

(a) 117 (b) 17 (c) 8 (d) 133 one he gains 10% and on the other he losses 10%.
His profit or loss in the whole transaction is.
5. If x = 5, y = 4, then 2x + y = ? (a) No loss, no gain (b) 1% loss
(a) 14 (b) 9 (c) 13 (d) 11 (c) 1% profit (d) 8% profit

6. What should be added to 88.19 to get 97.32 ? 18. The simple interests on a certain sum at 5% per
(a) 9.13 (b) 9.33 (c) 11.23 (d) 9.03 annum for 3 years and 4 years differ by Rs.42. The
sum is.
(a) Rs.210 (b) Rs.280 (c) Rs.750 (d) Rs.840
3 4 1
7.  1  ?
4 5 2 19. Find out : 16% of 500.
(a) 80 (b) 40 (c) 8 (d) 50
51 34 10
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
20 20 11 20. Which of the following is the largest ?
(a) 0.105 (b) 0.501 (c) 0.015 (d) 0.15
8. 4712 + 33889 - ? = 7148
(a) 843 (b) 853 (c) 953 (d) 1053 21. 7.86 x 4.6 ?
(a) 36.156 (b) 36.216 (c) 351.56 (d) 361.56
4 18 8
9. x x ? 22. A train moves with a speed of 72 kmph. Its speed in
6 14 6
m/sec is.
8 4 9 18
(a) (b) (c) (d) 5 18
7 7 14 7 (a) 20 (b) (c) (d) 7
18 5

50  21x 2 23. A soccer team played 160 games & won 65 percent
10. ?
18 x 6  4 of them. How many games did it win ?
(a) 94 (b) 104 (c) 114 (d) 124
1 2 29 29
(a) (b) (c) (d) 24. 32 is 40 percent of what number ?
15 9 52 18
(a) 12.8 (b) 128 (c) 80 (d) 800
11. 5809 + 7138 - 4125 = ?
(a) 8812 (b) 8102 (c) 8922 (d) 8921 1 2
25. 3 2  ?
3 5
12. The product of two number is 180, if one number is
6 then find out the other number ? 1 1 14 1
(a) 33 (b) 30 (c) 25 (d) 35 (a) 1 (b) (c) (d) 1
2 15 15 15

12345 1 2
13. ? 2 4  ?
567 26.
2 3
(a) 21.7724 (b) 59.6078 (c) 88.1089 (d) 12.9105
1 5 1 5
(a) 6 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 7
14. 8514 + 3028 + 1213 = ? 6 6 6 6
(a) 12855 (b) 12755 (c) 12935 (d) 12665

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27. The measure of two angles of a triangle are 350 & 41. One morning after sunrise, Gangadhar was standing
450. What is the measure of third angle of the facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to
triangle ? his right, which direction was he facing ?
(a) East (b) West (c) South (d) North
(a) 950 (b) 1000 (c) 1050 (d) 1100
42. If PAGES is written as SEGAP than STATE will be
28. Erica bought 3 21 yards of fabric. If she uses 32 of written as
(a) ETATS (b) STTAE (c) ETSAT (d) TATSE
the fabric to make a curtain, how much will she
have left ? 43. If WHITE is written as YHKVG then EXAM will be
(a) 61 yd (b) 31 yd (c) 1 61 yd (d) 2 31 yd written as.
(a) GCZO (b) GYBO (c) GZCO (d) GZBO

29. (4)4 = ? 44. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, 127, ?

(a) 512 (b) 224 (c) - 256 (d) 256 (a) 250 (b) 150 (c) 225 (d) 255 (e) 350

30. If M = 2, then value of M -2 is ? 45. 10, 18, 26, 34, ?, 50

(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4 (a) 48 (b) 42 (c) 63 (d) 72 (e) 81

31. 256 = ? 46. A C A E A G A I A ?

(a) 29 (b) 26 (c) 2 7
(d) 2 8 (a) N (b) K (c) P (d) Q

32. 72 = ? 47. 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

(a) 23 x 35 3
(b) 2 x 3 3 2
(c) 2 x 3 2 3
(d) 2 x 3 2 (a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 36 (d) 40

48. Four amongst the following five are some how similar
33. (- 5)4 = ?
and from a group. Which one does not belong to
(a) 5 (b) 25 (c) 125 (d) 625 the group ?
(a) CEG (b) IKM (c) PRT
34. A car covers a distance of 320 km in 2 hours. The (d) QOM (e) UWY
average distance covered by it in 1 hour is ?
(a) 40 km (b) 160 km (c) 15 km (d) 220 km 49. Ram goes 10 meter East, then turn left and goes 5
meters, then turn left again, goes 10 meters ahead
35. Ramu deposits Rs.3,500 in his bank account & and then turn left again and goes 10 meters. In which
withdraws Rs.2,450 from it, the next day. The direction Ram was from his position in the
balance in Ramu's account after the withdrawal is ? beginning ?
(a) Rs.1150 (b) Rs.1050 (c) Rs.1250 (d) Rs.950 (a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West
36. (-36) ÷ (-9) = ? Odd man-out
(a) -4 (b) 4 (c) 0 (d) 9
50. (a) SRT (b) PQO (c) KJL (d) VUW (e) FEG
37. The value of 2 32  4 32 is.
51. (a) MNOM (b) BDCB (c) XZYX (d) PRQP (e) GIHG
(a) 37
2 (b) 35
6 (c) 41
6 (d) 43
6 52. (a) KNQR (b) CFIJ (c) MPST (d) NQTU (e) OQUR

38. If N + 5 = 19, then the value of N is ? 53. (a) JKL (b) PQR (c) STU (d) EFG (e) XBE
(a) 8 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 10
54. (a) DBE (b) HIF (c) NOL (d) RTP (e) TUR

39. The value of 52 of 25 is ?  55. If S x T means 'S' is brother of 'T' and S + T means
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 5 (d) 12 'S' is father of 'T'. Which of the following shows 'O' is
the cousin of 'R' ?
40. If 20 = 6+2x, then the value of x is . (a) R x T + O (b) R + T x O (c) R x O x T
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 1 (d) T x O + R (e) None of these

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56. How many 5's are there in the following number 65. In a certain code language DIVIDERS is coded as
sequence which are immediately followed by 3 but 49229451819 in the same way how SREDIVID will
not immediately preceded by 7 ? be coded ?
8953253855687335775365337538 (a) 19185492294 (b) 19181543224
(a) one (b) two (c) 19184529294 (d) 19185143294
(c) three (d) four (e) None of these
66. In a certain code language TEST is coded as UGVX
57. Sudin remembers that his mother's birthday is after in the same way how ROSE will be coded ?
15th but before 20th of April, while his sister Kalpira (a) PQVE (b) SQVI (c) SPVI (d) QPVE
remembers that her mother's birthday is before 22nd
67. If MLC = ONE then, BME = ?
but after 18th of April. If both of them are correct,
(a) DOG (b) CAT (c) TWO (d) SIX
which date is the birthday of their mother ?
(a) 18th (b) 19th (c) 20th (d) 16th (e) 17th 68. 3, 15, 35, ?, 99, 143
(a) 63 (b) 45 (c) 65 (d) 72
58. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and so from a group. Which is the one that does 69. 128, 110,, 90, ?, 52
not belong to the group ? (a) 82 (b) 88 (c) 72 (d) 75
(a) listen (b) walk (c) run (d) swim (e) climb
70. 5, 11, 17, 25, 33, 43, ?
59. Prakash started walking from a point P towards (a) 53 (b) 58 (c) 56 (d) 43
south. After walking 40 metres, he took a left turn.
He then walked 30 meters and reached a point Q. 71. Who is the Chief Minister of Delhi ?
What is the straight line distance between P and Q (a) Seela Dixit (b) Narendra Damodar Modi
and Q is towards which direction of P ? (c) Arabind Kejeriwal (d) Sruti Irani
(a) 60 meters south-east (b) 50 meters south-west
(c) 50 meters south-east (d) Data inadequate 72. Who is the Governor of Odisha ?
(e) None of these (a) S. C. Jamir (b) Janaki Bahlav Pattnaik
(c) Bbupinder Singh (d) Nabeen Pattnaik
60. If '÷' means division, '--' means addition, 'x' means
subtraction and '+' means multiplication, then 73. Lingaraj temple is located at.
8÷4-6+3x4=? (a) Puri (b) Bhubaneswar
(a) 18 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 26 (c) Cuttack (d) Lingaraj Nagar

61. If in a certain code language BUILDING is written 74. Who is the President of India ?
as ZNCALCDQ and REPEAT is written as (a) Narendra Damodar Modi
EGSGMV, how is DINE written in that code ? (b) Pranab Mukharje
(a) LDCG (b) LDDG (c) LCGD (d) LDGC (c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Sonia Gandhi
62. 'A' is taller that 'B' but shorter than 'C', 'D' is shorter
than 'E' and 'E' is not as tall as 'B'. Who should be 75. Which language speak in Odisha ?
in the middle if they stand in a row according to (a) Odia (b) Bengali (c) Hindi (d) Santali
their height ?
(a) B (b) A (c) D (d) E 76. Tajmahal is situated at ?
(a) Delhi (b) Punjab (c) Agra (d) Mathura
63. If '+' means 'x', '-' means '÷', 'x' means '-', and '÷'
means '+' then, 77. To became a citizen of India what is the minimum
10 ÷ 40 - 4 x 5 + 2 = ? age required ?
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 16 (a) 20 (b) 18 (c) 14 (d) 30

64. Pointing to a boy in the photograph, Rajat said, 'His 78. Chief Minister of Odisha is nominated by ?
mother is the only daughter of my grandfather's only (a) President of India
son'. How is the boy's mother related to Rajat's father ? (b) Governor of Odisha
(a) Mother (b) Daughter (c) Prime Minister of India
(c) Grand daughter (d) Daughter-in-law (d) None of these

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79. Why is 15th August is very important for India ? 92. Who is the present Finance Minister of India ?
(a) India got Independence on this day (a) Arun Jaitley
(b) India won the war against Pakistan (b) P. Chitambaram
(c) India made atom bomb on this day (c) Manmohan Singh
(d) None of these (d) Sushama Swaraj

80. Which one of the following is our neighbouring 93. What is the name of our national Flower ?
country ? (a) Lotus (b) Rose (c) Lily (d) Jasmin
(a) Nepal (b) Thailand (c) Iran (d) America
94. Gupteswar Temple is located at which district?
81. Sania Mirza is related to which sports ? (a) Sambalpur (b) Koraput
(a) Cricket (b) Hockey (c) Tennis (d) Badminton (c) Dhenkanal (d) Cuttack

82. Who invented Telephone ? 95. Place where Lord Buddha dies is known as.
(a) Graham Bell (b) Charles Babbage (a) Kushinagar (b) Sarnath
(c) Alexander Fleming (d) None of these (c) Kapilvastu (d) Bodh Gaya

83 QutubMinar is the tallest minar in India. Who had 96. On which day Netajee Jayanti is observed ?
built this minar ? (a) 22nd February
(a) Iltutmish (b) Akbar (b) 23rd January
(c) Qutubuddin Aibak (d) None of these (c) 26th January
(d) None of these
84. Which one of the following is the widest river in the
world ? 97. The National Anthem 'Jana-Gana-Man' was originally
(a) Ganga (b) Brahmaputra composed in which language ?
(c) Nile (d) Amazon (a) Odia (b) Bengali (c) Hindi (d) Sanskrit

85. What is the capital of Odisha ? 98. The National song 'Bande Mataram' was composed
(a) Cuttack (b) Bhubaneswar by ?
(c) Sambalpur (d) Keonjhar (a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
86. When did our constitution came to in force ? (c) Raja Ram Mohan Ray
(a) 15th August, 1947 (b) 26th January 1947 (d) Lal Bahadur Sashtri
(c) 26th January, 1950 (d) 26th January 1951
99. The National Animal of India is ?
87. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right (a) Tiger (b) Lion (c) Elephant (d) Leopard
as per Indian constitution ?
(a) Right to freedom 100. The brightest planet in our solar system ?
(b) Right to religion (a) Jupiter (b) Venus (c) Mars (d) Mercury
(c) Right to property
(d) Right to equality 101. Who is the Father of our Nation ?
(a) Subash Chandra Bose
88. Who is the present president of National Congress ? (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(a) Sonia Gandhi (b) Rahul Gandhi (c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(c) Manmohan Singh (d) None of these (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

89. How many colours in the National Flag of India? 102. Who is known as Iron man of India ?
(a) One (b) Four (c) Three (d) Seven (a) Gobind Ballabh Pant
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
90. What is the name of the currency of Bangladesh ? (c) Subash Chandra Bose
(a) Rupee (b) Taka (c) Yen (d) Lira (d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

91. What is the name of the currency of India ? 103. Professor Amartya Sen is famous in which field ?
(a) Euro (b) Rupee (a) Biochemistry (b) Electronics
(c) Pound (d) Dollar (c) Economics (d) Geology

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Directions: 118. Did you take a nap _______ the afternoon.

Find out the opposite words of the following words from (a) in (b) on (c) as (d) at
four alternative words.
119. _______ was she looking for in the cupboard ?
104. LARGE (a) what (b) how (c) when (d) where
(a) small (b) big (c) long (d) short
120. He can play the piano _______ he takes lessons
105. GOOD from a music teacher.
(a) better (b) fine (c) bad (d) worse (a) but (b) because (c) by (d) with

106. SMILE 121. When we arrived _______ the zoo it started to rain.
(a) laugh (b) crying (c) sought (d) loud (a) in (b) to (c) by (d) at

107. TAKE 122. We found the way through the forest by _______ .
(a) give (b) bring (c) donate (d) gift (a) myself (b) himself (c) ourselves (d) themselves

108. MAKE 123. We must study hard. It is for _______ good.

(a) my (b) his (c) your (d) our
(a) create (b) destroy (c) readymade (d) doing
124. The maid _______ the car every Sunday.
Directions: Find out the past tense of the following verbs.
(a) polishes (b) polished (c) polishing (d) polish
109. GO
125. This house will _______ you two million dollars.
(a) went (b) gone
(a) costs (b) cost (c) costed (d) costing
(c) going (d) None of these
126. Neither Bob nor James can _______ the guitar.
110. EAT (a) play (b) plays (c) played (d) playing
(a) eating (b) ate
(c) eaten (d) None of these 127. Mabel's mother____ to the gym once every fortnight.
(a) go (b) going (c) goes (d) went
111. COME
(a) came (b) come 128. The soldiers had to crawl ______ a hole in the fence.
(c) coming (d) None of these (a) cross (b) through (c) between (d) under

112. DO 129. Ben ___ television shortly before you returned home.
(a) did (b) done (a) watches (b) watch (c) watching (d) was watching
(c) doing (d) None of these
130. This cocktail tastes much _______ than the other.
113. RUN (a) good (b) best (c) better (d) gooder
(a) ran (b) raned
(c) running (d) None of these 131. Kimberly found the test difficult _______ she did
not give up.
Directions: Fill the blanks from the four alternative. (a) and (b) on (c) so (d) but

114. We go to Church _______ Sunday morning. 132. The tiger pounced _______ the unsuspecting deer.
(a) in (b) on (c) when (d) with (a) into (b) on (c) above (d) between

115. Keep this secret _______ everybody. 133. By age 14, my son was already taller than _____ .
(a) to (b) on (c) from (d) by (a) I (b) me (c) myself (d) mine

116. The tiger jumped _______ the ring of fire. 134. It is raining. The boys are taking shelter _______
(a) in (b) by (c) through (d) with the bridge.
(a) under (b) on (c) above (d) beside
117. The glass in the window was _____ by your football.
(a) breaks (b) broke (c) broken (d) breaking 135. She _____ whenever her brother makes a funny face.
(a) laughs (b) laughed (c) laughing (d) is laughing

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136. John is happy _______ he has won a scholarship 150. Diamond is very hard because
to England (a) it is a covalent solid
(a) why (b) but (c) when (d) because (b) it has large cohesive energy
(c) it has melting point
137. Why are you doing this to _______ ? (d) it is insoluble in all solvents
(a) you (b) yourself (c) your (d) himself
151. In insulators
(a) the valence band is partially filled with electrons
138. Each brave soldier _______ a medal next Saturday.
(b) the conduction band is partly filled with electrons
(a) receive (b) receives (c) will receiver (d) received (c) the conduction band is filled with electrons
and valence band is empty
139. Take a queue number and wait _______ your turn. (d) the conduction band is empty and the valence
(a) on (b) for (c) by (d) with band is filled with

140. I did not meet him because he came _______ I left. 152. In a p-n-p transistor the <<-type crystal acts as
(a) and (b) after (c) before (d) when (a) emitter (b) base (c) collector (d) gate

141. He showed the policeman _____ the fight took place. 153. In a common emitter transistor the current gain is
(a) what (b) when (c) where (d) what (a) one (b) more than one
(c) less than one (d) infinite
142. To _______ is this letter for ?
(a) who (b) whom (c) which (d) whose 154. n-type semiconductor is obtained by doping intrinsic
Germanium by
(a) Phosphorus (b) Aluminium
143. That girl with spectacles ____ still our class perfect.
(c) Boron (d) Gold
(a) is (b) was (c) are (d) were
155. A pure semiconductor has
144. The scientific name of salt is.
(a) an infinite resistance at 00C
(a) Potassium oxide (b) Sodium Chloride
(b) a finite resistance which does not
(c) Calcium Chloride (d) None of These depend upon temperature.
(c) a finite resistance which
145. Laser stands for. decreases with temperature
(a) light amplification by (d) a finite resistance which
stimulated emission of radiation increases with temperature
(b) light amplification emission radiation
(c) lightstrulation radiation 156. The transistors are made up of
(d) None of These (a) copper (b) silicon
(c) aluminium (d) constanton
146. The highest energy gap is in case of.
(a) conductor (b) insulator 157. When a triod is used as an amplifier the phase
(c) semiconductor (d) None of These difference between the input voltage signal and the
output is
147. PN junction is called as. (a) zero (b)  (c)  (d) 
(a) semiconductor (b) crystal diode 4 2
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of These
158. An oxide coated filament emits election at lower
temperature because its work function is.
148. A transistor consists of how many semiconductor
(a) zero (b) low (c) high (d) infinite
diode / PN junction.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of These 159. Zener diodes are used for
(a) rectification
149. Which type of crystal are generally good optical (b) amplification
reflectors ? (c) stabilisation of voltage
(a) Metal (b) Ionic crystals (d) production of carrier waves
(c) Covalent crystals (d) None of These

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160. Two equal positive charges are kept at point A and 169. The current carrying wire is :
B. Then if one moves from A to B along the line (a) negatively charged (b) positively charged
joining these charges, the potential will : (c) neutral (d) sometimes positively and sometimes
(a) continuously decrease negatively charged
(b) continuously increase
(c) decrease first and then increase 170. Unit of resistance is :
(d) increase first and then decrease (a) Volt/amp (b) Volt2/amp (c) Volt/amp2 (d) Volt

161. What is the angle between the electric dipole 171. The resistivity of a wire depends on its :
moment and the electric field strength due to it on (a) length (b) area of cross-section
the equatorial line ? (c) shape (d) material
(a) 00 (b) 900 (c) 1800 (d) None of these
172. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt and 100 watt. Power
162. Electric potential of earth is taken to be zero, consumed by it when operated on 110 volt is :
because earth is a good: (a) 50 watt (b) 75 watt (c) 90 watt (d) 25 watt
(a) insulator (b) conductor
(c) semi-conductor (d) dielectric 173. The element of an electric heater is made of :
(a) copper (b) platinum (c) nichrome (d) tungsten
163. A body can be negative charged by:
(a) giving excess of electrons to it 174. The fuse-wire is made of :
(b) removing some electrons from it (a) copper (b) tungsten (c) lead-tin alloy (d) nichrome
(c) giving some protons to it
(d) removing some neutrons from it 175. When a magnet is heated
(a) it loses its magnetism
164. Select the correct statement: (b) it gains magnetism
(a) the total change of the universe is constant (c) neither loses nor gains magnetism
(b) the total number of the charged particles (d) none of the above is correct
is constant
(c) the total positive charge of the universe 176. The unit of pole strength is
remains constant (a) ampere-meter2 (b) ampere-meter
(d) the total negative charge of the universe (c) ampere/meter (d) ampere/meter2
remains constant
177. A permanent magnet
165. The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor depends (a) attracts all substance
on : (b) attracts only ferromagnetic substances
(a) nature of the metal of the plates (c) attracts only ferromagnetic substance
(b) thickness of the plates and repels all other
(c) distance between the plates (d) attracts some substances and repels other
(d) potential difference between the plates
178. Magnetic field is a
166. Through a metallic conductor electric current is (a) vector quantity (b) scalar quantity
thought to be a movement of : (c) both (d) None of these
(a) icons (b) amperes
(c) electrons (d) protons 179. Retentivity is maximum for
(a) steel (b) soft iron
167. The particles that conduct electricity through a (c) copper (d) brass
solution of an electrolyte are called:
(a) electrons (b) protons 180. Which of the following is most suitable for the core
(c) ions (d) atoms of electromagnets
(a) air (b) soft iron
168. The ampere-sec stands for the unit of: (c) steel (d) Cu-Ni alloy
(a) power (b) current
(c) energy (d) charge ——000——

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Space for rough work

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DIPLOMA ENTRANCE TEST 2015‐16 
ANSWER SHEET 
1. B                       
2. B  26. G  50. B  74. B 
3. B  27. B  51. A  75. A 
4. B  28. C  52. G  76. C 
5. A  29. D  53. G  77. B 
6. A  30. A  54. G  78. D 
7. A  31. D  55. C  79. A 
8. D  32. D  56. C  80. A 
9. G  33. D  57. B  81. C 
10. A  34. B  58. A  82. A 
11. G  35. B  59. C  83. C 
12. G  36. B  60. C  84. D 
13. B  37. G  61. G  85. B 
14. A  38. B  62. A  86. C 
15. B  39. A  63. B  87. C 
16. D  40. B  64. B  88. A 
17. B  41. C  65. A  89. C 
18. D  42. A  66. B  90. B 
19. A  43. C  67. A  91. B 
20. B  44. D  68. A  92. A 
21. A  45. B  69. C  93. A 
22. A  46. B  70. A  94. B 
23. B  47. C  71. C  95. A 
24. C  48. D  72. A  96. B 
25. C  49. B  73. B  97. B 
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98. B  126. A  154. A  NOTE:‐G 

99. A  127. C  155. C  means Grace 
100. B  128. B  156. D  mark, as 
101. B  129. D  157. D  option E was 
102. D  130. C  158. B  not available 
103. C  131. B  159. A  in OMR 
104. A  132. B  160. B  sheet. 
105. C  133. B  161. A 
106. B  134. A  162. B 
107. A  135. A  163. A 
108. B  136. B  164. A 
109. A  137. B  165. C 
110. B  138. C  166. C 
111. A  139. B  167. C 
112. A  140. B  168. D 
113. A  141. C  169. B 
114. B  142. B  170. A 
115. C  143. A  171. D 
116. C  144. A  172. D 
117. C  145. A  173. C 
118. A  146. B  174. C 
119. A  147. B  175. A 
120. D  148. B  176. B 
121. D  149. B  177. B 
122. C  150. A  178. A 
123. D  151. B  179. A 
124. A  152. D  180. B 
125. B  153. D