10/10/21, 11:08 PM Binomial probability formula (practice) | Khan Academy

Math · AP®︎/College Statistics · Random variables and probability distributions

· Introduction to the binomial distribution

Binomial probability formula

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A candy machine holds 500 pieces of candy, 20% of which are blue. Customers get an SRS of 4
pieces of candy per purchase from this machine. Let B = the number of blue candies a customer
gets in a purchase from a full machine.

Which of the following would find P (B = 1)?

Choose 1 answer:

INCORRECT

(0.20)(0.80)3

This is the probability of getting 1 successe followed by 3 failures, but there are more
ways to get 1 success in 4 trials.

INCORRECT
There you go!
500
( ) (0.20)(0.80)3 Great that you stuck with it. Onward!
4

500
The binomial coefficient ( ) suggests we're looking for 4 successes in 500 trials, but
4
we're looking for 1 success in 4 trials. Do 4 problems Next question

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10/10/21, 11:08 PM Binomial probability formula (practice) | Khan Academy

INCORRECT

500
( ) (0.20)3 (0.80)
4
500
The binomial coefficient ( ) suggests we're looking for 4 successes in 500 trials, but
4
we're looking for 1 success in 4 trials. The exponents also suggest the wrong numbers of
successes and failures.

INCORRECT

4
( ) (0.20)3 (0.80)
1

These exponents suggest that we want 3 successes and 1 failure, but we want 1 success
and 3 failures.

CORRECT (SELECTED)

4
( ) (0.20)(0.80)3
1

This has the correct binomial coefficient for 1 successes in 4 trials, the correct
probabilities for success and failure, and the correct exponents for number of successes
and failures.

1/4
Probability of 1 blue candy
There you go!
We want the probability that there is 1 success (blue candy) in 4 you
Great that trialsstuck
(number
withofit. Onward!
candies), so we're going to need 3 failures (not blue candies) as well. The probability of
each success is 0.20 and the probability of each failure is 0.80. Since we're sampling less
than 10% of the population, we can assume independence and multiply probabilities to
find the probability of getting 1 success followed by 3 failures: Next question
Do 4 problems

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10/10/21, 11:08 PM Binomial probability formula (practice) | Khan Academy

P (SFFF) = (0.20) (0.80) (0.80) (0.80)

Math AP®︎/College
3
Statistics Random variables = (0.20) (0.80)
and probability distributions
The binomial coefficient ( )
Introduction to the binomial
2/4 n
distribution k
Introduction to the binomial
distribution SFFF isn't the only arrangement that produces 1 success in 4 trials. For instance, FFFS
would also produce the desired outcome. To count how many possible arrangements

there are, we use the binomial coefficient ( ) . It tells us the number of possible
probability distribution n
k
arrangements for k successes in n trials. In this problem, we want k = 1 success (blue
Graphing basketball
binomial distribution candy) in n = 4 trials (number of candies), so we should use the binomial coefficient
4
( ).
1
Binompdf and binomcdf
functions [Tell me more about the binomial coefficient.]

3/4 Putting it together

Binomial probability
(basic)
Each arrangement has probability (0.20)(0.80)3 so for our final answer we multiply this
probability by the number of possible arrangements:
Practice: Binomial
4
probability formula
( ) (0.20)(0.80)3
1
Practice: Calculating 4/4 The answer:
binomial probability
4
( ) (0.20)(0.80)3 There you go!
1
Next lesson Great that you stuck with it. Onward!

Related content Next question

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10/10/21, 11:08 PM Binomial probability formula (practice) | Khan Academy

Binomial probability
10:24 example

Generalizing k scores in n
attempts
4:13

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Binomial probability (basic) Calculating binomial probability

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There you go!

Great that you stuck with it. Onward!

Do 4 problems Next question

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