GR8677 Solutions

GR8677 Solutions
Detailed Solutions to the GRE Physics Exam

http://grephysics.yosunism.com
Yosun Chang
December 4, 2005
1
GR8677 Solutions 2
Problem 1 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =1

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Subject Type
Mechanics → Newtonian
This problem can be translated into an equation:
mẍ = −k ẋ − mg. (1)

Note that the sign is compensated for. ẋ is positive going up (so that −k ẋ acts in the same
direction as gravity), and it is negative going down (acting in the opposite direction of gravity).
1
(A) ẍ 6= g∀t because ẍ = m (−k ẋ − mg)
(B) True. ẋ = 0 at the top. Thus, plug that into the equation in described in (A) and get ẍ = −g
1
(C) ẍ = m (−k ẋ − mg) could be greater than g, especially when ẋ is positive in sign.
(D) The wind friction (−k ẋ) term would change sign when going downwards. (See the Note above.)
Thus, the equation of motion presented above would be different in sign going down and up. (Also,
one could argue that after the force of wind friction acts, to conserve energy, kinetic energy must
lessen in the final energy sum. Thus, the final velocity can’t be the same as v0 . Or, intuitively, one
could see friction as a symmetry breaker, viz., the ideal parabolic path is disturbed in such a way that
the end velocity changed.)
(E) Since the force other than gravity is a frictional force, which, by definition, slows down the
object, the final velocity has to be less than v0 .

Subject Type
Mechanics → Vector
While there may be a more quantitative solution, the simplest solution is qualitative, based on
elementary vector addition and knowledge of the force center.
The problem states that the object orbits the Earth in a perfect circle, initially. This means that
the initial velocity (v~0 ) is perpendicular to the vector pointing to the earth center (~n), i.e., it’s tangent
to the circular path. This is the condition for uniform circular motion (the centripetal acceleration is
due to the Gravitational Law).
After firing a missile straight to Earth center, its velocity gains an extra normal component (−v~n ),
equal and opposite to the velocity of the missile fired to Earth. Thus, its trajectory would deviate
from the circular trajectory.
Because the only source of acceleration comes from the Earth center, −v~n , which is parallel to the
centripetal acceleration provided by the Earth, will eventually go to 0. Recall that acceleration does
not effect velocity components in the perpendicular direction (to wit: a projectile fired on Earth has
the same constant vx , but its vy changes). There will thus always be a (nearly constant) tangential
velocity, even at the perigees. However, −v~n will go to 0 at the perigees. The tangential velocity will
remain more-or-less constant, so that instead of spiraling inwards, the path becomes an ellipse, as
−v~n is restored at the apogees and zero’ed at the perigees.
(In a more down-to-earth form, this problem is essentially a projectile firing question with no
numerical work involved.)

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Wave Equation
2 2
Simply and elegantly stated: c12 ∂∂tφ2 = ∂∂xφ2 . (One can check this by noting that the dimensions
cancel out to meters−2 on both sides.) Now, c = √10 µ0 . Elsewhere than a vacuum, it’s v = √1µ ,
where, in this problem, we have = 2.10 and µ = µ0 .
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c Yosun Chang (unless otherwise credited) http : //grephysics.yosunism.com
GR8677 Solutions 3
1 c
No need to narrow the choices down. (D) is right because v = √2.1×1 0 µ0
= √2.1 , where the last
equality comes from substituting the definition of the speed of light (via an epsilon and a mu).

Subject Type
Wave Phenomena → Wave Equation
Perhaps this formula is more familiar: y = A sin(ωt − kx). But then again, they define the familiar
quantities k and ω for you in theirs...
(A) The amplitude is A. (Recall that the amplitude of y = sin(x) is just 1, not 2.)
(B) How exactly does the argument of sin make it a traveling wave? Well, a traveling wave keeps
the same waveform at all times. Thus, the overall argument has to be constant. ωt−kx = constant ⇒
x ∝ −constant + ωt. This looks like the old high school kinematics equation x = −constant + vt. In
fact, it’s basically the same thing. That high school equation describes a particle going in the positive
x-direction. So does this equation.
(C) Dimensions don’t match. Period has units of time, not units of time/meter.
(D) The speed of the wave is v = λ/T . From the kinematics explanation explained in (B), the
2πλ
velocity of the wave is obviously v = ωk = 2πT
(E) True. See (D) and (B).

Subject Type
Mechanics → Conservation
This is a three step problem involving conservation of energy in steps one and three and conser-
vation of momentum in step two.
1. M gh0 = 12 M v12 ... Conservation of energy determines the velocity of putty A, v1 , (of mass M )
at the bottom of its trajectory, right before it intersects B.
2. M v1 = (M + 3M )v2 = 4M v2 ... Since the putty thingies stick together, conservation of
momentum is easy. Solve for v2 .
3. 12 4M v22 = 4M gh3 ... Conservation of energy, again. Solve for h3 .
1
And voila, plug in the relevant quantities to find that the answer is (A) 16 h0 .

Subject Type
Mechanics → Vectors
Since there is only one force acting, i.e., the gravitational force, one can find the tangential accel-
eration by projecting ~g in the tangential direction. Equivalently, one dots gravity with the tangential
unit vector, v~t = ~g · t̂.
There’s a long way to do this, wherein one writes out the full Gibbsean vector formalism, and then
there’s a short and elegant way. (The elegant solution is due to Teodora Popa.)
The problem gives f (x) = y = x2 /4. Thus, df /dx = dy/dx = x/2 = tan α, where in the last step,
one notes that the ratio dy/dx forms the tangent of the indicated angle.
One recalls the Pythagorean identity sin2 α + cos2 α = 1, and the definition of tan α in terms
sin α √ sin α . Square both sides to get
of sin α and cos α. Thus, one gets x/2 = tan α = cos α = 2
1−sin α
sin2 α sin2 α
x2 /4 = tan2 α = cos2 α = 1−sin2 α .
sin2 α x2 /4 x2
Solve x2 /4 = 1−sin2 α
to get sin2 α= 1+x2 /4 = 4+x2 .
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GR8677 Solutions 4
The angle between the vectors ~g and t̂ is π/2 − α, and thus the tangential acceleration is g sin α =
√ gx .
x2 +4
Beautiful problem.

Subject Type
Mechanics → Statics
Straight-forward Newtonian statics:
Fx = 0 = F − T sin(θ) ⇒ T sin(θ) = F (2)
Fy = 0 = T cos(θ) − mg ⇒ T cos(θ) = mg (3)

Divide the two equations above, cancel T’s, and get:
F 10
tan(θ) = mg = 2∗10 = .5. Choice A is right.

Subject Type
Mechanics → Conservation
Straight-forward conservation of energy problem:
1
E0 = mv 2 = Ef = F l, (4)
2
25
where l = 0.025m = 1000 , m = 5kg, and v = 10m/2. Plug everything in, and solve for F , to get
choice D, 10, 000N .

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Current Density
There are (at least) two ways to solve this problem. If one has a decent memory or might make
for a decent experimenter, one should remember that the electron drift velocity is on the order of
10−4 m/s. Choice D is the only thing that fits this order. If one is a theorist who can’t remember
jack, then one would have to do a bit more work:
Recall the basic equation:
I
j= = nev, (5)
A
where n = N V = 1E28, i.e., the number of electron per volume, and v is the drift velocity. The area is
A = π( d2 )2 .
Solving for v, and making the appropriate approximate plug-in’s:
4I 1 4I 1
≈ 2 2 (1E28)(1.5E − 19) ≈ 3E − 4, (6)
πd2 ne π( 100 )
which is closest to choice D.
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GR8677 Solutions 5

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Gauss’ Law
Only choices C, D, and E make sense, since the field at r = 0 has to be 0. Moreover, since a
uniform charge distribution is applied, the field has to increases linearly within the volume of the
sphere. Choice D and E are both out, leaving just C.
Direct verification via applying Gauss’ Law for the inside of the sphere: E(4πr2 ) = Q = ρ 34 πr3 ⇒
E = ρr3 ∝ kr.
Outside, all five choices converge to an inverse-square decreasing field—so, no worry there!

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Vector Calculus
There are two identities from vector calculus one has to know by heart. The one directly applicable
to this problem is:
~ =0
∇ · (∇ × H) (7)
Plug in the equation given in the problem to the identity above to get 0.
(The other identity, not quite as useful for this problem, but perhaps useful for subsequent prob-
lems, is: ∇ × (∇f ))

Subject Type
Wave Phenomena → Doppler Effect
For a source that’s coming towards you, its frequency will obviously be higher than its original
source frequency. Choices A and B are out. To know for sure whether the choice is C, D, or E, one
can apply the Doppler Effect.
The Doppler Effect equation can easily be derived even if one forgets it. A source f0 approaching
−v0
at v0 would have ∆λ, the distance between waves, decreasing. v = λf ⇒ ∆λ = vsound f0 . The ∆λ
vsound
wave travels at the speed of sound, thus the frequency you receive is: f = ∆λ = 10f0 . Choice E.

Subject Type
Optics → Interference
Fact: The human eye can only see things in motion up to about 25 Hz. (One can approximate
this knowing that the human eye blinks once every three seconds on average.)
Now, the problem mentions that the relative phase is varied, at a constant frequency of 500 Hz,
which is much greater than the maximum frequency of the human eye. Interference is produced as
long as the sources are coherent, and the sources are coherent as long as there’s a constant relation
between relative phase in time.
(A) The frequency of the phase change has nothing to do with the color of light.
(B) Interference pattern is different for π and 2π phase changes...
(C) Interference can exist for other phase differences.
(D) One can have interference even with polychromatic sources.
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GR8677 Solutions 6
(E) The interference pattern shifts position (since the source remains coherent from the constant
relation with relative phase to time) at a rate too fast for the human eye, as explained above.

Subject Type
Thermodynamics → Exact differentials
The key equation is: P V = nRT , and its players, P, V, n, R, T , are terms one should be able to
guess.
(A) True, according to the ideal gas law. (This is also the final step in deriving Mayer’s Equation,
as shown below.)
dq dq
(B) This translates into the statement dT = dT ⇒ cV = cP .The problem gives away the fact
V P
that for an ideal gas CP 6= CV . B can’t be right.
(C) According to the ideal gas law, the volume might change.
(D) False. An ideal gas’s internal energy is dependent only on temperature. More elegantly,
u = u(T ).
(E) Heat needed for what?
If one is interested in the formal proof of the relation cp = cv +nR, read on about Mayer’s equation:
For thermo, in general, there’s an old slacker’s pride line that goes like, “When in doubt, write a
bunch of equations of states and mindlessly begin taking exact differentials. Without exerting much
brainpower, one will quickly arrive at a brilliant result.” Doing this,
Q = U + W ⇒ dQ = dU + P dV (8)
U = U (T, V ) ⇒ dU = ∂T U |T + ∂V U |V (9)
P V = nRT ⇒ P dV + V dP = nRdT (10)
Plugging in the first law of thermodynamics into the U equation of state, one gets dQ = ∂T U |T +
( ∂T U |V + P ) dV = ∂T U |T + P dV , where the last simplification is made by remembering the fact that
the internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature.
(Taking the derivative with respect to T at constant volume, one gets dQ dT = ∂T U |T = CV .)

V
Plugging in the simplified result for dQ = ... into the third equation of state, the ideal gas equation,
one gets: dQ − Cv dT + V dP = nRdT . Taking the derivative at constant pressure, one gets:

dQ
= CV + nR (11)
dT P
So, one sees that it is the ideal gas equation that makes the final difference. The work of an ideal gas
changes when temperature is varied.

Subject Type
Statistical Mechanics → Probability
Probability is mostly common sense and adhering to definitions.
The probability that a gas molecule or atom is in the small cube is P (in) = 1E −6. The probability
that it’s not in that small cube is P (not) = 1 − 1E − 6. Assuming independent gas molecules or atoms,
N
i.e., the usual assumption of randomness in Stat Mech, one gets, P (N gasatoms) = (1 − 1E − 6) .
The answer is thus C.
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GR8677 Solutions 7
Subject Type
Advanced Topics → Particle Physics
The properties of a muon most closely resembles that of an electron. In the usual β-decay, an
electron is emitted along with either a neutrino or an antineutrino. In a wildcard β-decay, a muon is
emitted instead of an electron.

Subject Type
Advanced Topics → Radioactivity
A−4
XZA →? →? → YZ−1 by natural decay
Recall the following decay processes, and recall that the subscripts and superscripts have to balance
on both sides of the arrow.
Beta (β − ) Decay:
0A
XZA → XZ+1 0
+ β−1 + ν̄, (12)
where ν̄ is the symbol of an anti-neutrino. (The β + decay is accompanied by a neutrino, ν, instead
of an anti-neutrino.)
Alpha Decay:
0A−4
XZA → XZ−2 + He42 (13)
Gamma Decay (no change in A or Z):
XZA → XZA → +γ (14)
Deuteron Decay (rare):

A−2
XZA → XZ−1 + H12 (15)
0A−4 A−4
A
(A) XZA → XZ+1 0
+ β−1 → XZ−1 + He42 → YZ−1 . This works out.
−
(B) β decay always occurs with an antineutrino.
(C) γ emission doesn’t change the atomic number.
(D) Although the numbers work out here, deuteron decay is rare, thus not natural.
(E) The subscripts and superscripts don’t add up.

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Schrodinger Equation
The problem gives the wave function, wherein the hidden mysteries of the problem are con-
tained. The potential is referenced as V (x), which means that it’s time-independent. Thus, the
h̄2 d2
Time-Independent Schrodinger Equation can be used: − 2m dx2 ψ + V (x)ψ = Eψ. The second
d2 2 2 2
derivative of the given ψ is dx2 ψ = (−b + (b x) )ψ. Plug that into the TISE, and one gets
h̄2
− 2m (−b2 + (b2 x)2 ) = E − V (x)
h̄2
Now, plugging in the potential condition V (0) = 0, one gets, 2m ((b2 x)2 ) = E − V (0) = E. This
implies that the term on the left that disappeared from that substitution is the V (x) term. Therefore,
h̄2
one deduces that V (x) = 2m (b2 x)2 .
The right answer would be (B).
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GR8677 Solutions 8
Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Bohr Theory
Recall the Rydberg energy. QED

Subject Type
Special Relativity → Rest Energy
If one remembers the formulae from special relativity, arithmetic would be the hardest part of the
problem.
The problem is to solve γmk c2 = mp c2 , where γ = √ 1 2 and β = vc .
1−β
The rest-mass of both the kaon and the proton are given in the problem. Thus, the equation
938
reduces to γ = 494 .
Now, because the range of velocities vary significantly between 1.x and 2, one can’t directly
approximate that as 2. Boo. So, long-division by hand yields approximately 1.9 = γ = √ 1 2 .
1−β
9 2
2 2

The author of this site prefers to use fractions instead of decimals. Thus γ = 1.9 = 1 + 10 =
81
1 + 100 + 180
100 = 262
100 . Express γ in terms of β to get 1 − β 2
= 100
262 ≈ 1
3 ⇒ β 2
= 2
3 .
8 × 8 is about 64, so the velocity has to be greater than 0.8c. The only choice left is (E).
If one has the time, one might want to memorize the following:
γ(β = 0.1) = 1.005 (16)

γ(β = 0.25) = 1.033 (17)
γ(β = 0.5) = 1.155 (18)
γ(β = 0.75) = 1.51 (19)
γ(β = 0.9) = 2.29 (20)
, or perhaps a more elaborate list of γ − β correlations.

If one knew that before-hand, then one would immediately arrive at choice (E).

Subject Type
Special Relativity → Metric
Recall that the metric dS 2 = −dt2 + dr2 (equivalently, dS 2 = dt2 − dr2 )
dr2 = dxi dxi = (dx)2 + (dy)2 + (dz)2 = 4 + 0 + 4 = 8 and dt2 = 4. Thus dS 2 = 4, and S = 2, as
in choice (C).

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Lorentz Transformation
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GR8677 Solutions 9
When an electric field is Lorentz-transformed, afterwards, there might be both a magnetic and
electric field (in transverse components). Or, more rigorously, one has,
Ex0 = Ex (21)
Ey0 = γ(Ey − vBz ) (22)
Ez0 = γ(Ez + vBy ) (23)
Bx0 = Bx (24)
By0 = γ(By + Ez v/c2 ) (25)
Bz0 = γ(Bz − vEy /c2 ), (26)
for motion in the x direction.

(A) Obviously not. Suppose initially, one has just Ex , afterwards, there’s still Ex0 .
(B) True, as can be seen from the equations above.
(C) Not true in general. Suppose E ~ = Ex x̂ + Ey ŷ + Ez ẑ. Afterwards, the transverse components
are off by a γ even if there’s no B field to start with.
(D) Nope.
(E) Mmmm... no need for gauge transformations.

Subject Type
Advanced Topics → Solid State
Actually, one can figure this one out with only knowledge of lower div baby physics.
(A) Electrical conductivities for conductors, semiconductors, and insulators go (in general), like
this kc > ks > ki . Thus, copper should be more conductive than silicon. This is true (but one is
trying to find a false statement).
(B) The resistivity ρ = ρ0 (1 + α∆T ), thus the conductivity, σ = 1/ρ ∝ 1/(∆T ). As T increases,
σ decreases. This is true.
(C) Silicon is a semi-conductor, and thus it probably does not follow the same relations as (B).
In fact, semiconductors have negative α temperature coefficient of resistivities. Thus, ρ < ρ0 , which
implies that σ > σ0 for temperature increase.
(D) Doping a conductor like copper will just make it cheap. Think of cheap wire.
(E) Doping a semiconductor, however, can make it more conductive.

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Circuits
Apply Kirchhoff’s Loop Law: (G − V ) − I(R + 1) = 0, where G is the voltage of the generator
and V is the voltage of the battery, and the extra 1 is the internal resistance. I = 10Amperes in the
problem, and thus R = 1Ω.

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Lorentz Force
Recall the Lorentz Force, F~ = q(E
~ + ~v × B).
~
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GR8677 Solutions 10
E~ and B~ are parallel. The particle is released from rest, so the Electric force would propel it. The
resulting velocity would be parallel to the electric field, but since the magnetic field is also parallel to
that, there would be no magnetic force contribution. The particle thus goes in a straight line.

Subject Type
Atomic → X-Rays
The K-series refers to the inner-most shell. (The order from inner to outer goes like K, L, M, N.)
K-series refers to a transition from some outer state to the inner-most shell, where n = 1 in the usual
Bohr equation,
E = −13.6(Z − 1)2 1 − 1/n2i eV,

(27)
where (Z − 1)2 is used to account for shielding.
For electrons bombarding a target, one assumes that the electrons are coming from ni = ∞, thus
the equation becomes E = −13.6(Z − 1)2 ≈ 10 ∗ 900 ≈ 10, 000 eV, as in choice (D).

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Spin
Spin explains a lot of things.
(A) Remember orbitals? Whether a shell is full or not determines the properties of each column of
the periodic table. A full shell has all electron spins paired together, while a partially filled or empty
shell doesn’t have that. So, spin is definitely in the Periodic Table.
(B) The specific heat of metals differs if one calculates it using the Fermi-Dirac or Bose-Einstein
distributions; the first is used for fermions and the second for bosons. So, spin plays a role here.
(C) The Zeeman effect has to do with splitting caused by spin.
(D) The deflection of a moving electron is due to the magnetic field contribution to the Lorentz
Force. This is a classical non-spin related phenomenon, on first analysis. This is the best choice.
(E) Fine structure has to do with splitting caused by spin.

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Normalization
Recall that |ψ(x)|2 dx = 1 is the condition for a normalized function.
R
Z 2π
|ψ|2 = |A|2 dφ (28)
0
= 2π|A|2 (29)
= 1 (30)
1
⇒A = √ , (31)
2π
where the condition |eimφ |2 = eimφ e−imφ = 1 is used.

This is choice (D).
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GR8677 Solutions 11

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Right Hand Rule
Note: this is a negative test charge. So, for the test charge, one has to either choose the opposite
direction as that yielded by the Right Hand Rule or one could use the Left Hand Rule, which is just
the RHR done with the left hand.
Suppose the current is a straight line pointing upwards along the page. The RHR for the current
shows a magnetic field that’s coming out of the page from the left side of the current and a field going
into the page on the right side.
The problem wants the test charge to go parallel to the current. Applying the Lorentz Force,
where F ∝ ~v × B, ~ one finds that no matter the direction of approach, the only way for the force
to point parallel to the current is for the velocity to go towards the wire. (Check this: Suppose the
charge comes in from the left; the force would point parallel to the current. Suppose the charge comes
in from the right; the force would point parallel to the current, again.)

Subject Type
Atomic → Orbitals
Recall that:
s = 0 (32)
p = 1 (33)
d = 2 (34)
f = 3 (35)
g = 4...(etc.), (36)
where the right side of the equal sign is the angular momentum l.
And then there’s also the formula 2(2l + 1), which determines the number of electrons in each
subshell.
(A) The configuration does not specify anything about 3d. This is the first row of transitional
metals.
(B) From the formula above, one sees that the s subshell needs 2 electrons to be filled. The 4s
subshell is thus not filled.
(C) l = 4 corresponds to g. The configuration does not specify g.
(D) Because the problem states that potassium is in the ground state, the atomic number is the
same as the number of electrons in the configuration. The sum of the superscripts is 19.
(E) The valance shell is 4s2 . Many-electron atoms have wave functions that take after the hydrogen
atom, and one recalls that ψ40m looks like a spherically symmetrical blob of a ball. This is it.

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Photoelectric Effect
Perhaps one recalls the “hot phrase” stopping potential. The |eV | used in the photoelectric equation
is essentially the stopping potential (energy). This memory-recall immediately narrows the choices
down to just (A) and (C). Now, to find out if the potential is positive or negative.
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GR8677 Solutions 12
FYI: The Photoelectric effect equation is basically just conservation of energy. One has eV + W =
hf , where eV is the kinetic energy of the electron as it accelerates through the medium between the
cathode and collector, W is the energy to free the electron from the metal, and hf is the energy
given by the light source. Essentially, the energy from the photon first frees the electron from a sort
of (valence) electron sea it lives in while in the metal, and then the excess energy propels it from
cathode to collector in order to keep the current running. The minimum kinetic energy required to
get the current going is the stopping potential (energy) eV . (According to the fight analogy below,
the photon is the one who starts the fight, socking the electron off and away across the currents...)
The electron charge is negative and the potential V must be a negative quantity in order to make
eV positive overall.
(On the lighter side... The Photoelectric effect is also related to the Compton Effect. The effects
can be seen as an arena fight. Think WWWF, but with electrons and photons. In PEE, the photon
knocks the electron out, while in CE, the electron retaliates! It knocks the photon off course.)

Subject Type
(A) The photoelectric effect was derived before formal quantum mechanics and that angular mo-
mentum mess came along. Moreover, electron orbits don’t really apply to the valance electron sea.
(B) This is true, but it doesn’t help derive the photoelectric effect.
(C) Nah, there’s also something weird called electron-electron annihilation. Basically, two electrons
crash into each other and a photon is created. (Perhaps some other particles, too.) Also, think of your
regular desktop lamp—light is emitted, but the electrons are probably not jumping between orbits.
(D) Right. Einstein won the Nobel Prize about a hundred years ago via his proposal that photons
have quantized energy E = hν.
(E) As a pure-ideal theory, the photoelectric effect depends on a single photon exciting a single
electron. It favors the particle view of light. Choice (E) is out.

Subject Type
The quantity W is also known as the work function, and it’s the minimum amount of work that
has to be done to free the electron from the electron sea. If one forgets whether it’s the electron or
photon that’s being moved, then here’s a useful mnemonic. Remember that the photoelectric effect
has a photon knocking out an electron and the Compton effect has an electron knocking a photon off
course. (For the full fight-club analogy, See Prob 32)

Subject Type
Mechanics → Potential Energy
Recall the lovely relation,
∂U
Fx = − ⇔ F~ = −∇U. (37)
∂x
U = kx4 ⇒ F = −4kx3
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Subject Type
Mechanics → Hamiltonian
Recall the lovely relation,
H = T + V, (38)
where T is the kinetic energy and V is the potential energy. (And, while one is at this, one should
also recall that the Lagrangian is L = T − V .)
The potential energy is given to be kx4 . The kinetic energy 12 mv 2 can be written in the form of
p2
2m . Thus, choice (A) is the right answer.

Subject Type
Mechanics → Lagrangian
Recall Hamilton’s Principle (of least action),
Z t2
Ldt, (39)
t1
where L = T − V is the Lagrangian and T is the kinetic energy and V the potential energy. The
potential energy is given in the problem. The choice is obviously (A).

Subject Type
Mechanics → Statics
Sum over each component. Note that the horizontal direction has a net force proportional to the
centripetal acceleration a = v 2 /r = ω 2 r, where v = ωr. Note that T is the tension.
X
Fx = T sin(θ/2) = mv 2 /r = mω 2 r (40)
X
Fy = T cos(θ/2) − mg = 0= (41)
Solve for T above to get,

X
T sin(θ/2) = mω 2 r (42)
X
T cos(θ/2) = mg (43)
Find the magnitude of T and use the Pythagorean theorem,

q 1/2
||T || = T 2 cos2 (θ/2) + T 2 sin2 (θ/2) = m g 2 + ω 4 r2 , (44)
and thus (E) is the right answer.

(The above should be fairly obvious, but if one is totally clueless, then one can eliminate choice
(D) from noting units. The angular velocity has units of 1/s but g 2 has time units proportional to
1/s4 .)
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Subject Type
Advanced Topics → Logical Circuit
(A) This is the OR gate. Triangle with fat-end on input side denotes OR.
(B) Triangle with fat-end closer to output side denotes AND. (Pointy tip points to each input.)
(C) A 2 bit-adder involves more operations than this...
(D) A flip-flop is a sort of sandal that flips and flops. It might also flip the floating point.
(E) A fan-out describes the maximum number of outputs a circuit can excrete. (Fan-in would be
inputs.)

Subject Type
Lab Methods → Log-Log Graph
The key phrase is most accurately expressed. Choice (E) works because it applies decently well
to the following two key points, one of them given, and the other one right next to the given: (ω =
3E5, 1E2) and (1E6, 1E1)
Try a power-law relation: Gain = Kω n ⇒ 1E2 = K(3E5)n and 1E1 = K(1E6)n . Divide the
two equations to get 1E1 = (3E − 1)n Rightarrow10 = (1/3)n . The closest answer would be n = −2,
which is case (E).
(Can’t be an exponential relation, since the Gain would decrease exponentially as ω increases. It’s
not decaying nearly as fast.)

Subject Type
Advanced Topics → Radioactivity
Radioactive counting rates (number of decay per unit time) follow the Poisson Distribution. (Recall
that the Poisson Distribution describes the results of experiments in which one counts√events that
occur independently, thus at random, but at a definite average rate.) In the PD, σ = x̄, i.e., the
standard deviation is approximately the square-root of the average.
Suppose 9934 ≈ 10000 is the average. The square root of that is 100, hence (A) is the answer.
(Depending on whether one is in the mood for rolling the celestial self-loaded
√ 5-sided dice, one can
look for the most obvious relationship between numbers in problems. x, x2 are two commonly used
relationships.)
The Normal (Gaussian) distribution describes the distribution of values for any measurement
subject to many sources of error that are all random and small. But, the Poisson Distribution fits
this case more closely.

Subject Type
Atomic → Binding Energy
Nickel and Iron are the most tightly bound nuclei, thus have the highest binding energy. Nickel
isn’t on the list, thus Iron must be the choice.
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Subject Type
Mechanics → Scattering Cross Section
The target nuclei per cm3 is ρ = N/V = 1E20nuclei/cm3 .
The scatterer thickness is t = 1E − 1cm.
Passing through the scatterer, only P = 1E − 6 particles are scattered. (This is the probability of
scattering.)
One can obtain to formula for the scattering cross section from ordinary dimensional analysis spiced
up with some common sense (or recalling its definition back in Marion and Thornton’s Dynamics
book). It is:
V P 1E − 6
A=P = = = 10−6−20+1 = 10−25 , (45)
Nl ρl 1E20 × 1E − 1
which is choice (C).

Subject Type
Mechanics → Normal Modes
Because there are two degrees of freedom in this problem, there are two normal mode frequencies.
Because there is no external torque acting on the system, the center of mass of the system stays
the same through time.
From common sense, one deduces that ω1 has to do with the outer masses moving perfectly out
of phase, i.e., masses A and C moving either towards the left and right (away from each other),
respectively, or right and left (towards each other), respectively—and B being perfectly stationary,
thereby “conserving” the center of mass.
The other angular frequency, ω2 , has to do with either masses A and C moving in phase and mass
B out of phase.
ω1 is actually equivalent to having a single mass on pa string, since because the middle mass doesn’t
move, it acts as a sort of support for the spring. ω1 = k/m, which would correspond to choice (B).
(Of course, one should recall the obvious, that ω = 2πf .)
(Incidentally, one can derive ω2 without having to resort to the formalism of matrix mechanics:
Since the center of mass remains 0, one has R = mx−2mX+mx m+2m+m . Solving, one gets X = x. The
displacement of the middle mass, mass B, is thus x + X = 2x, while the displacements of the smaller
masses, masses A and C, are both x. The displacement of each spring is 2x. Potential energy is thus
U = 2 21 k(2x)2 = 21 8kx2 . The kinetic energy is T = 2 12 m(ẋ)2 + 21 (2m)(ẋ)2 = 12 4m(ẋ)2 . The normal
q q q
k f 8k 2k
mode frequency is deduced by ω2 = mef ef f
= 4m = m)

Subject Type
Mechanics → Conservation of Momentum
One could use energy, but then one would have to take into account the inertia. Momentum might
be easier,
m
(pi = mv) = (pf = M V ) ⇒ V = v, (46)
M
where the final momentum takes into account the fact that the final velocity of the particle is at rest
(0). And, so it is (A)!
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Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → de Broglie Wavelength
This problem can be solved via the Compton Effect equation ∆λ = λc (1 − cos θ), where θ is the
angle of the scattered photon and λc = h/(me c) is the so-called Compton Wavelength. In this case,
since the particles are protons, one has λc = h/(mp c)
Since the photon scatters off at 90 degrees, the equation simplifies to ∆λ = λc . This is the increase
in wavelength, as in choice (D).
To a certain degree, one can hand-wave this problem via the following method:
Recall the de Broglie relation,
h
p= (47)
λ
, where λ is the wavelength, p is the momentum and h is Planck’s constant.
The momentum of the proton is mp c, thus λ = mhp c .

Subject Type
Statistical Mechanics → Blackbody Radiation
Recall the T 4 law
σ ∝ T 4, (48)
where σ is the energy density.
Apply that law. 10 = T14 and x = 24 T14 , where mW is the units. Compare the two to get
x = 24 × 10mW = 160mW . This is choice (E).

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Franck-Hertz Experiment
Like the typical experiment in QM, the Frank-Hertz experiment has to do with shooting a bunch
of particles through some oven. Its significance is in early observations of energy levels. Also, its key
conclusion is that electrons are scattered elastically.
But, if one doesn’t know the above, one can always use MOE—the Method of Elimination.
(A) Elastic collision requires conservation of kinetic energy. A bit restraining, but keep the choice.
(B) Never scattered elastically? Never is too strong a word to be favored by ETS.
(C) Seems reasonable-ish. Keep it.
(D) This is, again, too restraining. It makes sense that depending on the impact angle and
momentum, different amount of energy would be lost.
(E) Discrete energy lost is mentioned in (C), but again, this choice is much too restraining, stating
that “there is no energy range...”—too strong of a phrase to be favored by ETS.

Subject Type
Atomic → Transition
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Transitions go from state one to another state that’s completely unique relative to the first state.
If both initial and final states have spherically symmetrical wave functions, then they have the same
angular momentum. This is forbidden.

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Schrodinger Equation
Recall the Time-independent Schrodinger Equation,
h̄2 00
Hψ = Eψ ⇒ − ψ + V (x)ψ = Eψ, (49)
2m
2
h̄
where H = − 2m ψ 00 + V (x)ψ = Eψ.
2
p
The classical Hamiltonian is H = 2m + V (x), where one sees the only difference is p → h̄i dx
d
. From
the classical Hami, one can directly reach the Hami operator in the TISE via substituting a differential
operator for momentum, as in choice (B).

Subject Type
Advanced Topics → Solid State Physics
1
Recall RH = − nec , where the sign shows that the charge carrier is negative. (n is the electron
density, e electron charge, c speed of light)
The Hall effect has to do with a bar of metal placed in a magnetic field. An electric current runs
through it perpendicular to the field direction. However, the magnetic field term in the Lorentz force
creates a force perpendicular to both the magnetic field and electric field. This “pulls” the current
astride from its original straight path. Charge starts accumulating on one side of the slab from this
force, even as current continues to flow perpendicular to the accumulation direction. In equilibrium,
the magnetic force balances the electric force from this charge accumulation. Apply some basic EM
theory, and one can derive the Hall coefficient (RH ) defined above.

Subject Type
Statistical Mechanics → Specific Heat
Both Debye and Einstein assumed that there are 3N oscillators. (In fact, one can argue that the
core of condensed matter begins with the assumption that a continuum piece of matter is basically a
tiny mattress—a bunch of springs laden together.) Answer is thus (B).
However, Einstein was too lazy, and he decided that all 3N oscillators have the same frequency.
Debye assigned a spectrum of frequencies (phonons).

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Potential
2005
GR8677 Solutions 18
By Gauss Law, if there are no charges inside the cube, then the electric field inside would be 0.
The potential φ is related to the field E~ by E~ = ∇φ, and thus since E ~ = 0, one infers that φ is
constant. Since the potential function has to remain continuous its value everywhere inside of the
cube is the same as that at the surface of the cube, which is given as V .

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Accelerating Charges
One doesn’t really need to understand the mess Griffiths has on accelerating charges to solve this
problem. In fact, common sense works. Since the particle spends the most time about the origin, the
field there should be maximal. The origin corresponds to θ = 90◦ , via the system used in the diagram.
This is choice (C).

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Dielectric
Recall the following equations,
~ = ρf /; /; /; D
∇·D ~ = 0 E
~ + P~ = κ0 E.
~ (50)
Also, recall the relation between bound charge and polarization,
∇ · P~ = −σb . (51)
Use the divergence theorem on the above equations to apply the elementary Gauss’ Law to the
region, I Z
~
D · dA = σdA ⇒ D = σ. (52)
I Z
P~ · dA = − σp dA ⇒ P = −σp . (53)
But, since D~ = 0 E
~ + P~ = κ0 E,
~ one has D = σ = κ0 E ⇒ E = σ . Plug that into the other
κ0
relation for D (and use the result for P from above) to get, σ = σκ − σp . Thus, σp = σ 1−κ
κ , as in choice
(E).

Subject Type
Statistical Mechanics → Fermi Temperature
When one deals with metals, one thinks of Fermi branding—i.e., stuff like Fermi energy, Fermi
velocity, Fermi temperature, etc. So, 12 vF2 ≈ kTF . Fermi stuff is based on the Fermi-Dirac distribution,
which assumes that the particles are fermions. Fermions obey the Pauli-exclusion principle. (c.f. Bose-
Einstein distribution, where the particles are bosons, who are less discriminating and inclusive than
fermions. Both Bose-Einstein and Fermi-Dirac assume indistinguishable particles, but the Boltzmann
distribution, which assumes the particles are distinguishable)
All the other choices are too general, since bosons can also satisfy them. (Moreover, the Born
approximation is pretty much the fundamental assumption of all of QM—every single calculation you
2005
GR8677 Solutions 19
do involving the interpretation of mod square of wave functions as probability depend on the Born
approx!)

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Expectation Value
Recall the following result of the Born Assumption,
hQi = ψ ∗ Qψ = hψ|Q|ψi, (54)
where the above yields the average value of Q—i.e., the expectation value.

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Operators
One doesn’t really need QM to solve this. Just plug and chug each of the five functions into the
following equation,
∂
−ih̄ f = h̄kf (55)
∂x
∂
Applying the operator −ih̄ ∂x to each function included in the choice, one gets:
(A) ih̄ sin(kx) ... which isn’t an eigenfunction
(B) −ih̄ cos(kx) ... which isn’t an eigenfunction
(C) −h̄kf ... eigenvalue is off by a sign
(D) h̄k ... this is the wanted eigenvalue!
(E) −ih̄k ... off by a sign and imaginary term. Moreover, operators representing observables in
QM have real eigenvalues.

Subject Type
Optics → Holograms
A hologram is produced from interference of light. Interference of two-beams (one going directly
to the film, the other bouncing off the object) produced by a beam-splitter allows the film to record
both intensity and relative phase of the light at each point. Intensity (to wit: I ∝ E02 hsin2 ωti = E02 /2)
does not depend on angular frequency, but only on phase and amplitude. Thus, choice (B) is right.

Subject Type
Wave Phenomenon → Group Velocity
√
Group velocity is vg = dω/dk. So, take the derivative of the quantity ω = c2 k 2 + m2 to get
c2 k
vg = dω/dk = √ . (56)
c2 k 2 + m2
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Use the above equation to test the 5 choices:

(A) As k → 0 ⇒ ω = 0, not infinity. The first condition doesn’t work, no need to test the second
(don’t have to remember L’Hopital’s rule).
(B) Wrong for the same reason as (A).
(C) Wrong because vg approaches 0, not c, as k → 0.
2
(D) As k → ∞, vg ≈ √kc c2 k2
= c, since m (ck)2 . So, vg doesn’t tend towards ∞. This choice is
wrong.
(E) This is it. The conditions work (and it’s the only choice left).

Subject Type
Mechanics → Simple Harmonic Motion
Recall F = − ∂V
∂x = −2bx. Simple harmonic motion has the simple form, ẍ ∝ x. Thus F = mẍ =
−2bx ⇒ ẍ = −ω 2 x, where ω 2 = 2b/m is the frequency squared. Thus, simple harmonic motion occurs
with a frequency determined by both b and m. This is choice (C).

Subject Type
Mechanics → Conservation of Momentum
One can easily derive the formula for rocket motion,
pinitial = pf inal (57)

mv = (m − dm0 )(v + dv) + (dm0 )(v − V ) (58)
mv = mv + mdv − dm0 v − dm0 dv + dm0 v − dm0 V (59)
mdV ≈ dm0 V (60)
mdV = −dmV, (61)
where m is the mass of the rocket and m0 is the mass of the fuel rejected. v is the initial velocity of the
rocket. V is the velocity of the exhaust. The final line comes about from realizing that dm = −dm0 .
The derivation starts with the assumption that the final mass of the rocket is its original mass
minus dm0 , the eject mass, and that its final velocity is a tiny bit faster than it was before dv. The
exhaust mass’ velocity relative to the rocket is V . (Higher order terms such as dxdy have been thrown
out to arrive at the final differential equation.)
V is equivalent to the velocity of the exhaust mass relative to the rocket, the inertial reference
system. Thus u = V and the answer is choice (E).
(Note that firing the exhaust backwards generates a forward thrust for the rocket—motion in space
is quintessentially dependent on the phenomenon of farting. So, if one is well-equipped and wanna
get going in space, just let out a bit of gas, and one’s good to go.)

Subject Type
Mechanics → Separable Differential Equations
Solve m dv = −u dmdt . Separate variables to get
R dm dtR
u m = −dv ⇒ u ln(m0 /m) = v(t). None of the answer choices such a ln relation for v, and
thus the answer is (E), none of the above.
2005
GR8677 Solutions 21

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Method of Image Charge
The boundary condition at the conducting plane is V (0) = 0. This doesn’t mean that one can’t
put an “image charge” a distance −D away on the other side of the plane to make the calculation
easier. Making the directest straight line from the charge to the plane along the z axis, one gets the
following image-charge potential:
!
1 q q
V = p −p . (62)
4π0 x2 + y 2 + (z − d)2 x2 + y 2 + (z + d)2
The charge density for a grounded conducting plane is given by ρ = −0 ∂V

∂n , where n is the direction
of the directest straight line. The derivative is,
!
∂V 1 q(z − d) q(z + d)
= − , (63)
∂z 4π0 (x2 + y 2 + (z − d)2 )1 .5 (x2 + y 2 + (z + d)2 )1.5
and thus, after combining terms, the density is

1 qd
− (64)
2π (x2 + y 2 + (z − d)2 )1.5
The problem wants the surface charge density a distance D away from the point charge. So, plug
1.5
in x2 + y 2 + (z − d)2 = (D2 )1.5 to get
1 qd
− (65)
2π D3

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Impedance Matching
Maximal power transfer occurs when the impedance is matched, as in
I(Xg ) + I(Xl ) = IR, (66)
which requires that Xg = −Xl , as in choice (C).

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Biot-Savart Law
One either remembers the field of a circular current loop or one derives it from the Bigot-Savart
Law,
~
B~ = µ0 Idl × r̂ . (67)
4π r2
One finds that d~l × r̂ = dl, as they’re perpendicular. dB = µ4πr
0 Idl
2 , and the vertical components
of the field cancel, thus there are only the horizontal components (parallel to the axis of the ring).
r is the directest distance from a differential element on the wire to a point on the axis, and x is
2005
GR8677 Solutions 22
the horizontal distance (along the axis) from the center of the ring to that point. Thus, the integral
becomes, Z
µ0 Idl b µ0 Ib b
= , (68)
4π (x2 + b2 )3/2 2 (x2 + b2 )3/2
R
where dl = 2πb.
So anyway, the field, at a point anywhere along the axis of the loop is B ~ = µ0 Ib 2 b2 3/2 .
2 (x +b )
2
At a point far, far, away, x >> b, and thus B ~ ≈ µ0 Ib b3 = µ0 Ib3 .
2 x 2x
Set x = c, where c is the fixed coordinate of that point, to get that the field is proportional to Ib2 ,
as in choice (B).
Incidentally, defining the magnetic dipole moment to be µ = IA = Iπb2 , one finds the field of a
µµ0
magnetic dipole to be 2πx 3 . The field far from a current loop is the same as the field of a magnetic
dipole.

Subject Type
Thermodynamics → First Law
Recall that dQ = T dS = P dV + dU , where work done by the system is positive and heat input
into the systemis positive. For constant volume, the equation becomes dQ = T dS = dU .
⇒ T1 = ∂U∂S V

Subject Type
Statistical Mechanics → Partition Function
The problem gives three non-degenerate energies, so one can just directly plug this into the canon-
ical(?) partition function to get,
X i
Z= e− kT = 1 + e− kT + e−3 kT , (69)
i
where k is the Boltzmann constant, T is the (absolute) temperature.

Since,
∂Z − 3 −3
U = N kT 2 /Z = N k2 e kT + e kT . (70)
∂T kT 2 kT 2
For >> kT , one can expand ex ≈ 1 + x, and thus,
U 3
2
≈ 2
(1 − /kT ) + (1 − 3/kT ) ≈ 4, (71)
Nk kT kT 2
where one throws out the higher order terms. (Z ≈ 1 in denominator)
The average energy of each particle is U/3 = 43 , as in choice (C).

Subject Type
Special Relativity → Relativistic Energy
The relativistic energy relation is,
p
E= p2 c2 + mc4 . (72)
2005
GR8677 Solutions 23
As the speed of a particle v → c, E → pc, since by the de Broglie relation, p = h/λ = hν/c = E/c.
Plug in the requirement into the energy relation to find that m → 0, as in choice (A).

Subject Type
Special Relativity → Length Contraction
Things moving relative to a particular rest frame appear shorter, i.e., contracted. Knowing that
γ > 1, one can deduce this relation without remembering much about special relativity (other than
the hackneyed phrase length contraction) Lrest = γLmoving . So, one has 5 = γ3 for the car, where it
is seen to be moving in the reference frame of the garage. This implies that γ = 5/3 ≈ 1.6 = √ 1 2 .
1−(β)
Recall the following useful table to memorize, for relating β = v/c and γ
γ ⇔ β (73)
1.005 ⇔ 0.1 (74)
1.033 ⇔ 0.25 (75)
1.155 ⇔ 0.5 (76)
1.51 ⇔ 0.75 (77)
2.29 ⇔ 0.9 (78)
One has γ ≈ 1.6 ⇒ β > 0.75c (but less than c). Choice (C) works best.

Subject Type
Special Relativity → Length Contraction
One deduced the approximate value of γ in Problem 69 (as well as the equation for length con-
traction). Thus, 4 = γLmoving ⇒ Lmoving = 4 × 3/5 = 12/5 = 2.4. This is choice (A).

Subject Type
Special Relativity → Relativity!
The order of the door opening depends on which reference frame one is in. Whether or not one
actually put the relativistic cake in one’s mouth to have performed the motion of eating the cake... is
all relative.
Observe this table summarizing the results of some trivial calculations of rest lengths,
...........ownf rame other0 sf rame (79)

car........5m 3m (80)
garage.....4m 2.4m (81)
So, the car fits in the garage in the garage’s frame (the car is 3m and the garage is 4m). But, in
its own frame, the car is much too big to fit in the garage (car is 5m and the garage is merely 2.4m).
Which frame is right? Relativity puts equal footing to either, and thus one shall never know. Be an
agnostic, and one just might live a happy carefree life.
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GR8677 Solutions 24

Subject Type
Wave Phenomenon → Group Velocity
Recall the definition of index of refraction n in terms of the speed of light in vacuum c and the
velocity of the light in medium v, n = c/v. Since the velocity of light in any medium is v ≤ c, the
condition n ≥ 1 usually holds. However, even if rock salt has n > 1, the wave does not exceed the
speed of light. The group velocity can travel faster than the speed of light, and apparently it is the
group velocity at work in the equation n = c/v.
One can also arrive at this conclusion via MOE (Method of Elimination):
(A) Relativity is a pretty general theory that supposedly applies everywhere. (Newtonian mechan-
ics can be achieved using the proper approximation technique.) X-out this choice.
(B) An x-ray is a specific frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum. Nothing forbids an electro-
magnetic wave from transmitting signals, and thus this choice is out.
(C) Imaginary mass? If confused, save for last comparison.
(D) Historical precedence shouldn’t change the correctness of a theory (at least not in the ideal
world ETS lives in)... X-this out.
(E) One recalls that there’s a difference between group and phase velocities. Could this difference
allow one of them to exceed the speed of light? Probably. In either case, this is a much better choice
than the other remaining candidate, choice (C). So, choose this.

Subject Type
Optics → Thin film
In order for the thin film layer to be non-reflecting, it must cancel the reflected wavelengths—as in
a destructive interference. The change in wavelengths is ∆λ = λ − λ/2 = λ/2, since the wave changes
phase by π at the interface between air and the coating, and changes phase again at the second
interface between coating and glass. (Assume that nair < ncoating < nglass .) Destructive interference
is thus given by a half-integer wavelength change mλ/2, where the smallest change is λ/2.
The change in wavelength occurs over twice the thickness t of the coating, thus
2t = ∆λ = λ/2. (82)
This implies that t = λ/4, as in choice (A).

Subject Type
Optics → Polarizers
One might remember the result from optics that the maximum fraction incident between three
polarizers with the first and third orthogonal to each other is 1/8. Or, if not, one can derive it rather
quickly:
Suppose the incident intensity of the light (before going through any polarizers) is I.
Light going through the first polarizer has the intensity I1 = I/2.
Light going through the second polarizer has the intensity I2 = I1 cos2 φ = I/2 cos2 φ. (φ is the
angle between the polarizer and the light.)
Light going through the third polarizer has the intensity I3 = I2 cos2 θ = I/2 cos2 φ cos2 θ. (θ is
the angle between the polarizer and the light.)
2005
GR8677 Solutions 25
In order for the intensity I3 to be max, one can take the derivative with respect to either θ or φ.
Knowing a priori that the first and third polarizers are orthogonal (at 90 degree angles) to each other,
one can rewrite either φ or θ in terms of the other. So, φ = π/2 − θ, and thus,
I3 = I/2 cos2 (π/2 − θ) cos2 (θ) = I/2 sin2 θ cos2 θ = I/4 sin(2θ). (83)
The the derivative to find the maximum, dI dθ = I/2 cos(2θ) = 0. One finds that 2θ = π/2 ⇒ θ =
3
π/4. This implies that Plug in θ to get I3 = 1/8.

Subject Type
Mechanics → Kepler’s Third Law
One recalls (or should memorize now) the famous slogan: The square of the period is proportional
to the cube of the distance. In equation form,
T 2 = kd3 (84)
One does not need to know the proportionality factor to solve this problem. In fact, the problem
gives T = 80 minutes at d = Re . Thus, 802 = kRe3 ⇒ k = 802 minutes/Re3 .
There are 24 × 60 minutes in 24 hours. Plug that into the equation (and the relation for k as
determined above) to get,
(24 × 60)2 = 802 /Re3 d3 ⇒ d = (24 × 6/8)2/3 Re (85)
No calculators allowed, so (182 )1/3 is about 4001/3 , which is closest to 7, as in choice (B).

Subject Type
Mechanics → Conservation of Energy
Recall the formula for inertia I = dmr2 . A hoop has constant r = R, thus the integral is trivial
R
and Ihoop = M R2 . One can break up the kinetic energy into the pure rolling (about center of mass)
and pure translation bit,
1 2 1
M gh =Iω + M v 2 (86)
2 2
1 1
= M R ω + M v2
2 2
(87)
2 2
M gh = M R2 ω 2 (88)
gh = R2 ω 2 (89)
r
gh
⇒ ω= , (90)
R2
where one recalls that v = Rω.
Plug
q the value√of angular velocity ω into the equation for angular momentum L = Iω, to get
2 gh
MR R2 = M R gh, as in choice (A).

Subject Type
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Wave Phenomenon → Wave Equation

The problem gives the equation of motion
k k
mẍ = −kx ⇒ ẍ = − m x = −ω 2 x, where ω 2 = m .
The general equation for a wave propagating in time and oscillating in the x direction is x(t) =
A sin(ωt + φ). (A is the amplitude, ω is the angular frequency and φ is some phase constant.)
This is also the general solution to the differential equation posed above.
Plug in the condition (given by the problem) that
x(t) = A/2 = A sin(ωt + φ) to get 1/2 = sin(ωt + φ). Recalling the unit circle, the angle
ωt + φ = π/6.
Plug in the argument into the velocity √ √
ẋ = ωA cos(ωt + φ) = ωA cos(π/6) = ωA 3/2. Recall that ω = 2πf , and thus ẋ = πf A 3, as in
choice (B).

Subject Type
Mechanics → Conservation of energy
There isn’t much to say about this problem other than the fact that it’s a conceptual conservation
of energy problem. Particle 1 moves at velocity v towards particle 2, initially at rest. EM-potential
energy increases as they get closer and closer together—but, energy should still be conserved since no
energy is radiated. The potential energy increase comes from the initial kinetic energy of particle 1.
Take choice (C). (The other choices are all either too weird or just plain bogus.)

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Field Lines
The Maxwell Equation that states “No monopoles” requires that the divergence of the magnetic
~ = 0. The problem asks for fields that violate this condition, so the
field be 0, or more elegantly, ∇ · B
~
condition to look for now is ∇ · B 6= 0.
(A) B~ = ±Const ... divergence is 0
(B) B~ = ±Const ... divergence is 0
(C) this does not explicitly require the divergence to be 0.
(D) this is a non-zero divergence, as the field lines diverge outwards from a source.
~ 6= 0... doesn’t necessarily state anything about ∇ · B
(E) this is ∇ × B ~

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Gauss Law
~ = ρ. For fields that contain no charges, the
Recall the differential form of Gauss’ Law ∇ · E
~
equation becomes ∇ · E = 0. Find the choice with 0 divergence.
(A) A(2y − x) 6= 0
(B) A(−x + x) = 0 ... so this is it!
(C) A(z) 6= 0
(D) A(yz + xz) 6= 0
(E) Ayz 6= 0
2005
GR8677 Solutions 27

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Faraday’s Law
Recall Faraday’s Law,
dΦ
V =− , (91)
dt
where Φ = B ~ · dA.
~
~ = µ0 I , where r is the radius
The magnetic field at the center of a loop of current-carrying wire is B 2r
of the loop. (If one forgot this, one can remember it from Ampere’s Law.) The magnetic field of the
outer loop induces an electric field in the inner loop. The outer loop’s B field is B ~ = µ0 I .
2b
The area of the inner loop stays constant at πa . Thus the flux through it is Φ = µ2b
2 0I
πa2 .
The larger loop carries an ac current, given by I = I0 cos ωt. Thus,
dΦ µ0 I0 ω 2
| |= πa sin ωt, (92)
dt 2b
as in choice (B).

Subject Type
Atomic → Emission Lines
(A) The Stern-Gerlach effect has to do with splitting of beams of atoms sent through an inho-
mogenous magnetic field. Does not have to do with emission spectrum.
(B) The Stark effect has to do with energy shifts via placing atom(s) in an Electric field.
(C) Splitting is often due to electron spin magnetic moments.
(D) The condition is much too rigid.
(E) Splitting of energies means more lines than before. This choice is general enough to be true.
(The effect of energy shifts due to placing an atom in a magnetic field is called the Zeeman Effect,
which isn’t listed.)

Subject Type
Atomic → Spectral Line
The less dense a gas is, the more precise (thin) its emission lines. So, when one has a dense gas,
one expects the spectral lines to be broader—as in choice (C).

Subject Type
Atomic → Spectroscopic Notation
Given the order in which energy levels are filled in atomic configuration 1s2s2p3s3p4s3d and the
number of electrons in sodium, one can fill it up like 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 . There is a net spin from the missing
electron in the 3s valance shell, and thus S = 1/2. The valance 3s shell has l = 0 (and L = S), since
s = 0; p = 1; d = 2; f = 3. J = l + S = 1/2. Thus, the form should be 2(1/2)+1 S1/2 =2 S1/2
2005
GR8677 Solutions 28
Not even knowing anything about spectroscopic notation, one can deduce the right answer as
well as the general form: 2S+1 (L)J=l+S , where L can be either S, P, D, F... depending on whether
l = 0, 1, 2, 3...

Subject Type
Advanced Topics → Nuclear Physics
Pair production only occurs above a certain energy on the order of MeV. Thus, all except choices
(B) and (C) remain.
The photoelectric effect is dominant for low energies, so its cross-section must be line (1). Choose
choice (B).

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Coulomb’s Law
(Better classified as the Cavendish-Maxwell Experiment to determine the exponent in Coulomb’s
Law.)
One wonders why the common sense (and much too trivial) answer, choice (D), isn’t right. In
searching through one’s lower level textbook, one would find accounts of Cavendish’s Torsion exper-
iment, which seems to also support choice (D). However, reading up on papers, one finds that the
precise determination of the exponent is actually done via a whole different method... which although
is an experimental technique, actually serves to illuminate the necessity of the inverse square law—and
thus, this problem is not classified as a Lab Technique problem.
Charge up a conducting shell. Put a charge inside, distinctly asymmetrically far from the center
but not touching the outer shell. One finds that the charge will not move.
This suggests that the field is 0.
Suppose that the field contribution to the test charge can be broken down into two unequal parts,
set apart by a plane through the test-charge. E~ ∝ dS1 /rn − dS2 /rn . Substituting the solid angle
1 2
2
dΩ = dS cos θ/r , one finds that E ~ ∝ dΩ 1
− 1
. Since the field vanishes for any r1 , r2 , one
cos θ r n−2 r n−2
1 2
deduces that n → 2.
For other and more modern methods, see page 95ff, especially page 100 of http : //yosunism.com/inverseSquare.pdf

Subject Type
Statistical Mechanics → Diatomic Molecules
Vibrational energy of a diatomic molecule goes to 0 at low temperatures. Thus, the springy
dumbbell would be approximately a rigid dumbbell at a low-enough temperature. The other choices
are too specific, and thus (E), the most general, must be it.

Subject Type
Statistical Mechanics → Pressure
2005
GR8677 Solutions 29
Recall the following results for low temperatures,
Pboson ∝ T 5/2 Pf ermion ∝ TF ≈ big Pclassical ∝ T, (93)
where one realizes that the Fermi temperature, TF tends to be on the order of thousands for most
material, and that the low temperature regime temperatures are definitely far less than the Fermi
temperature; one thus has PF > PB , PC . Moreover, classical effects occur at around T = 300K, while
the problem specifies the temperature domain for bosons to be far lower than that, thus one deduces
that PB < PC . Therefore, PF > PC > PB .

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Identical Particles
According to Griffiths, the proof to this rule comes from QFT,
1
ψ = √ (ψα (x1 )ψβ (x2 ) ± ψβ (x1 )ψα (x2 )) , (94)
2
where it’s + for bosons and − for fermions.
The given identical particle wave function contains a plus sign, so the particles must be bosons.
Bosons have integer spin (while fermions have half-integer spin). Electrons, protons, and neutrons are
all fermions. A positron is just a positive electron, so that is presumably, also, a fermion. Thus, the
remaining choice would be deuteron—which is a boson.

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Particle in a Box
The particle is in an infinite well (or box, if you will) of length 2a. (It’s stuck forever bouncing
around between the two walls.)
The number of nodes in the wave function determines the energy level. In this case, there is one
load, thus this is E2 . The lowest state would be E1
En = kn2 eV for particle in a box. Given that E2 = 2 = 4k, one determines k = 1/2 eV. Thus,
E1 = k = 1/2 eV. The answer is thus (C).

Subject Type
Optics → Bragg Reflection
Bragg diffraction is basically the wavelength change of a wave impinging two adjacent layers of
the crystal. More specifically, it relates the wavelength difference of the incident wave on the top
layer to that of the reflected wave on the lower layer. The distance between layers (“lattice planes”,
in Solid-State-Speak) is d, and the angle of incidence is θ. The change in wavelength is thus a simple
geometry problem, the result being the celebrated Bragg Reflection Relation,
2d sin θ = nλ, (95)
where n corresponds to the order of the reflection.
2005
GR8677 Solutions 30
The problem supplies the following numbers
n=1 (96)
d = 3E − 10 (97)
θ = 30◦ (98)
me ≈ 10E − 31, (99)
and if one recalls the de Broglie relation, p = h/λ, one has, in general, nλ = nh/mv = 2d sin θ.
6E−34
Plugging in some numbers, one finds that 10E−31v = 3E − 10, since sin 30◦ = 1/2, and where
the approximation scheme to battle the no-calculators-allow requirement is shown. Thus, one has
v = 0.25E7, which is very close to choice (D).
The problem .

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Perturbation Theory
One can derive the selection rules by applying the electric dipole approximation in time-dependent
perturbation theory. The results are the following: ∆m = 0, ±1, ∆l = ±1. Choices (B) and (C) are
(exactly this, thus) immediately out. There is no selection rule for spin, and thus choice (D) is it.
(The correction is due to user snim1.)

Subject Type
Mechanics → Power
Recall the following basic formulas, P = IV = F v, where P is power, I is current, V is voltage,
W orkdone
F is force, and v is velocity. e = W orkinput , where e is the efficiency, which relates work (and thus
power).
The problem gives e = 1, F = µN = 100µ, v = 10, I = 9, V = 120—where all units are SI.
IV 9∗120
Thus e = 1 ⇒ Pdone = Pinput ⇒ µN v = IV . Solve for µ = N v = 100∗10 = 108/100 ≈ 1.1, as in
choice (D).

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → LR Circuit
Once the switch S is closed, although the initial current through the inductor is 0, the change in
current through it is maximal. Recalling that V = −LI, ˙ one realizes that the voltage across A must
be non-zero at the start. Thus, plots (C), (D), and (E) are eliminated.
Now, one must decide between choices (A) and (B). Once the circuit reaches equilibrium, i.e., the
elements reach their asymptotic values. Specifically, the voltage at A goes to 0, since the inductor
has no potential difference across it (to wit I˙ = 0). Once the switch is opened, the current suddenly
changes, and I˙ 6= 0, thus the inductor has a voltage across it, and the voltage at A becomes nonzero.
Because of the diode, this would necessarily have to be a negative voltage. Since there is only R2 to
dissipate the voltage, the magnitude of the voltage once the switch is opened should be bigger than
that initially, when the switch is closed at t0 . Choose (B).
2005
GR8677 Solutions 31

Subject Type
Thermodynamics → Carnot Cycle
The Carnot cycle is the cycle of the most efficient engine, which does NOT have e = 1 (unless
T1 = 0), but rather, dS = 0—this means that entropy stays constant. Choice (C) is thus false.
The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is dependent on the temperature of the hot and cold reservoir.
The hot reservoir has decreasing entropy because it gets cooler as the cycle proceeds. From writing
down the thermodynamic relations for isothermal and adiabatic paths and matching P-V boundary
conditions, one can determine that Q1 /Q2 = T1 /T2 . The efficiency is thus e = Q2Q−Q
2
1
= 1 − Q1 /12 =
1 − T1 /T2 .

Subject Type
Quantum Mechanics → Perturbation
Technically, one can solve this problem without knowing anything about perturbation theory. Just
remember the useful fact that the eigenfunctions of the unperturbed infinite deep well form a complete
set (or complete basis). This means that any function can be represented by the old unperturbed
infinite deep well. Thus, the solution to the perturbed eigenfunction should look like ψ00 = n a0n ψn .
P
Also, since the perturbed potential is also symmetrical with respect to the origin (as the original
unperturbed potential was, too), one knows that all the odd terms should go to 0. This leaves choice
(B).

Subject Type
Mechanics → Conservation of Angular Momentum
The rotational part of the angular momentum is L = I ω~0 . The translational part of the angular
momentum is Lv0 = m~r × v~0 . (Note that, according to the diagram, this cross-product points in the
other direction to the angular velocity.)
Initially, the angular momentum about the point P is L = 12 M R2 ω0 − Lv0 = 0, since v0 = 21 R2 ω02
and L~v0 = ~r × p~ = −RM v0 = − 12 M ω0 R2 . QED.

Subject Type
Electromagnetism → Potential
R 2l dx
Recall that V = dq
R
x = k l λ x = kλ ln 2, where λ = Q/l is your usual linear charge density.

Subject Type
Atomic → Positronium
2005
GR8677 Solutions 32
Interestingly, this is almost an exact repeat of Exam 9677 Prob 12. The reasoning’s the same:
The positronium atom involves a positron-electron combination instead of the usual proton-electron
combo for the H atom. Charge remains the same, and thus one can approximate its eigenvalue by
changing the mass of the Rydberg energy (recall that the ground state of the Hydrogen atom is 1
Rydberg).
Recall the reduced mass µ = mm11+m m2
2
, where for identical masses, one obtains µ = m/2. The

Rydberg in the regular Hydrogen energy eigenvalue formula E = R 1/n2f − 1/n2i is R ∝ µ, where
µ → µ/2. Substitute in the new value of the reduced mass to get E ≈ R/2. R = −13.6 eV, and thus
E ≈ −6.8 eV.

Subject Type
Optics → Diffraction
The key equation involved is the (Fraunhoffer) diffraction equation, sin θ = λ/d, where the obvious
quantities are used.
For small angle, the equation simplifies to θ ≈ λ/d.
The blur would be due to both the size of the hole and the diffraction. The arclength of the
diffraction is approximated by d2 = D(2θ) = 2Dλ/d, where the factor of 2 comes from the fact that
the arclength angle is symmetrical about the diffraction axis, thus twice the diffraction angle. Define
a blur equation D0 = d + d2 = d + 2Dλ/d. Take the first derivative,
√ √with respect to the pinhole
diameter, set it to 0, to get dD0 /dd = 1 − 2Dλ/d2 = 0 ⇒ d = 2Dλ ≈ Dλ, as in choice (A).
This solution is due to:
http://www.exo.net/~pauld/summer_institute
/summer_day3eye_and_brain/pinhole_optimum_size.html
2005

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GR8677 Solutions

Detailed Solutions to the GRE Physics Exam

Problem 1 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =1

mẍ = −k ẋ − mg. (1)

Problem 2 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =2

Problem 3 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =3

Problem 4 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =4

Problem 5 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =5

Problem 6 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =6

Problem 7 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =7

Fx = 0 = F − T sin(θ) ⇒ T sin(θ) = F (2)

Fy = 0 = T cos(θ) − mg ⇒ T cos(θ) = mg (3)

Problem 8 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =8

Problem 9 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =9

which is closest to choice D.

Problem 10 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =10

Problem 11 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =11

Problem 12 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =12

Problem 13 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =13

Problem 14 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =14

Problem 15 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =15

Problem 16 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =16

Problem 17 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =17

XZA → XZA → +γ (14)

Deuteron Decay (rare):

Problem 18 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =18

Problem 19 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =19

Problem 20 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =20

γ(β = 0.1) = 1.005 (16)

, or perhaps a more elaborate list of γ − β correlations.

Problem 21 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =21

Problem 22 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =22

for motion in the x direction.

Problem 23 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =23

Problem 24 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =24

Problem 25 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =25

Problem 26 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =26

Problem 27 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =27

Problem 28 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =28

where the condition |eimφ |2 = eimφ e−imφ = 1 is used.

Problem 29 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =29

Problem 30 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =30

Problem 31 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =31

Problem 32 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =32

Problem 33 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =33

Problem 34 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =34

Problem 35 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =35

Problem 36 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =36

Problem 37 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =37

Solve for T above to get,

Find the magnitude of T and use the Pythagorean theorem,

and thus (E) is the right answer.

Problem 38 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =38

Problem 39 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =39

Problem 40 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =40

Problem 41 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =41

Problem 42 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =42

Problem 43 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =43

Problem 44 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =44

Problem 45 http : //grephysics.net/disp.php?yload = prob&serial = 1&prob =45

The charge density for a grounded conducting plane is given by ρ = −0 ∂V