This document discusses various cardiovascular drugs and their uses, mechanisms of action, contraindications, and nursing considerations. Some key points:
1) Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window and the elderly are most at risk for toxicity. Therapeutic levels are 0.5-2.0 ng/mL and signs of toxicity include blurred vision.
2) Milrinone is used for CHF and acts by increasing cardiac output and renal perfusion. Before administration, the nurse must assess cardiovascular status and review other medications.
3) Class IA antiarrhythmics have little effect on the Purkinje fibers and quinidine is first-line for treating ventricular ectopy.
4) Dr
This document discusses various cardiovascular drugs and their uses, mechanisms of action, contraindications, and nursing considerations. Some key points:
1) Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window and the elderly are most at risk for toxicity. Therapeutic levels are 0.5-2.0 ng/mL and signs of toxicity include blurred vision.
2) Milrinone is used for CHF and acts by increasing cardiac output and renal perfusion. Before administration, the nurse must assess cardiovascular status and review other medications.
3) Class IA antiarrhythmics have little effect on the Purkinje fibers and quinidine is first-line for treating ventricular ectopy.
4) Dr
This document discusses various cardiovascular drugs and their uses, mechanisms of action, contraindications, and nursing considerations. Some key points:
1) Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window and the elderly are most at risk for toxicity. Therapeutic levels are 0.5-2.0 ng/mL and signs of toxicity include blurred vision.
2) Milrinone is used for CHF and acts by increasing cardiac output and renal perfusion. Before administration, the nurse must assess cardiovascular status and review other medications.
3) Class IA antiarrhythmics have little effect on the Purkinje fibers and quinidine is first-line for treating ventricular ectopy.
4) Dr
This document discusses various cardiovascular drugs and their uses, mechanisms of action, contraindications, and nursing considerations. Some key points:
1) Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window and the elderly are most at risk for toxicity. Therapeutic levels are 0.5-2.0 ng/mL and signs of toxicity include blurred vision.
2) Milrinone is used for CHF and acts by increasing cardiac output and renal perfusion. Before administration, the nurse must assess cardiovascular status and review other medications.
3) Class IA antiarrhythmics have little effect on the Purkinje fibers and quinidine is first-line for treating ventricular ectopy.
4) Dr
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online from Scribd
Download as docx, pdf, or txt
You are on page 1of 12
CARDIOVASCULAR DRUGS AND d.
Increasing cardiac output and
MEDICATIONS PHARMACOLOGY enhancing renal perfusion. QUIZ Before giving milrinone (Primacor) by an IV Which of the following clients is at greatest infusion to a client with symptoms of CHF, risk for digitalis toxicity? which of the following nursing actions is necessary? a. A 25-year-old client with congenital heart disease. a. Record sodium level. b. A 50-year-old client with CHF. b. Administer loading dose over 15 c. A 60-year-old client after myocardial minutes. infarction. c. Assess CV status. d. An 80-year-old client with CHF. d. Review medication regimen to identify if the client is on IV Which of the following is a contraindication furosemide (Lasix). for digoxin administration? Johanna has ventricular ectopy, which of the a. Blood pressure of 140/90. following drugs is the first line used to treat b. Heart rate above 80. her condition? c. Heart rate below 60. d. Respiratory rate above 20. a. Quinidine (Cardioquin) b. Digoxin (Lanoxin) The action of medication is inotropic when c. Procrainamide (Pronestyl) it: d. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) a. Decreased afterload. Class IA antiarrhythmic agents have little b. Increases heart rate. effect on: c. Increases the force of contraction. d. Is used to treat CHF. a. AV node b. SA node Which is the most appropriate action for the c. Purkinje fibers nurse to take before administering digoxin? d. Bundle of His a. Monitor potassium level. Which of the following drugs can cause b. Assess blood pressure. severe hematologic disorders? c. Evaluate urinary output. d. Avoid giving with thiazide diuretic. a. digoxin (Lanoxin) b. quinidine (Cardioquin) The therapeutic drug level for digoxin is: c. disopyramide (Norpace) a. 0.1-2.0 ng/mg d. procainamide (Pronestyl)
b. 1.0-2.0 ng/mg Which of the following ECG findings alerts
the nurse that the client needs an c. 0.1-0.5 ng/mg antiarrhythmic? d. 0.5-2.0 ng/mg a. Normal sinus rhythm Blurred vision or halos are signs of: b. Sinus bradycardia c. Sinus arrhythmia a. Digoxin levels. d. Frequent ventricular ectopy b. Digoxin toxicity. c. Nothing related to digoxin. When administering an antiarrhythmic d. Corneal side effects of digoxin. agent, which of the following assessment parameters is the most important for the Amrinone (Inocor) is used for short term nurse to evaluate? therapy for CHF and acts by which of the following mechanisms? a. ECG b. Pulse rate a. Increasing stroke volume and heart c. Respiratory rate rate. d. Blood pressure b. Slowing ventricular rate and increasing cardiac output. Which of the following blood tests will tell c. Vasodilating and increasing the nurse that an adequate amount of drug is peripheral vascular resistance. present in the blood to prevent arrhythmias? a. Serum chemistries c. The drug cannot be directly mixed in b. Complete blood counts solutions containing bicarbonate or c. Drug levels aminophylline. d. None of the above d. The lowest dose to produce the desired effect should be used. Which of the following drugs should be used only in situations in which the client can be Dobutamine (Dobutrex) improves cardiac very closely monitored, such as a critical output and is indicated for use in all of the care unit? following conditions except: a. bretylium (Bretylol) a. Septic shock b. digoxin (Lanoxin) b. Congestive heart failure c. quinidine (Cardioquin) c. Arrhythmias d. inderal (Propranolol) d. Pulmonary congestion The toxic antiarrhythmic agent is: Conduction defects will most likely be an adverse associated with the use of: a. digoxin (Lanoxin). b. lidocaine (Xylocaine). a. verapamil (Isoptin) c. amiodarone (Cordarone). b. nifedipine (Adalat CC) d. quinidine (Cardioquin). c. diltiazem (Cardizem) d. felodipine (Plendil) Epinephrine is used to treat cardiac arrest and status asthmaticus because of which of Which of the following calcium channel the following actions? blockers has the most potent peripheral smooth muscle dilator effect? a. Increased speed of conduction and gluconeogenesis. a. diltiazem (Cardizem) b. Bronchodilation and increased heart b. nifedipine (Adalat CC) rate, contractility, and conduction. c. nimodipine (Nymalize) c. Increased vasodilation and enhanced d. verapamil (Calan) myocardial contractility. Which of the following adverse reactions is d. Bronchoconstriction and increased found more often in volume-depleted elderly heart rate. clients? Following (Levophed) administration, it is a. Bradycardia essential to the nurse to assess: b. Conduction defects a. Electrolyte status. c. Ankle edema b. Color and temperature of toes and d. Hypotension fingers. Which of the following calcium channel c. Capillary refill. blockers is used to counteract or prevent d. Ventricular arrhythmias cerebral vasospasm? Norepinephrine (Levophed) is a. Verapamil contraindicated in which of the following b. Nimodipine conditions? c. Nifedipine a. Hypovolemic shock. d. Felodipine b. Neurogenic shock. Which of the following effects of calcium c. Blood pressures above 80-100 channel blockers causes a reduction in blood mmHg (systolic). pressure? d. Decreased renal perfusion. a. Increased cardiac output. When administering dopamine (Intropin), it b. Decreased peripheral vascular is most important for the nurse to know that: resistance. a. The drug's action varies according to c. Decreased renal blood flow. the dose. d. Calcium influx into cardiac muscles. b. The drug may be used instead of Jason James is taking ß blockers, all of the fluid replacement. following should be included in his assessment except: a. Pulmonary function tests c. Reduced mortality b. Baseline ECG d. Reduced morbidity c. Glucose level When teaching about nitrate administration, d. Blood pressure the nurse should instruct the client to: Routine laboratory monitoring in clients a. Change position slowly. taking ß blockers should include: b. Take a pulse daily. a. Sodium c. Reduce salt intake. b. Glucose d. Chew the sustained-release tablets. c. Thyrotropin ACEs participate in the renin-angiotensin- d. Creatine phosphokinase aldosterone system to have which of the Competitive antagonism of which of the following physiologic effects? following occurs at ß receptor sites? a. Inhibit conversion of angiotensin II to a. Catecholamines angiotensin I. b. Adrenergic sites b. Vasoconstriction and sodium depletion. c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine c. Promote sodium and water retention. ß blockers should be avoided in which of the d. Stimulate vasodilation and inhibit sodium following conditions? depletion. a. Bronchoconstriction Nurse Margie just administered an ACE b. Hypertension inhibitor to her client. Before ambulating the c. Angina client for the first time after administration, d. Myocardial infarction the nurse should monitor for: As a knowledgeable nurse, you know that a. Hypokalemia the action of nitrates is: b. Irregular heartbeat c. Edema a. Smooth muscle contraction d. Hypotension b. Vasoconstriction c. Smooth muscle relaxation Mira is managing her hypertension with an d. Increase preload ACE inhibitor. Which of the following statements stated by her indicates a need for A 50-year-old client is prescribed to take further instruction? nitrate each day for his condition. As a competent nurse, you know the result of a. "I should not take my pills with nitrate administration is: food." b. "I need to increase my intake of a. Decreased myocardial oxygen orange juice, bananas, and green demand. vegetables. b. Increased myocardial oxygen c. "I will avoid coffee, tea, and colas." demand. d. "I will use salt substitutes that are not c. Increased left ventricular end- high in potassium." diastolic volume. d. Increased atrial pressure. Pepito is a hypertensive client who has been placed on captopril (Capoten). He states, A student nurse is asked to give an example “Dr. del Mundo keeps changing my pills and of a long-acting nitrate. He is correct by none are working. I feel like a guinea pig.” saying: Which of the following responses by the a. Nitroglycerin sublingual nurse would be most appropriate? b. Nitroglycerin IV a. "It often takes a while before the c. Isosorbide PO right medication is found." d. Nitroglycerin transmucosal b. "The doctor is just trying to help you When nitrates are administered early to the control your blood pressure." acute MI client, the effect is: c. "The action of this drug is to work on both the arteries and to remove a. Hypotension excess fluids." b. Bradycardia d. "This drug is used when other drugs A clinical instructor asks a nursing student have failed." about an aldosterone antagonist. The student is correct by saying that aldosterone The action of an ACE inhibitor interrupts the antagonists: renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism, thereby producing which of the following? a. Create an osmotic gradient. b. Inhibit the exchange of sodium for a. Reduced renal blood flow. potassium. b. Reduced sodium and water c. Cause metabolic acidosis. excretion. d. Work poorly in the presence of c. Increased peripheral vascular endogenous aldosterone. resistance. d. Increased sodium excretion and Which of the following is a potential side potassium reabsorption. effect of IV furosemide (Lasix)? Raymund is reviewing cardiovascular drugs a. Drowsiness for his upcoming exam. For a well-prepared b. Diarrhea student, he should know that vasodilators are c. Cystitis agents that: d. Hearing loss a. Relax smooth muscles. A 68-year-old client with a history of mild b. Are used to treat hypotension. CHF and glaucoma is receiving IV mannitol c. Stimulate the adrenergic receptors of (Osmitrol) to decrease intraocular pressure. peripheral sympathetic nerves. The nurse would monitor the client for signs d. Cause respiratory depression. and symptoms of: As a competent nurse, you are aware that a. Fluid volume excess. vasodilators are used mainly to treat: b. Fluid volume deficit. c. Hyperkalemia. a. Diabetes d. Hypernatremia. b. Hypertension c. Atrial fibrillation All potassium-sparing diuretics: d. Hypotension a. Are required supplements during The drug/drugs used most commonly to treat blood transfusion. peripheral or cerebral vascular obstructive b. Enhance aldosterone action. disease is/are: c. Cause hypokalemia. d. Are weak diuretics. a. pentoxifylline (Trental) b. cyclandelate (Cyclan) Which of the following clients is most likely c. isoxsuprine (Vasodilan) to experience adverse effects from treatment d. All of the above with diuretics? In a 50-year-old widower who had a a. A 21-year-old student transient ischemic attack, what is b. A 40-year-old unmarried man the most common vasodilator used for his c. A 60-year-old widower treatment? d. A 75-year-old man a. Norepinephrine Kylie is reviewing drugs related to b. dopamine (Intropin) cardiovascular therapies. She should be c. papaverine (Pavabid) aware that the desired action of lipid- d. nitroprusside (Nitropress) lowering agents is to: For a client taking drugs to treat peripheral a. Decrease high-density lipoprotein vascular disease, it is important to provide (HDL). health education about: b. Increase total cholesterol (TC). c. Increase low-density lipoprotein a. Smoking cessation. (LDL). b. Developing a proper balance d. Increase high-density lipoprotein between rest and activity. (HDL). c. Proper foot care. d. All of the above. For lipid-lowering agents to be successful, drug therapy must lower: a. HDL During the warfarin (Coumadin) b. LDL administration, the nurse can expect that the c. Total fat initial extension of PT occurs within how d. All of the above many hours after therapy begins? As a competent nurse, you know that the a. 1 to 2 most significant contraindication for therapy b. 4 to 6 with lipid-lowering agent is: c. 8 to 12 d. 12 to 24 a. Renal disease b. Diabetes A nurse is providing instructions to a client c. Liver disease who is receiving warfarin sodium d. Cardiac disease (Coumadin). Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further Which of the following vitamins may not be instruction? absorbed properly when giving bile acid sequestrants? a. "I will observe the color of my urine and stool". a. bVitamin B b. Vitamin C b. "I will take Ecotrin (Enteric-coated c. Vitamin B12 aspirin) for my headaches". d. Vitamin K c. "I will avoid drinking alcohol". Which of the following lipid-lowering "I will use a hair removing cream on my d. agents has the common side effect of legs". constipation? A nurse is caring for a client receiving a a. lovastatin (Mevacor) heparin intravenous (IV) infusion. The nurse b. colestipol (Colestid) expects that which of the following c. gemfibrozil (Lopid) laboratory will be prescribed to monitor the d. niacin (Nicotinic acid) therapeutic effect of heparin? Parenteral anticoagulants work by a. Prothrombin time (PT) disrupting: b. Activated partial thromboplastin time a. Formation of thromboplastin. (aPTT) b. Conversion of prothrombin to c. Hematocrit (Hgb) thrombin. d. Hemoglobin (Hct) c. Vitamin K-dependent clotting A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving a factors. continuous heparin infusion at 1,000 d. Conversion of prothrombin to fibrin. units/hr. The nurse observes that the client is SC heparin should be administered in the: receiving the therapeutic effect based on which of the following results? a. Flank b. Abdominal fat a. Activated partial thromboplastin time c. Leg of 30 seconds. d. Gluteal area b. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds. The half-life of heparin is: c. Activated partial thromboplastin time a. 10 minutes of 120 seconds. b. 1 to 1.5 hours d. Activated partial thromboplastin time c. 8 to 12 hours of 15 seconds. d. 1 to 2 days A client is receiving intravenous heparin Which drug is used to stop bleeding therapy. The nurse ensures the availability of associated with heparin overdose? which of the following medication?
a. urokinase (Abbokinase). a. acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
b. aminocaproic acid (Amicar). b. calcium gluconate (Calcium c. protamine sulfate (Protamine). gluconate) d. vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON). c. vitamin K (Mephyton) d. protamine sulfate (Protamine) A client is receiving a continuous infusion of b. Do a 12-lead electrocardiogram right streptokinase (Streptase). The client away. suddenly complains of a difficulty of c. Measure the heart rate on the rhythm breathing, itchiness, and nausea. Which of strip. the following should be the priority action of d. Give hydralazine (Apresoline) per the nurse? orem. a. Stop the infusion and notify the A client with myocardial infarction is physician. receiving tissue plasminogen activator, b. Administer protamine sulfate and alteplase (Activase, tPA). While on the provide oxygen therapy. therapy, the nurse plans to prioritize which c. Administer antihistamine then of the following? continue the infusion. a. Observe for neurological changes. d. Slow the infusion and administer b. Monitor for any signs of renal oxygen. failure. A client with deep vein thrombosis is c. Check the food diary. receiving Streptokinase (Streptase). The d. Observe for signs of bleeding nurse would notify the physician if which of A nurse is caring for a client who is taking the following assessments is noted? digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25mcg tab once a day. a. A temperature of 99.2° Fahrenheit. The client suddenly complaints of anorexia, b. A pulse rate of 99 beats per minute. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The c. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths per physician is ruling a digoxin toxicity. As a minute. nurse, you know the therapeutic digoxin rate d. A blood pressure of 185/110 mm Hg. is? A client who is receiving streptokinase a. 0.25-0.5 ng/ml therapy suddenly had a nosebleed. The nurse b. 0.5-2 ng/ml ensures the availability of which of the following medication? c. 1.5-3 ng/ml a. vitamin K (Mephyton) d. 3.5-4.5 ng/ml b. deferoxamine (Desferal) c. aminocaproic acid (Amicar) A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking d. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) carvedilol (Coreg CR). Which of the following assessment made by the nurse A nurse is providing health teachings would warrant a possible complication with regarding antiplatelet medications. Which of the use of this medication? the following is not true regarding the use of this medication? a. Baseline blood pressure of 160/100 mm hg followed by a blood pressure a. Antiplatelet medication inhibits the of 120/70 mm hg after 3 doses. aggregation of platelets in the b. Baseline heart rate of 97 bpm clotting process, thereby prolonging followed by a heart rate of 62 bpm bleeding time. after 3 doses. b. Antiplatelet medications cannot be c. Complaints of nightmares and used with anticoagulants. insomnia. c. Take the medication with food to d. Complaints of dyspnea. prevent gastrointestinal upset. d. A routine bleeding time is monitored A nurse is interviewing a client who is about during the therapy. to receive metoprolol. Upon the history taking, the client is also taking insulin. A client is receiving procainamide Which of the following statements made by (Procanbid) for the treatment of ventricular the nurse will correctly explain the possible arrhythmia. The client suddenly complains interaction of these medications? of nausea and drowsiness. Which of the intervention should the nurse do first? a. "This medication will maintain the blood sugar level on a normal a. Check the blood pressure and heart range". rate. b. "This medication will have no effect on blood sugar level". c. "This medication may mask some of a. "I should take aspirin 30 minutes before the symptoms of hypoglycemia such nicotinic acid". as tremor, palpitation, and rapid b. "I will drink alcohol in moderation". heartbeat. d. This medication may mask some of c. "Yellowing of the skin is a common side the symptoms of hyperglycemia such effect". as headache, increased thirst, and blurred vision". d. "This medication is taken on an empty stomach". A client is about to receive metolazone (Zaroxolyn). The nurse in charge A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking understands which of the following digoxin (Lanoxin). All of which are the side laboratory results are related to the effects associated with the administration of the medication? medication, except?
a. Hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia a. Anorexia
b. Blurred vision b. Hyperkalemia and hypoglycemia c. Diarrhea d. Tremors c. Hypouricemia and hypoglycemia A nurse is interviewing a patient who is d. Hypokalemia and hyperglycemia about to receive bumetanide (Bumex). A client with congestive heart failure is Which of the following is a concern related being treated with torsemide (Demadex). to the administration of the medication? The nurse obtains the following vital signs: a. Penicillin allergy Blood pressure of 100/65 mm hg; pulse rate b. Sulfa allergy of 91 beats per minute; and respiration of 25 c. Soy-containing allergy breaths per minute? Which of the following d. Cephalosporin allergy will be the priority assessment of the nurse after the initiation of the dose? A client arrives in the emergency with complaints of chest pain and is diagnosed a. Urine output with acute MI. A morphine 4mg IV was b. Serum potassium and calcium given 5 minutes ago. Which of the following assessments made by the nurse indicates a c. Blood pressure further immediate action? d. Weight a. Respiratory rate from 20 bpm to 12 A nurse is giving instruction to a client who bpm. is receiving cholestyramine (Questran) for b. Blood pressure from 120/70 to the treatment of hyperlipidemia. Which of 100/60 mmHg. the following statements made by the client c. The client still complains of chest indicates the need for further instructions? pain with a pain scale of 2/10. d. Cardiac rate of 103 bpm and a a. "This medication comes in a powder normal sinus rhythm of the ECG. that must be mixed with juice or water before administration". b. "I will avoid eating foods rich in PSYCHIATRIC DRUGS AND saturated fats". MEDICATIONS NURSING c. "I will take my Vitamin A 30 PHARMACOLOGY QUIZ minutes after cholestyramine". d. "Constipation, belching and A nurse provides instructions to a client heartburn are some of the side taking fluoxetine (Prozac) a selective effects". serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant. The nurse tells the client to A nurse is providing instructions to a client take the medication: who is on nicotinic acid for the treatment of hyperlipidemia. Which statement made by a. Early in the morning the nurse indicates a comprehension of the b. During lunch time instructions? c. At snack time d. At bedtime The risk of experiencing serotonin syndrome b. Dry skin when SSRIs are given with monoamine c. Dizziness oxidase inhibitors such as phenelzine d. Fever (Nardil). Serotonin syndrome is best A client with depression is taking phenelzine characterized in which of the following? (Nardil). The nurse advises the client to a. A productive cough and bradycardia avoid consuming which foods while taking b. Hypotension and urinary retention the medication c. Muscle rigidity and high fever a. Crackers d. Tea-colored urine and constipation b. Vegetable salad A client with depression who has been c. Oatmeal taking amitriptyline for three months returns d. Yogurt to the clinic for a follow-up. The nurse Patients taking MAOIs have the tendency to observes the client in which of the following experience hypertensive crisis especially symptoms? during an interaction with other drugs such a. Lack of energy as epinephrine. Which of the following is a b. Suicidal thoughts sign of hypertensive crisis? c. Loss of interest in personal a. Orthostatic hypotension appearance b. Diplopia d. Neglect of responsibilities c. Delay in ejaculation A client is prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). To d. Hair loss guarantee a safe administration of the During a hypertensive crisis, the nurse medication, a nurse would administer the makes sure which of this medicine is readily dose: available? a. As needed only for depressions a. Phentolamine b. Early in the morning b. Diazepam c. Take on an empty stomach c. Lithium citrate d. At bedtime d. Phenobarbital sodium A client arrives in the emergency room with A client taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid) a tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Which started complaining of nausea, vomiting, of the following measures should the nurse diarrhea, drowsiness, muscle weakness, do, except? tremor, blurred vision, and ringing in the a. Maintain a patent airway ears. The lithium level is 2 mEq/L. The b. Administration of sodium nurse interprets this value as: bicarbonate a. Normal level c. Gastric lavage with activated b. Toxic level charcoal c. Below normal level d. Obtain an electrocardiogram d. Above normal level e. Administration of an antipyretic A nurse is giving instructions to a client A newly admitted client has started taking receiving lithium citrate. The nurse tells the bupropion (Wellbutrin). The nurse monitors client to do which of the following to which of the following side effects would prevent lithium toxicity: indicate an overdosage of the medication? a. Avoid becoming dehydrated during a. Insomnia exercise. b. Dizziness b. Instruct the client to change positions c. Constipation slowly. d. Seizure c. Restrict salt intake in the diet. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a d. Limit fluid intake. client who is prescribed with isocarboxazid Which of the following symptoms is (Marplan). The nurse will tell the client to classified as a mild lithium toxicity: anticipate which of the following side effects of this medication? a. Confusion and ataxia b. Muscle fasciculations and oliguria a. Weight loss c. Tinnitus and blurred vision a. Feelings of panic, fear, and d. Apathy and Lethargy uneasiness b. Thought broadcasting or delusions A nurse is giving instructions to a client c. Paranoid and suicidal thought taking risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse processAlcohol withdrawal advises the client to do which of the symptoms following? A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a a. Take it on an empty stomach client who will be taking phenobarbital b. Change position slowly (Luminal). The nurse would educate the c. Get a daily source of sunlight client in which of the following directly d. Discontinue medication once the correlates with the safety of the client? symptoms went away a. Take the medication at the same time A nurse notes that a client with each day. schizophrenia and receiving an antipsychotic b. Take the medication with meals medication is having uncontrolled only. movement of the lips and tongue. The nurse c. Avoid using sleep aids while taking determines that the client is experiencing? the medication. a. Hypertensive crisis d. Decrease the dosage once with b. Parkinsonism symptoms of dizziness and c. Tardive dyskinesia lightheadedness. d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Which group of drugs mimics A client with schizophrenia has been started parasympathetic activity? on medication therapy with clozapine a. Cholinergic agents (Clozaril). A nurse assesses the results of b. Anticholinergic agents which laboratory study to monitor for c. Adrenergic agents adverse effects related to this medication? d. Antiadrenergic agents a. White blood cell Cholinergic agents are used to: b. Platelet count c. Liver function studies a. Produce miosis d. Random blood sugar b. Facilitate neuromuscular blockade c. Synergize neuromuscular blockers Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is prescribed to an d. Facilitate tricyclic activity 8-year-old child for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder Cholinergics are contraindicated in: (ADHD). The nurse will most likely monitor a. Tachycardia which of the following during the b. Hypothyroidism medication therapy? c. Hypotension a. Deep tendon reflex d. Asthma b. Intake and output Drugs that mimic sympathetic activity are c. Temperature and breath sound known as: Drugs that mimic sympathetic d. Height and weight activity are known as: Which of the following medications that a. Cholinergics treat Alzheimer’s disease causes slowing of b. Anticholinergics the heart rate and fainting episodes? c. Adrenergics a. tacrine (Cognex) d. Antiadrenergics b. galantamine (Razadyne) Which of the following metabolic effects c. donepezil (Aricept) may be a consequence of the administration d. All of the above of adrenergic agents? A client who has been taking buspirone a. Hypoglycemia (BuSpar) for two months returns to the clinic b. Metabolic acidosis for a follow-up. The nurse determines that c. Hyperglycemia the medication is effective if there is an d. Respiratory alkalosis absent display of? Adrenergic blockers are contraindicated in: When administering IV phenytoin (Dilantin), the nurse should: a. Hypertension b. Pheochromocytoma a. Administer it at a rate 100 mg/min. c. Migraines b. Protect the drug from light exposure. d. Obstructive airway disease c. Mix the drug in dextrose solution. d. Mix the drug in saline solution. A side effect of cholinergic administration is: When caring for a client who is receiving phenytoin and warfarin (Coumadin), the a. Nausea nurse would expect which of the following b. Diarrhea drug-drug interactions? c. Increase salivation d. All of the above a. Decreased effectiveness of warfarin b. Increased effectiveness of phenytoin Joseph is a child diagnosed with attention c. Increased effectiveness of warfarin. deficit disorder. Which of the following d. Decreased effectiveness of drugs is commonly used for his condition? phenytoin. a. methylphenidate (Ritalin) The client asks the nurse why he is taking b. diethylpropion (Nobesine) bromocriptine (Parlodel). The nurse’s reply c. phendimetrazine (Adipost) is based in the understanding that d. caffeine bromocriptine mimics the effects of Amphetamines are included in the category dopamine by: of drugs of abuse because of their ability to: a. Decreasing dopamine levels in the a. Cause nervousness brain. b. Decrease weight b. Decreasing the storage of dopamine c. Raise blood pressure peripherally. d. Enhance performance c. Activating dopamine receptors in the brain. The nurse would monitor for decreased d. Inhibiting monoamine oxidase type effect of amphetamines when these drugs B. are given with: Before administering amantadine a. Caffeine (Symadine), the nurse should investigate b. Antidiabetic agents which of the following client statements? c. Tricyclic antidepressants d. All of the above a. "My hands are always shaking." b. "I had to take Dilantin 6 months As a knowledgeable nurse, you know that ago." you should never give amphetamines in c. "I take low-dose enteric aspirin each combination with: day." a. Oral hypoglycemic d. "Simple tasks seem to take so long to b. Insulin perform." c. MAO inhibitors The priority nursing intervention for a client d. Antihypertensives receiving amantadine is to teach the client Use of methylphenidate for attention deficit to: disorders in children can result in: a. Monitor the pulse for rate and a. Tourette's syndrome regularity. b. Growth suppression b. Take the last dose of medication at c. Growth spurt bedtime. d. A and B c. Inspect the skin for erythematous rash. d. Stop taking the drug if the mouth Amphetamines and amphetamine-like becomes dry. compounds are most commonly used for: Which of the following assessments a. Narcolepsy is most essential before beginning a drug b. Attention deficit disorder regimen of an antimuscarinic agent? c. Exogenous obesity d. All of the above a. Date of birth b. Ethnic background c. Administer the TCA as ordered, and c. History of diabetes monitor for visual changes. d. Activity intolerance d. Inform the physician of the client's history before administering the The nurse evaluates that carbidopa and TCA. levodopa (Sinemet) is therapeutically effective if the client has: Antipsychotic drugs are indicated: a. Decreased GI responses a. For the treatment of Tourette's b. Increased tolerance to pyridoxine syndrome c. Decreased tremors at rest b. For the treatment of major d. Increased urinary output depression c. As an adjunct in the management of For which of the following medical seizures conditions would the nurse anticipate that an d. To cure psychotic disorders antianxiety agent would not be indicated? Sheila who has been on a low-potency a. Seizure disorders antipsychotic for 2 weeks has shown b. Alcohol detoxification minimal response. The most probable c. Parkinson's disease explanation is: d. Panic disorder a. The client probably has refractory When administering antianxiety medications illness to an elderly client, which of the following b. The client needs a stronger actions by the nurse is essential? medication a. Monitor vital signs c. It is too early to see a full therapeutic b. Suggest reduced doses response c. Taper dose before stopping d. The client is definitely not taking the d. Implement a fall prevention protocol medication
When monitoring a client who is taking Ansherina who is receiving a traditional
benzodiazepines, the nurse should be alert antipsychotic agent complains that she is for which CNS side effects? gaining weight. The nurse would:
a. Blurred vision, anorexia, dysarthria a. Be aware that this is probably
b. Seizures, tremors, diaphoresis delusional thinking because these c. Ataxia, sedation, dizziness agents cause weight loss. d. Libido changes, edema, dystonia b. Encourage the client to follow a healthy diet and use diet soda to help Antidepressants generally exert influence stabilize her weight. by: c. Discuss a switch to a high-potency a. Increasing the reuptake of agent so the weight gain will not be a norepinephrine problem. b. Altering the action of the d. Establish a contract with the client to cyproprotein (MAO) carefully follow her high-calorie diet c. Changing the availability of Drugs classified as centrally acting skeletal dopamine muscle relaxants are most effective in d. Changing the availability of select relieving: neurotransmitters a. Spasm due to trauma or The nurse performs an initial assessment and inflammation nursing history with a client admitted for a b. Chronic spasm due to old injury major depression. The client has a history of c. Pain from arthritis narrow-angle glaucoma. The d. Surgical complications nurse’s best action would be to: Peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants a. Encourage the client to use his or her are used: own eye drops until the drops can be ordered. a. To treat neuromuscular diseases b. Administer the TCA as orders, and b. To treat spinal trauma expect an ophthalmology consult. c. To relieve spasms from trauma d. As adjuncts to general anesthesia