SOIL SCIENCE

Section 1. Soil Development

1. It is a natural dynamic body on the surface of the earth which supports plants and
animals
a. soil b. Land
c. Minerals d. Air

2. It is primarily derived from plants and animal residues composed of at least 12%
organic carbon if the soil has no clay or at least 18% organic carbon if the soil has 60%
or more clay.
a. Organic soil b. Minerals
c. Pore spaces d. Soil water

3. It is derived from weathering of rocks and minerals and has definite composition and
properties.
a. Organic matter b. Inorganic soil
c. Pore spaces d. Air

4. It is the component of the soil which accommodates air and water

a. Organic matter b. Inorganic soil
c. Pore spaces d. Air

5. The soil air is composed primarily of

a. nitrogen, oxygen & carbon dioxide b. nitrogen phosphorus and potassium
c. nitrogen, calcium and magnesium d. nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen

6. The main composition of the solid phase of inorganic matter are

a. sand, silt & clay b. sand, gravel and clay
c. sand, air and water d. rocks and minerals

7. It is the mode of origin of the soil with special reference to the processes of soil
forming factors responsible for the development of the solum or true soil from the
unconsolidated parent material.
a. Soil genesis b. Soil development
c. Soil profile d. orogenesis

8. It is the mechanical breakdown of rocks and minerals into smaller bits or the
unconsolidated materials.
a. Physical weathering b. Chemical weathering
c. Exfoliation d. Abrasion

9. It is the decomposition of rocks and minerals forming new products or the synthesis of
new minerals.
a. Physical weathering b. Chemical weathering
c. Exfoliation d. Abrasion

10. It is a weathering process where water is the principal agent dissolving potash feldspar
producing aluminosolicates or the precursors of clays.
a. Physical weathering b. Chemical weathering
c. hydrolysis d. hydration

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11. These are rocks formed from the cooling and solidification of magma and that has not
been changed appreciably since its formation.
a. Igneous b. Sedimentary
c. Metamorphic d. Salt Rock

12. These are formed from materials deposited from suspension or precipitated from
solution and usually being more or less consolidated.
a. Igneous Rock b. Sedimentary Rock
c. Metamorphic Rock d. Salt Rock

13. These have been greatly altered from their previous conditions through the combined
action of heat and pressure.
a. Igneous Rock b. Sedimentary Rock
c. Metamorphic Rock d. Salt Rock

14. It is a metamorphic rock produced from limestone

a. Marble b. Gneiss
c. Slate d. Gold

15. It is a metamorphic rock produced from granite

a. Marble b. Gneiss
c. Slate d. Gold

16. It is a metamorphic rock produced from shale.

a. Marble b. Gneiss
c. Slate d. Gold

17. It is the vertical section of the soil exposing a set of horizons.

a. Soil b. Solum
c. Regolith d. Soil Profile

18. It means the true soil or the A, E & B horizons of the soil profile
a. Soil b. Solum
c. Regolith d. Soil Profile

19. It represents the A,E,B and C horizons of the soil profile.

a. Soil b. Solum
c. Regolith d. Soil Profile

20. A process in soil genesis which includes mineral weathering or organic matter
breakdown by which soil constitutions are modified and destroyed and others are
synthesized is called
a. transformation b. translocation
c. decomposition d. disintegration

21. A process in soil genesis where movements of inorganic and organic materials from
one horizon up or down to another, the materials being moved mostly by water but also
by soil organisms is called
a. transformation b. translocation
c. additions d. losses

22. Organic deposits generally contain two or more kinds of peat. If the residues are
sufficiently intact to permit the plant fibers to be identified is called
a. peat b. muck
c. biotic d. bionic

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23. An organic material with most of the material decomposed sufficiently so that little
fiber remains
a. peat b. muck
c. biotic d. bionic

24. It is made up of poorly sorted rock fragments detached from the heights above and
carried downslope mostly by gravity.
a. Colluvium b. Alluvium
c. Residuum d. Lacustrine

25. The alluvial deposits that is part of a river valley that is inundated during floods is
called
a. floodplain b. alluvial
c. deltas d. lacustrine

26. The alluvial deposits that leave a narrow valley in an upland area and suddenly descend
to a much broader valley below deposit sediment in a shape of a fan.
a. alluvial fan b. alluvium
c. deltas d. lacustine

27. Suspended sediments carried by streams that settle near the mouth of the river.
a. deltas b. floodplain
c. alluvium d. moraine

28. It is the landform built by the deposits of alluvium in the low lying areas where streams
and river flow.
a. Alluvial soil b. Colluvial
c. Residual soil d. none of the above

29. Is the master horizon dominated by organic materials

a. O b. B
c. C d. D

30. Is the mineral horizon formed on the surface or below the O horizon
a. O b. B
c. A d. E

31. Is the master horizon of maximum eluviation.

a. O b. B
c. C d. E

32. The horizon of maximum illuviation or accumulation.

a. O b. B
c. C d. E

33. Is the horizon of unconsolidated material underlying the solum. It often retains some
of the structural features of the parent rock or geologic deposits from which it formed.
a. O b. B
c. C d. E

34. The consolidated rock, with little evidence of weathering.

a. O b. R
c. A d. C

35. The master horizons in the soil profile are designated using
a. capital letters b. small letters
c. vowels only d. consonants only

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36. Because the outer surface of a rock is often warmer or colder than the inner, more
protected portions, some rocks may weather causing the peeling away of outer layers
and is referred to as
a. exfoliation b. abrasion
c. hydrolysis d. carbonation

37. When loaded with sediment, water has tremendous cutting power; the rounding or
riverbed rocks and beach sand grains is further evidence of
a. exfoliation b. abrasion
c. hydrolysis d. carbonation

38. This influences soil formation by their different rates of weathering, the nutrients they
contain for plant use, and particle sizes they contain.
a. Parent material b. climate
c. Biota d. Topography

39. It is an increasingly dominant factor in soil formation with increased time mainly
because of the effects of precipitation and temperature.
a. parent material b. climate
c. topography d. time

40. When a soil begins to undergo profile changes because of weathering and leaching, the
original material in which the changes are happening is called
a. parent material b. climate
c. topography d. time

41. A set of soils where parent material is the dominant influence on soil formation is
referred to as
a. lithosequence b. climosequence
c. biosequence d. topsequence

42. Bacteria belong to this factor of soil formation.

a. Climate b. Living organisms
c. Time d. Parent material

43. Horizontal layers of soil differentiation.

a. Concretions b. Structure
c. Horizons d. Hardpans

44. A square meter of land dug to a depth that nearly touches the bedrock.
a. Profile b. Parent material
c. Pedon d. Aquifer

45. Mature soil have the following horizons:

a. AB b. ABC
c. BC d. AC

46. Young soils have the following horizons:

a. AB b. ABC
c. ABCD d. AC

47. The solum is composed of these horizons:

a. ABC b. BC
c. ABCR d. AB

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48. The regolith is composed of these horizons:
a. AB b. BC
c. ABC d. ABCR

49. The topsoil usually refers to this horizon.

a. AB b. A
c. B d. C

50. Blocks of soil from each horizon pasted on a hard board.

a. Regolith b. Monolith
c. Litolith d. Pedon

Section 2. PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF SOILS

51. The relative distribution of soil separates in a soil mass is called soil texture
a. Sand, silt and clay are soil separates
b. Soil texture changes easily with poor methods of cultivation
c. Soil texture is improved by adding organic fertilizer
d. All of the above

52. In a viscous medium, the rate of settling is affected by particle size and temperature of
medium.
a. At the same temperature, the rate of settling of silt particles is faster than the sand
particles
b. At the same temperature, the rate of settling of silt particles is faster than the clay
particles
c. The rate of settling of sand particles is faster at lower than at higher temperature
d. The rate of settling of clay particles is slower at higher than at lower temperature

53. Which of these factors does not affect the rate of fall of particles in a liquid medium
a. density of the particle b. gravity
c. size of the particle d. chemical composition

54. Soil texture refers to the coarseness or fineness of soil

a. Sand is coarse and gritty b. Silt is powdery and smooth
c. Clay is sticky and plastic d. All of the above

55. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil texture
a. Sandy soil is more porous than clay soil
b. Loamy soils are rich in silt
c. Clay soil is chemically more reactive than sandy soil
d. Clay soils are rich in silt

56. Soil texture influences property that directly affects plant growth
a. Coarse-textured soils have higher nutrient supplying capacity than fine-textured
soils
b. Fine-textured soils have lower water holding capacity than coarse-textured soils
c. Percolation rate is faster in coarse-textured than in fine-textured soils
d. Infiltration rate is slower in coarse-textured than in fine-textured soils

57. The physicist who formulated the law governing the rate of settling of particles in a
viscous medium
a. Aristotle b. Dokuchaev
c. Stoke d. Ross

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58. Soil texture can be determined by:
a. Feel method b. Pipette method
c. Hydrometer method d. All of the above

59. The soil textural class wherein the coarseness of sand, the smoothness of silt and the
stickiness of clay are manifested in almost equal proportion in a soil mass
a. sand b. silt
c. clay d. laom

60. Standard reference system for soil color

a. Soil taxonomy b. Soil map
c. Soil survey report d. Munsell color chart

61. Soil color description

a. Hue, value, chroma b. Tint, lightness, mixture
c. Shade, reflection, emission d. Intensity, capacity, ability

62. Describes darkness or lightness of soil color

a. hue b. value
c. chroma d. intensity

63. Sign of poor drainage

a. Yellowish mottles b. Bluish gray mottles
c. Reddish concretion d. Reddish orange mottles

64. The color of a soil indicates some chemical conditions

a. Dark or black color indicates high organic matter
b. Reddish color indicates that the soil is low in oxides of iron
c. Dark or black color indicates that the portion of lowland soil is at oxidized state
d. All of the above

65. The color of a soil indicates some chemical conditions

a. Reddish color indicates that the soil is young
b. Reddish color indicates that the soil is high in organic matter
c. Reddish color indicates that the soil is high in oxides of iron
d. All of the above

66. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil structure
a. Crumb is the best soil structure that most crops prefer
b. Dispersed clay soil possess good soil structure
c. Compacted soil structure allows free movement of air in the soil
d. Good water movement in platy soil structure

67. The soil structure of compacted plow soil

a. massive b. platy
c. crumb d. single-grained

68. The soil structure that is normally observed in virgin soils

a. Granular structure b. Prismatic structure
c. Platy structure d. Blocky structure

69. Formation of soil aggregates is favored in soils with

a. low organic matter content b. high sand content
c. high organic matter content d. high exchangeable sodium content

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70. Soil densities and porosities are affected by soil texture and soil structure
a. Porosity increases with increasing bulk density
b. Soil compaction increases bulk density
c. Soil aggregation increases bulk density
d. Organic matter increases bulk density

71. The bulk density value of an ideal or optimal soil is

a. 1.0 g/cm3 b. 1.23 g/cm3
c. 1.33 g/cm3 d. 1.43 g/cm3
72. Bulk density is affected by several factors
a. Bulk density decreases with increasing organic matter content
b. Bulk density decreases with soil compaction
c. Bulk density increases with increasing soil porosity
d. Bulk density does not change with poor soil cultivation practices

73. Bulk density is a good indicator of soil degradation

a. Bulk density does not change with poor soil cultivation practices
b. Increasing bulk density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition
c. Decreasing bulk density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition
d. None of the above

74. Particle density is a stable soil property. Most agricultural soils would have particle
densities close to this value
a. 1.65 g/cm3 b. 2.65 g/cm3
c. 3.65 g/cm3 d. 4.65 g/cm3
75. The particle density is affected by some factors.
a. Particle density does not change with poor soil cultivation practices
b. Increasing particle density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition
c. Decreasing particle density indicates high soil porosity
d. None of the above

76. A soil with bulk density of 1.35 g/cm3 and a particle density of 2.6 g/cm3 has a solid
fraction of
a. 44% b. 48%
c. 52% d. 60%

77. A soil with bulk density of 1.35 g/cm3 and a particle density of 2.6 g/cm3 has a porosity
of
a. 44% b. 48%
c. 52% d. 60%

78. Void ratio is the ratio of the volume of voids or pore spaces to the volume of solids.
a. A void ratio of <1.0 indicates that the soil is porous
b. A void ratio of >1.0 indicates that the soil is compact
c. A void ratio of >1.0 indicates that the soil is porous
d. All of the above

79. Pore-size distribution affects movement and retention of water and air in the soil
a. Micro-pores do not retain water
b. Macro-pores are important in drainage and root respiration
c. Micro-pores and macro-pores are equally important to root growth
d. Macro-pores retain water

80. Desirable pore size distribution for crop production is one where\
a. Total porosity is dominated by macro-pores

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 b. Total porosity is dominated by micro-pores
c. Total porosity is dominated by medium pores
d. Total porosity is comprised of more or less equal proportion of the classes of pore
spaces

81. Soil grown to corn is best cultivated when the soil consistency is
a. hard b. friable
c. plastic d. viscous

82. Property of water which causes it to behave as if its surface were covered with a
stretched elastic membrane
a. cohesion b. polarity
c. surface tension d. adhesion

83. A method of soil water content determination that involves weighing of the soil before
and after oven drying.
a. paraffin method b. gravimetric method
c. resistance method d. suction method

84. Calculate the gravimetric moisture content of the soil sample if its fresh weight (FW) is
25 g and its oven dried weight (ODW) is 20 g
a. 15% b. 20%
c. 25% d. 30%

85. A soil was found to contain 30% moisture (m) which corresponds to 30 g of water.
The mass of the dry soil or the oven dried weight of soil is
a. 30 g b. 60 g
c. 100 g d. 130 g

86. The soil water suction if the soil is at its field capacity is
a. 0 bar b. 1/3 bar
c. 1 bar d. 15 bars

87. Plants depend on the water stored in the soil

a. The upper limit of available water is saturated moisture content
b. The upper limit of available water is hygroscopic coefficient
c. The upper limit of available water is field capacity
d. The upper limit of available water is permanent wilting point

88. Available water capacity is calculated as

a. Saturation or maximum water holding minus permanent wilting point
b. Field capacity minus permanent wilting point
c. Permanent wilting point minus hygroscopic point
d. Saturation or maximum water holding minus hygroscopic coefficient

89. A soil moisture condition wherein all pore spaces in the soil are filled up with water
a. hygroscopic coefficient b. field capacity
c. maximum water holding capacity d. wilting coefficient

90. If the soil moisture content is 35%, field capacity is 40% and permanent wilting point
is 20%, the available water in the soil is
a. 5% b. 10%
c. 15% d. 20%

91. If the soil moisture content is 50%, field capacity is 40% and permanent wilting point
is 20%, the available water in the soil is

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 a. 10% b. 20%
c. 30% d. 40%

92. The relationship between soil water suction and soil water content is referred to as:
a. soil water capacity b. soil water characteristic curve
c. soil water behavior d. soil water potential

93. The physicist who formulated the law governing the movement of water in the soil
a. Stoke b. Dokuchaev
c. Darcy d. Aristotle

94. Movement of water in the soil is always from

a. Higher to lower soil water suction
b. Lower to higher total soil water potential
c. Higher to lower soil water tension
d. Lower to higher soil water suction

95. Available water is necessary for plant growth

a. Macro-pores act as the storage for available water
b. Micro-pores serve as the storage for available water
c. Medium pores act as the storage for available water
d. All of the above

96. Soil air contains three principal gases.

a. Soil air contains 78.6% O2
b. Soil air contains 20% N2
c. CO2 content of the soil air is lesser than that of the atmospheric air
d. CO2 content of the soil air is greater than that of the atmospheric air

97. The limiting aeration porosity of the soil is

a. 5% b. 10%
c. 15% d. 20%

98. Soil temperature plays an important role

a. Soil formation is faster in temperate countries than in tropical countries
b. Decomposition of organic matter is faster in temperate than in tropical countries
c. Microbial activities are lesser in temperate than in tropical countries
d. None of the above

99. The favorable soil temperature for seed germination and plant growth is
a. 0-5oC b. 6-15 oC
c. 13-38 oC d. 20-45 oC

100. Most biological activities would cease and basically inactive at this temperature
a. 0-5oC b. 6-15 oC
o
c. 13-38 C d. 20-45 oC

Section 3. The Chemical Properties of Soils

101. Colloids range in particle size from:

a. 0.2-1 mm b. 0.2-1 micron
c. 0.2-1 cm d. 1-2 micron

102. Organic colloids are represented by:

a. Hydrous Fe and Al oxides b. Silicate clay minerals

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 c. Humus d. allophane

103. Reactivity of soil colloids is due to their:

a. High specific area b. Nature and composition
c. Crystallinity d. mineralogy

104. This clay mineral is a 2:1 expanding type:

a. Illite b. Montmorillonite
c. Kaolinite d. vermiculite

105. Montmorillonite sheets are bounded by:

a. Weak O2 - O2 linkage b. Strong K linkage
c. Strong H bond d. electrostatic linkage

106. Isomorphous substitution of cations gives day minerals:

a. Permanent charge b. pH-dependent charge
c. Positive charge d. zero point of charge

107. Dissociation of H+ ions from carboxyl (-COOH) and/or phenolic functional groups
give this colloid negative charges.
a. Humus b. Montmorillonite
c. Allophane d. oxides of Fe / Al

108. Assuming that ions are of similar size, which of these ions can be easily leached
a. H+ b. Al+++
+++
c. Fe d. K+
109. The optimum or ideal soil pH for growing of most crops is:
a. pH 6.0 b. pH 6.5
c. pH 7.5 d. pH 5.5

110. These elements become more soluble or available at soil pH <4.0.

a. Fe,Al,Cu,Zn b. Ca,Mg,S
c. N,P,K d. C,H.O

111. At low pH, available P may become precipitated into:

a. Ca-hydroxyapatite b. Al-hydroxyphosphate
c. Orthophosphoric acid d. humic acid

112. These cations are considered as acid.

a. H+ and K+ b . H+ and Ca++
+ +++
c. H and Al d. NH4+ and H+
113. Nitrification causes soil acidity due to the production of:
a. Al ions b. H+ ions
c. NH4OH Od. NO3-
114. Active acidity is due to H+ in:
a. Soil solution b. Colloid adsorption sites
c. Crystal structure d. none of the above

115. Soils with high CEC have

a. High buffering capacity b. Low buffering capacity
c. No buffering capacity d. Medium buffering capacity

116. Soils with high buffering capacity are generally those which
a. Are sandy or coarse
b. Have high organic matter and/or clay content
c. Have low organic matter content
d. Have high bulk density

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117. Soils that usually need to be limed are those with:
a. pH less than 5.0 b. pH greater than 5.0
c. pH 7.0 d. pH >7.5

118. This material is not considered lime:

a. CaCO3 b. CaSO4.2H2O
c. CaO d. Ca(OH)2
119. This liming material has RNP or RNV of 100%.
a. Dolomite, CaMg (CO3)2 b. Burned lime, CaO
c. Calcium carbonate, CaCO3 d. Ca(OH)2
120. Besides neutralizing soil acidity, lime like CaCO3 may also:
a. Improve soil structure b. Decrease CEC
c. Improve soil texture d. increase CEC

121. Sodic soils have high exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) and are
a. Well aggregated b. Highly dispersed
c. Highly fertile d. Highly eroded

122. The high ESP of soils may be reduced by adding:

a. Lime b. Gypsum
c. Fertilizers d. organic matter

123. Saline soils contain sufficient

a. sugar b. sodium
c. salt d. lime

124. A 100-gm soil sample contains the following exchangeable cations:

Cation me/100 gm
Ca++ 20
Mg++ 10
K+ 2
Na+ 4
H+ 3
Al+++ 1

The CEC of the soil is:

a. 36 me/100gm b. 45me/100gm
c. 40 me/100gm d. 50 me/100g

125. The % BS saturation o the soil in no. 23 is:

a. 92.5% b. 90%
c. 85% d. 94%

126. The exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) of the soil is:

a. 10% b. 15%
c. 12%

127. It is the strength of adsorption of cations on the exchange complex of soils.

a. Relative adsorbability b. Relative replacing power
c. Relative strength d. Relative neutralizing power

128. What type of charge would arise from the protonation/deprotonation of weakly acidic
-OH groups?

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 a. ionic charge b. pH-dependent charge
c. electronic charge d. permanent charge

129. What is the ability of the soil to hold or exchange negatively charged ions?
a. Anion exchange b. Cation exchange
c. Anion exchange capacity d. Cation exchange capacity

130. The ability of the electrolytic solution to conduct current.

a. Electrical charge b. Electrical conductivity
c. Electrical resistance d. Electrical power

131. The ability of the soil to resist a drastic change in pH.

a. Buffering capacity b. Anion exchange capacity
c. Cation exchange capacity d. Electrical conductivity

132. How many m.e. of NH4+ will replace 0.003 g H+?

a. 1 m.e. b. 2 m.e.
c. 3 m.e. d. 4 m.e.

133. It is a term indicating that the cation exchange reactions are chemically equivalent
a. Reversibility b. Isomorphous
c. Equivalence d. Stoichiometery

134. The kind of acidity that tells us how much lime to apply into the soil.
a. Active acidity b. Reserve acidity
c. Soil acidity d. Residual acidity

135. Assuming that ions are of similar size, which of these ions have the greatest relative
replacing power
a. Al+++ b. K+
c. Ca++ d. Na+
136. What is the degree of acidity or alkalinity of the soil called?
a. soil acidity b. soil alkalinity
c. soil reaction d. buffering capacity

137. Which of these ions have the highest relative adsorbability

a. Na+ b. Ca++
c. H+ d. Mg++
138. Which of these cations is highly soluble at very low pH?
a. K+ b. Ca2+
2+
c. Mg d. Al3+
139. The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration is called as:
a. pH b. pF
c. pOH d. pOF

140. Process whereby positively charged ions are exchanged between solid and liquid
phases of the soil.
a. Anion exchange b. Cation exchange
c. Anion exchange capacity d. Cation exchange capacity

141. How much is the weight of 1 m.e. of Mg2+?

a. 0.012 g b. 0.024 g
c. 0.036g d. 0.048 g]

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142. The kind of acidity that tells when to lime the soil.
a. Active acidity b. Reserve acidity
c. Soil acidity d. Residual acidity

143. Which of these ions can be source of soil acidity?

a. Ca++ and Mg++ b. Li+++ and Si4+
c. K+ and Na+ d. Fe+++ and Al+++
144. Which of these ions can be source of soil alkalinity?
a. Fe+++ b. Al+++
2+
c. Ca d. H+
145. Elements present largely in organic matter
a. N, P and K b. P, K and Ca
c. N, P and S d. P, K and S

146. How many m.e. of Na+ can replace 1 m.e. of Si4+?

a. 1 m.e. b. 2 m.e.
c. 3 m.e. d. 4 m.e.

147. A soil has a CEC of 40 m.e./100g. If 22 m.e. of which are acidic cations, how much
bases the soil contain?
a. 12 me bases b. 14 me bases
c. 16 me bases d. 18 me bases

148. If 21 m.e./100g of the bases constitute 60% of the CEC of a soil, what is its CEC?
a. 25 m.e./100g b. 30 m.e./100g
c. 35 m.e./100g d. 40 m.e./100g

For items 149-150, refer to: A 50-g soil sample contains 0.024g Mg +, 0.003g H+, 0.08g Ca2+,
0.072g NH4+ and 0.018g Al3+

149. How many m.e. of Mg+ the soil contains?

a. 2 m.e./100g b. 4 m.e./100g
c. 6 m.e./100g d. 8 m.e./100g

150. How much Mg++ (kg/ha) is present in the soil?

a. 960 kg/ha b. 480 kg/ha
c. 240 kg/ha d. 120 kg/ha

Section 4. Soil Organisms and Organic Matter

151. Individually, which among the following soil organisms have the greatest biomass?
a. actinomycetes b. fungi
c. bacteria d. protozoa

152. Which among the following soil organisms are acid-loving?

a. fungi b. bacteria
c. protozoa d. actinomycetes

153. Ammonia volatlization from NH4-bearing fertilizers is favored by which of the

following?

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 a. high pH b. high temperature
c. high CEC d. a & b

154. Degradation of organic residues by soil microorganisms is primarily aimed for:

a. phosphorus and ATP b. carbon and energy
c. nitrogen and energy d. nitrogen and phosphorus

155. The root nodule bacteria belongs to this genus

a. Clostridium b. Azotobacter
c. Rhizobium d. Agrobacterium

156. Algae are considered as

a. autotrophs, b. heterotrophs,
c. parasites, d. saprophytes

157. The available form of nitrogen which predominates under upland condition is
a. ammonium, b. nitrite,
c. nitrate, d. fixed nitrogen

158. The predominant available form of nitrogen under flooded soil condition is
a. NO3-N b organic –N,
c. NH4-N, d. N02-N.

159. The conversion of organic N to inorganic or mineral N is termed as

a. immobilization, b. denitrification,
c. mineralization d. nitrogen fixation

160. Microorganisms which do not require oxygen are called

a. aerobes b. anaerobes
c. obligate aerobes d. microaerophilic

161. Microorganisms which require organic compounds as sources of carbon and energy
are
a. autotrophs b. heterotrophs
c. photoautotrophs d. none of the above

162. If the crop residue contains 60% organic carbon and 5 % total nitrogen, the C/N ratio
is
a. 60:5, b. 12:1,
c. 15:1, d. 25:1

163. The incorporation of inorganic nitrogen into microbial tissue is

a. mineralization, b. immobilization,
c. nitrification, d. denitrification

164. Presence of this nutrient element will enable a legume and its microsymbiont to
perform nitrogen fixation.
a. boron b. phosphorus
c. molybdenum d. magnesium

165. The group of soil microorganisms which is responsible for decomposing organic
matter is the
a. heterotrophs b. autotrophs,
c. aprophytes, d. none of the above

166. The most efficient organic matter decomposer under acidic soil conditions are the

14
 a. bacteria b. actinomycetes
c. Fungi, d. algae

167. Pesticides will be retained much longer in soils with

a. low organic matter b. high moisture content,
c. 2:1 dominant clay type, d. none of the above

168. Net mineralization of organic nitrogen in the soil will occur if the C/N ratio is lower
than
a. 20:1 b. 30:1
c. 40:1, d. 40:1

169. The ultimate end product of denitrification is

a. N2 b. N0
c. N20 d. NH3

170. The number and activity of bacteria in the soil is affected by

a. pH b. moisture and oxygen supply,
c. salinity d. all of the above

171. CO2 evolution in soil is a function of

a. aeration b. microbial population,
c. pH d. all of the above

172. The amount of molecular nitrogen in the soil is about

a. 88% b. 78%,
c. 68% d. 98%

173. This is a substance produced by some organisms which inhibits growth of other
organisms
a. pesticide, b. antibiotic,
c. antigen, d. antibody

174. The stable product of organic matter decomposition is

a. humus b. lignin,
c. cellulose d. hemicellulose

175. This nitrogen transformation has an acidifying effect

a. volatilization ` b. nitrogen fixation
c. nitrification, d. denitrification

176. The association between plant root and fungus is known as

a. symbiosis b. lichens
c. competition, d. mycorrhiza

177. Once a soil has been placed under cultivation, the organic matter content usually
a. decreases, b. increases
c. remains relatively unchanged d. all of the above

178. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are generally called:

a. denitrifiers b. denitrificans
c. diazotrophs d. diazomorphs

179. It is a symbiotic N-fixing microsymbiont which is slow grower and do not produce
acids:
a. Rhizobium b. Bradyrhizobium
c. Azorhizobium, d. All of the above.

15
180. Free-living N2 fixing organisms which are dominant in anaerobic condition:
a. Azotobacter b. Beijerinckia
c. Clostridium d. Cyanobacteria.

181. Which one is not involved in the reduction of SO4-2 to H2S ?

a. Desulfovibrio sp. b. Cyanobacteria
c. Desulfotomaculum d. All of the above

182. Which of the following is a P- solubilizing bacteria ?

a. Bacillus megatherium b. Cyanobacteria,
c. Arthrobacter d. none of the above.

183. Mycorrhiza means fungus-root/tree association; presence of hyphae between root

cortical cells is called:
a. Ectomycorrhiza b. Endomycorrhiza
c. mycorrhizae d. all of the above

184. Heterotrophs which use pesticides as substrates:

a. Arthrobacter b. Pseudomonas
c. Aspergillus, d. all of the above.

185. One of the following microorganisms is not involved in the production of growth-
promoting hormones ( e.g. IAA, GA, cytokinins):
a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp .
c. Bacillus megatherium, d. yeasts.

186. A microorganism involved in the bioremediation of oil and other xenobiotics: .

a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Bacillus megatherium, d. yeasts

187. Microorganisms used as biocontrol due to its ability to suppress or antagonize the
growth of other microorganisms:
a. Agrobacterium b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Trichoderma sp d. All of the above.

188. Microoorganism capable of producing antibiotics

a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp .
c. Streptomycetes d. Aspergillus

189. Microoorganism capable of producing antibiotic

a. Azospirillum brasilense, b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Streptomycetes d. Aspergillus

190. This is a unicellular, chemoautotrophic sulfur oxidizer :

a. Thiobacillus sp. b. Purple and green sulfur bacteria
c. Arthrobacter d. Beggiatoa

191. The reduction of SO4-2 to H2S is mediated mainly by anaerobic sulfate-

reducing bacteria:
a. Desulfovibrio sp. b. Cyanobacteria
c. Desulfotomaculum, d. All of the above.

192. Which of the following is a P- solubilizing bacteria ?

a. Bacillus megatherium b. Cyanobacteria
c. Arthrobacter, d. None of the above.

16
193. Production of growth-promoting hormones which enhance plant growth ( e.g. IAA,
GA, cytokinins) is mediated by the following microorganisms except:
a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Bacillus megatherium d. yeasts

194. A microorganism involved in the bioremediation of oil and other xenobiotics: .

a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Bacillus megatherium d. yeasts

195. A compost-fungus activator and used as biocontrol due to its ability to suppress or
antagonize the growth of other microorganisms :
a. Agrobacterium b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Trichoderma sp. d. All of the above

196. A substance that gives active nodules a red interior color

a. Thiobacillus sp. b. Purple and green sulfur bacteria
c. leghemoglobin d. Beggiatoa

197. Primary end product of organic matter decomposition/oxidation in

anaerobic/waterlogged soil conditions
a. CO2 b. H2O
c. H2PO4- d. CH4

198. The most important means of removing toxic chemicals is through

a. leaching in drainage water
b. evaporation of gaseous toxic substances
c. dumping into the ocean
d. breaking down toxic compounds by biological decomposition

199. An autotrophic bacteria responsible in the biochemical oxidation of NO2- to NO3-

a. Nitrosomonas b. Azotobacter
c. Nitrobacter d. Methanomonas

200. Methemoglobinemia, also called blue baby syndrome occurs when certain bacteria
found in the guts of ruminants convert ingested
a. nitrate (NO3-) into nitrite (NO2-)
b. ammonium (NH4+) into nitrite (NO2-)
c. Hydrogen sulfides (H2S) into sulfates (SO4-2)
d. Sulfates (SO4-2) into H2S

Section 5. Soil Fertility and Management

201. The ability of the soil to replenish the amount of nutrients in the soil solution
a. Intensity factor b. Capacity factor
c. Buffering capacity d. Availability

202. This micronutrient is needed in N -fixation by leguminous plants and is usually

deficient in acid upland soil
a. Molybdenum b. Zinc
c. Iron d. Manganese

17
203. What is the inherent capacity of the soil to supply nutrients to plants in adequate
amount and suitable proportion called?
a. Soil productivity b. Nutrient availability
c. Intensity factor d. Soil fertility

204. A method of soil fertility evaluation whereby concentration of nutrients in the soil are
known before a crop is planted
a. Biological test b. Soil analysis
c. Plant analysis d. Nutrient deficiency symptoms

205. It is considered as one of the causes of soil acidity

a. Crop rotation b. Irrigation
c. Liming d. Leaching of bases

206. The concentration of nutrients in the soil solution

a. Buffering capacity b. Reserve acidity
c. Intensity factor d. Capacity factor

207. This macroelement is a component of protein and chlorophyll and is most limiting
element in crop production except for legumes
a. Nitrogen b. Phosphorus
c. Potassium d. Calcium

208. This macroelement is a metal component of chlorophyll and is deficient in acid

upland soil
a. Nitrogen b. Calcium
c. Copper d. Magnesium

209. When nutrients are immobile, deficiency shows up first in

a. Stems b. Older leaves
c. Younger leaves d. Senescent leaves

210. A process of movement of individual ion due to difference in concentration

a. Diffusion b. Absorption
c. Mass flow d. Root elongation

211. The enzyme responsible in nitrogen fixation

a. Nitrate reductase b. Nitrogenase
c. Carboxylase d. Catalase

212. The form of nitrogen available for plant’s use is

a. N2O b. NO
c. N2 d. NO3-

213. A term that indicates excessive level of nutrient in the plant or soil
a. Sufficiency b. Toxicity
c. Deficiency d. Poverty adjustment

214. A soil chemical property which largely controls nutrient availability and microbial
activities
a. Buffering capacity b. Cation exchange capacity
c. Soil pH d. Electrical conductivity

215. The most appropriate soil management which increases availability of adsorbed P in
acidic upland soil
a. Fertilizer application b. Prolonged anaerobic conditions

18
 c. Organic matter application d. Liming

216. Nutrient deficiency symptoms is referred to as a language of the crop. What is the
term given to describe general yellowing of leaves as a result of the deficiency of
some nutrient elements?
a. Necrosis b. Chlorosis
c. Plasmolysis d. Defective

217. A term that indicates low level of nutrient elements in the plant or soil
a. Sufficiency b. Toxicity
c. Deficiency d. Poverty adjustment

218. The nutrient elements in organic matter and minerals are considered unavailable. The
most available form of nutrients are in
a. Fixed b. Occluded
c. Exchangeable d. Soil solution

219. The macroelement which functions as a constituent of energy transfer metabolites

a. Phosphorus b. Potassium
c. Sulfur d. Calcium

220. Which of the following element is not essential to plants?

a. Sulfur b. Vanadium
c. Boron d. Molybdenum

221. These elements are micronutrients and are required by plants in small amounts
a. N, P and K b. Cu, Mn and S
c. Cu, Mg and S d. Zn, Co and Mn

222. Essential elements derived from air and water

a. C, S and H b. N, S and C
c. C, O and H d. N, C and S

223. When nutrients dissolved in water are transported to the root surface, the mechanism
is
a. Mass flow b. Diffusion
c. Contact exchange d. Root interception

224. When nutrients are mobile, deficiency symptoms will be observed first in
a. Younger leaves b. Older leaves
c. Stems d. Senescent leaves

225. The process that renders an element available to plants

a. Volatilization b. Immobilization
c. Denitrification d. Mineralization

226. Which of these elements is available to plants in anionic form?

a. Calcium b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus d. Iron

227. The micronutrient involved in the translocation of sugar in plant

a. Copper b. Calcium
c. Boron d. Potassium

228. The process that renders P available to plants

19
 a. Fixation b. Nitrification
c. Solubilization d. Ammonification

229. A physical effect of lime

a. Increase water holding capacity of soil
b. Enhance decomposition of organic matter
c. Increase the CEC
d. Increase P availability

230. A term for the initial application of fertilizer for crops

a. Top dressing b. Side dressing
c. Band application d. Basal application

231. It is the amount of lime to be applied to the soil in order to increase its soil pH
a. Fertilizer recommendation b. Lime requirement
c. Analysis grade d. Relative neutralizing power

232. It is a mixture of animal excreta and soiled beddings that accumulates in stables or
barns
a. Farm manure b. Compost
c. Green manure c. Poultry manure

233. A method of fertilizer application whereby fertilizer materials are spread evenly on
the soil surface
a. Band method b. Broadcast
c. Ring method d. Foliar application

234. It is a measure of the effectiveness of the lime to neutralize soil acidity

a. Form of lime b. Relative replacing power
c. Particle size of lime d. Relative neutralizing power

235. Which of these elements is available to plants in cationic form?

a. Sulfur b. Chlorine
c. Molybdenum d. Potassium

236. The most active agent of the soil erosion process in Philippines and other areas in the
humid tropics
a. wind b. ice
c. water d. glaciers

237. The molecular weight of dolomite, CaMg(CO3)2 is

a. 56 g b. 84 g
c. 100 g d. 184 g

238. Which of these liming materials is the most soluble?

a. CaO b. CaMg(CO3)2
c. CaCO3 d. Ca(OH)2
239. The RNP of dolomite is
a. 54.35% b. 45.65%
c. 100% d. 109%

For items 240-242, refer to: Using urea (45-0-0), Solophos (0-20-0) and KCl (0-0-
60) to satisfy a fertilizer recommendation of 80-70-30 calculate the following:

240. The amount of urea (45-0-0) needed to satisfy the above recommendation is
a. 177.8 kg/ha b. 187.7 kg/ha

20
 c. 200 kg/ha d. 400 kg/ha

241. The amount of solophos needed to satisfy the above recommendation is

a. 300 kg/ha b. 350 kg/ha
c. 400 kg/ha d. 450 kg/ha

242. The amount of KCl needed to satisfy the above recommendation

a. 50 kg/ha b. 75 kg/ha
c. 100 kg/ha d. 150 kg/ha

243. Amount of N supplied by the application of 9 bags of ammonium sulfate (20-0-0)

a. 30 kg b. 60 kg
c. 90 kg d. 120 kg

244. A condition in which plants may absorb more nutrient than they need for maximum
growth is termed as
a. critical concentration b. luxury consumption
c. nutrient uptake d. nutrient removal

245. The movement of water together with dissolved ions through the soils is
a. root interception b. diffusion
c. contact exchange c. mass flow

246. Which is not a characteristic of organic fertilizers?

a. bulky b. readily soluble
c. low nutrient content d. improves soil fertility

247. Which organic fertilizer has the highest pure nitrogen?

a. compost b. chicken dung
c. guano d. cow manure

248. Which of the following is both an organic and inorganic fertilizer?

a. sulfate of potash b. triple superphosphate
c. urea d. ammonium sulfate

249. The ability of fertilizer to take up and retain moisture is

a. hydrologic cycle b. hydration
c. hygroscopicity c. hydrolysis

250. The mineral source of phosphorus is

a. apatite b. gypsum
c. hematite d. orthoclase

Section 6. Soil Survey and Classification

251. Smallest volume of soil that can be considered a soil individual/body

a. pedon b. horizon
c. ped d. aggregate

252. A soil unit is a landscape usually consists of a group of very similar pedons closely
associated together in the field
a. pedon b. polypedon
c. ped d. particle

253. It is a diagnostic horizon that occurs at the soil surface which includes the upper part
of the soil darkened by organic matter, the upper eluvial horizons, or both:

21
 a. pedon b. polypedon
c. ped d. epipedon

254. It is the systematic examination, description, classification , and mapping of soils in

an area
a. soil survey b. soil classification
c. soil genesis d. soil taxonomy

255. Kabacan clay loam is an example of a

a. soil type b. soil series
c. soil association d. soil phase

256. It is a thick dark-colored surface diagnostic horizon with high base saturation:
a. umbric b. mollic
c. ochric d. melanic

257. It is like the mollic epipedon except that it has low base saturation
a. umbric b. ochric
c. melanic d. histic

258. The broadest category of soil taxonomy:

a. great group b. suborder
c. order d. family

259. Soils with no diagnostic horizons

a. Entisols b. Inceptisols
c. Alfisols d. Vertisols

260. Soils with mollic epipedon and base saturation percentage (BSP>50%)
a. Oxisols b. Histosol
c. Mollisol d. Spodosol

261. Soil with a warm temperature regime, an argillic horizon and percent base saturation
(PBS) <35%
a. Entisols b. Ultisols
c. Inceptisols d. Espasols

262. A soil temperature regime wherein the mean annual soil temperature is 22 0C or
higher and the difference between mean summer and mean winter temperature is less
than 50C
a. mesic b. thermi,
c. hyperthermic d. isohyperthermic

263. The most highly weathered soil characterized by the presence of an oxic subsurface
horizon
a. Ultisols b. Spodosols
c. Alfisols d. Oxisols

264. Soils of volcanic origin are classified under order

a. Andisol b. Gelisols
c. Histosols d. Mollisols

265. A dark red Ultisols with udic moisture regime is

a. Udalfs b. Ustults
c. Udults d. Ustalfs

266. Young soils beginning to show development of genetic horizons

22
 a. Inceptisols b. Entisols
c. Vertisols d. Andisols

267. They are swelling and cracking soils common in lowlands

a. Entisols b. Andisols
c. Oxisols d. Vertisols

268. The soil moisture regime characterized by sufficient moisture throughout the year
a. aquic b. udic
c. ustic d. aridic

269. The soil moisture regime that is characterized by water saturation

a. udic b. aquic
c. ustic d. xeric

270. The soil with a name Typic tropudults belongs to order

a. Alfisols b. Andisols
c. Ultisols d. Mollisolls

271. A suborder Hemists means the soil falls under the order
a. Alfisols b. Oxisols
c. Ultisols d. Histosols

272. One side of a pedon

a. epipedon b. horizon
c. profile d. All of the above

273. A soil unit in a landscape usually consists of a group of very similar pedons closely
associated together in the field
a. pedon b. polypedon
c. ped d. particle

274. A system of soil classification in the Philippines based on the concept of a precisely
defined, selected horizon for classifying soil profiles
a. soil morphology b. soil taxonomy
c. 5th approximation d. soil survey

275. It is a systematic arrangement of soils into groups or categories on the basis of their
characteristics
a. soil survey b. soil classification
c. soil genesis d. soil taxonomy

276. Basis for mapping the distribution of Philippine soils

a. soil series/type b. soil order
c. soil family d. great group

277. It is an epipedon that fails all the requirements of a mollic.

a. umbric b. ochric
c. melanic d. histic

278. A diagnostic horizon that is like argillic except for its high sodium content
a. spodic b. natric
c. cambic d. salic

279. A highly weathered subsurface horizon in intensively weathered soils of the tropics
consisting of an accumulation of Fe and oxides

23
 a. argillic b. spodic
c. cambic d. oxic

280. Soils with mollic epipedon and base saturation percentage (BSP>50%)
a. Oxisols b. Histosol
c. Mollisol d. Spodosol

281. Soil with a warm temperature regime, an argillic horizon and percent base saturation
(PBS) >35%
a. Entisols b. Ultisols
c. Inceptisols d. Alfisols

282. The total number of soil orders classified under the soil taxonomy
a. 15 b. 10
c. 12 d. 11

283. A soil temperature regime wherein the mean annual soil temperature is 22 0C or
higher and the difference between mean summer and mean winter temperature is less
than 50C.
a. isomesic b. thermic
c. hyperthermic d. isohyperthermic

284. The most highly weathered soil characterized by the presence of an oxic subsurface
horizon
a. Ultisols b. Spodosols
c. Alfisols d. Oxisols

285. The 12th soil order covering all soils which are permanently frozen/covered with
snow
a. Aridisols b. Spodosols
c. Gelisols d. Vertisols

286. The soil with a name Typic tropudalfs belongs to order

a. Alfisols b. Andisols
c. Ultisols d. Mollisolls

287. A suborder Udults means the soil falls under the order
a. Alfisols b. Oxisols
c. Ultisols d. Mollisolls

288. A suborder Fibrists means the soil falls under the order
a. Alfisols b. Oxisols
c. Ultisols d. Histosols
289. A suborder Histels means the soil falls under the order
a. Gelisols b. Oxisols
c. Ultisols d. Histosols

290. A suborder Aquands means the soil falls under the order
a. Gelisols, b. Oxisols
c. Andisols d. Histosols

291. A suborder Arents means the soil falls under the order
a. Gelisols b. Entisols
c. Andisols d. Histosols

292. A suborder Udept means the soil falls under the order
a. Inceptisols b. Entisols

24
 c. Andisols d. Histosols

293. These are Mollisols in aquic moisture regime:

a. Udolls b. Aquolls
c. Ustolls ` d. Xerolls

294. These are Ultisols in udic moisture regime:

a. Udults b. Aqults
c. Ustults d. Xerults

295. These are the soils formed from volcanic ash and young volcanic materials:
a. Udepts b. Fluvents
c. Udands d. Ustalfs

296. The order of soils with organic soil materials extending down to an impermeable
layer or with an organic layer that is more than 40 cm thick
a. Gelisols b. Histosols
c. Andisols d. Mollisols

297. A soil with a nomenclature: “fine loamy, mixed, non-acidic isophyperthermic Histic
Tropaquoll falls under the order
a. Mollisols b. Gelisols
c. Andisols d. Histosols

298. The soil in Item No. 48 has the temperature

a. fine loamy b. mixed
c. non-acidic d. isohyperthermic

299. The suborder of the same soil in item No. 48

a. Aquoll b. Tropaquoll
c. Oll d. Paquoll

300. The Great group of the same soil in Item No.48

a. Aquoll b. Tropaquoll
c. Oll d. Paquoll

ANSWER KEY

1. A 48. C 95. C 142. A

2. A 49. B 96. D 143. D
3. B 50. B 97. B 144. C
4. C 51. A 98. C 145. C
5. A 52. B 99. C 146. A
6. A 53. D 100. A 147. D
7. A 54. D 101. B 148. C
8. A 55. C 102. C 149. B
9. B 56. C 103. A 150. A

25
10. C 57. C 104. B 151. B
11. A 58. D 105. A 152. A
12. B 59. D 106. A 153. D
13. C 60. D 107. A 154. B
14. A 61. A 108. D 155. C
15. B 62. B 109. B 156. A
16. C 63. B 110. A 157. C
17. D 64. A 111. B 158. C
18. B 65. C 112. C 159. C
19. C 66. A 113. B 160. A
20. C 67. A 114. A 161. B
21. B 68. C 115. A 162. B
22. A 69. C 116. B 163. B
23. B 70. B 117. A 164. C
24. A 71. C 118. B 165. A
25. A 72. A 119. C 166. C
26. A 73. B 120. A 167. C
27. A 74. B 121. B 168. A
28. A 75. A 122. B 169. A
29. A 76. C 123. C 170. D
30. C 77. B 124. C 171. B
31. D 78. C 125. B 172. D
32. B 79. B 126. A 173. B
33. C 80. D 127. A 174. A
34. D 81. B 128. B 175. C
35. A 82. C 129. C 176. D
36. A 83. B 130. B 177. A
37. B 84. C 131. A 178. C
38. A 85. C 132. C 179. B
39. B 86. B 133. D 180. C
40. A 87. C 134. B 181. B
41. A 88. B 135. A 182. A
42. B 89. C 136. C 183. A
43. C 90. C 137. C 184. D
44. C 91. B 138. D 185. C
45. B 92. B 139. A 186. B
46. D 93. C 140. B 187. C
47. D 94. D 141. A 188. C
189. C 217. C 245. C 273. B
190. A 218. D 246. B 274. B
191. A 219. A 247. B 275. B
192. A 220. B 248. C 276. A
193. C 221. D 249. C 277. D
194. B 222. C 250. A 278. B
195. C 223. A 251. A 279. D
196. C 224. D 252. B 280. C
197. D 225. B 253. D 281. D
198. D 226. D 254. A 282. C
199. C 227. C 255. A 283. D

26
200. A 228. D 256. B 284. D
201. B 229. A 257. A 285. C
202. A 230. D 258. C 286. B
203. D 231. B 259. A 287. C
204. B 232. A 260. C 288. D
205. D 233. B 261. B 289. A
206. C 234. D 262. D 290. C
207. A 235. D 263. D 291. C
208. D 236. C 264. A 292. B
209. C 237. D 265. C 293. A
210. A 238. A 266. A 294. A
211. B 239. D 267. D 295. C
212. D 240. A 268. B 296. B
213. B 241. B 269. B 297. A
214. C 242. A 270. C 298. D
215. C 243. C 271. D 299. A
216. D 244. B 272. C 300. B

27