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CHEMISTRY
QUESTION BANK
FOR
TERM-I

CLASS
XII

BY VA
PA
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A
RIV
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KU 25
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 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]

CHAPTER-1
9. The effective number of atoms per unit cell in a simple
cube, fcc and bcc are respectively:
(a) 1, 4, 2 (b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 8, 14, 9 (d) 8, 4, 2
10. What would be the effective number of atoms per unit

SOLID STATE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONLY SINGLE
cell in end centered cubic unit cell, if this type of unit
cell exist in nature?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
CORRECT OPTION 11. In the body centered cubic unit cell and simple cubic
1. Which of the following statement is true for ionic solids? unit cell, the radius of atom in terms of edge length (a)
(a) Ionic solids are soluble in non-polar solvent of the unit cell is respectively:
(b) Under the electric field cations and anions acquire
translatory motion in opposite directions (a) a , a (b) a , a
2 2 2 2 2
(c) Structural units have strong electrostatic force of
attraction (c) a , a (d) 3 a , a
(d) Structural units have dipole-dipole interactions 2 2 2 4 2
2. Solids which do not show the same physical properties in different12. directions
In the face
are centered
called: cubic unit cell, the radius of atoms
(a) Pseudo solids (b) Isotropic solids in terms of edge length (A) of unit cell is:
a
(c) Polymorphic solids (d) Anisotropic solids (a) (b) a
3. Amorphous solids are: 2 2
(a) isotropic and super-cooled liquids a
(b) anisotropic and super-cooled liquids (c) (d) 3 a
2 2 4
(c) isoenthalpic and superheated liquids
13. The fraction of volume occupied by atoms in a primitive
(d) isotropic and superheated solids
cubic unit cell is nearly:
4. If the three interfacial angles defining the unit cell are all
(a) 0.48 (b) 0.52
equal in magnitude, the crystal cannot be:
(c) 0.55 (d) 0.68
(a) rhombohedral (b) cubic
14. The fraction of volume occupied by atoms in a body
(c) hexagonal (d) tetragonal
centered cubic unit cell is:
5. Which of the crystal systems contains the maximum
(a) 0.32 (b) 0.48
number of Bravais lattices?
(c) 0.68 (d) 0.74
(a) Cubic (b) Hexagonal
15. The fraction of volume occupied by atoms in a face
(c) Triclinic (d) Orthorhombic
centered cubic unit cell is:
6. In a primitive cubic unit cell, the atoms are present at
(a) 0.32 (b) 0.48
the:
(c) 0.68 (d) 0.74
(a) corners of the unit cell
16. Which of the following crystal lattice has the minimum
(b) centre of the unit cell
space?
(c) centre of each face of the unit cell
(a) Simple cubic (b) Body centered cubic
(d) one set of faces of the unit cell
(c) Face centered cubic (d) Simple tetragonal
7. In the body centered unit cell, the lattice points are
17. Which of the following has the smallest packing
present at the:
efficiency for atoms of a single type?
(a)corners of unit cell only
(a) Body centered cubic (b) Face centered cubic
(b)corners and centre of unit cell
(c) Simple cubic (d) None of these
(c)corners and centre of each face of the unit cell
18. Polonium crystallizes in a simple cubic structure. The
(d)corners and at one set of faces of unit cell
edge of the unit cell is 0.236 nm. What is the radius of
8. In the face centered unit cell, the lattice points are
the polonium atom:
present at the:
(a) 0.144 nm (b) 0.156 nm
(a) corners of unit cell only
(c) 0.118 nm (d) 0.102 nm
(b) corners and centre of the unit cell
(c) corners and face centres of the unit cell
(d) face centres of the unit cell

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[1]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
19. Lithium crystallizes as body centered cubic crystals. If 30. The element crystallizes in a body centered cubic lattice
the length of the side of unit cell is 350 pm, the atomic and the edge of the unit cell is 0.351 nm. The density is
radius of lithium is: 0.533 gm/cc. What is the atomic weight?
(a) 303.1 pm (b) 606.2 pm (a) 12.0 (b) 6.94
(c) 151.5 pm (d) 123.7 pm (c) 9.01 (d) 10.8
20. Gold has a face centered cubic lattice with an edge 31. An element X (At. wt. = 80g/mol) has fcc structure,
length of the unit cube of 407 pm. The diameter of the calculate the no. of unit cells in 8 gm of X:
gold atom is: (a) 0.4  NA (b) 0.1  NA
(a) 576.6 pm (b) 287.8 pm 
(c) 4 NA (d) none of these
(c) 352.5 pm (d) 704.9 pm 32. Molybdenum (At. wt. =96gm/mol) crystallizes as bcc
21. The neon atoms has a radius of 160 pm. What is the crystal. If density of crystal is 10.3gm/cc, then radius of
edge of the unit cell of a face centered structure of neon? Mo atom is (use NA = 6  1023 ):
(a) 490 pm (b) 320 pm (a) 111pm (b) 314 pm
(c) 453 pm (d) 481 pm (c) 135.96 pm (d) none of these
22. Each edge of a cubic unit cell is 400 pm long. If atomic 33. What is the coordination number of an atom for an
weight of the element is 120 and it's density is 6.25 element crystallizing with a cubic lattice?
gm/cc. The crystal lattice is : (use NA = 6  1023 ) Calculate the corresponding coordination number for the
(a) primitive (b) body centered simple, fcc and bcc lattices:
(c) face centered (d) end centered (a) 12 sc; 12 fcc; 8 bcc (b) 6 sc; 14 fcc; 8 bcc
23. Tungsten has an atomic radius of 0.136 nm. The density (c) 8 sc; 12 fcc; 6 bcc (d) 6 sc; 12 fcc; 8 bcc
of tungsten is 19.4 gm/cc. What is the 34. Which of the following layering pattern will have a void
crystal structure of tungsten? (Atomic weight: W = 184) fraction of 0.260?
(a) Simple cubic (b) Body centered cubic (a) ABCCBAABC (b) ABBAABBA
(c) Face centered cubic (d) None of these (c) ABCABCABC (d) ABCAABCA
24. The density of argon (face centered cubic cell) is 1.83 35. The co-ordination number of a metal crystallising in a
gm/cc at 20°C. What is the length of an hexagonal close-packed structure is:
edge a unit cell? (Atomic weight : Ar = 40) (a) 12 (b) 4
(a) 0.599 nm (b) 0.569 nm (c) 8 (d) 6
(c) 0.525 nm (d) 0.551 nm 36. If the ratio of coordination no. of A to that of B is x: y,
25. The density of nickel (fcc unit cell) is 8.94 gm/cc at then the ratio of no. of atoms of A to that no. of atoms of
20°C. What is the diameter of the atom? (At. wt. of Ni = B in unit cell is:
59) (a) x: y (b) y : x
(a) 0.124 nm (b) 0.136 nm (c) x2 : y (d) y : x2
(c) 0.149 nm (d) 0.110 pm 37. The atomic radius of strontium (Sr) is 215 pm and it
26. The density of krypton (fcc unit cell) is 3.19 gm/cc. crystallizes with a cubic closest packing. Edge length of
What is the radius of the atom? (At. wt of Kr = 84) the cube is:
(a) 0.198 nm (b) 0.221 nm (a) 430 pm (b) 608.2 pm
(c) 0.206 nm (d) 0.225 nm (c) 496.53 pm (d) none of these
27. The face centered cubic cell of platinum has a length of 38. By X-ray diffraction it is found that nickel
0.392 nm. Calculate the density of platinum (gm/cc) : (at mass =59gm/mol), crystallizes with ccp. The edge
(Atomic weight : Pt =195) length of the unit cell is 3.5 A. If density of Ni crystal is
(a) 20.9 (b) 20.4 9.0gm/cc. Then value of Avogadro's number from the
(c) 19.6 (d) 21.5 data is :
28. The bcc unit cell of chromium has a length of 0.288 nm. (a) 6.05  1023 (b) 6.11  1023
Calculate the density of : (At. wt. of Cr = 52.0) (c) 6.02  1023 (d) 6.023  1023
(a) 6.80 (b) 7.60 39. Stacking of square close packed layers give rise to:
(c) 6.60 (d) 7.23 (a) bcc structure (b) fcc structure
29. An element crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice (c) Simple cubic structure (d) hcp structure
and the edge of the unit cell is 0.559 nm. The density is
3.19gm/cc. What is the atomic weight?
(a) 87.6 (b) 79.9
(c) 85.5 (d) 83.9

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[2]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
40. The unit cell present in ABCABC, closest packing of 50. CaS exists in a cubic close packed arrangement of S2
atoms is: ions in which Ca2+ ions occupy 1/2 of the available
(a) hexagonal (b) tetragonal
(c) face centered cube (d) primitive cubic tetrahedral holes. How many Ca2+ and S2 ions are
41. The unit cell present in ABAB, closest packing of atoms contained in the unit cell?
is: (a) 1, 1 (b) 2, 4
(a) hexagonal (b) tetragonal (c) 4, 4 (d) 4, 2
(c) face centered cube (d) primitive cubic 51. In the ionic compound AB the ratio rA : rB is 0.414.
42. In the closest packing of atoms, there are: Indicate the correct statement of the following:
(a) one tetrahedral void and two octahedral voids per (a) Cations form close packing and anions exactly fit into
atom the octahedral voids
(b) two tetrahedral voids and one octahedral void per (b) Anions form close packing and cations occupy
atom precisely half of the tetrahedral voids
(c) two of each tetrahedral and octahedral voids per (c) Anions form close packing and cations occupy
atom precisely all the octahedral voids
(d) one of each tetrahedral and octahedral void per atom (d) Anions form close packing and cations fit into the
43. Which of the following figures represents the cross- octahedral voids loosely
section of an octahedral site?
52. In the unit cell of KCl (NaCl type), Cl ions constitute
ccp and K+ ions fall into the octahedral holes. These
holes are:
44. In which of die following pairs of structures are (a) one at the centre and 6 at the centres of the faces
tetrahedral as well as octahedral holes found? (b) one at the centre and 12 at the centres of the edges
(a) bcc and fcc (b) hcp and simple cubic (c) 8 at the centres of 8 small cubes forming the unit cell
(c) hcp and ccp (d) bcc and hcp (d) none of these
45. An ionic compound is expected to have octahedral 53. If the radius of the anion in an ionic solid is 200 pm,
structure if rc /ra (rc < ra) lies in the range of: what would be the radius of the cation that fits exactly
(a) 0.414 to 0.732 (b) 0.732 to 0.82 into a cubic hole?
(c) 0.225 to 0.414 (d) 0.155 to 0.225 (a) 146.4 pm (b) 82.8 pm
46. In the closest packing of atoms A (radius : ra), the radius (c) 45 pm (d) None of these
of atom B that can be fitted into tetrahedral void is: 54. MgO crystallizes in a cubic type crystal system. The
(a) 0.155 ra (b) 0.225 ra ionic radii for Mg2+ and O2- are 0.066 and 0.140 nm
(c) 0.414 ra (d) 0.732 ra respectively. One can conclude that the Mg2+ ions
47. In the closest packing of atoms A (radius : ra), the radius occupy:
of atom B that can be fitted octahedral void is: (a) a cubic hole in a simple cubic structure
(a) 1.155 ra (b) 0.225 ra (b) every tetrahedral hole in a close packed structure
(c) 0.414 ra (d) 0.732 ra (c) an octahedral hole in a cubic close packed structure
48. How many nearest neighbours are there in an atom or (d) every other tetrahedral hole in a close packed
ion for an octahedral hole of a closed packed structure? structure
(a) 4 (b) 6 55. The unit cell of diamond is made up of:
(c) 8 (d) 12 (a) 6 carbon atoms, 4 atoms constitute ccp and two atoms
49. In the closest packing of atoms: occupy half of octahedral voids
(a) the size of tetrahedral void is greater than that of (b) 8 carbon atom, 4 atoms constitute ccp and 4 atoms
octahedral void occupy all the octahedral voids
(b) the size of tetrahedral void is smaller than that of (c) 8 carbon atoms, 4 atoms form fcc lattice and 4 atoms
octahedral void occupy half of the tetrahedral voids alternately
(c) the size of tetrahedral void is equal to that of (d) 12 carbon atoms, 4 atoms form fcc lattice and 8 atoms
octahedral void occupy all the tetrahedral holes
(d) the size of tetrahedral void may be greater or smaller
or equal to that of octahedral void depending upon
the size of atoms

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[3]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
56. In diamond, the coordination number of carbon is: 65. In an ideal closest rock salt structure (edge length, a),
(a) four and its unit cell has eight carbon atoms which of the following expressions is correct?
(b) ra = a
(b) four and its unit cell has six carbon atoms
(a) ra = 2 a
(c) six and its unit cell has four carbon atoms 2
(d) four and its unit cell has four carbon atoms a
57. In a cubic unit cell, seven of the eight corners are (c) ra = a (d) ra =
2 2 4
occupied by atoms A and centres of faces are occupied
66. Which of the following expressions is correct in case of
by atoms B. The general formula of the compound is :
a CsCl unit cell (edge length, a)?
(a) A7B6 (b) A7B12
(c) A7B24 (d) A24B7 (a) rc+ra=a (b) rc+ra= a (c) rc+ra= 3 a (d) rc+ra= a
58. In the spinel structure, oxides ions are cubical-closest 2 2 2
packed whereas l/8th of tetrahedral voids are occupied 67. In NaCl the centres of two nearest like-charged ions are
by A2+ cation and 1/2 of octahedral voids are occupied present at a distance of:
by B3+ cations. The general formula of the compound a 2 a
having spinel structure is: (a) (b)
2 2
(a) A2B2O4 (b) AB2O4
(c) A2B4O2 (d) A4B2O2 3a 2a
(c) (d)
59. If the anions (A) from hexagonal closest packing and 2 2
cations (C) occupy only 2/3 octahedral voids in it, then 68. In sodium chloride crystal, the number of next nearest
the general formula of the compound is: neighbours of each Na+ ions is:
(a) CA (b) CA2 (a) 8 Cl ions (b) 12 Na+ ions
(c) C2A3 (d) C3A2
60. In a solid, oxide ions are arranged in ccp, cations A (c) 12 Cl ions (d) 24 Cl ions
occupy (1/8)th of the tetrahedral voids and cations B 69. The coordination number of cation and anion in fluorite
occupy (1/4)th of the octahedral voids. The formula of CaF2 and anti-fluorite Na20 are respectively:
the compound is: (a) 8 : 4 and 6 : 3 (b) 6 : 3 and 4 : 4
(a) ABO4 (b) AB2O3 (c) 8 : 4 and 4 : 8 (d) 4 : 8 and 8 : 4
(c) A2BO4 (d) AB4O4 70. Select the incorrect statement in a CsCl crystal:
61. In a face centered cubic arrangement of A and B atoms (a) Cs+ forms a simple cubic lattice, Cl forms a simple
whose A atoms are at the corner of the unit cell and B cubic lattice
atoms at the face centers. One of the B atoms missing (b) Cl occupies body centre of Cs+
from one of the face in unit cell. The simplest formula of
compound is: (c) Cs+ occupies body centre of Cl
(a) AB3 (b) A8B5 (d) It is impossible for Cl to occupy body centre of Cs+
because the body centre void of Cs+ is smaller than Cl
(c) A2B5 (d) AB2/5
62. An alloy of copper, silver and gold is found to have
ion size
copper constituting the ccp lattice. If silver atoms
71. A binary solid (AB) has a rock salt structure. If the edge
occupy the edge centres and gold is present at body
length is 400 pm, and radius of cation
centre, the alloy will have the formula:
is 80 pm the radius of anion is:
(a) Cu4Ag2Au (b) Cu4Ag4Au
(a) 100 pm (b) 120 pm
(c) Cu4Ag3Au (d) CuAgAu
(c) 250 pm (d) 325 pm
63. Which of the following statements is correct in the rock-
72. An ionic compound AB has fluorite type structures. If
salt structure of an ionic compound? 
(a) Co-ordination no. of cation is four & anion is six the radius of B is 200 pm, then the ideal radius of A+
(b) Co-ordination no. of cation is six and anion is four would be:
(c) Co-ordination no. of each cation and anion is four (a) 82.8 pm (b) 146.4 pm
(d) Co-ordination no. of each cation and anion is six (c) 40 pm (d) 45 pm
64. Which of the following expressions is correct in case of
a sodium chloride unit cell (edge length, a)?
(a) rc +ra=a (b) rc+ra= a/2
(c) rc+ra= 2a (d) rc+ra= a 2

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[4]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]

73. CsCl has bcc structure with Cs+ at the centre and Cl ion 80. When anion leaves the normal lattice site and electron
occupies interstitial sites in its crystal
at each corner. If rCs is 1.69 A and rCl is 1.81 A, what
lattice, it is called:
is the edge length of the cube? (a) Schottky defect (b) Frenkel defect
 
(a) 3.50 A (b) 3.80 A (c) Metal excess defect (d) Stoichiometric defect
81. Which of the following defects does KBr show?
(c) 4.04 A  (d) 4.50 A 
(a) Frenkel (b) Schottky
74. CsBr has bcc type structure with edge length 4.3 pm.

(c) Metal excess (d) Metal deficiency
The shortest inter ionic distance in between Cs + and Br 82. Doping of AgCl crystals with CdCl2 results in:
is: (a) Schottky defect
(a) 3.72 pm (b) 1.86 pm (b) Frenkel defect
(c) 7.44 pm (d) 4.3 pm (c) Substitutional cation vacancy
75. If the radius of Cl ion is 181 pm, and the radius of Na+ (d) Formation of F-centres
ion is 101 pm then the edge length of unit cell is: 83. NaCl shows Schottky defects and AgCl Frenkel defects.
(a) 282 pm (b) 285.71 pm Their electrical conductivity is due to the:
(c) 512 pm (d) 564 pm (a) motion of ions and not the motion of electrons
76. Ammonium chloride crystallizes in a body centered (b) motion of electrons and not the motion of ions
cubic lattice with edge length of unit cell equal to 387 (c) lower coordination number of NaCl
pm. If the size of Cl ion is 181 pm, the size of NH4 ion (d) higher coordination number of AgCl
84. Which one of the following crystals does not exhibit
would be:
Frenkel defect?
(a) 116 pm (b) 154 pm
(a) AgBr (b) AgCl
(c) 174 pm (d) 206 pm
(c) CsCl (d) ZnS
77. Salt AB has a zinc blende structure. The radius of A2+
96. Select the incorrect statement:
2
and B ions are 0.7 A and 1.8 A respectively. The edge (a) Stoichiometry of crystal remains unaffected due to
length of AB unit cell is: Schottky defect
 
(a) 2.5 A (b) 5.09 A (b) Frenkel defect usually shown by ionic compounds
  having low coordination number
(c) 5 A (d) 5.77 A
(c) F-centres generation is responsible factor for
78. Which of the following statements for crystals having
imparting the colour to the crystal
Schottky defect is not correct?
(d) Density of crystal always increases due to
(a) Schottky defect arises due to the absence of a cation
substitutional impurity defect
or anion from the position which it is expected to
85. In diamond, carbon atoms occupy fcc lattice points as
occupy
well as alternate tetrahedral voids. If edge length of the
(b) Schottky defect are more common in ionic
unit cell is 356 pm, then diameter of carbon atom is:
compounds with high co-ordination numbers
(a) 77.07 pm (b) 154.14 pm
(c) The density of the crystals having Schottky defect is
(c) 251.7 pm (d) 89 pm
larger than that of the perfect crystal
(d) The crystal having Schottky defect is electrical 86. When NaCl is doped with 105 mole % of SrCl2, what is
neutral as a whole the no. of cationic vacancies?
79. Which of the following statements for crystals having (a) 105  NA (b) 107  NA
Frenkel defect is not correct?
(c) 2  107  NA (d) None of these
(a) Frenkel defects are observed where the difference in
sizes of cations and anions is large 87. The composition of a sample of Wustite is Fe0 930.
(b) The density of crystals having Frenkel defect is lesser What is the percentage of iron present as Fe3+ in total
than that of a pure perfect crystal iron?
(c) In an ionic crystal having Frenkel defect may also (a) 15.05% (b) 25%
contain Schottky defect (c) 35% (d) 45%
(d) Usually alkali halides do not have Frenkel defect

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[5]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
88. A certain sample of cuprous sulphide is found to have 95. The packing efficiency of the two-dimensional square
composition Cu1.8S, because of incorporation of Cu2+ unit cell shown below is -
ions in the lattice. What is the mole % of Cu2+ in total
copper content in this crystal?
(a) 99.8% (b) 11.11%
(c) 88.88% (d) None of these
89. The yellow colour of ZnO and conducting
nature produced in heating is due to - L
(a)Metal excess defects due to interstitial cation (a) 39.27 % (b) 68.02%
(b)Extra positive ions present in an interstitial site (c) 74.05% (d) 78.54%
(c) Trapped electrons A substance AxBy crystallizes in a face centered cubic
96.
(d)All
(FCC) lattice in which atoms ‗A‘ occupy each corner of
90. Frenkel defect appears in –
the cube and atoms ‗B‘ occupy the centres of each face
(a) AgI (b) ZnS
of the cube. Identify the correct composition of the
(c) AgBr (d) All
substance AxBy
91. Which of the following statements is/are not true ?
(a) Density of solid gets increased due to interstitial (a) AB3 (b) A4B3
defects (c) A3B (d) Composition can‘t be specified
(b) Frenkel defects do not alter the density of the solid 97. In a solid AB having the NaCl structure, A atoms
(c) Non-stoichiometric defects modify the formula of the occupy the corners of the cubic unit cell. If all the face
compound centered atoms along one of the axes are removed, then
(d) Non-stoichiometric defects do not alter the density of the resultant stoichiometry of the solid is –
the solid (a) AB2 (b) A2B
92. What type of crystal defect is indicated in the diagram
(c) A4B3 (d) A3B4
below ?
Na+ Cl– Na+ Cl– Na+ Cl–
– –
Cl ؓ Cl Na +
ؓ Na+
– –
Na +
Cl ؓ Cl Na +
Cl–
Cl– Na+ Cl– Na+ ؓ Na+
(a) Frenkel defect
(b) Schottky defect
(c) Interstitial defect
(d) Frenkel and Schottky defect
93. In the Schottky defect -
(a) cations are missing from the lattice sites and
occupy the interstitial sites
(b) equal number of cations and anions are missing
(c) anion are missing and electrons are present in
their place
(d) equal number of extra cations and electrons are
present in the interstitial sites
94. In a ccp lattice of X and Y, X atoms are present at the
corners while Y atoms are at face centres.What would be
the formula of the compound if one of the X atoms from
a corner is replaced by Z atoms (also monovalent) ?
(a) X7Y24Z2 (b) X7Y24Z
(c) X24Y7Z (d) ZY24Z

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[6]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]

CHAPTER-2
105. What mass of ethanol be added to 1.0 kg water to have
the mole fraction of ethanol equal to 0.20?
(a) 63.89 g (b) 6.39 g
(c) 638.89 g (d) 683.89 g
106. The volume of 96% H2S04 (density 1.83 gm/ml )

SOLUTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONLY SINGLE
required to prepare 2.0 L of 3.0 M H2S04 solution is
(a) 33.47 mL
(c) 334.7 mL
(b) 3.347 mL
(d) 343.7 mL
107. The density of 95.2 mass % H2SO4 is 1.53 gm/cm3. The
CORRECT OPTION
molarity of this solution is
(a) 12.5 mol/dm3 (b) 13.6 mol/dm3
98. Which of the following is true? 3
(c) 14.8 mol/dm (d) 16.2 mol/dm3
(a) Molarity of a solution is independent of temperature
108. The mole fraction of a solute in carbon tetrachloride is
(b) Molality of a solution is independent of temperature
0.235. The molality of the solution is about
(c)Mole fraction of a solute in a solution is dependent on
(a) 2.0 mol/kg (b) 1.5 mol/kg
temperature
(c) 1.0 mol/kg (d) 0.5 mol/kg
(d)The unit of molality is mol dm-3
109. Which of the following is true?
99. The unit of molality is:
(a) The ideal behaviour of a liquid solution is due to
(a) mol (b) mol dm-3
-1 the fact that the different molecules present in it do
(c) mol kg (d) mol-1
not interact with one another.
100. The unit of molarity is:
(b) Henry's law deals with the variation of solubility of
(a) mol (b) mol-1
-3 gas with temperature.
(c) mol dm (d) mol kg-1
(c) The constituents of an ideal solution follow Raoult's
101. The expression relating molarity of a solution with its
law under all conditions.
molality is
(d) The addition of a nonvolatile solute to a volatile
1+ mM2 mρ
(a) M = (b) M = solvent decreases the boiling point of the latter.
mρ 1 + mM2 110. For an ideal solution with p A> pB, which of the following
1 + mρ mM2 is true?
(c) M = (d) M = (a)   A liquid    A vapour (b)   A liquid    A vapour
mM2 1 + mρ
where the various symbols have their usual meanings. (c)   A liquid    A vapour (d)   A liquid &   A vapour
102. The expression relating mole fraction of solute in a
111. Which of the following behaviours is not true for an
solution with its molality is
ideal binary liquid solution?
1 + mM1 1  mM1 (a) Plot of pA versus  A (mole fraction of A in liquid
(a)  2 = (b)  2 =
mM1 mM1
phase) is linear
mM1 mM1 (b) Plot of pB versus  B is linear
(c)  2 = (d)  2 =
1 + mM1 1  mM1 (c) Plot of ptotal versus  A (or  B ) is linear
where the various symbols have their usual meanings.
(d) Plot of ptotal versus  A (or  B ) is nonlinear
103. The expression relating mole fraction of solute in a
solution with its molarity is 112. For a dilute solution, Raoult's law states that
(a) the lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole
MM1 MM1
(a) 2 = (b)  2 = fraction of solute
M(M1 + M2 )+  M(M1  M2 )+ 
---- (b) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to
MM1 MM1 the mole fraction of solute
(c)  2 = --(d)  2 =
M(M1 + M2 )   M(M1  M2 )   (c) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is
where the various symbols have their usual meanings. proportional to the amount of solute in solution
104. The density of a 10.0% by mass KCl solution in water is (d) the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the
1.06 g cm 3. Its molarity is mole fraction of solvent
(a) 1.489 M (b) 1.420 M
(c) 1.420 mol kg 1 (d) 1.489 mol kg 1

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
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 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
113. Raoult's law is obeyed by a binary liquid solution when 119. Which of the following solutions is expected to show
(a) the forces of attractions between like molecules are positive deviations from Raoult's law?
greater than those between unlike molecules (a) Pyridine-formic acid (b) Ethanol-hexane
(b) the forces of attractions between like molecules are (c) Acetone-chloroform (d) Hydrochloric acid-water
smaller than those between unlike molecules 120. Which of the following solutions is expected to show
(c) the forces of attractions between like molecules are negative deviations from Raoult's law?
more or less identical with those between unlike (a) Ethanol-hexane (b) Ethanol-water
molecules (c) Acetone-chloroform (d) Ethyl ether-acetone
(d) the volume occupied by unlike molecules are 121. The dissolution of sulphuric acid in water will exhibit
different (a) negative deviations from ideal behaviour
114. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point (b) positive deviations from ideal behaviour
lower than either of the boiling points of the two liquids (c) ideal behaviour
when it (d) negative or positive deviation depending upon the
(a) shows negative deviation from Raoult's law mass of H2SO4 dissolved.
(b) shows positive deviation from Raoult's law 122. The formation of an ideal solution involves
(c) shows no deviation from Raoult's law (a) increase in enthalpy
(d) is saturated (b) increase in entropy
115. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point (c) increase in free energy
higher than either of the boiling points of the two liquids (d) increase in energy
when it 123. The vapour-pressure lowering of a solvent in a solution
(a) shows negative deviation from Raoult's law is proportional to
(b) shows positive deviation from Raoult's law (a) the mole fraction of the solute
(c) shows no deviation from Raoult's law (b) the mole fraction of the solvent
(d) is saturated (c) the molality of the solvent
116. Which of the following behaviours is true for an ideal (d) the normality of the solution
binary liquid solution? 124. The vapour pressure of a solvent in a solution is
(a) Plot of ptolal versus yA (mole fraction of A in vapour proportional to
phase) is linear (a) the mole fraction of the solute
(b) Plot of ptotal versus yB is linear (b) the mole fraction of the solvent
1 (c) the molality of the solvent
(c) Plot of versus yA (or yB) is linear (d) the normality of the solute
ptotal
125. The vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene are
1 160 Torr and 60 Torr, respectively. The mole fraction of
(d) Plot of versus yA (or or yB ) is nonlinear
ptotal benzene in vapour phase in contact with equimolar
117. A binary solution of ethanol and n-heptane is an solution of benzene and toluene would be
example of (a) 0.50 (b) 0.84
(a) an ideal solution (c) 0.73 (d) 0.27
(b) a non ideal solution with positive deviations from 126. The mass of sucrose to be added to 300 g of water to
Raoult's law lower its vapour pressure by 1.0 mmHg at 25°C is
(c) a non-ideal solution with negative deviations from (Given: p° (water) = 23.8 mmHg)
Raoult's law. (a) 249.9 g (b) 329.4 g
(d) a solution exhibiting positive deviations at low (c) 215.2 g (d) 342.2 g
concentrations and negative deviations at higher 127. A solution contains 1 mol of pentane ( p° = 450 mmHg)
concentration and 4 mol of hexane ( p° = 150 mmHg), the mole
118. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has boiling point
fraction of pentane in vapour phase will be
lower than either of them when it
(a) 0.454 (b) 0.429
(a) shows negative deviations from Raoult's law
(c) 0.641 (d) 0.75
(b) shows positive deviations from Raoult's law
(c) shows no deviations from Raoult's law
(d) follows Henry's law

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128. When a sugar-solution is slowly frozen, the first solid 137. Molal elevation boiling point constant Kb depends
which separates out is (a) only on the nature of solvent
(a) ice (b) only on the nature of solute
(b) solid solution of sugar and ice (c) on the nature of both solute and solvent
(c) sugar (d) remains constant at a place at different heights from
(d) a compound formed from sugar and water the sea level.
129. In the phenomenon of osmosis through the 138. The osmotic pressure of a solution (d = 1.02 g/cm3 )
semipermeable membrane containing 50 g glucose (C6H12O6) in 1 kg of water at
(a) solvent molecules pass from solution to solvent 300 K is
(b) solvent molecules pass from solvent to solution (a) 67.39 kPa (b) 673.43 kPa
(c) solute molecules pass from solution to solvent (c) 6.74 kPa (d) 673.85 Pa
(d) solute molecules pass from solvent to solution 139. Isotonic solutions have the same
130. The freezing point of a 0.05 molal solution of a (a) freezing point (b) boiling point
nonelectrolyte in water is (c) osmotic pressure (d) vapour pressure
(a)-1.86°C (b) -0.93°C 140. Through the semi permeable membrane, there can occur
(c) - 0.093 °C (d) 0.93 °C (a) flow of solute only.
131. The freezing point depression constant is given as (b) flow of solvent only
M1RTf2 M1R (c) flow of both solute and solvent.
(a) k f = (b) k f = (d) no flow of both solute and solvent.
ΔHfusion  1000 2
Tf ΔHfusion  1000
141. The expression to compute molar mass of a solute from
M1Tf2 ΔHfusion  1000 the relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solvent is
(c) k f = (d) k f =
RΔHfusion  1000 M1RTf2  m2 
where the various symbols have their usual meanings. (a) M2 =    Δp1 
 m1/M1 
132. The unit of freezing point depression constant is
 m2   Δp1 
(a) K mol1 (b) K kg 1mol1 (b) M2 =    
 m1/M1   p1 
(c) K kg mol1 (d) K kg1
133. The boiling point elevation constant is given as  
(c) M2 = m2 Δp1 / p1 /  m1 / M1 


(a) k b =
M1RTb2
(b) k b = M1R (d) M2 = m  Δp
2 1 / p m

1 1 / M1 
ΔHvap.  1000 2
Tb ΔHvap.  1000
where the various symbols have their usual meanings.
M1Tb2 ΔHvap.  1000 142. The expression to compute molar mass of a solute from
(c) k b = (d) k b =
RΔHvap.  1000 M1RTb2 the elevation of boiling point of a solvent is
where the various symbols have their usual meanings. k b m1 ΔTb m2
(a) M2 = (b) M2 =
134. The normal boiling point of pure ethyl acetate is 77.06 ΔTb m2 k b m1
°C. A solution of 50.0 g of naphthalene (C10H8)
k b m2 ΔTb m1
dissolved in 150 g of ethyl acetate boils at 84.27 °C. The (c) M2 = (d) M2 =
ΔTb m1 k b m2
boiling point elevation constant of ethyl acetate is
where the various symbols have their usual meanings.
(a) 2.77 K kg mol1 (b) 1.88 K kg mol1
143. The expression to compute molar mass of a solute from
(c) 2.12 K kg mol1 (d) 1.54 K kg mol1 the depression in freezing point of a solvent is
135. The boiling point of a solution at a height of 10 km k f m1 ΔTf m2
(a) M2 = (b) M2 =
above sea level is ΔTf m2 k f m1
(a) found to be greater than that at sea level
k f m2 ΔTf m1
(b) found to be lesser than that at sea level (c) M2 = (d) M2 =
(c) found to be the same as that at sea level ΔTf m1 k f m2
(d) dependent upon the air dissolved in solution where the various symbols have their usual meanings.
136. A solution of sucrose in 100 g of water boils at
100.25°C. If this solution is boiled till its temperature is
101°C,the mass of water evaporated from the solution is
(a) 25 g (b) 50 g
(c) 75 g (d) 85 g

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
144. The molar mass of a solute from the osmotic pressure 153. The vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 10 torr and at
which it produces when a mass m of solute is dissolved the same temperature when 1g of B solid is dissolved in
in volume V is given by the expression 20 g of A, its vapour pressure is reduced to 9.0 torr. If
m 
(a) M =   (b) M =  
m RT the molecular mass of A is 200 amu, then the molecular
V   V  RT mass of B is-
(a) 100 amu (b) 90 amu
(c) M = 
m
  RT (d) M =  m   R (c) 75 amu (d) 120 amu
V V T 154. The vapour pressure of a liquid in a closed container
145. The vapour pressure of a solution having 2.0 g of a depends upon –
solute X (molar mass 32 g mol1) in 100 g of CS2 (vapour (a) Amount of liquid (b) Surface area of the container
pressure 854 Torr) is 848.9 Torr. The molecular formula (c) Temperature (d) None of the above
of the solute is 155. The density of 3M solution of sodium thioslphate
(a) X (b) X2 (c) X4 (d) X8 (Na2S2O3) is 1.58 g/ml. Calcualte the amount of Na2S2O3
146. The vapour pressure of a solution of 5 g of a non by w/w %
electrolyte in 100 g water at a particular temperature is (a) 30 % (b) 40 %
2950 Pa and that of pure water at the same temperature (c) 49 % (d) 55 %
is 3000 Pa. The molar mass of the solute is 156. The plot of 1/xA versus 1/yA (where xA and yA are the
(a) 54 g mol-1 (b) 119 g mol-1
mole fractions of A in liquid and vapour phases
(c) 179 g mol-1 (d) 229 g mol-1
respectively) is linear whose slope and intercept
147. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 10.0 Torr. At
respectively are given as –
27 °C 1 gram of B is dissolved in 20 g of A, the vapour
(a) p°A / p°B , ( p°A – p°B) /p°B
pressure is lowered to 9.0 Torr. If the molar mass of A is
200 g mol-1, the molar mass of B is (b) p°A / p°B , ( p°B – p°A) /p°B
(a) 75 g mol-1 (b) 85 g mol-1 (c) p°B / p°A , ( p°A – p°B) /p°B
-1
(c) 100 g mol (d) 115 g mol-1 (d) p°B / p°A , ( p°B – p°A)/p°B
148. A solution contains 10 g of a solute and 116 g of acetone
157. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?
at 30 °C. Its vapour pressure is 290 Torr. If the vapour
(a) Greater the lowering of vapour pressure, greater is the
pressure of pure acetone is 300 Torr at 30 °C, the molar
boiling point of the solution
mass of solute is
(b) Greater the lowering of vapour pressure, greater is the
(a) 75 g mol-1 (b) 100 g mol-1
-1
freezing point of the solution
(c) 125 g mol (d) 150 g mol-1
(c) At the freezing point, the solute and the solvent have
149. The molar mass of acetic acid dissolved in benzene
same vapour pressure
determined from the depression in freezing point is
found to be (d) The units of molal depression constant are Km–1
(a) 30 g mol-1 (b) 60 g mol-1 158. Two solutions A and B are separated by a
(c) 120 g mol-1 (d) 240 g mol-1 semipermeable membrane. As a result of osmosis, the
150. The freezing point of a solution containing 36 g of a level of solution A is found to rise. It implies that –
compound (empirical formula : CH2O) in 1.20 kg of (a) Solution A is more concentrated than solution B
water is found to be - 0.93 °C. The molecular formula of (b) Solution B is more concentrated than solution A
the solute is (c) The solute molecules of A are smaller than those of B
(a) CH20 (b) C2H402 (d) The solute molecules of B are smaller than those of A
(c) C3H603 (d) C4H804
151. A solution containing 8.6 g L-1 of urea (molar mass 60 g
mol-1) is isotonic with a 5% solution of unknown solute.
The molar mass of the solute will be
(a) 348.9 g mol-1 (b) 174.5 g mol-1
-1
(c) 87.3 g mol (d) 34.89 g mol-1
152. Which of the following physical properties is used to
determine the molar mass of a polymer solution?
(a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
(b) Elevation of boiling point
(c) Depression of freezing point
(d) Osmotic pressure
QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL
[10]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]

CHAPTER-7
170. The reddish-brown coloured gas formed when nitric
oxide is oxidized by air is :
(a) N2O5 (b) N2O4
(c) NO2 (d) NH3
171. Phosphorus is kept in :

p-BLOCK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONLY SINGLE
(a) cold water
(c) Alcohol
(b) ammonia
(d) Kerosene
172. Ammonia is soluble in water because it is :
(a) a polar molecule (b) an acid
CORRECT OPTION (c) a base (d) a single covalent compound
159. Element with atomic number 33 will be placed in the: 173. Lead nitrate on heating gives lead oxide, nitrogen
(a) First Group (b) Third Group dioxide and oxygen, the reaction is known as:
(c) Fifth Group (d) Seventh Group (a)Combustion (b)Combination
160. The hydride with a pyramidal shape is: (c)Displacement (d)Decomposition
(a) B2H6 (b)SiH4 174. Which is not fertilizer :
(c) PH4+ (d)NH3 (a) Urea (b) Superphosphate
161. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is a coloured (c) Sodium (d) Potassium Nitrate
gas: 175. Aqua-regia is a mixture of :
(a) N2O (b) NO (a) 3HCl + 1HNO3 (b)3HNO3 + 1HCl
(c) N2O4 (d) NO2 (c)H3PO4 +H2SO4 (d)HCl +CH3COOH
162. In the manufacture of safety matches, we use: 176. Element which catches fire in air at 30 C and is stored
(a) Red phosphorus under water is :
(b) White Phosphorus (a)Calcium (b)Sodium
(c) Sulphur (c)White phosphorus (d)Strontium
(d)White phosphorus and sulphur 177. Which of these chlorides is explosive :
163. Fixation of nitrogen means: (a)PCl3 (b)AsH3
(a) Reaction of nitrogen with oxygen (c)NCl3 (d)SbCl5
(b) Conversion of free atmospheric nitrogen into 178. Among the phosphatic fertilizers, superphosphate of
nitrogen compounds lime is a mixture of Ca(H2PO4)2 and :
(c) decomposition of nitrogeneous compounds to yield (a) CaSO4.2H2O (b) CaSO4.H2O
free nitrogen (c) CaSO4.½H2 O (d) CaSO4
(d) the action of denitrifying bacteria on nitrogen 179. Aqueous solution of ammonia consists of :
compounds (a) H+ (b) OH-
164. The chemical used for cooling in refrigerator is: (c) NH4 +
(d) NH4+ and OH-
(a) CO2 (b) NH4OH 180. Nitrolim is :
(c) Liquid NH3 (d) NH4Cl (a) Ca(CN)2 (b) CaC2+N2
165. Nitrogen molecule is chemically less active because it (c) CaCN2 (d) CaCN2 +C
has between two nitrogen atoms a: 181. Neutral oxide of nitrogen is/are :
(a) Single bond (b) double bond (a) N2O3 (b) NO
(c) triple bond (d) co-ordinate bond (c) N2O (d) Both (b) and (c)
166. Nitrogen forms…….. Oxides: 182. P-P-P bond angle in white phosphorus is :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (a) 1200 (b) 1080
(c) 5 (d) 6 (c) 90 0
(d) 600
167. The oxidation states of phosphorus vary from: 183. Following are the properties of HNO3 :
(a) -1 to +3 (b) -3 to +3 (a) Reducing agent and bleaching agent
(c) -3 to +5 (d) -5 to +1 (b) Acidic and oxidizing agent
168. Structure of NH3 is: (c) Alkaline and reducing agent
(a) trigonal (b) tetrahedral (d) Reducing agent and bleaching agent
(c) pyramidal (d) trigonal bipyramidal
169. Chemical formula for the phosphorus molecule is:
(a) P (b) P4
(c) P2 (d) P5

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
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SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
184. Structure of white phosphorus is : 198. Catalyst used in contact process is :
(a) Square planar (b) Pyraqmidal (a) nitric oxide
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Triangular planar (b) vanadium pentoxide
185. A compound of nitrogen which is explosive is : (c) vanadium pentachloride
(a) NCl3 (b) N2O5 (d) finely divided nickel
(c) NH3 (d) NF3 199. Sulphur is readily soluble in :
186. N,P,As,Sb and Bi are present in VA group. So, number (a) alcohol (b) carbon disulphide
of electrons in outermost shell of Bi is : (c) ether (d) water
(a) Seven (b) Five 200. A considerable part of the harmful ultraviolet radiation
(c) Three (d) One of the sun does not reach the surface of the earth. This is
187. Nitric acid on standing develops brownish colour which because, high above earth‘s atmosphere is a layer of :
may be attributed to the presence of : (a) carbon dioxide (b) hydrogen
(a) NO2+ ions (b) NO3- ions (c) ozone (d) ammonia
(c) NO2 (d) HNO2 201. Ozone is :
188. Phosphorus penta-oxide finds use as : (a) mild oxidizing agent (b) powerful oxidising agent
(a) )An oxidising (b) A reducing agent (c) powerful reducing agent(d) mild reducing agent
(c) A bleaching agent (d) A dehydrating agent 202. Hydrogen peroxide does not react as :
189. The group 15 elements are commonly known as : (a) reducing agent (b) oxidizing agent
(a) Pnicogens (b) Chalcogens (c) dehydrating agent (d) bleaching agent
(c) Aerogens (d) Halogens 203. True acidic anhydride is :
190. Which of the following does not form stable diatomic (a) NO (b) CO
molecule : (c) N2O5 (d) ClO2
(a) Iodine (b) Phosphorus 204. The orbitals of oxygen used for bonding to hydrogen in
(c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen water are :
191. Which element forms M3- ion most readily: (a) p-orbitals (b) sp-hybridised orbitals
(a) As (b) P (c) sp -hybridised orbitals (d) sp3 –hybridised orbitals
2

(c) N (d)Sb 205. Which of the following burns to form an oxide which is
192. Skin turns yellow in contact with conc. HNO3 because : gaseous at room temperature:
(a) The proteins are converted into xanthoproteins (a) hydrogen (b) helium
(b) The water is removed by the acid (c) sodium (d) sulphur
(c) The Skin is burnt by the acid 206. H2O2 acts as oxidizing agent in :
(d) Skin is oxidised (a)neutral medium (b) acidic medium
193. Red phosphorus is less reactive than white phosphorus (c)alkaline medium
because it is : (d) acidic as well as alkaline medium
(a) Red coloured (b) Hard 207. The most stable allotrope of sulphur is :
(c) Highly polymerized (d) Insoluble in organic solvents (a) rhombic sulphur (b) monoclinic sulphur
194. Which one of following VIA elements, has highest (c) plastic sulphur (d) flowers of sulphur
catenation power : 208. Which possesses reducing properties :
(a) O (b) S (c) Se (d) Te (a) H2S (b) SO3
195. Thionyl chloride is : (c) H2SO4 (d) None of these
(a) SOCl2 (b) SO2Cl 209. Number of atoms in one molecule of sulphur :
(c) SO2Cl2 (d) SO2HCl (a)8 (b) 4
196. When concentrated sulphuric acid is added to sugar, the (c)3 (d) Any
latter is charred. In this process, the sugar is : 210. Which is wrong about O3 :
(a) oxidized (b) reduced (a) it is paramagnetic in nature
(c) dehydrated (d) sulphonated (b) it has a linear structure
197. Ozone is an : (c) it decolourises acidic KMnO4
(a) isomorphic from of oxygen (d) All
(b) allotropic form of oxygen 211. Which is a colourless gas :
(c) isomer of O2 (a) O3 (b) Cl2
(d) isotope of O2 (c) NO2 (d) None

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
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212. Which group of elements is called the chalcogens : 227. There is an ozone layer at a height of about 29
(a) N,P, As, Sb (b) Po,Te,Se,S,O kilometers above the surface of the earth. Which of the
( c) I,Br,Cl,F (d) Ti,Zr,Hf, Ku following statements is true:
213. Which has maximum heat of formation and stability : (a) It is harmful because ozone is dangerous to living
(a) H2S (b) H2Se organisms
(c) H2Te (d) H2O (b) It is beneficial because oxidation reactions can
214. Whose valency is limited to two : proceed faster in the presence of ozone
(a) O (b) Te (c) It is beneficial because ozone cuts out the ultraviolet
(c) S (d) Se radiations of the sun
215. O3 is soluble in : (d) It is harmful because ozone cuts out the important
(a) CCl4 (b) Turpentine oil radiations of sun which are vital for photosynthesis
(c) Glacial acetic acid (d) all 228. The correct formula of ‗hypo‘ is :
216. O3 does not give ozonide with : (a) Na2S2O3.2H2O (b) Na2S2O3.4H2O
(a) 2-Butene (b) Benzene (c) Na2SO4 (d) Na2S2O3.5H2O
(c) 2-pentyne (d) Neopentane 229. Which is correct about ozone :
217. The minimum catenation ability is shown by : (a) it is highly soluble in water
(a) oxygen (b) sulphur (b) it is an allotrope of oxygen
(c) selenium (d) tellurium (c) it reduces ferric compounds to ferrous
218. Which shows polymorphism : (d) it burns in air with a blue flame
(a) O (b) S 230. The acid used in lead storage battery is :
(c) Se (d) all (a) nitric acid (b) sulphuric acid
219. Metal reacts with sulphur to give : (c) hydrochloric (d) phosphoric acid
(a) sulphide (b) sulphite 231. Anhydride of sulphuric acid is :
(c) sulphate (d) thiosulphate (a) SO3 (b) SO2
220. About H2SO4 which is incorrect : (c) HSO3- (d) H2SO4
(a) Reducing agent (b) dehydrating agent 232. Which of the following metals forms an amphoteric
(c) sulphonating agent (d) highly viscous oxide :
221. H2O2 reduces K3[Fe(CN)6] in : (a) Cr (b) Fe
(a) Neutral solution (b) Acidic solution (c) Cu (d) Zn
(c) Non-polar medium (d) Alkaline solution 233. Which of the following statements is correct :
222. In the upper layers of the atmosphere, ozone is formed : (a) Ozone molecule does not show resonance
(a) By the combination of oxygen molecules (b) Ozone is an allotropic modification of oxygen
(b) By the action of electric discharge on oxygen (c) Ozone is an isomer of oxygen
molecules (d) Ozone has no relationship with oxygen
(c) By the action of ultra-violet rays on oxygen 234. H2S is far more volatile than water because :
(d) By subjecting oxygen to high pressure (a)Sulphur atom is more electronegative than oxygen
223. Sulphurous anyydride is : atom
(a)SO2 (b)HSO3- (b) Oxygen atom is more electronegative than sulphur
(c)SO3 (d)SO3˗˗ atom
224. Oxygen molecule shows : (c) H2O has bond angle of nearly 1050
(a) paramagnetism (b) diamagnetism (d) Hydrogen is loosely bonded with sulphur
(c)ferrimagnetism (d) ferromagnetism 235. Which of the following metals loses its meniscus after
225. Ozone is made from oxygen by : reaction with ozone :
a) Oxidation at high temperature (a) Pb (b) Hg
b) Oxidizing using as a catalyst (c) Cu (d) Ag
c) Conversion under high pressure 236. The largest tendency for bonding to itself in chains
d) Silent electric discharge (catenation) is shown by :
226. Lead chamber process is used for the manufacture of : (a) N (b) P
(a)nitric oxide (b) sulphuric acid (c) S (d) O
(c) ammonia (d) bleaching powder 237. The metal oxide which decomposes on heating is :
(a)ZnO (b)Al2O3
(c) CuO (d) HgO

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
238. When water is added to concentrated H2SO4, it gets very 252. The catalyst used in the manufacture of H 2 SO 4 by
hot. This happens because dilution of conc. H2SO4 is : contact process is
(a) an exothermic reaction (a) Al2 O3 (b) Cr2O3
(b) an endothermic reaction
(c) photochemical reaction (c) V2 O5 (d) MnO2
(d) hydrolysis reaction 253. The molecular formula of sulphur is
239. When H2SO4 acts upon sugar , it behaves as : (a) S (b) S 2
(a) a dehydrating agent (b) an oxidizing agent (c) S 4 (d) S 8
(c) a sulphonating agent (d) none of the above
254. Shape of O2 F2 is similar to that of
240. Which of the following oxides is neutral :
(a) N2O (b) NO2 (a) C2 F2 (b) H 2 O 2
(c) P2O5 (d) Bi2O3 (c) H 2 F2 (d) C 2 H 2
241. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide : 255. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy
(a) MgO (b) BaO (a) Se  Se (b) Te  Te
(c) Al2O3 (a) P2O5 (c) S  S (d) O  O
242. Which oxide of nitrogen is used as a catalyst in the lead 256. Which of the following is not a chalcogen
chamber process for the manufacture of sulphuric acid : (a) O (b) S
(a) NO (b) N2O (c) Se (d) Na
(c) N2O3 (d) N2O5 257. Permono sulphuric acid is known as
243. In SF6, hybridization of sulphur is : (a) Marshall's acid (b) Caro's acid
(a) )sp3d2 (b) dsp2 (c) Sulphuric acid (d) None of these
3
(c) sp3d (d) sp3 258. Which of the following hydride shows the highest
244. In SO2 molecules S atom is : boiling point
(a) sp hybridized (b) sp2 hybridized (a) H2O (b) H 2S
3
(c) sp hybridized (d) sp3d hybridized
(c) H2Se (d) H2 Te
245. H2S is a :
(a) strong dibasic acid (b) weak monobasic acid 259. In presence of moisture, SO2 can
(c) weak dibasic acid (d) strong monobasic acid (a) Act as oxidant (b) Lose electron
246. Oxygen shows positive oxidation state in : (c) Gain electron (d) Not act as reductant
(a) F2O (b) N2O 260. Which of the following is formed by the action of water
(c) NO (d) CO on sodium peroxide
247. In the Qualitative Salt Analysis H2S is used for (a) H 2 (b) N 2
precipitation of cations of : (c) O 2 (d) CO2
(a) 2nd group (b) 2nd group and 4th group
261. Sulphur on boiling with NaOH solution gives
(c) 3 group and 4 group (d)4th group and 5th group
rd th

248. Sulphur is soluble in : (a) Na 2S2O3 +NaHSO3 (b) Na 2S2O3 +Na 2S

(a) water (b) dilute HCl (c) Na 2SO3 +H2S (d) Na 2SO3 +SO2
(c) carbon disulphide (d) ether 262. Conc. H2SO4 is diluted
249. The following is the bond of maximum bond energy : (a) By adding water in H2SO4
(a) S-S (b) O-O
(b) By adding H2SO4 in water
(c) Se-Se (d) Te-Te
250. The noble gas which forms interstitial compounds is : (c) By adding glacial acetic acid in H2SO4
(a) Xenon (b) Helium (d) None of the above
(c) Neon (d) Krypton 263. The smog is essentially caused by the presence of
251. Which of the following hydrides has the lowest boiling (a) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen
point (b) O 2 and N 2
(a) H2 O (b) H 2S (c) O 2 and O 3
(c) H2Se (d) H2 Te (d) O 3 and N 2

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
264. Bleaching action of SO 2 is due to its 278. A quick supply of Cl2 gas may be made by reacting
(a) Oxidising property (b) Acidic property crystals of KMnO4 with a concentrated solution of
(c) Basic property (d) Reducing property (a) Potassium chloride (b) Sodium chloride
265. Sulphur in +3 oxidation state is present in (c) Bleaching powder (d) Hydrochloric acid
(a) Sulphurous acid (b) Pyrosulphuric acid 279. The strongest acid amongst the following is
(c) Dithionous acid (d) Thiosulphuric acid (a) HClO4 (b) HClO 3
266. SO2 +H 2S   product. the final product is
(c) HClO 2 (d) HClO
(a) H2O+S (b) H2SO4 280. Which of the following is correct
(c) H2SO3 (d) H2S2 O3 (a) Iodine is a solid
267. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen (b) Chlorine is insoluble in water
halides (H –X) is (c) Iodine is more reactive than bromine
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (d) Bromine is more reactive than chlorine
(c) HCl < HF < HBr < HI (d) HI> HCl < HF < HBr 281. When KBr is treated with concentrated H 2 SO 4 redish
268. The solubility of iodine in water increases in the brown gas evolved, gas is
presence of:- (a) Mixture of bromine and HBr
(a) Alcohol (b) Chloroform (b) HBr
(c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Potassium iodide (c) Bromine
269. When thiosulphate ion is oxidised by iodine, which one (d) None of these
of the following ion is produced 282. Which of the following is most active halogen
(a) SO 32  (b) SO 42  (a) F2 (b) Cl 2
(c) S 4 O 62  (Tetrathionate) (d) S 2 O 62  (c) Br2 (d) I 2
270. Bromine is liberated when an aqueous solution of 283. Which of the following represents clear electropositive
potassium bromide is treated with properties
(a) Cl 2 (b) I 2 (a) F (b) Cl
(c) Dilute H 2 SO 4 (d) SO 2 (c) Br (d) I
284. Which statement is false
271. Which of the following has greatest reducing power
(a) Electronegativity of fluorine is maximum
(a) HF (b) HCl
(b) Electron affinity of fluorine is maximum
(c) HBr (d) HI
(c) Melting point of fluorine is minimum
272. Which one of the following acids is the weakest
(d) Boiling point of fluorine is maximum
(a) HClO (b) HBr
285. Strongest reducing agent is
(c) HClO3 (d) HCl
(a) F  (b) Cl 
273. Chlorine reacts with sodium hydroxide under various
(c) Br  (d) I 
condition to give
286. Which of the following represents outermost shell
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Sodium hypochlorite
electronic configuration of halogens
(c) Sodium chlorate (d) All of these
274. When Cl 2 gas is passed through hot and conc. solution (a) s 2 p 3 (b) s 2 p 6
of KOH , following compound is formed (c) s 2 p 4 (d) s 2 p 5
(a) KCl (b) KClO3 287. In dark, which of the following reacts with hydrogen
(c) KClO2 (d) KClO4 (a) Br2 (b) F2
275. Deacon's process is used in the manufacture of (c) I2 (d) Cl 2
(a) Bleaching powder (b) Sulphuric acid 288. The more activeness of fluorine is due to
(c) Nitric acid (d) Chlorine (a) F-F bond has less energy
276. Which of the following is the weakest acid (b) F2 is gas at normal temperature
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) Its electronic bond is maximum
(c) HBr (d) HI (d) F-F bond has more energy
277. Which is the most volatile compound
(a) HF (b) HCl
(c) HBr (d) HI

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
289. Aqueous solution of which of the following acids cannot 299. Fluorine does not form positive oxidation states because
be kept in a bottle of glass (a) It is most electronegative element
(a) HF (b) HCl (b) It forms only anions in ionic compounds
(c) HBr (d) HI (c) It cannot form multiple bonding
290. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched (d) It shows non-bonded electron pair repulsion due to
(a) A halogen which is liquid at room temperature— small size
Bromine 300. Fluorine reacts with water to give
(b) The most electronegative element—Fluorine (a) HF and O 2 (b) HF and OF2
(c) The most reactive halogen—Fluorine (c) HF and O 3 (d) HF , O 2 and O 3
(d) The strongest oxidizing halogen—Iodine
301. In which of the following, oxygen has + 2 oxidation
291. As the atomic number of halogens increases, the
number
halogens
(a) F2 O (b) Cl 2 O
(a) Lose the outermost electrons less readily
(b) Become lighter in colour (c) Na 2 O 2 (d) Na 2 O
(c) Become less denser 302. In the preparation of chlorine from HCl , MnO 2 acts as
(d) Gain electrons less readily (a) Oxidising agent (b) Reducing agent
292. Which statement is correct about halogens (c) Catalytic agent (d) Dehydrating agent
(a) They are all diatomic and form univalent ions 303. When cold NaOH reacts with Cl2 which of the
(b) They are all capable of exhibiting several oxidation following is formed
states
(a) NaClO (b) NaClO2
(c) They are all diatomic and form divalent ions
(c) NaClO3 (d) None of these
(d) They can mutually displace each other from the
solution of their compounds with metals 304. Chlorine is used in water for
293. Mark the element which shows only one oxidation state (a) Killing germs (b) Prevention of pollution
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Cleansing (d) Removing dirt
(c) Br (d) I 305. Chlorine cannot be used
294. Which of the following is strongest oxidising agent (a) As bleaching agent
(b) In sterilisation
(a) F2 (b) Cl 2
(c) In preparation of antiseptic
(c) Br2 (d) I 2 (d) For extraction of silver and copper
295. Fluorine is a better oxidising agent than Br2 . It is due to 306. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only in presence of
(a) Dry air (b) Moisture
(a) Small size of fluorine
(c) Sunlight (d) Pure oxygen
(b) More electron repulsion in fluorine
307. When chlorine is passed over dry slaked lime at room
(c) More electronegativity of fluorine
temperature, the main reaction product is
(d) Non-metallic nature of fluorine
(a) Ca(ClO2 ) 2 (b) CaCl 2
296. Fluorine is a stronger oxidising agent than chlorine in
aqueous solution. This is attributed to many factors (c) CaOCl 2 (d) Ca(OCl 2 )2
except 
308. Br is converted into Br2 by using
(a) Heat of dissociation (b) Electron affinity
(c) Heat of hydration (d) Ionisation potential (a) Cl 2 (b) Conc. HCl
297. Mark the element which displaces three halogens from (c) HBr (d) H 2S
their compounds 309. KI when heated with conc. H2SO4 gives
(a) F (b) Cl
(a) HI (b) I 2
(c) Br (d) I
298. Which of the following will displace the halogen from (c) HIO3 (d) KIO3
the solution of the halide 310. The type of bonding in HCl molecule is
(a) Br2 added to NaCl solution (a) Pure covalent (b) Polar covalent
(b) Cl 2 added to KCl solution (c) Highly covalent (d) H-bonding
(c) KCl added to NaF solution
(d) Br2 added to KI solution

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
311. HCl is a gas, but HF is a low boiling liquid. This is 322. The element which never acts as reducing agent in a
because chemical reaction is
(a) H  F bond is strong (a) O (b) Li
(b) H  F bond is weak (c) F (d) C
(c) The molecules aggregate because of hydrogen 323. Which one is highest melting halide
bonding in HF (a) NaCl (b) NaBr
(d) HF is a weak acid (c) NaF (d) NaI
312. HI cannot be prepared by the action of conc. H 2 SO 4 on 324. Which of the following oxidizes H 2 O to oxygen
KI because (a) Chlorine (b) Fluorine
(a) HI is stronger than H 2 SO 4 (c) Bromine (d) Iodine
(b) HI is more volatile than H 2 SO 4 325. The effective component of bleaching powder is ..... of
calcium
(c) H 2 SO 4 is an oxidising agent
(a) Chlorine (b) Bromine
(d) H 2 SO 4 forms complex (c) Aluminium (d) Calcium
313. A solution of HCl in water is good conductor while 326. Na2 S 2 O3  I2  Product is
gaseous hydrogen chloride is not. This is due to the (a) Na2 S (b) NaI
reason that
(c) Na 2 S 4 O6 (d) S 2
(a) Water is a good conductor of electricity
(b) HCl in water ionises 327. Which one will liberate Br2 from KBr
(c) Gas can not conduct electricity but water can (a) I 2 (b) SO 2
(d) None of these (c) HI (d) Cl 2
314. Sodium chloride when heated with conc. H 2 SO 4 and 328. The mixture of concentrated HCl and HNO 3 made in 3 :
solid potassium dichromate gives 1 ratio contains
(a) Chromic chloride (b) Chromyl chloride
(a) ClO2 (b) NOCl
(c) Chromous chloride (d) None of these
315. Hydrogen bonding does not play any role in boiling of (c) NCl 3 (d) N 2 O4
(a) NH 3 (b) H 2 O 329. Which of the following statements is not true
(c) HI (d) C 2 H 5 OH (a) HF is a stronger acid than HCl
(b) Among halide ions, iodide is the most powerful
316. HBr and HI reduce sulphuric acid, HCl can reduce
reducing agent
KMnO4 and HF can reduce:
(c) Fluorine is the only halogen that does not show a
(a) H 2 SO 4 (b) KMnO4 variable oxidation state
(c) K 2 Cr2 O7 (d)None of these (d) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr
317. Mark the strongest acid 330. The correct order of acidic strength
(a) HF (b) HCl (a) Cl2O7  SO 2  P4 O10 (b) K2  CaO  MgO
(c) HBr (d) HI (c) CO2  N 2 O5  SO 3 (d) Na2O  MgO  Al2 O3
318. Which of the following hydrogen halides has the highest 331. NaOCl is used as a bleaching agent and sterilising agent.
boiling point It can be synthesized by the action of
(a) HF (b) HCl (a) NaCl with H 2 O (b) NH 4 Cl with NaOH
(c) HBr (d) HI (c) Cl 2 with cold and dilute NaOH
(d) Cl 2 with hot and concentrated NaOH
319. Hydrogen bonding is present in
(a) HF (b) HCl 332. Which one among the following non-metals liquid at
(c) HBr (d) HI 25 o C
320. Which one is the anhydride of HClO 4 (a) Bromine (b) Carbon
(c) Phosphorus (d) Sulphur
(a) Cl 2 O (b) ClO 2
333. Bleaching action of chlorine is due to
(c) Cl 2 O 6 (d) Cl 2 O 7 (a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
321. Which of the following halogens is solid at room (c) Hydrolysis (d) Its acidic nature
temperature
(a) Chlorine (b) Iodine
(c) Bromine (d) Fluorine

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
334. Hydrogen iodide cannot be prepared by the action of 345. The weakest acid HX (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is
conc. H 2 SO 4 on potassium iodide because (a) HF (b) HCl
(a) HI is stronger than H 2 SO 4 (c) HBr (d) HI
346. Bleaching powder is obtained by passing chlorine on
(b) HI is more volatile than H 2 SO 4
(a) Lime stone (b) Quick lime
(c) H 2 SO 4 is an oxidising agent (c) Slaked lime (d) Pure lime
(d) H 2 SO 4 forms complex 347. Chlorine is liberated, when we heat
335. The least active halogen with hydrogen is (a) KMnO4  NaCl (b) K 2 Cr2 O7  MnO 2
(a) Cl (b) I (c) Pb 2 (NO 3 )4  MnO 2 (d) K 2 Cr2 O7  HCl
(c) Br (d) F 348. Which of the following halogen does not exhibit positive
336. Iodine dissolves readily in oxidation state in its compounds
(a) Water (b) Potassium iodide (a) Cl (b) Br
(c) Carbon tetrachloride (d) Alcohol (c) I (d) F
337. Which of the following sequence is correct with 349. Acid strength of oxy acids of chlorine follows the order
reference to the oxidation number of iodine (a) HClO  HClO2  HClO3  HClO4
(a) I 2  ICl  HI  HIO 4 (b) HIO 4  ICl  I 2  HI
(b) HClO4  HClO3  HClO2  HClO
(c) I 2  HI  ICl  HIO 4 (d) HI  I 2  ICl  HIO 4
(c) HClO4  HClO3  HClO  HClO2
338. The correct order of acidic strength is
(d) None of these
(a) HF  HCl  HBr  HI
350. Bleaching powder loses its power on keeping for a long
(b) HCl  HBr  HF  HI
time because
(c) HBr  HCl  HI  HF
(a) It changes into calcium hypochlorate
(d) HI  HBr  HCl  HF
(b) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium
339. The lattice energy of the lithium halides is in the
hydroxide
following order
(c) It absorbs moisture
(a) LiF  LiCl  LiBr  LiI
(d) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium
(b) LiCl  LiF  LiBr  LiI
chlorate
(c) LiBr  LiCl  LiF  LiI
351. The compound which forms a dative bond with
(d) LiI  LiBr  LiCl  LiF
ammonia
340. Which has the strong bond
(a) CCl 4 (b) BCl 3
(a) F – F (b) F – Cl
(c) F – Br (d) Cl – B (c) MgCl2 (d) NaCl
341. Iodine and hypo react to produce 352. Fluorine with dilute NaOH gives
(a) Na2 S (b) Na 2 SO 4 (a) OF2 (b) O 3
(c) Na 2 S 4 O6 (d) Na 2 SO 3 (c) O 2 (d) HF and O 2
342. When chlorine reacts with cold and dilute solution of 353. Which is not oxidised by MnO2
sodium hydroxide, the products obtained are (a) F (b) Cl
(a) Cl   ClO  (b) Cl   ClO2 (c) I2 (d) I
(c) Cl   ClO3 (d) Cl   ClO4 354. Which of the following reaction is not feasible
343. Which of the following statements is correct (a) 2 KI  Br2  2 KBr  I2
(a) Only chlorine and bromine form oxy acids (b) 2 H 2 O  2 F2  2 HF  O 2
(b) All halogens form oxy acids (c) 2 KBr  I2  2 KI  Br2
(c) All halogens except fluorine form oxy acids
(d) 2 KBr  Cl2  2 KCl  Br2
(d) Only iodine form oxy acids
355. Which one of the following pairs of substances when
344. When iodine reacts with NaF , NaBr and NaCl
mixed, produces chlorine gas at room temperature
(a) It gives mixture of F2 , Cl 2 and Br2
(a) NaCl and MnO 2
(b) It gives chlorine
(b) NaCl and HNO 3 (conc.)
(c) It gives bromine
(d) None of these (c) NaCl and H 2 SO 4 (conc.)
(d) HCl (conc.) and KMnO4

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
356. Chlorine cannot displace 367. The reaction of the type 2 X 2  S  SX 4 is shown by
(a) Fluorine from NaF (b) Iodine from NaI sulphur when X is
(c) Bromine from NaBr (d) None of these (a) Fluorine or chlorine
357. Aqua regia is a mixture of (b) Chlorine only
(a) 3 HCl  1HNO 3 (b) H 3 PO4  H 2 SO 4 (c) Chlorine and bromine only
(c) 3 HNO 3  1HCl (d) HCl  CH 3 COOH (d) F, Cl, Br all
358. Unlike other halogens fluorine does not show higher 368. The solubility of I 2 increases in water in the presence of
oxidation states because (a) KI (b) H2SO4
(a) It is highly electronegative
(c) KMnO4 (d) NH3
(b) It has no d-orbitals
(c) Its atomic radius is very small 369. Which of the hydrogen halides forms salts like KHX2
 (where X is a halogen atom)
(d) The F ion is stable and isoelectronic with neon
359. Which halogen does not show variable oxidation state (a) HF (b) HCl
(a) F2 (b) Cl 2 (c) HI (d) HBr
(e) All of these
(c) Br2 (d) I 2
370. Which one of the following oxides is expected to exhibit
360. Amongst halogens fluorine is most oxidising because paramagnetic behaviour
(a) Fluorine has highest electron affinity (a) CO2 (b) SO 2
(b) Fluorine is most electronegative
(c) ClO2 (d) SiO2
(c) Dissociation energy for fluorine molecule is lowest
(d) All are correct 371. Which of the following is anhydride of perchloric acid
361. The alkali metal halides are soluble in water but LiF is (a) Cl2 O7 (b) Cl2 O5
insoluble because (c) Cl2 O3 (d) HClO
(a) It is amphoteric 372. Which of the following outer electronic configuration
(b) The Li  F bond is highly ionic represents Argon:
(c) Its lattice energy is high (a) ns 2 (b) ns 2 np 6

(d) Li ion is least hydrated
(c) ns 2 np 5 (d) ns 2 np 4
362. In which of the following pairs does the first gas
373. Which is the lightest gas
bleaches flowers by reduction while the second gas does
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
so by oxidation
(c) Helium (d) Nitrogen
(a) CO and Cl 2 (b) SO 2 and Cl 2
374. The valency of inert gases is
(c) H 2 and Br2 (d) NH 3 and SO 2 (a) 5 (b) 1
363. Which of the following is used in the preparation of (c) 0 (d) None of these
chlorine 375. The inert gases are
(a) Only MnO 2 (a) Polyatomic (b) Triatomic
(b) OnlyKMnO 4 (c) Diatomic (d) Monoatomic
(c) Both MnO 2 and KMnO4 376. Which inert gas having highest boiling point
(a) Xe (b) Ar
(d) Either MnO 2 or KMnO4
(c) Kr (d) He
364. Among Cl  , Br  , I  , the correct order for being 377. Every inert gas atom
oxidised to dihalogen is (a) Has a saturated outermost shell
(a) I   Cl   Br  (b) Cl   Br   I  (b) Has one electron in outermost shell
(c) I   Br   Cl  (d) Br   I   Cl  (c) Has eight electrons in outermost shell
365. For which one of the following properties of halogens (d) Has two electrons in outermost shell
the sequence F  Cl  Br  I holds good 378. Deep sea divers used to respirate a mixture of
(a) Electron affinity (b) Electronegativity (a) Oxygen and argon (b) Oxygen and helium
(c) Atomic radius (d) Boiling point (c) Oxygen and nitrogen (d) Oxygen and hydrogen
366. Among the halogens, the one which is oxidised by nitric 379. The noble gas which forms maximum number of
acid is compounds is
(a) Fluorine (b) Iodine (a) Ar (b) He
(c) Chlorine (d) Bromine (c) Xe (d) Ne

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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380. Among the fluorides below, the one which does not exist 391. In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had
is: taken O2+ PtF6– as a base compound. This is because
(a) XeF4 (b) HeF4 (a) both O2 and Xe have same size
(c) SF 4 (d) CF4 (b) both O2 and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy
(c) both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation enthalpy
381. The electronic configuration of neon is
(d) both Xe and O2 are gases.
(a) 1 s 2 , 2s 2 2p 2 (b) 1 s 2 , 2s 2 2p6
392. Reduction potentials of same ions are given below.
(c) 1 s 2 , 2s 2 (c) 1s 2 Arrange them in decreasing order of oxidising power.
382. The colour discharge tubes for advertisement mainly Ion ClO4– BrO4– IO4–
contain Reduction potential 1.19 V 1.65 V 1.74 V
(a) Argon (b) Neon E°/V
(c) Helium (d) Xenon (a) ClO4– > IO4– > BrO4–
383. Noble gases do not react with other elements because (c) BrO4– > IO4– > ClO4–
(a) They have completely paired up and stable electron (b) IO4– > BrO4– > ClO4–
shells (d) BrO4– > ClO4– > IO4–
(b) The sizes of their atoms are very small 393. Bond angle in H2O (104.5°) is higher than the bond
(c) Are not found in abundance angle of H2S (92.1°). The difference is due to
(d) Are monoatomic
384. Which of the following fluorides of Xenon does not
exist
(a) XeF6 (b) XeF4 (a) O is diatomic and S is tetra-atomic
(b) difference in electronegatively of S and O
(c) XeF3 (d) XeF2
(c) difference in oxidation states of S and O
385. XeF2 molecule is
(d) difference in shapes of hybrid orbitals of S and O
(a) Square planer 394. Arrange the following hydrides of group 16 elements in
(b) Trigonal bipyramidal order of increasing stability.
(c) Trigonal planer (a) H2S < H2O < H2Te > H2Se
(d) Linear (b) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
386. XeF4 on partial hydrolysis produces (c) H2O < H2Te < H2Se < H2S
(a) XeF2 (b) XeOF 2 (d) H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(c) XeOF 4 (d) XeO 3 395. The hybridisation of sulphur in sulphur tetrafluroide is
(a) sp3d (b) sp3d2
387. In XeF2 hybridisation of Xe is
(c) sp3d3 (d) sp3
(a) sp 2 (b) sp 3 d 396. On heating KClO3, we get
(c) sp 3 3
(d) sp d 2 (a) KClO2 + O2 (b) KCl + O2
388. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless (c) KCl + O3 (d) KCl + O2 + O3
fumes are evolved but in case of iodised salt, violet 397. The correct order of acidic strength is:
fumes come out. This is because (a) K2O > CaO > MgO
(a) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2 (c) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
(c) HI gets oxidised to I2 (b) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
(b) HI is of violet colour (d) Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10
(d) HI changes to HIO3 398. The oxyacid of sulphur that contains a lone pair of
389. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from electrons on sulphur is:
flourine to iodine which of the halogen acids should (a) sulphurous acid (b) peroxodisulphuric acid
have highest bond dissociation enthalpy? (c) sulphuric acid (d) pyrosulphuric acid
(a) HF (b) HBr 399. The oxidation state of sulphur in the anions SO32–,
(c) HCl (d) HI S2O42– and S2O62– follows the order:
390. Which of the following are permonoacids of sulphur? (a) S2O62– < S2O42– < SO32–
(a) H2SO5 and H2S2O8 (b) H2SO5 and H2S2O7 (c) SO32– < S2O42– < S2O62–
(c) H2S2O7 and H2S2O8 (d) H2S2O6 and H2S2O7 (b) S2O42– < SO32– < S2O62–
(d) S2O42– < S2O62– < SO32–

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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400. The correct order of increasing electron affinity of 409. The correct order of solubility in water for
halogens is: He , Ne , Ar, Kr, Xe , is
(a) I < Br < Cl (b) Cl < Br < I (a) He  Ne  Ar  Kr  Xe
(c) Br < I < Cl (d) 1 < Cl < Br (b) Ne  Ar  Kr  He  Xe
401. Which is the correct arrangement of the compounds (c) Xe  Kr  Ar  Ne  He
based on their bond strength? (d) Ar  Ne  He  Kr  Xe
(a) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (b) HCl > HF > HBr > HI 410. In XeF2 , XeF4 , XeF6 the number of lone pairs on Xe is
(c) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (d) HF > HBr > HCl > HI
respectively
402. What is the correct operation when Br2 is treated with
(a) 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3
NaF, NaCl and Nal taken in three test tukes labelled (X),
(c) 4, 1, 2 (d) 3, 2, 1
(Y) and (Z)?
411. Noble gases are group of elements which exhibit very
(a) High chemical activity
(b) Low chemical activity
(c) Minimum electronegativity
(d) Much paramagnetic properties
412. Which noble gas is most soluble in water
(a) F2 is liberated in (X) and Cl2 in (Y)
(a) He (b) Ar
(b) Only I2 is liberated in (Z).
(c) Ne (d) Xe
(c) Only Cl2 is liberated in (Y)
413. Which of the following noble gas does not have an octet
(d) Only F2 is liberated in (X)
of electrons in its outermost shell
403. Which of the following increasing order is not correct as
(a) Neon (b) Radon
mentioned in the property with it?
(c) Argon (d) Helium
(a) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (thermal stalrlity)
414. The low chemical reactivity of the rare gases can be
(b) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO (oxidising power)
attributed to their
(c) F– < Cl– < Br– < I– (reducing nature)
(a) Being non-metals
(d) HIO4 < ICl < I2 < HI (oxidation number of iodine)
(b) Having high ionization energies
404. Helium is added to the oxygen supply used by deep sea
(c) Being gases
divers because
(d) Found in nature in small quantities
(a) It is less soluble in blood than nitrogen at high
415. Percentage of Ar in air is about
pressure
(a) 1% (b) 2%
(b) It is lighter than nitrogen
(c) 3% (d) 4%
(c) It is readily miscible with oxygen
416. Which of the following is not obtained by direct reaction
(d) It is less poisonous than nitrogen
of constituent elements
405. Which of the following statements is not correct for a
(a) XeF2 (b) XeF4
noble gas
(a) Ar is used in electric bulbs (c) XeO 3 (d) XeF6
(b) Kr is obtained during radioactive disintegration 417. Fluorine forms chemical compounds with
(c) Half life of Rn is only 3.8 days (a) He (b) Ne
(d) He is used in producing very low temperature (c) Ar (d) Xe
406. Which of the following has zero valency 418. Which of the following has sp 3 hybridisation
(a) Sodium (b) Beryllium (a) XeO 3 (b) BCl 3
(c) Aluminium (d) Krypton
(c) XeF4 (d) BBr3
407. The forces acting between noble gas atoms are
419. Which element out of He , Ar , Kr , and Xe forms least
(a) Vander Waals forces (b) Ion-dipole forces
(c) London dispersion forces (d)Magnetic forces number of compounds
408. XeF6 on hydrolysis gives (a) He (b) Ar
(c) Kr (d) Xe
(a) XeO 3 (b) XeO
420. Which of the following exhibits the weakest
(c) XeO 2 (d) Xe intermolecular forces
(a) He (b) HCl
(c) NH 3 (d) H 2 O

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
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421. Which of the following: is not formed by Xenon 434. Sulphur reacting with H2SO4, produces
(a) XeF2 (b) XeF4 (a) H2O (b) SO2
(c) XeF5 (d) XeF6 (c) S (d) H2SO3
422. Among the following molecule 435. Identify the correct sequence of increasing number of
(i) XeO 3 (ii) XeOF 4 (iii) XeF6   -bonds in structure of following molecules ?
Those having same number of lone pairs on Xe are (I) H2S2O6 (II) H2SO3 (III) H2S2O5
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only (a) I, II, III (b) II, III, I
(c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (i),(ii) and (iii) (c) II, I, III (d) I, III, II
423. Who among the following first prepared a stable 436. The number of lone pairs and the number of S-S bonds
compound of noble gas in S8 molecules are respectively –
(a) Rutherford (b) Rayleigh (a) 8, 8 (b) 16, 8 (c) 8, 16 (d) 8, 4
(c) Ramsay (d) Neil Bartlett 437. When sulphur is boiled in Na2SO3 solution, the
424. The last member of inert gas elements is compound formed is –
(a) Helium (b) Neon (a) sodium sulphide (b) sodium sulphate
(c) Argon (d) Radon (c) sodium per sulphate(d) sodium thiosulphate
425. Which of the following gas is/are called rare gas 438. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are –
(a) Ne (b) He
(a) angular and non-zero (b) angular and zero
(c) Kr (d) All of these
(c) linear and non-zero (d) linear and zero
426. Which one of the following statements regarding helium
439. Aqueous solution of Na2S2O3 on reaction with Cl2 gives-
is incorrect:
(a) It is used to produce and sustain powerful (a) Na2S4O6 (b) NaHSO4
superconducting magnets (c) NaCl (d) NaOH
(b) It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out 440. Which of following trihalides of nitrogen behaves as the
experiments at low temperatures weakest base–
(c) It is used to fill gas balloons instead of hydrogen (a) NF3 (b) NCl3
because it is lighter and non-inflammable (c) NBr3 (d) NI3
(d) It is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors
441. Arrange the oxides of group 15 elements in decreasing
427. Which of the following inert gas liquefies easily
order of their acidity–
(a) Kr (b) He
(a) N2O5 > P2O5 > As2O5 > Sb2O5 > Bi2O5
(c) Ne (d) Ar
(b) Bi2O5 > Sb2O5 > As2O5 > P2O5 > N2O5
428. The oxidation number of xenon in XeOF 2 is
(c) P2O5 > N2O5 > As2O5 > Sb2O5 > Bi2O5
(a) Zero (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 3 (d) N2O5 > Bi2O5 > P2O5 > As2O5 > Sb2O5
429. Which of the following has square planar shape:- 442. Which of the following is least acidic–
(a) XeF2 (b) XeO 3 F (a) P4O6 (b) P4O10
(c) XeO 2 F2 (d) XeF4 (c) As4O6 (d) As4O10
430. Which of the following acids is most stable – 443. Which of the following oxyacids acts as most reducing
(a) HIO (b) HClO3 agent–
(c) HIO3 (d) HBrO3 (a) H3PO3 (b) H3PO4
431. Hypochlorous acid readily decomposes into – (c) H4P2O6 (d) H4P2O7
(a) Cl2, H2 and O2 (b) HCl and H2O 444. P4O10 has short and long P–O bonds. The number of
(c) HCl and O2 (d) Cl2, HCl and O2 short P–O bonds in this compounds is–
432. Cl2O is an anhydride of – (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
(a) HClO4 (b) HOCl
(c) Cl2O3 (d) HClO2
433. ClO4¯ ion is –
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Angular
(c) Pyramidal (d) None

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445. Pick out the incorrect statement– (c) H2S because of hydrogen bonding
(a) PH4+ ion is tetrahedral like the NH4+ion and is (d) H2Se because of lower molecular weight
obtained when PH3 is bonded to proton 452. The most unstable hydride among the following is -
(b) PH4I is one of the most stable salts containing the (a) NH3 (b) PH3 (c) AsH3 (d) BiH3
phosphonium ion. It is also more stable than 453. The correct order of thermal stability of hydrides of
ammonium salts. group 15 is -
(c) PH4I is decomposed by water to form PH3 (a) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > BiH3 > SbH3
(d) PH3 converts silver salts in solution to silver (b) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
phosphide, which subsequently reacts to give free (c) NH3 < PH3 < SbH3 > AsH3 > BiH3
metal (d) BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
446. Which of the following statements are correct? 454. Arrange the hydrides of group 15 in the order of
(a) Among halogens, radius ratio between iodine and increasing boiling points -
fluorine is maximum (a) PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3 < NH3
(b) Leaving F–F bond, all halogens have weaker X—X
(b) PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < NH3 < BiH3
bond than X—X' bond in interhalogens
(c) Among interhalogen compounds maximum number (c) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
of atoms are present in iodine fluoride. (d) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
(d) Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than 455. Arrange the group 15 hydrides in the increasing order
halogen compounds. of H–E–H bond angle.
447. Which of the following statements are correct for SO2 (a) SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3 < NH3
gas? (b) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
(a) It act as bleaching agent in moist conditions
(c) NH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3
(b) It's molecule has linear geometry
(c) It's dilute solution is used as disinfectant. (d) NH3 < PH3 < SbH3 < AsH3
(d) It can be prepared by the reaction of dilute H 2SO4 456. Phosphorus vapours consists of -
with metal sulphide. (a) P molecule (b) P2 molecule
448. Which of the following statements are correct? (c) P3 molecule (d) P4 molecule
(a) All the three N—O bond lengths in HNO3 are equal.
457. Which one of the following statement is wrong ?
(b) All P–Cl bond lengths in PCl5 molecule in gaseous
(a) Ammonia is more poisonous than phosphine
state are equal.
(b) Ammonia is more basic than phosphine
(c) P4 molecule in white phosphorous have angular strain
(c) Ammonia is more stable than phosphine
therefore white phosphours is very reactive.
(d) Ammonia is more soluble in water than
(d) PCl5 is ionic in solid state in which cation is
phosphine
tetrahedral and anion is octahedral.
449. Which of the following statements are true?
(a) Only type of interactions between particles of noble
gases are due to weak
dispersion forces.
(b) Ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is very close
to that of numon.
(c) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction.
(d) Xenon fluorides are not reactive.
450. Which of the following is/are paramagnetic–
NO2, NO, N2O4, N2O2, N2O5
(a) Only NO2 (b) NO2, NO
(c) NO, NO2, N2O5 (d) All are paramagnetic
451. Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with the
highest boiling point is–
(a) H2O because of hydrogen bonding
(b) H2Te because of higher molecular weight

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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CHAPTER-10
+
464. N  NBF4

 A

HALOALKANES In the above process product A is

(a) Fluorobenzene (b) Benzene

AND
(c) 1, 4-difluorobenzene (d) 1, 3-difluorobenzene
465. Diazonium salts + Cu 2 Cl2 + HCl 
 ,

HALOARENES
the reaction is known as
(a) Chlorination (b) Sandmeyer‘s reaction
(c) Perkin reaction (d) Substitution reaction
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONLY SINGLE 466. When ethyl alcohol (C2 H5OH) reacts with thionyl
CORRECT OPTION chloride, in the presence of pyridine, the product
obtained is
458. How many structural isomers are possible for a (a) CH3CH 2Cl + HCl (b) C2 H5Cl + HCl + SO2
compound with molecular formula C3H 7 Cl
(c) CH3CH 2Cl + H 2O + SO2 (d) CH3CH 2Cl + HCl + SO2
(a) 2 (b) 5
467. Decreasing order of reactivity of ‗ HX ‘ in the reaction
(c) 7 (d) 9
459. In common name system, R  OH + HX 
 R  X + H2 O
(a)gem-dihalides are named as alkylidene halides and (a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (b) HBr > HCl > HI > HF
vic-dihalides as alkylene dihalides (c) HCl > HBr > HI > HF (d) HF > HBr > HCl > HI
(b)vic-dihalides are named as alkylidene halides and 468. The product of the following reaction :
gem-dihalides as alkylene dihalides CH 2  CH  CCl3 + HBr
(c)both gem-dihalides and vic-dihalides are named as
(a) CH3  CH(Br)  CCl3 (b) CH 2 (Br)  CH 2  CCl3
alkylene dihalides
(d)both gem-dihalides and vic-dihalides are named as (c) BrCH 2  CHCl  CHCl2 (d) CH3  CH 2  CCl3
alkylidene halides 469. Chlorobenzene is prepared commercially by
460. What is the total number of all the possible monochloro (a) Raschig process (b) Wurtz Fitting reaction
structural isomers expected to be formed on free radical (c) Friedel-Craft‘s reaction (d) Grignard reaction
monochlorination of (CH3)2CHCH2CH3. 470. In methyl alcohol solution, bromine reacts with ethylene
(a) 2 (b) 4 to yield Br  CH 2 CH 2  OCH3 in addition to
(c) 6 (d) 5 1, 2-dibromoethane because:
461. The following reaction is known as
(a) The ion formed initially may react with Br  or
C2H5OH +SOCl2 
Pyridine
C2H5Cl +SO2 + HCl CH3OH
(a) Kharasch effect (b) The methyl alcohol solvates the bromine
(b) Darzen‘s procedure (c) The reaction follows Markownikoff's rule
(c) Williamson‘s synthesis (d) This is a free-radical mechanism
(d) Hunsdiecker synthesis reaction 471. Which of the following would be produced when
462. The order of reactivity of alcohols with a given haloacid acetylene reacts with HCl:-
is 3°>2°>1°. (a) CH 3CH 2Cl (b) CH 3CHCl 2
(a) 1°>2°>3° (b) 3°>2°>1°
(c) CHCl  CHCl (d) CH 2  CHCl
(c) 2°>3°>1° (d) 3°>1°>2°
463. Halogenation of alkanes is 472. R  OH  HX 
 R  X  H 2O
(a) A reductive process (b) An oxidative process In the above reaction, the reactivity of different alcohols
(c) An isothermal process (d) An endothermal process is
(a) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
(b) Tertiary < Secondary < Primary
(c) Tertiary < Secondary > Primary
(d) Secondary < Primary < Tertiary

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473. C6H6 + Cl2 

UV Light
 Product. In above reaction 484. Ethyl benzoate reacts with PCl5 to give
product is (a) C2 H5Cl + C6 H 5COCl + POCl3 + HCl
(a) CCl3CHO (b) C6 H6Cl6 (b) C2 H5Cl + C6 H5COCl + POCl3
(c) C6 H12Cl6 (d) C6 H9Cl2 (c) CH3COCl + C6 H5COCl + POCl3
474. Benzene reacts with chlorine to form benzene (d) C2 H5Cl + C6 H 5COOH + POCl3
hexachloride in presence of 485. Which of the following acids adds to propene in the
(a) Nickel (b) AlCl3 presence of peroxide to give anti-Markownikoff‘s
(c) Bright sunlight (d) Zinc product
475. The final product obtained by distilling ethyl alcohol (a) HF (b) HCl
with the excess of chlorine and Ca(OH) 2 is (c) HBr (d) HI
(a) CH3CHO (b) CCl3CHO 486. Propene on treatment with HBr gives
(a) Isopropyl bromide (b) Propyl bromide
(c) CHCl3 (d) (CH3 ) 2 O
(c) 1, 2-dibromoethane (d) None of the above
476. When ethyl alcohol and KI reacted in presence of 487. The compound formed on heating chlorobenzene with
Na 2CO3 , yellow crystals of...... are formed chloral in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid, is
(a) CHI3 (b) CH 3 I (a) Freon (b) DDT
(c) CH 2 I 2 (d) C2 H5 I (c) Gammexene (d) Hexachloroethane
488. Acetone is mixed with bleaching powder to give
477. Chloroform can be obtained from
(a) Chloroform (b) Acetaldehyde
(a) Methanol (b) Methanal
(c) Ethanol (d) Phosgene
(c) Propanol-1 (d) Propanol-2
489. Best method of preparing alkyl chloride is
478. On heating diethyl ether with conc. HI, 2 moles of which
of the following is formed (a) ROH +SOCl2 
(a) Ethanol (b) Iodoform (b) ROH + PCl5 

(c) Ethyl iodide (d) Methyl iodide
479. C6 H 5Cl is prepared from aniline, on reaction with (c) ROH + PCl3 

(a) HCl (d) ROH + HCl  anhy. ZnCl2

(b) Cu 2Cl2 490. Reaction of ethyl chloride with sodium leads to
(c) Cl 2 in presence of anhydrous AlCl3 (a) Ethane (b) Propane
(c) n-butane (d) n-pentane
(d) HNO 2 and then heated with Cu 2Cl2
491. Treatment of ammonia with excess of ethyl chloride will
480. The starting substance for the preparation of CH 3 I is yield
(a) CH3OH (b) C2 H 5OH (a) Diethyl amine
(c) CH3CHO (d) (CH3 )2 CO (b) Ethane
(c) Tetraethyl ammonium chloride
481. A Grignard's reagent may be made by reacting
(d) Methyl amine
magnesium with
492. When chloroform is treated with Primary amine and
(a) Methyl amine (b) Diethyl ether
KOH, we get
(c) Ethyl iodide (d) Ethyl alcohol
(a) Rose odour smell
482. When a solution of sodium chloride containing ethyl
(b) Sour almond like smell
alcohol is electrolysed, it forms
(c) Offensive odour
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Chloral
(d) Sour oil of winter green like smell
(c) Chloroform (d) Acetaldehyde
493. A mixture of two organic chlorine compounds was
483. Which reagent cannot be used to prepare an alkyl halide
treated with sodium metal in ether solution. Isobutane
from an alcohol
was obtained as a product. The two compounds are
(a) HCl + ZnCl 2 (b) NaCl
(a) Methyl chloride and propyl chloride
(c) PCl5 (d) SOCl3 (b) Methyl chloride and ethyl chloride
(c) Isopropyl chloride and methyl chloride
(d) Isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[25]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
494. Which is not present in Grignard reagent 503. C6 H5CH 2Cl + KCN(aq.) 
X + Y
(a) Methyl group (b) Magnesium
(c) Halogen (d) COOH group Compounds X and Y are
495. The reactivity of ethyl chloride is (a) C6 H 6 + KCl (b) C6 H 5CH 2CN + KCl
(a) More or less equal to that of benzyl chloride (c) C6 H5CH 3 + KCl (d) None of these
(b) More than that of benzyl chloride 504. Which of the carbon atom present in the molecule given
(c) More or less equal to that of chlorobenzene below are asymmetric
(d) Less than that of chlorobenzene
496. Chlorobenzene is:
(a) Less reactive than benzyl chloride towards ESR
(b) More reactive than ethyl bromide towards ESR
(c) Nearly as reactive as methyl chloride towards ESR (a) 1, 2 , 3, 4 (b) 2, 3
(d) More reactive than isopropyl chloride towards ESR (c) 1, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3
497. The reactivities of methyl chloride, propyl chloride and 505. Ethylidene chloride on treatment with aqueous KOH
chlorobenzene are in the order gives
(a) Methyl chloride > propyl chloride > chlorobenzene (a) Ethylene glycol (b) Acetaldehyde
(b) Propyl chloride > methyl chloride > chlorobenzene (c) Formaldehyde (d) None
(c) Methyl chloride > chlorobenzene > propyl chloride 506. Reaction :
C2H5  C5H11  2NaI is
(d) Chlorobenzene > propyl chloride > methyl chloride
C2H5I + C5H11I + 2Na 
498. Which of the following compound will make precipitate
most readily with AgNO3 called:-
(a) Hoffmann's reaction (b)Dow's reaction
(a) CCl3CHO (b) CHCl3
(c) Wurtz's reaction (d)Wurtz's Fittig reaction
(c) C6 H5CH 2Cl (d) CHI3 507. In presence of AlCl3 , benzene and n-propyl bromide
499. Salicylic acid can be prepared using Reimer-Tiemann's react in Friedal-Craft's reaction to form
reaction by treating phenol with: (a) n-propyl benzene
(a) Methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous (b) 1, 2-dinormal propyl benzene
aluminium chloride (c) 1, 4-dinormal propyl benzene
(b) Carbon dioxide under pressure in sodium hydroxide (d) Isopropyl benzene
solution 508. The dehydrobromination of 2-bromobutane gives
(c) Carbon tetrachloride and concentrated sodium CH3CH  CHCH3 The product is
hydroxide
(a) Hofmann product
(d) Sodium nitrite and a few drops of concentrated
(b) Saytzeff product
sulphuric acid
(c) Hoffmann-Saytzeff product
500. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of
(d) Markownikoff product
rate of reaction towards nucleophilic substitution:
509. Which of the following statements about chloroform is
false
(a) It is a colourless, sweet-smelling liquid
(b) It is almost insoluble in water
(c) It is highly inflammable
501. Reaction of t-butyl bromide with sodium methoxide (d) It can be used as an inhalational anaesthetic agent
produces 510. CCl4 cannot give precipitate with AgNO3 due to
(a) Isobutane (b) Isobutylene (a) Formation of complex with AgNO3
(c) Sodium t-butoxide (d) t-butyl methyl ether (b) Evolution of Cl 2 gas
502. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of
(c) Chloride ion is not formed
rate of reaction towards nucleophilic substitution:
(d) AgNO3 does not give silver ion
511. On heating CHCl3 with aq. NaOH, the product is
(a) CH3COONa (b) HCOONa
(c) Sodium oxalate (d) CH3OH

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[26]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
512. Iodoform heated with Ag powder to form 522. Ethyl chloride on heating with silver cyanide forms a
(a) Acetylene (b) Ethylene compound X. The functional isomer of X is
(c) Methane (d) Ethane (a) C2 H 5 NC (b) C2 H 5CN
513. Ethyl bromide reacts with silver nitrite to form (c) H3C  NH  CH3 (d) C2 H5 NH 2
(a) Nitroethane (b) Nitroethane and ethyl nitrite
523. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(c) Ethyl nitrite (d) Ethane
(a) C2 H5 Br reacts with alco. KOH to form C2 H 5OH
514. Which of the following reactions leads to the formation
of chloretone (b) C2 H5 Br when treated with metallic sodium gives
(a) CHCl3 + CH3COCH3 (b) CCl4 + Acetone ethane
(c) CHCl3 + KOH (d) CHCl3 + HNO3 (c) C2 H5 Br when treated with sodium ethoxide forms
diethyl ether
515. CH 3  CH 2  CH 2 Br + KOH (alc.) 
 Product
(d) C2 H5 Br with AgCN forms ethyl isocyanide
Product in above reaction is
524. An organic halide is shaken with aqueous NaOH
(a) CH3  CH  CH 2 (b) CH3  CH 2  CH3
followed by the addition of dil. HNO3 and silver nitrate
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
solution gave white ppt. The substance can be
516. A + CCl4 + KOH 
 Salicylic acid (a) C6 H 4 (CH3 )Br (b) C6 H5CH 2Cl
‗A‘ in above reaction is (c) C6 H 5Cl (d) None of these
OH NO 2 525. Following equation illustrates:
o
(a) (b) C6H5Cl + 2NaOH 
200-250 C
 C6H5ONa + NaCl + H2O
200atm

(a) Dow's process (b) Kolbe's process

CHO (c) Carbylamine test (d) Haloform reaction
526. A compound X on reaction with chloroform and NaOH
(c) (d)
gives a compound with a very unpleasant odour. X is
(a) C6 H 5CONH 2 (b) C6 H5 NH 2
517. Identify X and Y in the following sequence
(c) C6 H5CH 2 NHCH3 (d) C6 H 5 NHCH 3
C2H5Br 
X
product 
Y
C3H7 NH2
(a) X = KCN, Y = LiAlH 4 OH
OC2 H5
(b) X = KCN,Y = H3O+ 527. + C2 H5I  Product
Anhydrous(C H OH)
2 5
(c) X = CH3Cl, Y = AlCl3/HCl
(d) X = CH3 NH 2 , Y = HNO 2
In the above reaction product is
518. 1-chlorobutane reacts with alcoholic KOH to form (a) C6 H5OC2 H5 (b) C2 H5OC2 H5
(a) 1-butene (b) 2-butane
(c) C6 H5OC6 H5 (d) C6 H5 I
(c) 1-butanol (d) 2-butanol
519. Which of the following reactions gives 528. C2H5Cl + KCN 
X 
Hydrolysis
Y. 'X' and 'Y' are
H 2C  C  C  CH 2 (a) C 2 H 6 and C2 H 5CN
(a) CH2Br  CBr  CH2 
Zn/CH3OH
(b) C2 H 5CN and CH3  CH  OH   CH3
(b) HC  C  CH2  COOH 
o

 Aq.K 2CO3
(c) C2 H 5CN and C2 H5CH 2 NH 2
40 C
(d) C2 H 5CN and C2 H 5COOH
(c) CH2Br  C  C  CH2Br 
Zn

Heat 529. Iodoform is formed on warming I 2 and NaOH with
(d) 2CH2  CH  CH2I 
 (a) C2 H 5OH (b) CH3OH
520. Chlorobenzene on fusing with solid NaOH gives (c) HCOOH (d) C6 H 6
(a) Benzene (b) Benzoic acid 530. Which of the following reacts with phenol to give
(c) Phenol (d) Benzene chloride salicylaldehyde after hydrolysis
521. When phenol reacts with CHCl 3 and KOH, the product (a) Dichloromethane (b) Trichloromethane
obtained would be (c) Methyl chloride (d) None of these
(a) Salicylaldehyde (b)p-hydroxy benzaldehyde
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d)Chloretone
QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL
[27]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
531. A sample of chloroform being used as anaesthetic is 541. Which of the following are correct statements about
tested by C2 H5 Br
(a) Fehling solution (a) It reacts with metallic Na to give ethane
(b) Ammoniacal Cu 2 Cl2 (b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous
(c) AgNO3 solution ethanolic solution of AgNO2
(d) AgNO3 solution after boiling with alcoholic KOH (c) It gives C2 H 5OH on boiling with alcoholic potash
solution (d) It forms ethylacetate on heating with silver acetate
532. Reaction of aqueous sodium hydroxide on (i) ethyl 542. 2, 6 - Dimethylheptane on monochlorination
bromide and (ii) chlorobenzene gives produces……. derivatives
(a) (i) Ethene and (ii) o-chlorophenol (a) 5 (b) 6
(b) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) o-chlorophenol (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) phenol 543. The less reactivity of chlorine atom in CH 2  CH  Cl
(d) (i) Ethyl alcohol and (ii) no reaction is due to
533. 2-bromopentane is heated with potassium ethoxide in (a) Inductive effect (b) Resonance stabilization
ethanol. The major product obtained is (c) Electromeric effect (d) Electronegativity
(a) Pentene-1 (b) cis pentene-2
544. CH3  CH2  Br 
alc.KCN
 CH3CH 2CN  X
HOH
(c) trans pentene-2 (d) 2-ethoxypentane
534. What is the product formed in the following reaction In this reaction, product X is
(a) Acetic acid (b) Propionic acid
C6H5OH + CCl4 
(1) NaOH

+
(2) H (c) Butyric acid (d) Formic acid
(a) p-hydroxybenzoic acid (b) o-hydroxybenzoic acid 545. In alkaline hydrolysis of a tertiary alkyl halide by
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Salicylaldehyde aqueous alkali if concentration of alkali is doubled, then
535. Haloalkane in the presence of alcoholic KOH undergoes the reaction
(a) Elimination (b) Polymerisation (a) Will be doubled (b) Will be halved
(c) Dimerisation (d) Substitution (c) Will remain constant (d) Can‘t say
536. The set of compounds in which the reactivity of halogen 546. Alcoholic potash is used to bring about
atom in the ascending order is (a) Dehydrogenation (b) Dehydration
(a) Vinyl chloride, chlorethane, chlorobenzene (c) Dehydrohalogenation (d) Dehalogenation
(b) Vinyl chloride, chlorobenzene, chloroethane 547. Vinyl chloride reacts with HCl to form
(c) Chloroethane, chlorobenzene, vinyl chloride (a) 1, 1- dichloro ethane
(d) Chlorobenzene, vinyl chloride chloroethane (b) 1, 2- dichloro ethane
537. In the following sequence of reactions (c) Tetrachloro ethylene
(d) Mixture of 1, 2 and 1, 1 – dichloro ethane
CH3CH2CH2Br 
KOH(alc)
(A) 
HBr
(B) 
KOH(aq.)
(C),
548. Reduction of acetyl chloride with H 2 in presence of Pd
The product (C) is
(a) Propan – 2 – ol (b) Propan – l – ol gives
(c) Propyne (d) Propene (a) CH3COCH3 (b) C2 H 5OH
538. When CH3CH 2CHCl2 is treated with NaNH2, the (c) CH3COOH (d) CH3CHO
product formed is 549. When methyl bromide is heated with Zn it gives
(a) CH3  CH  CH 2 (b) CH3  C  CH (a) CH 4 (b) C 2 H 6
(c) CH3CH 2CH(NH 2 )(Cl) (d) CH3CH 2C(NH 2 ) 2 (c) C 2 H 4 (d) CH3OH
539. By heating a mixture of CHCl3 with silver powder, the 550. Phenol reacts with CHCl3 and NaOH (at 340 K ) to give
compound formed is (a) o-chlorophenol (b) Salicylaldehyde
(a) Acetylene (b) Silver acetate (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Chlorobenzene
(c) Methanol (d) None of these 551. For a given alkyl group the densities of the halides
540. Chloropicrin is follow the order
(a) Trichloro acetaldehyde (b) Nitrochloroform (a) RI < RBr < RCl (b) RI < RCl < RBr
(c) 2,4,6-trinitro phenol (d) None of these (c) RBr < RI < RCl (d) RCl < RBr < RI

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[28]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
552. Which halide will be the least reactive in respect to 558. In which of the following molecules carbon atom
hydrolysis: marked with asterisk (*) is asymmetric?
(a) Vinyl chloride (b) Allyl chloride
(c) Ethyl chloride (d) t-Butyl chloride
553. Allyl chloride on dehydro chlorination gives
(a) Propadiene (b) Propylene
(c) Acetylchloride (d) Acetone
554. Toluene reacts with excess of Cl 2 in presence of (a) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(b) (a), (b), (c)
sunlight to give a product which on hydrolysis followed
(c) (b), (c), (d)
by reaction with NaOH gives
(d) (a), (c), (d)
COOH COONa 559. In the following question arrange the compounds in
(a) (b)
increasing order of rate of reaction towards nucleophilic
substitution:
COON
(c) (d) None of these
aN
a
555. An alkyl bromide produces a single alkene when it
reacts with sodium ethoxide and ethanol. This alkene
undergoes hydrogenation and produces 2-methyl butane. (a) (a) < (b) < (c)
What is the identity of the alkyl bromide (b) (c) < (b) < (a)
(a) 1-bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane (c) (a) < (c) < (b)
(b) 1-bromobutane (d) (c) < (a) < (b)
(c) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
(d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane 560. In the following question arrange the compounds in
(e) 2-bromopentane increasing order of rate of reaction towards nucleophilic
556. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing substitution:
order of their densities.

(a) (a) < (b) < (c)

(a) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) (b) (a) < (c) < (b)
(b) (a) < (c) < (d) < (b) (c) (c) < (b) < (a)
(c) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a) (d) (b) < (c) < (a)
(d) (b) < (d) < (c) < (a)
561. In the following question arrange the compounds in
557. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of increasing order of rate of reaction towards nucleophilic
their boiling points. substitution:

(a) (b) < (a) < (c)

(b) (a) < (b) < (c)
(c) (c) < (a) < (b) (a) (c) < (b) < (a)
(d) (c) < (b) < (a) (b) (b) < (c) < (a)
(c) (a) < (c) < (b)
(d) (a) < (b) < (c)

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[29]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
562. In the following question arrange the compounds in 571. Which of the following statements about benzyl chloride
increasing order of rate of reaction towards nucleophilic is incorrect
substitution: (a) It is less reactive than alkyl halides
(b) It can be oxidised to benzaldehyde by boiling with
copper nitrate solution
(c) It is a lachrymatory liquid and answers Beilstein‘s
test
(d) It gives a white precipitate with alcoholic silver
nitrate
(a) (a) < (b) < (c) 572. An alkyl bromide (X) reacts with Na to form 4, 5-
(b) (b) < (a) < (c) diethyloctane. Compound X is
(c) (c) < (b) < (a) (a) CH3 (CH 2 )3 Br
(d) (a) < (c) < (b)
(b) CH3 (CH 2 )5 Br

563. On treating a mixture of two alkyl halides with sodium (c) CH3 (CH 2 )3 CH.Br.CH3
metal in dry ether, 2-methyl propane was obtained. The (d) CH3 (CH 2 ) 2 CH.Br.CH 2CH3
alkyl halides are 573. In the following reaction X is
(a) 2-chloropropane and chloromethane
CH3NH2 + X + KOH 
CH3NC (highly offensive odour)
(b) 2-chloropropane and chloroethane
(c) Chloromethane and chloroethane (a) CH 2 Cl2 (b) CHCl3
(d) Chloromethane and 1-chloropropane (c) CH3Cl (d) CCl4
564. In which case formation of butane nitrile is possible 574. Which of the following compound will undergo
(a) C3H7 Br + KCN (b) C4 H9 Br + KCN racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?
(c) C3H 7 OH + KCN (d) C4 H9OH + KCN
565. The reaction of an aromatic halogen compound with an
alkyl halides in presence of sodium and ether is called
(a) Wurtz reaction (b) Sandmeyer‘s reaction
(c) Wurtz-Fittig reaction (d) Kolbe reaction
566. Among the following, the one which reacts most readily (a) i and iv (b) ii and iv
with ethanol is (c) iii and iv (d) iv
(a) p-nitrobenzyl bromide 575. Which metal is used in Wurtz synthesis
(b) p-chlorobenzyl bromide (a) Ba (b) Al
(c) p-methoxybenzyl bromide (c) Na (d) Fe
(d) p-methylbenzyl bromide 576. Which of the following is boiled with ethyl chloride to
567. In Wurtz reaction alkyl halide react with form ethyl alcohol
(a) Sodium in ether (b) Sodium in dry ether (a) Alcoholic KOH (b) Aqueous KOH
(c) Sodium only (d) Alkyl halide in ether (c) H 2 O (d) H 2O2
568. When ethyl chloride and alcoholic KOH are heated, the
577. Why is chloroform put into dark coloured bottles
compound obtained is
(a) To prevent evaporation
(a) C 2 H 4 (b) C 2 H 2
(b) To prevent from moisture
(c) C6 H 6 (d) C 2 H 6 (c) To prevent it from oxidation to form phosgene
569. Two percent of ethanol is added during the oxidation of (d) To prevent its reaction with glass
chloroform to stop the formation of carbonyl chloride. In
this reaction ethanol acts as
(a) Auto catalyst (b) Negative catalyst
(c) Positive catalyst (d) None of these
570. Ethylene di bromide on heating with metallic sodium in
ether solution yields
(a) Ethene (b) Ethyne
(c) 2-butene (d) 1-butene

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[30]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
578. Bottles containing C6 H5 I and C6 H5CH 2 I lost their 586. Analyse the following reaction and identify the nature of
original labels. They were labelled A and B for testing. A and B :
A and B were separately taken in test tubes and boiled
with NaOH solution. The end solution in each tube was HBr
B  
HBr
A
hv
made acidic with dilute HNO3 and then some AgNO3
Br
solution was added. Substance B give a yellow
precipitate. Which one of the following statements is (a) Both A and B are
true for this experiment
(a) A was C6 H5 I (b) A was C6 H5CH 2 I
(c) B was C6 H5 I (b) Both A and B are
Br
(d) Addition of HNO3 was unnecessary Br
579. The major product formed in the following reaction is
(c) A is & B is
CH3 Br
| Br
CH 3  C CH 2 Br 
CH 3O

| CH3OH
H (d) A is Br & B is
CH3
|
(a) CH 3  C CH 2 OCH 3 (b) CH 3  C H  CH 2  CH3 (e) A is & B is
| |
Br Br
H OCH3
CH3 CH3
| | 587. Statement ―Ozone in atmosphere is decreased by chloro-
(c) CH3  C  CH 2 (d) CH3  C CH 3
| fluoro-carbon (Cl2 F2C) ‖
OCH3
(a) Is true
580. The major product obtained on treatment of (b) Is false
CH3CH 2CH(F)CH3 with CH3O /CH3OH is (c) Only in presence of CO 2
(a) CH3CH 2CH(OCH3 )CH3 (d) Only in absence of CO 2
(b) CH3CH  CHCH3 588. Use of chlorofluoro carbons is not encouraged because
(c) CH3CH 2CH  CH 2 (a) They are harmful to the eyes of people that use it
(b) They damage the refrigerators and air conditioners
(d) CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2OCH 3
(c) They eat away the ozone in the atmosphere
581. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with tbutanol, (d) They destroy the oxygen layer
the product would be 589. Among the following, the molecule with the highest
(a) Benzene (b) Phenol dipole moment is
(c) tbutyl benzene (d) tbutyl phenyl ether (a) CH3Cl (b) CH 2 Cl2
582. Which of the following is liquid at room temperature
(c) CHCl3 (d) CCl4
(a) CH 3 I (b) CH3Br
590. When CHCl3 is boiled with NaOH, It gives
(c) C 2 H 5Cl (d) CH3F (a) Formic acid (b) Trihydroxy methane
583. Which of the following haloalkanes is most reactive (c) Acetylene (d) Sodium formate
(a) 1-chloropropane (b) 1-bromopropane 591. Which of the following compounds does not undergo
(c) 2-chloropropane (d) 2-bromopropane nucleophilic substitution reactions
584. Grignard reagent adds to (a) Vinyl chloride (b) Ethyl bromide
(a) C=O (b) C  N (c) Benzyl chloride (d) Isopropyl chloride
(c) CS (d) All of the above
585. In a SN1 reaction at a chiral centre, there is:
(a) 100 % retention
(b) 100 % recenisation
(c) 100 % inversion
(d) inversion is more than retention leading to
racemisation

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[31]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
592. Replacement of Cl of chlorobenzene to give phenol 600. In which one of the following conversions phosphorus
requires drastic conditions but chlorine of pentachloride is used as a reagent
2, 4-dinitrochlorobenzene is readily replaced because (a) H2C  CH2 
CH3CH2Cl
(a) NO 2 make ring electron rich at ortho and para
(b) H3C  O  CH3 
CH3Cl
(b) NO 2 withdraws e  from meta position
(c) donotes e  at meta position (c) CH3CH2OH 
CH3CH2Cl
(d) NO 2 withdraws e  from ortho/para positions (d) HC  CH 
CH2  CHCl
593. In which alkyl halide, SN 2 mechanism is favoured 601. Which of these do not form Grignard reagent
maximum (a) CH3F (b) CH3Cl
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH 3CH 2Cl (c) CH3Br (d) CH 3 I
(c) (CH3 ) 2 CHCl (d) (CH 3 )3 C - Cl 602. Toluene reacts with halogen in the presence of FeCl3
594. The heterolytic cleavage of carbon chlorine bond in giving ortho and para compound. The reactions is
alkyl halides , form (a) electrophilic elimination reaction
(a) Two free ions (b) Two-carbonium ion (b) electrophilic substitution
(c) Two carbanion (d) A cation and an anion (c) free radical addition reaction
595. A new carbon-carbon bond formation is possible in (d) nucleophilic substitution
(a) Cannizzaro reaction (b)Friedel-Craft's alkylation 603. The order of reactivity of following alcohols with
(c) Clemmensen reduction (d)Reimer-Tiemann reaction halogen acid (HX) is
596. An isomer of C3H6Cl2 on boiling with aqueous KOH
gives acetone. Hence, the isomer is
(a) 2, 2-dichloropropane (b) 1, 2-dichloropropane
(c) 1, 1-dichloropropane (d) 1, 3-dichloropropane
597. Wurtz reaction of methyl iodide yields an organic
compound X. Which one of the following reactions also
yields X
dryether (a) i > ii > iii (b) iii > ii > i
(a) C2 H5Cl + Mg   (c) ii > i > iii (d) i > iii > ii
(b) C2H5Cl + LiAlH4 
 604. An organic compound A(C4 H 6Cl) on reaction with
Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon, which on
(c) C2H5Cl + C2H5ONa 

monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative. A is
(d) CHCl3 
Ag powder
 (a) t-butyl chloride (b) s-butyl chloride
Δ
(c) Isobutyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride
598.
605. Among the following the most reactive towards
alcoholic KOH is
(a) CH 2  CHBr (b) CH3COCH 2CH 2 Br
(c) CH3CH 2 Br (d) CH3CH 2CH 2 Br
606. Which one of the following possess highest m.pt.
(a) Chlorobenzene (b) o-dichlorobenzene
(c) m-dichlorobenzene (d) p-dichlorobenzene
607. Which chlorine atom is more electronegative in the
following
(a) CH3 - Cl (b) CH3  CH 2  Cl
599. 1 , 2 di-bromo cyclohexane on dehydro halogenation
CH3 CH3
gives | 
(c) H  C Cl (d) CH3  CH 2  C Cl
| 
(a) (b) CH3 CH3

(c) (d) None of these

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[32]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
617. The rate law for the reaction,
608. What would be the product formed when 1-Bromo-3- RCl + Na (aq.)   ROH + NaCl is given by,
chloro cyclobutane reacts with two equivalents of rate = K1 [RCl]. The rate of the reaction will be:-
metallic sodium in ether
(a) Doubled on doubling the concentration of sodium
Cl hydroxide
(a) (b)
(b) Halved on reducing the concentration of alkyl
B halide to half
r (c) Decreased on increasing the temperature of the
(c) (d)
reaction
(d) Unaffected by increasing the temperature of the
609. In Finkelstein Reaction, which reactants are used -
reaction
(a) NaI + C2H5OH (b) NaF + acetone
618. A new carbon-carbon bond is possible in the following
(c) NaBr + CH3OH (d) NaI + CH3COCH3
reaction reactions:
610. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity of the
following compounds:

(a) i > ii > iii > iv (b) i > iv > iii > ii
(c) iv > iii > ii > I (d) iv > i > ii > iii
619. Which of the following state are correct
(a) Benzyl halides are more reactive than vinyl and anyl
611. C2H5Cl + AgF   C2H5F + AgCl halides
The above reaction is called - (b) Vinyl/halides are more reactive than alkyl halides
(a) Hunsdiecker (b) Swart (c) Aryl halides are less reactive than alkylhalide
(c) Strecker (d) Wurtz (d) Aryl halides are more reactive than benzyl halides
Cl / h
612. (A) 2 (B) aq .KOH
 (C) [ 
O]
CH3CHO, 620. Chlorobenzene can be prepared by reacting aniline with
Identify A, B & C - (a) hydrochloric acid
(a) Ethylalcohol, Ethyl chloride & Ethane (b) cuprous chloride
(b) Ethane, Ethylchloride & CH3 – CH2 – OH (c) chlorine in presence of anhydrous aluminium
(c) Propane Propylchloride & chloride
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH (d) nitrous acid followed by heating with cuprous
(d) All the above chloride
613. The correct order of dipole moment of alkyl halides is. 621. The reaction conditions leading to the best yield of
(a) RI > RBr < RCl > RF (b) RF > RCl > RBr > RI C2H5Cl are:
(c) RCl > RF > RBr > RI (d) None (a) C2H6 (excess) + Cl2 UV
 
light

614. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in the presence of FeCl3

(b) C2H6 + Cl2 (excess) 
dark
gives ‗X‘ and the reaction with Cl2 in presence of light room temp.
gives ‗Y‘. Thus ‗X‘ and ‗Y‘ are:
(c) C2H6 + Cl2 (excess) UV
 
light
(a) ‗X‘ = benzyl chloride and ‗Y‘ = m-chlorotoluene
(b) ‗X‘ = benzyl chloride and ‗Y‘ = o-chlorotoluene (d) C2H6 + Cl2 UV  
light

(c) ‗X‘ = m-chlorotoluene and ‗Y‘ = p-cholorotoluene 622. n-propylbromide on treatment with ethanolic potassium
(d) ‗X‘ = p-chlorotoluene and ‗Y‘ = benzyl chloride. hydroxide produces :
615. Aryl halides are less reactive toward nucleophilic (a) propane (b) propene
substitution reaction than alkyl halides due to (c) propyne (d) propanol
(a) the formation of stable carbonimion 623. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing
(b) resonance stabilization dipole moment:
(c) longer carbon-halogen bond Toluene m- dichlorobenzene
(d) sp2 hybridised carbon attached to halogen I II
616. Ethyl chloride + aq. KOH gives the product - o- dichlorobenzene p-dichlorobenzene
(a) CH3CH2OH (b) CH3–CH3 III IV
(a) I < IV < II < III (b) IV < I < II < III
(c) CH2=CH2 (d) CH3CH2OK
(c) IV < I < III < II (d) IV < II < I < III

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[33]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
624. In the reaction of p-chloro toluene with
KNH2 in liq. NH3, the major product is –
(a) o-toluidine (b) m-toluidine
(c) p-toluidine (d) p-chloraniline
625. The order of reactivity of the following alkyl halides for
a SN2 reaction is –
(a) R F > RCl > R-Br > R–I
(b) R–F > R-Br > R–Cl > R-I
(c) R–Cl > R-Br > RF > RI
(d) R-I > R Br > R–Cl > R-F

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[34]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]

CHAPTER-11
633. Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by
(a) Fittig's reaction (b) Cannizaro's reaction
(c) Kolbe's reaction (d) Wurtz's reaction
634. Benzene diazonium chloride on boiling with dilute
sulphuric acid gives

ALCOHOLS, (a) Toluene

(c) Benzene
(b) Benzoic acid
(d) Phenol
635. The reaction given below is known as

PHENOL & C2H5ONa + IC2H5 

C2H5OC2H5 + NaI
(a) Kolbe's synthesis (b) Wurtz's synthesis
(c) Williamson's synthesis (d) Grignard's synthesis

ETHERS
636. Salicylaldehyde can be prepared from
(a) Phenol and chloroform
(b) Phenol, chloroform and sodium hydroxide
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONLY SINGLE (c) Phenol, carbon tetrachloride and NaOH
CORRECT OPTION (d) None of these
637. If formaldehyde and potassium hydroxide are heated,
626. Ortho-dihydroxy benzene is also called as: then we get
(a) Carvacrol (b) Resorcinol (a) Acetylene (b) Methane
(c) Catechol (d) Orcinol (c) Methyl alcohol (d) Ethyl formate
627. The compound which is not isomeric with diethyl ether is 638. An organic compound dissolved in dry benzene evolved
(a) n-propylmethyl ether (b) Butan-1-ol hydrogen on treatment with sodium. It is
(c) 2-methylpropan-2-ol (d) Butanone (a) A ketone (b) An aldehyde
628. Propene, CH3  CH  CH 2 can be converted to (c) A tertiary amine (d) An alcohol
1-propanol by oxidation. Which set of reagents among CH3

 CH 3  C CH 3 . The
the following is ideal to effect the conversion
639. A 
K 2Cr2O7
 B 
CH3MgI
(a) Alkaline KMnO4 dil. H 2SO 4 H 2O 
OH
(b) B2 H 6 and alkaline H 2O2
reactant A is
(c) O3 /Zn dust
(a) CH3CHOHCH3 (b) CH3COCH3
(d) OsO4 /CH 4 ,Cl2
(c) C2 H 5OH (d) CH3COOH
629. Which one of the following will produce a primary
640. The reaction, water gas (CO + H 2 ) + H 2 673K,300
alcohol by reacting with CH3MgI
atmosphere in presence of the catalyst Cr2O3 /ZnO is
(a) Acetone (b) Methyl cyanide
(c) Ethylene oxide (d) Ethyl acetate used for the manufacture of
630. Chlorination of toluene in the presence of light and heat (a) HCHO (b) HCOOH
followed by treatment with aqueous NaOH gives (c) CH3OH (d) CH3COOH
(a) o-cresol (b) p-cresol 641. CH 2  CH 2 + B2 H 6 
NaOH
 Product.
H 2SO4
(c) 2, 4-dihydroxy toluene (d) Benzyl alcohol
631. Primary alcohols can be obtained from the reaction of Product in above reaction is
the RMgX with (a) CH3CH 2CHO (b) CH 3CH 2OH
(a) CO 2 (b) HCHO (c) CH3CHO (d) None of these
(c) CH3CHO (d) H 2 O 642. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phthalic
632. LiAlH 4 converts acetic acid into anhydride with conc. H 2SO4 and
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Methane (a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Benzene
(c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Methyl alcohol (c) Phenol (d) Benzoic acid

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[35]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
643. Absolute alcohol can be obtained from rectified spirit CH3
(a) By removing the water in it using concentrated (c) (i) CH3  CH  CH and
| CH3
sulphuric acid OH
(b) By removing the water using phosphorus pentoxide (ii) CH3  CH  CH3

(c) By distilling with the appropriate amount of benzene OH
(d) By distilling over plenty of quick lime
CH3
644. Acetone on treatment with CH3  Mg  I and on further (d) (i) CH3  CH 2  C and
 CH3
hydrolysis gives OH
(a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Primary alcohol (ii) CH3  CH 2  CH 2OH
(c) Acetic acid (d) 2-methyl 2-propanol 652. From Williamson‘s synthesis preparation of which of
645. In the following reaction 'A' is following is possible
C2 H5 MgBr + H 2C  CH 2 
H 2O
A (a) Only symmetrical ethers (b)Only symmetrical ethers
(c) Both types (d) None of these
653. In the reaction Ar  OH + RX   A, A is
alkali
O
(a) C2 H5CH 2CHO (b) C2 H 5CH 2CH 2OH (a) An aldehyde (b) An aryl chloride
(c) C2 H5CH 2OH (d) C2 H 5CHO (c) An ether (d) A ketone
654. Williamson's synthesis is used to prepare
646. Sodium benzene sulphonate reacts with NaOH and then
(a) Acetone (b) Diethyl ether
on acidic hydrolysis, it gives
(c) P.V.C. (d) Bakelite
(a) Phenol (b) Benzoic acid
655. When an alkyl halide is allowed to react with a sodium
(c) Benzene (d) Disodium benzaldehyde
alkoxide the product most likely is
647. C2 H5MgI reacts with HCHO to form last product
(a) An aldehyde (b) A ketone
(a) CH3CHO (b) C3H 7 OH (c) An ether (d) A carboxylic acid
(c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3COOCH3 656. In Williamson's synthesis, ethoxyethane is prepared by
648. Which one is not synthesized by Grignard reagent (a) Passing ethanol over heated alumina
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol (b) Sodium ethoxide with ethyl bromide
(c) A ketone (d) An ester (c) Ethyl alcohol with sulphuric acid
649. The reaction between an ester and excess of Grignard (d) Ethyl iodide and dry silver oxide
reagent shall finally result in a 657. The compound formed when ethyl bromide is heated
(a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol with dry silver oxide is
(c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Ketone (a) Dimethyl ether (b) Diethyl ether
650. Action of nitrous acid with ethylamine produces (c) Methyl alcohol (d) Ethyl alcohol
(a) Ethane (b) Ammonia 658. Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of CH3MgI
(c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Nitroethane followed by treatment with a saturated solution of
651. Action of water in the presence of sulphuric acid with NH 4Cl gives
the following alkenes (a) 2-methyl-2-propanol (b) Acetamide
CH3 (c) Acetone (d) Acetyl iodide
(i) CH3  CH  C and
CH3 659. What is obtained when chlorine is passed in boiling
(ii) CH3  CH  CH 2 gives toluene and product is hydrolysed
(a) o-Cresol (b) p-Cresol
(c) 2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene (d) Benzyl alcohol
CH3
(a) CH3  CH2  C and 660. Which of the following is formed when benzaldehyde
| CH3 reacts with sodium hydroxide
OH
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Benzoic acid
(ii) CH3  CH  CH 3
 (c) Glucose (d) Acetic acid
OH
CH3
(b) (i) CH3  CH  CH and
 CH3
OH
(ii) CH3  CH 2  CH 2OH

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[36]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
661. When ethanal reacts with CH3MgBr and C2 H 5OH /dry 670. A compound X with molecular formula C3H8O can be
HCl the product formed are oxidised to a compound Y with the molecular formula
(a) Ethyl alcohol and 2-propanol C3H 6 O 2 X is most likely to be
(b) Ethane and hemi-acetal (a) Primary alcohol (b) Secondary alcohol
(c) 2-propanol and acetal (c) Aldehyde (d) Ketone
(d) Propane and methyl acetate
671. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give CH3COOH
662. In which case methyl-t-butyl ether is formed
(a) (C2 H5 )3 CONa + CH3Cl and CH 3CH 2COOH. The structure of the alcohol is
(b) (CH3 )3 CONa + CH3Cl (a) CH3CH 2CH 2OH
(c) (CH3 )3 CONa + C2 H5Cl (b) (CH3 ) 2 C(OH)CH 2CH3
(d) (CH3 )3 CONa + CH3Cl (c) CH3CH 2CHOHCH3
663. Which of the following combinations can be used to (d) CH3CH(OH)CH 2CH 2CH3
synthesize ethanol
672. An organic liquid A containing C, H and O has a
(a) CH3MgI and CH3COCH3 o
pleasant odour with a boiling point of 78 C On boiling
(b) CH3MgI and C2 H 5OH
A with conc. H 2SO4 a colourless gas is produced which
(c) CH3MgI and CH3COOC2 H5
decolourises bromine water and alkaline KMnO4 . One
(d) CH3MgI and HCOOC2 H 5
mole of this gas also takes one mole of H 2 . The organic
664. C6H5  CH  CHCHO 
X
C6H5CH  CHCH2OH .
liquid A is
In the above sequence X can be (a) C 2 H 5Cl (b) C2 H 5CHO
(a) H 2 /Ni (b) NaBH 4
(c) C 2 H 6 (d) C2 H 5OH
(c) K 2Cr2O7 /H + (d) Both (a) and (b) 673. An aromatic amine (A) was treated with alcoholic potash
665. Alkenes convert into alcohols by and another compound (Y) when foul smelling gas was
(a) Hydrolysis by dil. H 2SO4 formed with formula C6 H 5 NC. Y was formed by
(b) Hydration of alkene by alkaline KMnO4 reacting a compound (Z) with Cl 2 in the presence of
(c) Hydrolysis by water vapours and conc. H 2SO4 slaked lime. The compound (Z) is
(d) Hydration of alkene by aqueous KOH (a) C6 H5 NH 2 (b) C2 H 5OH
666. Which is formed when benzylamine react with nitrous (c) CH3OCH3 (d) CHCl3
acid
(a) C6 H 5OH (b) C6 H 5ON
674. C6H5OH + ClCOCH3 
aq. NaOH
C6H5OCOCH3
is an example of
(c) C2 H5 N 2OH (d) C6 H5CH 2OH
(a) Dow's reaction
667. Methylphenyl ether can be obtained by reacting (b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(a) Phenolate ions and methyl iodide (c) Schotten-Baumann reaction
(b) Methoxide ions and bromobenzene (d) Kolbe's reaction
(c) Methanol and phenol 675. Ortho-nitrophenol is steam volatile whereas para-
(d) Bromo benzene and methyl bromide nitrophenol is not. This is due to
668. A compound X of formula C3H8O yields a compound (a) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding present in ortho-
C3H 6O , on oxidation. To which of the following classes nitrophenol
of compounds could X being (b) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(a) Secondary alcohol (b) Alkene (c) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding present in para-
(c) Aldehyde (d) Tertiary alcohol nitrophenol
669. The boiling point of alcohol are …. than corresponding (d) None of these
thiols 676. Reaction of phenol with dil. HNO3 gives
(a) More (b) Same (a) p and m-nitrophenols (b) o- and p-nitrophenols
(c) Either of these (d) Less (c) Picric acid (d) o- and m-nitrophenols

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[37]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
677. The strongest acid among the following aromatic 688. An unknown compound ‗D‘, first oxidised to aldehyde
compounds is and then acetic acid by a dilute solution of K 2 Cr2O7 and
(a) ortho-nitrophenol (b) para-chlorophenol
H 2SO4 . The unknown compound ‗D‘ is
(c) para-nitrophenol (d) meta-nitrophenol
678. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some (a) CH3CHO (b) CH 2CH 3OH
(a) Pesticides (b) Proteins (c) CH 3CH 2OH (d) CH3CH 2CH3
(c) Dyes (d) Vitamins
689. The compound ‗A‘ when treated with ceric ammonium
679. Kolbe-Schmidt reaction is used for
nitrate solution gives yellow ppt. The compound ‗A‘ is
(a) Salicylic acid (b) Salicylaldehyde
(a) Alcohol (b) Aldehyde
(c) Phenol (d) Hydrocarbon
(c) Acid (d) Alkane
680. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation forms
690. Which of the following product is formed, when ether is
(a) Acetone (b) Ether
exposed to air
(c) Ethylene (d) Acetaldehyde
(a) Oxide (b)Alkanes
681. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in
(c) Alkenes (d)Peroxide of diethyl ether
weakly basic medium gives
691. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating
(a) Diphenyl ether (b) p-hydroxyazobenzene
with conc. H 2SO4 the initiation step is
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Benzene
682. The alcohol that produces turbidity immediately with (a) Protonation of alcohol molecule
ZnCl 2 + conc. HCl at room temperature (b) Formation of carbocation
(c) Elimination of water
(a) 1-hydroxybutane
(d) Formation of an ester
(b) 2-hydroxybutane
692. Phenol is less acidic than
(c) 2-hydroxy-2-methylpropane
(a) Ethanol (b) Methanol
(d) 1-hydroxy-2-methylpropane
(c) o-nitrophenol (d) p-methylphenol
683. The reagent which easily reacts with ethanol and
693. The compound which gives the most stable carbonium
propanol is
on dehydration is
(a) Fehling solution (b) Grignard reagent
(a) CH 3  CH  CH 2OH
(c) Schiff's reagent (d) Tollen's reagent |
684. Propene is the product obtained by dehydrogenation of CH3
(a) 2-propanol (b) 1-propanol CH3
(c) Propanal (d) n-propyl alcohol |
685. Boiling point of alcohol is comparatively higher than (b) CH3  C  OH
that corresponding alkane due to
|
(a) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(b) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding CH3
(c) Volatile nature (c) CH3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2OH
(d) None of these (d) CH3  CH  CH 2  CH3
686. When Phenol is heated with phthalic anhydride in |
OH
concentrated sulphuric acid and the hot reaction mixture
is poured into a dilute solution of sodium hydroxide, the 694. At higher temperature, iodoform reaction is given by
product formed is (a) CH3CO 2CH3 (b) CH3CO 2C2 H 5
(a) Alizarin (b) Methyl orange (c) C6 H5CO 2CH 3 (d) CH3CO 2C6 H5
(c) Fluorescein (d) Phenolphthalein
695. Cresol has
687. CH3  CH = CH  CH(OH)  CH3 
Jones'
 X, (a) Alcoholic – OH (b) Phenolic – OH
reagent
(c) – COOH (d) – CHO
Product X is
(a) CH3CH 2CH 2CH(OH)CH3 696. In CH3CH2OH 
X
o
 CH2  CH2 + H2O;
350 C

(b) CH3CH  CHCOCH3 'X' is

(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct (a) NaCl (b) CaCl2
(d) CH3CH 2CH 2COCH3 (c) P2 O 5 (d) Al2 O3

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[38]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
697. Sodium phenoxide reacts with CO 2 at 400K and 4-7 707. The OH group of methyl alcohol cannot be replaced
atm pressure to give by chlorine by the action of
(a) Sodium salicylate (b) Salicylaldehyde (a) Chlorine
(c) Catechol (d) Benzoic acid (b) Hydrogen chloride
(c) Phosphorus trichloride
698. The reaction of C2 H 5OH with H 2SO4 does not give
(d) Phosphorus pentachloride
(a) Ethylene (b) Diethyl ether 708. Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well.
(c) Acetylene (d) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate The white precipitate formed during the process is
699. Which statement is not correct about alcohol (a) m-bromophenol
(a) Alcohol is lighter than water (b) 2, 4-dibromophenol
(b) Alcohol evaporates quickly (c) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
(c) Alcohol of less no. of carbon atoms is less soluble in (d) A mixture of o- and p-bromophenols
water than alcohol of high no. of carbon atoms 709. When vapour of ethanol are passed over platinised
(d) All of these asbestos in excess of air, the compound formed is
700. An organic compound A reacts with sodium metal and
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COCH3
forms B. On heating with conc. H 2SO 4 , A gives diethyl
(c) C 2 H 2 (d) CH3COOH
ether. A and B are
710. Which of the following compound will give positive
(a) C2 H 5OH and C2 H5ONa
iodoform test
(b) C3H 7 OH and CH3ONa H
|
(c) CH3OH and CH3ONa (a) CH3OH (b) CH3  C  OH
|
(d) C4 H9OH and C4 H9ONa CH3
701. Compound A reacts with PCl5 to give B which on CH3
|
treatment with KCN followed by hydrolysis gave (c) CH 3  C  OH (d) CH3CH 2CH 2OH
propionic acid. What is A and B respectively |
CH3
(a) C 3 H 8 and C3H 7 Cl
711. The alcohol which easily reacts with conc. HCl is
(b) C 2 H 6 and C 2 H 5Cl
(a) CH3  CHOH  CH 2  CH3
(c) C 2 H 5Cl and C 2 H 5Cl
(b) (CH3 )3  C  OH
(d) C2 H 5OH and C 2 H 5Cl
(c) CH3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  OH
702. The increasing order of acidity among phenol, p-
(d) (CH3 )3  CH  CH 2OH
methylphenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is
(a) m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophenol, phenol, p-methylphenol 712. In the following series of chemical reactions, identify Z
(b) p-methylphenol, m-nitrophenol, phenol, p-nitrophenol C3H7OH 
Conc.H2SO4
o
 X 
Br2
Y 
Excess of
Z
160-180 C Alc.KOH
(c) p-methylphenol, phenol, m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophenol
(d) Phenol, p-methylphenol, p-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol (a) CH 3  CH  CH 2 (b) CH3  CH  CH 2
| | | |
703. In reaction of alcohols with alkali metal, acid etc. which NH2 NH2 OH OH
of the following alcohol will react fastest
(c) CH3  C  CH 2 (d) CH3C  CH
(a) Secondary (b) Tertiary |
(c) Primary (d) All equal OH
704. Order of reactivity of alcohols towards sodium metal is 713. Which of the following compounds is oxidised to
(a) Pri > Sec > Ter (b) Pri > Sec < Ter prepare methyl ethyl ketone
(c) Pri < Sec > Ter (d) Pri < Sec < Ter (a) 2 - propanol (b) 1 - butanol
705. 23 g of Na will react with methyl alcohol to give (c) 2 - butanol (d) Tert-butyl alcohol
(a) One mole of oxygen (b) One mole of H 2 714. Which of the following is acidic
1 (a) CH3OH (b) C6 H 5OH
(c) mole of H 2 (d) None of these
2 (c) (CH3 ) 2 CHOH (d) CH 3CH 2OH
706. Which reagent is useful in converting 1-butanol to 1-
bromobutane
(a) CHBr3 (b) Br2
(c) CH3Br (d) PBr3
QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL
[39]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
715. With excess bromine, phenol reacts to form 726. Which of the following would undergo dehydration most
OH OH readily
Br (a) 1-phenyl-1butanol (b) 2-phenyl-2-butanol
(a) (b) (c) 1-phenyl-2-butanol (d) 2-phenyl-1-butanol
727. Phenol and benzoic acid is distinguished b
OH Br (a) NaOH (b) NaHCO3
Br Br
(c) Na 2CO3 (d) H 2SO4
(c) (d) Mixture of (a) and (b)
728. Liebermann's test is answered by
Br (a) Aniline (b) Methylamine
716. Methyl alcohol on oxidation with acidified K 2Cr2O7 (c) Ethyl benzoate (d) Phenol
729. In the sequence of the following reactions:-
gives
CH3CH2OH  X  CH3COOH
[O] [O]
(a) CH3COCH3 (b) CH3CHO ChromicAcid ChromicAcid

(c) HCOOH (d) CH3COOH X is

(a) CH 3 COCH 3 (b) CH 3 CHO
717. Ethyl alcohol on oxidation with K 2Cr2O7 gives
(c) CH 3 OCH 3 (d) CH 3 CH 2 COOH
(a) Acetic acid (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Formaldehyde (d) Formic acid 730. Which of the following produces violet colour with
718. Azo-dyes are prepared from FeCl3 solution:
(a) Aniline (b) Benzaldehye (a) Enols (b) Ethanol
(c) Benzoic acid (d) Phenol (c) Ethanal (d) Alkyl halides
719. A compound that easily undergoes bromination is 731. An organic compound X on treatment with acidified
(a) Phenol (b) Toluene K 2 Cr2 O7 gives a compound Y which reacts with I 2 and
(c) Benzene (d) Benzoic acid sodium carbonate to form tri-odomethane. The
720. In esterification, the reactivity of alcohols compound X is
(a) 1° > 2° > 3° (b) 3° > 2° > 1°
(a) CH 3 OH (b) CH 3  CO  CH 3
(c) Same in all cases (d) None of these
721. For phenol, which of the following statements is correct (c) CH 3 CHO (d) CH 3 CH (OH )CH 3
(a) It is insoluble in water 732. The reaction of conc. HNO 3 and phenol forms
(b) It has lower melting point compared to aromatic (a) Benzoic acid (b) Salicylic acid
hydrocarbons of comparable molecular weight (c) o-and p-nitrophenol (d) Picric acid
(c) It has higher boiling point than toluene 733. Phenol is
(d) It does not show acidic property (a) A weaker base than NH 3
722. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with (b) Stronger than carbonic acid
(a)  CH3 3 COH (b) (CH3 ) 2 CHOH (c) Weaker than carbonic acid
(d) A neutral compound
(c) CH 3 (CH 2 )2 OH (d) CH 3CH 2OH
734. At low temperature phenol reacts with Br2 in CS 2 to
723. Which of the following reagents convert the propene to
1-propanol:- form
(a) m-bromophenol (b) o-and p-bromophenol
(a) H 2O, H 2SO 4 (b) Aqueous KOH
(c) p-bromophenol (d) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
(c) MgSO 4 , NaBH 4 /H 2O (d) B2 H6 , H 2O2 , OH  735. Oxidation of ethanol by chromic acid forms
724. Compound ‗A‘ reacts with PCl5 to give ‗B‘ which on (a) Ethanol (b) Methanol
(c) 2-propanone (d) Ethanoic acid
treatment with KCN followed by hydrolysis gave
propanoic acid as the product. What is ‗A‘
(a) Ethane (b) Propane
(c) Ethyl chloride (d) Ethyl alcohol
725. Which reagent can convert acetic acid into ethanol
(a) Na + alcohol (b) LiAlH 4 + ether
(c) H 2 + Pt (d) Sn + HCl

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[40]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
736. Which of the following not gives effervescence with (b) (iii) reacts immediately, (ii) reacts in about 5 minutes
NaHCO 3 and (i) not at all
(a) Phenol (b) Benzoic acid (c) (i) reacts immediately, (ii) reacts in about 5 minutes
(c) 2, 4-dinitrophenol (d) 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol and (iii) not at all
(d) (i) reacts in about 5 minutes, (ii) reacts in about 15
737. Conc. H 2 SO 4 reacts with C 2 H 5 OH at 170 o C to form
minutes and (iii) not at all
(a) CH 3 COCH 3 (b) CH 3 COOH 744. The final product of the oxidation of ethyl alcohol is
(c) CH 3 CHO (d) C 2 H 4 (a) Ethane (b) Acetone
738. Which statement is true (c) Acetaldehyde (d) Acetic acid
(a) C 6 H 5 OH is more acidic than C 2 H 5 OH 745. The compound obtained by heating salicylic acid with
(b) C 6 H 5 OH is less acidic than C2 H5 OH phenol in the presence of phosphorus oxychloride is
(a) Salol (b) Aspirin
(c) C 6 H 5 OH react with NaHCO 3
(c) Oil of wintergreen (d) o-chlorobenzoyl chloride
(d) C 6 H 5 OH gives oxime with NH 2 OH and HCl 746. When phenol is allowed to react with Br2 in (i) CS 2
739. Read the following statements carefully : solution and (ii) in aqueous solution, the resulting
(A) A secondary alcohol on oxidation gives a ketone compounds are
(B) Ethanol reacts with conc. H 2 SO 4 at 180 o C to yield (a) (i) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol and
ethylene (ii) o-and p-bromophenol
(C) Methanol reacts with iodine and sodium hydroxide (b) (i) m-bromophenol and
to give a yellow precipitate of iodoform (ii) 2, 3, 4-tribromophenol
(D) Hydrogen gas is liberated when sodium is added to (c) (i) o-and p-bromophenol and
alcohol. Select the correct statements from the above (ii) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
set: (d) (i) o- and m-bromophenol and
(a) A, B (b) C, D (ii) 2, 3, 4-tribromophenol
(c) A, B, D (d) A, C, D 747. Which of the following is not true in case of reaction
740. Carbylamine test is done by heating alcoholic KOH with with heated copper at 300 o C
(a) Chloroform and silver powder (a) Phenol  Benzyl alcohol
(b) Trihalogen methane and primary amine (b) Primary alcohol  Aldehyde
(c) Alkyl halide and primary amine (c) Secondary alcohol  Ketone
(d) Alkyl cyanide and primary amine (d) Tertiary alcohol  Olefin
741. Isopropyl alcohol heated at 300 o C with copper catalyst 748. Which one of the following compounds gives a positive
to form iodoform test
(a) Acetone (b) Dimethyl ether (a) Pentanal (b) 1-phenyl ethanol
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Ethane (c) 2-phenyl ethanol (d) 3-pentanol
742. In the sequence of the following reactions 749. Ethyl alcohol exhibits acidic character on reacting with
CH3OH  CH3 I 
HI
 KCN
(a) Acetic acid (b) Sodium metal
CH3CN 
reduction
 X 
HNO3
Y (c) Hydrogen iodide
(d) Acidic potassium dichromate
X and Y are respectively
750. The mixture of ethanol and water cannot be separated by
(a) CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 and CH 3 CH 2 OH
distillation because
(b) CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 and CH 3 COOH (a) They form a constant boiling mixture
(c) CH 3 CH 2 OH and CH 3 CHO (b) Alcohol molecules are solvated
(d) CH 3 OCH 3 and CH 3 CHO (c) Their boiling points are very near
(d) Alcohol remains dissolved in water
743. Alcohols (i) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH , (ii)
751. The reaction between an alcohol and an acid with the
CH 3  CHOH  CH 3 and (iii)
elimination of water molecule is called
CH 3  C(CH 3 )(OH )  CH 3 were treated with Lucas (a) Esterification (b) Saponification
reagent (Conc. HCl  ZnCl 2 ). What results do you (c) Etherification (d) Elimination
expect at room temperature
(a) (ii) and (iii) react immediately and (i) in about 5
minutes

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[41]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
752. Which of the following is not characteristic of alcohols 761. A compound A on oxidation gave acetaldehyde, then
(a) They are lighter than water again on oxidation gave acid. After first oxidation it was
(b) Their boiling points rise fairly uniformly with reacted with ammoniacal AgNO3 then silver mirror was
increasing molecular weight produced. A is likely to be
(c) Lower members are insoluble in water and organic (a) Primary alcohol (b) Tertiary alcohol
solvents but solubility regularly increases with (c) Acetaldehyde (d) Acetone
molecular weight 762. Alcohol which gives red colour with Victor Meyer test is
(d) Lower members have pleasant smell and burning (a) C2 H 5OH (b) CH3  CH  CH 3
taste, while higher members are odourless and 
tasteless OH
753. Lucas test is used to distinguish between (c) C(CH3 )3 OH (d) None of these
(a) 1 o , 2 o and 3 o alcohols (b) 1 o , 2 o and 3 o amines 763. Conc. H 2SO4 heated with excess of C2 H 5OH at
(c) Aldehydes and ketones (d) Alkenes and alkynes
140o C to form
754. Among the following, the compound that undergoes
(a) CH3CH 2  O  CH3
nitration readily is
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Toluene (b) CH3CH 2  O  CH 2CH3
(c) Phenol (d) Nitrobenzene (c) CH3  O  CH 2  CH 2  CH3
755. Phenol   A   B   C  CH 2
Zn Conc. H 2 SO 4 Zn
Distillati
on Conc. HNO3 NaOH (d) CH 2
In the above reaction A, B and C are the following 764. Rate of substitution reaction in phenol is
compounds (a) Slower than the rate of benzene
(a) C 6 H 6 , C 6 H 5 NO 2 and aniline (b) Faster than the rate of benzene
(b) C 6 H 6 , dinitrobenzene and metanitroaniline (c) Equal to the rate of benzene
(d) None of these
(c) Toluene, metanitrobenzene and metatoluedine
765. Phenol reacts with dilute HNO3 at normal temperature
(d) C 6 H 6 , C 6 H 5 NO 2 and hydrazobenzene
to form
756. Phenol reacts with CCl 4 in presence of aqueous alkali
HO HO HO
and forms a product which on hydrolysis gives
O2N NO2 NO2
(a) Salicylaldehyde (b) Salicylic acid (a) (b) +
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Benzoic acid
757. In fermentation by zymase, alcohol and CO 2 are NO2 NO2
obtained from the following sugar OH HO
(a) Glucose (b) Invert sugar
NO2
(c) Fructose (d) All of these (c) (d)
758. The order of melting point of ortho, para, meta- NO2
nitrophenol is 766. In presence of NaOH, phenol react with CHCl 3 to form
(a) o > m > p (b) p > m > o o-hydroxy benzaldehyde. This reaction is called
(c) m > p > o (d) p > o > m (a) Riemer-Tiemann's reaction
759. When ethyl alcohol (C 2 H 5 OH ) is mixed with ammonia (b) Sandmeyer's reaction
and passed over heated alumina, the compound formed (c) Hoffmann's degradation reaction
is (d) Gattermann's aldehyde synthesis
(a) C 2 H 5 NH 2 (b) C 2 H 4 767. Which of the following vapours passed over heated
(c) C 2 H 5 OC 2 H 5 (d) CH 3 OCH 3 copper to form acetone
760. In the esterification reaction of alcohols (a) H 3 C  CH 2  CH 2 OH (b) CH 3  CH  CH 3
|
(a) OH  is replaced by CH 3 COO group OH
CH 3
(b) OH  is replaced by chlorine
(c) CH 3 C  OH (d) CH 2  CH  CH 2 OH
(c) H  is replaced by sodium metal
CH 3
(d) OH  is replaced by C2 H5 OH

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[42]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
768. Methyl alcohol (methanol), ethyl alcohol (ethanol) and 777. If ethanol dissolves in water, then which of the following
acetone (propanone) were treated with iodine and would be done
sodium hydroxide solutions. Which substances will give (a) Absorption of heat and contraction in volume
iodoform test (b) Emission of heat and contraction in volume
(a) Only ethyl alcohol (c) Absorption of heat and increase in volume
(b) Only methyl alcohol and ethyl alcohol (d) Emission of heat and increase in volume
(c) Only ethyl alcohol and acetone 778. Alcohols react with Grignard reagent to form
(d) Only acetone (a) Alkanes (b) Alkenes
769. The vapour pressure of aqueous solution of methanal is (c) Alkynes (d) All of these
(a) Equal to water (b) Equal to methanal 779. Action of diazomethane on phenol liberates
(c) More than water (d) Less than water (a) O 2 (b) H 2
770. When ethyl alcohol reacts with acetic acid, the products (c) N 2 (d) CO 2
formed are
780. In esterification of an acid, the other reagent is
(a) Sodium ethoxide + hydrogen
(a) Aldehyde (b) Alcohol
(b) Ethyl acetate + water
(c) Amine (d) Water
(c) Ethyl acetate + soap
781. Maximum solubility of alcohol in water is due to
(d) Ethyl alcohol + water
(a) Covalent bond (b) Ionic bond
771. Picric acid is (at 25o C )
(c) H-bond with H 2 O (d) None of the above
(a) A white solid (b) A colourless liquid
782. Alcohols can be distinguished from alkenes by
(c) A gas (d) A bright yellow solid
(a) Dissolving in cold concentrated H 2SO4
772. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to
(a) Covalent character (b) Decolourizing with bromine in CCl4
(b) Hydrogen bonding character (c) Oxidizing with neutral permanganate solution
(c) Oxygen bonding character (d) None of the above
(d) None of these 783. When primary alcohol is oxidised with chlorine, it
773. The compound which gives the most stable carbonium produces
ion on dehydration is (a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO
(a) CH3  CH  CH 2OH (c) CCl3CHO (d) C3H 7 CHO
|
CH3 784. Alcohols combine with acetylene in the presence of
CH3 mercury compounds as catalyst to form
| (a) Acetals (b) Xanthates
(b) CH 3  C  OH
| (c) Vinyl ethers (d) None of the above
CH3 785. The compound which will give negative iodoform test is
(c) CH3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2OH (a) CH3CHO (b) CH 3CH 2OH
CH3 (c) Isopropyl alcohol (d) Benzyl alcohol
| 786. Which of the following is most acidic
(d) CH3  CH  CH2  CH3 (a) Phenol (b) Benzyl alcohol
774. In CH 3CH 2OH which bond dissociates heterolytically (c) m-chlorophenol (d) Cyclohexanol
787. In the following reaction
(a) C – C (b) C – O
(c) C – H (d) O – H C2H5OC2H5 + 4[H] 
Red P+HI
 2X + H2O, X is
775. Which of the following is most soluble in water (a) Ethane (b) Ethylene
(a) Normal butyl alcohol (b) Isobutyl alcohol (c) Butane (d) Propane
(c) Tertiary butyl alcohol (d) Secondary butyl alcohol 788. Diethyl ether can be decomposed by heating with
776. Which of the following gives negative iodoform test (a) HI (b) NaOH
(a) CH 3CH 2OH (b) CH3CH 2CH 2OH (c) Water (d) KMnO4
(c) C6 H 5  CH  CH 3 (d) CH3  CH  CH3
| |
OH OH

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[43]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
789. On boiling with concentrated hydrobromic acid, phenyl 798. A substance C4 H10O yields on oxidation a compound
ethyl ether will yield C 4 H8O which gives an oxime and a positive iodoform
(a) Phenol and ethyl bromide
test. The original substance on treatment with conc.
(b) Phenol and ethane
H 2SO4 gives C 4 H 8 . The structure of the compound is
(c) Bromobenzene and ethanol
(d) Bromobenzene and ethane (a) CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2OH
790. Ether is formed when ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. (b) CH3CH(OH)CH 2CH3
H 2SO4 The conditions are (c) (CH3 )3 COH
(a) Excess of H 2SO4 and 170o C (d) CH3CH 2  O  CH 2CH 3
o
(b) Excess of C2 H 5OH and 140 C 799. Which of the following will not react with NaOH
(c) Excess of C2 H 5OH and 180 C o OH
O2 N NO 2
(d) Excess of conc. H 2SO4 and 100o C (a) (b) C2 H 5OH
791. Addition of alcohols to aldehydes in presence of
anhydrous acids yield NO 2
(a) Carboxylic acids (b) Ethers (c) CH 3CONH 2 (d) CH(CN)3
(c) Cyclic ethers (d) Acetals
800. The boiling point of methanol is greater than that of
792. In which of the following reaction, phenol or sodium
methyl thiol because
phenoxide is not formed
(a) There is intramolecular hydrogen bonding in
(a) C6H5 N2Cl + alc.KOH 
 methanol and intermolecular hydrogen bonding in
(b) C6 H 5OCl + NaOH 
 methyl thiol
(b) There is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in
(c) C6 H 5 N 2Cl + aq.NaOH 
 methanol and no hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol
(c) There is no hydrogen bonding in methanol and
(d) C6H5 NNCl 
H2O

Δ intermolecular hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol
793. The ether that undergoes electrophilic substitution (d) There is intramolecular hydrogen bonding in
reactions is methanol and no hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol
(a) CH 3OC 2 H 5 (b) C6 H5OCH3 (e) There is no hydrogen bonding in methanol and
intramolecular hydrogen bonding in methyl thiol
(c) CH3OCH3 (d) C2 H5OC2 H5
801. Which of the following will not form a yellow
794. Acetyl chloride does not react with precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution of iodine
(a) Diethyl ether (b) Aniline (a) CH3OH
(c) Phenol (d) Ethanol
(b) CH 3CH 2OH
795. The products formed in the following reaction
(c) CH3CH(OH)CH3
C6H5  O  CH3 + HI 
heat
 are
(d) CH3CH 2CH(OH)CH3
(a) C6 H5  I and CH3  OH
802. Which of the following reagents will produce
(b) C6 H5  OH and CH 3  I
salicyldehyde on reaction with phenol
(c) C6 H5  CH3 and HOI (a) CHCl3 /NaOH (b) CCl4 /NaOH
(d) C6 H 6 and CH3OI (c) CH 2Cl2 /NaOH (d) CH3Cl/NaOH
796. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the 803. Which of the following compound give yellow
same molecular formula. This is due to
precipitate with I 2 and NaOH
(a) Dipolar character of ethers
(b) Alcohols having resonance structures (a) CH3OH (b) CH3CH 2CH 2OH
(c) Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers (c) C2 H5OC2 H5 (d) CH 3CH 2OH
(d) Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols 804. Amongst the following, HBr reacts fastest with
797. Methyl-ter butyl ether on heating with HI of one molar (a) Propane-1-ol (b) Propane-2-ol
concentration gives (c) 2-methyl propane-1-ol (d) 2-methyl propane-2-ol
(a) CH3I + (CH3 )3 COH (b) CH3OH + (CH 3 )3 Cl
(c) CH3I + (CH3 )3 Cl (d) None of the above

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[44]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
805. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with t-butanol, 814. Mark the correct increasing order of reactivity of the
the product would be following compounds with HBr/HCl.
(a) Benzene (b) Phenol
(c) t-butyl benzene (d) t-butyl ether
806. Ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H 2 SO 4 . The product
formed is
O
||
(a) CH 3  C  OC2 H 5 (b) C 2 H 6
(a) c<b<a (b) b<c<a
(c) C 2 H 4 (d) C 2 H 2 (c) b<a<c (d) a<b<c
807. Dehydration of 2-butanol yield 815.
(a) 1-butene (b) 2-butene
(c) 2-butyne (d) Both (a) and (b)
808. When vapours of an alcohol are passed over hot reduced
copper, alcohol is converted into alkene quickly, the
alcohol is
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary (d) None of these
809. The adduct of the compound 'A' obtained by the reaction
with excess of isopropyl magnesium iodide, upon
hydrolysis gives a tertiary alcohol. The compound 'A' is
(a) An ester (b) A secondary alcohol 816. Identify ‗C‘ in the following:-
(c) A primary alcohol (d) An aldehyde
810. If there be a compound of the formula CH3C(OH)3
which one of the following compounds would be
obtained from it without reaction with any reagent
(a) CH3OH (b) C2 H 5OH
817. The dehydration of 2-methyl butanol with conc. H 2SO4
(c) CH3COOH (d) HCHO
gives
811. Which of the following compounds is aromatic alcohol?
(a) 2-methyl butene as major product
(b) Pentene
(c) 2-methyl but-2-ene as major product
(d) 2-methyl pent-2-ene
818. Which will dehydrate easily
(a) 3-methyl-2-butanol (b) Ethyl alcohol
(a) A, B, C, D (b) A, D
(c) 2-methyl propane-2-ol (d) 2-methyl butanol-2
(c) B, C (d) A Al O
Phenol is less acidic than ______________. 819. A 
Cu
CH3CH 2OH 
2 3 B. A and B
Δ Δ
(a) ethanol (b)o-nitrophenol
respectively are
(c)o-methylphenol (d) o-methoxyphenol
812. Which of the following is most acidic? (a) Alkene, alkanal (b) Alkyne, alkanal
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Cyclohexanol (c) Alkanal, alkene (d) Alkene, alkyne
(c) m-Chlorophenol (d) Phenol
813. Mark the correct order of decreasing acid strength of the
following compounds.

(a) e > d > b > a > c (b) b>d>a>c>e

(c) d > e > c > b > a (d) e>d>c>b>a

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[45]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
820. Which one of the following reactions would produce 827. Reaction of phenol with chloroform/NaOH to give o -
secondary alcohol hydroxy benzaldehyde involves the formation of
(a) Dichloro carbene (b) Trichloro carbene
O
|| (c) Chlorine atoms (d) Chlorine molecules
(a) C6 H5  C  CH3 
1.CH3MgBr
 828. Which is not correct
+
2.H
(a) Phenol is more acidic than acetic acid
O (b) Ethanol is less acidic than phenol
||
(b) C6 H5  C  CH3 
1.LiAlH 4
 (c) Ethanol has lower boiling point than ethane
+
2.H
(d) Ethyne is a non-linear molecule
(c) CH3CHO 
+
 1.LiAlH4
829.
2.H
O
||
(d) CH3  C  CH3 

1.OH

Acetyl Chloride 2.Br2

821. The best method to prepare cyclohexene from

cyclohexanol is by using
(a) Conc. HCl + ZnCl2 (b) Conc. H3PO4 830. In cold countries ethylene glycol is added to water in the
(c) HBr (d) Conc. HCl radiators to
822. C2 H 5OH can be differentiated from CH3OH by (a) Bring down the specific heat of water
(a) Reaction with HCl (b) Reaction with NH 3 (b) Lower the viscosity
(c) By iodoform test (d) By solubility in water (c) Reduce the viscosity
823. A compound does not react with 2.4 di-nitrophenyl (d) Make water a better lubricant
hydrazine and Na , compound is 831. 4-chloro-3, 5-dimethyl phenol is called
(a) Acetone (b) Acetaldehyde (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Paracetamol
(c) CH3OH (d) CH 2  CHOCH3 (c) Barbital (d) Dettol
832. Alcoholic fermentation is brought about by the action of
824. Tertiary butyl alcohol gives tertiary butyl chloride on
(a) CO 2 (b) O 2
treatment with
(a) Conc. HCl /anhydrous ZnCl 2 (c) Invertase (d) Yeast
833.
(b) KCN
(c) NaOCl
(d) Cl 2

825. HO  N 2Cl  

base
834.

(a) NN OH

(b) O

835. Methyl alcohol is toxic. The reason assigned is

(c) (a) It stops respiratory track
(b) It reacts with nitrogen and forms CN  in the lungs
(c) It increases CO 2 content in the blood
(d) OH (d) It is a reduction product of formaldehyde
836. Liquor poisoning is due to
826. In which of the following reactions carbon carbon bond (a) Presence of bad compound in liquor
formation takes place (b) Presence of methyl alcohol
(a) Cannizzaro (b) Reimer-Tiemann (c) Presence of ethyl alcohol
(c) HVZ reaction (d) Schmidt reaction (d) Presence of carbonic acid

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
837. In order to make alcohol undrinkable pyridine and 846. Phenol 
NaNO2/H2SO4
 B 
H2O
C NaOH
D
methanol are added to it. The resulting alcohol is called Name of the above reaction is
(a) Power alcohol (b) Proof spirit (a) Liebermann‘s reaction
(c) Denatured spirit (d) Poison alcohol (b) Phthalein fusion test
838. Ether can be used (c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(a) As a general anaesthetic (b) As a refrigerant (d) Schottenf-Baumann reaction
(c) In perfumery (d) All of these 847. What will be the products of reaction if methoxybenzene
839. The Bouveault-Blanc reduction involves reacts with HI
(a) C2 H5OH/Na (b) LiAlH 4 (a) Methyl alcohol (methanol) + iodobenzene
(c) C2 H5MgX  (d) Zn/HCl (b) Methyl iodide (iodomethane) + benzene
(c) Methyle iodide + phenol
840. Which is used as an antifreeze
(d) Methyl iodide + iodobenzene
(a) Glycol (b) Ethyl alcohol
848. Ethylene reacts with Baeyer's reagent to give
(c) Water (d) Methanol
(a) Ethane (b) Ethyl alcohol
841.
(c) Ethylene glycol (d) None of these
849. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
case of dehydration in alcohols
(a) Primary > Secondary (b) Secondary > Tertiary
(c) Tertiary > Primary (d) None of these
842.
850. Propan-1-ol can be prepared from propene by
(a) H 2O/H 2SO4
(b) Hg(OAc) 2 /H 2O followed by NaBH 4
(c) B2 H 6 followed by H 2O2
(d) CH3CO 2 H/H 2SO 4
851. Oxidation of which of the following by air in presence of
843. Which will undergo a Friedel-Craft's alkylation reaction vanadium pentoxide gives phenol
CH3 CH2CH3 COOH OH (a) Toluene (b) Benzene
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Phenyl acetic acid
852. The most suitable method of the separation of a 1 : 1
mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols is
NO 2 (a) Distillation (b) Sublimation
1 2 3 4 (c) Crystallization (d) Chromatography
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 853. Which of the following does not form phenol or
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 phenoxide
(a) C6 H 5Cl (b) C6 H 5COOH
844. The product ‗A‘ in the following reaction is (c) C6 H5 N 2Cl (d) C6 H5SO3 Na
H 2C — CH 2 854. Which of the following will be obtained by keeping
RMgI
A ether in contact with air for a long time
O (a) C2 H5  O  CH (CH3 )  O  OH
(a) RCHOHR (b) RCHOH.CH3 (b) C2 H5  O  CH 2  OH
R (c) C2 H5  O  C2 H5OH
(c) R  CH 2  CH 2  OH (d) CHCH 2OH
R (d) CH3  O CH (CH3 )  O  OH
845. Phenol reacts with benzenediazonium cation at pH 7.5
to give :
(a) aniline (b) chlorobenzene
(c) benzene (d) azo dye

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
855. When a mixture of ethanol and methanol is heated in the 863.
presence of concentrated H 2 SO 4 the resulting organic
product or products is/are
(a) CH 3OC 2 H 5
(b) CH3OCH3 and C2 H5OC2 H5
(c) CH 3OC 2 H 5 and CH3OCH3
(d) CH 3OC2 H 5 , CH3OCH3 and C2 H5OC2 H5
856. In the following groups
OAc OMe OSO 2 Me OSO 2CF3
I II III IV
The order of leaving group ability is
(a) I > II > III > IV
(b) IV > III > I > II
(c) III > II > I > IV
(d) II > III > IV > I 864. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of the
857. Epoxides are following compound is:
(a) Cyclic ethers
(b) Not ethers
(c) Aryl-alkyl ethers
(d) Ethers with another functional group (a) i > ii > iii (b) iii > ii > i
858. Phenol reacts with bromine in carbon disulphide at low (c) ii > i > iii (d) ii > iii > i
temperature to give?
(a) m–bromophenol (b)o–and p–bromophenol
(c)p–bromophenol (d) 2,4,6–tribromophenol
859. Phenol is least reactive for aromatic nucleophilic
substitution because :
(a) Carbon–oxygen bond has some double bond
character due to resonance.
(b) Oxygen is present in sp2 hybrid carbon which makes
carbon–oxygen bond stronger.
(c) Oxygen is highly electronegative which decreases
bond length between carbon and
oxygen.
(d) All are correct.
860. The best reagent to convert pent-3-en-2-ol into pent-3-
in-2-one is
(a) Acidic permanganate
(b) Acidic dichromate
(c) Chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid
(d) Pyridinium chloro-chromate
861. When alcohol reacts with concentrated H 2SO4
intermediate compound formed is
(a) Carbonium ion (b) Alkoxy ion
(c) Alkyl hydrogen sulphate (d) None of these
862. Arrange the following compound in decreasing order of
boiling point
(i) propan-1-ol (ii) butan-2-ol
(iii) butane-1-ol (iv) pentan-1-ol
(a) i > iii > ii > iv (b) i > ii > iii > iv
(c) iv > iii > ii > i (d) iv > ii > iii > i

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
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SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]

CHAPTER-14
876. Which of the following is an aldohexose
(a) Cellulose (b) Sucrose
(c) Glucose (d) Raffinose
877. The number of atoms in the cyclic structure of D-
fructose is

BIOMOLECULES (a) 5
(c) 4
(b) 6
(d) 7
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONLY SINGLE 878. Which of the following is an example of ketohexose
CORRECT OPTION (a) Mannose (b) Galactose
(c) Maltose (d) Fructose
865. Which of the following monosaccharide is a pentose 879. Glucose is a
(a) Galactose (b) Glucose (a) Monosaccharide (b) Disaccharide
(c) Fructose (d) Arabinose (c) Trisaccharide (d) Polysaccharide
866. Which one is a disaccharide 880. Glucose when heated with CH 3 OH in presence of dry
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose HCl gas gives  and   methyl glucosides because it
(c) Xylose (d) Sucrose contains
867. Sucrose is a (a) An aldehyde group (b) A CH 2OH group
(a) Monosaccharide (b) Disaccharide
(c) A ring structure (d) Five hydroxyl groups
(c) Trisaccharide (d) Polysaccharide
881. Hydrolysis of sucrose is called
868. Molecular formula C6 H12O6 is of
(a) Esterification of cane sugar
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose (b) Saponification of cane sugar
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (c) Inversion of cane sugar
869. The change in optical rotation, with time, of freshly (d) Hydration of cane sugar
prepared solution of sugar is known as 882. The ‗epimerisation‘ involves
(a) Rotatory motion (b) Inversion (a) Change of configuration
(c) Specific rotation (d) Mutarotation (b) Addition of one more 'C'
870. Sugars are (c) Substration of a 'C'
(a) Optically active polyhydroxy aldehydes (d) Conversion of CHO to C  O
(b) Optically active polyhydroxy ketones 883. The compound which does not contain an asymmetric
(c) Optically active polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones carbon atom is
(d) Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones which may or (a) Glycolaldehyde (b) Glyceraldehyde
may not be optically active (c) Glucose (d) Galactose
871. Which of the following sign indicate that the sugar is 884. The standard compound for determination of
actually ‗dextrorotatory‘ configuration in the ‗sugar chemistry‘ is
(a) – (b) + (a) Glycolaldehyde (b) Glyceraldehyde
(c) R – (d) All of these (c) Glucose (d) Fructose
872. Amide group is present in 885. Molecular formula of pentahydroxy acid obtained when
(a) Lipids (b) Carbohydrates glucose is oxidised with Br2 water is
(c) Amino acids (d) Proteins
(a) C6 H12O7 (b) C6 H12O8
873. The letter ‗D‘ in carbohydrates represents
(a) Its direct synthesis (b) Its dextrorotation (c) C6 H12O6 (d) C6 H10O6
(c) Its mutarotation (d) Its configuration 886. On complete hydrolysis of starch, we finally get
874. Glucose gives silver mirror with Tollen's reagent. It (a) Glucose (b) Fructose
shows the presence of (c) Glucose and fructose (d) Sucrose
(a) An acidic group (b) An alcoholic group 887. Which is monosaccharide
(c) A ketonic group (d) An aldehydic group (a) Glucose (b) Fructose
875. Glucose has functional group (c) Galactose (d) All of these
(a) Aldehydic 888. Which is polysaccharide
(b) Aldehydic and alcoholic (a) Starch (b) Cellulose
(c) Alcoholic (c) Glycogen (d) All of these
(d) Ketonic and alcoholic

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
889. On heating with conc. H 2 SO 4 , sucrose gives 902. The aqueous solution of a carbohydrate gives dark blue
(a) CO and CO2 (b) CO and SO 2 colour with iodine. It is
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose
(c) CO, CO2 and SO 2 (d) None of these
(c) Sucrose (d) Starch
890. Amylopectin is 903. Which of the following carbohydrates is a disaccharide
(a) Water soluble (a) Glucose (b) Fructose
(b) Water insoluble (c) Raffinose (d) Maltose
(c) Forms colloidal solution with water 904. Optical activity is shown by
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) Glucose (b) Fructose
891. Maltose contains how many oxygen atoms (c) Sucrose (d) All of these
(a) 6 (b) 10 905. Which is a reducing sugar
(c) 11 (b) 22 (a) Glucose (b) Fructose
892. Sucrose is (c) Galactose (d) All of these
(a) Laevorotatory (b) Dextrorotatory 906. Glucose contains
(c) Racemic mixture (d) Optically inactive (a) One CHO group
893. The hydrolysis of sucrose produces a mixture which is (b) Five OH groups
(a) Laevorotatory (c) One primary alcoholic group
(b) Dextrorotatory (d) Four secondary alcoholic groups
(c) Equally both (+) and (–) rotatory (e) All are correct
(d) Optically inactive 907. Carbohydrates are stored in human body as
894. Sucrose is (a) Glucose (b) Glycogen
(a) A reducing sugar (c) Starch (d) Fructose
(b) Not a reducing sugar 908. An example of a disaccharide made up of two units of
(c) Partial reducing sugar the same monosaccharides is
(d) Mixed sugar (a) Sucrose (b) Maltose
895. Sucrose contains which of the following groups (c) Lactose (d) None of these
(a) CHO (b)  C  O 909. The sugar present in fruits is
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (a) Fructose (b) Glucose
896. The fructose molecule in sucrose exists as (c) Sucrose (d) Galactose
(a) Furanose (b) Pyranose 910. Carbohydrates are
(c) Open chain (d) All (a) Hydrates of carbon
897. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives (b) Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones
(a) Two molecules of glucose (c) Polyhydroxy acid compounds
(b) Two molecules of fructose (d) None of these
(c) One molecule each of glucose and fructose 911. Starch is a polymer of
(d) One molecule each of glucose and mannose (a) Glucose (b) Fructose
898. Which one of the following is laevorotatory (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose 912. Lactose on hydrolysis gives
(c) Fructose (d) None of these (a) Two glucose molecules
899. A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed to simpler (b) Two galactose molecules
forms is called (c) A galactose molecule and a fructose molecule
(a) Disaccharide (b) Monosaccharide (d) A galactose molecule and a glucose molecule
(c) Polysaccharide (d) Trisaccharide 913. An example of non-reducing sugar is
900. If monosaccharide contains an aldehyde group, it is (a) Cane sugar (b) Fructose
known as (c) Lactose (d) Glucose
(a) Epimer (b) Osones 914. Cellulose is a polymer of
(c) Osazone (d) Aldose (a) L-fructose (b) D-mannose
901. If a monosaccharide contains a ketogroup, it is known as (c) D-glucose (d) Amylose
(a) Ketose (b) Osones 915. The intermediate compound formed in the conversion of
(c) Epimer (d) Osazone starch to glucose is
(a) Lactose (b) Sucrose
(c) Maltose (d) Fructose

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
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 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
916.   D  glucose and   D  glucose differ from each 926. Which of the following does not reduce Benedict's
other due to difference in one of the carbons with respect solution
to its (a) Sucrose (b) Aldehyde
(a) Size of hemiacetal ring (b) Number of OH groups (c) Glucose (d) Fructose
(c) Configuration (d) Conformation 927. In polysaccharides the linkage connecting
917. Formation of silver mirror by glucose shows that it is monosaccharide units is called
a/an (a) Glycoside linkage (b) Nucleoside linkage
(a) Oxidising agent (b) Acid (c) Glycogen linkage (d) Peptide linkage
(c) Reducing agent (d) A salt of silver 928. An invert sugar is
918. Which of the following statements is right (a) Isorotatory (b) Dextrorotatory
(a) Cellulose are linear polymers of   glucose (c) Laevorotatory (d) Optically inactive
molecules with   1, 4  linkages 929. The change in optical rotation with time of freshly
prepared solutions of sugar is known as
(b) Starches are polymers of   glucose molecules with
(a) Maturation (b) Rotatory motion
  1, 4  linkages and some   1, 6  cross-linkages
(c) Inversion (d) Specific rotation
(c) Proteins are polyamides of   amino acids 930. The ultimate product of the hydrolysis of starch is
(d) The structural information about their biosynthesis is (a) Fructose (b) Glucose
contained in a class of compounds called nucleic (c) Sucrose (d) None of these
acids, e.g. RNA and DNA 931. A sugar, that is not a disaccharide, among the following
919. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA is: is
(a) The sugar component RNA is arabinose and sugar in (a) Lactose (b) Galactose
DNA is ribose (c) Sucrose (d) Maltose
(b) The sugar component in RNA is 2'-deoxyribose and 932. On heating glucose with Fehling's solution we get a
the sugar component in DNA is arabinose. precipitate whose colour is
(c) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the (a) Yellow (b) Red
sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose. (c) Black (d) White
(d) The sugar component in RNA is ribose and sugar 933. The specific rotation of equilibrium mixture of -D-
component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose. glucose and -D-glucose, is
920. In both DNA and RNA, base and phosphate ester (a)  19 o (b)  112 o
linkage are at:
(c)  52 o
(d)  100 o
(a) C5′and C2′ respectively of sugar molecule
934. The charring of sugar, when treated with conc. H 2 SO 4 ,
(b) C2′ and C5′respectively of sugar molecule
(c) C3′ and C5′ respectively of sugar molecule is due to
(d) C5′ and C1′ respectively of sugar molecule (a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
921. The two functional groups present in a typical (c) Dehydration (d) Hydrolysis
carbohydrates are: 935. Glucose and mannose are
(a) —OH and —COOH (c) > C=O and —OH (a) Epimers (b) Anomers
(b) —CHO and —COOH (d) —CHO and —COCl (c) Ketohexoses (d) Disaccharides
922. Which is used in motion picture films 936. On hydrolysis, which produces only glucose
(a) Cellulose acetate (b) Glucose acetate (a) Galactose (b) Maltose
(c) Starch acetate (d) Sucrose acetate (c) Sucrose (d) None
923. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to form 937. Glucose has difference from fructose in that it
(a) Mono-acetate (b) Tetra-acetate (a) Does not undergo hydrolysis
(c) Penta-acetate (d) Hexa-acetate (b) Gives silver mirror with Tollen's reagent
924. The disaccharide present in milk is (c) Monosaccharide
(a) Maltose (b) Lactose (d) None of these
(c) Sucrose (d) Cellobiose 938. In fructose, the possible optical isomers are
925. Carbohydrates are used by body mainly (a) 12 (b) 8
(a) For obtaining vitamins (c) 16 (d) 4
(b) As source of energy
(c) For all its developmental needs
(d) For building muscles

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
939. Which is false 953. Which one of the following is an amino acid
(a) Glucose is a disaccharide (a) CH 3 CONH 2 (b) CH 3 CONHCH 3
(b) Starch is a polysaccharide (c) CH 3 NHCHO (d) NH 2CH 2 .COOH
(c) Glucose and fructose are not anomers
954. The molecular weight of protein is
(d) Invert sugar consists of glucose and fructose
(a) < 10000 (b) > 10000
940. Insulin is a/an:
(c) > 1000 (d) > 1000 and < 10000
(a) An amino acid (b) Protein
955. Which of the following is not a classification of proteins
(c) A carbohydrate (d) A lipid
(a) Enzymes (b) Antibodies
941. Peptides are
(c) Antigens (d) Hormones
(a) Esters (b) Salts
956. The protein that is a structural material is
(c) Amides (d) Ketones
(a) Albumin (b) Oxytocin
942. The proteins which are insoluble in water are
(c) Haemoglobin (d) Keratin
(a) Fibrous proteins (b) Globular proteins
957. For   amino acids having the structure:
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
R  CH  CO 2 H
943. Irreversible precipitation of proteins is called |
NH 2
(a) Denaturation (b) Hydrolysis
(c) Rearrangement (d) Electrophoresis Which of the following statements are true
944. Amino acids are (A) Water solubility is maximum at a pH when
(a) Liquids concentrations of anions and cations are equal
(b) Volatile solids (B) They give ninhydrin test
(c) Non-volatile crystalline compounds (C) On reacting with nitrous acid give off N 2
(d) Mixture of amines and acids (a) All (b) B and C
945. Isoelectric point is a (c) A and B (d) A
(a) Specific temperature 958. Which of the following reacts with haemoglobin in the
(b) Suitable concentration of amino acid blood to form carboxyhaemoglobin
(c) Hydrogen ion concentration that does not allow (a) CO (b) CO2
migration of amino acid under electric field (c) HCOOH (d) H 2CO3
(d) Melting point of an amino acid under the influence
959. Secondary structure of a protein refers to
of electric field
(a) Mainly denatured proteins and structures of
946. Proteins are hydrolysed by enzymes into
prosthetic groups
(a) Dicarboxylic acids (b) Hydroxy acids
(b) Three dimensional structure, specially the bond
(c) Amino acids (d) Aromatic acids
between amino acid residues that are distant from
947. Proteins are built up of
each other in the polypeptide chain
(a) Dicarboxylic acids (b) Amino acids
(c) Linear sequence of amino acid residues in the
(c) Alcohols (d) Hydroxy acids
polypeptide chain
948. The main structural feature of proteins is
(d) Regular folding patterns of continuous portions of
(a) The ester linkage (b) The ether linkage
the polypeptide chain
(c) The peptide linkage (d) All of these
960. Proteins are composed of
949. Which one of the following proteins transports oxygen
(a)   amino acids (b) Carbohydrates
in the blood stream
(c) Vitamins (d) Mineral salts
(a) Myoglobin (b) Insulin
961. Read the following statements carefully
(c) Albumin (d) Haemoglobin
(A) Albumin is a simple protein
950. Which is an essential constituent of diet
(B) The amino acid alanine contains an acidic side chain
(a) Starch (b) Glucose
(C) Insulin is a hormone
(c) Carbohydrate (d) Protein
(D) Muscles contain the protein keratin
951. Proteins can be used
Point out the wrong statements in the above set of
(a) As food (b) In textile
statements
(c) As enzyme (d) All of these
(a) A, B (b) C, D
952. The helical structure of proteins is established by
(c) A, C (d) B, D
(a) Peptide bonds (b) Dipeptide bond
(c) Hydrogen bond (d) Vander Waal's forces

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

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 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
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SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
962. Which of the following statements about proteins is not 976. -helix is found in
true (a) DNA (b) RNA
(a) Amino acid residues join together to make a protein (c) Lipid (d) Protein
molecule 977. The main structural of protein is
(b) Proteins are polymers with formula (C6 H10O5 )n (a) The ester linkage (b) The ether linkage
(c) Eggs are rich in protein (c) The peptide linkage (d) All of these
(d) Pulses are good source of proteins 978. The pH value of the solution in which a particular amino
963. The functional group which is found in amino acid is acid does not migrate under the influence of an electric
(a) COOH group (b)  NH 2 group field in called the
(a) Eutectic point (b) Isoelectric point
(c) CH 3 group (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Neutralisation point (d) Effusion
964. Amino acids are produced on hydrolysis of
979. Which part of the protein molecule is responsible for
(a) Nucleic acid (b) Carbohydrates
function and activity of the proteins
(c) Fats (d) Proteins
(a) Secondary structure (b) Peptide bond
965. Metal present in blood is:
(c) Primary structure (d) Binding sites
(a) Al (b) Mg
980. Which enzyme convert glucose into alcohol
(c) Cu (d) Fe
(a) Invertase (b) Zymase
966. What is the monomer of polypeptide
(c) Maltase (d) Diastase
(a) Amino acid (b) Glucose
981. Which one of the following structures represents the
(c) Nucleoside (d) Nucleotide
peptide chain
967. Haemoglobin is
H H H O
(a) An enzyme (b) A globular protein | | | | | | ||

(c) A vitamin (d) A carbohydrate (a)  N  C  C  N  C  C  N  C  C 

| || | || |
968. Albumin proteins are most abundant in O O
(a) Meat (b) Milk H O H
| | | || | | | | |
(c) Egg (d) Soyabean (b)  N  C  C  C  N  C  C  N  C  C  C 
| | | | | || | |
969. Amino acids usually exist in the form of Zwitter ions.
H O
This means that it consists of
H O
(a) The basic group –NH 2 and the acidic group | | ||
(c)  N  C  N  C  NH  C  NH 
COOH || | |
O H
(b) The basic group  NH 3 and the acidic group CO 2
H H
(c) The basic group  CO 2 and the acidic group NH 3 | | | | | | | |
(d)  N  C  C  C  C  N  C  C  C 
|| | | | | | |
(d) No acidic or basic group
O
970. Which of the following is a conjugated protein
982. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin
(a) Glycoprotein (b) Phosphoprotein
is that it
(c) Chromoprotein (d) All of these
(a) Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood
971. The number of essential amino acids in man is
(b) Forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) Functions as a catalyst for biological reactions
(c) 18 (d) 20
(d) Maintains blood sugar level
972. The helical structure of proteins is stabilized by
983. A nucleotide consists of
(a) Peptide bonds (b) Dipeptide bond
(a) Base and sugar (b)Base and phosphate
(c) Hydrogen bond (d) Vander Waal's forces
(c) Sugar and phosphate (d)Base, sugar and phosphate
973. The optically inactive amino acid is
984. Which of the following is responsible for heredity
(a) Lysine (b) Glycine
character
(c) Arginine (d) Alanine
(a) DNA (b) RNA
974. Amino acids are the building blocks of
(c) Proteins (d) Hormones
(a) Fat (b) Vitamin
985. The base adenine occurs in
(c) Protein (d) Carbohydrate
(a) DNA only (b) RNA only
975. Which of the following protein destroys the antigen
(c) DNA and RNA both (d) Protein
when it enters in body cell
(a) Antibodies (b) Insulin
(c) Chromoprotein (d) Phosphoprotein

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986. Which of the following statements about the assembly of 998. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is
nucleotides in a molecule of deoxyribose nucleic acid operation of
(DNA) is correct (a) Vander Waal's forces
(a) A pentose of one unit connects to a pentose of (b) Dipole-dipole interaction
another (c) Hydrogen bonding
(b) A pentose of one unit connects to the base of another (d) Electrostatic attractions
(c) A phosphate of one unit connects to a pentose of 999. The function of DNA in an organism is
another (a) To assist in the synthesis of RNA molecule
(d) A phosphate of one unit connects to the base of (b) To store information of heredity characteristics
another (c) To assist in the synthesis of proteins and
987. Which of the following is not a constituent of RNA polypeptides
(a) Ribose (b) Phosphate (d) All of these
(c) Adenine (d) Pyridine 1000. Energy is stored in our body in the form of
988. Which substance is not present in nucleic acid (a) ATP (b) ADP
(a) Cytosine (b) Adenine (c) Fats (d) Carbohydrates
(c) Thymine (d) Guanidine 1001. Nucleic acid is a polymer of
989. Which of the following is not present in nucleic acids (a) Nucleosides (b)   amino acids
(a) Uracil (b) 2-aminopyridine (c) Nucleotides (d) Glucose
(c) Thymine (d) Adenine 1002. A nucleoside on hydrolysis gives
990. In nucleic acids, the sequence is (a) A heterocyclic base and orthophosphoric acid
(a) Base-phosphate-sugar (b) Phosphate-base-sugar (b) An aldopentose, a heterocyclic base and
(c) Sugar-base-phosphate (d) Base-sugar-phosphate orthophosphoric acid
991. The double helical structure of DNA was proposed by (c) An aldopentose and a heterocyclic base
(a) Watson and Crick (b) Meicher (d) An aldopentose and orthophosphoric acid
(c) Emil Fischer (d) Khorana 1003. An alternation in the base sequence of nucleic acid
992. In DNA, the complementary bases are molecule is called
(a) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine (a) Replication (b) Mutation
(b) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine (c) Duplication (d) Dislocation
(c) Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil 1004. Number of chiral carbons in   D  () -glucose is
(d) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine (a) Three (b) Four
(c) Thiamine (d) Pyridoxine (c) Five (d) Six
993. DNA contains the sugar 1005. The helical structure of protein is stabilized by
(a) Deoxyribose (b) Ribose (a) Ether bonds (b) Peptide bonds
(c) D-Fructose (d) D-glucose (c) Dipeptide bonds (d) Hydrogen bonds
994. The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is 1006. Starting with three different amino acid molecules, how
(a) Guanine (b) Adenine many different tripeptide molecules are formed
(c) Uracil (d) Thymine (a) 12 (b) 9
995. Mutation of DNA occurs due to changes in the sequence (c) 8 (d) 6
of one of the following 1007. When glucose reacts with bromine water, the main
(a) Bases (b) Ribose units product is
(c) Phosphate units (d) Sugar units (a) Acetic acid (b) Saccharic acid
996. Purine derivative among the following bases is (c) Glyceraldyhyde (d) Gluconic acid
(a) Guanine (b) Cytosine 1008. A zwitter ion is
(c) Thymine (d) Uracil (a) A positively charged ion without a metal atom in it
997. RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains (b) A negatively charged ion without metal atom in it
(a) Ribose sugar and thymine (c) An ion with positive and negative charges at
(b) Ribose sugar and uracil different points on it
(c) Deoxyribose sugar and thymine (d) A heavy ion with a small charge on it
(d) Deoxyribose sugar and uracil 1009. No of chiral carbons in   D-glucose is–
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6

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1010. Which of the following pair, will give positive test with
Tollen's reagent :
(a) Glucose, sucrose (b)Sucrose, fructose
(c) Glucose, fructose (d)Acetophenone, hexanal
1011. D-Glucopyranose exist in two forms;   &   .
These two forms are:
(a) Anomers (b) Epimers
(c) Enantiomers (d) Diastereoisomers
1012. Denaturation of proteins like solvelification of egg–
(a) Changes the sequence of amino acids in protein
molecule
(b) Changes conformation of the protein molecule.
(c) Decreases the entropy
(d) Both B & C
1013. The total number of optical isomers of fructose is–
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 32
1014. No of chiral carbons in   glucose is–
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6

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ASSERTION &
1025. Assertion: o-Nitrophenol is less soluble in water than
the m- and p-isomers.
Reason: m- and p- Nitrophenols exist as associated

REASON BASED
molecules.
1026. Assertion : Ethanol is a weaker acid than phenol.
Reason: Sodium ethoxide may be prepared by the

QUESTIONS reaction of ethanol with aqueous NaOH.

1027. Assertion: Phenol forms 2, 4, 6 – tribromophenol on
treatment with Br2 in carbon disulphide at 273K.

ALL
Reason: Bromine polarises in carbon disulphide.
1028. Assertion: Phenols give o- and p-nitrophenol on
nitration with conc. HNO3 and H2SO4 mixture.

CHAPTERS
Reason: —OH group in phenol is o–, p– directing
1029. Assertion :Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.
Reason :It has glycosidic linkage.
1030. Assertion :Sucrose is a disaccharide.
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct Reason :Sucrose is dextro rotatory.
option out of the options given below : 1031. Assertion :Fructose reduces Fehling‘s solution and
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason Tollen‘s reagent.
is the correct explanation of the assertion. Reason : Fructose does not contain any aldehyde group.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is 1032. Assertion :The specific rotation of a freshly prepared
not the correct explanation of the assertion. solution of   glucose decreases from + 112° to 52.7°
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. while that of  glucose increase from + 19° to 52.7°.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true. Reason : The change in specific rotation of an
optically active compound with time to an equilibrium
1015. Assertion: Glycine is amphoteric in nature. value is called mutarotation.
Reason : Glycine contains both acid and basic groups. 1033. Assertion :   amino acids exist as dipolar ions or
1016. Assertion :Hydrolysis of sucrose is known as inversion zwitter ions.
of cane sugar. Reason :   amino acids are the building blocks
Reason :Sucrose is a disaccharide. of proteins.
1017. Assertion: Proteins on hydrolysis produce amino acids. 1034. Assertion : Addition reaction of water to but-1-ene in
Reason: Amino acids contain  NH 2 and COOH groups. acidic medium yields butan-1-ol
1018. Assertion :Sucrose undergo mutarotation. Reason: Addition of water in acidic medium proceeds
Reason : Sucrose is a disaccharide. through the formation of primary carbocation.
1019. Assertion: DNA molecules and RNA molecules are found 1035. Assertion: p-nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol.
in the nucleus of a cell. Reason: Nitro group helps in the stabilisation of the
Reason:On heating the enzyme do not lose their phenoxide ion by dispersal of negative charge due to
specific activity. resonance.
1020. Assertion:All Amino acids exist as Zwitter ions. 1036. Assertion : Bond angle in ethers is slightly less than the
Reason: Amino acids have both  NH 2 and COOH group. tetrahedral angle.
1021. Assertion: Glycosides are hydrolyzed in acidic conditions. Reason : There is a repulsion between the two bulky
Reason:Glycosides are acetals. (—R) groups.
1022. Assertion :Haemoglobin is an oxygen carrier. 1037. Assertion: Sequence of bases in DNA is TGAACCCTT
and sequence of bases in m-RNA is CATTAAACC.
Reason :Oxygen binds as O2 to Fe of haemoglobin.
Reason : In DNA nitrogenous bases have hydrogen bonds.
1023. Assertion : Boiling points of alcohols and ethers are
1038. Assertion :Solubilities of protein is minimum at
high.
the isoelectric point.
Reason : They can form intermolecular hydrogen-
Reason : At isoelectric point, protein molecule
bonding
behaves as a zwitter ion.
1024. Assertion : Like bromination of benzene, bromination of
phenol is also carried out in the presence of Lewis acid.
Reason : Lewis acid polarises the bromine molecule.

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1039. Assertion :Amino acids are soluble in benzene and ether. 1053. Assertion : H2SO4 has high viscosity and high boiling point.
Reason : Amino acids exist as zwitter ions. Reason : H2SO4 shows strong H bonding
1040. Assertion :A solution of sucrose in water is
1054. Assertion : The bond angles of hydrides of N-family
dextrorotatory but on hydrolysis in presence of little
decreases down the group.
hydrochloric acid, It becomes laevorotatory.
Reason : The electronegativity of central atom decreases
Reason :Sucrose on hydrolysis gives unequal
down the group which shows a decrease in lone electron
amounts of glucose and fructose as.
pair and bond pair electron repulsion.
1041. Assertion : Proteins are made up of -amino acids.
1055. Assertion : The boiling point of hydrides of N-family
Reason : During denaturation, secondary and tertiary
shows the order :
structures of proteins are destroyed.
NH3 > BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3
1042. Assertion : The pyrimidine base thymine is present in RNA.
Reason : RNA controls the synthesis of proteins. Reason : The abnormality in b. pt of NH3 in hydrides of
1043. Assertion : Galactose is the C4-epimer of glucose. N-family is due to H-bonding.
Reason : Glucose and galactose differ in configuration 1056. Assertion : The basic nature of trihalides of nitrogen
at C4. decreases from NF3 to NI3.
1044. Assertion : Human body can synthesize vitamins. Reason : The halogens develop + ve charge on N atom
Reason : Vitamins are required in small amounts for and thus more +ve charge is developed in NF3 and
life growth and health of humanbeings. therefore tendency to lose electron pair decreases.
1045. Assertion : Number of peroxide bonds in permono and 1057. Assertion : PCl5 molecules has two bond angles of Cl–
perdisulphuric acid are 1 and 2 respectively. P–Cl as 90º and 120º as well as two P–Cl bonds are
Reason : Both are dibasic and permono sulphuric acid weaker then rest three P–Cl bonds.
does not exist in free state but its salts are reducing agent
Reason : P in PCl5 shows sp3 d hybridisation leading to
whereas perdisulphuric acid salts are oxidant–
1046. Assertion : Element of oxygen are not capable of trigonal bi-pyramid geometry. Also two P–Cl bonds at
forming p  p onds with other elements of smaller axial positions give less stable bonds.
1058. Assertion : NH3 and PH3 differ from each other in their
size like C, N, etc.
Reason : Only oxygen possess this property to show reaction with CuSO4 or AgNO3.
multiple bonding. Reason : PH3 acts as oxidising agent in these reaction
1047. Assertion : The thermal stability of hydrides of oxygen but NH3 not.
family decreases with molecular wt.
1059. Assertion : Neopentyl alcohol on treatment with conc.
Reason : The decomposition of M–H bond requires
HCl gives neopentyl chloride.
lesser energy in O–H than S–H.
Reason : Less stable 1° and 2° carbocations usually
1048. Assertion : SN2 reaction proceeds with inversion of
rearrange to more stable 2° or 3° carbocations.
configuration.
1060. Assertion : Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic
Reason : SN2 reaction occurs in one step
substitution with ease.
1049. Assertion : Treatment of chloroethane with saturated
Reason : Carbon-halogen bond in aryl halides has partial
solution of AgCN give ethyl isocyanide as major
double bond character.
product.
1061. Assertion : Optically active 2-iodobutane on treatment
Reason : Cyanide ion (CN–) is an ambident nucleophile.
with NaI in acetone undergoes racemization.
1050. Assertion : F2O is more powerful oxidising agent than
Reason : Repeated Walden inversions on the reactant
O3 and its product eventually gives a racemic mixture.
Reason : E ºRP of F2O > E ºRP of O3 1062. Assertion : SN2 reaction of an optically active alkyl halide
with an aqueous solution of KOH always gives an
1051. Assertion : Bleaching action of SO2 is temporary and
alcohol with opposite sign of rotation.
by reduction
Reason : SN2 reactions always proceed with inversion of
Reason : The colour of material is regained due
configuration.
oxidation by air–
1063. Assertion : The dipole moment of CH3F is greater than
1052. Assertion : Cyclic trimer of SO3 possesses have six
that of CH3Cl
membered heterocyclic chains made of S and O atoms. Reason : C – F bond is more polar than
Reason : Cyclic trimer of SO3 is referred as SO3 C–Cl bond.

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1064. Assertion : Solubility on n-alcohols in water decreases 1076. Assertion : With Br2–H2O, phenol gives
with increase in molecular weight. 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol but with Br2–CS2 it gives
Reason : The relative proportion of the hydrocarbon part 4-bromophenol is the major product.
in alcohols increases with increasing molecular weight Reason : In water ionization of phenol is enhanced but
which permits enhanced hydrogen bond with water. in CS2, it is greatly suppressed.
1065. Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene 1077. Assertion: HI cannot be prepared by the reaction of KI
towards electrophilic substitution with concentrated H2SO4.
Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate Reason : HI has lowest H—X bond strength among
carbocation is more resonance stabilized. halogen acids.
CH3 1078. Assertion: Both rhombic and monollinic sulphur exist
Assertion : CH2–O–CH as S8 but oxygen exist as O2.
1066. CH3
Reason: Oxygen forms p  p multiple bond due to
CH3
 small size and small bond length but p  p bonding
HI
CH2OH + I–CH
CH3
is not possible is sulphur.
Reason : Reaction occurs through SN1 mechanism.
1079. Assertion: The boiling point of alcohol is higher than
1067. Assertion : Phosphorus chlorides (tri and penta) are
those of hydrocarbons of comparable moleculal mass.
preferred over thionyl chloride for the preparation of
Reason: Alcohol show intramolecular hydrogen
alkyl chlorides from alcohols.
banding.
Reason: Phosphorus chlorides give pure alkyl halides.
1080. Assertion: o- and p-nitrophenols can be separated by
1068. Assertion: The boiling points of alkyl halides decrease
steam distillation.
in the order : RI > RBr > RCl > RF
Reason: o-isomeris steamvolatile due to chelation and p-
Reason: The boiling points of alkyl chlorides, bromides
isomer is not steam volatile due to intermolecular
and iodides are considerably higher than that of the
hydrogen bonding
hydrocarbon of comparable molecular mass.
1081. Assertion : Nitration of chlorobenzene leads to the
1069. Assertion :KCN reacts with methyl chloride to give
formation of m-nitrochlorobenzene
methyl isocyanide:
Reason: —NO2 group is a m-directing group.
Reason: CN – is an ambident nucleophile.
1070. Assertion : tert-Butyl bromide undergoes Wurtz
reaction to give 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethylbutane.
Reason: In Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides react with
sodium in dry ether to give hydrocarbon containing
double the number of carbon atoms present in the halide.
1071. Assertion : Presence of a nitro group at ortho or para
position increases the reactivity of haloarenes towards
nucleophilic substitution.
Reason: Nitro group, being an electron withdrawing
group decreases the electron density over the benzene
ring.
1072. Assertion : In monohaloarenes, further electrophilic
substitution occurs at ortho and para positions.
Reason: Halogen atom is a ring deactivator.
1073. Assertion :Aryl iodides can be prepared by reaction of
arenes with iodine in the presence of an oxidising agent.
Reason: Oxidising agent oxidises I2 into HI.
1074. Assertion :It is difficult to replace chlorine by –OH in
chlorobenzene in comparison to that in chloroethane.
Reason: Chlorine-carbon (C—Cl) bond in
chlorobenzene has a partial double bond character due to
resonance.
1075. Assertion : Hydrolysis of (–)-2-bromooctane proceeds
with inversion of configuration.
Reason: This reaction proceeds through the formation of
a carbocation.
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TRUE FALSE
1101. NO is paramagnetic in gaseous state but diamagnetic in
liquid or solid state.
1102. The geometry of PBr5 in solid state is tetrahedral –

–TYPE
1103. When Cl2 is passed through boiling toluene in presence
of sunlight, benzotrichloride is obtained as the final
product.

QUESTIONS
1104. Chlorobenzene and benzyl chloride can be distinguished
by boiling with aqueous KOH followed by acidification
with dil. HNO3 and subsequent treatment with AgNO3

ALL
solution.
1105. m-Chlorobromobenzene is an isomer of
m-bromochlorobenzene.
1106. Iodide ion is a better nucleophile than bromide ion (aq.

CHAPTERS
1082. DNA contains the pyrimidine base uracil.
solutions).
1107. The reaction of vinyl chloride with hydrogen iodide to
give 1-chloro-1- iodoethane as a major product
1108. Lower alcohols are more soluble in water than higher
1083. Both glucose and fructose are reducing sugars. alcohols.
1084. Amino acids which cannot be synthesized by human 1109. Glycerin is more viscous than ethylene glycol.
body are called essential amino acids.
1085. At isoelectric point, an   amino acid has the
maximum solubility.
1086. Denaturation involves changes in the primary structure
of proteins.
1087. Triclinic unit cell has the least symmetry.
1088. Entropy of crystal containing defect is more than the
ideal crystal.
1089. Among the three types of arrangement, hcp, ccp and bcc,
the most efficient packing arrangement is bcc.
1090. In the antifluorite structure, all the tetrahedral voids are
occupied by anions.
1091. Reverse osmosis is generally used to make saline water
fit for domestic use.
1092. On diluting the solution, its normality and molarity
changes but molality remains constant.
1093. The real solutions can exhibit ideal behaviour at high
concentrations.
1094. The mass of water present in 200 g of 10% aqueous
solution of caustic soda is 90 g.
1095. The bond angle of Cl2O is lesser than ClO2 but bond
length of Cl–O is longer in Cl2O.
1096. Cl2O6 is diamagnetic both in solid and fused state.
1097. SF6 not hydrolysed while SF4 is hydrolysed
1098. S8 ring is non-planar –
1099. The H bond present in the aqueous solution of NH3 is–
H
|
H — N····· H·····OH
|
H
1100. (CF3)3N is weaker base than (CH3)3N

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FILL IN THE
1129. With aqueous KOH, alkyl halides undergo......... reaction
but with hot alcoholic KOH, they undergo..............
reaction.

THE BLANKS
1130. With potassium cyanide, alkyl halides give ......... while
with silver cyanide ........... are the major products.
1131. Formation of phenol from chlorobenzene is an example

– TYPE
of ............. aromatic substitution and occurs through
................ intermediate.
1132. Lower alcohols are highly soluble in water due to

QUESTIONS
................
1133. 1º alcohol react …………. with HCl/ZnCl2 compare to
3º alcohol.
1134. A germinal diol has two hydroxyl groups on........

ALL 1135. Anisole react with 1 mole of HI to give……

1136. Absolute alcohol can be prepared from rectified spirit by
............. distillation.

CHAPTERS
1137. The reaction of phenol with a diazonium salt in weakly
alkaline medium is called ..............
1138. One mole of glycerol when heated with two moles of
1110. The property which depends on number of particles of HIO4 gives two moles of ........... and one mole of
solute is called ............. .............
1111. ............. differ in configuration at the glycosidic carbon 1139. A mixture of phenol and phthalic anhydride when heated
while stereoisomers which differ in configuration at any with conc. H2SO4 forms ............which is used as
other chiral centre are called ........... an..............in acid-base titrations.
1112. Cellulose is a linear polymer of ........
1113. The base ............ is found only in the nucleotides of
RNA.
1114. Most of the amino acids exist as ..........
1115. The relationship between nucleotide triplets and the  
amino acids is called the ........
1116. In hcp arrangement of spheres, the coordination number
is ........
1117. In calcium fluoride crystal the tetrahedral holes are
occupied by ......... ions.
1118. If the radius ratio r+/r– is 0.325, the cation would most
probably be present in a/an ...... void.
1119. In zinc blende structure, ....... have ccp arrangement
whereas .......... are present in .......... voids.
1120. A solution of CHCl3 and acetone shows ...... deviation.

1121. SF6 + SO3 

 ........
1122. PCl5 + H2SO4 
 ....... + ....... + H2O
1123. SF4 + H2O 
 ...... + .......
1124. Cu + conc. H2SO4 
 ..... + ..... + H2O
1125. [Ag(NH3)2]Cl + HNO3(dil) 
 .....(white ppt.)
1126. NH3 (excess) + Cl2 
 ....... + ........
1127. I2 + HNO3 
 ....... + ....... + H2O
1128. Alkyl halides are insoluble in water because they do no
form .............. with water

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[60]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]

MATCH THE
1144. Column I Column II
(A) SbF3 (i) T-Shaped
(B) SF4 (ii) Square pyramidal

COLUMNS –
(C) BrF5 (iii) Tetrahedral
(D) IF3 (iv) See Saw

TYPE
1145. Column I Column II
(A) Increasing order of (i) HF < HCl < HBr
Dipole moment of < HI

QUESTIONS
halogen acids
(B) Increasing order (ii) HI < HBr < HCl
of reducing order < HF
of halogen acids
(C) Increasing order of (iii) HI < HCl < HBr

ALL thermal stability of

halogen acids
(D) Increasing order of
< HF

(iv) HF < HBr < HI

CHAPTERS
bond length of halogen < HCl
acids
1146. Column I Column II
(A) KI solution + (i) HOBr
Match the items of column I to those of column II : chlorine water
1140. Column-I Column-II (B) KClO3 solution + (ii) not possible
(A) cellulose (p) natural polymer Iodine gas
(B) nylon-6, 6 (q) synthetic polymer (C) The formation ClBr (iii) I2
(C) protein (r) amide linkage
(D) Hydrolysis of BrF (iv) Cl2
(D) sucrose (s) glycoside Linkage
1141. Column I Column II gives
(a) Glucose (i) Rice 1147. Column I Column II
(b) diabetes (ii) Insulin (A) Paramagnetic (i) N2O3
(c) Sugar (iii) Energy (B) Dark blue liquid (ii) N2O
(d) Protein (iv) Amino acids in liquid or solid
(e) Starch (v) Mono Saccharide state
(f) Invert sugar (vi) Glucose and Fructose (C) Unstable gas due to (iii) NO
1142. Column I Column II auto decomposition.
(a) Mutarotation (i) Silvering of mirror (D) Brown gas (iv) N2O5
(b) Glucose (ii) Cane sugar
(E) Neutral gas and (v) NO2
(c) Nitrogen (iii) Change in optical rotn
(d) Starch (iv) Proteins unreactive
(e) Sucrose (v) Most abundant 1148. Column I Column II
in nature (A) Trivalent phosphorus (i) Ca5(PO4)F
(f) Fructose (vi) Sorbitol and (B) Fluoraphatile (ii)Black phosphorus
Manitol (C) Thermodynamically (iii) Red phosphorus
1143. Column I Column II stable allotrope of
(A) Inter halogen (i) HClO < HClO2 < phosphorus
compound HClO3 < HClO4 (D) Fuming halides of (iv) PF5
phosphorus
(B) ClO2 (ii) Paramagnetic
(E) Trigonal bipyramidal (v) PCl5
(C) Increasing order of (iii) diamagnetic
thermal stability geometry both in
(D) Increasing order of (iv) HClO4 <HClO3 < gaseous and solid
state
Oxidising power HClO2 < HOCl

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[61]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]
 LUCKNOW PUBLIC QUESTION BANK CONTENT DEVELOPED BY:
ANKUR SRIVASTAVA
SCHOOL FOR TERM-I –CLASS XII [ACADEMIC WING]
1149. Column I Column II
(A) Phenol + CHCl3 (i) Saponification
+ NaOH

(B) C2H5Br   (ii) Ether
+ alc. KOH
(C) Williamson (iii) Elimination
synthesis reaction
(D) CH3COOC2H5 (iv) Riemer Tiemann
+ NaOH reaction
1150.

(e
)

1151.

QUESTION BANK LUCKNOW PUBLIC SCHOOL

[62]
IN CHEMISTRY –XII [term-i] [a c.p. singh foundation]
[A C.P. SINGH FOUNDATION]