MATHEMATICS

1. A pair of pants costs $24. The cost was reduced by 8%. What is the new cost of the pants?
a. $25.92 b. $21.06 c. $22.08 d. $16.00
2. Michael scored 260 points during his junior year on the school basketball team. He scored
20% more points during his senior year. How many points did he score during his senior year?
a. 208 b. 52 c. 312 d. 345
3. Brian is a real estate agent. He makes a 2.5% commission on each sale. During the month
of June he sold three houses. The houses sold for $153,000, $299,000, and $121,000. What
was Brian’s total commission on these three sales?
a. $143,250 b. $11,460 c. $3,825 d. $14,325
4. Cory purchased a frying pan that was on sale for 30% off. She saved $3.75 with the sale.
What was the original price of the frying pan?
a. $10.90 b. $9.25 c. $12.50 d. $11.25
5. Peter purchased 14 new baseball cards for his collection. This increased the size of his
collection by 35%. How many baseball cards does Peter now have?
a. 5 b. 54 c. 40 d. 34
6. Joey has 30 pages to read for history class tonight. He decided that he would take a break
when he finished reading 70% of the pages assigned. How many pages must he read before he
takes a break?
a. 7 b. 21 c. 9 d. 18
7. Julie had $500. She spent 20% of it on clothes and then 25% of the remaining money on
CDs. How much money did Julie spend?
a. $225 b. $300 c. $200 d. $250
8. Nick paid $68.25 for a coat, including sales tax of 5%. What was the original price of the
coat before tax?
a. $63.25 b. $65.25 c. $65.00 d. $64.84
9. The Dow Jones Industrial Average fell 2% today. The Dow began the day at 8,800. What
was the Dow at the end of the day after the 2% drop?
a. 8,600 b. 8,976 c. 8,624 d. 8,720
10. The population of Hamden was 350,000 in 1990. By 2000, the population had decreased
to 329,000. What percent of decrease is this?
a. 16% b. 7.5% c. 6% d. 6.4%
11. Connecticut state sales tax is 6%. Lucy purchases a picture frame that costs $10.50. What is
the Connecticut sales tax on this item?
a. $0.60 b. $6.30 c. $0.63 d. $1.05
12. Wendy brought $16 to the mall. She spent $6 on lunch. What percent of her money did
she spend on lunch?
a. 60% b. 37.5% c. 26% d. 62.5%
13. Donald sold $5,250 worth of new insurance policies last month. If he receives a
commission of 7% on new policies, how much did Donald earn in commissions last month?
a. $4,882.50 b. $367.50 c. $3,675.00 d. $263.00
14. Kara borrowed $3,650 for one year at an annual interest rate of 16%. How much did Kara
pay in interest?
a. $1,168.00 b. $584.00 c. $4,234.00 d. $168.00
15. Rebecca is 12.5% taller than Debbie. Debbie is 64 inches tall. How tall is Rebecca?
a. 42 inches b. 8 inches c. 56 inches d. 72 inches
16. Kyra receives a 5% commission on every car she sells. She received a $1,325
commission on the last car she sold. What was the cost of the car?
a. $26,500.00 b. $66.25 c. $27,825.00 d. $16,250.00
17. A tent originally sold for $260 and has been marked down to $208. What is the percent of
discount?
a.20% b. 25% c. 52% d. 18%
18. The football boosters club had 80 T-shirts made to sell at football games. By mid-
October, they had only 12 left. What percent of the shirts had been sold?
a.85% b.15% c.60% d.40%
19. A printer that sells for $190 is on sale for 20% off. What is the sale price of the printer?
a. $152 b. $170 c. $140 d. $136
20. What is 19% of 26?
a. 21.06 b. 4.94 c. 19 d. 5
21. There are 81 women teachers at Russell High. If 45% of the teachers in the school are
women, how many teachers are there at Russell High?
a. 180 b. 36 c. 165 d. 205
22. Kim is a medical supplies salesperson. Each month she receives a 5% commission on all her
sales of medical supplies up to $20,000 and 8.5% on her total sales over $20,000. Her total
commission for May was $3,975. What were her sales for the month of May?
a. $79,500 b. $64,250 c. $46,764 d. $55,000
23. 64% of the students in the school play are boys. If there are 75 students in the play, how
many are boys?
a. 64 b. 45 c. 27 d. 48
24. Christie purchased a scarf marked $15.50 and gloves marked $5.50. Both items were on sale
for 20% off the marked price. Christie paid 5% sales tax on her purchase. How much did she
spend?
a. $25.20 b. $16.80 c. $26.46 d. $17.64
25. Last year, a math textbook cost $54. This year the cost is 107% of what it was last year. What
is this year’s cost?
a. $59.78 b. $57.78 c. $61.00 d. $50.22
26. Larry earned $32,000 per year. Then he received a 3 ¼ % raise. What is Larry’s salary
after the raise?
a. $33,040 b. $35,000 c. $32,140 d. $32,960
27. Bill spent 50% of his savings on school supplies, then he spent 50% of what was left on
lunch. If he had $6 left after lunch, how much did he have in savings at the beginning?
a. $24 b. $12 c. $18 d. $30
28. A coat that costs $72 is marked up 22%. What is the new price of the coat?
a. $78.22 b. $96.14 c. $56.16 d. $87.84
29. Kristen earns $550 each week after taxes. She deposits 10% of her income in a savings
account and 7% in a retirement fund. How much does Kristen have left after the money is taken
out for her savings account and retirement fund?
a. $505.25 b. $435.50 c. $533.00 d. $456.50
30. Coastal Cable had 1,440,000 customers in January of 2002. During the first half of 2002
the company launched a huge advertising campaign. By the end of 2002 they had 1,800,000
customers. What is the percent of increase?
a.36% b.21% c.20% d.25%
31. The price of heating oil rose from $1.10 per gallon to $1.43 per gallon. What is the
percent of increase?
a.30% b. 33% c. 23% d. 27%
32. 450 girls were surveyed about their favorite sport, 24% said that basketball is their favorite
sport, 13% said that ice hockey is their favorite sport, and 41% said that softball is their favorite
sport. The remaining girls said that field hockey is their favorite sport. What percent of the girls
surveyed said that field hockey is their favorite sport?
a.37% b. 22% c.78% d.35%
33. 25% of babies born at Yale New Haven Hospital weigh less than 6 pounds and 78%
weigh less than 8.5 pounds. What percent of the babies born at Yale New Haven Hospital
weigh between 6 and 8.5 pounds?
a.22% b.24% c.53% d.2.5%
34. An $80.00 coat is marked down 20%. It does not sell, so the shop owner marks it down
an additional 15%. What is the new price of the coat?
a. $64.00 b. $68.60 c. $52.00 d. $54.40
3
35. of the soda purchased at the football game was cola. What percentage of the soda
5
purchased was cola?
a.60% b.40% c.30% d.70%
36. In a recent survey of 700 people, 15% said that red was their favorite color. How many
people said that red was their favorite color?
a. 15 b. 75 c. 125 d. 105
37. In Kimmi’s fourth grade class, 8 out of the 20 students walk to school. What percent of the
students in her class walk to school?
a.40% b.50% c.45% d.35%
38. Lindsay purchased a pocketbook for $45 and a pair of shoes for $55. The sales tax on the
items was 6%. How much sales tax did she pay?
 a. $2.70 b. $3.30 c. $6.00 d. $6.60
39. Wendy bought a book and the sales tax on the book was $2.12. If the sales tax is 8%,
what was the price of the book?
a. $26.50 b. $16.96 c. $24.76 d. $265.00
40. Mr. Pelicas took his family out to dinner. The bill was $65.00. He would like to leave a
20% tip. How much should he leave?
a. $20 b. $3.25 c. $13 d. $16.25
41. Assume that the number of hours Katie spent practicing soccer is represented by x.
Michael practiced 4 hours more than 2 times the number of hours that Katie practiced. How
long did Michael practice?
a. 2x + 4 b. 2x – 4 c. 2x + 8 d. 4x + 4
42. Patrick gets paid three dollars less than four times what Kevin gets paid. If the number of
dollars that Kevin gets paid is represented by x, what does Patrick get paid?
a. 3−¿4x b. 3x −¿ 4 c. 4x −¿ 3 d. 4 −¿ 3x
43. The sum of three times a greater integer and 5 times a lesser integer is 9. Three less than the
greater equals the lesser. What is the value of the lesser integer?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
44. The perimeter of a rectangle is 104 inches. The width is 6 inches less than 3 times the
length. Find the width of the rectangle.
a. 13.5 inches b. 37.5 inches c. 14.5 inches d. 15 inches
45. The perimeter of a parallelogram is 50 cm. The length of the parallelogram is 5 cm more
than the width. Find the length of the parallelogram.
a. 15 cm b. 11 cm c. 5 cm d. 10 cm
46. Jackie invested money in two different accounts, one of which earned 12% interest per year
and another that earned 15% interest per year. The amount invested at 15% was 100 more than
twice the amount at 12%. How much was invested at 12% if the total annual interest earned
was $855?
a. $4,100 b. $2,100 c. $2,000 d. $4,000
47. If 3x2 is multiplied by the quantity 2x3y raised to the fourth power, what would this
expression simplify to?
a. 48x14y4 b. 1,296x16y4 c. 6x9y4 d. 6x14y4
48. Sara’s bedroom is in the shape of a rectangle. The dimensions are 2x and 4x + 5. What is
the area of Sara’s bedroom?
a. 18x b. 18x2 c. 8x2 + 5x d. 8x2 + 10x
49. Express the product of −¿9p3r and the quantity 2p−¿3r in simplified form.
a. 11p4r + 12p3r2 b. 18p4r + 27p3r2 c. 18p4r  3r d. 18p3r + 27p3r2
50. A number, x, increased by 3 is multiplied by the same number, x, increased by 4. What is the
product of the two numbers in terms of x?
a. x2 + 7 b. x2 + 12 c. x2 + 7x + 12 d. x2 + x + 7
51. The length of Kara’s rectangular patio can be expressed as 2x  1 and the width can be expressed
as x + 6. In terms of x, what is the area of her patio?
a. 2x2 + 13x  6 b. 2x2  6 c. 2x2  5x  6 d. 2x2 + 11x 6

52. A car travels at a rate of (4x2 2). What is the distance this car will travel in (3x 8) hours?
a. 12x3  32x2  6x + 16 b. 12x2  32x2 6x + 16
c. 12x3 + 32x2  6x  16 d. 12x3  32x2  5x + 16
53. The area of the base of a prism can be expressed as x2 + 4x + 1 and the height of the prism can be
expressed as x3. What is the volume of this prism in terms of x?
a. x3 + x2  13x  3 b. x3 + 7x2  13x  3
c. x3  x2  11x  3 d. x3 + x2  11x  3
54. The dimensions of a rectangular prism can be expressed as x + 1, x  2, and x + 4. In
terms of x, what is the volume of the prism?
a. x3 + 3x2 + 6x  8 b. x3 + 3x2  6x  8
c. x3 + 5x2  2x + 8 d. x3  5x2  2x  8

55. The area of Mr. Smith’s rectangular classroom is x2  25. Which of the following
binomials could represent the length and the width of the room?
a. (x + 5)(x + 5) b. (x  5)(x  5)
c. (x + 5)(x  5) d. x(x  25)
56. The area of a parallelogram can be expressed as the binomial 2x2 10x. Which of the
following could be the length of the base and the height of the parallelogram?
a. 2x(x2  5x) b. 2x (x  5) c. (2x  1)(x  10) d. (2x  5)(x + 2)
57. A farmer’s rectangular field has an area that can be expressed as the trinomial x2 + 2x + 1.
In terms of x, what are the dimensions of the field?
a. (x + 1)(x + 2) b. (x  1)(x  2) c. (x  1)(x + 2) d. (x + 1)(x + 1)
58. Harold is tiling a rectangular kitchen floor with an area that is expressed as x2 + 6x + 5. What
could the dimensions of the floor be in terms of x?
a. (x + 1)(x + 5) b. (x  1)(x  5) c. (x  2)(x + 3) d. (x + 2)(x + 3)

59. The area of a rectangle is represented by the trinomial: x2 + x 12. Which of the following
binomials could represent the length and width?
a. (x + 4)(x  3) b. (x  4)(x  3) c. (x  4)(x + 3) d. (x  6)(x + 2)

60. Katie’s school has a rectangular courtyard whose area can be expressed as 3x2 7x + 2.
Which of the following could be the dimensions of the courtyard in terms of x?
a. (3x  1)(x + 2) b. (3x  1)(x  2) c. (3x  2)(x  1) d. (3x + 2)(x + 1)

61. Charlie wants to know the area of his property, which measures 120 ft by 150 ft. Which
formula will he use?
a. A = s2 b. A = r2 c. A = bh d. A = lw
62. Dawn wants to compare the volume of a basketball with the volume of a tennis ball. Which formula
will she use?
4 3 1
a. V = r2h b. V = r c. V = r2h d. V = s3
3 3
63. How many degrees does a minute hand move in 20 minutes?
a. 20° b. 120° c. 60° d. 100°
64. Two planes leave the airport at the same time. Minutes later, plane A is 70 miles due north of
the airport and plane B is 168 miles due east of the airport. How far apart are the two airplanes?
a. 182 miles b. 119 miles c. 163.8 miles d. 238 miles

65. If the area of a small pizza is 78.5 in2, what size pizza box would best fit the small
pizza? (Note: Pizza boxes are measured according to the length of one side.)
a. 12 in b. 11 in c. 9 in d. 10 in
66. Stuckeyburg is a small town in rural America. Use the map to approximate the area of the
town.
9 miles
a. 40 miles2
b. 104 miles2
c. 93.5 miles2
d. 92 miles2
10 miles 13 miles

8 miles

67. A rectangular field is to be fenced in completely. The width is 22 yd and the total area is 990 yd2.
What is the length of the field?
a. 968 yd b. 45 yd c. 31 yd d. 473 yd
68. A circular print is being matted in a square frame. If the frame is 18 in by 18 in, and the
radius of the print is 7 in, what is the area of the matting? ( = 3.14)

a. 477.86 in2 b. 170.14 in2 c. 280.04 in2 d. 288 in2

69. Ribbon is wrapped around a rectangular box that is 10 in by 8 in by 4 in. Using the
illustration provided, determine how much ribbon is needed to wrap the box. Assume the
amount of ribbon does not include a knot or bow.
a. 52 in
b. 44 in
c. 22 in
d. 320 in
8 in
4 in

10 in
70. Pat is making a Christmas tree skirt. She needs to know how much fabric to buy. Using
the illustration provided, determine the area of the skirt to the nearest foot.

a. 37.7 ft2
b. 27 ft2 3 ft
c. 75 ft2
d. 38 ft2 6 in

71. Mark intends to tile a kitchen floor, which is 9 ft by 11 ft. How many 6-inch tiles are needed
to tile the floor?
a. 60 b. 99 c. 396 d. 449
72. A framed print measures 36 in by 22 in. If the print is enclosed by a 2-inch matting, what
is the length of the diagonal of the print? Round to the nearest tenth. See illustration.
2 in
a. 36.7 in
b. 39.4 in
2 in 22 in c. 26.5 in
d. 50 in

30 in
73. A 20-foot light post casts a shadow 25 feet long. At the same time, a building nearby casts a
shadow 50 feet long. How tall is the building?
a. 40 ft b. 62.5 ft c. 10 ft d. 95 ft
74. Barbara is wrapping a wedding gift that is contained within a rectangular box 20 in by
18 in by 4 in. How much wrapping paper will she need?
a.
512 in2 b. 1,440 in2 c. 1,024 in2 d. 92 in2

75. What is the product of (x – 3)(x + 7)?

a. x2 – 21 b. x2 – 3x – 21 c. x2 + 4x – 21 d. x2 + 7x – 21
76. What is the product of (x – 6)(x – 6)?
a. x2 + 36 b. x2 – 36 c. x2 – 12x – 36 d. x2 – 12x + 36
77. What is the product of (x – 1)(x + 1)?
a. x2 – 1 b. x2 + 1 c. x2 – x – 1 d. x2 – x + 1
78. What is the value of (x + c)2?
a. x2 + c2 b. x2 + cx + c2 c. x2 + c2x2 + c2 d. x2+ 2cx + c2
79. What is the product of (2x + 6)(3x – 9)?
a. 5 x2 – 54 b. 6 x2 – 54 c. 6 x2 + 18x – 15 d. 6 x2– 18x – 15
80. What are the factors of x2 – x – 6?
a. (x – 3)(x – 2) b. (x – 3)(x + 2) c. (x + 3)(x – 2) d. (x – 6)(x + 1)
81. What is one factor of x2 – 4?
a. x2 b. –4 c. (x – 1) d. (x + 2)
82. What are the factors of x2 – 11x + 28?
a. (x – 4)(x – 7) b. (x – 4)(x + 7) c. (x + 14)(x – 2) d. (x – 14)(x + 2)
83. What are the roots of x2 – 18x + 32 = 0?
a. –4 and –8 b. –4 and 8 c. –2 and –16 d. 2 and –16
84. What are the roots of x2 + 8x – 48 = 0?
a. –6 and –8 b. –6 and 8 c. 4 and –12 d. –4 and 12

85. The fraction (x + 9)

is equivalent to _____.
2
x - 81

1 1 ( x +9)
a. b. c. 1/(x2-81) d.
(x−9)(x2 – 6x - 16) (x−9) (x−9)
86. The fraction (x2 – x - 56) is equivalent to __________.

a. (x + 2) b. (x + 2) c. (x + 9) d. x - 4
(x - 8) (x + 8) (x - 9) x-8
(x2 – 4x – 45)
87. The fraction is equivalent to _______.
(x2 + 11x +30)

a. x + 5 b. x +5 c. x - 9 d. x - 9
x-9 x+6 x+6 x-8
2
88. . The fraction (x2 +14x + 33) is equivalent to _______.
(x + 8x - 33)

c. x - 9 x-9
a. x + 3 b. x - 3 x+5
x-3 x +3 x +6
2
89. If x – x = 12, what is one possible value of x?
a. –6 b. –2 c. 1 d. 3
90. If x2 – 3x – 30 = 10, what is one possible value of x?
a. –10 b. 3 c. 5 d. 8
x+5 6 x−6
91. If = , what is one possible value of x?
4 x +4
a. –5 b. –4 c. 3 d. 11
92. If (x – 2)(x + 6) = –16, what is the value of x?
a. –6 b. –4 c. –2 d. 6
93. If (x – 7)(x – 5) = –1, what is the value of x?
a. –6 b. –4 c. –2 d. 6
94. The square of a number is equal to two less than three times the number. What are two
possible values of the number?
a. 1, 2 b. –1, 2 c. 1, –2 d. –1, –2

95. What is one value that makes the fraction (x2 (4x - 8)
+ x - 42)
undefined?

a. -7 b. -6 c. -2 d. 21
(x2 + 8x + 7)
(x2 - 8x + 7)
96. What is one value that makes the fraction undefined?

a. -1, -7 b. 1, -7 c. -1, 7 d. 1, 7
97. What is one value that makes the fraction (x2 - 16) undefined?
(x - 16)
a. –16 b. –4 c. –1 d. 1
x2
98. What is one value that makes the fraction 2 undefined?
(9x - 11)

a. 3 b. 0 c. 1/3 d. 3

99. What values make the fraction x 2- 36 undefined?

2
(2x – 25x + 72)
a. –8, –9 b. –6, 6 c. 9/2 , 4 d. 9/2 , 8
100. What is the vertex of the parabola whose equation is y = x 2 + 4?
a. (–4,0) b. (0,–4) c. (–2,0) d. (0,4)
101. –3x(x + 6)(x – 9) =
a. –3x3 + 6x – 54 b. – x3 + 3 x2 + 24x c. –3 x3 – 3 x2 – 54 d. –3x3 + 9 x2 + 162x
102. (x2 + 5x – 7)(x + 2) =
a. x3 – 3x2 – 17x – 14 b. x2 + 5x2 – 7x + 14 c. x3 + 7 x2 + 17x – 14 d. x3 + 7 x2 + 3x – 14
103. (x – 6)(x – 3)(x – 1) =
a. x3 – 18 b. x3 – 9x – 18 c. x3 – 8 x2 + 27x – 18 d. x3 – 10 x2 + 27x – 18
104. What are the factors of 64 x3 – 16x?
a. 4(16 x3 – 16x) b. 16(x3 – x) c. 16x(4 x2) d. 16x(2x – 1)(2x + 1)
105. What are the factors of 2x3 + 8x2 – 192x?
a. 2(x – 8)(x + 12) b. 2x(x – 8)(x + 12) c. x(2x – 8)(x + 24) d. 2x(x + 16)(x – 12)
106. 101, 92, 83, 74,...
a. 9 b. 20 c. 29 d. 38
107. 6, 7 ½ , 9, 10 ½ ,...
a. 15 b. 15 ½ c. 16 d. 16 ½
108. Each term in the sequence below is seven less than the previous term. What is the value of x – y?
12, 5, x, y, –16, . . .
a. –11 b. –9 c. –2 d. 7
109. Each term in the sequence below is six more than the previous term. What is the value of x + z?
x, y, z, 7, 13, . . .
a. –16 b. –12 c. –10 d. –6
110. Each term in the sequence below is 1/3 more than the previous term. What is the value of a + b + c +
d? 2, a, b, 3, c, d, 4, . . .
a. 10 b. 11 c. 11 1 3 e. 12
111. Each term in the sequence below is –2 times the previous term. What is the seventh term of the
sequence? 3, –6, 12, –24, . . .
a. –96 b. 192 c. 384 d. 768
112. Each term in the sequence below is 2/3 times the previous term. What is the seventh term of the

16 128 64 128 64
sequence? 18, 12, 8, ,... a. b. c. d.
3 81 27 27 9
113. Each term in the sequence below is five times the previous term. What is the 20th term of the
sequence?
1 1 1
, , , 1, . . . a. 516 b. 517 c. 519 d. 520
125 25 5
114. Each term in the sequence below is –4 times the previous term. What is the value of xy?
x, y, –64, 256,...
a. –256 b. –64 c. –16 d. 16
115. Each term in the sequence below is three times the previous term. What is the product of the
100th and 101st terms of the sequence? 1, 3, 9, 27, . . .
a. 3199 b. 3200 c. 3201 d. 39,900
116. Each term in the sequence below is two less than three times the previous term. What is the next
term of the sequence? –1, –5, –17, –53,...
a. –162 b. –161 c. –159 d. –158
117. Each term in the sequence below is nine more than 1/3 the previous term. What is the value of y – x?
81, 36, x, y,...
a. –8 b. –7 c. –5 d. 7
118. Each term in the sequence below is 20 less than five times the previous term. What is the
value of x + y? x, 0, y, –120,...
a. –40 b. –28 c. –24 d. –16
119. Each term in the sequence below is two less than ½ the previous term. What term of the sequence
will be the first term to be a negative number? 256, 126, 61, 28.5,...
a. seventh b. eighth c. ninth d. tenth
120. Each term in the sequence below is 16 more than –4 times the previous term. What is the
value of x + y? x; y; –80; 336; –1,328; . . .
 a. –32 b. –16 c. 20 d. 22
121. If the measure of angle A of triangle ABC is 3x, the measure of angle B is 5x, and the measure of
angle C is 4x, what is the value of x?
a. 12° b. 15° c. 20° d. 30°
122. If the measure of angle A of triangle ABC is 5x + 10, the measure of angle B is x + 10, and
the measure of angle C is 2x, which of the following is true of triangle ABC?
a. Triangle ABC is acute and scalene.
b. Triangle ABC is acute but not scalene.
c. Triangle ABC is right but not isosceles.
d. Triangle ABC is obtuse and scalene.
123. The measure of an angle exterior to angle F of triangle DEF measures 16x + 12. If angle F
measures 8x, what is the measure of angle F?
a. 7° b. 49° c. 56° d. 102°
124. . If the measures of angles A and B of triangle ABC are each 2x + 5 and the measure of
angle C is 3x – 5, what is the measure of angle exterior to angle A?
a. 25° b. 55° c. 70° d. 110°
125. The measure of an angle exterior to angle F of triangle DEF measures 120°. Which of the
following must be true?
a. Triangle DEF is obtuse. b. Triangle DEF is acute.
c. Triangle DEF is equilateral. d. Triangle DEF is scalene.
126. The bases of a right triangle measure x – 3 and x + 4. If the hypotenuse of the triangle is 2x
– 3, what is the length of the hypotenuse?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 8 d. 13
127. If the length of a base of right triangle DEF is 8 units and the hypotenuse of triangle DEF is
85 units, what is the length of the other base?
a. 4 units b. 8 units c. 82 units d. 16 units
128. If the lengths of the bases of right triangle GHI are 9 units and 15 units respectively, what is
length of the hypotenuse of triangle GHI?
a. 6√ 2units b. 334units c. 934 units d. 18 units
129. If the longer base of triangle XYZ is three times the length of the shorter base, a, what is the
length of the hypotenuse in terms of the shorter base?
 a. a √ 2 b. a √ 3 c. a10 d. 3a
130. Which of the following triangles is a multiple of the triangle with sides measuring x, x – 5,
and x + 5, when x is greater than 0?
a. a triangle with sides measuring 1, 2, and 3 b. a triangle with sides measuring 3, 4, and 5
c. a triangle with sides measuring 1, 5, and 10 d. a triangle with sides measuring 5, 10, and 15
131. Angle T of right triangle TUV measures 45°. If base TU measures 10 units, what is the
length of the hypotenuse of triangle TUV?
a. √ 2 units b. 10√ 2 units c. 20√ 2 units d. 45√ 2 units
132.The hypotenuse of an isosceles right triangle measures x units. What is the length of a base
of the triangle?
x √2 √ x units 1
a. units b. c. x units d. x√ 2units
4 2 2
133. Angle Q of triangle PQR is a right angle, and side QR measures 4 units. If the sine of angle
P is equal to the sine of angle R, what is the length of side PR?

a.
√2 b.
√2 c. 2 √2 d. 4 √ 2
4 2
134. Given right triangle ABC with right angle B, angle A is twice the size of angle C. If the
measure of side AB is 7 units, what is the measure of side AC?
a. 7 √ 2 units b.7 √ 3 units c. √ 7 units d.14 units
135. If angle B of isosceles triangle ABC is a right angle, what is the tangent of angle A?

a. 0 b. ½ c. 1 d.
√3
3
136. Andrew constructs a polygon with four sides and no right angles. His polygon
a. could be a parallelogram, but cannot be a rectangle.
b. could be a rhombus, but cannot be a parallelogram.
c. could be a rectangle, but cannot be a square.
d. could be a parallelogram or a rectangle, but not a square.
137. Angle E of rhombus EFGH measures 3x + 5. If the measure of angle H is 4x, what is the
measure of angle F?
a. 20° b. 80° c. 100° d. 120°
138. DeDe has four identical line segments. Using them, she can form
a. a square or a rhombus, but not a rectangle. b. a rhombus, but not a parallelogram.
c. a square or a rectangle, but not a parallelogram. d. a square, but not a rhombus or a rectangle.
139. The diagonals of rectangle ABCD intersect at E. Which of the following is NOT always
true? a. angle AEB = angle DEC b. angle EDC = angle EBA
c. angle DAE = angle EDA d. angle ECD = angle ABE 5
140. Monica draws a quadrilateral whose diagonals form four right triangles inside the
quadrilateral. This quadrilateral
a. must have four congruent angles. b. must have four congruent sides.
c. must have congruent diagonals. d. must be a square. e. all of the
above
141. The length of a rectangle is four less than twice its width. If x is the width of the rectangle,
what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
a. 2x2 – 4x b. 3x – 4 c. 6x – 4 d. 6x + 4
142. The length of one side of a rhombus is x 2 – 6. If the perimeter of the rhombus is 168 units,
what is the value of x?
a. 4√ 3 b. 7 c. 8 d. 4√ 6
143. The length of a rectangle is four times the length of a square. If the rectangle and the square
share a side, and the perimeter of the square is 2 m, what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
a. 5 units b. 6 units c. 8 units d. 10 units
144. If the perimeter of a parallelogram ABCD is equal to the perimeter of rhombus EFGH and
the perimeter of square IJKL, then
a. these three figures must be three congruent squares.
b. every side of the rhombus must be congruent to every side of the square.
c. the parallelogram must also be a rhombus.
d. the parallelogram must not be a square or a rhombus.
145. Four squares are joined together to form one large square. If the perimeter of one of the
original squares was 8x units, what is the perimeter of the new, larger square?
a. 16x units b. 20x units c. 24x units d. 32x units
146. What is the perimeter of a square with a diagonal measuring 2x2 units?
a. 2x units b. 4x units c. 4 x √2 units d. 8x units
147. Diagonal AC of rectangle ABCD creates angle ACB, the tangent of which is 8. If the length
of side BC is 8 units, what is the perimeter of rectangle ABCD?
 a. 18 units b. 32 units c. 64 units d. 72 units
148. If the perimeter of a square is equal to 5x + 1 and the length of the diagonal of the square is
(2x – 2)√ 2, what is the length of a side of the square?
a. 2 units b. 4 units c. 8 units d. 10 units
12
149. Diagonal AC of rectangle ABCD creates angle ACD, the cosine of which is of the sides of
13
rectangle ABCD are all integers, which of the following could be the perimeter of rectangle ABCD?
a. 18 units b. 25 units c. 30 units d. 34 units
150. Angle A of rhombus ABCD measures 120°. If one side of the rhombus is 10 units, what is
the length of the longer diagonal?
a. √ 3 units b. 5 units c. 5√ 3 units d.10√ 3units
151. If the radius of the circle is 27 units, what is the length of arc AE?
a. 6π units b. 12π units c. 27π units d. 36π units
152. If the radius of the circle is 9 units, what is the length of arc DB?
a. 1/9π units b. 1π unit c. 2π units d. 36π units
153. Jasmin draws a circle with a radius of 9x2. What is the area of her circle?
a. (4.5x2)π square units b. (3x)π square units
c. (18x2)π square units d. (81x4)π square units
154. If the circumference of a circle triples, the area of the circle becomes
a. 9 times smaller b. 3 times smaller c. 3 times bigger d.9 times bigger
155. If the area of a circle is (121x)π square units, what is the circumference of the circle?
a. (11√ x )π units b. (22√ x )π units c. (11x)π units d. (22x)π units
156. If the diameter of a circle is 8x + 6, what is the area of the circle?
a. (4x + 3)π square units b. (16x + 12)π square units
c. (16x2 + 9)π square units d. (16x2 + 24x + 9)π square units
157. If the diameter of a circle is doubled, the circumference of the new circle is
a. one-fourth of the circumference of the original circle.
b. one-half of the circumference of the original circle.
c. the same as the circumference of the original circle.
d. two times the circumference of the original circle.
158. The radius of Carly’s circle is 2x – 7, and the area of her circle is (16x + 9)π. Which of the
following could be the value of x?
 a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 10
159. If the area of a circle is (4x2 + 20x + 25)π, what is the diameter of the circle?
a. 2x + 5 b. 4x + 10 c. (2x + 5)π d. (4x + 5)π
160. If the area of one semicircle is 4.5π square units, what is the area of the rectangle?
a. 72 square units b. 108 square units
c. 144 square units d. 162 square units e. 324 square units
161. If the radius of the circle is 4 units, what is the size of the shaded area?
a. 72 – 16π square units b. 128 – 32π square units
c. 128 – 24π square units d. 128 – 16π square units
162. The endpoints of a line segment are (5,–5) and (–5,–5). What is the slope of this line?
a. –10 b. –5 c. 0 d. 5
163. What is the midpoint of a line segment with endpoints at (0,–8) and (–8,0)?
a. (–8,–8) b. (–4,–4) c. (–1,–1) d. (4,4)
164. What is the midpoint of a line segment with endpoints at (6,–4) and (15,8)?
a. (9,4) b. (9,12) c. (10.5,2) d. (12,2)
165. The endpoints of a line segment are (0,–4) and (0,4). What is the midpoint of this line?
a. (0,0) b. (0,–2) c. (0,2) d. (–4,4)
166. What is the distance from the point (–6,2) to the point (2,17)?
a. 3√ 41 units b. √ 229 units c. 17 units d. √ 365 units
167. What is the distance from the point (0,–4) to the point (4,4)?
a. 5√ 2 units b. 4 units c. 4√ 2 units d. 4 √ 5 units
168. What is the distance from the point (3,8) to the point (7,–6)?
a. 2√ 5 units b. 2√ 47 units c. 2√ 51 units d. 2√ 53 units
TEST YOUR VOCABULARY (ENGLISH)
CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER THAT CAN FIT THE SENTENCE.
1. I felt an __________ with the writer from his descriptions of a world that seemed to have a
great deal in common with my own.
a. affection b. affinity c. adherence d. acknowledgement
2. My sister likes wearing tight tops and close-fitting dresses but I prefer _____, sweaters and
jeans.
a. floppy b. baggy c. flabby d. shabby
3. After the football match the crowds __________ out of the stadium into the nearest bars and
cafes.
a. poured b. trickled c. dripped d. leaked
4. The recently discovered documents ___________ credence to Professor Vaughan’s
interpretation of events.
a. lend b. provide c. afford d. supply
5. Do you have any figures showing the __________ of left-handedness is in the general
population?
a. accidence b. occurrence c. incidence d. persistence
6. In her speech the Prime Minister __________ tribute to the valuable contributions to society
made by voluntary organization?
a. paid b. sent c. gave d. brought
7. The government is doing all it can to _________ war on dangerous driving.
a. stage b. launch c. wage d. battle
8. Sources in France suggested that further ________ would be needed before they would agree
to a deal.
a. consolations b. concessions c. contractions d. contortions
9. One of the most powerful pressure groups in the country is the road and car _________, which
opposes any legislation that will increase taxes specifically for them.
a. folder b. branch c. segment d. lobby
10. It’s as if that silly argument we had has driven a __________ between us and we’ve lost all
our old closeness.
 a. ledge b. plank c. wedge d. beam
11. All sides have to accept that the attributor’s decision will be ________.
a. tying b. fixing c. binding d. compelling
12. Marlene is quite __________ - I don’t know she manages to fit everything in it.
a. tiresome b. inexorable c. inexhaustible d. indefatigable
13. What do you __________ as the main issues affecting the situation?
a. perceive b. receive c. conceive d. deceive
14. I’m afraid we got our _________ crossed- I thought my husband would be picking up the
children and he thought I was doing it.
a. minds b. purposes c. fingers d. wires
15. I’m afraid that argument really doesn’t hold ________.
a. water b. firm c. sense d. meaning
16. What is the meaning of MAIM?
a. mend b. relax c. suspend d. mutilate
17. What is the meaning of CUMBERSOME?
a. unmanageable b. adverse c. futile d. convenient
18. What is the meaning of EXTOL?
a. aggrandize b. tenacious c. extinct d. slaughter
19. What is the meaning of ADJACENT?
a. close b. spectacular c. momentary d. spacious
20. What is the meaning of NOXIOUS?
a. sterile b. harmful c. remark d. noisy
21. What is the meaning of VESTIGE?
a. midget b. addiction c. fashion d. trace
22. What is the meaning of ADDLE?
a. dull b. confuse c. imply d. deceit
23. What is the meaning of GOGITATE?
a. monarchy b. wrong c. ponder d. cover
24. What is the meaning of PLENARY?
a. equal b. complete c. awake d. caring
25. What is the meaning of AMORPHOUS?
 a. shapeless b. slippery c. temporary d. rough
26. A constant in the equation of a curve that can be varied to yield a family of similar curves
a. hypothesis b. parameter c. annual d. none of the above
27. Distinguish by introducing a labelled atom
a. cycle b. job c. label d. none of the above
28. Game equipment consisting of the place toward which players of a game try to advance a ball
or puck in order to score points.
a. contrast b. goal c. mechanism d. none of the above
29. Capital as contrasted with the income derived from it.
a. output b. concentrate c. principal d. none of the above
30. Arrange in phases or stages.
a. undertake b. phase c. impose d. none of the above

READING COMPREHENSION
PASSAGE 1
Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is
conveyed to the audience as much through music, both vocal and instrumental, as it is through
the lyrics. By contrast, in musical theater an actor's dramatic performance is primary, and the
music plays a lesser role. The drama in opera is presented using the primary elements of theater
such as scenery, costumes, and acting. However, the words of the opera, or libretto, are sung
rather than spoken. The singers are accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a small
instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic orchestra.
31. It is pointed out in the reading that opera ----.
a. has developed under the influence of musical theater
b. is a drama sung with the accompaniment of an orchestra
c. is not a high-budget production
d. is often performed in Europe
32. We can understand from the reading that ----.
a. people are captivated more by opera than musical theater
b. drama in opera is more important than the music
c. orchestras in operas can vary considerably in size
d. musical theater relies above all on music
33.  It is stated in the reading that ----.
a. acting and costumes are secondary to music in musical theater
b. many people find musical theater more captivating than opera
c. music in musical theater is not as important as it is in opera
d. an opera requires a huge orchestra as well as a large choir
PASSAGE 2
Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea and stories of them helping drowning
sailors have been common since Roman times. The more we learn about dolphins, the more we
realize that their society is more complex than people previously imagined. They look after other
dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant mothers and protect the weakest in the community,
as we do. Some scientists have suggested that dolphins have a language but it is much more
probable that they communicate with each other without needing words. Could any of these
mammals be more intelligent than man? Certainly the most common argument in favor of man's
superiority over them that we can kill them more easily than they can kill us is the least
satisfactory. On the contrary, the more we discover about these remarkable creatures, the less we
appear superior when we destroy them.
34. It is clear from the passage that dolphins ----
a. don't want to be with us as much as we want to be with them
b. are proven to be less intelligent than once thought
c. have a reputation for being friendly to humans
d. are the most powerful creatures that live in the oceans
35. The fact that the writer of the passage thinks that we can kill dolphins more easily
than they can kill us ----.
a. means that they are better adapted to their environment than we are
b. shows that dolphins have a very sophisticated form of communication
c. proves that dolphins are not the most intelligent species at sea
d. does not mean that we are superior to them
36. One can infer from the reading that ----.
a. dolphins are quite abundant in some areas of the world
b. communication is the most fascinating aspect of the dolphins
c. dolphins have skills that no other living creatures have such as the ability to think
 d. dolphins have some social traits that are similar to those of humans
PASSAGE 3
Naval architects never claim that a ship is unsinkable, but the sinking of the passenger-and-car
ferry Estonia in the Baltic surely should have never have happened. It was well designed and
carefully maintained. It carried the proper number of lifeboats. It had been thoroughly inspected
the day of its fatal voyage. Yet hours later, the Estonia rolled over and sank in a cold, stormy
night. It went down so quickly that most of those on board, caught in their dark, flooding cabins,
had no chance to save themselves: Of those who managed to scramble overboard, only 139
survived. The rest died of hypothermia before the rescuers could pluck them from the cold sea.
The final death toll amounted to 912 souls. However, there were an unpleasant number of
questions about why the Estonia sank and why so many survivors were men in the prime of life,
while most of the dead were women, children and the elderly.
37. One can understand from the reading that ----.
a. the lifesaving equipment did not work well and lifeboats could not be lowered
b. design faults and incompetent crew contributed to the sinking of the Estonia ferry
c. 139 people managed to leave the vessel but died in freezing water
d. most victims were trapped inside the boat as they were in their cabins
38. It is clear from the passage that the survivors of the accident ----.
a. helped one another to overcome the tragedy that had affected the mall
b. were mostly young men but women, children and the elderly stood little chance
c. helped save hundreds of lives
d. are still suffering from severe post-traumatic stress disorder
39. According to the passage, when the Estonia sank, ----.
a. there were only 139 passengers on board
b. few of the passengers were asleep
c. there were enough lifeboats for the number of people on board
d. faster reaction by the crew could have increased the Estonia's chances of survival

PASSEG 4

Erosion of America's farmland by wind and water has been a problem since settlers first put the
prairies and grasslands under the plow in the nineteenth century. By the 1930s, more than 282
million acres of farmland were damaged by erosion. After 40 years of conservation efforts, soil
erosion has accelerated due to new demands placed on the land by heavy crop production. In the
years ahead, soil erosion and the pollution problems it causes are likely to replace petroleum
scarcity as the nation's most critical natural resource problem.
40. As we understand from the reading, today, soil erosion in America ----.
a. causes humans to place new demands on the land
b. is worse than it was in the nineteenth century
c. happens so slowly that it is hardly noticed
d. is the most critical problem that the nation faces
41. The author points out in the passage that erosion in America ----.
a. has damaged 282 million acres ever since settlers first put the prairies and grasslands
under the plow
b. has been so severe that it has forced people to abandon their settlements
c. occurs only in areas with no vegetation
d. can become a more serious problem in the future
42. It is pointed out in the reading that in America ----.
a. petroleum is causing heavy soil erosion and pollution problems
b. heavy crop production is necessary to meet the demands and to prevent a disaster
c. soil erosion has been hastened due to the overuse of farming lands
d. water is undoubtedly the largest cause of erosion

PASSAGE 5
The walnut tree produces wood that is used for countless purposes, and is considered
the finest wood in the world. The wood is easy to work with, yet it is very hard and durable
—and when it is polished, it produces a rich, dark luster. It also shrinks and swells less than
any other wood, which makes it especially desirable for fine furniture, flooring, and even
gun stocks.

In fact, just about every part of the walnut is unusually hard and strong. The nut of the
tree is encased inside a very hard shell, which itself is enclosed in a leathery outer covering
called a husk. It requires real effort to break through those layers to get at the tasty meat inside.

Yet every part of the walnut is useful to people. The outer husk produces a dark
reddish stain that is hard to remove from the hands of the person who opens the nut, and this
pigment is widely used in dyes and wood stains. The inner shell is used as an abrasive to
clean jet engines. And the meat of the nut is extensively used in cooking, ice cream,
flavorings—and just eaten raw.
Walnut trees exude a chemical into the soil near their roots which can be poisonous
to some trees and shrubs. Fruit trees, for example, will not survive if planted too close to a
walnut. Many other plants, such as maple trees or ivy, are not affected by the walnut’s
presence, and are well-suited to grow in its vicinity.
43. What is the topic of this passage?
a. the use of walnut wood in furniture b. walnut trees
c. where to plant walnuts d. trees of North America
44. What is the main idea of the passage?
a. Trees are used for many things.
b. Maple trees grow well with walnuts.
c. Walnuts can kill other trees.
d. Walnut trees are valuable when planted correctly.
45. As used in the passage, the underlined word abrasive most nearly means
a. rough. b. disagreeable. c. soft. d. fragrant.
46. The author of the passage probably believes that
a. walnut trees are endangered.
b. people should recycle more
c. people should grow walnut trees if possible.
d. maple trees are not good for furniture making.

47. As used in the passage, the underlined word exude most nearly means
a. give off. b. naked. c. smell bad. d. leave the area.

PASSAGE 6

One of the most hazardous conditions a firefighter will ever encounter is a backdraft
(also known as a smoke explosion). A backdraft can occur in the hot-smoldering phase of a
fire when burning is incomplete and there is not enough oxygen to sustain the fire.
Unburned carbon particles and other flammable products, combined with the intense heat,
may cause instantaneous combustion if more oxygen reaches the fire.
 Firefighters should be aware of the conditions that indicate the possibility for a backdraft
to occur. When there is a lack of oxygen during a fire, the smoke becomes filled with carbon
dioxide or carbon mon- oxide and turns dense gray or black. Other warning signs of a potential
backdraft are little or no visible flame, excessive heat, smoke leaving the building in puffs,
muffled sounds, and smoke-stained windows.
Proper ventilation will make a backdraft less likely. Opening a room or building at the
highest point allows heated gases and smoke to be released gradually. However, suddenly
breaking a window or opening a door is a mistake, because it allows oxygen to rush in, causing
an explosion.
48. A backdraft is a dangerous condition for firefighters mainly be- cause
a. there is not enough oxygen for breathing.
b. the heat is extremely intense.
c. the smoke is dangerously thick.
d. an explosion occurs.
49. Which of the following is not mentioned as a potential backdraft warning sign?
a. windows stained with smoke
b. flames shooting up from the building
c. puffs of smoke leaving the building
d. more intense heat than usual
50. To prevent the possibility of a backdraft, a firefighter should
a. carry an oxygen tank.
b. open a door to allow gases to escape.
c. make an opening at the top of the building.
d. break a window to release carbon particles.
51. When compared with a hot, smoldering fire, a fire with visible, high-reaching flames
a. has more oxygen available for combustion.
b. has more carbon dioxide available for consumption.
c. produces more dense gray smoke.
d. is more likely to cause a backdraft.
PASSAGE 7
 The human body can tolerate only a small range of temperature, especially when the
person is engaged in vigorous activity. Heat reactions usually occur when large amounts of water
and/or salt are lost through excessive sweating following strenuous exercise. When the body
becomes overheated and cannot eliminate this excess heat, heat exhaustion and heat stroke are
possible.
Heat exhaustion is generally characterized by clammy skin, fatigue, nausea, dizziness, profuse
perspiration, and sometimes fainting, resulting from an inadequate intake of water and the loss of flu-
ids. First aid treatment for this condition includes having the victim lie down, raising the feet 8 to 12
inches, applying cool, wet cloths to the skin, and giving the victim sips of salt water (1 teaspoon per
glass, half a glass every 15 minutes) over a 1-hour period.
Heat stroke is much more serious; it is an immediate life-threatening situation. The
characteristics of heat stroke are a high body temperature (which may reach 106° F or
more); a rapid pulse; hot, dry skin; and a blocked sweating mechanism. Victims of this
condition may be unconscious, and first-aid measures should be directed at quickly cooling
the body. The victim should be placed in a tub of cold water or repeatedly sponged with
cool water until his or her temperature is sufficiently lowered. Fans or air conditioners will
also help with the cooling process. Care should be taken, however, not to over-chill the
victim once the temperature is below 102° F.
52. The most immediate concern of a person tending to a victim of heat stroke should be to
a. get salt into the victim’s body. b. raise the victim’s feet.
c. lower the victim’s pulse. d. lower the victim’s temperature.
53. Which of the following is a symptom of heat exhaustion?
a. unconsciousness b. profuse sweating
c. hot, dry skin d. a weak pulse
54. Heat stroke is more serious than heat exhaustion because heat stroke victims
a. do not sweat. b. have no salt in their bodies.
c. cannot take in water. d. have frequent fainting spells.
55. Symptoms such as nausea and dizziness in a heat exhaustion victim indicate that the
person most likely needs to
a. be immediately taken to a hospital. b. be given more salt water.
c. be immersed in a tub of water. d. sweat more.
PASSAGE 8

Greyhound racing is the sixth most popular spectator sport in the United States. Over
the last decade, a growing number of racers have been adopted to spend their retirement as
household pets, once their racing careers are over.

Many people hesitate to adopt a retired racing greyhound because they think only
very old dogs are available. Actually, even champion racers only work until they are about
three-and-a-half years old. Because greyhounds usually live to be 12 to 15 years old, their
retirement is much longer than their racing careers.

People worry that a greyhound will be more nervous and active than other breeds and
will need a large space to run. These are false impressions. Greyhounds have naturally
sweet, mild dispositions, and while they love to run, they are sprinters rather than distance
runners and are sufficiently exercised with a few daily laps around a fenced-in backyard.

People worry that a greyhound will be more nervous and active than other breeds and
will need a large space to run. These are false impressions. Greyhounds have naturally
sweet, mild dispositions, and while they love to run, they are sprinters rather than distance
runners and are sufficiently exercised with a few daily laps around a fenced-in backyard.

56. Based on the tone of the passage, the author’s main purpose is to
a. teach prospective owners how to transform their racing grey- hound into a good pet.
b. show how the greyhound’s nature makes it equally good as racer and pet.
c. encourage people to adopt retired racing greyhounds.
d. objectively present the pros and cons of adopting a racing grey- hound.
57. According to the passage, adopting a greyhound is a good idea for people who
a. do not have children. b. live in apartments.
c. do not usually like dogs. d. already have another dog or a cat.
58. Which of the following is implied by the passage?
a. The public is more aware of greyhounds than they used to be.
 b. Greyhounds are more competitive than other dogs.
c. Greyhound racing should not be allowed.
d. People who own pet rabbits should not adopt greyhounds.
59. One drawback of adopting a greyhound is that
a. greyhounds are not good with children.
b. greyhounds are old when they retire from racing.
c. the greyhound’s sensitivity makes it temperamental.
d. greyhounds are not good watch dogs.
60. This passage is most like an advertisement because it
a. uses statistics to prove its point.
b. does not present information to substantiate its claims.
c. says nothing negative about greyhounds.
d. encourages people to do something.

61. ________ Sarah drives to the cabin several times a year, she is often nervous about finding
her way.
a. Besides b. Unless c. Nevertheless d. Although
62. Lila wasn’t feeling well. _____________, she decided to stay home from work.
a. Therefore b. Meanwhile c. However d. Anyway
63. ___________ he waited for the doctor to call him in, Sam sat in the waiting room and read
the newspaper.
a. So that b. While c. Even if d. Besides when
64. Ruby loves blueberry pie _________ it is made with freshly picked blueberries.
a. whether b. because c. when d. as if
65. Mitchell loves listening to jazz and rhythm and blues. Greg, ____________, will only listen
to country.
a. however b. then c. too d. therefore
66. __________ our low annual fee, you will receive a 20% discount if you sign up this week.
a. Because b. While c. In spite of d. In addition to
67. The ticket said the show would start at 8:00, but the curtains didn’t go up _________ 8:30.
a. less than b. until c. about d. since
68. My neighbor is deathly afraid of dogs; ___________, I never let my Golden Retriever,
Sandy, outside without a leash.
a. moreover b. yet c. mainly d. consequently
69. The wedding quilt was designed as a sentimental way to make use of fabric taken _________
blankets and bedding that belonged to older couples in her family.
a. from b. with c. in d. at
70. Sandra Day O’Connor, the first woman to serve on the U.S. Supreme Court, ________
appointed by President Ronald Reagan in 1981.
a. she b. and c. but d. was
71. I ________ the speech you gave last Thursday night, but I was in bed with the flu.
a. will have heard b. would hear c. might hear d. would have heard
72. ________ the Beatles’ most popular songs— most of which were written by Lennon and
McCartney—are “I Want to Hold Your Hand” and “Hey, Jude.”
a. With b. Considering c. Among d. To

Choose the sentence that best combines the underlined sentences

73. Watching a TV show is a passive behavior. Playing a computer game is an interactive one.
a. Watching a TV show is a passive behavior, or playing a computer game is an interactive one.
b. Watching a TV show is a passive behavior, for playing a computer game is an interactive one.
c. Watching a TV show is a passive behavior, but playing a computer game is an interactive one.
d. Being that playing a computer game is an interactive one, watching a TV show is a passive
behavior
74. Socrates taught that we should question everything, even the law. He was both greatly
loved and profoundly hated.
a. That he was both greatly loved and profoundly hated, Socrates taught that we should
question everything, even the law.
b. Socrates taught that we should question everything, even the law, so he was both
greatly loved and profoundly hated.
c. Socrates taught that we should question everything, even the law, which he was both
greatly loved and profoundly hated.
 d. Socrates taught that we should question everything, even the law, for he was both
greatly loved and profoundly hated.

75. Sailors are said to catch albatrosses with baited hooks let down into the ship’s wake. To
kill the albatross was thought to be bad luck, so they were released immediately.
a. Sailors are said to catch albatrosses with baited hooks and let them down into the
ship’s wake, then release them again, for to kill the albatross was thought to be bad luck.
b. With baited hooks let down into the ship’s wake, sailors are said to catch albatrosses
then release them again, so to kill the albatross was thought to be bad luck.
c. Sailors are said to catch albatrosses with baited hooks let down into the ship’s wake,
then release them again, or to kill the albatross was thought to be bad luck.
d. To kill the albatross was thought to be bad luck, so sailors are said to catch albatrosses
with baited hooks let down into the ship’s wake, only to release them immediately.
76. The symptoms of diabetes often develop gradually and are hard to identify at first.
Nearly half of all people with diabetes do not know they have it.
a. The symptoms of diabetes often develop gradually and are hard to identify at first, so
nearly half of all people with diabetes do not know they have it.
b. The symptoms of diabetes often develop gradually and are hard to identify at first, yet
nearly half of all people with diabetes do not know they have it.
c. Nearly half of all people with diabetes do not know they have it, and the symptoms of
diabetes often develop gradually and are hard to identify at first.
d. The symptoms of diabetes often develop gradually for nearly half of all people with
diabetes do not know they have it and are hard to identify at first.
77. The French philosopher Voltaire was greatly respected. Voltaire spent almost a year
imprisoned in the Bastille.
a. The French philosopher Voltaire was greatly respected, so he spent almost a year
imprisoned in the Bastille.
b. The French philosopher Voltaire was greatly respected with almost a year imprisoned
in the Bastille.
c. The French philosopher Voltaire was greatly respected, or he spent almost a year
imprisoned in the Bastille.
 d. The French philosopher Voltaire was greatly respected, yet he spent almost a year
imprisoned in the Bastille.
78. I must buy some new shoes to wear to the prom. My date, Donnie, will be upset if I
wear my flip-flops.
a. Unless my date, Donnie, will be upset if I wear my flip-flops, I must buy some new
shoes to wear to the prom.
b. I must buy some new shoes to wear to the prom, and my date, Donnie, will be upset if I
wear my flip-flops.
c. I must buy some new shoes to wear to the prom, for my date, Donnie, will be upset if I
wear my flip-flops.
d. My date, Donnie, will be upset if I wear my flip-flops while I must buy some new
shoes to wear to the prom.
79. Sylvia is loaded with money. She can afford that trip to Silver Dollar City.
a. Sylvia is loaded with money, or she can afford that trip to Silver Dollar City.
b. Sylvia is loaded with money, but she can afford that trip to Silver Dollar City.
c. Sylvia is loaded with money, so she can afford that trip to Silver Dollar City.
d. Sylvia is loaded with money, yet she can afford that trip to Silver Dollar City
80. The rules of statistics say that it is possible for all the air in a room to move to one
corner. This is extremely unlikely.
a. The rules of statistics say that it is possible for all the air in a room to move to one
corner, or this is extremely unlikely.
b. The rules of statistics say that it is possible for all the air in a room to move to one
corner, but this is extremely unlikely.
c. This is extremely unlikely in that the rules of statistics say that it is possible for all the
air in a room to move to one corner.
d. For all the air in a room to move to one corner, this is extremely unlikely, according to
the rules of statistics saying that it is possible.
81. I must buy my dog a new license. If I don’t, I will have to pay a fine.
a. I must buy my dog a new license, and I will have to pay a fine.
b. I must buy my dog a new license; I will have to pay a fine.
c. Unless I buy my dog a new license, I will have to pay a fine.
 d. I will have to pay a fine since I must buy my dog a new license.

82. Bats are not rodents. Bats bear a surface resemblance to a winged mouse.
a. Bats are not rodents, although they do bear a resemblance to a winged mouse.
b. Bats are not rodents that they bear a surface resemblance to a winged mouse.
c. Bats are not rodents, when they bear a surface resemblance to a winged mouse.
d. Bats are not rodents, if they bear a surface resemblance to a winged mouse.
83. Art is not only found in the museum or concert hall. Art can be found in the expressive
behavior of ordinary people, as well.
a. Art can be found not only in the museum or concert hall, and it can be found in the
expressive behavior of ordinary people, as well.
b. In the museum or concert hall, art can be found not only there and in the expressive
behavior of ordinary people, as well.
c. Although in the expressive behavior of ordinary people, as well, art can be found not
only in the museum or concert hall.
d. Art can be found not only in the museum or concert hall, but in the expressive behavior
of ordinary people, as well.
84. In lucid dreams, the dreamer knows she is dreaming. It gives her a sense of unlimited
freedom.
a. In lucid dreams, the dreamer knows she is dreaming, although it gives her a sense of
unlimited freedom.
b. In lucid dreams, the dreamer knows she is dreaming, while it gives her a sense of
unlimited freedom.
c. In lucid dreams, the dreamer knows she is dreaming, where it gives her a sense of
unlimited freedom.
d. In lucid dreams, the dreamer knows she is dreaming, which gives her a sense of
unlimited freedom.
85. She never responded to the invitation we sent. We assumed she wasn’t coming.
a. She never responded to the invitation we sent; however we assumed she wasn’t
coming.
b. While we assumed she wasn’t coming, she never responded to the invitation we sent.
 c. She never responded to the invitation we sent, whether we assumed she wasn’t coming.
d. Because she never responded to the invitation we sent, we assumed she wasn’t coming.
86. My friends loved the restaurant. I thought it was overpriced.
a. That my friends loved the restaurant, I thought it was overpriced.
b. My friends loved the restaurant, whereas I thought it was overpriced.
c. My friends loved the restaurant, when I thought it was overpriced.
d. My friends loved the restaurant, or I thought it was overpriced.
87. Elizabeth is an athletic woman. Elizabeth cannot swim or ride a bike.
a. Elizabeth cannot swim or ride a bike, while she is an athletic woman.
b. Elizabeth cannot swim or ride a bike and is an athletic woman.
c. Although Elizabeth cannot swim or ride a bike, she is an athletic woman.
d. Being an athletic woman, Elizabeth cannot swim or ride a bike
88. This neighborhood is called “baby central.” Almost every family within a three-block
radius has a child under the age of one.
a. Almost every family within a three-block radius has a child under the age of one, while
this neighborhood is called “baby central.”
b. Almost every family within a three-block radius has a child under the age of one, but
this neighborhood is called “baby central.”
c. Almost every family within a three-block radius has a child under the age of one;
therefore, this neighborhood is called “baby central.”
d. This neighborhood is called “baby central:” meanwhile, almost every family within a
three-block radius has a child under the age of one.
89. The new shopping mall has 200 stores. The new shopping mall doesn’t have a pet shop.
a. The new shopping mall has 200 stores; however, it doesn’t have a pet shop.
b. Instead of a pet shop, the new shopping mall has 200 stores.
c. With 200 stores, the new shopping mall doesn’t have a pet shop.
d. The new shopping mall has 200 stores, and it doesn’t have a pet shop
90. Eugene has a difficult personality. Eugene is unreliable.
a. Eugene has a difficult personality, and furthermore he’s unreliable.
b. Eugene has a difficult personality, although he is unreliable.
c. While he is unreliable, Eugene has a difficult personality.
 d. Being unreliable, Eugene has a difficult personality.
For the following questions, choose the underlined part of the sentence that contains a
grammatical error. If there are no errors, choose answer e.
91. We knew Lawrence must of missed the appointment because train service was disrupted for
A B C
three hours this morning. No error.
D E
92. Every year, a few committed citizens exceeds our expectations and work tirelessly to improve
A B C D
our community programs in significant ways. No error.
E

93. Each of the employees have had a half-hour evaluation meeting with his or her supervisor.
A B C D
No error.
E
94. Here are one of the three keys you will need to unlock the office door tomorrow. No error.\
A B C D E
95. Soon after Donovan left to walk to work, he realized that he would forget his umbrella. No error
A B C D E
96. Someone from the garage phoned to say that the car had been fixed and asking if we would
A B C D
pick it up by 5:00. No error
E
97. In 1963, Betty Friedan’s exposé of domesticity, The Feminine Mystique, became an
immediate
A B C
bestseller and creating a national sensation. No error.
D E
98. The staff at the university library deserve recognition for helping to locate the many sources
A B C D
needed for the successful completion of my doctoral dissertation. No error.
E
99. Homesteaders on the Great Plains had to build homes, find water in a semiarid land, and to
A B C D
learn to understand the blessings of the environment. No error.
E
100. Watching the film, I begun to ask myself why I cared about these characters when I felt
such
A B C D
an intense unease. No error.
E
101. On March 15, 2006, the Maywood Recreation Department requested a grant from the state
to rebuild the community center that _________________ in the recent fire.
a. destroys b. will be destroyed c. had been destroyed d. is being destroyed
102. Matthew Morris and Jessica Glassman hosted a holiday party that The River Bank Café
_____________.
a. caters b. will cater c. is catering d. catered
103. Megan is trying to read all three books in the series before summer ____________.
a. ended b. will have ended c. will end d. ends
104. We have ______________ more sweets since that wonderful bakery opened down the
block.
a. ate b. been eating c. been eat d. eat
105. While attempting to _____________ his broken bicycle, Leo Donner realized that he didn’t
have the proper tools.
a. be repairing b. have repaired c. repair d. repaired
106. ___________ the police immediately.
a. Call b. Called c. Been calling d. To call
107. The biggest problem with Martha’s garden __________ too many weeds.
a. will have been b. were c. will have d. was
108. . Last week, Tracy and Shane were honored at a luncheon for their part in rescuing a child
who ____________________ into an icy pond.
 a. falls b. would fall c. had fallen d. has fallen
109. The woman who confronted the owner of the unleashed dog ____________ angry.
a. were b. was c. are d. have been

110. The boy ______________ the bat and ran to first base as fast as he could.
a. swings b. swinged c. swung d. swing
111. There ___________ four excellent restaurants in the center of town.
a. is b. are c. was d. being
112. The noise from the lawn mowers ______________ louder as the morning progresses.
a. gets b. get c. have gotten d. are getting
113. In many popular movies today, the heroes are ________ armed than the villains.
a. more heavily b. more heavy c. heavier d. more heavier
114. The cake I made last week tasted ________ than the one I made today.
a. best b. more better c. better d. more good
115. After winning the yo-yo contest, Lydia skipped ________ down the street.
a. happy b. happiest c. more happily d. happily

Find the sentence that has a mistake in grammar or usage. If you find no mistakes, mark
choice d.
116. a. Of the four of us, I am the tallest.
b. Wilson’s brother is a chemical engineer.
c. That fine circus elephant now belongs to my sister and I.
d. No mistakes.
117. a. Help is on the way.
b. The firemen used a ladder to reach the kitten.
c. Don’t slip on the icy sidewalk.
d. No mistakes.
118. a. His family has lived in this town for thirtyfive years.
b. You’re the only one who can remember that song.
c. That’s the quickest way to get to Sylvia’s house.
d. No mistakes.
119. a. “Meet me at six o’clock,” she said.
 b. Tired of running, she slowed her pace to a fast walk.
c. Gabriel and me will attend the geography bee.
d. No mistakes.

120. a. Sheila’s sister wanted to accompany us to the party.

b. Who’s scarf is this?
c. “Be sure to wear something comfortable,” she said.
d. No mistakes.
121. a. The main problem Jim had was too many parking tickets.
b. As the bears ran toward us, it was growling.
c. Try using less butter next time.
d. No mistakes.
122. a. Kamala was the most intelligent person in the group.
b. The Eiffel Tower is in Paris, France.
c. Nick Carraway is a character in The Great Gatsby.
d. No mistakes.
123. a. They weren’t the only ones who didn’t like the movie.
b. “Please come back another time,” Aunt Julie begged.
c. “Threes a crowd,” he always says.
d. No mistakes.
124. a. The first house on the street is there’s.
b. I love the fireworks on the Fourth of July.
c. My grandparents live in San Juan, Puerto Rico.
d. No mistakes.
125. a. Either Cassie nor I heard the door open.
b. How many people signed the Declaration of Independence?
c. Draw up a plan before you make your decision.
d. No mistakes.
126. a. It’s not my fault that you and him got caught.
b. “Do you brush twice a day?” Dr. Evans asked.
c. What’s the weather report?
 d. No mistakes.

127. a. Couldn’t you arrive fashionably late?

b. You’re assumption is correct.
c. I know that Bowser will be well treated.
d. No mistakes.
128. a. We invited Mayor Chen to speak at our school.
b. The alarm sounded, and the firefighters jumped into the truck.
c. The committee members should work as hard as one can.
d. No mistakes.
129. a. He wore two different shoes to class.
b. Rhonda’s sister bought a new Pontiac.
c. Lake Superior is the largest of the Great Lakes.
d. No mistakes.
130. a. She and I have been friends for more than ten years.
b. Is that one of the O’Farrell children?
c. They took too much time to answer.
d. No mistakes.

ANALOGY
131. Poverty: Prosperity
a. Love: Sorrow b. Train: Cart c. Rain: Food d. Intelligence: Stupidity
132. Stage: Theatre
a. Bedroom: House b. Car: Road c. Patient: Hospital d. School: Education
133. Tree: Sapling
a. Rock: Mountain b. Horse: Foal c. Giant: Dwarf d. Hut: Mansion
134. Monk: Monastery
a. Noble: House b. Lon: Hole c. Nun: Convent d. Peasant: Village
135. Laboratory: Germs
 a. School: Students b. Playground: Games
c. Library: Books d. Observatory: Planets
136. Cool: Frigid
a. Livid: Lurid b. Poll: Placid c. Tepid: Torrid d. Lack: Abundant
137. Lamb: Frisk
a. Deer: Swoop b. Cat: Steal c. Bear: Leap d. Lion: Stride
138. Cricket: Pitch
a. Ship: Dock b. Boat: Harbor c. Wrestling: Track d. Boxing: Ring
139. Coffee: Beverages
a. Bread: Butter b. Milk: Tea c. Burger: Snack d. Grapes: Wine
140. Graphite: Lubricant
a. Movement: Friction b. Iron: Steel c. Wool: Cloth d. Diamond: Abrasive
141. Illiterate: Uneducated
a. Country: State b. City: Village c. Palace: Hut d. Vision: Sight
142. Duralumin: Aircraft
a. Brass: Alloy b. Stone: Sculptor c. Iron: Steel d. Bronze: Statue
143. Ribs: Lungs
a. Ball: Sphere b. Hand: Fingers c. Shell: Net d. Coat: Tie
144. Expend: Replenish
a. Exhort: Encourage b. Formant: Rebellion
c. Defect: Rejoin d. Encroachment: Occupy
145. Money: Transaction
a. Life: Death b. Water: Drink c. Ideas: Exchange d. Language: Conversation
146. Fare: Absurdity
a. Disease: Medicine b. Charity: Generosity
c. Tragedy: Comedy d. Energy: Electricity
147. Visitor: Welcome
a. Beggar: Hungry b. Worship: God
c. Criminal: Prosecute d. Warrior: Conquer
148. Garbage: Dustbin
a. Tree: Honey b. Medicine: Capsule c. Kitchen: House d. Bangles: Hand
149. Overlook: Aberration
a. Mitigate: Penitence b. Condone: Offence
c. Error: Omission d. Conviction: Criminal

150. Mongoose: Snake

a. Milk: Goat b. Fish: Crane c. Whale: Crow d. Water: Sky
151. Blister: Skin
a. Sore: Tore b. Sty: Eye c. Ball: Pitcher d. Wound: Arm
152. Horse: Mare
a. Duck: Geese b. Dog: Puppy c. Donkey: Pony d. Fox: Vixen
153. Water: Thirst
a. Ripe: Harvest b. Book: Ignorance c. Needle: Stitch d. Rain: Throat
154. Sale: Purchase
a. Give: Receive b. Shop: Market c. Cash: Credit d. Profit: Loss
155. Read: Legible
a. Hear: Audible b. Quality: Eligible c. See: Illegible d. Require: Admissible
156. Locks: Warble:
a. Crows: Cackle b. Tiger: Yelp c. Owls: Hoots d. Camel: Bleat
157. Parsing: Grammar
a. Running: Health b. Praying: God c. Para trooping: Air force d. Cleaning: House
158. Story: Novel
a. Sea: Ocean b. School: University c. Book: Dictionary d. Poetry: Drama
159. Balled: Song
a. Envelope: Letter b. Prose: Literature c. Cat: Leopard d. Ode: Poem
160. Fish: Mermaid
a. Cat: Lion b. Horse: Centaur c. Unicorn: Tapestry d. Pegasus: Fly

SYNONYMS/ANTONYMS
161. What is the antonym of CURB?
a. abuse b. neglect c. encourage d. defer
162. What is the antonym of BLEMISH?
a. adornment b. pimple c. bloom d. tarnish
163. What is the antonym of RELINQUISH?
a. abandon b. waive c. confiscate d. reject
164. What is the antonym of DORMANT?
a. active b. inactive c. humble d. friction
165. What is the antonym of LIABILITY?
a. accountability b. irresponsibility c. burden d. considerate
166. What is the antonym of DISPARAGE?
a. abuse b. criticize c. encourage d. glorify
167. What is the antonym of DEARTH?
a. abundance b. scarcity c. replenish d. expensive
168. What is the antonym of TERRESTRIAL?
a. abnormal b. marvelous c. amphibious d. celestial
169. What is the antonym of RETREAT?
a. advance b. recede c. entice d. capture
170. What is the antonym of DISMISS?
a. accept b. employ c. recall d. reinstate
171. What is the antonym of EXPLICIT?
a. ambiguous b. clear c. sober d. abuse
172. What is the antonym of COALITION?
a. alliance b. alone c. unattached d. whisper
173. What is the antonym of RETROGRADE?
a. aggressive b. progressive c. punitive d. stubborn
174. What is the antonym of PACIFY?
a. aggravate b. steady c. neglect d. polite
175. What is the antonym of JUDICIOUS?
a. aggressive b. imprudent c. plentiful d. condemn
176. What is the antonym of POLEMIC?
a. aggressive attack b. uncontroversial c. logically d. controversial
177. What is the antonym of PEEVISH?
a. amiable b. unpleasant c. snappish d. authoritative
178. What is the antonym of GRADUITY?
 a. annuity b. stipend c. discount d. compensation
179. What is the antonym of PREVENT?
a. aggravate b. expedite c. accelerate d. facilitate

180. What is the antonym of CONTEMPORARY?

a. ancient b. contemptuous c. new d. conventional
181. Synonym of CONSUMMATION is?
a. accomplishment b. attainment c. delusion d. clear
182. Synonym of DEFUNCT is?
a. active b. clever c. alive d. extinct
183. Synonym of OSTENSIBLY is?
a. actually b. appropriately c. apparently d. cunningly
184. Synonym of ENGENDER is?
a. absurd b. beget c. persuade d. amuse
185. Synonym of QUELL is?
a. abet b. suppress c. support d. provoke
186. Synonym of INDICT is?
a. acquit b. accuse c. frustrate d. speculate
187. Synonym of OVERSTRUNG is?
a. active b. energetic c. concerned d. nervous
188. Synonym of DEBILITATE is?
a. accept b. pioneer c. weaken d. challenge
189. Synonym of ABRIDGE is?
a. abort b. shorten c. rare d. urge
190. Synonym of ASSIMILATE is?
a. absorb b. arrange c. receive d. assemble
191. Synonym of PROPHYLACTIC is?
a. antagonistic b. toxic c. preventive d. purgative
192. Synonym of LUDICRUOUS is?
a. anticipate b. moderate c. satisfaction d. absurd
193. Synonym of PREVARICATE is?
 a. anticipate b. lie c. delay d. authenticate
194. Synonym of UMBRAGE is?
a. anger b. shabbiness c. premature d. resentment

195. Synonym of ABERRATION is?

a. stability b. justification c. intensification d. deviation
196. Synonym of CALIBRE is?
a. ability b. straightness c. short-cut d. streamline
197. Synonym of ECSTATIC is?
a. animated b. enraptured c. bewildered d. fitful
198. Synonym of MELANCHOLY is?
a. animated b. depression c. carefree d. forgivable
199. Synonym of COALITION is?
a. alone b. alliance c. disintegration d. perfection
200. Synonym of REVISE is?
a. alter b. reconsider c. postpone d. neglect

MAAP: SCIENCE
1. The greatest amount of water vapor the air could hold at a certain temperature.
a. condensation b. precipitation
c. absolute humidity d. evaporation
2. The correctness of a single measurement. Assessed by comparing the measurement with the
true or accepted value, based on evidence independent of the measurement. The closeness of an
average to a true value is referred to as it’s “trueness”.
a. accuracy b. frequency c. capacity d. force
3. Any inherited characteristic or behavior that helps an organism survive in its environment.
a. heredity b. humidity c. adaptation d. genes
4. The energy currency of cells; a compound consisting of three phosphate groups attached to
adenosine.
a. DNA b. ATP c. HGP d. Genome
5. A solid or gas particle that is dispersed through air, making air desirable.
 a. air pollution b. water pollution
c. ozone d. air pollutant

6. A substance that can release a hydrogen ion to the solution; a substance that can donate
protons; a substance that can accept an electron pair.
a. base b. homogeneous c. acid d. water
7. An undesirable change in the physical and chemical qualities of air.
a. air pollution b. thermal pollution
c. contamination d. water pollution
8. What is the study of the structures of living things?
a. biology b. anatomy c. astronomy d. geology
9. This is a weather instruments that measures wind speed or velocity.
a. barometer b. wind sock c. weather satellite d. anemometer
10. An eclipse in which the eclipsing body does not completely cover the other, resulting in a
ring-like light visible around a black disk.
a. annular eclipse b. solar eclipse c. lunar eclipse d. hybrid
11. The type of reproduction in which a single cell or parent organism produces offspring that
are genetically identical to it.
a. conjugation b. asexual production c. fertilization d. pollination
12. A small, generally rocky solid body orbiting the sun with size ranging from several meters to
a few hundred kilometers.
a. asteroids b. meteorites c. meteor d. planets
13. It is the study of the planets, stars, and other objects in space; study of heavenly bodies.
a. meteorology b. astronomy c. archeology d. anatomy
14. The partially melted layer of the mantle that underlies the lithosphere, is called _________.
a. asthenosphere c. ultraviolet c. atmosphere d. stratosphere
15. The smallest particle of an element that retains the chemical properties of the element; an
electrically neutral particle, with a positive charged.
a. molecules b. nucleus c. atom d. particles
16. What is the instrument used to measure air pressure?
a. thermometer b. barometer c. weather satellite d. anemometer
17. Any substance that can release a hydroxide ion (OH-), a substance that can accept protons, a
substance that can donate and share an electron pair with another substance.
a. water b. acid c. base d. none of the above
18. A theory about the creation of the universe starting an explosion occurred 15 billion years
ago which generated the matter and motion visible today.
a. steady state theory b. pulsating theory
c. open universe d. big bang theory
19. A cell division process in which bacteria and some microorganisms split into two.
a. binary fission b. mitosis c. meiosis d. none of them
20. An organic matter that has stored energy through the process of photosynthesis, the weight of
an organism after all the water has been removed.
a. biosphere b. biodegrability c. biomass d. all of the above
21. An area of the earth occupied by living things.
a. diversity b. biosphere c. ecosphere d. Gaia
22. A remnant of a collapse star, an object whose gravitational attraction is so strong that is
prevents any radiation from leaving its surface.
a. black hole b. milky way c. galaxy d. star

23. The fifth state of matter, formed at law temperatures when a significant number of the
elementary particles classified as bosons collapse into the same quantum state.
a. Bose-Einstein condensate b. plasma
c. liquids d. gases
24. The ability of a material to break or crumble when subjected to a blow.
a. ductility b. malleability c. brittleness d. elasticity
25. An atom or molecule which has a positive electrical charge.
a. cation b. electron c. neutron d. proton
26. The basic unit of structure and function in organisms.
a. nucleus b. brain c. cell d. cytoplasm
27. A thin membrane that bounds the cytoplasm of cells.
a. mitochondria b. vacuole c. chloroplast d. plasma membrane
28. A rigid structure the surrounds the plasma membrane of plant cells and bacteria.
 a. cell wall b. nuclide c. nucleolus d. chloroplast
29. A process that speeds up the settling of the precipitate using a motor-driven apparatus.
a. schematic b. centrifugation c. fractionation d. none of the above
30. The force of attraction between atoms or ions.
a. ionic bond b. covalent bond c. LED structure d. chemical bond
31. A dissociation, recombination, or rearrangement of atoms.
a. physical change b. absorption c. chemical changed d. boiling point
32. The stored energy present in food and fuel which are released when they undergo chemical
reactions.
a. nuclear energy b. radiant energy c. physical energy d. chemical energy
33. A property that describes the changes that occur in chemical compositions that take place
during chemical reactions with other substance.
a. chemical property b. reactivity c. flammability d. reactivity
34. The process by which substances bond together and in doing so, either release or consume
energy.
a. combustion b. decomposition c. chemical reactions d. single-replacement
35. The site of photosynthesis in plant cells and protest.
a. cytoplasm b. chloroplast c. plasma membrane d. nuclide
36. A heterogeneous mixtures composed of tiny particles suspended in another material.
a. solutions b. colloid c. suspension d. a and c
37. A chemical process accompanied by the release of heat.
a. Redox b. combustion c. combination d. decomposition
38. A small body in orbit around the sun consisting of a tiny, icy core and a tail of gas and dust.
a. asteroids b. meteors c. comet d. meteorite
39. A pure substance composed of two or more elements that are chemically combined.
a. compound b. complex c. pure compound d. none of the above
40. The process by which water vapor changes into liquid form; the conversion of a gas into a
liquid, usually occurs when a gas is cooled below its boiling point.
a. evaporation b. sublimation c. precipitation d. condensation
41. The transfer energy upon contact of one body to another.
a. convection b. radiation c. thermal d. conduction
42. Any of eighty-eight patterns or grouping of stars in heaven.
a. constellation b. Leo the lion c. Taurus the bull d. Orion the great

43. The movement of gases or liquids from a colder region to a warmer region.
a. radiation b. conduction c. convection d. none of the above
44. A bond formed when elements share a pair or pairs of valence electrons.
a. Ionic bonding b. metallic bonding c. covalent bonding d. non-polar bonding
45. The deterioration of a material due to interaction with its environment.
a. climate change b. pollutants c. occupational hazard d. corrosion
46. What is the solid outermost surface of the earth?
a. crust b. mantle c. inner core d. outer core
47. It is the process of forming pure crystals by freezing a liquid, evaporating a solution, or
precipitating a solid from solution.
a. condensation b. crystallization c. evaporation d. sublimation
48. The material inside the plasma membrane where the cell organelles are suspended.
a. chloroplast b. nucleolus c. mitochondria d. cytoplasm
49. What is the process of pouring-off the liquid and leaving the settled particles in the
container?
a. decantation b. filtration c. sedimentation d. all of them
50. The ratio of the mass of an object to its volume.
a. density b. velocity c. friction d. frequency
51. The changing of gas to solid without passing the liquid state.
a. evaporation b. sublimation c. deposition d. vaporation
52. A type o reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a single product.
a. direct combination reaction c. combustion reaction
b. decomposition reaction d. displacement reaction
53. A technique for separating components of a mixture based on its different boiling points.
a. filtration b. evaporation c. distillation d. crystallization
54. A type of reaction where atoms and ions from two different compounds replace each other.
a. direct combination reaction c. decomposition reaction
b. double replacement reaction d. displacement reaction
55. The ability of metals to be drawn into fine wires.
a. elasticity b. ductility c. plasticity d. strength

56. The shaking of the earth’s crust caused by a sudden release of energy.
a. erosion b. volcanic eruption c. earthquake d. epicenter
57. The study of the relationship of organisms with the environment.
a. ecosystem b. ecological niche c. ecology d. environmental science
58. An ecological unit consisting of the biotic and abiotic factors.
a. ecology d. ecosystem c. ecological niche d. ecological systems
59. The theory that earthquake occurs when the stress building up between two lithosphere plates
lithospheric places overcome the force friction, causing the plates to move.
a. theory of earth c. plate tectonic theory
b. continental drift theory d. elastic-bound theory
60. The ability of an object to be stretched then go back to its original form.
a. elastic b. malleability c. brittleness d. ductility
61. A physical quantity whose unit is ampere.
a. volts b. resistance c. electric wire d. electric current
62. A solution or substance in solution consisting of various chemicals that can carry electric
charges.
a. isotonic b. electrolyte c. hypotonic d. hypertonic
63. A substance that cannot be separated into simpler substances by any ordinary means; made
up of only one kind of atom.
a. proton b. molecules c. particles d. element
64. A galaxy in which the stars fill an ellipsoidal volume; a galaxy dominated by population II
stars.
a. elliptical galaxy b. Andromeda galaxy
c. triangulum galaxy d. milkyway
65. This is called the capacity to do work.
a. strength b. perseverance c. energy d. fatigue
66. A cell organelle made up of membranes that transport materials produced by the cell.
a. ribosomes b. endoplasmic reticulum
 c. nucleus d. mitochondria
67. The point on Earth’s surface directly above the focus of an earthquake.
a. mantle b. core c. crust d. epicenter
68. A process by which Earth materials are moved by natural agents, like water, wind, human
and ice.
a. erosion b. typhoon c. flood d. landslide
69. A cell that contains a membrane-bound nucleus and organelles.
a. eukaryotic cells b. cell membrane c. mitochondria d. cytoplasm
70. The changing of water into water vapor; sometimes called vaporization; conversion of liquid
into gas.
a. evaporation b. condensation c. sublimation d. precipitation
71. Any bright planet, usually Venus, seen in the western sky after sunset.
a. morning star b. dwarf star c. large star d. evening star
72. A change in organisms over a long period of time.
a. diversity b. revolution c. evolution d. all of the above
73. A break or crack in the earth’s crust along which movement occurs.
A. tectonic b. fault c. earthquake d. ridge push
74. A process of separating the insoluble solid from the liquid substance by allowing the liquid to
pass through a porous material.
a. distillation b. decantation c. filtration d. evaporation
75. A meteor with brightness comparable to Venus and usually leaves a smoke trail as it falls
from the sky.
a. asteroids b. meteorite c. stars d. fireball
76. The ability to bend without breaking.
a. equilibrium b. malleability c. endurance d. flexibility
77. A series of organisms feeding on one another.
a. food chain b. photosynthesis c. ecosystem d. food web
78. An overlapping set of food chains
a. food chain b. photosynthesis c. ecosystem d. food web
79. A fuel formed millions of years ago from the remains of dead plants and animals; a
hydrocarbon deposit, such us petroleum, coal, or natural gas.
 a. gaseous b. fossil fuels c. solid fuels d. liquid fuels
80. A group of millions, or even billions of stars held together by gravity.
a. Milkyway b. galaxy c. constellation d. meteors
81. A state of matter that has low density, is easy compressible and expandable, and expands
spontaneously when place in a larger container.
a. gas b. plasma c. solid d. liquid
82. It is the study of heredity.
a. taxonomy b. geology c. paleontology d. genetics
83. It is the study of the earth’s surface and interior.
a. ecology b. geology c. physiology d. anatomy
84. The energy stored in the form of heat found in the earth’s interior.
a. geothermal energy b. mechanical energy
c. electrical energy d. thermal energy
85. The ability of earth’s atmosphere to absorb long heat waves from the earth allowing short
waves pass through.
a. ultraviolet b. green house effect c. ozone layer d. lithosphere
86. The specific place where an organism lives in an ecosystem.
a. diversity b. biodiversity c/. heredity d. habitat
87.The ability to oppose a change in shape or the ability to scratch another substance.
a. hardness b. brittleness c. ductility d. malleability
88. A sample of matter consisting of more than one pure substance and more than one phase.
a. colloid b. heterogeneous c. suspension d. homogeneous
89. A sample of matter consisting of more than one pure substance with properties that do not
vary within the sample.
a. colloid b. heterogeneous c. suspension d. homogeneous
90. The amount of moisture in air.
a. humidity b. frost c. fog d. clouds
91. The energy released as a result of water falling, or flowing downhill or by wave-differences,
under the influence of gravity to produce electricity.
a. thermal energy b. sound energy c. electrical energy d. hydroelectric energy
92. An alternative energy sources produced biologically or chemically using electrolysis of
water.
a. chemical energy b. thermal energy c. hydrogen power d. electrical energy

93. An enzymatic breaking up of polymers with the addition of water.

a. hydrolysis b. oxidation c. Isomerization d. All of the above
94. The part of the earth’s surface consisting of water.
a. atmosphere b. lithosphere c. hydrosphere d. mesosphere
95. The condition in which the pressure and gravitational force in a star balance each other;
prevents the star from collapsing or exploding.
a. motion energy b. hydrostatic equilibrium
c. chemical equilibrium d. neutral equilibrium
96. An instrument used to measure humidity.
a. hydrometer b. anemometer c. Thermometer d. hygrometer
97. A testable explanation for an observation.
a. problem b. hypothesis c. observation d. analysis
98. A rock formed from the solidification of magma or lava.
a. sedimentary rock b. metamorphic rock c. igneous rock d. granite
99. The tendency of an object to resist any change in its state of motion.
a. inertia b. friction c. gravity d. motion
100. An attempt to interpret or explain an observation.
a. inference b. interference c. diffraction d. standing wave
101. The innermost part of the earth, solid part composed mainly of iron and nickel.
a. crust b. mantle c. outer core d. inner core
102. A property that does not change when the amount of sample changes.
a. extensive property b. intensive property
c. physical property d. chemical property
103. A type of bond wherein the positively charged Meta is attracted to a negatively charged
nonmetal, formed due to the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
a. metallic bond b. covalent bond c. ionic bond d. polar covalent bond
104. A complex atmospheric zone of ionized gases extends between 50 and 400 miles above
earth’s surface.
a. lithosphere b. mesosphere c. stratosphere d. ionosphere
105. A type o f galaxy that does not have any symmetric structure.
a. milky way b. meteors c. Regular galaxy d. irregular galaxy
106. The energy of an object possesses by virtue of its motion.
a. kinetic energy b. potential energy c. friction d. motion
107. A law that states that energy cannot be created nor destroyed it can only be transformed.
a. law of universal gravitation b. law of acceleration
c. law of inertia c. law of conservation of energy
108. A law that states that matter cannot be created or destroyed, it only changes form.
a. law of conversation of mass c. law of universal gravitation
b. law of conversation of energy d. law of acceleration
109. A law that states that the composition of a substance is always the same, regardless of how
the substance was made or where the substance is found.
a. law of conservation of mass b. law of constant composition
c. law of definite proportion d. law of multiple proportion
110. A law that states that when two pure substances react to form a compound, they do so in a
definite proportion by mass.
a. law of conservation of mass b. law of constant composition
c. law of definite proportion d. law of multiple proportion
111. A law that states that when one element can combine with another to form more than one
compound, the mass ratios of the elements in the compounds are simple whole-number ratios of
each other.
a. law of conservation of mass b. law of constant composition
c. law of definite proportion d. law of multiple proportion
112. A representation of atom using dots and the elements symbol.
a. Lewis electron dot structure b. valence electron
c. electron configuration d. Lewis symbol
113. The amount of time a living thing survives.
a. life cycle b. photosynthesis c. life span d. habitat
114. Unit of distance light travels in a year. It is equal to 9.5 trillion kilometers.
a. lightning b. lighter c. light year d. lightning buzz year
115. A state of matter that has a high density and is incompressible compared to a gas, they take
a shape of their container but do not expand to fill the container as gases do.
a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. plasma
116. An eclipse in which the earth passes between the moon and the sun such that the moon falls
within the earth shadow.
a. solstice b. equinox c. solar eclipse d. lunar eclipse
117. A region in space represented by the magnetic force transmitted from one body to the other.
a. magnitude b. magnet c. magnetic field d. intensity
118. The ability to be hammered into thin sheets.
a. solubility b. ductility c. brittleness d. malleability
119. The layer of rock in earth directly below the crust to about a distance of 2,850 km.
a. crust b. mantle c. inner core d. outer core
120. The amount of matter in an object.
a. mass b. speed c. distance d. time
121. Anything that has mass and volume.
a. speed b. distance c. matter d. time
122. A collection of quantitative data. The comparison of the quantity of interest with a standard
called a unit. The comparison is never perfect.
a. speed b. distance c. measurement d. volume
123. The energy possessed by an object due to its motion.
a. electrical energy b. geothermal energy c. chemical energy d. mechanical energy
124. The layer of the atmosphere located between the stratosphere and the ionosphere, where
temperature drops rapidly with increasing height.
a. mesosphere b. stratosphere c. lithosphere d. Troposphere
125. An element that have properties of both metals and non-metals.
a. metalloid b. metal c. meteors d. colloid
126. An element that are good conductors of heat and electricity usually have high density,
melting point are ductile and malleable.
a. metalloid b. metal c. meteors d. colloid
127. A rock formed by the effect of heat, pressure, and chemical action on other rocks.
a. igneous rock b. metamorphic rock c. sedimentary rock d. rock cycle
128. An event in which many meteors falls from the same part of the sky in a short interval.
a. meteor b. meteorite c. meteor shower d. asteroids

129. The solid remain of a meteor that fall on earth.

a. meteors b. meteorite c. meteor shower d. asteroids
130. A scientist who studies processes in the earth atmosphere that cause weather conditions.
a. meteorite b. meteor c. meteorology d. meteorologists
131. The study of the earth’s atmosphere, weather and climate change.
a. meteorology b. meteorologists c. meteor d. meteorite
132. A shooting star; a bright trail of light produced when a solid particle enters the atmosphere.
a. meteorology b. meteorologists c. meteor d. meteorite
133. The study of microorganisms.
a. meteorology b. microbiology c. psychology d. biology
134. A naturally occurring inorganic compound that has a definite chemical composition.
a. matter b. chemical energy c. physical property d. mineral
135. A cell organelle that generates energy; the site of cellular respiration.
a. mitochondrion b. chloroplast c. eukaryotic cell d. nucleus
136. A heterogeneous substance that can either be colloid, suspension, solution.
a. element b. mixture c. metal d. compound

137. An ecological relationship wherein both participating organisms are benefited.

a. commensalism b. parasitism c. mutualism d. symbiosis
138. Any material removed from the earth and used by people.
a. ecosystem b. environment c. natural resources d. ecology
139. The energy stored inside the nuclei of an atom; the energy released when atoms either split
or join together.
a. thermal energy b. nuclear energy c. geothermal energy d. electrical energy
140. The splitting of a heavy atom into smaller fragments when they struck by a neutron.
a. nuclear energy b. nuclear fusion c. nuclear change d. nuclear fission
141. The molten interior of the earth mostly made up of iron and nickel.
a. outer core b. inner core c. crust d. mantle
142. The single landmass of the continents before they drifted apart.
a. continental drift b. Pangaea c. supercontinent d. map

143. The lighter part of a shadow cast by a body.

a. solar eclipse b. lunar eclipse c. penumbra d. solstice
144. The process by which green plants and some organisms convert light energy into chemical
energy.
a. chloroplast b. photosynthesis c. chlorophyll d. cellular respiration
145. The fourth state of matter, a high energy, electrically charge mixture of ions and electrons.
a. plasma b. solid c. liquid d. gas
146. The process by which water returns to the earth in the form of rain, snow, sleet or hail.
a. evaporation b. condensation c. transpiration d. precipitation
147. The site of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cell.
a. endoplasmic reticulum b. mitochondria c. nucleus d. ribosome
148. A rock formed when sediments are cemented together.
a. igneous rock b. metamorphic rock c. sedimentary rock d. rock cycle
149. An instrument used to measure intensity of an earthquake, also detect and record seismic
waves.
a. pictograph b. speedometer c. anemometer d. seismograph
150. An eclipse that occurs when the earth falls on the moon’s shadow.
a. solar eclipse b. lunar eclipse b. penumbra d. solstice
151. The ability of matter to be dissolved in another material.
a. solubility b. ductility c. brittleness d. malleability
152. A homogeneous mixture made of a solute and a solvent.
a. element b. solution c. compound d. water
153. Any factor or condition in the environment that causes an organism to respond.
a. metacognition b. schema c. stimulus d. nucleus
154. The layer of the atmosphere characterized by a slight temperature increase and absence of
clouds.
 a. lithosphere b. mesosphere c. stratosphere d. ionosphere
155. The conversion of a solid directly into gas, without melting into a liquid first.
a. transpiration b. sublimation c. evaporation d. condensation

156. A heterogeneous mixture that has large, visible particles that eventually settle in its
container.
a. suspension b. solution c. compound d. water
157. The total kinetic and potential energy of the molecules.
a. thermal energy b. nuclear energy c. geothermal energy d. electrical energy
158. The lowest layer of the atmosphere that characterized by clouds and weather, temperature
generally decreases with increasing altitude.
a. lithosphere b. mesosphere c. stratosphere d. troposphere
159. The change in the phase from liquid to gas.
a. vaporization b. evaporation c. condensation d. sublimation
160. An opening in the earth’s crust through which an eruption takes place.
a. earthquake b. volcano c. volcanic eruption d. erosion
161. Calculate the density of a 150 g rectangular block with the following dimension; length=3.0
cm, width= 2.0 cm, height=2.0
a. 13 g/cm3 b. 3 g/cm3 c. 18 g/cm3 d. 16 g/cm3
162. The volume of the aquarium in your classroom is 1.020 cm3. It contains seawater with a
density of 1.03 cm3. Find the mass of the water in your tank.
a. 2.5 g b. 10 g c. 5.5 g d. 1.05 g
163. What is the volume of a tank that can hold 220 g of ethanol whose density is 0.659 g/cm3.
a. 365.67 g/cm3 b. 398.45 g/cm3 c. 324.87 g/cm3 d. 333.84 g/cm3
164. Find the mass of an irregularly shaped solid with a volume of 33 mL and a density of 1.6
g/mL.
a. 52.8 g/mL b. 54 g/mL c. 67 g/mL d. 50 g/mL
165. Convert 35 oC in oF.
a. 105 b. 95 c. 75 d. 88
166. Convert 95 oF in oC.
a. 15 b. 45 c. 35 d. 85
167. Convert 80 oC in K.
a. 256 K b. 353 K c. 400 K c. 550 K

168. A boy exerts 25 N in lifting a box from the floor to a shelf 2 m above. How much work was
done by the boy on the box?
a. 70 J b. 20 J c. 50 J d. 40 J
169. Coming from school, Elmer pushes the gate of their house by exerting a force of 25 N. The
gate moves forward by 0,25 m. How much work did Elmer do?
a. 100 J b. 50 J c. 40 J d. 30 J
170. Dana lifts a 10.0 N box to a height of 2 m from the ground. How much work did Dana do?
a. 7.87 J b. 6.25 J c. 9.78 J d. 10 J
171. Which of the four fundamental force is the weakest in terms of strength
a. gravitational force b. electromagnetic force
c. electromagnetic force d. strong nuclear force
172. What do you call the force that opposes the motion between two objects in contact with
each other?
a. friction b. tension c. weight d. pushing force
173. Is it the measure of how much a machine multiplies force?
a. efficiency b. power c. mechanical advantage d. output work
174. What kind of simple machine is a nutcracker?
a. wedge b. inclined plane c. screw d. lever
175. If Mario pushes a table by exerting 100 N force to a distance 5 m forward, how many much
work does Mario do?
a. 5 J b. 100 J c. 500 J d. 5, 000 J
176. From problem 175, if it takes Mario 5 seconds to do the job, what is his power rating?
a. 5 W b. 500 W c. 100 W d. 2, 500 w
177. Which of the following is not a capability of a simple machine?
a. It can multiply force b. It can multiply work
c. It can multiply distance d. It can change the direction of a force
178. Which of the following simple machines changes the direction of the force?
a. screwdriver b. pulley c. door knob d. wheel barrow
179. Which of the following is the unit of power in SI?
a. newton b. kilogram c. joule d. watt

180. You have done work if __________.

a. you applied a force on an object b. you did something difficult
c. you exerted force on an object d. you exerted a force and you got tired
181. Which of the following simple machine is not a lever?
a. crowbar b. steering wheel c. scissors d. wheel barrow
182. Which instruments measures the magnitude of a force?
a. meter stick b. thermometer c. beam balance d. spring balance
183. The unit dyne-cm is equal to ____________>
a. newton b. horsepower c. erg d. watt
184. The weight of an object is 10 newtons. What is the minimum force needed to lift it?
a. 9.8 N b. 10 N c. 20 N d. 100 N
185. Which of the following is not a contact force?
a. push b. weight c. pull d. friction
186. A ball is rolling on the floor. It covers 15 m in 10.0 s. What is its speed as it moves?
a. 3.65 m/s b. 1.5 m/s c. 4.5 m/s d. 2.5 m/s
187. A kangaroo is hopping at a speed of 15 m/s. How far would it be in 3.0 m/s?
a. 45 m b. 25 m c. 35 m d. 65 m
188. What is the velocity of a police car that moves 450 m east in 25 seconds?
a. 18 m/s, east b. 20 m/s, west c. 14 m/s north d. 12 m/s
south
189. A car is initially moving at 5.0 m/s. It is accelerating uniformly by 2.0 m/s2. How fast will it
be moving after 10.0 s?
a. 10.2 m/s b. 55 m/s c. 25 m/s d. 15 m/s
190. If a rolling ball covers 4 m in 8 s, what is its average speed m/s?
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4
191. If a direction is added to speed, what quantity is formed?
a. distance b. velocity c. displacement d. time
192. What distance would be covered by a moving vehicle in 1 min if its speed is 3 m/s?
 a. 3 m b. 2 m c. 60 m d. 180 m
193. Mario is initially at rest. He walks 4 m forward then 2 m backward. What is the total
distance he travelled?
a. 0 m b. 2 m c. 4 m d. 6 m
194. What is the magnitude of Mario’s displacement in question 193?
a. 0 m b. 2 m c. 4 m d. 6 m
195. Which of the following is not a correct expression of a unit of acceleration?
a. m/s2 b. m/s/s c. km/h/s d. km/m/s
196. A ball with a mass of 10.0 kg is moved from the floor to a table with a height of 0.50 m.
What is the potential energy of the ball after it was transferred to the table?
a. 28 J b. 65 J c. 69 J d. 75 J
197. A cart is loaded with rocks and pulled at constant speed along an inclined plane to the
height of a seat top. If the mass of the loaded cart is 5.00 m, what is the POTENTIAL ENERGY
of the loaded cart at height of the seat top?
a. 17.9 J b. 15 .5 J c. 13.6 J d. 17.2 J
198. Determine the kinetic energy of a 1,500 kg roller coaster car that is moving with a speed of
25.0 m/s?
a. 700,000 J b. 469,000 J c. 200,000 J d. 100,000 J
199. A platform driver has a kinetic energy of 17,000 J just prior to hitting the pool. If the
driver’s mass is 45,0 kg, what is her speed before hitting the pool?
a. 27 m/s b. 32 m/s c. 45 m/s d. 67 m/s
200. It is the study of animals.
a. botany b. zoology c. paleontology c. geology
 ENGLISH ANSWER KEY SCIENCE ANSWER KEY
1. B 41. D 81. C 121. B 161. B 1. C 41. D 81. A 121. C 161. A
2. B 42. C 82. A 122. D 162. B 2. A 42. A 82. D 122. C 162. D
3. A 43. B 83. D 123. C 163. B 3. C 43. C 83. B 123. D 163. D
4. A 44. D 84. D 124. A 164. A 4. B 44. C 84. A 124. A 164. A
5. C 45. A 85. D 125. A 165. B 5. D 45. D 85. B 125. A 165. B
6. A 46. C 86. B 126. A 166. D 6. C 46. A 86. D 126. B 166. C
7. C 47. A 87. C 127. B 167. A 7. A 47. B 87. A 127. B 167. B
8. B 48. D 88. C 128. C 168. D 8. B 48. D 88. B 128. C 168. C
9. D 49. B 89. A 129. D 169. A 9. D 49. A 89. D 129. B 169. B
10. C 50. C 90. A 130. D 170. D 10. A 50. A 90. A 130. D 170. B
11. C 51. A 91. A 131. D 171. A 11. B 51. B 91. D 131. A 171. A
12. D 52. D 92. B 132. A 172. B 12. A 52. A 92. C 132. C 172. A
13. A 53. B 93. B 133. B 173. B 13. B 53. C 93. A 133. B 173. C
14. D 54. A 94. A 134. C 174. A 14. A 54. B 94. C 134. D 174. D
15. A 55. B 95. D 135. D 175. B 15. C 55. B 95. B 135. A 175. C
16. D 56. C 96. D 136. C 176. B 16. B 56. C 96. D 136. B 176. C
17. A 57. B 97. D 137. B 177. A 17. C 57. C 97. B 137. C 177. D
18. A 58. A 98. A 138. D 178. D 18. D 58. B 98. C 138. C 178. B
19. A 59. D 99. B 139. C 179. D 19. A 59. D 99. A 139. B 179. A
20. B 60. D 100. A 140. D 180. A 20. C 60. A 100. A 140. D 180. C
21. D 61. D 101. C 141. D 181. A 21. B 61. D 101. D 141. A 181. C
22. B 62. A 102. D 142. D 182. D 22. A 62. B 102. B 142. B 182. C
23. C 63. B 103. D 143. C 183. C 23. A 63. D 103. C 143. C 183. A
24. B 64. C 104. B 144. C 184. B 24. C 64. A 104. D 144. B 184. B
25. A 65. A 105. C 145. D 185. B 25. A 65. C 105. D 145. A 185. B
26. B 66. D 106. A 146. B 186. B 26. C 66. B 106. A 146. D 186. B
27. C 67. B 107. D 147. C 187. D 27. D 67. D 107. D 147. C 187. A
28. B 68. D 108. C 148. B 188. C 28. A 68. A 108. A 148. C 188. A
29. C 69. A 109. B 149. B 189. B 29. B 69. A 109. B 149. D 189. C
30. B 70. D 110. C 150. B 190. A 30. D 70. A 110. C 150. A 190. B
31. B 71. D 111. B 151. B 191. C 31. C 71. D 111. D 151. A 191. C
32. C 72. C 112. A 152. D 192. D 32. D 72. C 112. A 152. B 192. A
33. C 73. C 113. A 153. D 193. B 33. A 73. B 113. C 153. C 193. C
34. C 74. B 114. C 154. A 194. A 34. C 74. C 114. C 154. C 194. D
35. D 75. A 115. D 155. A 195. D 35. B 75. D 115. B 155. B 195. C
36. D 76. A 116. C 156. C 196. A 36. B 76. D 116. D 156. A 196. D
37. D 77. D 117. D 157. C 197. B 37. B 77. A 117. C 157. A 197. D
38. B 78. C 118. D 158. A 198. B 38. C 78. C 118. D 158. D 198. B
39. C 79. C 119. C 159. D 199. B 39. A 79. B 119. B 159. A 199. A
40. B 80. B 120. B 160. B 200. A 40. D 80. B 120. A 160. B 200. B
 MATHEMATICS ANSWER KEY
1. C 81. D 121. B 161. B
2. C 82. A 122. D 162. C
3. D 83. D 123. C 163. B
4. C 84. C 124. D 164. C
5. B 85. A 125. D 165. A
6. B 86. B 126. D 166. C
7. C 87. C 127. D 167. E
8. C 88. B 128. B 168. D
9. C 89. D 129. C 1. A
10. C 90. D 130. B 2. B
11. C 91. D 131. B 3. E
12. B 92. C 132. A 4. C
13. B 93. D 133. D 5. C
14. B 94. A 134. D 6. D
15. D 95. A 135. C 7. D
16. A 96. D 136. A 8. E
17. A 97. B 137. C 9. A
18. A 98. C 138. D 10. D
19. A 99. D 139. D 11. E
20. B 100. D 140. B 12. B
21. A 101. D 141. D 13. A
22. D 102. D 142. A 14. A
23. D 103. D 143. A 15. A
24. D 104. D 144. B 16. A
25. B 105. B 145. A 17. C
26. A 106. C 146. D 18. E
27. A 107. D 147. D 19. C
28. D 108. D 148. B 20. E
29. D 109. C 149. D 21. E
30. D 110. D 150. D 22. A
31. A 111. B 151. B 23. D
32. B 112. A 152. C 24.. E
33. C 113. A 153. D 25. A
34. D 114. B 154. D 26. A
35. A 115. D 155. B 27. C
36. D 116. B 156. D 28. D
37. A 117. C 157. D 29. C
38. C 118. E 158. D 30. C
39. A 119. B 159. B 31. A
40. C 120. D 160. A 32. A
41. A
42. C
43. A
44. B
45. A
46. C
47. A
48. D
49. B
50. C
51. D
52. A
53. D
54. B
55. C
56. B
57. D
58. A
 MAAP Entrance Exam
Reviewer

The Maritime Academy of Asia and the Pacific (MAAP) is today one of the
best maritime schools in the Philippines.

It provides high-quality maritime education and training for its cadets, making
it one of the best sailors in the world. For you to be a student here, you must
pass the MAAP Entrance Exam.

MAAP is a non-profit maritime institution owned and managed by

the Philippine Naval Officers and the Mariners Union (AMOSUP).

At Kamaya Point, Alas-Asin, Mariveles, Bataan, MAAP offers a Bachelor of

Science degree in Marine Transportation and a Bachelor of Science degree
in Marine Engineering.

Eligibility for Maritime Academy of Asia and the Pacific MAAP

Admission Requirements for MAAP To become an aspiring member of the

Academy, a candidate must meet or fulfill the following standards:
 Applicants must pass/meet standards covering four stages:

 MAAP Entrance examination inclusive of the IQ/ aptitude/ emotional/

intelligence/ personality/ psychological/ neuro-psychiatric tests
 Personal interview to be conducted by the BOA members
 MAAP Medical criteria inclusive of physical, drug, lungs, dental,
laboratory, audio test, and color blindness test (ISHIHARA test), visual acuity
for far vision should be at least 20/30.
 Orientation training for two months (April-May) inclusive of refresher
classes in Math and English coupled with semi-regimental training

Qualification Requirements
1. Male or female, Single
2. Natural Born Filipino
3. Physically fit
4. Morally upright and has no derogatory record
5. Born from 01-January-1996 to 31-December-2001
6. Eligible applicants must be any one of the following
o High School Graduates(old basic education curriculum)
o College Level
o Senior High School Graduate/Graduating Student
o ALS Passer
7. Minimum height of 5 ft. 4 in. (162.5 cm) for MALE and 5 ft. 2 in. (157.5
cm) for FEMALE applicants
8. Has a GPA of at least 83%
9. Has never been officially admitted at MAAP

NOTE: Strictly comply with qualification requirements. Inaccurate records may

disqualify an applicant.

Eligible Nationality
MAAP Exam Scholarships is for local students from the Philippines.
 Benefits of Being a Cadet in MAAP
1. Scholarship grant
2. Freeboard and lodging
3. Insured while enrolled in the Academy
4. In-house shipboard training
5. Personality, character, and leadership development through physical
fitness, emotional literacy, NROTC, and varied extracurricular activities
6. Use of modern equipment and facilities
7. Gainful employment onboard modern vessels of foreign shipping
companies

Application Requirements
1. 2 copies of recent 2 x 2 colored pictures
2. Payment of non-refundable processing fee of P 300.00 in cash
3. Photocopy of birth certificate
4. Photocopy of old BEC High School or Senior High School Diploma, if
Senior High School/ High School (old BEC) graduate
5. A photocopy of the School Registration Form, if College Level
6. Photocopy of certification from your principal that you are a graduating
from Senior High School if Senior High School graduating student
7. Photocopy of ALS Certificate of Rating, if ALS Passer
8. A photocopy of valid School ID
9. Photocopy of the latest School Report Card with at least has an of GPA
of 83%

 The non-submission These documents may constitute a ground for exclusion.

Application Procedures
1. Get MAAP scholarship application forms from any of the testing/filing
centers, Naval ROTC units, or PCG stations nationwide
2. Submit the duly accomplished application form with the requirements to
designated filing centers either by mail or in person
3. Receive admission slip either by mail or in person

NOTE: Registration for the entrance exam begins at 6:30 am and ends at 9:30
am