Routing and Switching Technology Question Library: Haina
Routing and Switching Technology Question Library: Haina
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Routing and Switching Technology Question Library Contents
Contents
3 Ethernet
Framing ............................................................................................................................................ 9
3.1 Question ........................................................................................................................................................................ 9
3.2 Reference Answer ....................................................................................................................................................... 20
4 IP Addressing............................................................................................................................... 21
4.1 Question ...................................................................................................................................................................... 21
4.2 Reference Answer ....................................................................................................................................................... 33
1.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following network topologies are the widely used
backbone network topologies? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Full Mesh
B.Plane Hierarchical structure
C.Plane and Space Hierarchical structure
D.Multi-homing structure
2. (Multiple Choice) The metropolitan area network which is located between backbone
network and access network consists of ( ). (Select 3 Answers)
A.Carrier layer
B.Core layer
C.Convergence layer
D.Access layer
3. (Single Choice) In a complete IP network, which of the following networks does a Layer 2
network under the service access control point belong to?
A.Backbone network
B.Metropolitan area network (MAN)
C.Access network
D.Core network
4. (Multiple Choice) When a backbone network uses dual planes, which of the following
statements are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A.When a fault occurs on one plane, the other plane cannot function as the backup of the
faulty plane.
B.The two planes generally carry different services.
C.In normal situations, the services on the two planes do not affect each other.
D.Compared with a dual-plane structure, a hierarchical plane is more reliable.
2.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Keyboard is used to input data only. Which of the following is the
transmission mode of the keyboard?
A.Simplex mode
B.Half-duplex mode
C.Full-duplex mode
D.Auto negotiation
2. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following communication types are defined based on
information interaction between the transmitter and the receiver? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Simplex
B.Half-duplex
C.Duplex
D.Auto-negotiation
3. (Single Choice) Coaxial cables can be classified into different types by diameter. One of
these types of the coaxial cables is suitable for relatively large LAN because it supports long
distance and provides high reliability. Which of the following coaxial cables belongs to this
type?
A.Coaxial cable with a large diameter
B.Coaxial cable with a small diameter
C.10-core coaxial cable
D.16-core coaxial cable
4. (Single Choice) A transmission medium consists of glass fibers and a shield layer. It is free
from interference of magnetic signals and provides high-speed and long-distance transmission.
But such a matter is very expensive. What is this matter?
A.Coaxial cable
B.Twisted pair cable
C.Optical fiber
D.Waveguide fiber
5. (Multiple Choice) Which device operates at physical layer?
A.Switch
B.Hub
C.Router
D.Firewall
6. (Multiple Choice) What are transmission media of physical layer? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Fiber
B.Twisted pair cable
C.Radio wave
D.Ethernet
7. (Multiple Choice) What are wiring standards for physical layer related to LAN? (Select 3
Answers)
A.100Base-T
B. HDLC
C.100Base-FX
D.1000Base-SX/LX
8. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are physical interfaces? (Select 4 Answers)
A.Dialer interface
B.Voice interface
C.Serial interface
D.Sub interface
E.CE1/PRI interface
F. Virtual interface template
G.. ISDN BRI interface
9. (Single Choice) Which of the following fibers allows for multiangular incidence of
“multiple” beams of light for transmission?
A.4-core fiber
B.“Single”-mode fiber
C.Multimode fiber
D.Active fiber
10. (Single Choice) To improve a twisted pair cable's capability to withstand magnetic
interference, which of the following layers can be added as a shield layer of the twisted pair
cable?
A.STP
B.UTP
C.BTP
D.RPR
11. (Single Choice) Both analog transmission and digital transmission can use twisted pair
cables. Which of the following statement is true?
A.The communication distance increases with the diameter of the conductor.
B.The communication distance decreases with the diameter of the conductor.
C.The communication distance is independent of the diameter of the conductor.
D.The communication distance increases with the diameter of the conductor when the
communication distance exceeds 50 km.
12. (Single Choice) In Ethernet standard, which of the following mechanisms is used to avoid
collision when different nodes transmit packets simultaneously?
A.CSMA/CA
B.CSMA/DA
C.CSMA/CD
D.CSMA/AC
13. (Single Choice) The distance limit of category 5 UTP wiring is ( ).
A.100 meters
B.200 meters
C.50 meters
D.185 meters
14. (Single Choice) Two computers are connected to each other by using twisted pair cable.
The correct wiring sequence is ( ).
A.Computers can not be directly connected with twisted pair cable
B.1--1, 2--2, 3--3, 4--4, 5--5, 6--6, 7--7, 8--8
C.1--3, 2--6, 3--1, 4--4, 5--5, 6--2, 7--7, 8--8
D.1--2, 2--1, 3--6, 4--4, 5--5, 6--3, 7--7, 8-8
15. (Single Choice) A PC is connected to router's Ethernet port through its network interface
card. What type of cable should be used to connect these two interfaces?
A.Cross cable
B.Straight cable
C.Console cable
D.Backup cable
16. (Single Choice) How long can a fast Ethernet cable 100BaseTX or 100BaseT4 transmit a
signal?
A.100m
B.550m
C.1000m
D.2000m
17. (Single Choice) How long can a Gigabit Ethernet cable 1000BaseT transmit a signal?
A.100m
B.550m
C.1000m
D.2000m
18. (Multiple Choice) Which transmission rates does an Ethernet allow for? (Select 3
Answers)
A.10M
B.100M
C.1000M
D.155M
19. (Single Choice) After receiving a data frame from any port, a hub forwards it to any other
port.
T.True
F.False
20. (Single Choice) Which communication mode does a hub work in?
A.Simplex
B.Half-duplex
C.Full-duplex mode
D.Auto-negotiation
21. (Single Choice) Which type of Ethernet uses hubs?
A.Star Ethernet
B.Shared Ethernet
C.Switched Ethernet
D.Token ring Ethernet
22. (Multiple Choice) The physical medium used by Ethernet include ( ). (Select 3
Answers)
A.Coaxial cable
B.Twisted pair cable
C.Optical fiber
D.V.35 cable
23. (Single Choice) multiple PCs are connected to the same hub through twisted pair cables.
What's its logical topology structure?
A.Star
B.Tree
C.Mesh
D.Ring
E.Bus
24. (Single Choice) Under Which of the following circumstances, “multiple” work stations
belong to the same collision domain?
A.“multiple” workstations are connected to a hub through twisted pair cables
B.“multiple” workstations are connected to a LAN switch through twisted pair cables
3 Ethernet Framing
3.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) A complete data communication system includes ( )
A.Sender
B.Receiver
C.Harddisk
D.Message
E.Protocol
2. (Single Choice) The ( ) is the physical path along which a message passes.
A.Sender
B.Receiver
C.Harddisk
D.Message
E.Protocol
3. (Multiple Choice) Network topology type includes: (Select 4 Answers)
A.Bus
B.Star
C.Tree
D.Peer-to-peer
E.Mesh
4. (Single Choice) Which of the following network topologies has the highest reliability?
A.Bus
B.Star
C.Ring
D.Mesh
5. (Multiple Choice) According to the scope of the geographical area,network type includes?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.Campus network
B.LAN
C.WAN
D.Enterprise network
6. (Single Choice) Which organizations drafts RFC (Request for Comments)?
A.IEEE
B.ITU-T
C.IETF
D.ISO
7. (Single Choice) Which of the following standard organizations has defined the protocol for
LAN such as 802 series protocols?
A.IEEE
B.ITU-T
C.IETF
D.ETSI
8. (Single Choice) Which network topology has risk of whole network failure when a link is
broken?
A.Mesh
B.Bus
C.Star
D.Tree
9. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following network topologies consist of redundant links
between any two nodes? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Mesh
B.Star
C.Tree
D.Bus
E.Ring
10. (Single Choice) In data communications, the data format must be determined and agreed
by the information creator and the information receiver before the data is transmitted.
T. True
F. False
11. (Multiple Choice) The most significant feature of a local area network (LAN) is that the
LAN is intended for only one organization and is geographically limited, allowing
interconnections of a limited number of stations. Which of the following transmission media
are most common to a LAN? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Fiber
B.Coaxial cable
C.Twisted pair cable
D.ADSL
12. (Multiple Choice) The OSI reference model defines a simple hierarchical network model
for a computer network. Which of the following standardization organizations develops the
OSI reference model?
A.ISO
B.IEEE
C.ITU
D.IETF
13. (Single Choice) A network provides data communication services for a relatively large
geographical area and is mainly used to interconnect LANs. Which network type does this
network belong to?
A.Large LAN
B.Wide area network (WAN)
C.Metropolitan area network (MAN)
D.Backbone network
14. (Single Choice) The bus and star topologies, which are frequently used in a LAN, refer to
the physical connection types rather than the logical structure of the network.
T.True
F.False
15. (Single Choice) When a node transmits data over a network medium, the data is
transmitted to all the nodes on the network. Which topology does this network use?
A.Star
B.Bus
C.Tree
D.Ring
16. (Single Choice) A topological structure has a central control point to enable easy network
design and equipment installation. The network media connect to the area where workstations
reside through the hub or switch at the central control point. The disadvantage of such a
structure is that a fault on the hub or switch results in a “single”-point fault. Which topology
does this type of LAN usually use?
A.Star
B.Bus
C.Tree
D.Ring
17. (Multiple Choice) As a device for converting signals between an edge system and a
communications system, a modem is essential in a WAN. A modem is connected to a serial
port on a router. Which two of the following transmission modes does the serial port work in?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.Synchronous
B.Asynchronous
C.Switching
D.Routing
18. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding LAN features?
A.High transmission efficiency and high reliability
B.The structure is simple and easy to be constructed.
C.Extensive coverage
D.Large coverage scale
19. (Single Choice) In OSI reference model, OSI stands for ( ).
A.Organization Standard Institute
B.Organization Standard Interconnection
C.Open System Internet
D.Open System Interconnection
20. (Single Choice) How many layers are included in OSI reference model?
A.3
B.5
C.6
D.7
21. (Single Choice) According to OSI reference model, when a packet is transmitted from
upper layer to lower layer, the header will be ( )
A.Added
B.Removed
C.Rearranged
D.Modified
22. (Single Choice) In OSI reference model, Transport Layer is located at layer ( ).
A.3
B.4
C.6
D.7
23. (Single Choice) In OSI reference model, which layer resides at the bottom?
A.Data link layer
B.Application layer
C.Physical layer
D.Network layer
24. (Multiple Choice) According to OSI reference model, which layer defines mechanical,
electrical, functional and procedural functions to realize data transmission?
A.Transport layer
B.Data link layer
C.Network layer
D.Physical layer
25. (Single Choice) The PDU (Protocol Data Unit) that resides at physical layer is called
( )
A.Frame
B.Packet
C.Segment
D.Binary bit flow
26. (Single Choice) The PDU (Protocol Data Unit) that resides at data link layer is called
( ).
A.Binary bit flow
B.Frame
C.Packet
D.Segment
27. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following protocols reside at data link layer? (Select 3
Answers)
A.PPP
B.HDLC
C.IP
D.IEEE 802.3
28. (Multiple Choice) Data link layer has two sub-layers, they are ( ) (Select 2 Answers)
A.PVC sub-layer
B.MAC sub-layer
C.LLC sub-layer
D.VC sub-layer
29. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following devices operate at data link layer? (Select 2
Answers)
A.Hub
B.Bridge
C.Switch
D.Router
E.Firewall
30. (Single Choice) Which of the following is the broadcast MAC address?
A.FF-FF-FF-FF
B.FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
C.00-00-00-00-00-00
D.00-00-00-FF-FF-FF
31. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following protocols are related to WAN? (Select 2
Answers)
A.Ethernet
B.PPP
C.HDLC
D.UDP
32. (Single Choice) According to OSI reference model, router operates at ( )
A.Physical layer
B.Data link layer
C.Network layer
D.Application layer
33. (Single Choice) The protocol data unit that resides at network layer is called ( ).
A.Segment
B.Packet
C.Bit
D.Frame
34. (Single Choice) According to OSI reference model, which of the following statements
about the function of network layer is correct?
A.Ensure the correctness of data transmission
B.Control the forwarding and routing of data packet
C.Control transmission of bit flow
D.Error correction and flow control
35. (Single Choice) The OSI reference model contains seven layers in two groups, namely,
upper layer and lower layer. The upper layer starts from ( ) to Layer 7 and is also called host
layer.
A.Layer 2
B.Layer 3
C.Layer 4
D.Layer 5
36. (Single Choice) The upper layer of the OSI reference model ensures that data is
transmitted properly. Which of the following at the upper layer is used to ensure this?
A.Hardware
B.Software
C.Both hardware and software
D.Either software or hardware
37. (Single Choice) In the OSI reference model, one layer is used to establish end-to-end
connections between hosts and checks for bit errors before data is transmitted or retransmitted.
Which of the following layers stands for this layer?
A.Data Link Layer
B.Physical Layer
C.Network Layer
D.Transport Layer
38. (Single Choice) In the OSI reference model, one layer defines the format of data to be sent
to the Application Layer in addition to providing data encryption, data encoding, and data
conversion. Which of the following layers stands for this layer?
A.Presentation Layer
B.Session Layer
C.Network Layer
D.Application Layer
39. (Single Choice) In the OSI reference model, one layer converts bits into bytes and then
into frames in addition to providing medium access. Which of the following layers stands for
this layer?
A.Data Link Layer
B.Session Layer
C.Network Layer
D.Application Layer
40. (Single Choice) In the OSI reference model, one layer transmits bit streams between
devices. Which of the following layers stands for this layer?
A.Data Link Layer
B.Physical Layer
C.Network Layer
D.Application Layer
41. (Multiple Choice) Which of the protocols are commonly used at the Data Link Layer of a
WAN? (Select 2 Answers)
A.802.2
B.802.4
C.HDLC
D.PPP
42. (Multiple Choice) Which layers in OSI reference model belong to upper layer, also called
as host layer and are responsible for data transmission and providing interface for user?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.Data link layer
B.Network layer
C.Transport layer
D.Session layer
E.Presentation layer
F. Application layer
43. (Multiple Choice) According to OSI reference model, which of the following presents the
correct layer sequence if packet goes from the bottom of the protocol stack to the top?
A.Physical, Data link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
B.Physical, Data link, Network, Transport, Presentation, Session, Application
C.Physical, Transport, Data link, Network, Presentation, Session, Application
D.Physical, Data link, Transport, Presentation, Network, Session, Application
44. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are functions of data link layer? (Select 4
Answers)
A.Physical address definition
B.Network topology discovery
C.Routing
D.Physical medium access
E.Error checking
45. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the advantages of OSI reference model?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.Divide the complex network into simple components
B.Make it impossible for network engineers to concentrate on design and development
of module functions
C.Define standard interface to realize compatibility for different manufacturers
D.Divide complicated network problem into simple problems to make it easier for
learning and operation
46. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following devices have functions of all seven layers of
OSI reference model? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Router
B.Email Server
C.Layer three switch
D.Network management server
47. (Multiple Choice) According to TCP/IP reference model, which of the following
application layer protocols are based on TCP? (Select 3 Answers)
A.HTTP
B.TFTP
C.FTP
D.SMTP
E.SNMP
48. (Single Choice) A MAC address has ( ) bits.
A.6
B.12
C.24
D.48
49. (Single Choice) MAC address consists of two parts: provider number and serial number.
The first 24 bits of MAC address represents provider number, which of the following is the
provider number of Huawei?
A.00e0fc
B.0010fe
C.000001
D.0003cf
63. (Single Choice) An L2 switch checks the MAC address forwarding table before it
forwards a packet. How does the L2 switch forward a packet that contains an address not
listed in the MAC address forwarding table?
A.Multicast
B.Broadcast
C.Unicast
D.Searching for routes
64. (Single Choice) The data field of standard Ethernet frame is ( ) bytes.
A.40-1500
B.46-1500
C.64-1500
D.64-1518
65. (Single Choice) Which of the following commands can be used to set Ethernet port so that
buffer will not overflow when congestion occurs?
A.Flow on
B.Flow-control
C.Flow control
D.Enable flow-control
66. (Multiple Choice) When congestion occurs on port working in full duplex mode, switch
will send "PAUSE" frame to the source to notify the source temporarily stop sending message
for a short while. Which of the following circumstances can use the "PAUSE" method for
flow control? (Select 3 Answers)
A.A pair of terminals
B.A switch and a terminal
C.Congestion that occurs on a stable network
D.The link between two switches
E.End to end flow control
67. (Single Choice) In a destination MAC address, which bit of the address determines
whether a frame is sent to a “single” station or a group of stations?
A.7
B.8
C.9
D.10
68. (Single Choice) Regardless of multicast or unicast, an L2 switch establishes its MAC
address table entries by means of MAC address learning.
T.True
F.False
4 IP Addressing
4.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) A typical IP Telecommunication Network include ( ) (Select 3
Answers)
A.Backbone Network
B.Convergence Network
C.Metropolitan Area Network
D.Access Network
2. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following networks are parts of a complete IP network?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.Backbone network
B.Metropolitan area network (MAN)
C.Access network
D.Mobile network
3. (Single Choice) Routers are a type of computer equipment for network interconnections.
Which layer of the OSI reference model does a router work at?
A.Session Layer
B.Data Link Layer
C.Network Layer
D.Application Layer
4. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following is the feature of IP protocol?
A.Reliable and connectionless oriented
B.Unreliable and connectionless oriented
C.Reliable and connection oriented
D.Unreliable and connection oriented
5. (Multiple Choice) In general, IP address consists of ( ) (Select 2 Answers)
A.Logic address
B.Link address
C.Network address
D.Host address
6. (Multiple Choice) Interconnected devices of a network are a combination of hardware and
software. Which layer are these devices generally located at?
A.Layer 2
B.Layer 3
C.Layer 4
D.Layer 5
7. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are routed protocols? (Select 2 Answers)
A.IP
B.OSPF
C.BGP
D.IPX
8. (Single Choice) In a TCP/IP protocol stack, the headers of packets at each layer are
removed in the decapsulation process in a specified manner. Which of the following is the
right manner?
A.From upper to lower
B.From lower to upper
C.From Transport Layer to the lower layers
D.From Network Layer to the upper layers
9. (Single Choice) The common address in an IP address is globally unique. Which of the
following addresses can be used repeated in a LAN?
A.Host address
B.Private address
C.Network address
D.Subnet address
10. (Single Choice) The default mask of class B address is ( ).
A.255.0.0.0
B.255.255.0.0
C.255.255.255.0
D.255.225.255.255
11. (Single Choice) How many hosts are available for a class B IP address?
A.254
B.16K
C.64K
D.2M
12. (Multiple Choice) The network address of 125.3.54.56 with default subnet mask is ( )
A.125.0.0.0
B.125.3.0.0
C.125.3.54.0
D.125.3.54.32
13. (Single Choice) Which of the following class has the first octet beginning with "1110"?
A.Class A
B.Class B
C.Class C
D.Class D
14. (Single Choice) Which of the following is reserved for loopback address?
A.127.0.0.0
B.130.0.0.0
C.164.0.0.0
D.200.0.0.0
15. (Single Choice) In TCP/IP protocol, what is the decimal range of the first octet of class A
address?
A.0---126
B.0---127
C.1---126
D.1---127
16. (Single Choice) For a traditional class C network without sub-netting, how many hosts are
available at most?
A.1024
B.65025
C.254
D.48
17. (Single Choice) The function of network number in IP address is ( )
A.Specify the network to which hosts belong
B.Identify the host in the network
C.Specify the network by which devices can communicate with each other
D.Specify the network node which belongs to subnet address
18. (Single Choice) Which of the following multicast address represents all routers and hosts
of the subnet?
A.224.0.0.1
B.224.0.0.2
C.224.0.0.3
D.224.0.0.9
19. (Single Choice) Which of the following multicast address represents all routers of the
subnet?
A.224.0.0.1
B.224.0.0.2
C.224.0.0.3
D.224.0.0.9
20. (Single Choice) An IP address whose network portion and host portion are all zero
represents ( )
A.Network address
B.Broadcast address of the specified network segment
C.All networks
D.Broadcast address of all the network nodes
21. (Single Choice) Which class does IP address 190.233.27.13 belong to?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
22. (Single Choice) The network address of the IP 190.233.27.13/16 is ( )
A.190.0.0.0
B.190.233.0.0
C.190.233.27.0
D.190.233.27.1
23. (Single Choice) Which of the following class address are multicast address ?
A.Class A
B.Class B
C.Class D
D.Class E
24. (Single Choice) The default mask length of the IP address 219.25.23.56 is ( )
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.32
25. (Multiple Choice) Which part of the IP address is used for sub-netting?
A.Network address
B.Host address
C.Subnet network segment
D.Default subnet mask
26. (Single Choice) For a class B address, how many bits at most can be used for sub-netting?
A.8
B.14
C.16
D.22
27. (Single Choice) The subnet mask of a class A address is 255.255.240.0. How many bits
are used for sub-netting?
A.4
B.5
C.9
D.12
28. (Single Choice) For a class C IP address, how many bits at most can be used for
sub-netting?
A.6
B.8
C.12
D.14
29. (Single Choice) How many hosts are available in the network 154.27.0.0 without
sub-netting?
A.254
B.1024
C.65,534
D.16,777,206
30. (Single Choice) What is the abbreviation of VLSM?
A.Variable Length Subnet Masking
B.Variable Length Shortest Masking
C.Very Long/Shortest Masking
D.Variable Long Subnet Masking
31. (Single Choice) How many hosts are available for the network segment 192.168.2.16/28?
A.16
B.8
C.15
D.14
E.7
32. (Single Choice) What is the binary format for subnet mask 255.255.192.0?
A.11111111 11110000 00000000 00000000
B.11111111 11111111 00001111 00000000
C.11111111 11111111 11000000 00000000
D.11111111 11111111 11111111 00000000
33. (Single Choice) What is the decimal value for binary 11001011?
A.171
B.193
C.203
D.207
34. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following route entries can be aggregate into 10.0.0.24/29?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.10.0.0.25/30
B.10.0.0.23/30
C.10.0.0.26/30
D.10.0.0.22/30
35. (Single Choice) IP addresses are layer-specific. A Layer 3 network device does not
necessarily store the IP address of every host; instead, it stores the IP address of each network
segment. This reduces the entries in a routing table to a great extent while improving routing
flexibility.
T.True
F.Flase
36. (Multiple Choice) An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits and is generally expressed in dotted
decimal notation, for example, 11.110.96.132. Such an IP address can also be expressed in
other notations. Which are they? (Select 2 Answers)
A.00001011.01101110.01100000.10000100
B.0b.6e.60.84
C.0.b.6.e.6.0.8.4
D.0.1011.0110.1110.0110.0.1000.0100
37. (Single Choice) In one IP address, the network part is constant and the host part consists
of all 1s. What does this IP address stand for?
A.Network address
B.Broadcast address of a specific network segment
C.All the networks
D.Broadcast addresses of all the nodes in the specified network
38. (Single Choice) When the host field of an IP address contains n bits, how many host
addresses are available in this network?
A.2n-1
B.2n-2
C.2n-1
D.2n
39. (Single Choice) The first three octets of a Class C IP address represent a network. Which
of the following binary numbers does the first byte of the three octets start with?
A.101
B.100
C.110
D.10
40. (Single Choice) Which of the following represents the subnet mask of the 192.168.1.7/28
IP address?
A.255.255.255.240
B.255.255.255.248
C.255.255.255.224
D.255.255.255.252
41. (Single Choice) Which of the following represents the network IP address corresponding
to the 192.168.1.7/28 IP address?
A.192.168.1.0
B.192.168.1.4
C.192.168.1.6
D.192.168.1.7
42. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding the address space of IP
sub-network are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Address space of sub-network must meet the practical requirements. At the same time,
redundancy is needed to ensure the extensibility
B.Since IP address borrowing method can be used to preserve IP address, the size of the
sub-network required may be smaller than actual requirement.
C.The size of the sub-network should be integral power of two make it easier for the
implementation of various policies.
D.All of the statements above are correct but none of them can be used in actual network
implementation.
43. (Single Choice) Which of the following is a valid IP host address?
A.127.2.3.5
B.1.255.255.2/24
C.225.23.200.9
D.192.240.150.255/24
44. (Single Choice) According to the OSI reference model, network layer address consistes
of ?
A.Network address and host address
B.Host address and network mask
C.Network address and network mask
D.Host address and host number
45. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements about IP host address is true?
A.Host portion can be either all one or all zero
B.Network portion can be either all one or all zero
C.Network portion can be neither all one nor all zero
D.IP host address can be either all one or all zero
46. (Single Choice) Which of the following is the correct host IP address?
A.224.0.0.5/24
B.127.32.5.62/8
C.202.112.5.0/24
D.162.111.111.111/16
47. (Single Choice) Which of the following situations would employ dedicated host address
as the source IP and destination IP for the data packets?
A.Broadcast
B.Multicast
C.Unicast
D.Directcast
48. (Single Choice) The subnet mask of the network segment 175.25.8.0/19 is ( )
A.255.255.0.0
B.255.255.224.0
C.255.255.24.0
D.The subnet mask varies according to the class of IP address
49. (Single Choice) The default subnet mask of the class D IP address is ( ) bits.
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.Class D address does not have the subnet mask
50. (Single Choice) 172.16.10.32/24 is ( )
A.Network address
B.Host address
C.Multicast address
D.Broadcast address
51. (Single Choice) The mask of a class C subnet is 255.255.255.224. How many bits are
available for sub-netting? How many subnets are available? How many hosts are available for
each subnet?
A.2, 2, 62
B.3, 8, 30
C.4, 14, 14
D.5, 30, 6
52. (Single Choice) What's the broadcast address for host address 101.11.100.100/22?
A.10.1.128.255
B.10.1.63.255
C.10.1.127.255
D.10.1.126.255
53. (Single Choice) What's the broadcast address for host address 101.11.100.100/22?
A.101.11.100.255
B.101.11.101.255
C.101.11.103.255
D.101.255.255.255
54. (Single Choice) What's the broadcast address for network segment 201.1.0.0/21?
A.201.1.7.255
B.201.1.0.255
C.201.1.1.255
D.201.0.0.255
55. (Single Choice) Which of the following is the most appropriate aggregation for network
segments 172.128.12.0, 172.128.17.0, 172.128.18.0, and 172.128.19.0?
A.172.128.0.0/21
B.172.128.0.0/19
C.172.128.12.0/22
D.172.128.20.0/20
56. (Single Choice) Which of the following aggregation by CIDR technology is correct?
A.192.168.1.0-192.168.15.0 can be aggregated to 192.168.0.0/19
B.192.168.1.0-192.168.15.0 can be aggregated to 192.168.0.0/20
C.192.168.1.0-192.168.15.0 can be aggregated to 192.168.0.0/21
D.192.168.1.0-192.168.15.0 can be aggregated to 192.168.0.0/22
57. (Single Choice) Which of the following is the most appropriate aggregation for network
segments 172.168.16.0, 172.168.17.0, 172.168.18.0, and 172.168.19.0?
A.172.168.16.0/21
B.172.168.17.0/21
C.172.168.16.0/22
D.172.168.20.0/20
58. (Multiple Choice) Which address categories does the 220.32.59.31/27 IP address belong
to? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Class C address
B.Broadcast address in a specific network segment
C.Invalid address
D.Private address
59. (Single Choice) When the subnet mask of a network is 255.240.0.0, which of the
following is a valid Class A host address?
A.12.32.59.160
B.129.32.59.17
C.158.32.59.64
D.220.32.59.128
60. (Single Choice) When a Class C subnet mask is 255.255.255.192, how many subnets does
this network consist of and how many hosts does each subnet consist of?
A.4, 62
B.8, 62
C.16, 14
D.32, 14
61. (Single Choice) For a class B network, if 5 bits are used for sub-netting, how many hosts
are available in a “single” subnet?
A.510
B.512
C.1022
D.2046
62. (Single Choice) A class C network is divided into 9 subnets in which 16 hosts at most are
available for each subnet. Which of the following is an appropriate subnet mask?
A.255.255.224.0
B.255.255.255.224
C.255.255.255.240
D.No appropriate subnet mask is available
63. (Single Choice) What is the numerically nearest subnet for the network 172.168.16.0 with
mask 255.255.252.0?
A.172.168.20.0
B.172.168.24.0
C.172.168.32.0
D.172.168.48.0
64. (Single Choice) For an IP address 192.168.12.43, its mask is 255.255.255.128, its network
address is ( ), and its broadcast address is ( )
A.192.168.12.32 192.168.12.127
B.192.168.0.0 255.255.255.255
C.192.168.12.43 255.255.255.128
D.192.169.12.128 255.255.255.128
E.192.168.12.0 192.168.12.127
65. (Single Choice) For a class B IP network 172.16.0.0, its mask is 255.255.255.192. How
many subnets are available and how many hosts are available for each subnet?
A.512, 126
B.1022, 62
C.1024, 62
D.256, 254
E.192, 254
66. (Single Choice) What are the network address and the broadcast address for the network
segment that the IP address 190.5.4.2/22 belongs to?
A.190.5.4.0, 190.5.7.255
B.190.5.4.0, 255.255.255.255
C.190.5.0.0, 190.5.4.255
D.190.5.4.0, 190.5.4.255
67. (Single Choice) Which of the following is valid host IP address?
A.192.168.2.15/28
B.10.0.2.128/26
C.122.245.264.13/26
D.12.3.4.6/24
E.224.0.4.5
68. (Single Choice) What's the network address and broadcast address for IP 190.5.6.1/22?
A.190.5.4.0, 190.5.7.255
B.190.5.4.0, 190.5.4.255
C.190.5.4.0, 190.5.4.254
D.190.5.1.0, 190.5.1.255
69. (Multiple Choice) For an IP address 10.110.53.233, if its mask length is the same with that
of the following items, which items are in the same network segment with 10.110.53.233?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.10.110.48.10 mask 255.255.248.0
B.10.110.43.10 mask 255.255.0.0
C.10.110.43.10 mask 255.255.248.0
D.10.110.48.10 mask 255.255.252.0
70. (Single Choice) Which of the following host IP address is within the same network
segment with 10.110.12.29 /27?
A.10.110.12.0
B.10.110.12.30
C.10.110.12.31
D.10.110.12.32
71. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding the IP address
192.168.16.255/20 are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A.It's a broadcast address
B.It's a network address
C.It's a private address
D.It belongs to the network segment 192.168.19.0
E.It belongs to the network segment 192.168.16.0
F. It's a public address
72. (Single Choice) In a Class C network, after you add three digits in the default subnet mask
to divide the network into different subnets, how many hosts does each subnet allow for?
A.62
B.30
C.14
D.6
73. (Single Choice) When the IP address is 199.32.59.64 and the subnet mask is
255.255.255.224, which of the following represents the IP address of the network segment?
A.199.32.59.64
B.199.32.59.65
C.199.32.59.192
D.199.32.59.224
74. (Single Choice) The IP address of a network is 12.28.75.160. After the network is divided
into different subnets, the subnet mask is 255.255.252.0. In this case, which of the following
represents the subnet broadcast address?
A.12.28.255.255
B.12.28.69.255
C.12.28.75.255
D.12.255.255.255
75. (Single Choice) The IP address of a network is 129.32.59.17. After the network is divided
into different subnets, the subnet mask is 255.255.254.0. In this case, how many subnets are
available?
A.256
B.128
C.64
D.32
76. (Single Choice) When an IP address is 220.32.59.128/25, which of the following
represents the network address?
A.220.32.59.192
B.220.32.59.128
C.220.32.59.254
D.220.32.59.0
77. (Single Choice) Which layer is used to implement internal communication of a same IP
network segment in an IP network?
A.Physical Layer
B.Layer 2
C.Layer 3
D.Application Layer
78. (Single Choice) Which address of an Ethernet frame is used by a Layer 3 switch to
determine whether to perform Layer 2 forwarding or Layer 3 forwarding?
A.Destination MAC address
B.Source MAC address
C.Destination IP address
D.Source IP address
79. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about the key features of a Layer 3
switch are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A.A Layer 3 switch provides Layer 3 functions while providing Layer 2 functions.
B.Many Layer 3 switches provide exact search and perform Layer 3 forwarding based on
Layer 3 functions.
C.All Layer 3 switches provide only ATM port.
D.Some high-end Layer 3 switches provide high-speed POS ports to improve the
upstream link efficiency.
5.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols provides error report and send
information about the IP datagram processing status back to the source?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.ICMP
D.IGMP
2. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols is a management protocol used at
Network Layer to provide IP information service by embedding the protocol information in IP
packets?
A.ARP
B.IP
C.ICMP
D.802.2
3. (Single Choice) Which of the following is the abbreviation for ICMP?
A.Internal Control Mail Protocol
B.Intranet Control Message Protocol
C.internet connection Message Protocol
D.Internet Control Message Protocol
4. (Multiple Choice) The protocol number of ICMP is ( )
A.1
B.6
C.17
D.22
5. (Single Choice) Which of the following operations can be used to verify the failure of
installation or running of TCP/IP protocol?
A.Ping 10.1.1.1
B.Ping 127.0.0.1
C.Ping 169.254.1.1
D.Ping 192.168.1.1
6. (Single Choice) Which of the following applications can be used to detect the path along
which the data packets are transmitted from the source to the destination?
A.Route
B.Nestat
C.Tracert
D.Send
7. (Single Choice) The ICMP protocol (RFC792) is not applied to Application Layer but
Network Layer.
T.True
F.Flase
8. (Single Choice) Which bytes in an ICMP packet use a unified format and consist of the
Type, Code, and Checksum fields?
A.First 3 bytes
B.First 4 bytes
C.First 5 bytes
D.First 8 bytes
9. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements about the ICMP protocol is true?
A.The ICMP protocol searches for IP addresses based on MAC addresses.
B.The ICMP protocol translates the IP address of a public network into the IP address of
a private network.
C.The ICMP protocol monitors errors generated in datagram transmission.
D.The ICMP protocol allocates and manages IP addresses in a network in a uniform
manner.
10. (Single Choice) In which type of packet is an ICMP packet generally advertised during IP
packet processing?
A.Delay
B.Error
C.Jitter
D.Source IP address
11. (Single Choice) Which of the following fields is used to check an ICMP packet?
A.Checksum field in the ICMP packet
B.Header checksum field in an IP datagram
C.Code field in the ICMP packet
D.Type field in the ICMP packet
12. (Single Choice) The IP protocol is a kind of unreliable protocol and offers no error
detection. To provide error detection, which of the following must the IP protocol work with?
A.ARP
B.ICMP
C.TCP
D.UDP
13. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following applications use ICMP protocol? (Select 3
Answers)
A.Ping
B.Tracert
C.Igmp
D.Arp
14. (Single Choice) When certain fields in the header of a received datagram have incorrect
values, this datagram is discarded and a certain ICMP packet is sent to the source. Which type
of ICMP packet is sent to the source?
A.Destination Unreachable packet
B.Source Quench packet
C.Parameter Problem packet
D.Redirect packet
15. (Single Choice) When a router or host discards data because of data congestion, which
type of ICMP packet does the router or host send to the source?
A.Destination Unreachable packet
B.Source Quench packet
C.Parameter Problem packet
D.Redirect packet
16. (Single Choice) Which of the following is the most common method used to check the
connectivity between an IP network and a host, for example, the connectivity between routers
and the connectivity between a router and a host?
A.DNS
B.FTP
C.PING
D.TFTP
17. (Single Choice) A series of packets are used in a Ping test to determine whether delay and
packet loss occur in communication. Which of the following represents the packet used in a
Ping test?
A.FTP
B.Tracert
C.ICMP
D.Telnet
18. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following protocols are not used in a Tracert process?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.ICMP
D.ARP
19. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about Ping and Tracert are true?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.Both Ping and Tracert can be used to test network connectivity.
B.Ping can be used to specify the source IP address of a packet.
C.Ping is often used to obtain the path for forwarding a datagram.
D.Tracert can be used to determine a faulty point.
20. (Single Choice) Which type of packet does a Ping application send?
A.TCP Request packet
B.TCP Reply packet
C.ICMP Request packet
D.ICMP Reply packet
21. (Single Choice) The Tracert application is usually used in data network commissioning. In
this case, how many types of ICMP packets are involved in a Tracert application?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.6
6.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) The Advanced Research Projects Agency Network (ARPANET) network is
created by United States Department of Defense and is the predecessor of the contemporary
global. Which of the following is the basis of an ARPANET network?
A.Low-speed serial connection
B.Circuit switching
C.Packet switching
D.MPLS forwarding
2. (Single Choice) What is the function of ARP?
A.Map port number to IP address
B.Map MAC address to IP address
C.Broadcast IP address
D.Map IP address to Mac address
3. (Single Choice) What is the function of RARP?
A.Map source IP address to MAC address
B.Map destination IP address to MAC address
C.Map destination MAC address to IP address
D.Map source MAC address to IP address
4. (Single Choice) Which category does the ARP protocol belong to?
A.Unicast
B.Multicast
C.Anycast
D.Broadcast
5. (Single Choice) An RARP request packet is sent by means of broadcast. How is an RARP
Reply packet sent to save network resources?
A.Unicast
B.Multicast
C.Anycast
D.Broadcast
7.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols provides connection oriented
transmission service?
A.IP
B.IPv6
C.TCP
D.UDP
2. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following protocols reside at transport layer? (Select 2
Answers)
A.IP
B.TCP
C.UDP
D.SNMP
3 (Single Choice) What is the port number of DNS?
A.21
B.23
C.53
D.80
4. (Single Choice) Which of the following is the correct sequence about the data
encapsulation process?
A.Segment->Packet->Frame->Bit->Data
B.Bit ->Segment ->Packet->Frame->Data
C.Data->Packet->Segment ->Frame->Bit
D.Data->Segment->Packet->Frame->Bit
5. (Single Choice) Which of the following is the function of session layer?
A.Provide encryption and decryption
B.Provide data transformation and data format
12. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the functions of transport layer? (Select 4
Answers)
A.Segment upper layer data
B.Establish end to end connection
C.Transmit data from one host to another host
D.Ensure ordered, reliable, and correct transmission
E.addressing
13. (Single Choice) According to OSI reference model, when receiver can not process more
data, which layer is responsible for sending stop message to the transmitter?
A.Physical layer
B.Transport layer
C.Session layer
D.Presentation layer
14. (Single Choice) Which protocol does an application (such as SNMP or RADIUS) that
focuses on transmission efficiency use at Transport Layer?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.ICMP
D.HDLC
15. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols provides a reliability mechanism and
can be used as a transport-level protocol?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.ICMP
D.HDLC
16. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols is a transport-level protocol based on
TCP, translates a domain name into an IP address, and manages domain names in a distributed
manner?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.DNS
D.HTTP
17. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols is used to transfer Web pages in the
Internet?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.DNS
D.HTTP
18. (Multiple Choice) Which protocols are defined by the TCP/IP model to transmit and
receive mails? (Select 2 Answers)
A.SMTP
B.POP3
C.DNS
D.HTTP
19. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols authenticates a user remotely, authorizes
the user access, and performs charging?
A.SMTP
B.RADIUS
C.DNS
D.HTTP
20. (Multiple Choice) TCP is a connection oriented and reliable transport layer protocol.
Which of the following are used to ensure the transmission reliability? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Acknowledgement
B.Buffering
C.Source quench messages
D.Retransmit
21. (Single Choice) A TCP packet consists of a maximum of 60 bytes. How many bytes does
a TCP packet header consist of after the Option field is deducted?
A.8
B.20
C.30
D.40
22. (Single Choice) The TCP protocol assigns a source port No. to each application. How
many bytes does the source port No. in the TCP packet header consist of?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
23. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following fields are contained in a TCP packet header?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.Source Port
B.Destination Port
C.Sequence Number
D.CRC32
24. (Single Choice) Which of the following ranges represents the size of a maximum transfer
unit (MTU) packet?
A.64–1518
B.60–1518
C.64–1480
D.60–1480
25. (Single Choice) The TTL field in an IP header specifies the number of routers that a
datagram is allowed to traverse. After the datagram traverses a router, the TTL value is
deducted by 1. When the TTL reaches a certain value, the datagram is discarded. Which of the
following represents this value?
A.Sender
B.Receiver
C.Harddisk
D.Message
E.Protocol
26. (Single Choice) Defragmentation can occur at either the original transmitter or an
intermediate router. Where is an IP datagram is reassembled after it is defragmented?
A.In the process in which the packet is looped back
B.On the next router
C.On an intermediate router
D.At the destination of the packet
27. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about TCP connection establishment
are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A.A TCP connection is established after three-way handshake is done.
B.Three-way handshake can resolve the delay problem with packet data transmission.
C.The three-way handshake helps guarantee the reliability of data switching.
D.The three-way handshake cannot guarantee the security of data switching.
28. (Single Choice) Tracert is an application based on application layer, which transport layer
protocol is used by Tracert?
A.ICMP
B.ARP
C.TCP
D.UDP
29. (Single Choice) What is the main function of DNS?
A.Domain Name Resolution
B.Remote Access
C.File Transfer
D.Mail Transfer
30. (Single Choice) Which of the following is the default TCP port number used by HTTP?
A.80
B.8080
C.110
D.25
31. (Single Choice) Which protocol does FTP use to provide reliable data transmission?
A.RTP
B.SIP
C.UDP
D.TCP
32. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols is used to send email on the internet?
A.SMTP
B.MSTP
C.FTP
D.TFTP
33. (Single Choice) Which TCP port number is used by SMTP by default to send e-mail
message?
A.21
B.23
C.25
D.53
34. (Single Choice) POP (Post Office Protocol) is used for receiving E-mail. Which TCP port
numbers does it use by default?
A.110
B.53
C.21
D.23
8.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) In data communications, the data format must be determined and agreed by
the information creator and the information receiver before the data is transmitted.
T.True
F.False
9.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following products use the VRP platform as the core
engine of their software? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Router
B.Ethernet switch
C.Service gateway
D.LTE
2. (Single Choice) VRP uses a component-based system architecture. It provides various
functions and features in addition to application-based scalability and customization.
T.True
F.False
3. (Multiple Choice) What functions does VRP provide? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Provides a unified user interface and a unified management window.
B.Provides the functions of a control plane.
C.Defines interfaces of a forwarding plane.
D.Blocks communication between a forwarding plane and the VRP control plane.
4. (Single Choice) Which component of the VRP platform provides user authentication
charging and user policy management?
A.Service control plane
B.Versatile control plane
C.System management plane
D.None of the above
5. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following methods can be used to upgrade the VRP
software? (Select 3 Answers)
A.WEB
B.FTP
C.TFTP
D.X-modem
6. (Single Choice) When VRP platform is configured as TFTP client, it can transmit files in
binary mode and ASCII mode.
T.True
F.False
7. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following protocols can be used to upgrade VRP? (Select
3 Answers)
A.FTP
B.TFTP
C.TELNET
D.XMODEM
8. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following is abbreviation of VRP?
A.Versatile Routine Platform
B.Virtual Routing Platform
C.Virtual Routing Plane
D.Versatile Routing Platform
10.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) On Huawei VRP platform, which of the following can be used to invoke
the history command saved by the command line interface?
A. Up cursor key < >
B. Left cursor key < >
C. Ctrl+P
D. Ctrl+U
2. (Single Choice) Which of the following commands is used to enter the system-view from
the user view on a Huawei router?
A. system-view
B. enable
C. configure terminal
D. interface system
3. (Single Choice) On VRP platform, the command lines are classified into four levels in
increasing priority: Visit level, Monitoring level, Configuration level, and Management level.
At which level, the operator is permitted to configure service but is not permitted to operate
the file system?
A.Visit level
B.Monitoring level
C.Configuration level
D.Management level
4. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements about the command view of VRP are
true?
A.The System-view command can switch a view from the user view to the system view.
B.A service command can switch a view from the system view to the corresponding
service view.
C.The Quit command can switch a view from the system view to the user view.
D.Different views may have different commands.
5. (Single Choice) Which of the following must be used to establish the configuration
environment when a router is powered on for the first time?
A.SSL
B.SSH
C.Console port
D.Telnet
6. (Single Choice) Which of the following parameter settings for terminal emulation are
correct when configuring a Huawei router through the Console port?
A. 4800bps, 8 data bits,1 stop bits, odd parity check, and no flow control
B. 9600bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, no parity check, and no flow control
C. 9600bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, even parity check, and hardware flow control
D. 19200bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, no parity check, and no flow control
11.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Which of the following commands can be used to view the current
configurations on a Quidway router?
A. display current-configuration
B. display saved-configuration
C. view saved-configuration
D. show startup- configuration
2. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following storage devices are supported by Huawei
Quidway router?
A. SDRAM
B. NVRAM
C. Flash
D. Hard Disk
E. CF Card
3. (Single Choice) Which of the following storage devices is used to store the startup
configuration files in a router?
A. SDRAM
B. NVRAM
C. Flash
D. BootROM
4. (Single Choice) The operation deleting the configuration files saved in the storage devices
will become effective after rebooting the router.
T.True
F.False
5. (Single Choice) On VRP platform, the command lines are classified into four levels in
increasing priority: Visit level, Monitoring level, Configuration level, and Management level.
At which level, the operator is permitted to configure service but is not permitted to operate
the file system?
A. Visit level
B. Monitoring level
C. Configuration level
D. Management level
6. (Single Choice) An adminstrator has been requested to replace the configuration file of a
router in the network. The administrator has been instructed that after logging into the router,
he must first permenantly erase the current configuration file config.zip from the system.
Which command should he use to achieve this?
A. delete /force config.zip
B. delete /unreserved config.zip
C. reset config.zip
D. clear config.zip
12.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following products use the VRP platform as the core
engine of their software?
A. Router
B. Ethernet switch
C. Service gateway
D. LTE
2. (Single Choice) VRP uses a component-based system architecture. It provides various
functions and features in addition to application-based scalability and customization.
T.True
F.False
3. (Multiple Choice) What functions does VRP provide?
A. Provides a unified user interface and a unified management window.
B. Provides the functions of a control plane.
C. Defines interfaces of a forwarding plane.
D. Blocks communication between a forwarding plane and the VRP control plane.
4. (Multiple Choice) Which component of the VRP platform provides user authentication
charging and user policy management?
A. Service control plane
B. Versatile control plane
C. System management plane
D. None of the above
5. (Single Choice) On VRP platform, the command lines are classified into four levels in
increasing priority: Visit level, Monitoring level, Configuration level, and Management level.
At which level, the operator is permitted to configure service but is not permitted to operate
the file system?
A. Visit level
B. Monitoring level
C. Configuration level
D. Management level
6. (Single Choice) <Huawei>display startup
MainBoard:
Startup system software: sd1:/ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc
Next startup system software: sd1:/ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc
Backup system software for next startup: null
Startup saved-configuration file: null
Next startup saved-configuration file: null
Startup license file: null
Next startup license file: null
Startup patch package: null
Next startup patch package: null
Startup voice-files: null
Next startup voice-files: null
13.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Which of the following must be used to establish the configuration
environment when a router is powered on for the first time?
A. SSL
B. SSH
C. Console port
D. Telnet
2. (Single Choice) Workstation A and workstation B are respectively connected to two ports
of a switch. Assume the MAC table of the switch is empty now. Which of the following
statements is true as soon as the switch receives the first packet sent by Workstation A to
Workstation B?
A.The switch will learn address of A
B.The switch will learn address of B
C.The switch will not learn any address
D.The switch will learn addresses of both A and B
3. (Single Choice) <Quidway>display mac-address
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
MAC Address VLAN/VSI Learned-From Type
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
5489-98ec-f018 1/- GE0/0/13 dynamic
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Total items displayed = 1
Refer to the graphic. A switch attempts to forward a frame to the MAC destination
5489-98ec-f01. What operation will occur on the switch?
A. The switch will send a request to obtain the MAC address of 5489-98ec-f011.
B. The switch will report that the destination is unreachable and report this to the
source.
C. The switch will flood the frame via all ports, with exception of the port on which the
frame was received.
D. The switch will drop the frame because it does not have an entry in its MAC address
table
4. (Single Choice) A server is linked to port interface G0/0/1 of a switch. The administrator
wishes to allow only this server to be linked to this interface on the switch. Which method can
be used to achieve this?
A. Configure a static ARP entry using the server’s IP address and MAC address in the
switch.
B. Configure a static MAC address binding entry of the server’s MAC address and the
interface in the switch.
C. Configure the default gateway of the switch to be the same as the server’s IP
address.
D. It is not possible to enable a single device to be associated with an interface.
5. (Single Choice) An administrator connects two switches together in a local enterprise
network. The ports of one switch support Fast Ethernet, while the ports of the other switch
support Gigabit Ethernet. Hosts connected to one switch are able to communicate, however
communication between the two switches fails. What is the possible reason for this?
A. The ports have disabled auto-negoatition.
B. One port is supporting auto-negotiation, while auto-negotiation is disabled on the
port of the other switch.
C. The port of one switch is operating using half duplex mode, while the port of the
other switch is using full duplex mode.
D. A Fast Ethernet port cannot communicate directly with a Gigabit Ethernet port.
14.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) STP is short for ?
A.Rapid spanning tree protocol
B.Shortest path tree protocol
C.Spanning tree protocol
D.Sharing tree protocol
2. (Single Choice) The standard for STP defined by IEEE is ( ).
A.802.3
B.802.11b
C.802.1D
D.802.1Q
3. (Single Choice) In OSI reference model, Layer 2 LAN switch operates at ( ).
A.Physical layer
B.Data link layer
C.Network layer
D.Application layer
4. (Single Choice) The main idea of STP is to generate a loop-free tree by exchanging a
special kind of message between bridges. This message is called ( ).
A.Configuration BPDU
B.TCN BPDU
C.Hello BPDU
D.Update BPDU
5. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the interface states of STP? (Select 4
Answers)
A.Disabled
B.Blocking
C.Shut down
D.Learning
E.Forwarding
6. (Single Choice) On Huawei switches running STP,the default value of forward delay is
( ) seconds.
A.10
B.15
C.20
D.30
7. (Single Choice) Which of the following descriptions about learning state in STP is
incorrect?
A.The port in learning state can receive and send BPDU
B.The port in learning state can learn the source MAC address of data packet
C.The port in learning state can only learn the source MAC address but cannot transmit
the data packet.
D.The port in learning state can forward part of the data packet
8. (Single Choice) Which of the following descriptions about blocking state in STP is
incorrect?
A.The port in blocking state can receive BPDU
B.The port in blocking state does not learn source MAC address of data packet
C.The port in blocking state does not forward data packets
D.The port in blocking state does not receive any data packets
9. (Single Choice) STP uses ( ) timer to prevent from temporary loop when the
link is fault?
A.Hello Time
B.Forward Delay
C.Max Age
D.Message Age
10. (Single Choice) Devices need to exchange information and parameters in order to
calculate a spanning tree. Such information and parameters are encapsulated into a certain
unit when they are exchanged between devices. Which type of unit are the information and
parameters encapsulated into?
A.TCP BPDU
B.Configured BPDU
C.Configured STP
D.Configured RSTP
11. (Single Choice) How many root bridges does the STP protocol select from all the network
bridges when calculating a spanning tree?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
12. (Single Choice) Which attribute is selection of a root bridge based on when the spanning
tree is calculated by the STP?
A.Bridge ID
B.Path Cost
C.Port Cost
D.Port ID
13. (Single Choice) Root bridges provide root ports and designated ports.
T.True
F.False
14. (Single Choice) There may be “multiple” paths between a non-root bridge and a root
bridge. Each of the paths has its own total cost, which is the sum of the port costs of all egress
ports on the path.
T.True
F.False
15. (Single Choice) STP calculates the overall cost of each path between a non-root bridge
and a root bridge. What is a port on the non-root bridge called on the path that has the
minimum overall cost?
A.Designated port
B.Root port
C.Common port
D.Queue port
16. (Single Choice) In STP calculation, a port identifier consists of two parts: one-byte ( )
and one-byte port number.
A.Port priority
B.Link priority
C.Bridge MAC address
D.Port MAC address
17. (Multiple Choice) The existence of loop in switched network can lead to ( ).
A.Broadcast storm
B.Route self-loop
C.Destination unreachable
D.Unstable MAC address table
18. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements regarding layer-2 switch is incorrect?
A.Learn MAC address automatically
B.Layer-3 header is modified before the received packet is transmitted
C.Layer-2 header is modified before the received packet is transmitted.
D.Layer-2 LAN switch operates at data link layer
19. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the functions of STP in switched network?
A.Improve bridge network availability by providing physical path redundancy
B.Improve bridge network availability by providing logical path redundancy
C.Eliminate the possible loops by blocking the redundant paths
D.Activate the redundant backup path when the active path becomes faulty.
20. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following descriptions about STP are incorrect?
A.A layer-2 switching network can have only one designated switch
B.All the ports of the root switch are root port
C.All the ports of the root switch are designated port
D.The switch with the smallest priority value is elected as non-root switch
21. (Multiple Choice) In STP, the bridge ID consists of two parts. They are ( ) and ( ).
A.Switch priority
B.Switch Port ID
C.Switch MAC address
D.Switch IP address
22. (Single Choice) In STP, what is the length of bridge ID?
A.8 bits
B.32 bits
C.48 bits
D.64 bits
23. (Single Choice) Which of the following descriptions about STP is incorrect?
A.STP can manage the redundant links
B.STP can block redundant links to eliminate loops
C.STP can prevent from temporary loss of connectivity
D.STP can make LAN switch operates normally in a switched network environment with
loops
24. (Single Choice) Which of the following descriptions about port state transition of STP are
incorrect?
A.Forwarding state can transit to Blocking state directly
B.Learning state can transit to Blocking state directly
C.Learning state can transit to Forwarding state directly
D.Blocking state can transit to Forwarding state directly
25. (Single Choice) During STP calculation, STP selects a designated port and bridge for each
network segment. In this selection process, STP first compares ( ) of the port connected to
the network segment and selects the one with the lowest number.
A.Link priority
B.Root path cost
C.Port identifier
D.Port MAC address
26. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following ports are defined by STP and indicate that
Physical Layer and Data Link Layer are working normally and STP is enabled at ports on a
device? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Root Port
B.Designated Port
C.Alternate Port
D.Disable Port
27. (Single Choice) During STP calculation, when a port is in a certain state, it neither
forwards any data frame nor learns MAC address tables. It takes part in only spanning tree
calculation in addition to receiving and sending STP protocol packets. Which state does the
abovementioned state refer to?
A.Listening
B.Blocking
C.Learning
D.Forwarding
28. (Single Choice) During STP calculation, when a port is in a certain state, it neither
forwards any data frame nor learns MAC address tables. Instead, it only receives and
processes STP protocol packets. Which state does the abovementioned state refer to?
A.Listening
B.Blocking
C.Learning
D.Forwarding
29. (Single Choice) Workstation A and workstation B are connected to two different switch
ports respectively. Assume that workstation B hasn't sent any packet yet. Which of the
following statements is true when workstation A starts sending the first packet to workstation
B?
A.The destination port of workstation B is not found in switch's MAC table an the packet
is discarded
B.The switch learns the address of workstation B and sends the packet to the port that is
connected with B
C.The switch learns address of workstation A and broadcasts the packet out of all the
ports
D.The switch learns address of workstation A and broadcasts the packet out of all the
ports except for the port that received the packet
30. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following descriptions about STP are correct? (Select 3
Answers)
A.A network can have only one root switch
B.All the ports of the root switch are root port
C.All the ports of the root switch are designated port
D.The switch with the smallest priority value is elected as the root switch
31. (Multiple Choice) In STP, the role of switch port includes ( ) (Select 3 Answers)
A.Root port
15.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the advantages of RSTP compared with STP?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.A new root port is elected on the non-root switch and the previous old root port is no
longer in forwarding state. Moreover the designated port of the segment which connects
with the new root port already starts to forward the data. In this case, the new root port
can enter forwarding state immediately.
B.Once a port of the switch which is configured as edge port has been enabled, it will
become designated port immediately and transit to forwarding state.
C.If the designated port is connected with P2MP link, it can make a handshake with the
connected bridge and enter the forwarding state immediately after it receives the
response.
D.If the designated port is connected with P2P link, it can make a handshake with the
connected bridge and enter the forwarding state immediately after it receives the
response.
2. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are disadvantages of “single” spanning tree?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.Hosts belong to the same VLAN connected to different switches may not be able to
communicate each other
B.Load balancing can not be implemented
C.Convergence is slow
D.Sub-optimal path may exist
3. (Single Choice) As specified by the RSTP protocol, when a designated port fails, which
type of port will function as a new designated port and enters the forwarding state without any
delay?
A.Forwarding Port
B.Alternate Port
C.Backup Port
D.Edge Port
4. (Single Choice) As specified by the RSTP protocol, when a root port fails, which type of
port will function as a new root port and enters the forwarding state without any delay?
A.Forwarding Port
B.Alternate Port
C.Backup Port
D.Edge Port
5. (Single Choice) In the RSTP standard, a port is able to connect to a terminal directly and
enter the forwarding state without delay. Which of the following ports represents such a port?
A. Fast port
B. Backup port
C. Root port
D. Edge port
16.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) IGP is the protocol which is used in ( )
A.An area
B.A LAN
C.An Autonomous System
D.Within the range of classful addressl
2. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements regarding routing protocol is correct?
A.A protocol that allows the data packets transmitted between hosts.
B.A method that defines the format and function of the fields for data packet
C.A protocol that achieves route selection through an algorithm
D.A protocol that defines the mode and time of the binding of MAC address and IP
address
3. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding the function of a router are
correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Connecting same networks.
B.Segmenting the packet so that the forwarding is easier
C.Forwarding the packet from one network to another
D.Addressing
4. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding the routing table are correct?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.The next hop in the routing table is redundant because the outgoing interface can be
used for packet forwarding.
B.The routes from generated by different protocols have different preferences.
C.The costs of different routing protocols are comparable.
D.The costs of different routing protocols are not comparable
5. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the sources of the routes in the routing table?
(Select 3 Answers)
12. (Single Choice) Each router forwards only the packets received by the local station
through the optimal path. The packet is forwarded by different routers on the path in a relay
mode.
T. True
F.False
13. (Multiple Choice) A routing table can be formed by using different methods. Which of the
following protocols are used to form a routing table? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Static routing protocol
B.Dynamic routing protocol
C.Application-level protocol
D.Transport-level protocol
14. (Multiple Choice) What functions does a router mainly provide? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Check the destination address in a datagram.
B.Determine the information source.
C.Discover possible routes.
D.Verify and maintain route information.
15. (Multiple Choice) When the value of the proto field of a route in a routing table is direct,
it indicates that this route is a ( ). (Select 3 Answers)
A.Route discovered by the protocol at the link layer
B.Port route
C.Direct route
D.Default route
16. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A.A route discovered by a protocol at the link layer need not be maintained.
B.A protocol at the link layer can discover only a route to a loopback address.
C.A protocol at the link layer can discover only a route in a network segment connected
directly to a port.
D.A protocol at the link layer can discover only a route across different network
segments.
17. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A.The calculation method of the preference and cost in the routing table are same.
B.The calculation of cost may be based on “single” link attribute or several link
attributes such as delay, hop count, bandwidth and etc.
C.When several dynamic routing protocols have the best routes to the same destination,
all these routes will be added to the routing table.
D.Some of the dynamic routing protocols calculate the best path base on the cost value.
However, Different routing protocol calculates the metric in different ways
18. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements are incorrect? (Select 2 Answers)
A.The preferences for each static routes entry can be different.
B.By default, OSPF is more preferred to RIP.
D.Route priority
31. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding default route are correct?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.Default route is more preferred over the specific route
B.Default route is used only when the destination route is not in the routing table
C.Default route can be configured manually.
D.Default route is a special type of dynamic route.
32. (Single Choice) Assume an internal network has only one route to the external networks,
which of the following configurations is better?
A.Default route
B.Host route
C.Dynamic route
D.Direct route
33. (Single Choice) Suppose a gateway is configured in a host running Windows system,
which of the following is similar to the configuration on a router?
A.Direct route
B.Default route
C.Dynamic route
D.Host route
17 IP Static Routes
17.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) After a fault occurs in a network, a static route can be rectified
automatically and the network administrator does not need to reconfigure it.
T.True
F.False
2. (Single Choice) Which of the following values is the default preference value for static
route on the VRP platform?
A.0
B.20
C.60
D.100
3. (Single Choice) A static route can be either configured manually by a network administrator
or generated automatically.
T.True
F.False
4. (Multiple Choice) A command for configuring a static route contains the destination IP
address and mask. In which notations can the mask be expressed? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Dotted decimal notation
B.Mask size (namely, the number of binary 1s in the mask)
C.Dotted binary notation
D.Dotted hexadecimal notation
5. (Multiple Choice) Compared to static routing protocol, which of the following are the
advantages of dynamic routing protocol? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Low bandwidth consumption
B.Simple
C.The router running dynamic routing protocol can detect the changes of the network
topology automatically.
D.The router running dynamic routing protocol can calculate the routes automatically.
6. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the advantages of static routing protocol?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.Simple configuration
B.Automatic routing updates
C.Enhanced network security
D.Save the bandwidth
7. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the disadvantages of using static routing
protocol in the network? (Select 2 Answers)
A.The configurations are complicated in a large network.
B.Re-configurations are required after the topology changes
C.External routers can not learn the static route configuration which will result in
network unreachability.
D.On the VRP platform, load balancing can not be implemented using static route
8. (Multiple Choice) Two static routes to the 10.1.1.1/32 network are configured on a router.
One of the static routes is not assigned with a value for the preference_value parameter; the
other static route is assigned with 100 for the preference_value parameter. In this case, which
of the following statements are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A.The route not signed with a value for the preference_value parameter functions as the
working route.
B.The route signed with 100 for the preference_value parameter functions as the
working route.
C.A static route supports route backup.
D.The two static routes work in load sharing mode.
9. (Single Choice) The information about static routes can be viewed through a router. A
backup route is identified as ( ).
A.Bypass
B.Inactive
C.Backup
D.Slave
10. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding static route are correct?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.Default route is a special type of dynamic route
B.Some of the dynamic routing protocol such as OSPF can generate default routes.
C.Default route is used when the destination network is not in the routing table.
D.The network IP and mask of the default route is 0.0.0.0 and 0.0.0.0 respectively.
11. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about default routes are true?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.A route that can be configured manually.
B.A default route can be only configured manually by a network administrator.
C.A default route is a kind of special static route.
18.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Which of the following routing protocols involves simple configuration
and low-speed convergence and is generally used in medium- and small-sized networks?
A.BGP
B.OSPF
C.ISIS
D.RIP
2. (Multiple Choice) Router A runs RIP routing and its interface serial 0 with IP address
10.0.0.1/24 is enabled with RIP routing protocol as well. Which of the following commands
must be configured? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Rip
B.Rip 10.0.0.0
C.Network 10.0.0.1
D.Network 10.0.0.0
3. (Single Choice) Which of the following parameters is used by RIP to calculate the value of
cost?
A.MTU
B.Delay
C.Bandwidth
D.Hop count
4. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding RIP are correct? (Select 2
Answers)
A.RIP is an IGP.
B.RIP is an EGP.
C.RIP is a distance vector routing protocol.
D.RIP is a link-state routing protocol.
5. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocol is used by RIP to encapsulate the
messages?
A.UDP
B.TCP
C.ICMP
D.Raw IP
6. (Single Choice) Which of the following cost values indicates that the route learned from
RIP is unreachable?
A.8
B.10
C.15
D.16
7. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements regarding the function of holddown
mechanism used by RIP is correct?
A.Save the bandwidth
B.Loop-avoidance
C.Propagate the unreachable routing information throughout the network.
D.Advertise the local route information to the RIP's neighbor
8. (Single Choice) Which of the following numbers is the maximum hop count in RIP?
A.12
B.15
C.16
D.Infinity
9. (Single Choice) Which of the following values is the update interval for RIP?
A.5s
B.30s
C.60s
D.180s
10. (Single Choice) Routing Information Protocol (RIP) uses ( ) to exchange routing
information and sends out updated packets at a certain interval.
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.RSVP
D.LDP
11. (Single Choice) Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is available in the RIPv1, RIPv2, and
RIPv3 versions.
T.True
F.False
12. (Single Choice) How many hops from a router to the directly connected network does the
RIP protocol specify?
A.0
B.1
C.Infinite
D.None of the above
13. (Single Choice) By default, RIPv2 sends packet by means of ( ).
A.Unicast
B.Multicast
C.Broadcast
D.Multicast and broadcast
14. (Multiple Choice) What features does RIPv2 provide? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Extension of subnet mask(VLSM)
B.Large scale network
C.Plain text authentication
D.MD5 encrypted text authentication
15. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following methods are used by RIP to avoid routing loop?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.Split-horizon
B.Holddown
C.Rebooting routers
D.Defining the maximum routing metric
16. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements regarding distance vector algorithm
are incorrect? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Distance vector algorithm does not generate routing loops.
B.Distance vector routing protocol is implemented by exchanging routing information.
C.The routes are advertised as vectors of (destination, cost).
D.Routers running distance vector protocols obtain routing information from its own
neighbors only.
17. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are main functions of split horizon used by
distance vector routing protocols? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Prevent the routing loops between two adjacent routers.
B.Ensure the routing updates not being sent back to the direction from which it was
received.
C.Work together with holddown mechanism to prevent the routing loops.
D.Replace the poison reverse algorithm
18. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding Bellman-Ford algorithm
are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A.RIP is based on Bellman-Ford algorithm.
B.Bellman-Ford is essentially a Dijkstra algorithm.
C.When Bellman-Ford algorithm is used to calculate the routes, it does not need to know
the whole topology of network.
D.Bellman-Ford algorithm is a link-state algorithm.
19. (Single Choice) Which of the following commands is used to disable automatic route
aggregation for RIP?
A.Undo rip
B.Summary
C.Undo summary
D.Undo network 10.0.0.0
20. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding RIP v1 and RIP v2 are
correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A.RIP v1 supports VLSM.
B.RIP v2 supports VLSM.
C.RIP v2 uses route aggregation by default.
D.RIP v1 supports simple password authentication only, while RIP v2 supports MD5
authentication.
21. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following messages can be processed by the interface
working in RIPv2 Broadcast mode? (Select 2 Answers)
A.RIPv1 broadcast messages
B.RIPv1 multicast messages
C.RIPv2 broadcast messages
D.RIPv2 multicast messages
22. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements regarding routing loops in RIP is
correct?
A.Distance Vector algorithm can calculate the shortest path to the destination according
to the given topology.
B.Split horizon can prevent the routing loop between two neighboring routers only.
C.Although Holddown mechanism results in slow convergence, it can completely
prevent the routing loop.
D.Maximum hop count mechanism can solve the problem caused by routing loop.
23. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding RIP v1 and RIP v2 are
correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A.RIP v1 does not support multicast. By default, it does not advertise the information
about subnet.
B.RIPv2 supports multicast. It can choose not to advertise the information about subnet.
C.RIPv1 can advertise information about subnet by disabling the automatic route
aggregation.
D.RIPv2 broadcasts message by default. The command "rip version 2 multicast" must
be configured to make RIPv2 send message with multicast address.
24. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding RIP network scale are
correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Bellman-Ford algorithm used by RIP can accurately calculate the shortest path of a
large scale network.
B.The maximum hop count of RIP is 16 and it can be used to prevent the packets from
circulate infinitely in the network.
C.It is recommended to use other routing protocols such as OSPF instead of RIP when
the network topology is more complicated even though the hop count is less than 16.
D.RIP is not suitable for large scale network because it advertises the whole routing table
periodically and this consumes a lot bandwidth. So, RIP is suitable for small scale
network only.
25. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding RIP routing information
are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A.User can specify the route preference of RIP higher than that of static routes.
B.If the route calculated by other routing protocol which is imported by RIP does not
specify the cost value, the cost value will be set as 1 by default
C.User can specify the route preference value of RIP lower than that of direct routes.
D.The route preference of RIP can not be configured manually.
26. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding split horizon used by RIP
are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Split horizon is used to avoid routing loop. The main idea of Split Horizon is that the
information can not be sent back in the direction from which the data was received.
B.Split horizon will not prevent the routing loop between 2 routers.
C.Split horizon might cause some of the routers not able to obtain the accurate routing
information.
D.On the VRP platform, split horizon is enabled by default. It can be disabled when
necessary.
27. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding RIP route aggregation are
correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A.RIP v1 supports route aggregation by default and it can be disabled when necessary.
B.We can disable the route aggregation on RIP V2.
C.RIPv1 does not support CIDR
D.RIPv2 supports CIDR.
28. (Single Choice) After a command for displaying RIP route information is entered on a
router, peer 192.169.1.3 on ethernet1/0/1 is displayed in the returned result. What does
ethernet1/0/1 stand for?
A.Port connected to the RIP neighbor with the IP address of 192.169.1.3
B.Port corresponding to the RIP transmission address
C.Port with the broadcast protocol enabled
D.Port with the multicast protocol enabled
29. (Single Choice) What does the value 1 of cost in the RIP route information mean?
A.The route cost is 0.
B.The priority of the RIP protocol is 1.
C.Only one hop exists between the router and the destination network segment.
19.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Which of the following routing protocols are the link state routing
protocols?
A.RIP
B.BGP
C.IP
D.OSPF
2. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding the comparison between
OSPF and RIP are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A.OSPF is more appropriate for large networks than RIP.
B.RIP is more appropriate for small networks than OSPF.
C.RIP is more appropriate for flat network design while OSPF is more appropriate for
hierarchical network design.
D.In the same network, RIP will consume more bandwidth than OSPF.
3. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding OSPF are correct? (Select
3 Answers)
A.Support CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing)
B.Use the distance vector algorithm
C.Use the triggered updates to immediately notify the neighbors about the topology
changes so that the changes are synchronized in the AS.
D.Use the reserved multicast addresses to transmit protocol packets.
4. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding OSPF are correct? (Select
3 Answers)
A.OSPF is an EGP.
B.OSPF calculates the shortest path tree based on the link sate information and OSPF
itself will not generate the routing loop
C.Supporting authentication of the messages and this enhanced the security
B.SPF
C.SRC
D.OPF
12. (Single Choice) OSPF can generate a loop-free shortest route tree by using a routing
protocol algorithm. Thus, the OSPF routing protocol has no loop problem.
T.True
F.False
13. (Single Choice) OSPF runs over the IP protocol and the IP protocol No. used by OSPF is
( ).
A.89
B.80
C.512
D.2328
14. (Single Choice) OSPF has experienced several versions. Which of the following versions
is experimental and has never been deployed?
A.OSPFv1
B.OSPFv2
C.OSPFv3
D.OSPFv4
15. (Single Choice) Which of the following OSPF versions is specific to the IPv6 technology?
A.OSPFv1
B.OSPFv2
C.OSPFv3
D.OSPFv4
16. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about the features of the OSPF
protocol are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A.The OSPF protocol supports area division.
B.The OSPF protocol is quick in route convergence when routes change.
C.The OSPF protocol supports “multiple” equal-cost routes.
D.The OSPF protocol supports encrypt protocol packets.
17. (Multiple Choice) The link state database (LSDB) on an OSPF router is formed based on
( ). (Select 2 Answers)
A.local LSA
B.LSA advertised by a neighboring router
C.RSVP packet advertised to a neighboring router
D.RSVP packet advertised by a neighboring router
18. (Single Choice) Each router calculates the shortest path tree based on the LSDB with itself
as a ( ) node.
A.Root
B.leaf
C.Specified root
D.Backup
19. (Multiple Choice) The shortest path tree calculated by a router in an OSPF area provides
( ) on the path from this router to other nodes in the network.
A.All link states
B.Routing table
C.MAC address table
D.ARP table
20. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about an OSPF neighboring router
are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A.An OSPF interface broadcasts Hello packets to discover a neighbor.
B.After a router receives a Hello packet from the peer router, it becomes the neighbor of
the peer router.
C.After an OSPF router receives a Hello packet from the peer OSPF router, it checks the
parameters in the packet. If the parameters in the packet from the peer OSPF router are
consistent with the parameters of this OSPF router, the two OSPF routers become
neighbors of each other.
D.Neighbor discovery is equivalent to adjacency establishment.
21. (Single Choice) Two OSPF routers become neighbors only after they successfully
exchange ( ) packets and LSAs.
A.Hello
B.DD
C.LSR
D.LSU
22. (Single Choice) When two routers synchronize their LSDBs, they use ( ) packets to
describe their own LSDBs.
A.Hello
B.DD
C.LSR
D.LSU
23. (Multiple Choice) In a ( ) network, DRs and BDRs are used to prevent the problem with
route convergence at a low speed. (Select 2 Answers)
A.Point-to-point
B.Broadcast
C.NBMA
D.Point-to-multipoint
24. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding Autonomous System
Boundary Router are correct? (Select 2 Answers)
A.ASBR is the router that imports the routes calculated by other protocols into OSPF.
B.ASBR is not always on the border of AS but it can be set anywhere in the AS except
Stub area.
C.ABR can not be ASBR at the same time.
D.ASBR must belong to two OSPF areas.
25. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements regarding the routing loop in OSPF is
correct?
A.Routing loop is eliminated within an OSPF area.
B.Routing loop is not eliminated between two OSPF areas.
C.Routing loop is not eliminated within an OSPF Autonomous Systems.
D.No routing loop exists outside the OSPF autonomous system.
26. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding OSPF area are incorrect?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.Without manual configuration, an OSPF area is a backbone area with area ID 0 by
default.
B.OSPF supports area division.
C.Every OSPF area is identified by a 32-bit Area ID number.
D.Area ID must be assigned by IANA and we can not simply assign it.
27. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding adjacencies of OSPF
routers are correct? (Select 4 Answers)
A.After two routers have been received the Hello packets from each other, they will form
the adjacency automatically.
B.IF two routers are fully adjacent, the network type between them may be
Point-to-Point network.
C.IF two routers are fully adjacent, the network type between them may be
Point-to-Multipoint network.
D.IF two routers are fully adjacent and the network type between them is broadcast
network, then one of routers must be either DR or BDR.
E.Only two adjacent routers can exchange LSAs.
28. (Single Choice) In broadcast network of OSPF protocol, any two DR Others will neither
exchange routing information nor send Hello packet to each other due to the existence of DR.
T.True
F.False
29. (Single Choice) OSPF is an application layer protocol and it runs on ( )
A.UDP, port number 520
B.TCP, port number 179
C.IP, Protocol Number 89
D.Data Link layer
30. (Single Choice) OSPF takes the precedence to select ( ) as a router ID unless you specify
a router ID manually.
A.the biggest IP address of all the loopback port addresses
B.the biggest IP address of the physical port IP addresses
C.127.0.0.1
D.the IP address of a port connected to an OSPF neighbor
31. (Single Choice) After OSPF divides an AS into different areas, what is communicated
between these areas?
A.Abstract route information for each area
B.Link state information for each area
C.Topology information for each area
D.Link bandwidth information for each area
32. (Single Choice) A backbone OSPF area is responsible for releasing the information
collected by each border router to non-backbone OSPF areas. Which of the following
represents the ID of a backbone OSPF area?
A.area 0
B.area 1
C.area 0.0.0.1
D.area 0.0.0.2
33. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements regarding the backbone area in
OSPF protocol are correct? (Select 3 Answers)
A.The area ID of the backbone area is 0.0.0.1.
B.Each area must be connected to the backbone area.
C.Backbone area is responsible for advertising the aggregated routing information
generated by ABR between non-backbone areas.
D.ABR connects to different areas and at least one of the connected area is backbone
area.
34. (Single Choice) Assume that a non-backbone area and backbone area can not be directly
connected. Which of the following ways can be used to solve this problem?
A.Configuring ABR
B.Configuring ASBR
C.Configuring Virtual-link
D.Configuring Stub area
35. (Single Choice) presentation [A router runs OSPF and its interface Serial 0 with IP address
10.0.0.1/30 belongs to the backbone area, which of the following commands is used to enable
OSPF at this interface?
A.[Quidway-ospf -1-area-0.0.0.0]network 10.0.0.0
B.[Quidway-ospf -1-area-0.0.0.0]network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3
C.[Quidway-serial0]ospf area 0 enable
D.[Quidway-ospf -1]network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.252
36. (Multiple Choice) In an OSPF network, an ASBR router advertises the information about
the routes outside an AS to the AS. Which of the following routers can function as an ASBR?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.IR
B.ABR
D.LSA
43. (Multiple Choice) Each OSPF router floods LSAs to advertise link status information,
including ( ). (Select 3 Answers)
A.Ports
B.Available neighbors
C.Information about adjacent network segments
D.Local link status information
44. (Single Choice) According to the OSPF protocol, a router floods LSAs. In this context,
what does "flood" mean?
A.An action sending a link state database
B.An action synchronizing a link state database
C.An action sending and synchronizing a link state database
D.An action deleting a link state database from a port
45. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about the information contained in a
DD packet are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A.A DD packet contains all information about each LSA.
B.A DD packet contains only the header of an LSA.
C.The header of an LSA is the unique identifier of the LSA.
D.The header of an LSA is only a small portion of all the data of the LSA.
20.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Which of the following is the abbreviation for DHCP?
A.Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
B.Dynamic Host Connection Protocol
C.Dynamic Hot Connection Protocol
D.Denial Host Configuration Protocol
2. (Single Choice) Which layer of OSI reference model does DHCP belong to?
A.Physical layer
B.Data-link layer
C.Network layer
D.Application layer
3. (Single Choice) What is the main function of DNS?
A.Sender
B.Receiver
C.Harddisk
D.Message
E.Protocol
4. (Single Choice) What is the underlying protocol used by DHCP to send messages?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.RTP
D.SIP
5 (Single Choice) In Window XP system, which of the following commands is used to release
the IP address assigned by the DHCP Server?
A.ipconfig /all
B.ipconfig /renew
C.ipconfig /release
D.ipconfig
21.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following protocols can be used for file transfer? (Select
2 Answers)
A.FTP
B.TFTP
C.Telnet
D.Icmp
2. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols is transport layer protocol of TFTP?
A.SIP
B.UDP
C.TCP
D.RTP
3. (Single Choice) Which of the following is an attribute of file transferred by using FTP?
A.Low speed
B.High throughput
C.Simple
D.Read-only memory
4. (Multiple Choice) TFTP can control a TFTP user according to the user name and password.
T.True
F.False
5. (Single Choice) By default, which port is used by the FTP server to establish the data
connection?
A.20
B.21
C.23
D.25
6. (Single Choice) FTP session consists of two types of connections, they are( ) (Select 2
Answers)
A.Output connection
B.Input connection
C.Control connection
D.Data connection
7. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following applications are based on the TCP protocol?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.PING
B.FTP
C.TELNET
D.OSPF
8. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about FTP are true? (Select 2
Answers)
A.FTP is based on the UDP protocol.
B.FTP is used to provide low-speed file transfer.
C.TFTP can control an FTP user according to the login name and password.
D.A router can work as either an FTP Client or an FTP Server.
9. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about TFTP are true? (Select 3
Answers)
A.TFTP is based on the UDP protocol.
B.TFTP is a simple file transfer protocol and applicable to read-only memory.
C.TFTP can control a TFTP user according to the login name and password.
D.TFTP supports only the Client mode.
10. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following protocols or applications are based on UDP?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.FTP
B.TFTP
C.SNMP
D.Telnet
22.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Which port number does Telnet uses for protocol transmission?
A.23
B.24
C.8080
D.48
2. (Single Choice) Which transport-level protocol does Telnet use?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.ECMP
D.UCMP
3. (Single Choice) Which of the following port numbers is used by Telnet?
A.23
B.25
C.27
D.29
4. (Single Choice) What is the underlying protocol used by Telnet to transmit data?
A.RTP
B.SIP
C.UDP
D.TCP
5. (Multiple Choice) Compared with telnet, which of the following advantages does SSH
support? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Encrypt the transmitted data to guarantee its security and reliability
B.Prevent DNS and IP spoofing
23.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) An administrator connects two switches together in a local enterprise
network. The ports of one switch support Fast Ethernet, while the ports of the other switch
support Gigabit Ethernet. Hosts connected to one switch are able to communicate, however
communication between the two switches fails. What is the possible reason for this?
A. The ports have disabled auto-negoatition.
B. One port is supporting auto-negotiation, while auto-negotiation is disabled on the port
of the other switch.
C. The port of one switch is operating using half duplex mode, while the port of the other
switch is using full duplex mode.
D. A Fast Ethernet port cannot communicate directly with a Gigabit Ethernet port.
24 Link Aggregation
24.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) ( ) combines “multiple” ports to form an aggregation group. It can be
used to balance the traffic among member ports and improve the connection reliability.
A.Port Aggregation
B.Port binding
C.Port load balance
D.Port group
2. (Multiple Choice) What benefits does port aggregation yield? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Improves link bandwidth
B.Implements load sharing
C.Improves network reliability
D.Facilitates data copy for analysis
3. (Single Choice) ( ) What is the maximum number of member interfaces supported by a
single Eth-Trunk?
A.6
B.8
C.10
D.12
4. (Multiple Choice) ( ) The Eth-Trunk frame forwarding mechanism used to prevent
changes in the data sequence forwards frames based on which of the following parameters?
A. The same source or destination IP address
B. The same source or destination MAC address.
C. The same protocol type.
D. The same source or destination port number.
5. (Single Choice) ( ) In Layer 2 mode, the transmission rate of an Eth-Trunk interface is
determined by which of the following?
25 VLAN Principles
25.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) According to IEEE802.1Q, where is VLAN ID in the tagged Ethernet
frame?
A.Not fixed
B.In front of the source MAC address and destination MAC address
C.Behind the source MAC address and destination MAC address
D.Between the source MAC address and destination MAC address
2. (Single Choice) A VLAN can be considered as a ( ).
A.Collision domain
B.Broadcast domain
C.Management domain
D.Blocking domain
3. (Single Choice) Which of the following standards is defined by IEEE to regulate the
implementation of VLAN between switches?
A.802.1x
B.802.1d
C.802.1q
D.802.3
4. (Single Choice) Which of the following technologies can reduce the scope of broadcast
domain?
A.VLAN
B.Trunk
C.RARP
D.STP
5. (Single Choice) For VLAN link type,the link between a switch and a PC is ( ).
A.Access link
B.Trunk link
C.Hybrid link
D.ISL link
6. (Single Choice) A switch supports 802.1Q protocol, what is the maximum number of
VLAN it can support?
A.512
B.1024
C.2048
D.4096
7. (Single Choice) VLAN is short for?
A.Virtual local area network
B.Virtual long area network
C.Virtual local area networking
D.Virtual long area networking
8. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the formats of Ethernet frame in the
switching network? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Untagged frame
B.Token frame
C.Tagged frame
D.FDDI frame
9. (Multiple Choice) To implement network layer capability on the VLAN interface, we need
to configure ( ) on VLAN interface. (Select 2 Answers)
A.IP address
B.MAC address
C.Subnet mask
D.IP prefix
10. (Single Choice) On VRP platform, what is the function for command "interface
vlan-interface vlan-id"?
A.Create a VLAN
B.Create or enter VLAN interface
C.Configure VLAN for an interface
D.No such command
11. (Single Choice) How many bytes does a VLAN tag consist of?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
12. (Multiple Choice) After the VLAN function is introduced to the Ethernet, the ports on a
switch can be classified into ( ). (Select 3 Answers)
A.Access port
B.Trunk port
C.Hybrid port
D.None port
13. (Single Choice) A Trunk port always sends tagged frames to the peer equipment.
T.True
F.False
14. (Single Choice) A VLAN in the Ethernet is used to separate ( ).
A.Layer 2 unicast domain
B.Layer 2 broadcast domain
C.Layer 2 multicast domain
D.Layer 2 MAC address
15. (Single Choice) During frame forwarding, a switch checks the VLAN tag carried in an
Ethernet frame and then determines whether to forward the Ethernet frame through a port if
the VLAN tag is a ( ) of this port.
A.Permitted tag
B.Default PVID
C.MAC address equivalence
D.STP disable state
16. (Multiple Choice) After an Ethernet frame uses a VLAN tag, the Ethernet frame can be
expressed in two formats, namely, ( ) and ( ) in a switched network. (Select 2 Answers)
A.Untagged frame
B.Tagged frame
C.Row frame
D.Column frame
17. (Single Choice) VLAN tagged frame has extra ( ) bytes compared with standard
Ethernet frame?
A.4
B.32
C.12
D.8
18. (Single Choice) How many bits are used to identify the VLAN id of the data frame?
A.4
B.32
C.12
D.8
19. (Single Choice) The fixed value of the TPID field in VLAN tag is ( ).
A.0x8100
B.0x0800
C.0x0806
D.0x9100
20. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the advantages of VLAN compared with
traditional LAN technology? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Lower cost for relocation and changes
B.Isolate broadcast domain and control the broadcast packets
C.Improve the network security
D.Enhance the network high available
21. (Single Choice) A port of the switch belongs to VLAN 5. If VLAN 5 is removed by
using command "undo vlan 5", then which VLAN does this port belong?
A.0
B.1
C.1023
D.1024
22. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following methods can realize communication between
VLANs at network layer? (Select 2 Answers)
A.STP
B.GVRP
C.L2 Switch+Router
D.L3 Switch
23. (Single Choice) Workstation A and workstation B are respectively connected to two ports
of a switch. Assume the MAC table of the switch is empty now. Which of the following
statements is true as soon as the switch receives the first packet sent by Workstation A to
Workstation B?
A.The switch will learn address of A
B.The switch will learn address of B
C.The switch will not learn any address
D.The switch will learn addresses of both A and B
24. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following descriptions are correct about VLAN interface?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.A virtual interface is required to be created for the VLAN if we want to assign an IP
address for that VLAN,
B.Two VLAN interfaces on the same switch can be assigned with the same IP address
C.The VLAN interface number must be the same with VLAN ID
D.The VLAN interface can be configured for the non-existed VLAN
25. (Multiple Choice) An access port on a switch generally connects to a port on a computer.
Which of the following statements are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A.After receiving a tag packet, the switch forwards it directly.
B.The default VLAN of an access port is the VLAN where the port is located. You do
not need to manually configure a default VLAN for an access port.
C.An access port can belong to only one VLAN.
D.After receiving an untag packet, the access port attaches its PVID information to the
packet.
26. (Single Choice) What action does a Trunk port take after it receives an untag packet?
A.Discards the packet directly.
B.Attaches its trunk VLAN ID to the packet and then sends out the packet.
C.Sends out the packet directly without adding the tag information to the packet.
D.Attaches its PVID information to the packet and then sends out the packet.
27. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements are true after a Trunk port receives a
tag packet? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Checks whether the Trunk port allows the tag packet to pass through.
B.Transparently transmits the tag packet.
C.Discards the tag packet directly if the Trunk port does not allow the tag packet to pass
through.
D.Attaches its PVID information to the packet and then sends out the packet.
28. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about VLAN communication are
true? (Select 2 Answers)
A.One-arm routing can be configured for a Layer 3 switch only by using a router to
implement VLAN communication.
B.One-arm routing can be configured for a Layer 2 switch only by using a router to
implement VLAN communication.
C.Layer 3 VLAN interfaces can be configured on a Layer 3 switch to implement VLAN
communication.
D.Layer 3 VLAN interfaces can be configured on a Layer 2 switch to implement VLAN
communication.
29. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about the advantages of the VLAN
function are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A.The VLAN function reduces network costs by reducing the number of physical ports
on switches.
B.The VLAN function improves network security by identifying users that are allowed
to access sensitive data and applications.
C.The VLAN function improves network performance by implementing flow control
and using the window advertisement mechanism.
D.The VLAN function divides a network into several small logical networks, reducing
the impact of a broadcast storm on a network.
30. (Multiple Choice) A frame tag adds ( ) to each frame so that the frame can be
transmitted through Trunk ports on switches.
A.Destination MAC address
B.Source MAC address of a switch
C.VLAN ID
D.Bridge ID of a switch
31. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the features of the default VLAN setting in
a switch configuration? (Select 2 Answers)
37. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements are true in the process of deleting a
VLAN? (Select 2 Answers)
A.The member port of a VLAN becomes inactive after the VLAN is deleted.
B.When a routing-based interface (Vlanif) is available for a VLAN, the Vlanif interface
must be deleted before the VLAN is deleted.
C.A network administrator can delete a VLAN either in the global view or in the VLAN
view.
D.A VLAN can be deleted only after its member port is allocated to another VLAN.
38. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about the process of creating a
VLAN are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A.The member port of this VLAN enters the active state immediately.
B.A routing-based interface (Vlanif) can be created for a VLAN only after the VLAN is
created.
C.A network administrator can create a VLAN either in the global view or in the VLAN
view.
D.A VLAN can be created only after its member port is allocated to another VLAN
39. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following steps are necessary to configure a port to the
specified vlan in SYSTEM view? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Enter the VLAN view
B.Specify proportion of broadcast storm for VLAN
C.Specify description for VLAN or VLAN interface
D.Assign VLAN for the Ethernet port
40. (Single Choice) Information below shows the partial interface configuration on a Huawei
switch. According to this configuration, PVID of this interface is ( ).
[Quidway\]display interface Ethernet 1/0/1
---
Mdi type: auto
Port link-type: access
Tagged VLAN ID: none
Untagged VLAN ID: 5
A.0
B.1
C.5
D.Not able to interpret the PVID from the information given
41. (Single Choice) Which of the following ports can be configured to permit VLAN to pass?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.Trunk
B.Access
C.Hybrid
D.Normal
42. (Multiple Choice) A trunk port is configured to permit vlan 3, vlan4 and vlan 5 to pass.
The frames of vlan 3 and vlan 4 are tagged but the frames of VLAN 5 are untagged. Which of
the following may cause the problem?
A.Port PVID is 5
B.Port PVID is 3 and 4
C.Only the command "port trunk permit vlan 3 4 "was configured for the trunk port.
D.GVRP is enabled on this port
43. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following descriptions about access-link are correct?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.When access port receives a frame without 802.1Q tag header, the default PVID will
be added to the frame.
B.When access port receives a frame with VLAN ID in 802.1Q tag header different from
the default PVID, VLAN ID in 802.1Q tag header is changed to the default PVID.
C.When access port sends a frame, 802.1Q tag header is removed and standard Ethernet
frame is sent.
D.When access port sends a frame, 802.1Q tag header is kept and a tagged frame is sent
44. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following descriptions about trunk link are correct?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.When trunk port receives a frame without 802.1Q tag header, the default PVID will be
added to the frame.
B.When trunk port receives a frame with 802.1Q tag header, no changes is done on the
frame.
C.When trunk port sends a frame whose VLAN ID is not same as default PVID, the
frame is sent directly.
D.When trunk port sends a frame whose VLAN ID is same as the default PVID, no
modification is done on the tag.
45. (Multiple Choice) To make sure all hosts belonging to the same VLAN can receive the
broadcast packets sent to this VLAN, which of the following operations are needed on the
switch? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Send the packets out of all ports of the switch.
B.Send the packets out of other ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C.Send the packets to all trunk links that allow this VLAN to pass.
D.Send the packets to all trunk links.
46. (Single Choice) When the value of the two-byte TPID field in an Ethernet frame header is
0x8100, it indicates that this frame carries an ( ) tag.
A.802.1P
B.802.1Q
C.802.1D
D.802.1S
47. (Single Choice) All Ethernet frames in a switch flow in the form of ( ).
A.BPDU
B.PVID
C.Untagged frame
D.Tagged frame
48. (Single Choice) A switch is based on port-based VLAN IDs. When the switch receives
untagged frames, the VLAN ID is determined by ( ).
A.BPDU
B.PVID
C.MAC mapping table
D.IP Address
26.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) A switch is configured with VLAN 3, VLAN 4 and VLAN 5. GVRP is not
enabled for the trunk port. The trunk port then receives a frame with VLAN ID 6. This frame
will be ( ).
A.Flooded to all VLANs
B.Flooded to VLAN 1 only
C.Flooded to all trunk ports
D.Discarded
2. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols can dynamically register VLAN
information?
A.GVRP
B.GMRP
C.VRRP
D.STP
3. (Single Choice) GVRP represents Generic VLAN registration protocol, it is an application
of ( ).
A.GMRP
B.GMTP
C.IGMP
D.GARP
4. (Single Choice) GVRP is short for ?
A.GARP VLAN Registration Protocol
B.GARP VLAN Record Protocol
C.GARP VLAN Remark Protocol
D.GARP VLAN Rewrite Protocol
5. (Single Choice) A gvrp command is used to enable GVRP, and an undo gvrp command is
used to disable GVRP. By default, GVRP is ( ).
27 VLAN Routing
27.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Direct interconnection of traffic with different VLANs is not allowed.
Such traffic must be transmitted based on ( ).
A.Port isolation
B.MAC addresses
C.VLAN routing
D.VLAN switching
2. (Single Choice) On huawei router,Before you configure the IP address of an Ethernet
sub-port, you need to configure ( ).
A.MAC address
B.VLAN encapsulation
C.Global GVRP
D.Port GVRP
3. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following methods can realize communication between
VLANs at network layer?
A.STP
B.GVRP
C.L2 Switch+Router
D.L3 Switch
4. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following descriptions are correct about VLAN interface?
A.A virtual interface is required to be created for the VLAN if we want to assign an IP
address for that VLAN,
B.Two VLAN interfaces on the same switch can be assigned with the same IP address
C.The VLAN interface number must be the same with VLAN ID
D.The VLAN interface can be configured for the non-existed VLAN
5. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about VLAN communication are
true?
A.One-arm routing can be configured for a Layer 3 switch only by using a router to
implement VLAN communication.
B.One-arm routing can be configured for a Layer 2 switch only by using a router to
implement VLAN communication.
C.Layer 3 VLAN interfaces can be configured on a Layer 3 switch to implement VLAN
communication.
D.Layer 3 VLAN interfaces can be configured on a Layer 2 switch to implement VLAN
communication.
6. (Single Choice) Of all the VLAN grouping methods, the grouping method by IP address is
called ( ) VLAN.
A.port-based
B.route-based
C.MAC address-based
D.policy-based
7. (Multiple Choice) Of all the VLAN grouping methods, the grouping method by IP address
is called ( ) VLAN.
A.The member port of a VLAN becomes inactive after the VLAN is deleted.
B.When a routing-based interface (Vlanif) is available for a VLAN, the Vlanif interface
must be deleted before the VLAN is deleted.
C.A network administrator can delete a VLAN either in the global view or in the VLAN
view.
D.A VLAN can be deleted only after its member port is allocated to another VLAN.
8. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about the process of creating a VLAN
are true?
A.The member port of this VLAN enters the active state immediately.
B.A routing-based interface (Vlanif) can be created for a VLAN only after the VLAN is
created.
C.A network administrator can create a VLAN either in the global view or in the VLAN
view.
D.A VLAN can be created only after its member port is allocated to another VLAN.
28.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following WLAN standards support operation in the 5GHz
range? (Two Answers).
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
2. (Single Choice) which of the following standards provide a transmission rate of more than
1Gbps ?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11g
C. 802.11n
C. 802.11ac
29.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) HDLC is ISO standard link layer protocol and it is used to encapsulate data
transmitted on asynchronous link.
T.True
F.False
2. (Single Choice) HDLC is a type of bit stream-oriented protocol used at Data Link Layer
and it can transparently transmit data consisting of different collections of characters.
T.True
F.False
3. (Single Choice) All the protocols in the standard HDLC protocol suite run on synchronous
serial line.
T.True
F.False
4. (Single Choice) According to OSI reference model, which layer does PPP reside at?
A.Physical layer
B.Data link layer
C.Network layer
D.Transport layer
5. (Single Choice) PAP requires ( )-way hand-shake.
A.Two
B.Three
C.Four
D.One
6. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocols requires three-way handshake and allows
only username to be transmitted through network while keeping the password secret?
A.PAP
B.CHAP
C.MD5
D.TCP
7. (Single Choice) Which of the following descriptions about PAP and CHAP is correct?
A.PAP authentication requires three-way handshake
B.CHAP authentication requires two-way handshake
C.PAP authentication uses plain text to send authentication message
D.CHAP authentication uses plain text to send authentication message
8. (Single Choice) On VRP platform, which of the following commands is used to configure
PPP authentication method as PAP?
A.ppp pap
B.ppp chap
C.ppp authentication-mode pap
D.ppp authentication-mode chap
9. (Single Choice) Which layer is the PPP protocol located in the TCP/IP protocol stack?
A.Physical Layer
B.Data Link Layer
C.Network Layer
D.Transport Layer
10. (Single Choice) In the PPP protocol, CHAP authentication involves exchange of three
types of packets at different times, namely, Challenge, Response, and Success/Failure packets.
T.True
F.False
11. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following PPP protocols are classified into the NCP
protocol? (Select 2 Answers)
A.IPv6CP
B.ICMP
C.IPCP
D.TCP
12. (Single Choice) The PPP protocol provides a standard method of transmitting datagrams
of different protocols on a point-to-point link. It is a point-to-point communication protocol
widely used at the present time.
T.True
F.False
13. (Single Choice) After a PPP connection is established, the VRP platform sends
Echo-Request packets at the interval of ( ) seconds by default.
A.1
B.5
C.10
D.60
14. (Single Choice) What function does the NCP protocol can provide for a PPP connection?
A.Error detection
B.User identifier authentication
C.Carrying of “multiple” Layer 3 protocols
D.Congestion control
15. (Single Choice) In the PPP protocol, CHAP authentication involves exchange of three
types of packets at different times. To match the Request packet with a Reply packet, each
packet contains an Identifier field. In each authentication process, all the packets use the same
Identifier information.
T.True
F.False
16. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following components are defined by PPP protocol?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.Data encapsulation
B.Data encryption
C.Link Control Protocol(LCP)
D.Network Control Protocol(NCP)
17. (Multiple Choice) PPP protocol consists of three types of protocols, they are ( ). (Select
3 Answers)
A.PPPOE
B.LCP(Link Control Protocol)
C.NCP(Network Control Protocol)
D.PPP extension protocol
18. (Single Choice) RTA connects with RTB through interface Serial0. The configuration on
RTA is as follow:
[RTA]aaa
[RTA-aaa]local-user huawei password simple quidway
[RTA-aaa]local-user huawei service-type ppp
[RTA]interface Serial 0
[RTA-Serial0]link-protocol ppp
[RTA-Serial0]ppp authentication-mode pap
[RTA-Serial0]ip address 10.1.1.1 30
The configuration on RTB is as follow:
[RTB]interface Serial 0
[RTB-Serial0]link-protocol ppp
[RTB-Serial0]ppp pap local-user huawei password simple hello
[RTB-Serial0]ip address 10.1.1.2 30
With the configuration above, RTA and RTB are able to communicate with each other.
T.True
F.False
19. (Single Choice) One of the significant features of the PPP protocol is the authentication
function. With this function, the two ends of a link can negotiate with each other to use which
authentication protocol and then perform authentication. A PPP connection is established only
when the authentication is successful.
T.True
F.False
20. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A.LCP negotiates on authentication information.
B.CHAP performs authentication by exchanging packets twice.
C.IPCP can be used to negotiate on IP addresses and compress information.
D.PAP is used for user authentication
21. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following functions does LCP provide? (Select 3
Answers)
A.Negotiates to establish links.
B.Negotiates to use which Layer 3 protocols.
C.Disconnects a link when the idle timer of the link expires.
D.Tests a link to check the link quality and thus to determine whether a link can be
established.
22. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following packets belong to CHAP authentication
protocol? (Select 4 Answers)
A.Challenge
B.Request
C.Response
D.Success
E.Failure
23. (Single Choice) RTA connects with RTB through interface Serial0. The configuration on
RTA is as follow:
[RTA]aaa
[RTA-aaa]local-user huawei password cipher hello
[RTA-aaa]local-user huawei service-type ppp
[RTA]interface Serial 0
[RTA-Serial0]link-protocol ppp
A.Low delay
B.Transparent transmission, which means no modification on user data
C.Fixed bandwidth, utilization rate for the network resource is high
D.Ensure the Quality of service
30.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Frame Relay operates at data link layer, which of the following are the
functions of Frame Relay? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Statistical time division multiplexing
B.Transparent transmission of the frame
C.Error detection
D.Retransmission
2. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following DLCI numbers are used by Frame Relay LMI ?
(Select 2 Answers)
A.0
B.16
C.1007
D.1023
3. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements about Frame Relay are true? (Select
4 Answers)
A.Frame Relay is a kind of fast packet switching technology that uses the simplified
method to transmit and switch the data unit on data link layer.
B.Frame Relay implements the functions of physical layer and network layer.
C.In Frame Relay, flow control and error correction are implemented by higher-layer
protocol and application services. This simplifies the protocols operation between
devices.
D.Frame Relay adopts virtual circuit technology thus network resources are fully utilized
E.High throughput, low delay, and suitable for burst data
4. (Multiple Choice) On Frame Relay, VC (Virtual Circuit) is a logical circuit between two
network devices. It can be divided into ( ) (Select 2 Answers)
A.SVC(Static Virtual Circuit)
B.TVC(temporary Virtual Circuit)
B.DCE
C.NNI
D.None of the above
12. (Single Choice) The default format for encapsulating a frame relay protocol is IETF.
T.Truer
F..False
13. (Multiple Choice) What kind of LMI protocols does VRP support? (Select 3 Answers)
A.Q933a
B.Ansi
C.Cisco
D.Nonstandard
14. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following parameters are defined in Frame Relay?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.CIR (Committed Information Rate)
B.TTL (Time to Live)
C.BE (Excess Burst Size)
D.BC (Committed Burst Size)
15. (Single Choice) When you configure Frame Relay on Quidway routers, you can configure
Inverse ARP instead of static address mapping because the function of Inverse ARP is to
provide dynamic address mapping.
T.Truer
F..False
16. (Single Choice) Which of the following commands is used to enable dynamic address
mapping protocol in the interface encapsulated with Frame Relay?
A.Fr inarp
B.Fr reverse-arp
C.Inverse-arp
D.Reverse-arp
17. (Single Choice) Frame relay point-to-multipoint sub-port can connect “multiple” remote
nodes together through a PVC.
T.Truer
F..False
18. (Single Choice) What does the number "30" in the following frame relay configuration
command stand for?
[RTB-Serial0\]fr map ip 10.1.1.2 30
A.Subnet mask
B.DLCI
C.Cost
D.Weight
19. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following parameters must be specified when configure
static mapping for Frame Relay network? (Select 2 Answers)
A.Local DLCI
B.Remote DLCI
C.Local network layer protocol address
D.Remote network layer protocol address
20. (Multiple Choice) The standards for Frame Relay encapsulation that Huawei router
supports include ( ). (Select 2 Answers)
A.IETF
B.ANSI
C.Q.933a
D.Nonstandard
21. (Single Choice) The 10.1.1.2 IP address in the returned result of the frame relay command
represents the IP address of the local device.
[RTA\]dis fr map-info
Map Statistics for interface Serial0 (DTE)
DLCI = 100, IP INARP 10.1.1.2, Serial0
create time = 2007/06/04 17:34:59, status = ACTIVE
encapsulation = ietf, vlink = 20, broadcast
T.Truer
F..False
22. (Multiple Choice) The distance vector routing protocol uses a split horizon mechanism.
This makes a frame relay node connecting “multiple” peer devices together fail to transmit the
route information to all peer devices. Which of the following methods can solve this problem?
(Select 3 Answers)
A.Use “multiple” physical ports to connect “multiple” adjacent nodes together.
B.Use “multiple” logical sub-ports of a physical port.
C.Disable the split horizon function and take into account the risk resulting from a loop.
D.Ignore the risk resulting from a routing loop because no routing loop occurs in any
case.
31.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) What function does the NCP protocol can provide for a PPP connection?
A. Error detection
B. User identifier authentication
C. Carrying of “multiple” Layer 3 protocols
D. Congestion control
2. (Single Choice) In the PPP protocol, CHAP authentication involves exchange of three types
of packets at different times. To match the Request packet with a Reply packet, each packet
contains an Identifier field. In each authentication process, all the packets use the same
Identifier information.
T.True
F.False
3. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following components are defined by PPP protocol?
A. Data encapsulation
B. Data encryption
C. Link Control Protocol(LCP)
D. Network Control Protocol(NCP)
4. (Multiple Choice) PPP protocol consists of three types of protocols, they are ( ).
A. PPPOE
B. LCP(Link Control Protocol)
C. NCP(Network Control Protocol)
D. PPP extension protocol
5. (Single Choice) One of the significant features of the PPP protocol is the authentication
function. With this function, the two ends of a link can negotiate with each other to use which
authentication protocol and then perform authentication. A PPP connection is established only
when the authentication is successful.
T.True
F.False
6. (Single Choice) In the PPP protocol, which of the following encryption algorithms is used
by CHAP?
A. DES
B. MD5
C. AES
D. None
7. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following packets belong to CHAP authentication
protocol?
A. Challenge
B. Request
C. Response
D. Success
E. Failure
8. (Multiple Choice) When you configure PPP authentication method as PAP, which of the
following operations are necessary?
A. Add the user name and password of the authenticated party to local user list
B. Configure the encapsulation type of the interface connected to the peer as PPP.
C. Configure PPP authentication method as CHAP
D. On the authenticated party end, configure the user name and password that are sent
to authenticator
9. (Single Choice) In the PPP protocol, the dynamic negotiation is the same as the static
negotiation in the IPCP flow. That is, in either dynamic or static negotiation, allocation of IP
addresses is completed after one Config-Request dialog.
T.True
F.False
10. (Single Choice) How many bytes does the Maximum Receive Unit (MRU) of PPP consist
of by default?
A. 1024
B. 1500
C. 1518
D. 8096
11. (Single Choice) Which of the following protocol is required in negotiation to compress the
TCP/IP packet header for a PPP link?
A. LCP
B. PAP
C. IPCP
D. CHAP
12. (Single Choice) In the Internet, two technologies are widely used to access services and
support both dial-up connections and connections through private lines. One of them is ADSL.
What is the other technology?
A.LAN
B.WAN
C.MSTP
D.Metro
32.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements are correct about NAT?
A. NAT is the abbreviation for "Network Address Translation"
B. NAT is used for translation between private network address and public network
address.
C. When hosts inside a private network access the outside network, NAT is not needed
at all.
D. NAT provides an effective way to solve the problem of insufficient IP address.
2. (Single Choice) Which of the following technologies can allow a host with IP address
10.0.0.1 to access the internet?
A. Static route
B. Dynamic route
C. Route import
D. NAT
3. (Single Choice) Which of the following problems can be solved by NAT?
A. Saving Internet public address
B. Improving the forwarding performance of routers
C. Enhancing the security of data transmission
D. Protecting computers from viruses attacks
4. (Single Choice) What type of network addresses can be translated by NAT?
A. IP
B. IPX
C. AppleTalk
D. DECNET
5. (Single Choice) Which of the following problems can be solved by NAT?
A.Saving Internet public address
33.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) Which of the following is a typical WWAN?
A.2G network
B.3G network
C.4G network
D.All of the above
34.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) This type of firewall directly obtains the information such as source IP
address, destination IP address, source TCP/UDP port, destination TCP/UDP port and
protocol number in the packet header and filters the packets based on the defined policy.
Which of the following is the firewall described above
A. Packet filtering firewall
B. Proxy firewall
C. Stateful firewall
D. Link-layer firewall
2. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following are the disadvantages of packet filtering
firewall?
A. Complicated configuration and can result in a lot of problems due to
mis-configuration
B. As the complexity and length of ACL increase, its performance will degrade greatly
C. Simple configuration
D. Low overhead, high processing speed
3. (Multiple Choice) Packet filtering firewall filters packet based on quintuplet. Which of the
following are the components of quintuplet?
A. IP address
B. Protocol number
C. Port number
D. Application program
E. MAC address
4. (Multiple Choice) What of the following statements is correct regarding access control list
types and ranges?
A. A basic ACL value ranges from 1000-2999
B. An advanced ACL value ranges from 3000-4000
Refer to the configuration output. A network administrator configured the ACL on router RTA,
as shown. Which of the following statements regarding the rule order are correct? (Two
Answers).
A. The rule-number of the first rule is 1
B. The rule-number of the first rule is 5
C. The rule-number of the second rule is 2
D. The rule-number of the second rule is 10
7. (Multiple Choice) Following a failure of services in the network, an administrator
discovered that the configuration in one of the enterprise routers had been changed. What
actions can be taken by the administrator to prevent further changes? (Three Answers)
A. The administrator should limit access by setting the login privilege of users to 0.
B. The administrator should configure AAA to manage user authorization on the router.
C. The administrator should configure an ACL to allow only the administrator to
manage the router.
D. The administrator should configure port-security on the router
35 AAA
35.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Assume that a user is Telneting a router. In this case, which of the
following statements are true?
A.The router authenticates the user password.
B.The router may perform local authentication based on AAA.
C.The router may perform remote authentication based on AAA.
D.The router does not authenticate the user.
2. (Multiple Choice) An administrator currently manages AR2200 devices in the network
through a single password, however the company wishes to introduce another two
administrators and provide unique user credentials and privilege levels for telnet access to the
network devices. What action can be taken? (Three Anwsers)
A. Configure three users under the AAA-view, and assign each a different password.
B. The authentication mode must be changed to AAA.
C. Each administrator must be assigned a privilege level.
D. A public IP address must be assigned to each user for telnet access.
3. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet
users? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Password authentication
B. AAA local authentication
C. MD5 authentication
D. No authentication
4. (Single Choice) The users who log on the router through Telnet are not permitted to
configure IP address. What is the possible reason?
A. Communication failures occur between the user and the router.
B. The authentication mode of Telnet is set incorrectly.
C. Privilege level of Telnet is set incorrectly.
D. SNMP parameters are set incorrectly.
36.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) A virtual private network (VPN) can be divided into different parts by
layer. What are these parts?
A.L2VPN
B.L3VPN
C.VPDN
D.GRE VPN
2. (Multiple Choice) If AH and ESP are both required to protect data streams between IPsec
peers, how many Security Associations (SA) are required in total?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
3. (Single Choice) Two routers establish an IPsec tunnel, which of the following does not
need to be the same on both peering devices?
A. Encapsulation mode
B. Transform mode
C. Proposal name
D. authentication algorithm
4. (Multiple Choice) The data is transmitted using IPsec tunnel mode. The fields of which
headers will be authenticated?
A. TCP and Data
B. Origin IP, TCP and Data
C. AH, Origin IP, TCP and Data
D. The fields of all headers
5. (Multiple Choice) IPsec VPN uses ESP to encrypt which fields ?
37.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) RTA and RTB have established a GRE tunnel, but only RTA has enabled
the keepalive function. When RTB receive a keepalive message from RTA, how will RTB
respond?
A. RTB will discard the keepalive message.
B. RTB willl record receipt of the keepalive message but won’t reply
C. RTB will send a keepalive in response.
D. RTB will send a keepalive reply and begin to actively send keepalive messages.
2. (Multiple Choice) Two hosts communicate through a GRE tunnel. When the GRE tunnel is
up, the network administrator configures a static route on RTA to route packets to Host B.
Which of the following commands will achieve this?
A. ip route-static 10.1.2.0 24 GigabitEthernet0/0/1
B. ip route-static 10.1.2.0 24 200.2.2.1
C. ip route-static 10.1.2.0 24 200.1.1.1
D. ip route-static 10.1.2.0 24 tunnel 0/0/1
38.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) which version of SNMP supports data encryption?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv2
C. SNMPv2c
D. SNMPv3
2. (Single Choice) Which of the following statements regarding traps in SNMP is correct?
A. Traps are transmitted using UDP to destination port number 162.
B. Traps are transmitted using UDP to destination port number 161.
C. Traps are transmitted using TCP to destination port number 162.
D. Traps are transmitted using TCP to destination port number 161.
3. (Single Choice) The Network Management Station uses SNMP to manage devices, which
SNMP message is sent when an SNMP registered abnormal event occurs?
A. get-response
B. set-request
C. trap
D. get-request
4. (Multiple Choice) eSight supports which of the following SNMP versions in order to
manage devices? (Three Answers).
A. SNPMv1
B. SNPMv2
C. SNPMv2c
D. SNPMv3
39.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following descriptions regarding eSight is not correct?
A. eSight is used to monitor and manage enterprise networks.
B. eSight supports only Huawei devices
C. eSight supports WLAN management and monitoring of hotspot coverage.
D. eSight supports the backup of configuration files and network traffic analysis.
40.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following formats represent an accurate condensing of the
IPv6 address 2031:0000:720C:0000:0000:09E0:839A:130B? (Two Answers).
A. 2031:0:720C:0:0:9E0:839A:130B
B. 2031:0:720C:0:0:9E:839A:130B
C. 2031::720C::9E0:839A:130B
D. 2031:0:720C::9E0:839A:130B
2. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following IPv6 addresses can be configured on a router’s
interface? (Two Answers).
A. fe80:13dc::1/64
B. ff00:8a3c::9b/64
C. ::1/128
D. 2001:12e3:1b02::21/64
3. (Single Choice) The IPv6 address achitecture does not include which of the following
address types?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
4. (Multiple Choice) Which of the following descriptions regarding IPv6 addresses are correct?
(Two Answers)
A. IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length.
B. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length.
C. IPv6 extension headers are processed in order.
D. IPv6 extension headers are processed randomly.
5. (Single Choice) Interface G0/0/1 on RTA contains a MAC address of 00e0-fc03-aa73 and is
configured with the IPv6 address 2001::2E0:FCFF:FE03:AA73. Which method is most likely
to have been used to configure the interface IPv6 address?
A. DHCPv6
B. Auto-link
C. ARP
D. EUI-64
41.1 Question
1. (Single Choice) In a small network suppporting IPv6, a network administrator wishes
implement RIPng. Which of the following commands should be used to enable this protocol?
A. [RTA-GigabitEthernet0/0/0]ripng 1 enable
B. [RTA]ripng 1 enable
C. <RTA>ripng 1 enable
D. [RTA-ripng-1]ripng 1 enable
2. (Single Choice) Interface G0/0/1 on RTA contains a MAC address of 00e0-fc03-aa73 and is
configured with the IPv6 address 2001::2E0:FCFF:FE03:AA73. Which method is most likely
to have been used to configure the interface IPv6 address?
A. DHCPv6
B. Auto-link
C. ARP
D. EUI-64
3. (Single Choice) In a small network suppporting IPv6, a network administrator wishes
implement RIPng. Which of the following commands should be used to enable this protocol?
A. [RTA-GigabitEthernet0/0/0]ripng 1 enable
B. [RTA]ripng 1 enable
C. <RTA>ripng 1 enable
D. [RTA-ripng-1]ripng 1 enable
4. (Multiple Choice) In a network supporting IPv6, OSPF no longer supports which feature?
A. multiple areas
B. Router-ID
C. authentication
D. multicast updates
5. (Single Choice) Two routers are configured with OSPFv3. OSPFv3 is enabled on all
interfaces of each router. Which of the following is true in the event that the network
administrator does not configure a Router-ID?
A. The IP address of the loopback 0 interface will be used as the router ID
B. The IP address of the loopback 1 interface will be used as the router ID
C. The IP address of interface G0/0/0 will be used as the router ID
D. No router ID will be assigned to the router.
42.1 Question
1. (Multiple Choice) A DHCP Unique Identifier (DUID) in DHCPv6 can be configured in
VRP using which formats? (Two Answers).
A. DUID-LL
B. DUID-LLT
C. DUID-EN
D. DUID-LLC