MEDICINE

CONTINUOUS
ASSESSMENT II

PHYSICS
PAPER II

AND FRENCH
03hours

CALCULATORS ARE ALLOWED

Dr DJEUTASSONG Ericson

General Coordinator of ISAF

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Compiled by ZE BESSALA Kevin Head of the Compiling
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Department
 National Centre for Career Orientation and Preparations into Best
Professional Schools and Faculties in Cameroon and Abroad

PAPER I D. Tropomyosin
SECTION A: BIOLOGY 8. The activity of which contractile protein
Instruction: Select the single best answer is altered to regulate smooth muscle
1. The smallest amount of muscle that can contraction?
contract in response to excitation of a A. Actin
single motor neuron is: B. Myosin
C. Calmodulin
A. 1 muscle fiber
D. Tropomyosin
B. A muscle fasciculus
9. Smooth muscle lacks:
C. The entire muscle
A. Actin
D. All muscle fibers supplied by that neuron
B. Myosin
E. Non of the above
C. Troponin
2. Which of the following muscle types is
D. Tropomyosin
the ‘fastest’?
10. Which of the following slow the
A. Skeletal muscle
relaxation process in skeletal muscle?
B. Smooth muscle
A. Slow myosin atpase
C. Cardiac muscle
B. Inhibition of Ca-Mg atpase
D. Non of the above
C. ATP depletion
3. The major source of calcium for
D. None of the above
contraction of skeletal muscle is:
11. Rigor mortis is due to:
A. ECF
A. Damage to actin & myosin
B. Cytosol
B. Rapid sequestration of Ca in ER
C. Mitochondria
C. Increased myosin atpase
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)
D. ATP depletion
E. None of the above
E. None of the above
4. Which of the following statements
12. Ryanodine receptor is located in the:
regarding type I muscle fibers is
A. Sarcolemma
incorrect?
B. T-tubule
A. They are rich in myoglobin
C. Terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic
B. Their oxidative capacity is high
reticulum
C. Their myosin atpase activity is high
D. Cytosol
D. Their glycolytic capacity is moderate
E. None of the above
5. Which of the following is incorrect about
13. Endolymph is produced by:
type II muscle fibers?
A. Stria vascularis
A. They are called slow fibers
B. Inner hair cells
B. Their myosin atpase activity is high
C. Sustentacular cells
C. They contain little myoglobin
D. Outer hair cells
D. They are rich in glycolytic enzymes
E. None of the above
6. Thin filaments do not contain:
14. Which of the following structures is most
A. Actin
likely involved in the spatial localization
B. Myosin
of sound?
C. Troponin
A. Spiral ganglion
D. Tropomyosin
B. Hair cells
7. The atpase activity of which of the
C. Superior olivary complex
following proteins is altered to regulate
D. Cochlear nerve
skeletal muscle contraction?
E. None of the above
A. Actin
15. Which of the following functions as a
B. Myosin
frequency analyzer in hearing?
C. Troponin

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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

A. Reissner’s membrane E. None of the above

B. Tectorial membrane 22. The following are stages of glycolysis
C. Basilar membrane except
D. Middle ear ossicles A. Sugar activation
E. None of the above B. Reduction
16. The term “brain of the gut” is used to C. Sugar cleavage
refer to the: D. Oxidation
A. Autonomic ganglia E. ATP formation
B. Enteric nervous system 23. During the breakdown of one molecule of
C. Migratory motor complex glucose ............ Amount of ATP is
D. Interstitial Cells of Cajal produced
E. None of the above A. 38
17. The most frequent type of movement in B. 34
the small intestine in the digestive state C. 32
is: D. 24
A. Peristalsis E. 36
B. Antiperistalsis 24. Krebs cycle occurs
C. Slow wave A. Cristae of mitochondria
D. Segmentation B. In the outer membrane of
E. None of the above mitochondria
18. The type of intestinal contraction that C. Inner membrane of mitochondria
hastens transit in the GIT in the digestive D. At the matrix of mitochondria
state is: E. At the cytosol
A. Peristalsis 25. The following are catabolic hormones
B. Segmentation except
C. Tonic contraction A. Cortisol
D. Migrating motor complex B. Glucagon
E. None of the above C. Adrenaline
19. Which of the following clotting factors is D. Testosterone
not vitamin K dependent? E. None of the above
A. Factor II 26. The krebs cycle yields except
B. Factor V A. 3NADH
C. Factor VII B. 2ATP
D. Factor IX C. 1FADH2
E. Factor X D. 1ATP
20. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in E. None of the above
the: 27. The following concerning ATP are true
A. Kidneys except
B. Liver A. It releases energy when transformed
C. Spleen to ADP
D. Bone marrow B. Contains energy rich phosphate bonds
E. None of the above C. Contains deoxyribose sugar
21. At any time, the greatest fraction of D. Contains adenine
blood is present in the: E. None of the above
A. Heart 28. The following factors does not affect
B. Arteries basal metabolic rate
C. Veins A. Quantity of thyroxine in blood
D. Capillaries B. Sex of an individual
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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

C. Age C. A large ,flat tendon that anchors

D. Type of activity muscle
E. Body surface D. A group of neurones that innervate
29. What is the role of tropomyosin in striated muscle cells
muscle contraction E. None of the above
A. To release troponin from tropomyosin 34. We would expect to find smooth muscle
allowing myosin to bind to the actin in all of the following except
filament A. Pulmonary circulatory
B. To release calcium from the B. Esophagus
sarcoplasmic reticulum C. Small intestine
C. To prevent myosin from continuing to D. Tongue
slide up the actin filament E. None of the above
D. To aid in myosin cocking on the actin 35. Curare is a natural occuring compound
filament that competitively binds to nicotinic
E. None of the above acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells.
30. What is the role of acetylcholine in Which of the following symptoms might
calcium release be seen in a patient who has been
A. Stimulates cellular contraction by exposed to curare
opening voltage gated ion channels A. Diaphragmatic paralysis
B. Stimulates postsynaptic acetylcholine B. Cardiac arrest
receptors to release intracellular C. Excessive salivation
calcium D. Muscle spasticity
C. Binds to sarcoplasmic reticulum E. None of the above
causing calcium release 36. Which of the following is accurate
D. Binds to the T tubules causing calcium regarding type 1 and 2 muscle fibers
release A. Type 1 fibers store much of their
E. None of the above energy as triglycerides,whereas type 2
31. Which of the following correctly fibers store energy as ATP
identifies muscle components in order B. Type 1 fibers are easily fatigued and
from largest to smallest are therefore intended for short burst
A. Muscle fiber, fasciculus, myofibril of activity
B. Sarcolemma, sarcoplasm, fasciculus C. Type 1 fibers employ anaerobic
C. Fasciculus, muscle cell, myofibril metabolism whereas type 2 fibers
D. Fasciculus, muscle bundle, myofibril utilise aerobic metabolism
E. None of the above D. Type 1 fibers are white whereas type
32. The space between two Z lines 2 fibers are red
constitutes the E. None of the above
A. Sarcolemma 37. Which of the following is not innervated
B. Sarcophagus by the autonomic nervous system
C. Sarcoplasm A. Branching muscle cell
D. Sarcomere B. Striated skeletal muscle cell
E. None the above C. Myocardial cell
33. What is an aponeurosis D. Intestinal muscle cell
A. A segment of muscle that is not E. None of the above
attached to bone 38. The shortage phase of the cell cycle is
B. An area of smooth muscle in the A. Prophase
abdomen B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

D. Telophase C. Endomysium
E. None of the above D. Sarcomysium
39. Which of the following sequence E. None of the above
correctly describes the cell cycle 46. Which part of the vertebral column is
A. G1,G2,M,Cytokinesis convex with respect to the anterior side
B. M,G1,G2 ,cytokinesis of the body
C. Cytokinesis ,mitosis, G1 , G2 A. Cervical curve
D. S,G2 ,M,cytokinesis,G1 B. Thoracic curve
E. None of the above C. Sacral curve
40. In human somatic cells, the number of D. They are all concave
kinetochor after the S phase of mitosis is E. None of the above
A. 23 47. The following are ligaments of the
B. 44 shoulder joint except
C. 46 A. Coracohumeral ligament
D. 92 B. Superior glenohumeral ligament
E. None of the above C. Lateral glenohumeral ligament
41. Concerning the fontanel D. Inferior glenohumeral ligament
A. There exist 5 E. None of the above
B. The anterolateral fontanel is also 48. The following are ligaments of the knee
called the asterion joint
C. There exist a single pterion A. Anterior cruciate ligament
D. They are considered as sutures B. Mediane collateral ligament
E. None of the above C. Medial collateral ligament
42. Are long bones except D. Lateral collateral ligament
A. Phalanges E. None of the above
B. Femur 49. The elbow joint is responsible for the
C. Tibia following movement of the forearm
D. Sternum except
E. Humerus A. Flexion
43. What structure lies within the B. Extension
hypogastric region C. Pronation
A. Colon D. Adduction
B. Cecum E. Supination
C. Urinary bladder 50. The shoulder joint is responsible for the
D. Stomach following movement of the upperlimb
E. None of the above except
44. Chorionic villi sampling has an advantage A. Flexion
over amniocentesis because B. Extension
A. Involves removal of fluid only C. Pronation
B. Never has any negative side effects D. Abduction
C. Yields test results in a few days E. None of the above
D. Can be performed during the second SECTION B : CHEMISTRY
week of pregnancy
51. In which of the following systems will the
E. None of the above
equilibrium be affected by a change in
45. The outermost layer of the muscle cell is
pressure?
called the
A. Epimysium A. N2(g) + 3H2(g) ↔ 2NH3(g)
B. Perimysium B. H2(g) + I2(g) ↔ 2HI(g) 5
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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

C. N2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO(g) C. 0.125 mole

D. H2(g) + Cl2(g) ↔ 2hcl(g) D. 0.250 mole
52. Which of the following pairs will affect E. 0.500 mole
the rate of chemical reaction in aqueous 57. A 27.0-gram sample of an unknown
medium? hydrocarbon was burned in excess
oxygen to form 88.0 grams of carbon
A. Temperature and catalyst
dioxide and 27.0 grams of water. What is
B. Volume and density a possible molecular formula of the
C. Volume and temperature hydrocarbon?
D. Volume and particle size A. CH4
53. Which of the following statements is B. C2H2
characteristic of a system in equilibrium? C. C4H3
A. The rate of the forward reaction is the D. C4H6
same as the rate of the reverse reaction E. C4H10
B. There is no change on the right hand 58. Consider the Arrhenius equation given
side and left hand side of the equation below and mark the correct option.
C. The equilibrium is static K = A e–E /rta
D. The equilibrium constant increases A. Rate constant increases exponentially
slowly with time with increasing activation energy
For questions 4-5, and decreasing temperature.
The following chemical reaction is B. Rate constant decreases exponentially
exothermic in its gaseous phase with increasing activation energy
. What will happen and decreasing temperature.
in the following circumstances? C. Rate constant increases exponentially
54. When the temperature is raised with decreasing activation energy
A. The equilibrium is displaced to the right and decreasing temperature.
B. The equilibrium is displaced to the left D. Rate constant increases exponentially
C. The equilibrium is displaced to both the with decreasing activation energy
right and left and increasing temperature.
D. There is an explosion 59. Consider the figure below and mark the
correct option.
E. Nothing happens
55. When the pressure is increased
A. The forward reaction is favored
B. The backward reaction is favored
C. The reaction goes forward and then
backwards
D. There is an explosion A. Activation energy of forward reaction is
E1 + E2 and product is less stable than
E. Nothing happens
reactant.
56. What number of moles of O2 is needed to
produce 14.2 grams of P4O10 from P? B. Activation energy of forward reaction is
E1+E2 and product is more stable than
(Molar Mass P4O10 = 284)
reactant.
A. 0.0500 mole
B. 0.0625 mole
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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

C. Activation energy of both forward and C. The amount of the hydrate sample used
backward reaction is E1+E2 and reactant was too small.
is more stable than product. D. The crucible was not heated to constant
D. Activation energy of backward reaction mass before use.
is E1 and product is more stable than E. Excess heating caused the dehydrated
reactant.
sample to decompose.
60. When a hydrate of Na2CO3 is heated until
64. Bro3− + 5 Br− + 6 H+ ⇄ 3 Br2 + 3 H2O
all the water is removed, it loses 54.3
If 25.0 milliliters of 0.200-molar bro3−
percent of its mass. The formula of the
is mixed with 30.0 milliliters of 0.450-
hydrate is…
molar Br− solution that contains a
A. Na2CO3. 10 H2O large excess of H+, the amount of Br2
B. Na2CO3. 7 H2O formed, according to the equation
C. Na2CO3. 5 H2O above, is…
D. Na2CO3. 3 H2O A. 5.00 x 10−3 mole
E. Na2CO3. H2O B. 8.10 x 10−3 mole
61. In which of the following compounds is C. 1.35 x 10−2 mole
the mass ratio of chromium to oxygen D. 1.50 x 10−2 mole
closest to 1.6 to 1.0? E. 1.62 x 10−2 mole
A. Cro3 65. During decomposition of an activated
B. Cro2 complex
C. Cro A. Energy is always released
D. Cr2O B. Energy is always absorbed
E. Cr2O3 C. Energy does not change
62. A first order reaction is 50% completed in D. Reactants may be formed
1.26 × 1014 s. How much time would it take
for 100% completion? 66. 2H2O(l)+4mno4−(aq)+3clo2−(aq)4mno2(s) +
3clo4−(aq) + 4OH−(aq) According to the
A. 1.26 × 1015 s
balanced equation above, how many
B. 2.52 × 1014 s moles of clo2−(aq) are needed to react
C. 2.52 × 1028 s completely with 20. Ml of 0.20 M kmno4
D. Infinite solution?
63. After completing an experiment to A. 0.0030 mol
determine gravimetrically the percentage B. 0.0053 mol
of water in a hydrate, a student reported C. 0.0075 mol
a value of 38 percent. The correct value D. 0.013 mol
for the percentage of water in the E. 0.030 mol
hydrate is 51 percent. Which of the 67. If 1.45 J of heat are added to a 2.00 g
following is the most likely explanation sample of aluminum metal and the
for this difference? temperature of the metal increases by
A. Strong initial heating caused some of the 0.798 oc, what is the specific heat of
hydrate sample to spatter out of the aluminum?
crucible. A. 0.579 J/g deg
B. The dehydrated sample absorbed B. 0.909 J/g deg
moisture after heating. C. 1.68 J/g deg
D. 3.63 J/g deg
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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

68. Water has a specific heat of 4.184 J/g deg A. 662mins

while glass (Pyrex) has a specific heat of B. 1324mins
0.780 J/g deg. If 10.0J of heat is added to C. 700mins
1.00 g of each of these, which will D. 1400mins
experience the larger increase of E. 1500mins
temperature? 73. Compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ react according to
A. Glass the following chemical equation.
B. Water A(g)+2B(g) →2C(g)
C. They both will experience the same Concentration of either ‘A’ or ‘B’ were
change in temperature since only the changed keeping the concentrations of
amount of a substance relates to the one of the reactants constant and rates
increase in temperature. were measured as a function of initial
The hydrolysis of sucrose: Sucrose + H20 → concentration. Following results were
Glucose + Fructose, takes the following time obtained. Choose the correct option for
course: the rate equations for this reaction.
T (min) 0 30 60 90 120 180 Experim Initial Initial Initial
ent rate of
Concentra Concentra Format
[Sucrose] 0 0.50 0.45 0.40 0.36 0.26
tion tion ion of
(M) 11 11 38 26 74
Of Of [C]/mol
– – –1 –1
[A]/mol L [B]/mol L L s
1 1
69. The order of the reaction and the rate
constant will be: 1. 0.30 0.30 0.10
A. First order, k= 2.48 x 10-5sec-1 2. 0.30 0.60 0.40
B. First order, k= 3.48 x 10-3min-1 3. 0.60 0.30 0.20
C. Zero order, k= 0.368min-1
D. First order, k= 1.74 x 10-3min-1 A. Rate = k [A]2 [B]
E. None of the above
B. Rate = k [A] [B]2
70. The half life of the reaction will be:
A. 100mins C. Rate = k [A] [B]
B. 50mins D. Rate = k [A]2 [B]0
C. 11940secs 74. For a complex
D. 225mins reaction …..
E. 250mins A. Order of overall reaction is same as
molecularity of the slowest step.
71. How long will it take to hydrolyze 90% of
the sucrose initially present? B. Order of overall reaction is less than the
A. 662mins molecularity of the slowest step.
B. 700mins C. Order of overall reaction is greater than
C. 500mins molecularity of the slowest step.
D. 750mins D. Molecularity of the slowest step is never
E. None of the above zero or non integer.
72. How long will it take to hydrolyze 90% if 75. Which of the following statement(s)
the amount of sucrose initially present is about the activated complex is/are
twice that given in the table? correct?

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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

A. The arrangement of atomic nuclei and C. 8 W

bonding electrons at the maximum D. 5 W
potential difference is called the E. None of the above
80. An electrostatic pendulum made up of a
activated complex
small spherical metallic ball of mass 4g
B. The arrangement of atomic nuclei and
carrying an electric charge q is suspended
bonding electrons at the maximum
at the end of an isolated wire. At a point
potential energy is called the activated
where g = 9.78N/kg, the assembly is
complex
placed between two vertical plates
C. The activated complex is very unstable
separated by a distance of 12cm having a
due its low energy content
potential difference of 100V. The
D. The arrangement of atomic nuclei and pendulum is then displaced through an
bonding electrons at the maximum angle of 10o. The absolute value of the
kinetic energy is called the activated pendulum charge is then:
complex
A. 8.50μc
E. The activated complex is very unstable
B. 6.23μc
due its high energy content
C. 8.30μc
SECTION C : PHYSICS
D. 5.42nc
76. The distance between two charges q and
E. None of the above
3q situated respectively in point A and B,
81. Which of the forces below are contact
is a > 0. At what distance from the point
forces
A does the electrostatics field vanish?
A. Electric, weight, friction, gravity
A. A/2
B. Viscous, upthrust ,electric, gravity
B. A/3
C. C. Magnetic, friction, weight, tension
D. Tension , upthrust , friction, viscous
D. E. None of the above
E. None of the above 82. Two point objects carrying charges 10Q
77. A positive electric point creates an each one, are separated by a distance d.
electric field which is
The force between them is F. If half the
A. Uniform
B. Centrifugal charge on one is transferred to the other
C. Centripetal object while at the same time the
D. Null distance between them is doubled, what
E. None of the above is the new force between the objects?
78. Three capacitors of capacitance 1𝝁f ,2 𝝁f A. 0.19F
and 4 𝝁f respectively are connected in
B. 0.25F
series , the capacitance of the system is?
A. 7 𝜇f C. 0.75F
B. 1.75 μf D. 4.0F
C. 0.57μf E. None of the above is correct
D. 6 μf 83. Two electric charges having values 10-5C
E. 1.54 μf
and 2 x 10-5 respectively exert between
79. In a uniform electric field, an electron
moves from a potential 107 V to another them a force of intensity 0.2 x 104N.
point of potential 113 V. The electrostatic Given K = 9 x 109 USI. The distance
work will be? separating the two charges is:
A. 7 ev A. 3.1cm
B. 6 ev
B. 17.2cm
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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

C. 3.0cm C. 3360 ms-1

D. 8.9cm D. 4324 ms-1
E. 0.09cm 88. Which of the following is true concerning
waves?
84. A body has a weight W at a location
A. All waves have points of maximum
which is 2R above the surface of the
displacement called antinodes and
earth, R being the radius of the earth. If
points of zero displacement called
the body is taken to a planet which has
nodes.
half the radius of the earth but thrice its
B. Stationary waves on a string produce
average density, what will be its weight
only odd harmonics.
in terms of W?
27 C. Total internal reflection occurs when the
A. W
2 angle of incidence is equal to or greater
B. 6W than the critical angle.
C. 12W D. The wave constant is obtained as the
D. 3W quotient between the angular frequency
E. They have not given the relationship and linear velocity of the wave.
between masses for us to calculate. E. None of the above
85. Explorer 38, a radio-astronomy research 89. Consider a wave described by the
satellite of mass 200kg circles the earth in equation y(x,t) = 2.5 x 10-3 sin(-30x – 1.0 x
𝟑
an orbit of average radius R, where R is 103t), where x and y are in centimeters
𝟐
the radius of the earth. Assuming the and t in seconds. Determine the direction
gravitational pull on a mass of 1kg at the of motion of the wave and the initial
earth’s surface to be 10N, and the radius amplitude.
of the earth is 637 hm, calculate the A. Left to right along the positive x axis,
angular velocity of the satellite. 2.5 x 10-3 cm downwards
A. 1.25 x 10-3 rads/s2 B. Right to left along the negative x axis,
B. 7.92 x 10-4 rads/s2 2.5 x 10-3 cm upwards
C. 1.02 x 10-3 rads/s2 C. Right to left along the negative x axis,
D. 1.01 x 10-3 rads/s2 2.5 x 10-3 cm downwards
E. None of the above D. Left to right along the positive x axis,
86. A 95.0-kg person stands on a scale in an 2.5 x 10-3 cm upwards
elevator. What is theapparent weight E. Left to right along the positive x axis, -
when the elevator is accelerating upward 2.5 x 10-3 cm downwards
with anacceleration of 1.80 m/s2? 90. The average left ventricle weighs 200g
A. 760 N and can pump blood from rest to a
B. 930 N velocity of 26 cms-1 such that it covers an
C. 800 N initial displacement of 2.0 cm. What is
D. 1100 N the average contraction force of the left
E. 1120 N
ventricle?
87. A spacecraft of mass 4.0 x 104 kg has its
A. 0.34 N
motor switched off above the earth of
B. 33.8 N
radius 6.4 Mm. It slows down as it moves
C. 1.3 N
from 10 x 106 m above the earth’s center
D. 13 N
to 15 x 106 m. Calculate the change in
E. There is no type of force in the heart
velocity of the craft as it covers this
91. Two planes, A and B, flying at 135ms-1 15⁰
distance.
above and below the horizontal
A. 282 ms-1
respectively, release 2 packages of the
B. 616 ms-1
same shape (GA and GB) from the same

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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

height above the ground and at the same A. 3.12m

instant t. Which of the following is true, B. 95.8m
considering that GB is more massive than C. 90.2m
GA? D. 47.9m
A. GA and GB will reach the ground at 96. The origin of Laplace’s force is
the same time because the time of A. Thermodynamic
fall does not depend on their masses B. Atomic
B. GA is less massive so it will fall before C. Electromagnetic
GB. D. Mechanics
C. GA and GB cover the same horizontal E. Nuclear power
distance from the point of release. 97. The unit for measuring magnetic field
D. GA falls after 130 s intensity is
E. None of the above A. The Weber
92. A stone is tied to a string of length L is B. The Henry
whirled in a vertical circle with the other C. The Volt
end of the string st the center of the D. The Tesla
circle. At a certain instant of time, the E. The Watt
stone is at its lowest position, and has a 98. The expression for the magnitude of
Lorentz’s force is: (Given α = angle(qv, B))
speed u. The magnitude of the change in
A. Qvb|sinα|
its velocity as it reaches a position where
B. |q|vbsinα
the string is horizontal is C. |qvbsinα|
A. √𝑢2 − 2𝑔2 D. Qvbsinα
B. √𝑢2 − 𝑔2 E. None of the above
99. X-rays produced in the dentist’s office
C. √2(𝑢2 − 𝑔2 )
typically have a wavelength of 0.30nm.
D. √2𝑔𝑙 The frequency of these rays will be
93. A certain force acting on a 30kg mass A. 1,2 x 1018 Hz
changes its velocity from 5ms-1 to 2ms-1. B. 1,5 x 1018 Hz
Calculate the work done by the force C. 1,0 x 1018 Hz
A. 40J D. 2,0 x 1018 Hz
B. 212J E. None of the above
100. All satellites used for communication
C. 250J
have a period of
D. -210J
A. 360 days
94. A mass of 10kg is at a point A on a table. B. 24 hours
It moved to a point B. If the line joining A C. 1 month
and B is horizontal, what is the work D. 10 days
done on the object by the gravitational E. 100 days
force? PAPER II:General Knowledge and French
A. 10J SECTION A:General knowledge
B. 5J
Instruction: choose the correct answer
C. 1J
D. 0J 1. How many non-permanent
95. An object is launched at a velocity of members are there in the Security
Council?
40m/s in a direction making an angle of
A. 10
500 upward with the horizontal. Fin the B. 12
maximum height reached by the object. C. 15

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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

D. 8 D. Europe never took anything from

E. 50 Africa
2. When was the United Nations E. All of the above
Organisation founded? 9. Who became South Africa’s first
A. August 9, 1945 democratically-elected president in 1994?
B. October 24, 1944 A. Nelson Mandela
C. October 24, 1945 B. Barack Obama
D. December 10, 1945 C. F.W. de Klerk
E. No correct answer D. Afrikan Abul
3. The only continent that does not E. No correct answer
have any deserts is: 10.What was the MAIN reason European
A. Australia countries colonized Africa?
B. Europe A. They wanted to spread Christianity.
C. Asia B. They were looking for trade routes.
D. Africa C. The continent would provide large
E. North America amounts of land.
4. Which country in Europe is known to D. They needed the natural resources.
be the birth place of the western culture E. All of the above
A. France 11.In Africa, the main cause of civil wars,
B. Germany conflict, and artificial political boundaries
C. Ancient Greece is:
D. Turkey A. African countries fighting for
E. Spain independence
5. The most spoken language in the B. European partitioning (dividing) of
world is: African countries
A. English C. The African Slave Trade
B. French D. Pan-Africanism
C. Spain E. All of the above
D. Mandarin Chinese 12.From what country did Sudan gain its
E. Arabic independence in 1956?
6. The International Youth Day is A. South Sudan
celebrated each: B. France
A. 11 February C. Great Britain
B. 20 May D. Ethiopia
C. 12 August E. Cameroon
D. 21st September 13.In what year did South Sudan gain its
E. 1st May independence?
7. When a country controls the lands of A. 2003
another to gain from their resources... B. 2011
A. Imperialism/colonialism C. 2001
B. Segregation D. 2013
C. Enclave E. 2000
D. Partition 14.In which of the following countries is
8. How did the Europeans “partition” the famous Serengeti National Park
Africa? located?
A. At the Berlin Conference in 1884 the A. South Africa
European countries divided Africa - They B. Tanzania
ignored African ethnic groups. C. Congo
B. At the Paris Conference in 1886 the D. Zambia
European countries divided Africa E. Niger
C. European countries just showed up 15.Which of the following countries is
with their military and took over completely surrounded by South Africa?
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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

A. Namibia D. Adolphe Lele Lafrique

B. Botswana E. Bernard Okalia Bilai
C. Lesotho 23. The law on the General Code of
D. Swaziland Decentralized Territorial Collectivities
E. Djibouti was adopted by Parliament and
16.Which of the following countries is promulgated by the President of the
also known as the Rainbow Nation? Republic on:
A. South Africa A. December 24, 2019
B. Tanzania B. March 17, 2020
C. Nigeria C. May 19, 2020
D. Zambia D. January 14, 1996
E. Egypt E. None of the above
17.Which of the following is the Judicial 24. The General Code of Decentralized
Capital of South Africa? Territorial Collectivities devotes a
A. Pretoria special statute to which regions to
B. Bloemfontein boost their development?
C. Cape Town A. Centre region
D. Johannesburg B. Littoral region
E. Durban C. North West region
18. South African cricket players are D. South West region
called Proteas. Protea is - E. C and D
A. National Animal of South Africa 25. Toll-free number for COVID 19 is:
B. National Bird of South Africa A. 1500
C. National Flower of South Africa B. 1510
D. National Language of South Africa C. 1515
E. No correct answer D. 0001
19. Up to 70% of which of the following E. 0237
countries is covered by the Kalahari 26. Mount Cameroon is the highest peak in
Desert? West Africa. What town is at the base
A. South Africa of the mountain?
B. Botswana A. Kumba
C. Uganda B. Buea
D. Nigeria C. Limbe
E. Cameroon D. Bamenda
20. Which country is the smallest in area E. Yaounde
in the African continent? 27. Limbe is a town on the Gulf of Guinea.
A. Tunisia What was its previous name?
B. South Sudan A. Victoria
C. Botswana B. Ba'Kingili
D. Seychelles C. Porto Verde
E. Gabon D. Port Elizabeth
21. Through which country does the E. Zambese
greater part of the Nile flows? 28. Which of the following crops cannot be
A. Kenya grown successfully in the tropics?
B. Gabon A. Tobacco
C. Egypt B. Tea
D. Libya C. Coffee
E. Sudan D. Cocoa
22. The Governor of the Far North region is: E. Oats
A. Grégroire Mvogo 29. How many divisions have the center
B. Paul Naseri Bea region?
C. Midjiyawa Bakari A. 5 divisions
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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

B. 10 divisions B. Aceptation
C. 7 divisions C. Acception
D. 8 divisions D. Aception
E. 2 divisions E. Pas réponse
30. In which year did we move from 37. Moi aussi, dit-il, j'ai assisté l'autre
province to region? jour à l'enterrement civil d'un de mes
A. In 2006 agents. J'ai même prononcé, non pas un
B. In 2008 discours, mais une petite ……………………...
C. In 2003 A. Allocation
D. In 2011 B. Allocution
E. 2020 C. Allocalition
31. In 1946, the League of Nations D. Allution
mandates were changed to: E. Pas réponse
A. Independencies 38. Votre honneur, répondit le jeune
B. League of Nations trusteeships capitaine, est trompé par une ………………
C. Colonization d'optique.
D. United Nations trusteeships A. Allusion
E. None of the above B. Illusion
32. The headquarters of the Fako Division C. Allution
is: D. Illution
A. Limbe E. Pas réponse
B. Kumbo 39. Son ……………………. Autrône lui enleva
C. Tiko son père; sa descente du trône pensa
D. Buea renverser son empire.
E. Nkongsamba A. Avènement
33. Which one is a UNESCO World Heritage B. Événement
Site in Cameroon? C. Avennance
A. The Waza National Park D. Evénement
B. The Benue Reserve E. Pas réponse
C. The Dja Faunal Reserve 40. Il était impossible d'empêcher la fuite
D. The River Sanaga du gaz, qui s'échappait librement par une
E. All off the above ………………… de l'appareil.
34. Which of the following is part of the A. Déchirure
western border of Cameroon? B. Déchirement
A. Niger C. Blessure
B. Gabon D. Dechirure
C. The Atlantic Ocean E. Pas réponse
D. All of the above 41. Tout à coup, ………………… orage
E. None of the above éclata.
35. Andre Marie Mbida resigned leaving his A. Éminent
post for: B. Imminent
A. Charles ASSALE C. Eminence
B. Ruben UM NYOBE D. Iminent
C. Paul BIYA E. Pas réponse
D. AHMADOU AHIDJO 42. La civilisation s'affaisse et disparaît
E. John Ngu Foncha momentanément sous d'effrayantes
SECTION B:Langue Française ……………….. De barbares, venant les unes
Instruction: Choisir la bonne réponse du dehors, les autres du dedans.
36. Je veux te remercier de ton aimable A. Éruptions
invitation et te prier de transmettre à tes B. Éryption
parents mon …………. C. Irruptions
A. Acceptation D. Irruption
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 INNOVATION SYSTEM FOR AFRICA PREPARATORY SECTION

E. Pas réponse A. Vers

43. Ce candidat a gagné les élections, il a B. Ver
recueilli la majorité des ……. .. C. Vert
A. Voie D. Verre
B. Vois E. Verres
C. Voix
D. Voit
E. Voies
44. Elle ne sentait pas bien, je crois qu’elle
est ……. Toilettes
A. Au
B. Aux
C. Haut
D. Hauts
E. Eaux
45. Ce vêtement n’est pas cher, son …………
est abordable
A. Coup
B. Cous
C. Coud
D. Cout
E. Coût
46. Je voudrais bien attendre la fin du film
mais j’ai ……………
A. Faim
B. Fin
C. Famine
D. Fian
E. Fein
47. Je vais m’acheter cette ………..de
chaussures.
A. Père
B. Pair
C. Paire
D. Perd
E. Peur
48. Les jeunes mères doivent apprendre à
donner le ……. Aux bébés.
A. Sain
B. Saint
C. Sein
D. Cinq
E. Seing
49. Ce monsieur dérange déjà. Il m’appelle
en ………
A. Vin
B. Vain
C. Vingt
D. Vint
E. Vins
50. Je ne supporte pas le vin ; à un …….. Je
suis méconnaissable.
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