PBG 2.

2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Sr. Weightage
Chapters/Unit Name
No. (%)
1 Introduction and History of Genetics 5
2 Cell division 15
3 Cell structure and Chi-square 8
4 Chromosomal aberrations and structure 10
5 Linkage 10
6 Mendel's laws 15
7 Gene action 10
8 DNA structure and protein synthesis 8
9 Mutation 7
Quantitative traits, Multiple factor hypothesis, Multiple alleles,
10 12
Maternal Effect
Total 100
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Introduction and History of Genetics

1. Who coined the term genetics?
A) T.H. Morgan B) Hugo de Vries
C) W.L. Johannsen D) W. Batson
2. Who coined the term "Phenotype" and "Genotype"?
A) Johannsen B) W. Batson
C) T.H. Morgan D) Muller
3. Double helical structure of DNA was given by
A) Jacob and Monod B) Khorana
C) Watson and Crick D) Swammerdam and Bonnest
4. Who proposed the "Pre formation theory" ?
A) Jacob and Monod B) Khorana
C) Watson and Crick D) Swammerdam and Bonnest
5. Theory of Acquired Characters was proposed by
A) Lamarck B) Wolff
C) Swammerdam and Bonnest D) Charles Darwin
6. Germplasm Theory was given by
A) Weismann B) Charles Darwin
C) Lamarck D) Wolff
7. Jacob and Monad develop the concept of
A) Operon B) Preformation theory
C) Acquired Characters D) Double helical structure of DNA
8. The chromosomes were discovered by
A) Moore B) Strauss burger
C) Leeuwenhoek D) Balbiyani
9. In 1919, duplication in Drosophila was first reported by ________
A) Bridge B) Morgan
C) Bateson D) De Vries
10. Which of the following is/are the types of microscope?
A) Simple microscope B) Compound microscope
C) Optical microscope D) All of the above
11. In 1909, which scientist gave the term epistasis?
A) Bateson B) Flemming
C) Watson D) Muller
12. Which one of the following is the map unit used to describe the distance between two
genes on a chromosome?
A) Millimorgan B) Centrimorgan
C) Morgan D) Micromorgan
13. Alternative form of a gene is known as _____
A) Germ cell B) Locus
C) Allele D) Gamete
14. In 1909, who gave the term “Gene” ?
A) Johanssen B) Bateson
C) Sutton D) Fisher
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Cell division
15. The microscope was invented by
A) Moore B) Strauss burger
C) Leeuwenhoek D) Balbiyani
16. The term "mitosis" was coined by
A) Flemming B) Moore
C) Sutton D) J.B.Farmer
17. Which of the following is the longest stage of cell cycle?
A) Metaphase B) S
C) G1 D) Anaphase
18. Which of the following is the shortest stage of cell cycle?
A) Metaphase B) S
C) G1 D) Anaphase
19. Meiotic division of one cell gives rise to how many haploid cells?
A) 2 B) 4
C) 6 D) 8
20. Select the correct order of mitotic cell division cycle
A) Interphase-metaphase-anaphase- B) Interphase-prophase -metaphase-
telophase-prophase telophase -anaphase
C) Interphase-prophase - D) Prophase -metaphase-interphase--
metaphase-anaphase-telophase anaphase-telophase
21. The type of cell division take place in cells of somatic tissues
A) Mitosis B) Meiosis
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
22. Crossing over takes place during which stage of the cell cycle?
A) Leptotene B) Pachytene
C) Zygotene D) Diplotene
23. Which of the following event occur during metaphase of meiosis-I?
A) Chiasma terminalization B) Arrangement of bivalents at
equatorial plate
C) Crossing over D) Separation of homologous
chromosomes
24. The period from one cell division to another next cell division is called as
A) Cell period B) Grand period
C) Cell cycle D) Cell generation
25. Consist of two nuclear division
A) Mitosis B) Meiosis
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
26. Pairing of homologous chromosomes takes place during
A) Mitosis B) Meiosis
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
27. Meiosis leads to the development of
A) Zygote B) Root
C) Organ D) Gamete
28. Mitosis take place in
A) Megaspore B) Pollen mother cells
C) Pollen D) Both A) and C)
29. Chromosomes are clearly visible at
A) Metaphase B) Telophase
C) Anaphase D) Prophase
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

30. Crossing over takes place between

A) Homologous chromosomes B) Non homologous chromosomes
C) Isochromosomes D) All of these
31. Nucleolus disappears at the end
A) Prophase B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase D) Telophase
32. Nucleolus reappears at the end of
A) Prophase B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase D) Telophase
33. One cycle of mitosis gives rise to
A) Two haploid cells B) Two diploid cells
C) Four haploid cells D) Four diploid cells
34. Shape of chromosome is determined by the position of
A) Centromere B) Chromomere
C) Telomere D) All of these
35. Homologous chromosomes separate and move towards opposite poles during
which stage?
A) Metaphase-I B) Telophase-I
C) Anaphase-I D) Prophase-I
36. The length of the G1 phase in Vicia faba is?
A) 6 Hours B) 8 Hours
C) 10 Hours D) 12 Hours
37. The process of division of cytoplasm is known as?
A) Cytokinesis B) Karyokinesis
C) Idiogram D) None of the above
38. In meiosis, Prophase-I is divided into _____sub-stages?
A) Three B) Four
C) Five D) six
39. Synoptonemal coplex formed in which of the following stage?
A) Leptotene B) Zygotene
C) Pachytene D) Diplotene
40. Pairing of homologous chromosomes occur during which stage?
A) Leptotene B) Zygotene
C) Pachytene D) Diplotene
41. Chiasmata formation takes place during which stage?
A) Leptotene B) Zygotene
C) Pachytene D) Diplotene
42. Chiasmata terminalization is completed during which stage?
A) Diplonema B) Diakinesis
C) Pachynema D) Zygonema
43. Another name of Mitosis is
A) Equatorial division B) Reductional division
C) Heterotypic division D) Somatic division
44. Another name of Mitosis is
A) Equatorial division B) Reductional division
C) Heterotypic division D) Homotypic division
45. Another name of Meosis is
A) Somatic division B) Homotypic division
C) Reductional division D) None of the above
46. During interphase, the sequence of sub-stages is
A) S, G1, G2 B) G1, S, G2
C) S, G2, G1 D) G1, G2, S
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

47. Mitosis does not provide opportunities for

A) Segregation B) Recombination
C) Crossing over D) All of the above
48. At which of the following stage, chromosomes reach opposite poles?
A) Prophase B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase D) Telophase
49. In meiosis, the sequence of sub-stages in prophase-I is
A) Leptotene-Zygotene-Pachytene- B) Leptotene- Pachytene- Zygotene-
Diakinesis- Diplotene Diplotene-Diakinesis
C) Leptotene-Zygotene-Pachytene- D) Leptotene-Zygotene-Diplotene-
Diplotene-Diakinesis Pachytene-Diakinesis
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Cell structure and Chi-square

50. Correct formula of 2 is
A) Σ(O – E)2 B) Σ(O – E)2
E O
C) Σ(O)2 D) Σ(E – O)2
E E
51. Which of the following does not contain DNA?
A) Chloroplasts B) Mitochondria
C) Golgi body D) Nucleus
52. Which of the following surrounded by two membranes?
A) Mitochondria B) Chloroplasts
C) Nucleus D) All of the above
53. Which of the following provides genetic information for cell function?
A) Mitochondria B) Chloroplasts
C) Nucleus D) All of the above
54. Who coined the term "Mitochondria"?
A) Hollicker B) Benda
C) Montogomery D) Theodore Boveri
55. Which of the following is the main function of chloroplasts?
A) Protein synthesis B) Respiration
C) Photosynthesis D) Glycolysis
56. Nucleus consists of
A) Nuclear membrane B) Nucleolus
C) Chromatin D) All of the above
57. Power house of cell refers to
A) Mitochondria B) Chloroplasts
C) Nucleus D) All of the above
58. Nucleolus found in
A) Cytoplasm B) Nucleus
C) Hyloplasm D) None of these
59. In a cell, sites of protein synthesis are
A) Ribosomes B) None of these
C) Plastids D) Chloroplasts
60. Digestive enzymes are contained in
A) Lysosomes B) Ribosomes
C) Plastids D) All of these
61. In green plants, photosynthesis takes place in
A) Chloroplasts B) Mitochondria
C) Golgi body D) Nucleus
62. Plastid or chloroplast inheritance is related with
A) Animal B) Plant
C) Both A & B D) None of above
63. The region where the two sister chromatids of a chromosome appear to be ‘joined’
during mitotic metaphase is known as _______
A) Chromomere B) Telomere
C) Kinetochore D) Holomere
64. Which of the following is/are correct sentence/s?
i) Plants have longer size of chromosome than animals
ii) Monocots have longer size of chromosome than dicots
A) i) B) ii)
C) Both i) and ii) D) None of the above
65. Phenotypic appearance of chromosomes of a particular species is known as _____

A) Ideogram B) Chromonema
C) Chromomere D) Karyotype
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

66. Which one of the following is the map unit used to describe the distance between two
genes on a chromosome?
A) Centrimorgan B) Millimorgan
C) Morgan D) Micromorgan
67. Alternative form of a gene is known as _____
A) Germ cell B) Locus
C) Gamete D) Allele
68. Who discovered the “cell”?
A) Robert Brown B) Robert Hooke
C) Strauss Burger D) Flemming
69. Leucoplasts are important for storage of
A) Lipids B) Starch
C) Proteins D) All of the above
70. Stroma and grana are associated with function of
A) Respiration B) Absorption
C) Transpiration D) Photosynthesis
71. Packaging of food material is associated with
A) Chloroplasts B) Ribosomes
C) Golgi bodies D) Lysosomes
72. Lysosomes developed from
A) Golgi bodies B) Chloroplast
C) Ribosomes D) None of the above
73. Puffs are observed in
A) Normal chromosome B) Isochromosomes
C) Lapmbrush chromosome D) Polytene chromosomes
74. Loops are observed in
A) Normal chromosome B) Isochromosomes
C) Lapmbrush chromosome D) Polytene chromosomes
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Chromosomal aberrations and structure

75. A chromosome with a diffused centromere is called

A) Telocentric chromosome B) Metacentric chromosome
C) Holocentric chromosome D) Polytene chromosome
76. Structural changes of chromosomes are occur due to______ of chromosomes
A) Breakage B) Reunion
C) Breakage and reunion D) All of above
77. The maximum number of linkage group in absence of crossing over is equal
to its _______ chromosome number
A) Diploid B) Triploid
C) Haploid D) Tetraploid
78. An individual lacking two chromosome from the diploid set is referred to
as________
A) Monosomic B) Trisomic
C) Tetrasomic D) Nullisomic
79. Basic chromosome number is denoted by_________
A) n B) x
C) 2n D) 2n
80. When centromere is involved in the inversion, it is known as_____ inversion
A) Metacentric B) Pericentric
C) Peracentric D) Telocentric
81. The change in chromosome number which involve entire set is called ______
A) Anueploidy B) Euploidy
C) Polyploidy D) None of the above
82. Which of the following can cause the change in chromosome structure?
A) Translocation B) Duplication
C) Deletion D) All of the above
83. Which of the following can cause pesudominance?
A) Inversion B) Translocation
C) Deletion D) Duplication
84. Nullisomics are represented by which of the following?
A) 2n + 2 B) 2n - 1 + 1
C) 2n - 2 D) 2n - 1 - 1
85. In which of following, a complete set of monosomics available?
A) Cotton B) Wheat
C) Oat D) All of the above
86. Who demonstrated that loss of telomere makes chromosome ends unstable?
A) Muller B) Morgan
C) Stadler D) Stern
87. During 1923, translocation was discovered by which of the following?
A) Bridges B) Belling
C) Sturtevent D) Morgan
88. How many somatic chromosomes are present in maize?
A) 10 B) 20
C) 22 D) 18
89. Colchicine is extracted from which of the following?
A) Colchicum autumnale B) Allium cepa
C) Rosa indica D) Coleus blumei
90. Bred wheat (Triticum aestivum) is an example of?
A) Triploid B) Diploid
C) Tetraplod D) Hexaploid
91. Monosomics are represented by which of the following?
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

A) 2n + 1 B) 2n - 1 + 1
C) 2n – 1 D) 2n - 1 - 1
92. Double monosomics are represented by which of the following?
A) 2n + 2 B) 2n - 1 + 1
C) 2n - 2 D) 2n - 1 - 1
93. Trisomics are represented by which of the following?
A) 2n + 1 B) 2n + 1 + 1
C) 2n - 1 D) 2n - 1 - 1
94. Double trisomics are represented by which of the following?
A) 2n + 2 B) 2n + 1 + 1
C) 2n - 2 D) 2n - 1 - 1
95. Tetrasomics are represented by which of the following?
A) 2n + 2 B) 2n + 1 + 1
C) 2n – 2 D) 2n - 1 - 1
96. Inversion leads to change in
A) Gene sequence B) Gene number
C) Gene composition D) None of the above
97. Translocation leads to change in
A) Gene sequence B) Gene number
C) Gene structure D) None of the above
98. Exchange of chromosomal segments between non-homologous chromosomes
is
A) Transversion B) Crossing over
C) Translocation D) Inversion
99. Terminal deletion involve chromosome breakage at
A) One point B) Two point
C) Three point D) Four point
100. Intercalary deletion involve chromosome breakage at
A) One point B) Two point
C) Three point D) Four point
101. The length of chromosome having deletion is
A) Shorter than normal B) Longer than normal
C) Thicker than normal D) Thinner than normal
102. The genetic constitution of Brassica nigra is
A) AA B) BB
C) CC D) AABB
103. ‘U’ triangle is associated with
A) Wheat B) Cotton
C) Brassica D) Tobacco
104. Which of the following is tetraploid species of Brassica
A) B. campestris B) B. oleracea
C) B. nigra D) B. juncea
105. Which of the following is diploid species of Brassica
A) B. juncea B) B. carinata
C) B. nigra D) B. napus
106. Which of the following are the parents of Nicotiana tabaum?
A) N. tomentosa x N. sylvestris B) N. rustica x N. tomentosa
C) N. sylvestris x N. tomentosa D) N. sylvestris x N. rustica
107. How many somatic chromosomes are present in pearlmillet?
A) 10 B) 7
C) 14 D) 21
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

108. Two ends of chromosomes are known as

A) Telomere B) Centromere
C) Chromomere D) Holomere
109. Somatic chromosome number in Triticum aestivum is
A) 2n = 2x = 14 B) 2n = 4x = 28
C) 2n = 6x = 42 D) 2n = 3x = 21
110. Which of the following is/are correct sentence/s?
(1) Plants have longer size of chromosome than animals
(2) Monocots have longer size of chromosome than dicots
A) (1) B) (2)
C) Both (1) and (2) D) None of both
111. The term chromosome was coined by which of the following?
A) Waldeyer B) Strasberger
C) Wilson D) Bovery
112. During cell division, spindle fibres attach to which of the following?
A) Telomere B) Nucleosome
C) Chromosome D) Centromere
113. Which of the following is the most commonly used for chromosome
substiutution?
A) Monosomics B) Nullisomics
C) Trisomics D) All of them
114. The individual with more than two copies of a single genome is known as
A) Autopolyplois B) Allopolyploid
C) Monoploid D) Haploid
115. The individual with two or more different genomes is known as
A) Autopolyplois B) Allopolyploid
C) Monoploid D) Haploid
116. In case of chromosomes, which of the following changes with the stage of
cell cycle?
A) Length B) Diameter
C) DNA content D) All of the above
117. Primary constriction is also called by
A) Centomere B) Kinetochore
C) Chromomere D) Both A) & B) above
118. Which of the following is not part of the chromosome
A) Centomere B) Spindle fibre
C) Chromomere D) Telomere
119. B chromosome is also known as
A) Accessory chromosomes B) Supernumerary chromosome
C) Extra chromosome D) All of the above
120. An individual lacking one chromosome from the diploid set is referred to as
A) Nullisomic B) Trisomic
C) Monosomic D) Tetrasomic
121. Aneuploidy refers to
A) Trisomic B) Monosomic
C) Nullisomic D) All of the these
122. In 1882, Lamp brush chromosomes were very firstly examined by
A) Flemming B) Morgan
C) Strausburger D) Mendel
123. Which of the following is special type of chromosome?
A) Lamp brush Chromosome B) Polytene chromosome
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

C) B-chromosome D) All of the above

124. Which is the shape of chromosome at anaphase for Metacentric chromosome?
A) V shape B) L shape
C) J shape D) Rod shape
125. Which is the shape of chromosome at anaphase for Sub-metacentric
chromosome?
A) V shape B) L shape
C) J shape D) Rod shape
126. Which is the shape of chromosome at anaphase for Acrocentric chromosome?
A) V shape B) L shape
C) J shape D) Rod shape
127. Which is the shape of chromosome at anaphase for Telocentric chromosome?
A) V shape B) L shape
C) J shape D) Rod shape
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Linkage
128. Linkage between dominant allele of one gene with the recessive allele of
another gene is known as
A) Coupling phase B) Repulsion phase
C) Repulsive phase D) Compulsive phase
129. Linkage between dominant or recessive alleles of two or more genes is known
as
A) Coupling phase B) Repulsion phase
C) Repulsive phase D) Compulsive phase
130. Presence of linkage leads to high frequency of
A) Parental types B) Recombination
C) New combinations D) None of these
131. Normally crossing over promotes
A) Linkage B) Parental types
C) Recombination’s D) All of these
132. Frequency of crossing over never exceeds from
A) 5 B) 25
C) 50 D) 75
133. Chromosome map is also known as
A) Genetic map B) Linkage map
C) Both A) and B) above D) None of these
134. Tendency of two or more genes to be inherited together.
A) Homozygosity B) Linkage
C) Dominance D) Heterozygosity
135. The tendency of one crossover to reduce the chance of another crossover in its
adjacent region is called
A) Interference B) Linkage
C) Dominance D) Heterozygote
136. Linkage can be determine by
A) Test cross method B) Repeated inter mating
C) Top cross method D) Back cross method
137. In 1905, repulsion and coupling phase of linkage were given by
A) Morgan B) Bateson and Punnet
C) Muller D) Bridges
138. Who gave the terms cis and trans for coupling and repulsion phase of
linkage?
A) Muller B) Hutchinson
C) Morgan D) Haldane
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Mendel's laws
139. Mendel discovered laws of inheritance working with
A) Maize B) Drosophila
C) Garden pea D) Barley
140. Mendel is known as father of
A) Biology B) Botany
C) Genetics D) Cytology
141. How many characters did Mendel study in garden pea?
A) 3 B) 5
C) 7 D) 10
142. Heterozygous individuals are represented as
A) RR B) rr
C) Rr D) None of the above
143. A cross in which the order of male and female parents is reversed is called

A) Back cross B) Test cross

C) Reciprocal cross D) Direct cross
144. Johannsen coined the terms
A) Genotype B) Phenotype
C) Gene D) All of these
145. A cross of F1 with its homozygous recessive parent is called

A) Direct cross B) Reciprocal cross

C) Test cross D) Direct cross
146. Characters whose development depends upon a specific environment are
known as
A) Common characters B) Environmental characters

C) Threshold characters D) None of the above

147. Mendel gave the law of
A) Law of segregation B) Law of independent assortment

C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above

148. Monohybrid ratio is
A) 3:1 B) 1:1
C) 2:1 D) 9:3:3:1
149. Dihybrid ratio is
A) 3:1 B) 1:1
C) 2:1 D) 9:3:3:1
150. Trihybrid ratio is
A) 27:9:3:9:3:9:3:1 B) 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1
C) 9:3:3:1 D) 3:1
151. Mendel was basically ________
A) Austrian botanist B) French mathematician
C) German botanist D) None of the above
152. Which of the scientist independently rediscovered the Mendel’s results?
A) Correns B) Tschermak
C) de Vries D) All of the above
153. Mendel’s results were rediscovered in which year?
A) 1900 B) 1866
C) 1905 D) 1910
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Gene action
154. The gene having masking effect is called
A) Modifier gene B) Enhancer gene
C) Epistatic gene D) Hypostatic gene
155. Manifold effects of a gene refer to
A) Penetrance B) Expressivity
C) Pleiotropy D) Epistasis
156. The gene whose effect is masked is called
A) Hypostatic gene B) Pleiotropic gene
C) Modifier gene D) None of these
157. Expression of both alleles in F1 refers to
A) Partial dominance B) Incomplete dominance

C) Co dominance D) None of these

158. Ratio of complementary epistasis is
A) 9:7 B) 15:1
C) 12:3:1 D) 9:3:3:1
159. Ratio of Recessive epistasis is
A) 9:3:4 B) 15:1
C) 12:3:1 D) 9:3:3:1
160. Ratio of Duplicate dominant gene interaction is
A) 9:3:4 B) 15:1
C) 12:3:1 D) 9:3:3:1
161. Ratio of Polymeric gene action is
A) 9:3:4 B) 9:6:1
C) 12:3:1 D) 9:3:3:1
162. Ratio of Inhibitory epistasis is
A) 13:3 B) 15:1
C) 12:3:1 D) 9:7
163. Epistasis is also refered as
A) Intergenic interaction B) Interallellic interaction
C) Interlocus interaction D) All of the above
164. Another name of Simple epistasis is
A) Dominant epistasis B) Supplementary epistasis
C) Complementary epistasis D) Duplicate epistasis
165. The gene whose effect is masked is known as
A) Epistatic gene B) Modifier gene
C) Hypostatic gene D) Pleiotrpic gene
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

DNA structure and protein synthesis

166. A nucleotide consists of which of the following?
A) Base + pentose B) Pentose + phosphate
C) Organic base + phosphate D) Base + pentose + phosphate
167. In a DNA molecule, thymine always pairs with
A) Adenine B) Guanine
C) Cytosine D) All of these
168. How many hydrogen bonds join adenine and thymine in a DNA molecule?

A) Single B) Double
C) Triple D) All of these
169. Proteins are composed of _____different aminoacids.
A) 16 B) 64
C) 20 D) 4
170. Which form of DNA is common in vivo?
A) A-DNA B) B-DNA
C) C-DNA D) Z-DNA
171. DNA is a polymer of
A) Amino acids B) Nucleotides
C) Proteins D) All of these
172. How many hydrogen bonds join guanine and cytosine in a DNA molecule?

A) One B) Two
C) Three D) Four
173. How many codons are there in a genetic code?
A) 4 B) 16
C) 64 D) 32
174. Purines includes
A) Adenine B) Thymine
C) Guanine D) Both A) and C)
175. Pyrimidines include
A) Cytosine B) Thymine
C) Uracil D) All of these
176. The process of mRNA synthesis from a DNA template is called
A) Translation B) Transcription
C) Transduction D) Transformation
177. Which of the following is the common mode of DNA replication?
A) Conservative B) Semi-conservative
C) Dispersive D) All of these
178. The process of DNA synthesis from RNA is known as
A) Reverse transcription B) Reverse translation
C) Transcription D) Reverse mutation
179. Who won Nobel prize for operon hypothesis
A) Baltimore B) Temin
C) Jacob and Monod D) Britten
180. The codon 3’-AUG-5’ base pairs with which of the following anticodons?

A) 5’-UAC-3’ B) 3’-TAG-5’
C) 5’-CAU-5’ D) 3’-GAU-5’
181. In a DNA molecule, replacement of guanine by cytosine will be called

A) Base substitution B) Transversion

PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

C) Both A) and B) D) Transition

182. The term translation is related to synthesis of which of the following?
A) DNA B) Protein
C) RNA D) Both b) and c)
183. According to the concept of central dogma genetic information flows ?

A) DNA → Protein → RNA B) DNA → RNA → Protein

C) DNA ↔ RNA →Protein D) RNA → DNA → Protein
184. Triplet codon must be
A) Universal B) Continuity
C) Redundancy D) All of the above
185. In a DNA molecule, replacement of purine by purine will be called
A) Transfection B) Transversion
C) Reversion D) Transition
186. In a DNA molecule, replacement of pyrimidine by pyrimidine will be called
A) Transfection B) Transversion
C) Reversion D) Transition
187. In a DNA molecule, replacement of purines by pyrimidine or pyrimidine by
purines will be called
A) Transfection B) Transversion
C) Reversion D) Transition
188. DNA does not contain
A) Uracil B) Adenine
C) Guanine D) Thymine
189. Proteins are composed of _____ different amino acids
A) 4 B) 20
C) 30 D) 64
190. ‘P’ site, ‘A’ site and ‘E’ site is associated with
A) Protein synthesis B) m-RNA synthesis
C) t-RNA synthesis D) DNA synthesis
191. The sections of DNA (or RNA) that code for proteins are called
A) Introns B) Exons
C) Sensor sequence D) None of the above
192. Non-coding section of the RNA transcript is
A) Introns B) Exons
C) Sensor sequence D) None of the above
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Mutation
193. Mutation was first discovered by
A) Muller B) De vries
C) Wright D) Stadler
194. Who induced artificial mutation in plant by X-rays ?
A) Muller B) Stadler
C) Seth Wright D) Mendel
195. Which of the following mutagens is a base analogue?
A) EMS B) 5 BU
C) MMS D) EES
196. Which of the following is generally the frequency of spontaneous mutations?
A) 10-6 B) 10-4
-5
C) 10 D) 10-7
197. Within a gene, a unit of mutation is called
A) Hot spot B) Cistron
C) Muton D) Recon
198. A gene which exhibits higher mutation rate than other genes is called
A) Mutator gene B) Antimutator gene
C) Mutable gene D) Hot spot
199. Mutations have which of the following characteristics?
A) They are recessive & Harmful B) They are random & recurrent
C) Often, mutations show pleiotropy D) All of the above
200. Mutagenic changes result from which of the following alterations in DNA?
A) Deletion of bases B) Insertion of bases
C) Base substitution D) All of the above
201. Methylmethane sulphonate is
A) Hormone B) Base Analogue
C) Physical mutagen D) Chemical Mutagen
202. A mutation which kills the individual that carries it.
A) Lethal B) Sub-lethal
C) Vital D) Sub-vital
203. When mortality is more than 50% of individuals that carry mutation.
A) Lethal B) Sub-lethal
C) Vital D) Sub-vital
204. When mortality is less than 50% of individuals that carry mutation.
A) Lethal B) Sub-lethal
C) Vital D) Sub-vital
205. Based on Survival mutation can be classified into
A) Lethal B) Sub-lethal
C) Sub-vital D) All of the above
206. sites within genes show very high rates of mutation
A) Centre for mutaion B) Mutation site
C) Mutable site D) Hot spot
207. Physical mutagen is/are
A) X-rays B) Gamma rays
C) None of the above D) Both A) and B)
208. EMS stands for
A) Ethylmethane sulphonate B) Ethylmethyl sulphonate
C) Ethylmethane sulpher D) Ethyl Mustard sulphonate
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Quantitative traits, Multiple factor hypothesis, Multiple alleles, Maternal Effect

209. Quantitative character is also called
A) Minor gene character B) Polygenic character
C) Variable character D) All of these
210. Polygenic characters are governed by
A) Few genes B) Single gene
C) Several genes D) All of these
211. Kernel colour in wheat is a quantitative character and was studied by

A) Nilsson-Ehle B) Mendel
C) Morgan D) Muller
212. In 1909, multiple factor hypothesis was experimentally demonstrated in wheat by
which of the following scientist?
A) Nilson-Ehle B) Robert Brown
C) T.H. Morgan D) M.H.Morgan
213. "A" blood group phenotype will produce by of the following genotypes?

A) IAIA B) IAIO
A B
C) I I D) Both a) and c)
214. In 1909 the cytoplasmic inheritance was first reported
A) Correns B) Mendel
C) Tschemark D) Hugo de vries
215. Cytoplasmic male sterility is not used in _______ crop
A) Grain B) Fruit crop
C) Vegetatively propagated D) None of above
216. Sterility property of triploids are useful in production of seedless and sugar
beet
A) Watermelons B) Banana
C) Apple D) All of above
217. Hybrid seeds in bajra are produced by using _________ type of male sterility

A) Cytoplasmic -Genetic B) Cytoplasmic

C) Genetic D) Transgenic
218. Which among the following is not a Fur colour of Rabbits?
A) Himalayan B) Asian
C) Agouti D) Albino
219. Phenomenon of a single gene affecting two or more different characters

A) Pleiotropy B) Penetrance
C) Expressivity D) None of the above
220. Ability of Gene to express itself in the individuals carrying that gene in the
appropriate genotype
A) Pleiotropy B) Penetrance
C) Expressivity D) None of the above
221. Ability of a gene to express itself in all the individual that curry it in the appropriate
genotype
A) Pleiotropy B) Penetrance
C) Expressivity D) None of the above
222. ABO blood group in human is the example of which of the following?

A) Complete dominance B) Incomplete dominance

C) Co-dominance D) Both b) and c)
PBG 2.2 : Principles of Genetics; MCQ

Answer key

Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans.
1 D 38 C 75 C 112 D 149 D 186 D
2 A 39 B 76 D 113 A 150 B 187 B
3 C 40 B 77 C 114 A 151 C 188 A
4 D 41 C 78 D 115 B 152 D 189 B
5 A 42 B 79 B 116 D 153 A 190 A
6 A 43 D 80 B 117 D 154 C 191 B
7 A 44 D 81 B 118 B 155 A 192 A
8 B 45 C 82 D 119 D 156 C 193 A
9 A 46 B 83 C 120 C 157 A 194 B
10 D 47 D 84 C 121 D 158 A 195 B
11 A 48 D 85 D 122 A 159 A 196 A
12 B 49 C 86 A 123 D 160 B 197 C
13 C 50 A 87 A 124 A 161 B 198 C
14 A 51 C 88 B 125 B 162 A 199 D
15 C 52 D 89 A 126 C 163 D 200 D
16 A 53 C 90 D 127 D 164 A 201 D
17 C 54 B 91 C 128 B 165 C 202 A
18 D 55 C 92 D 129 A 166 D 203 B
19 B 56 D 93 A 130 A 167 A 204 D
20 C 57 A 94 B 131 C 168 B 205 D
21 A 58 B 95 A 132 C 169 C 206 D
22 B 59 A 96 A 133 C 170 B 207 D
23 B 60 A 97 A 134 B 171 B 208 A
24 C 61 A 98 C 135 A 172 C 209 B
25 B 62 B 99 A 136 A 173 C 210 C
26 B 63 C 100 B 137 B 174 D 211 A
27 D 64 C 101 A 138 D 175 D 212 A
28 D 65 C 102 B 139 C 176 B 213 D
29 A 66 A 103 C 140 C 177 B 214 A
30 A 67 D 104 D 141 C 178 A 215 A
31 A 68 B 105 C 142 C 179 C 216 D
32 D 69 D 106 C 143 C 180 A 217 B
33 B 70 D 107 C 144 D 181 C 218 B
34 A 71 C 108 A 145 C 182 B 219 A
35 C 72 A 109 C 146 C 183 C 220 B
36 D 73 D 110 C 147 C 184 D 221 C
37 A 74 C 111 A 148 A 185 D 222 C