1) The Agile Manifesto contains ALL of the following value statements except:

a) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

b) Working software over comprehensive contracts
c) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
d) Responding to change over following a plan

2. Teamwork is an agile project is a critical organizational practices and would imply all
of the following except:

a) People from various functional organizations can go to meetings

b) Collaboratively discuss issues, and come up with a solution that is for the
common good of the whole organization
c) Collective ownership for the success of the project from both an engineering
design and a business results perspective.
d) Respect for people, self-organization, and empowerment

3. Just-in-Time Planning implies:

a) To plan the entire project upfront which is limited

b) To only do the amount of planning that is needed to get the project started
c) Start the project planning as soon as the order is signed
d) Plan the project as and when the activities are signed off

4. What are User Stories?

a) a high-level definition of a requirement containing enough information to

produce a reasonable estimate of implementation effort
b) Describes the user need from the perspective of the developer
c) At a detailed level of definition of a requirement
d) Acceptance criteria are defined for the entire backlog

5) All of the below are true of Story Points EXCEPT

a) Story points are a method of estimating the relative size of a user story
b) The typical form of story points is a Fibonacci series
c) A user story with story points greater than 23 indicates it is too big to be
accomplished in one iteration
d) The team votes on the number of story points assigned to each user story to
estimate magnitude of effort required
6. “Planning Poker” implies
a) using playing cards to reach consensus on an estimate to assign to each
user story
b) Using a known velocity of story points to produce for the backlog,
c) a metric for sizing the work that can be done in current iteration
d) poking the fireplace with a poker to keep the team warm in cold weather

7. An Epic in Agile Projects implies:

a) A large user story broken down into smaller user stories prior to the start
of iteration
b) A series of small user stories detailed into larger user stories at the conclusion of
iteration
c) A large user story broken down into smaller user stories at the conclusion of
iteration
d) A series of small user stories detailed into larger user stories at the conclusion of
iteration

8. A User Persona is all of the below except:

a) A description of a specific type of user that impacts the requirements.

b) Useful ways of characterizing the users of the system and keeping the
development effort focused on satisfying their needs.
c) Used to differentiate and capture the characteristics of individual users who might
have a different impact on the system
d) Profile of each and every user of the system

9. A Product Backlog is all of the below EXCEPT

a) a high-level document list of all required features, wish-list items prioritized by

business value.
b) It answers the “HOW” of features that will be built
c) It is owned by the product owner
d) Continuously prioritized and reprioritized as the project progresses, work is
completed, and detailed requirements are better understood.

10. A Spike is used for all of the below EXCEPT

a) Iterations result in delivering working software to implement user stories

with detailed requirements being defined during the iteration
b) “A spike is an experiment that allows developers to learn just enough about the
unknown elements in a user story,
c) a spike is a quick and dirty implementation or a prototype which will be thrown
away.
d) When a user story contains unknown elements that seriously hamper a usable
estimation, the item should is split into a spike
11) Requirements Prioritization is done based on all of the below EXCEPT:

a) Agile methodologies rely on the user to prioritize requirements generally on the

basis of importance
b) Breaking up the requirements into user stories, prioritizing them, and
incrementally developing them using an iterative approach.
c) A prioritization technique called “MOSCOW.”
d) Requirements prioritization is undertaken by the Agile project team

12. The organizational commitment required for Agile is:

a) broad-based organizational commitment from both the business and

development sides of the organization.
b) customer or sponsor to stay attached on an `Just in Time’ basis to the
development team throughout the entire project.
c) no retraining of existing personnel
d) No replacement of personnel even if unable to make an agile transition

13. All of the following implies Rolling Wave Planning EXCEPT ?

a) taking a “just-in-time” approach to planning

b) Front-end planning is maximized and done collaboratively by the team.
c) Level of detail will be at different levels of detail
d) Based on the time horizon and level of risk associated with the effort being
planned.

14. What is meant by `risk-and-value-based’ approach Rolling Wave planning?

a) Do a completely detailed risk plan upfront in the project with appropriate
values
b) Determine planning based on the risk of deferring planning until later in the
project
c) Decision to choose an appropriate level of planning for the project is based on
stakeholders appetite for risk
d) Do detailed planning for each iteration

15. All of the following is meant by Collective Ownership EXCEPT?

Responsibility is split among multiple functional organizations (development, QA, etc.)
People are assigned to the project team and take collective ownership of the solution.
Project manager is a facilitation role
Product Owner takes on all responsibilities and leaves the team free to do their
tasks
16. Why is there more emphasis on Validation over Verification in Agile projects?

a) Because there is verification testing against documented requirements, but

validation testing is extensive
b) Agile methodologies put a higher level of emphasis on validation to ensure
the product meets user needs throughout the project
c) Extensive acceptance test of each feature is normally performed by the Product
Owner at the end of each iteration
d) Project management relies heavily on traditional forms of beta testing and
acceptance testing at the very end of the project to validate that the product
meets customer needs.

17. All the below are true of Daily Standup Meetings EXCEPT?

a) The daily standup meetings are typically done standing up so that they will be
short in duration.
b) Limiting the focus of these meetings to only a few key questions also keeps the
meetings very focused and short.
c) These meetings serve to build and sustain the unity of the team.
d) They are not good for team building as they speak about obstacles
.
18. Consensus Building techniques are important in Agile projects and includes:
a) Facilitation and consensus building among the team
b) ask for agreement
c) “Fist of Five” approach
d) Rule of Four

19. All of the below is meant by Timeboxing EXCEPT?

a) Timeboxing is the practice of fixing the end date of iteration and not allowing it to
change.
b) The lengths of timeboxes are set based on the velocity of the team not
necessarily equal
c) Setting the length of an iteration is based on implementing a certain
amount of functionality in the iteration
d) Is highly dependent on the culture and style of the organization.

20. What is true of the Scrum-of-Scrums Approach?

a) The scrummaster attends the Scrum of Scrums meeting or, in his absence, the
Product Owner.
b) The overall scrummaster who acts as the facilitator for the Scrum-of-Scrums
meeting is taken in turns by Scrum Masters
c) A “Scrum-of-Scrums” is a master overall Scrum team that coordinates the
work of a number of other teams
d) The frequency of the Scrum-of-Scrums meetings is weekly.
21. What Model proposed by Jim Highsmith is shown below?

a) Agile Project Management (APM) model

b) Agile Modeling approach
c) Unified Process Model
d) Rolling Wave Model

22. The Leadership Guidelines associated with Agile are all of the below EXCEPT?

a) Drive Accountability
b) Model the Way
c) Act on required actions immediately
d) Make the Hard Decisions

23. Training is required in Agile projects for all of the below reasons EXCEPT:

a) Everyone on the team is expected to actively engage in working as a team to

jointly manage the project.
b) There is a heavy emphasis on cross-functional collaboration
c) the agile approach is prescriptive and has the Product Owner to work on
the situation.
d) Typically there is turnover in people when companies move to an agile approach

24. All of the below exemplify the EXTREME PROGRAMMING approach EXCEPT?

a) Simplicity
b) Adaptive Leadership
c) Respect
d) Courage
25. The XP planning process undertakes the following sequence:

a) Release Planning, Iteration Planning, User Stories, Test-Driven Development,

Continuous Integration, Process Improvement
b) User Stories, Release Planning, Iteration Planning, Test-Driven
Development, Continuous Integration, Process Improvement
c) Release Planning, Iteration Planning, Test-Driven Development, User Stories
,Continuous Integration, Process Improvement
d) Iteration Planning, User Stories, Release Planning, Test-Driven Development,
Continuous Integration, Process Improvement

26. Refactoring is a key principles associated with Extreme Programming because:

a) The software is broken up into small iterations to deliver working functionality as

quickly as possible.
b) XP emphasizes keeping the solution as simple as possible
c) Limiting the design to known current requirements only (future requirements are
not included in the development effort)
d) To simplify the design whenever possible so that the code is easily
understood by everyone on the development team

27. What is meant by FEATURE-DRIVEN DEVELOPMENT?

a) Feature-Driven Development defines an overall model of the system and

list of features to be included prior to starting the design effort.
b) Features are the source of requirements based on User Stories
c) The depth of the FDD analysis is highly complexity
d) Feature-Driven Development is an appropriate design approach for small,nimble
agile projects.

28. What are the basic activities in the The FDD development process ?

Build Feature List, Plan by Feature, Design by Feature, Build by Feature, Develop
Overall Model
Develop Overall Model, Plan by Feature, Build Feature List, Design by Feature, Build by
Feature
Develop Overall Model, Build Feature List, Plan by Feature, Design by Feature,
Build by Feature
Develop Overall Model, , Plan by Feature, Design by Feature, Build by Feature, Build
Feature List
29. TEST-DRIVEN DEVELOPMENT implies all of the below EXCEPT?

a) Test-Driven Development keeps testing distinct from the software

development effort
b) write the test code before the functional code.
c) it is highly reliant on continuous integration.
d) Test-Driven Development includes different levels of testing.

30. Which of the below is true of PAIR PROGRAMMING?

a) One developer plays the role of tester while the other developer in the pair writes
the code.
b) One of the pair considers the work operationally while the other completes the
current task
c) One developer plays the role of tester while the other developer in the pair
observes the code
d) Pair programming is most commonly used in Feature-Driven Development.

31. All of the below are true of CODE REFACTORING EXCEPT?

a) Code refactoring involves removing redundancy, eliminating unused functionality,

and rejuvenating obsolete designs
b) Refactoring throughout the entire project life cycle saves time and increases
quality of the software.
c) Code Refactoring is commonly used with Extreme Programming
d) It implies a well-planned and structured design approach to create code

32. What is meant by CONTINUOUS INTEGRATION?

a) Integration is performed continuously during final release.

b) It is consistent with the principle of “fail continuously, fail at the end, and fail
often.”
c) It brings problems to the surface continuously at the code construction stage
d) Continuous integration involves frequently integrating new or changed
software with the code repository.

33.All of the below are roles of the “scrummaster” EXCEPT ?

a) Facilitating the work of the team, developing teamwork among everyone on the
project team
b) Shielding the team from external interference and removing any impediments
that hinder progress
c) Building consensus among all team members and acting as a facilitator
d) Also playing the role of the Product Owner
34. What primary role does The “Product Owner” play?

a) Facilitating the work of the team, developing teamwork among everyone on the
project team
b) Shielding the team from external interference and removing any impediments
that hinder progress
c) Defining the features of the product, deciding product release date and
content, ROI and prioritizing features according to market value, risk, and
other factors
d) Building consensus among all team members and acting as a facilitator

35. All of the below are DSDM Principles EXCEPT

a) Active user involvement is imperative

b) The focus is on frequent delivery of products
c) Changes during development are not reversible
d) Fitness for business purpose is the essential criterion for acceptance of
deliverables

36. What is the characteristics of an “Agile Team ?

a) Working on the sprint goals provided by the Product Owner

b) Completing all required work to reach the sprint goal other than testing of the
work to confirm that it is complete
c) Cross-functional group who do the actual analysis, design,
implementation, testing
d) Demoing work results to the Scrum Master

37. Which of the below is true of a Sprint in Scrum ?

a) The set of features that go into a sprint come from the Release backlog
b) In each Sprint, the team creates a potentially shippable product
c) The Product Owner informs the team of the items in the product backlog that are
to be completed in the Sprint
d) The team changes the sprint backlog if unable to complete the requirements

38. All of the below are true of the Product Backlog EXCEPT?

a) Backlog is a list of backlog items which are broad descriptions of all required
features, prioritized by business value
b) The process starts with the Project team defining the Product Backlog.
c) The Product Backlog is typically described by a brief user story.
d) Product Backlog typically contains a rough work estimate for each item in the
backlog.
39. The sequence of building a Product Backlog is:

a) Release Plan, releases, Backlog Definition, estimates, iterations, retrospective

b) Release Plan, Backlog Definition, estimates, releases, iterations,
retrospective
c) Backlog Definition, estimates, Release Plan, releases, iterations, retrospective
d) Backlog Definition, estimates, releases, iterations, retrospective, Release Plan

40. A “burn down” chart is typically used

a) to track the progress of completion of Backlog items required to be completed

during that iteration
b) to track the productivity of team in delivering Backlog items to be completed
during that iteration
c) to track the progress of completion of Backlog items required to be
completed during that sprint
d) to track the productivity of team in delivering Backlog items to be completed
during that sprint

41. All of the below is true of the DYNAMIC SYSTEMS DEVELOPMENT MODEL
(DSDM) EXCEPT

a) Dynamic Systems Development Method is a framework based originally around

Rapid Application Development
b) DSDM was developed in the United Kingdom by a consortium of vendors and
experts in the field of information systems combining their best-practice
experiences.
c) is the relationship between the development activity and the business goals that
is ‘dynamic
d) DSDM works towards a frozen and detailed specification to add real value
to the business

42. What is meant by Agile Modeling?

a) Can be applied on a software development project in an effective and detailed

manner
b) Greater emphasis on requirements to ensure quick modeling of the solution
c) Envisioning the architecture to define at high level
d) Model-Storming during the requirements gathering stage
43. Agile Modeling advocates:
a) Architecture Envisioning at the beginning of the project
b) Architecture Envisioning during the development effort
c) Model-Storming during the development effort
d) Model-Storming during the beginning of the project

44. All of the below are true of Lean Software Development EXCEPT?
Lean Software Development is an iterative methodology developed by Mary and Tom
Poppendiek.
It is a well-defined methodology in itself
It owes much of its principles and practices to the Lean Enterprise movement
It focuses the team on delivering Value to customer and efficiency of the Value Stream

45. All of the below are main principles of LEAN except?

a) Eliminating Waste
b) Amplifying Learning
c) Deciding as early as Possible
d) Delivering as Fast as Possible

46. Lean eliminates waste through all the below practices EXCEPT?
a) Selecting only the truly valuable features for a system,
b) Prioritizing those selected
c) Delivering them in small batches
d) developers code more features than are immediately needed

47. All of the below are true of Decide as Late as Possible EXCEPT?
a) Development processes providing for late decision-making due to uncertainty
b) They provide a No option-based approach in the face of uncertainty
c) Develop options to avoid locking in decisions until the future is closer and easier
to predict
d) Delaying decisions is valuable because better decisions can be made when they
are based on fact

48. All of the below are true of Deliver as Fast as Possible EXCEPT?

a) Taking a careful, don’t-make-any-mistakes approach

b) Without speed, you cannot delay decisions
c) Without speed, you do not have reliable feedback.
d) In development, the discovery cycle is critical for learning - shorter these cycles,
the more can be learned.
49. What is meant by Empower the Team?

a) Excellent execution lies in getting the details right, and no one understands the
details better than the leaders who actually knows the work and empowers the
team
b) The people on the front lines combine the knowledge of the minute details
with the power of many minds and are empowered
c) Equipped with necessary expertise and guided by the leader who makes better
technical decisions and better process decisions, the team is empowered
d) Because of a central authority, decisions are made late and execution is fast in
agile projects

50. All of the below are true of Build Integrity In EXCEPT?

a) Integrity means that the system’s central concepts work together as a smooth,
cohesive whole and it is a critical factor in creating perceived integrity
b) Perceived integrity means that a part of the product achieves a balance of
function, usability, reliability, and economy that delights customers.”
c) Software with integrity has a coherent architecture, scores high on usability and
fitness for purpose, and is maintainable, adaptable, and extensible.
d) Integrity comes from wise leadership, relevant expertise, effective
communication, and healthy discipline

51. What is meant by See the Whole?

a) Integrity in complex systems requires a deep expertise in many diverse areas.

b) Experts have a tendency to maximize the performance of the part of the product
representing their own specialty rather than focusing on overall system
performance.
c) Every member attends first to their own specialized interests
d) Every member attends to their specialized interests to ensure overall
system performance

52. A type of software development life cycle model that is used to progressively define
the feasibility of requirements for a product or application is known as:

a) Prototype model
b) Spiral model
c) Elaboration model
d) Iterative model
53.Agility Measurement Index scores developments against which five dimensions of a
software project ?

a) duration, quality, risk, effort, and defects

b) duration, risk, novelty, effort, and size
c) duration, risk, novelty, effort, and interaction
d) duration, risk, quality, effort, and cost

54. Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process?

e) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing

f) Only essential work products are produced
g) Process allows team to streamline tasks
h) Uses incremental product delivery strategy

55. What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming (XP)
process model?

i) analysis, design, coding, testing

j) planning, analysis, design, coding
k) planning, analysis, coding, testing
l) planning, design, coding, testing

56. Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each team member at
each daily Scrum meeting?

m) What did you do since the last meeting?

n) What obstacles are you encountering?
o) What is the cause of the problems you are encountering?
p) What do you plan to accomplish be the next team meeting?

57. Agile Modeling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these
software tasks?

a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Coding
d) Testing
58. In Extreme programming, testing rules and practices include all of the below
EXCEPT?

a) Critical code must have unit tests

b) All code must pass all unit tests before it can be released
c) When a bug is found tests are created
d) Acceptance tests are run often and the score is published

59. In Extreme programming, User Stories include all of the below EXCEPT?

a) Used to create the time estimates for release planning and acceptance testing
b) Written by the team as things the system needs to do
c) Similar to usage scenarios but not limited to describing a user interface
d) Differ from traditional requirements in the level of detail

60. In Extreme programming, the YAGNI principle implies?

a) YAGNI means You Ain’t Gonna Need It

b) YAGNI is a ZEN principle implying dedication & focus
c) YAGNI is derived from the Japanese Lean methods
d) YAGNI is an enlightened Product Owner

61. Development work is translated onto index cards with each task having not more
than

a) 3 to 5 ideal programming days

b) 5-7 ideal programming days
c) 3 to 5 estimated programming days
d) 1 to 3 ideal programming days

62. During the Iteration Planning Meeting, developers sign up for

a) the same number of programming tasks equal to the individual velocity measured
in the previous meeting
b) the same number of programming tasks equal to the project velocity
measured in the previous meeting
c) double the number of programming tasks equal to the project velocity measured
in the previous iteration
d) the same number of programming tasks equal to the individual velocity measured
in the previous iteration
63. Simplicity implies all of the below EXCEPT:

a) A simple design takes less time than a complex one

b) When you find something complex, replace it with something simple
c) Keep things as simple as possible as long as possible by never adding
functionality before it is scheduled
d) Keeping a design simple is quite easy work

64. CRC Cards are used for design and stand for:

a) Condition, Responsibility, and Collaboration

b) Class, Responsibility, and Collaboration
c) Class, Review, and Collaboration
d) Class, Responsibility, and Completeness

65. All of the below are true of SPIKES except:

a) Spike solutions are created to reduce risk

b) They are Proof of concepts to reduce technical risk
c) Ignores all outside concerns
d) This is a prototype to build on

66. All of the below are true of Test First coding EXCEPT:

a) Code the unit test first

b) Creating a unit test helps a developer to really consider what needs to be done
c) Requirements are nailed down firmly by tests
d) There can be misunderstanding of a specification written in the form of
executable code

67. All of the below are true of Unit Tests EXCEPT:

a) All code must pass all unit tests before it can be released to version control
b) Unit tests are both feedback and meta-feedback
c) A strong suite of unit tests enables refactoring, collective code ownership, etc.
d) You need not create a test every time you find a new bug

68. In XP, which of the below cannot be substituted by other practices?

a) User Stories, Release Planning, Fix XP, CRC Cards, Spike Solutions
b) Refactor, customer always available, all code with passed unit tests
c) Small Releases, Project Velocity, Iteration Planning, Stand-up Meeting
d) Iterations, Simplicity, System Metaphor, Early Functionality, Test-first Coding,
Integrate Often, Collective Code Ownership
69. In XP, which of the below is not an organizational role?

a) Project Manager
b) Business Analyst
c) Architect
d) Product Owner

70. Planning Poker implies

a) An iterative approach to planning

b) An incremental approach to estimating
c) An iterative approach to estimating
d) An incremental approach to planning

71. The `Big Room’ approach to Sprint planning implies all of the below EXCEPT:

a) All sprints end on same day

b) All planning is on same day and in one room
c) Sprints end by ± a day
d) Key resources shift between teams on demand

72. The prioritization factors to consider for a Product Backlog include all the below
EXCEPT:

a) A prioritized list of features for the given product

b) Stories are implemented based on their priority
c) The TOP priority Features are put into iterations first
d) Changes to the iterations are not permitted

73. User Stories usually follow the rule of 3 `C’s which stand for:

a) Class, collaboration, confirmation

b) Card, conversation, confirmation
c) Class, concurrence, confirmation
d) Card, class, confirmation

74. A Theme is:

a) A collection of related user stories

b) A large user story
c) A description of desired functionality told from the perspective of user or
customer
d) An number of epics
75. An Epic is:

a) A collection of related user stories

b) A large user story
c) A description of desired functionality told from the perspective of user or
customer
d) An number of user stories

76. An User Story is:

a) A collection of epics
b) Profiles all the users
c) A description of desired functionality told from the perspective of user or
customer
d) An number of themes

77. All of the below are true about User Stories EXCEPT:

a) Stories move the focus from writing to talking

b) Stories support participatory design
c) Stories are understood by developers but not customers
d) Stories support & encourage participatory designing

78. Stakeholder involvement will include all the below activities EXCEPT:

a) review sets of stories

b) size un-sized stories
c) Design discussion
d) Release contents and objectives

79. The `Show and Tell’ demo includes all of the below objectives EXCEPT:

a) Demonstration of progress
b) Define high-level acceptance criteria
c) review iteration goals
d) solicit feedback for correction

80. The risk reviews during the retrospectives includes all of the below practices
EXCEPT:

a) size new stories

b) model user/system flows
c) story workshops
d) architectural discussion
81. Acceptance includes all of the below practices EXCEPT:

a) customer accepts completed stories

b) stories are complete when accepted
c) no need to wait till last day to accept – accept as you go
d) update stories and priorities

82. The outputs of prioritization and the Planning Game would be all of the below
EXCEPT:

a) updated task board with task estimates

b) Update release plan
c) Story backlog
d) Risk log

83. Pruning the Backlog would include all of the below activities EXCEPT:

a) continuously maintain product backlog

b) update stories and priorities
c) size new stories
d) prepare task board

84. Prioritization would include all of the below activities EXCEPT:

a) review target velocity

b) solicit feedback
c) define iteration goal
d) select stories based on priority

85. Planning would include all of the below activities EXCEPT:

a) identify major risks

b) model user/system flows
c) story workshops
d) solicit feedback for correction

86. The most powerful rule in Agile Team Empowerment is:

a) success is measured by the performance of the group

b) the team is responsible how they will do the work
c) the team works towards a joint goal
d) there are finite rules and constraints within which the team can innovate
 87. All of the below activities are played by an agile Project Manager EXCEPT:

a) Guide, not direct

b) Leverages input from many people
c) Address impediments instead of letting the team handle it
d) Ensure Commitment rather than compliance

88. A potentially shippable product increment would include all the following
attributes EXCEPT:

a) High Quality
b) Tested
c) Commit by the Product Owner
d) Done

89. Project Feedback provides all the following attributes EXCEPT:

a) Fitness to purpose
b) Rate of completion
c) Issues & impediments
d) Opportunities to improve performance

90. The Pull Principle implies :

a) tailoring tasks and pulling their outputs based only on legitimate need
and rejecting others as waste.
b) transfer lessons learned into a broadbased process definition that is pulled
forward to other projects.
c) Pull the best methods from various Agile methodologies in the project
d) Pulling feedback throughout the project enables proactive improvements.

91. Information Radiators include all the below EXCEPT:

a) Whiteboards
b) Index Cards
c) flip charts
d) poster

92. Agile Teams often use a “theater area” so that :

a) team comes to a separate area without distractions to pay better

attention
b) privacy areas for individual “heads-down” work or personal time
c) enables Face-to-Face communication through a safe environment
d) User Stories can be enacted for better understanding
93. Osmotic communication in the Agile methodology means

a) Customer is available to the team all the time to clarify

b) Developers sit close to each other to enable rapid communication and
rich feedback
c) Stakeholders provide rapid and instant feedback during reviews
d) Reviews and retrospectives are used for purposes of osmotic communication

94. Maintain a Metaphor is used for ll of the below purposes EXCEPT :

a) to enrich a team's sense of its work
b) grabs the team imagination
c) enable distance communication
d) applies a creative hold on the team's tacit knowledge

95. A Stand Up meeting is usually time boxed to

a) 30 minutes
b) 5–15 minutes
c) As much time for every member to answer the 3 questions
d) 1 hour

96. A Stand Up meeting is for all the below reasons EXCEPT:

a) Share
b) Focus
c) Retrospect
d) Encourage

97. People who are involved but not dedicated to the project are known as
a) Pigs
b) Stakeholders
c) Owners
d) Chickens

98. A Stand Up meeting is for all the below objectives EXCEPT:

a) team members make commitments to each other and to the team
b) to track the progress of the Team
c) a problem solving session
d) encourages communication within the team

99. Members of the Team are known as Pigs because:

a) they are committed to delivering Sprint Goal
b) they are committed to the entire project
c) they are committed to complete all features in the iteration
d) they are committed to deliver a potentially shippable Increment
100. Agile estimation is done at 3 levels which are:
a) Iteration Plan, Release Plan and Project Estimation
b) Iteration, User stories, Product Backlog estimation
c) User stories, features, iteration estimation
d) Tasks, features, user stories estimation

101. Prioritization of features is based on all the below parameters EXCEPT:

a) Financial value of features
b) Team velocity
c) Costs of implementation
d) Amount of risk removed / added

102. In agile projects, estimation is based on

a) Size
b) Duration
c) Team Productivity
d) Hours

103. In agile projects, estimation techniques include:

a) Analogy
b) Decomposition
c) Function Points
d) Planning Poker

104. Project velocity implies

a) Productivity measure of each team member per iteration
b) productivity measure of story points per iteration
c) Productivity measure of team per release
d) productivity measure of story points per release

105. Ideal Time for estimating refers to:

a) Ideal Time is real, elapsed time
b) programmer time required to get a feature or task done compared to other
features or tasks
c) Ideal Time includes programming and non-programming time
d) Ideal time is the size and complexity of user stories

106. Agile Business Value is measured though Net Present Value because:
a) It provides the discounted benefits of using Agile methodology
b) It provides the ratio of total benefits to total costs of Agile projects
c) It provides the total amount of money gained from Agile project
d) It provides the ratio of adjusted benefits to costs of Agile project
107. The smallest set of functionality that must be realized in order for the customer to
perceive value in Agile methodology is known as:
a) Story Point
b) User Story
c) Minimally marketable feature
d) Feature

108. Techniques available for relative prioritization/ranking of Product Backlog include

all of the below EXCEPT:
a) Theme Screening
b) Kano Analysis
c) Relative Weighting
d) User Interview

109. The technique for relative prioritization/ranking of Product Backlog where

selection criteria are weighted with a baseline theme is:
a) Theme Screening
b) Theme Scoring
c) Kano Analysis
d) Relative Weighting

110. The technique for Backlog relative prioritization where selection criteria is
assessed whether a feature is baseline, linear,or exciting is known as:
a) Theme Screening
b) Theme Scoring
c) Kano Analysis
d) Relative Weighting

111. Self-awareness, Self-regulation, Empathy, Motivation, Social skills are all part of
the principles of:
a) Negotiation
b) Servant Leadership
c) Emotional Intelligence
d) Collaboration

112. Adaptive Leadership in Agile Projects implies all of the below EXCEPT:
a) Influence
b) Facilitate
c) Macro-Manage
d) Honesty & trust

113. An Agile manager will do all of the below EXCEPT:

a) Encourage the automation of redundant, repeatable tests
b) Help the team break the work into small chunks that can be delivered quickly
c) Discuss smooth run of the sprint
d) Ensure the work being delivered is in tune with the customer need.
114. Calling, Listening, Empathy, Healing, Awareness, Persuasion, Conceptualization,
Foresight, Stewardship, Commitment people growth and Building community are
characteristics of:
a) Agile Coaches
b) Servant-Leaders
c) Adaptive Leaders
d) Agile team members

115. In agile projects, analysis is done

a) At start of the iteration
b) At start of the release
c) Every day
d) During the review and retrospective

116. Agile analysis is performed through collaboration between business stakeholders

and developers to:
a) Estimate tasks
b) Identify features
c) Build user stories
d) Prioritize features

117. All of the below are true about User Stories EXCEPT:
a) a simple, clear, brief description
b) expressing a user’s goal for using the system to deliver business value
c) include implementation detail
d) written in business language

118. The INVEST principle to build User Stories stands for:

a) Independent, neutral, valuable, estimatable, short, testable
b) Individual, neutral, valuable, estimatable, small, testable
c) Independent, negotiable, valuable, estimatable, short, testable
d) Independent, negotiable, valuable, estimatable, small, testable

119. In the INVEST principle, the principle of must be executable within single iteration
relates to:
a) Independent
b) Negotiable
c) Estimatable
d) Small

120. In the INVEST principle, the principle of Completeness can be objectively

assessed relates to:
a) Independent
b) Testable
c) Estimatable
d) Small
121. Requirements which could be a collection of stories for a software product are
captured as items in a list known as:
a) Release backlog
b) Product Backlog
c) Sprint Goals
d) Prioritized Features

122. User Story Mapping implies:

a) Collecting various user stories
b) Matching user stories to stereotype users
c) an approach to organizing and prioritizing user stories
d) Mapping stories to users

123. User Story Mapping is an approach for all of the below EXCEPT:
a) make visible the workflow or value chain
b) show the relationships of larger stories to their child stories
c) help confirm the completeness of your backlog
d) Prioritized list of work to be performed on a product with valuable items
highest

124. In User Story Mapping, activities and tasks are arranged as:
a) Activities top to bottom with task-centric stories left to right
b) Activities left to right with task-centric stories below
c) Activities right to left with task-centric stories below
d) Activities bottom to top with task-centric stories right to left

125. In Agile, Progressive Elaboration will lead to all of the below artifacts EXCEPT:
a) Flow diagrams for scenarios
b) Story Maps
c) Roles and personas
d) User story elaboration

126. In Agile projects, Wire Frames are used as:

a) prototypes
b) to convey Brand
c) as a final design
d) Blueprints for placeholder and functionality

127. In Agile projects, Wire Frames are used for all of the below, EXCEPT:
a) They enable communication with clients and stakeholders
b) They focus on application functionality
c) They aid in eliciting functional requirements
d) to be elaborated through conversations
 128. Creating a charter is used for all of the below, EXCEPT:
a) provide an opportunity for the team to demonstrate self-organisation by
articulating a shared project vision
b) focus on application functionality
c) defining their criteria for success
d) agreeing the working practices to be used

129.A persona is defined as:

a) specific characteristics about your groups of users

b) an archetypal user derived from specific profile data to create a
representative user
c) Stereotypical information of user
d) High value user or customer of the product

130.Personas from assumptions are referred to as:

a) archetypal persona
b) persona hypothesis
c) Stereotypica persona
d) Persona non grata

131. Agile Modeling Practices include all of the below EXCEPT:

a) Active Stakeholder Participation
b) Apply the Right Artifacts
c) Single Ownership
d) Create Several Models in Parallel

132. Agile Modeling is used in all of the below circumstances EXCEPT:

a) When the plan is to work iteratively and incrementally
b) when the requirements are certain or fixed
c) when the active stakeholders are supportive and involved
d) when the development team is in control of its destiny

133. Value stream mapping as a lean manufacturing technique in Toyota is known as:

a) Value maps
b) material and information flow mapping
c) Value prioritization
d) Value Added Work

134. The series of work steps performed to deliver the end product from concept to
deployment is known as:
a) Value maps
b) Value prioritization
c) Value Added Work
d) Value Stream
135. Value Stream analysis through Kanban will help in all the below EXCEPT:
a) Schedule Sprints to real time demand.
b) Add buffers and queues as necessary
c) Optimize (level) and Control Inventory.
d) Link Sprints to Customer Demand.

136. The process of value stream mapping involves all of the below measurements
EXCEPT:
a) cycle time
b) task switching
c) value generation time
d) waste of various value streams

137.Before a Potentially Shippable Increments in iteration is to be shipped, it needs

have fully passed the process of:
a) Verification
b) Validation 
c) Quality Assurance
d) Continuous integration

138. In Test Driven Development, the term `Test Often’ refers to:
a) Unit testing
b) Continuous regression testing
c) Testing as part of build process
d) Design Software to be Testable

139. In Test Driven Development, all of the below principles are true EXCEPT:
a) Test Early
b) Test Often
c) Automate Tests
d) Collective Code Tests

140. “Before code is written, think about what it will do. Write a test that will use the
methods that haven’t even written yet.” This methodology is referred to as:
a) Verification
b) Validation 
c) Test Driven Development
d) Feature Driven development

141. When acceptance tests define the criteria that the system must exhibit, then it can
be treated as which type of artifact?
a) Requirements
b) Design
c) Test Cases
d) Test Log
141. When detailed unit tests define the source code for the system, then it can be
treated as which type of artifact?
a) Requirements
b) Design
c) Test Cases
d) Test Log

142. The Definition of `Done’ implies all of the below EXCEPT:

a) Builds without errors
b) Unit tests written and passing
c) Deployed to system test environment
d) Passed User Acceptance Testing and signed off as meeting requirements

143. The sequence of activities in the process of `Continuous Integration’ is:

a) compileà unit testsà automated acceptance testsà Latest source codeà
build published à report generated
b) Latest source codeà compileà unit testsà automated acceptance
testsà build published à report generated
c) Latest source codeà compileà unit testsà automated acceptance testsà
report generated à build published à report generated
d) compileà unit testsà automated acceptance testsà build published à report
generated àLatest source code

144. The Continuous Integration practices include all of the below EXCEPT:
a) Maintaining a Single Source Repository
b) Automating the Build
c) Making Your Build Self-Testing
d) Testing the final source code in the production environment

145. Refactoring implies all of the below EXCEPT:

a) Disciplined way to make small changes to source code

b) Improve its design and making it easier to work
c) The developers add or remove functionality or logic as required
d) Improve code quality

146. Size Metrics in agile projects would include which of the below:

a) Ideal Hours
b) Actual Hours
c) Story points
d) Story points per iteration
147. Effort Metrics in agile projects would include which of the below:
a) Ideal Hours
b) Features
c) Story points
d) Story points per iteration

148. Velocity Metrics in agile projects would include which of the below:
a) Ideal Hours
b) Features
c) Story points
d) Story points per iteration

149. All of the below are true of Velocity EXCEPT:

a) Based on the team’s own sizing of work items
b) All work in progress and completed work counts toward velocity
c) It is a measure of how much Product Backlog the team can complete in a
given amount of time.
d) Comparable across iterations for a given team on a given project

150. Velocity can be measured by tasks or Features delivered in iteration and defines
progress as a:
a) relative measure
b) Absolute measure
c) Size measure
d) Effort measure

151. The Chart that shows the estimated number of hours required to complete the
tasks of the Sprint is:
a) Earned Value Chart
b) Burn Down Chart
c) Burn Up Chart
d) Productivity Chart

152. A Burn Down Chart reflects which of the following parameters?

a) functionality left to be delivered, schedule, team’s productivity
b) functionality delivered, quality defects, team’s productivity
c) functionality delivered, left to be delivered, team’s productivity
d) functionality delivered, schedule, team’s productivity

153. The Chart that shows the amount of work which has been completed, tested and
met acceptance criteria is:
a) Earned Value Chart
b) Burn Down Chart
c) Burn Up Chart
d) Productivity Chart
154. When applying Earned Value Metrics to Agile projects, the Expected Percent
Complete (EPC) would imply:

a) Number of completed iterations /number of planned iteration

b) Completed Story Point/Total Story Points
c) Budget Allocated for the project/actual cost
d) Number of sprints/Budget Allocated for the project

155. When applying Earned Value Metrics to Agile projects, theActual Percent
Complete (APC) would imply:
a) Number of completed iterations /number of planned iteration
b) Completed Story Point/Total Story Points
c) Budget Allocated for the project/actual cost
d) Number of sprints/Budget Allocated for the project

156. In Agile projects, the Number of errors found before delivery of the software in any
iteration during sprint execution and Number of Errors found after delivery of the
software at production is known as which metric?
a) Residual Defect Density
b) Defect Removal Efficiency
c) Defect Density
d) Causal analysis

157. In Agile projects, the average time between delivery of completed work items or
the number of iterations it takes to complete a story is known as which metric?
a) Sprints
b) Cycle time
c) Velocity
d) Schedule variance

158. When we prioritize features in the Product Backlog based on business value and
risk driven, it is known as:
a) Feature prioritized Backlog
b) Product Backlog
c) Risk adjusted Backlog
d) ROI based Backlog

159. In an Agile project, Risk Profile Graphs are:

a) stacked area graphs” of risk probability
b) stacked area graphs” of risk severity
c) stacked area graphs” of risk occurrence
d) stacked area graphs” of risk reduction
160. In an Agile project, Risk Profile Graphs are stacked area graphs that track
progress on:
a) risk probability
b) risk severity
c) risk occurrence
d) risk reduction

161. A Risk Burn Down graph that shows a general downward trend implies that:
a) Activities are delivering business value
b) the project risks are reducing
c) architectural risk is not covered
d) requirements risk is not covered

162. All of the below are true about Risk based Spikes, EXCEPT:
a) built to only addresses the problem under examination
b) not good enough to keep and could be thrown away
c) Estimates a user story
d) reduces the risk of a technical problem

163. All of the below are true about SCRUM, EXCEPT:

a) Each Sprint produces a working increment of software
b) To start a Sprint the team selects & commits to stories from the Product
Backlog in priority order
c) To close of a Sprint, we demo/evaluate progress
d) Between Sprints, the Product Owner cannot modify & reprioritize the
Product backlog

164. A list of requirements or issues owned and prioritized by the Product Owner which
anyone can add to is known as:
a) Sprint Backlog
b) Product Backlog
c) Sprint Goal
d) Increment

165. A list of tasks owned and prioritized by the Team in which Team can modify is
known as:
a) Sprint Backlog
b) Product Backlog
c) Sprint Goal
d) Increment

166. All of the below are true of the Product Owner responsibilities EXCEPT:
a) Define the features of the product
b) Review release date and content
c) Be responsible for the profitability of the product (ROI)
d) Prioritize features according to market value
167. The role that represents management to the project, removes impediments,
ensures that the team is fully functional and productive and enables close cooperation
across all roles and functions is:
a) SCRUM Master
b) Product Owner
c) Project Owner
d) Team members

168. All of the below are true of the SCRUM Team EXCEPT:
a) Cross-functional:
b) Members should be full-time
c) Teams are self-organizing
d) Membership can change during a sprint

169. The meeting that occurs at the start of each sprint in which Product manager and
team meet and agrees the next product increment and team determines the tasks for
each backlog item is known as:
a) Estimation meeting
b) Planning meeting
c) Retrospective meeting
d) Review meeting

170. The meeting when the team meets with product Owner to discuss Backlog Items
and assign a relative size value to each is known as:
a) Estimation meeting
b) Planning meeting
c) Retrospective meeting
d) Review meeting

171. The meeting when the team meets with Scrum Master to inspect and adapt on
their process is known as:
a) Estimation meeting
b) Planning meeting
c) Retrospective meeting
d) Review meeting

172. The meeting when the team meets with Product Owner at the end of the sprint to
demonstrate the working software from the sprint. is known as:
a) Estimation meeting
b) Planning meeting
c) Retrospective meeting
d) Review meeting
173. In a Sprint planning meeting, the correct sequence of activities is as follows:
a) Resource capacity plan, Prioritize features, estimate backlog item, select items to
commit
b) Resource capacity plan, select items to commit, Prioritize features, estimate
backlog item
c) Prioritize features, Resource capacity plan, estimate backlog item, select
items to commit
d) Prioritize features, estimate backlog item, select items to commit, Resource
capacity plan

174. The meeting where discussion is held on Feature content, release targets, capacity
are continuously reviewed/discussed/debated is known as:
a) Estimation planning
b) Incremental planning
c) Retrospective planning
d) Review planning

175. All of the below are true of the Sprint Review meeting EXCEPT:
a) Team presents what it accomplished during the sprint
b) Takes the form of a demo of new features or underlying architecture
c) Formal presentation
d) Whole team participates

176. All of the below are true of the Sprint Retrospective meeting EXCEPT:

a) Periodically take a look at what is and is not working

b) Typically 15–30 minutes
c) Done after every iteration
d) Whole team participates

177. All of the below are true of the Sprint Planning meeting EXCEPT:
a) Review sprint goal
b) Decide how to achieve sprint goal
c) Create sprint backlog from product backlog items
d) Estimate sprint backlog in hours

178. All of the below are true of the Product Owner roles during the Sprint Planning
meeting EXCEPT:
a) Explain the Story
b) Elaborate on acceptance criteria/tests
c) Validate the size/implement ability
d) Break down stories as needed
179. Examine the graphics below related to the Fist of Five. All of the below are true
EXCEPT:

a) This is the best idea possible

b) The only thing wrong with this idea is that it wasn’t mine

c) Let’s continue discussing this idea in the parking lot

d) I’m uneasy about this and think we need to talk it out some more

180. In Agile projects, the term `Review Yesterdays weather’ implies review of:
a) Estimation
b) Velocity
c) Schedule
d) Quality

181. All the below are true of Release Planning objectives EXCEPT:
a) Get everyone on the same page
b) Understand what you will likely achieve
c) Balance load between the teams
d) Make a commitment as a team

182. Planning levels follow which of the accurate below sequences?

a) Product vision, roadmap, , daily stand up ,release plan, iteration plan
b) Product vision, roadmap, release plan, iteration plan, daily stand up
c) Product Roadmap, Product vision, release plan, iteration plan, daily stand up
d) Product roadmap, product vision, iteration plan, release plan, daily stand up

183. High level themes for the next few releases showing progress towards strategy
with lots of “wiggle room is related to:
a) Product vision
b) Product Roadmap
c) Release plan
d) Iteration plan

184. A description of a desired state that is six months or more in the future of what an
organization or product should look like:
a) Product vision
b) Product Roadmap
c) Release plan
d) Iteration plan
185. The Release Roadmap, Target Customers, Target Persona are final artifacts of
which planning activity?
a) Product vision planning
b) Product Roadmap planning
c) Release planning
d) Iteration planning

186. The Product goals, Product Charter, Customers, User Persona are final artifacts of
which planning activity?
a) Product vision planning
b) Product Roadmap planning
c) Release planning
d) Iteration planning

187. All of the below are true of Extreme Programming practices EXCEPT:
a) Pair programming
b) Collective code ownership
c) Continuous Integration
d) Flexible hour week

188. Communication, Simplicity, Feedback, Courage are the core principles of:
a) SCRUM
b) DSDM
c) Extreme Programming
d) CRYSTAL

189. The DTSTTCPW principle used commonly in Extreme Programming relates to:
a) Simplicity
b) Courage
c) Feedback
d) Communication

190. All of the below statements regarding Acceptance Tests are true EXCEPT:
a) When all the acceptance tests pass, that user story is considered complete
b) Could be a script of user interface actions and expected results
c) Ideally acceptance tests should be manual
d) Specified by the customer to test that the overall system is functioning

191. All of the below statements regarding 40 Hours week are true EXCEPT:
a) Programmers go home on time
b) Fresh and eager every morning
c) Tired and satisfied every night
d) No overtime is allowed
192. All of the below statements regarding The Agile Manifesto are true EXCEPT:
a) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
b) Working software over comprehensive documentation
c) Customer collaboration over discussions
d) Responding to change over following a plan

193. The essential activities of Listening, Coding, Testing are practiced in:
a) Extreme Programming
b) SCRUM
c) DSDM
d) Feature Driven Development

194. Extreme Programming planning follows which of the accurate below sequences?
a) Exploration, iterations, planning, productionizing, maintenance
b) Exploration, planning, iterations, productionizing, maintenance
c) Planning, iterations, exploration, productionizing, maintenance
d) Planning, exploration, productionizing, iterations, maintenance

195. The below principles of Extreme Programming planning design are all true
EXCEPT:
a) Passes all the tests
b) No duplicate code
c) States every intention
d) Maximum possible classes and methods

196. Code refactoring will be undertaken in all the below conditions EXCEPT:
a) Small Classes
b) Big switch statements
c) Un-encapsulated fields
d) Duplicate code

197. All of the below statements regarding The Agile Manifesto are true EXCEPT:
a) Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design enhances agility
b) The best architectures, requirements, and designs emerge from the subject
matter experts in the cross functional team
c) Working software is the primary measure of progress
d) Build projects around motivated individuals

198. All of the below statements regarding Agile Coding is true EXCEPT:
a) Decide as early as possible
b) Deliver as fast as possible
c) Empower the team
d) Build integrity
199. The agile principle regarding iterative and incremental development of working,
operational software would directly relate to the Lean principle of:
a) Continuous improvement
b) Mapping value streams
c) Customer pulls value
d) Respect for people:

200. SCRUM Methodology introduced in 1993 from EASEL was propounded by:
a) Kent Beck
b) Doug De Carlo
c) Jim Highsmith
d) Jeff Sutherland