Assignment 7 ROR Multiple Alternative
Assignment 7 ROR Multiple Alternative
NIM : 19522332
Kelas : A (Senin, 09:30-12:00)
Konica Minolta plans to sell a copier that prints documents on both sides simultaneously, cutting
in half the time it takes to complete big commercial jobs. The costs associated with producing
chemically treated vinyl rollers and fiber-impregnated rubber rollers are shown below. Determine
which of the two types should be selected by calculating the rate of return on the incremental
investment. Assume the company’s MARR is 21% per year.
Answer :
PA = $-50,000
PB = $-95,000
AA = $-100,000
AB = $-85,000
Salvage value (A) = $5,000
Salvage value (B) = $11,000
nA = 3
nB = 6
MARR = 21% per year
The LCM of 3 and 6 is 6. So, the cash flows for the LCM of 6 years are tabulated with the
incremental cash flow (calculation with excel):
Incremental Cash
Year Cash Flow A Cash Flow B
Flow
first
cost 0 $ -50,000.00 $ -95,000.00 $ -45,000.00
annual
cost 1 $ -100,000.00 $ -85,000.00 $ 15,000.00
annual
cost 2 $ -100,000.00 $ -85,000.00 $ 15,000.00
annual
cost 3 $ -100,000.00 $ -85,000.00 $ 15,000.00
3 $ 5,000.00 $ - $ 45,000.00
3 $ -50,000.00 $ -
annual
cost 4 $ -100,000.00 $ -85,000.00 $ 15,000.00
annual
cost 5 $ -100,000.00 $ -85,000.00 $ 15,000.00
annual
cost 6 $ -100,000.00 $ -85,000.00 $ 15,000.00
salvage
value 6 $ 5,000.00 $ 11,000.00 $ 6,000.00
$ -690,000.00 $ -594,000.00 $ 96,000.00
Incremental Cash Flow :
𝑛=6
A = $15,000
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
$45,000
The rate of return equation based on the present worth of incremental cash flow is :
Inflow = Outflow
Inflow – Outflow = 0
-$45,000 + $15,000 (P/A, i*, 6) + $45,000 (P/F, i*, 3) + $6,000 (P/F, i*, 6) = 0
Trial and error using interest value 40% and 50% (because IRR with excel is 42%):
For i* = 40%
-$45,000 + $15,000 (P/A, 40%, 6) + $45,000 (P/F, 40%, 3) + $6,000 (P/F, 40%, 6) = 0
-$45,000 + $15,000 (2.1680) + $45,000 (0.3644) + $6,000 (0.1328) = 0
-$45,000 + $32,520 + $16,398 + $796.8 = 0
$4,714.8 > 0
For i* = 50%
-$45,000 + $15,000 (P/A, 50%, 6) + $45,000 (P/F, 50%, 3) + $6,000 (P/F, 50%, 6) = 0
-$45,000 + $15,000 (1.824) + $45,000 (0.2963) + $6,000 (0.0878) = 0
-$45,000 + $27,360 + $13,333.5 + $526.8 = 0
-$3,779.7 < 0
Y1 40%
Y i*
Y2 50%
X1 $4714,8
X 0
X2 -$3,779.7
𝑌−𝑌1 𝑋−𝑋1
= 𝑋2−𝑋1
𝑌2−𝑌1
𝑖∗−40% 0−$4,714.8
= −$3,779.7−$4,714.8
50%−40%
𝑖∗−40% −$4,714.8
= −$8,494.5
10%
−$4,714.8
𝑖 ∗ −40% = −$8,494.5 (10%)
𝑖 ∗ −40% = $0.555041497(10%)
𝑖 ∗ −40% = 5,5504%
𝑖 ∗= 5,5504% + 40%
𝑖 ∗= 45,5504%
Result:
Value of ROR is greater than MARR (45,5504% > 21%). So, alternative to be chosen is that
alternative B (impregnated) because the first costs are higher than the alternative A.