Aptitude

SEMESTER VI
CAREER DEVELOPMENT CENTRE

SRM INSTITUTE OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
KATTANKULATHUR
I. VOCABULARY
Words constitute the elan vital of language. Being eloquent in using decent vocabulary has
become peremptory for the purpose of communication. Vocabulary acquisition bolsters one’s
ability to grasp ideas and think more logically. The greater number of words one has, the
more he or she can interpret ideas from others, and express their own ideas. It boosts one’s
power of persuasion. Having robust vocabulary will help one to communicate in a more
engaging way.
A rich stock of words thus becomes quite logically an essential prerequisite of language
ability development. Building strong vocabulary for future prospects has also become an
absolute necessity of engineering students. All competitive examinations take a direct test of
vocabulary under items like synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion and cloze test.
Besides, comprehension and sentence arrangement require indirectly a competent
understanding of words, their meaning, nuances and usage.
English vocabulary is enormous and grows steadily with technological and cultural
assimilations. The vast majority of the new words get introduced and a great percentage of
words get outdated in the course of time. Learning and remembering the words is a real
challenge for the students’ community. By slowly and steadily learners can develop their
range of vocabulary acquisition by adopting certain learning strategies. Apart from adopting
strategies to apply for vocabulary building it is advisable to learn words from newspapers,
speeches, magazines and good books.
Here, we shall practice learning words through some activities.

"Very" is an intensifier without an inherent meaning. Many inexperienced writers use
intensifiers like "very" or "really" to try to add power to their writing. This is a mistake.
Avoid using very in a sentence because it's a weak word that diminishes your meaning.
Because when you avoid using very in English, your language is more powerful.
Which sentence do you think sounds better?
Yesterday I did a really hard workout at the gym and afterwards I felt very tired and very
thirsty
Yesterday I did a grueling workout at the gym; afterward, I felt drained and parched
Do you get annoyed when your neighbors play really loud music?
Let’s replace that with
Let’s Practice
1. What’s the winter like where you live (and don’t use very cold)?
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2. How you feel when you get really good news (and don’t use very happy)?
These are few examples
precise, exact, unimpeachable, perfect,

very accurate
flawless
very beautiful gorgeous, stunning, exquisite, magnificent
compassionate, kind, attentive,
very caring
sympathetic
fraudulent, crooked, unethical, dishonest,
very corrupt
rotten
resolute, adamant, obstinate, tenacious,
Very determined
dogged
contrary, obnoxious, offensive, repugnant,
very disagreeable
rude
exasperating, infuriating, disheartening,
very frustrating
vexing
very large huge, humongous, mammoth, gargantuan
excessive, opulent, posh, luxurious,
very lavish
sumptuous
very wicked evil, sinful, villainous, nefarious, fiendish
Exercise 1
Rewrite the following words using describing words
1. Very noisy
2. Very painful
3. Very bad
4. Very perfect
5. Very wicked
6. Very numerous
7. Very hungry
8. Very wise
9. Very angry
10. Very large
11. Very strong
12. Very risky
13. Very bright
14. Very old-
15. Very nervous
16. Very beautiful
17. Very often
18. Very lazy
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Etymology
Etymology deals with the origin or derivation of words. When you know the meaning of a
Latin or Greek root, prefix, or suffix; you can better understand, and more easily remember,
all the vocabulary words built on this Latin or Greek element that exists in English words.
In the etymological approach to building vocabulary words:
 You will learn about Latin and Greek prefixes, roots, and suffixes.
 You will be able to figure out unfamiliar English words by recognizing their
etymological (true) structure, the building blocks from which they are constructed.
 You will be able to construct many English words correctly by learning to put these
building blocks together in the proper way.
 You will be able to literally determine the meanings of thousands of English words that
you have never seen before and which are used in many fields of knowledge.
 You will develop a keener interest in English words.
 You will obtain a greater insight as you explore Latin and Greek words and appreciate
and experience the wonder of these words.
Vocabulary building
Exercise: 2
Say YES or NO
1. Is an egoist selfish? YES / NO

2. Does a polyandrist have more than one husband? YES / NO
3. Is an altruist selfish? YES / NO
4. Does an introvert pay much attention to himself? YES / NO
5. Does an extrovert prefer solitude to companionship? YES / NO
6. Can ambidextrous people use either the left or right hand equally well? YES NO
7. Does a misanthrope like people? YES NO
8. Does a gynophile enjoy the company of women? YES NO
9. Does an ascetic lead a life of luxury? YES NO
l0. Does a misogamist try to avoid marriage? YES NO
11. Is pediatrics concerned with the diseases of old age? YES NO
12. Does pedagogy refer to teaching? YES NO
13. is a lion a pachyderm? YES NO
14. Is a taxidermist a medical practitioner? YES NO
15. A chiromancer reads palms. YES NO
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Exercise: 3
Decide whether the word in column B is the same (or approximately the same) in meaning as
the word in column A; opposite (or approximately opposite) in meaning; or whether the two
words are merely different
Write S for same, O for opposite and D for different
1. Apprise ................ inform

2. Belittle ................. disparage
3. Credulous ............gullible
4. Enervate .............. weaken
5. Naïve ....................innocent
6. Parsimonious ....... miserly
7. Pugnacious .......... belligerent
8. Fake .................... Spurious
9. Unavoidable ........ inexorable
10. Widespread.......... ubiquitous
11. Abstain ................ indulge
12. Benign ................. hostile
13. Calibre ................. weakness
14. Deleterious .......... beneficial
15. Edify ....................confuse
16. Fervid .................. half-hearted
17. Garrulous............. taciturn
18. Hapless ................ lucky
19. Latent .................. obvious
20. Zenith .................. Nadir
21. Exacerbated ..........extrapolate
22. Laconic.................lethargy
23. Inedible ................ enigmatic
24. Aromatic .............. sporadic
25. Pensive ................ baffle
26. Diversity.............. dilapidated
27. Ambiguity ........... affluence
28. Clandestine .......... orthodox
29. Corpulent............. eloquent
30. Discordant .......... ephemeral
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Exercise: 4
Match the following
1. Notorious a. beyond reform

2. Consummate b. continuing over a long period of time; recurring
3. Incorrigible c. diseased
4. Inveterate d. from long-standing habit
5. Congenital e. suspiciously smooth
6. Chronic f. without conscience or scruples
7. Pathological g. outstandingly bad or vicious
8. Unconscionable h. unfavorably known
9. Glib i. from birth
10. Egregious j. finished, perfect, artistic
Exercise: 5
1. Disparage a. flatter lavishly

2. Equivocate b. work against
3. Titillate c. prohibit
4. Adulate d. forgive
5. Proscribe e. change hostility to friendliness
6. Obviate f. purposely talk in such a way as to be vague and misleading
7. Militate g. slander
8. Malign h. play down
9. Condone i. make unnecessary
10. Placate j. tickle; stimulate pleasurably
Exercise: 6
Here are twenty brief phrases, each containing one capitalised word; Find the closest
definition for the same.
1. VICARIOUS enjoyment:
(a) complete
(b) unspoiled
(c) occurring from a feeling of identification with another
(d) long-continuing
2. PSYCHOGENIC ailment:
(a) incurable
(b) contagious
(c) originating in the mind
(d) intestinal
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3. an ANACHRONOUS attitude:
(a) unexplainable
(b) unreasonable
(c) belonging to a different time
(d) out of place,
4. her ICONOCLASTIC phase:

(a) artistic
(b) sneering at tradition
(c) troubled
(d) difficult
5. a TYRO:
(a) dominating personality
(b) beginner
(c) accomplished musician
(d) dabbler
6. a LACONIC reply:
(a) immediate
(b) assured
(c) terse and meaningful
(d) unintelligible
7. SEMANTIC confusion:
(a) relating to the meaning of words
(b) pertaining to money
(c) having to do with the emotions
(d) relating to mathematics
8. CAVALIER treatment:
(a) courteous
(b) haughty and highhanded
(c) negligent
(d) affectionate
9. An ANOMALOUS situation:
(a) dangerous
(b) intriguing
(c) unusual
(d) pleasant
10. POSTHUMOUS child:

(a) cranky
(b) brilliant
(c) illegitimate
(d) born after the death of the father
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11. Feels ENERVATED:
(a) full of ambition
(b) full of strength
(c) completely exhausted
(d) troubled
12. Shows PERSPICACITY:

(a) sincerity
(b) mental keenness
(c) love
(d) faithfulness
13. An unpopular MARTINET:

(a) candidate
(b) supervisor
(c) strict disciplinarian
(d) military leader
14. GREGARIOUS person:

(a) outwardly calm
(b) very sociable
(c) completely untrustworthy
(d) vicious
15. Generally PHLEGMATIC:

(a) smug self-satisfied
(b) easily pleased
(c) nervous, high-strung
(d) emotionally unresponsive
16. An INVETERATE gambler:

(a) impoverished
(b) successful
(c) habitual
(d) occasional
17. An EGREGIOUS error:

(a) outstandingly bad
(b) slight
(c) irreparable
(d) unnecessary
18. CACOPHONY of a large city:

(a) political administration
(b)crowded living conditions
(c) cultural advantages
(d) unpleasant noises, harsh sounds
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19. A PRURIENT adolescent:
(a) tall and gangling
(b) sexually longing
(c) clumsy, awkward
d) sexually attractive
20. UXORIOUS husband:

(a) henpecked
(b) suspicious
(c) guilty of infidelity
(d) fondly and foolishly doting on his wife
Exercise: 7
From inference to meaning

Instructions: Read the following passage and use contextual information to guess the
meanings of the underlined words. Then, have a look at the table below to see how
accurately you guessed the meanings.
Stunned by a nearby explosion, the young soldier lay on the ground without moving, almost
insensible owing to the force of the blast. Then he looked up. Through the smoke he could
just barely descry a staff sergeant, the leader of his squad, walking toward him from a small
building. This particular staff sergeant was the apotheosis of courage. In battle he was
resolute, and he often risked his own safety to help the men under his command. Watching
this brave man approach, the wounded soldier felt a sense of relief, and the anxiety that had
been gripping him began to abate. “Nice day,” said the staff sergeant jovially when he
reached the soldier, “Any plans for the evening?” The sergeant was making a little joke, of
course, trying to assuage the young man’s fear. “Not sure yet,” replied the soldier, vying with
the sergeant to see who could be funnier, “know of any good movies?” The sergeant laughed.
“Come on,” he said, and with that he helped the soldier to his feet as gingerly as possible and
guided him quickly to safety.
Your guesses
Abate:
Apotheosis:
Assuage:
Descry:
Gingerly:
Insensible:
Jovially:
Vying:
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Exercise: 8
Instructions: Fill in the blank in each sentence below with one of the words from the following
list:
1. With a big smile and a warm hug, my uncle greeted me .

2. Linda wasn’t able to her father’s concerns about her recent car
trouble.
3. Although the grass beside the lake was tall and dense, the hunter believed that while hiding
there he would still be able to the ducks as they landed on the water.
4. With her straight-A average and her prowess on the soccer field, Mary is the
of the scholar-athlete.
5. The effects of the illness rendered the young man almost completely .
6. After injuring my foot, I had to walk very .
7. Two hours into the spelling bee, there were still four contestants for
the championship.
8. Instead of taking a pain reliever, Carlos simply waited for the pain from his headache to
.
Berate Derogatory Embroiled

Impugn Intransigent Preclude
Rejoinder Tirade
Exercise: 9
From inference to meaning
Instructions: Read the following passage and use contextual information to guess the meanings
of the underlined words. Then, have a look at the table below to see how accurately you guessed
the meanings.
During the flight, Jay could tell that the couple seated next to him would soon be
embroiled in an argument. First the man made a derogatory remark about the woman’s
clothing, accusing her of looking cheap. The woman’s curt rejoinder was that her intent was
to wear something comfortable, not stylish. The man fell silent for a moment. Then he began
to impugn the woman’s logic, arguing that being comfortable doesn’t preclude dressing well.
The woman replied that the man himself was wearing rather old and scruffy shoes. Upon
hearing this, the man launched into a tirade, pausing only to lean in closer to the woman so
that others on the plane would not hear his angry words. The woman asked him to stop
talking, or at least to change the subject, but the man was intransigent and continued to berate
her.
Your guesses
Berate: Intransigent:
Derogatory: Preclude:
Embroiled: Rejoinder:
Impugn: Tirade:
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II. Verbal Reasoning
Verbal reasoning tests assess your ability to understand and comprehend written passages.
They are designed to measure your verbal comprehension, reasoning and logic skills in a
single form of questions, all through your understanding of language. Some students jump to
conclusion while reading a statement or sometime we tend to misinterpret information. This
test helps to find the test taker’s ability.
Verbal reasoning tests usually take the form of a written passage followed by a series of
questions with possible True, False or Cannot Say responses. It is important you know and
appreciate the meaning of each response to score highly.
The following are the different patterns of verbal reasoning passages, that comes under
different categories to test different abilities of the test taker.
Practise Test
1. Generation Xers are those people born roughly between 1965 and 1981. As employees,
Generation Xers tend to be more challenged when they can carry out tasks independently.
This makes Generation Xers the most entrepreneurial generation in history. This paragraph
best supports the statement that Generation Xers
A. work harder than people from other generations.

B. have a tendency to be self-directed workers
C. have an interest in making history
D. tend to work in jobs that require risk-taking behavior.
2. The criminal justice system needs to change. The system could be more just if it allowed
victims the opportunity to confront the person who has harmed them. Also, mediation
between victims and their offenders would give the offenders a chance to apologize for the
harm they have done. This paragraph best supports the statement that victims of a crime
should
A. learn to forgive their offenders
B. have the right to confront their offenders
C. learn the art of mediation
D. insist that their offenders be punished
3. Should girls play boys' sports?

A. No, Girls have their rights and can choose if they want to play sports with boys or not.
B. No, Males are stronger and more aggressive in general, meaning females are more likely
to be injured when playing on all-male teams.
C. Yes, Safety is first for girls they can get hurt.
D. Yes, Sports were created for women and men, girls and boys. Women may be a little more
delicate then men, but if they want to play a sport, then they have to be prepared.
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4. One of the warmest winters on record has put consumers in the mood to spend money.
Spending is likely to be the strongest in thirteen years. During the month of February, sales of
existing single-family homes hit an annual record rate of 4.75 million. This paragraph best
supports the statement that
A. consumer spending will be higher thirteen years from now than it is today
B. more people buy houses in the month of February than in any other month
C. during the winter months, the prices of single-family homes are the lowest
D. warm winter weather is likely to affect the rate of home sales
Making Judgement
EXERCISE 10
1. Eileen is planning a special birthday dinner for her husband's 35th birthday. She wants the
evening to be memorable, but her husband is a simple man who would rather be in jeans at a
baseball game than in a suit at a fancy restaurant. Which restaurant below should Eileen
choose?
A. Alfredo's offers fine Italian cuisine and an elegant Tuscan decor. Patrons will feel as
though they've spent the evening in a luxurious Italian villa.
B. Pancho's Mexican Buffet is an all-you-can-eat family style smorgasbord with the best
tacos in town.
C. The Parisian Bistro is a four-star French restaurant where guests are treated like royalty.
Chef Dilbert Olay is famous for his beef bourguignon.
D. Marty's serves delicious, hearty meals in a charming setting reminiscent of a baseball
clubhouse in honor of the owner, Marty Lester, a former major league baseball all-star.
2. Rita, an accomplished pastry chef who is well known for her artistic and exquisite wedding
cakes, opened a bakery one year ago and is surprised that business has been so slow. A
consultant she hired to conduct market research has reported that the local population doesn't
think of her shop as one they would visit on a daily basis but rather a place they'd visit if they
were celebrating a special occasion. Based on your judgment, which of the following
strategies should Rita employ to increase her daily business?
A. making coupons available that entitle the coupon holder to receive a 25% discount on
wedding, anniversary, or birthday cakes
B. exhibiting at the next Bridal Expo and having pieces of one of her wedding cakes available
for tasting
C. placing a series of ads in the local newspaper that advertise the wide array of breads
D. moving the bakery to the other side of town
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3. The school principal has received complaints from parents about bullying in the
schoolyard during recess. He wants to investigate and end this situation as soon as possible,
so he has asked the recess aides to watch closely. Which situation should the recess aides
report to the principal?
A. A girl is sitting glumly on a bench reading a book and not interacting with her peers.
B. Four girls are surrounding another girl and seem to have possession of her backpack
C. Two boys are playing a one-on-one game of basketball and are arguing over the last basket
scored
D. Three boys are huddled over a handheld video game, which isn't supposed to be on school
grounds
4. Dr. Miller has a busy pediatric dentistry practice and she needs a skilled, reliable hygienist
to keep things running smoothly. The last two people she hired were recommended by top
dentists in the area, but they each lasted less than one month. She is now in desperate need of
a hygienist who can competently handle the specific challenges of her practice. Which one of
the following candidates should Dr. Miller consider most seriously?
A. Marilyn has been a hygienist for fifteen years, and her current employer, who is about to
retire, says she is the best in the business. The clientele she has worked with consists of some
of the wealthiest and most powerful citizens in the county.
B. Lindy recently graduated at the top of her class from one of the best dental hygiene
programs in the state. Prior to becoming a dental hygienist, Lindy spent two years working in
a day care center.
C. James has worked as a dental hygienist for three years in a public health clinic. He is very
interested in securing a position in a private dental office.
D. Kathy is an experienced and highly recommended dental hygienist who is also finishing
up a degree in early childhood education, which she hopes will get her a job as a preschool
teacher. She is eager to find a job in a paediatric practice, since she has always wanted to
work with children.
5. The film director wants an actress for the lead role of Lucy who perfectly fits the
description that appears in the original screenplay. He is not willing to consider actresses who
do not resemble the character as she is described in the screenplay, no matter how talented
they are. The screenplay describes Lucy as an average-sized, forty-something redhead, with
deep brown eyes, very fair skin, and a brilliant smile. The casting agent has four actresses in
mind.
Actress #1 is a stunning red-haired beauty who is 5'9" and in her mid-twenties. Her eyes are
brown and she has an olive complexion.
Actress #2 has red hair, big brown eyes, and a fair complexion. She is in her mid-forties and
is 5'5".
Actress #3 is 5'4" and of medium build. She has red hair, brown eyes, and is in her early
forties.
Actress #4 is a blue-eyed redhead in her early thirties. She's of very slight build and stands at
5'.
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 4
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Statements and Arguments Quiz
Exercise: 11
1. Statement: Should vacations of court judges be reduced?

Arguments:
I. Yes, it will speed up judicial process and many people are likely to get justice in
reasonable time.
II. Yes, it is a sign of British legacy, why should we carry it further?
A. If only argument I is strong

B. If only argument II is strong
C. If either I or II is strong
D. If neither I nor II is strong
2. Statement: Should non-vegetarian food be totally banned in our country?

Arguments:
1. Yes. It is expensive and therefore it is beyond the means of most people in our country.
2. No. Nothing should be banned in a democratic country like ours.
A. Only argument I is strong

B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
3. Statement: Should the railways immediately stop issuing free passes to all its employees?
Arguments:
I. No. The employees have the right to travel free.
II. Yes. This will help railways to provide better facility.

4. Statement: Should India encourage exports, when most things are insufficient for internal
use itself?
Arguments:
I. Yes. We have to earn foreign exchange to pay for our imports.
II. No. Even selective encouragement would lead to shortages.

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5. Statement: Should schools in India have only one board of education?
Arguments:
I Yes, it will create uniformity and equality in education.
II No, it will reduce chances of either quality education or/and may affect literacy rate.

C. Either argument I or II is strong
D. Neither argument I nor II is strong
Situation Reaction Test
Exercise: 12
1. You are in a bus. The bus reaches your stop but still you have not purchased the ticket
because of heavy rush. What will you do?
A. Jump out quickly to avoid embarrassment

B. call the conductor, give him the money and get the ticket
C. Hand the money to someone sitting nearby to give it to the conductor
D. Give the money to the driver
2. You have made some silly mistakes which have been pointed out to you. You will:
A. laugh it away.
B. get angry.
C. feel miserable.
D. feel thankful.
3. You are interviewed for a new job. Which of the following questions is most important to
you?
A. Opportunities for promotion

B. Remuneration you will be paid
C. Scope to develop your ideas and use them to improve the working of the organization
D. All the above are equally important
4. Select the most appropriate alternative as the answer.: You are walking down the street and
suddenly you see two hundred rupee notes on the pavement. What action will you take?
A. Pocket it yourself.
B. Leave it where it is.
C. Give the money to a beggar.
D. Deposit it to the nearest police station.
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5. While going on a scooter, you find someone has been hurt by your vehicle, you would
A. Try to run away from the spot immediately

B. stop your vehicle and say 'I am sorry'
C. Take him to doctor and arrange for his medical aid
D. pay compensation for the injury and in this way
Statement and Conclusion
Exercise: 13
1. Statement:
During 1997-98 the total loss incurred by the 1 1 1 public sector units was to the tune of Rs.
6809 crores which has converted into paid capitals by the government of its total investment
of Rs. 5129 crores.
Conclusions:
I. The government is left with only one option, that is, to privatise these units.
II. The government did not take care in the matter of investments in these public sector units.
A. If only conclusion I follows

B. If only conclusion II follows
C. If either I or II follows
D. If neither I nor II follows
2. Statements:
In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160 runs
were made by spinners
Conclusions:
80% of the team consists of spinners
The opening batsmen were spinners
A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
3. Statement:
Parents are prepared to pay any price for an elite education to their children.
Conclusions:
I. All parents these days are very well off
II. Parents have an obsessive passion for perfect development of their children through good
schooling
A. if only Conclusion I follows

B. if only Conclusion II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
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4. Statement : Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and
excel well in the field of music.
Conclusions :
I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care.
II. Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practising.
A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows
5. Statement: Vegetable prices are soaring in the market

Conclusions: I. Vegetables are becoming a rare commodity
II. People cannot eat vegetables
A. if only conclusion I follows

B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either I nor II follows
if neither I nor II follows
Evaluating Courses of Action
Exercise: 14
1. Statement: Ministry of Tourism in its one of the reports revealed that due to recent social
disturbances in the country, the number of foreign tourists has decreased considerably, which
resulted in a financial loss of Rs.100 crore.
Courses of Action:
I. The Government should provide financial support to the tourism sector.
II. Foreign tourists should be informed that they visit the country at their risk.

B. If only conclusion II follows.
C. If either I or II follows.
D. If neither I nor II follows.
2. Statement: Huge amount of resources are required to develop tourist places in a country
like India, which is endowed with vast coastlines, rivers, forests, temples etc
Courses of Action:
I. More tourist resorts along the coastlines only should be started
II. The tourist potential of India should be exploited

B. If only conclusion II follows
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3. Statement: A large number of people in ward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering
from a fatal malaria type.
Courses of Action:
The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in
ward X.
The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
E. Both I and II follow
4. Statement:
A large number of people in Rampur city are diagnosed to be suffering from a dengue.
Courses of Action:
I. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation
in Rampur.
II. The citizens of Rampur should be advised to take proper steps to prevent mosquito bites.
A. If only I follows
B. If only II follows
E. If both I and II follow
5. Statement: Many people in city Y are suffering from flu.

Action:
I. The Municipal Corporation should take immediate steps to control the disease.
II. People in the city should be advised to take certain measures from their end to prevent the
disease.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
E. Both I and II follow
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III. SPOTTING ERRORS
1. Seventy-five percent of what we perceive as (A)/ taste, especially (B)/ the perception of
flavor, is really attributable to one's sense (C)/ of smell (D)/. No error (E)
2. Development of new drugs often require (A)/ years of (B)/ testing and waiting for (C)/
labeling approval from (D)/ federal regulators. No error (E)
3. Although research in the earth and environmental sciences has pieced together narratives of
ancient and historical environmental changes, but there is (A)/ still much (B)/ left to learn (C)/
about the nature and causes of changing (D) climatic conditions through time. No error (E)
4. During (A)/ the reign of Elizabeth I, dozens of commissions were sent out by the central
government to investigate (B)/ the wood shortage around the nation, each one (C)/ confirmed
the serious (D)/ decline of the forests. No error (E)
5. While (A)/ sperm whales are usually seen (B)/ in offshore waters, they can also be found near
the shore, where (C)/ the continental or island shelf is narrow and with (D)/ the water is deep.
No error (E)
6. A farmer's field can have more than 50,000 weed seeds per square meter (A) buried beneath
the soil surface seeds (B)/ buried more than about one centimeter below (C)/ the soil surface do
not receive enough (D)/ light to germinate. No error (E)
7. In 1952, when the Federal Communications Commission lifted its ban on new television
stations, there were (A)/ 105 stations and 15 million households with television sets, but by (B)/
1956 the number of stations had grown (C)/ to almost 500 and the number of households with
sets at nearly(D)/ 35 million. No error (E)
8. Halley’s comet is a potato-shaped lump about ten miles long (A)/ with a mass (B)/estimated
at (C)/10 billion tons, most of which (D)/ is water ice. No error (E)
9. The Neuse River in North Carolina is thought to be (A)/ about two million years old, and
there has (B)/ likely been human settlements in the basin for (C)/ at least (D)/ 14,000 years. No
error (E)
10. Shortly after (A)/ Queen Eleanor arrived in Nottingham in 1257 for a visit (B)/ , she fled the
town because she could (C)/ not stand the smell of coal smoke and was afraid (D)/ and feared
for her health. No error (E)
11. The great white shark is the more infamous (A)/ of all sharks (B)/ the star of (C)/ Peter
Benchley's bestselling novel Jaws, four Hollywood movies, and many (D)/ television specials.
No error (E)
12. The San Andreas Fault in California is just (A)/ one section to (B)/ an active circle of
earthquake zones and volcanoes known as (C) the "Ring of Fire" that surrounds (D)/ the Pacific
Ocean. No error (E)
13. Relying on dams for large-scale water storage and for (A)/ delivering water to places where
(B)/ it does not naturally occur have (C)/ long-term effects on the balance between (D)/
19
groundwater and surface water and on the quality of the surrounding soil. No error (E)
14. Despite (A)/ a protest by(B) 300 angry drivers, the five members of the bridge authority
voted unanimously (C)/ to raise (D)/ the passenger-car toll on the bridge from $1.00 to $2.00.
No error (E)
15. Harpsichords, their sound made by quills plucking strings that are stretched (A)/ over a
soundboard, dominated European music in (B)/ the 1700's, they (C)/ were replaced late in the
century by the fortepiano, in which (D)/ hammers struck the strings. No error (E)
IV. SENTENCE CORRECTION
1. Trying to keep her balance on the icy surface, the last competitor's ski-tip caught the pole and
somersaulted into the soft snow.
A. the last competitor's ski-tip caught the pole and somersaulted into the soft snow.
B. the ski-tip of the last competitor caught the pole and somersaulted in the soft snow.
C. the last competitor caught the pole with the tip of her ski, and somersaulted into the soft snow.
D. the last competitor caught the pole with her ski-tip, which made her somersault into the soft
snow.
E. the last competitor somersaulted into the soft snow when the tip of her ski was caught by the
pole.
2. The temperature dropped suddenly last night, which will mean that the shoots emerging from
the soil will be killed by the frost.
A. which will mean that the shoots emerging from the soil will be killed by the frost.
B. which will mean that the frost will kill the shoots emerging from the soil.
C. and this will mean that the shoots emerging from the soil will be killed by the frost.
D. and the resulting frost will kill the shoots that are emerging from the soil.
E. and as a result, the shoots will be killed by the frost, emerging from the soil.
3. The impostor eluded detection for so long because she conducted herself as though she were a
licensed practitioner.
A. as though she were a licensed practitioner.
B. as though she was a licensed practitioner.
C. like she was a licensed practitioner.
D. like as if she was a licensed practitioner.
E. as if she was a practitioner with a license.
4. Being abandoned by our friends is the cause of great sorrow for us.
A. Being abandoned by our friends is the cause of great sorrow for us.
B. Our being abandoned by our friends is the cause of great sorrow.
C. Being abandoned by our friends, we feel great sorrow.
D. Abandoned by our friends, sorrow is the result.
E. We feel great sorrow when our friends abandon us.
5. Among the many reasons for his defeat in the election was his arrogant assumption that his
constituents were incapable of understanding economic conditions, and his unwarranted attack
on his chief opponent.
A. was his arrogant assumption that his constituents were incapable of understanding economic
conditions
20
B. were his arrogant assumption that his constituents were incapable of understanding economic
conditions
C. were his arrogant assumptions that his constituents were incapable of understanding
economical conditions
D. were his arrogant assumption that his constituents would be incapable of understanding
economics
E. was the arrogant assumption that his constituents was incapable of understanding economic
conditions
6. More and more holidaymakers are choosing to fly to remote islands in search of the perfect
beach; seeking sand, sun and palm trees, rather than centers of entertainment.
A. ; seeking sand, sun and palm trees, rather than centers of entertainment.
B. ; seeking sad, sun, palm trees and not entertainment.
C. , with sand, sun, palm trees and no entertainment.
D. , they seek sand, sun and palm trees, rather than entertainment centers.
E. ; they seek sand, sun and palm trees, rather than centers of entertainment.
7. The government requires that these forms should be submitted before the end of the financial
year.
A. that these forms should be submitted
B. that these forms be submitted
C. for these forms to be submitted
D. these forms submission
E. these forms should be submitted
8. After arduous months of fighting, the sight of the white flag being raised generated as much
relief on the victor's side than it did on the vanquished.
A. as much relief on the victor's side than it did on the vanquished.
B. as much relief among the victors as among the vanquished.
C. as much relief on the victor's side as it did on the vanquished's.
D. relief both on the victor's side as well as on the vanquished's.
E. relief both for the victor and the vanquished side.
9. The best way to encourage innovative thinking is not to promise financial rewards for
ideas, but to ensure that the person making the suggestion receives recognition for his
contribution.
A. but to ensure that the person making the suggestion receives recognition for his contribution.
B. but to ensure that the person who makes the suggestion will be receiving recognition for his
contribution.
C. but rather by ensuring that the person making the suggestion receives recognition for his
contribution.
D. but rather ensure that suggestion-maker receives recognition for his contribution.
E. but instead make sure that the suggestion-maker will receive recognition.
10. It ought to be her with whom you share your secrets, not me.
A. her with whom you share your secrets, not me
B. her with whom you share your secrets, not I.
C. she with whom you share your secrets, not me.
D. she with whom you share your secrets, not I.
E. her with who you share your secrets, not me.
21
III. PARA JUMBLE
This Para Jumble is one advanced pattern. Both the sentences and the phrases of the
sentences are jumbled and so arrange the jumbled phrases of every sentence first and then
arrange the sentences in a meaningful order.
Exercise: 15
Rearrange the phrases in the alphabets into meaningful sentences and then arrange those
sentences into a coherent paragaraph.
22
1.World Health Organization has declared India as polio-free since no new polio case has
been reported in the country in the last couple of years.
A. /regarding the effective /they give the desired result/ schemes in the country so that/ it
also gives an idea / /implementation of the government/
B. /feat with the government schemes only /without participation / it would not have been
possible/ from the general public, / to achieve this tremendous/
C. /and can replicate the same model/from the country/India can take heart/ other diseases
also/ from this success/ for eradication of /
D. /regarding the harmful effects/ on educating the mass/for the growth of such insects/the
thrust should be/ of insects and the reasons/
E. at the ground level /this underlines the efforts/ along with the staff members/by the
Ministry of Health/ and Family Welfare/
A) DBACE B) ECDBA C) ABDCE D) EBDCA
2.
A. /the outlook for 2011-12 is clouded by/Despite the strong performance/ stubborn and
persistently high inflation, and rising external risks/of the economy in 2010-11,/
B. / before the Union Budget 2011-12 were/ deficit (CAD), and fiscal consolidation/ the three
key macroeconomic concerns/ high inflation, high current account/
C. Additionally, there was / would restart the reform process/ an expectation that the
government/
D. /While the Budget sets/ product (GDP) growth target of/ GDP growth target of 9%
factored in the/ Budget is on the optimistic side/ a lower nominal gross domestic/14%, we
believe that the real/
E. /The Budget has made / through small steps/ an attempt to address/ all these issues, albeit/
A. BCEAD B.CBAED C. DACEB D. ADCEB
23
3.
A. /These were mainly bulwarks/ the hoarded dregs / against winter, / of more plentiful
seasons./
B. / which saw cooked, shredded meat, dried fruits, alcohol/ a few spices or herbs, /all
encased in large pies./ The first were the earliest mince pies,/ with its preservative qualities
and perhaps/
C. / into a kind of pie, adding bread-crumbs/ and upping the dried fruits and/ Subsequently,
people baked this/ for bulk, eggs to bind it, / called it 'plum pudding'./
D. / to have had two/ principal forerunners./ The pudding seems/
E. / was a pottage or soup called/currants and almonds which / The second main
pudding/frumenty, a fast dish involving cracked wheat,/ was ladled out at the start of a meal./
A. ECDAB B.BAECD C. DACEB D.DBAEC
4.
A. / the ICC has decided to increase/ the number of participating teams/ as the game's
governing body feels/ these countries will have a greater/ equal footing in cricket's shortest
format./ In a bid to placate the associate members, / to 16 in the Twenty20 World Cup,/
chance of competing on an/
B. / that in the last edition of the tournament,/ on the governing body for the inordinate/
length of the tournament, thanks in large part/ It is convenient just now to forget/
considerable criticism was heaped / to the presence of the associates./
C. / criticism of the move to / edition of the Cup is a case of damned/ / restrict the number of
teams in the next / if you do, damned if you don't./ To be fair to the ICC,/
D. / restrict the number of teams/ mixed responses, with opinion/ The ICC's decision to/ in
the 2015 World Cup has evoked/ divided among players of the full member teams./
E. / members aren't too thrilled / out of cricket's showpiece event./ Not surprisingly, the
associate/ about the idea of being kept/
A. ECDAB B. BAECD C. DACEB D. DEACB
5.
A. / rock garden is at Ryoan-Ji/ A famous Japanese/ in Northwest Kyoto, Japan./
B. / are arranged on / each comprising five, two, three, two, & three rocks./ small white
pebbles in five groups,/ The rocks of various sizes/
C. / from East to West & 10 meters /The garden is 30 meters long /from north to south./
D. / arranged on the surface/ that visitors can see only 14 of them / The garden contains 15
rocks/ of white pebbles in such a manner / at once from whichever angle the garden is
viewed./
E. / just 15 irregularly shaped rocks/ There are no trees, / of varying sizes, some arranged
by/ gravel sand that is raked everyday./
A. ACEBD B. CAEDB C. DEABC D. BADEC
24
6.
A. / the Buddha was completely silent / when they gathered together,/ and some speculated
that perhaps the Buddha/ was tired or ill./
B. / one day for a Dharma talk /gathered his disciples /It is said that Gautam Buddha./
C. / Mahakasyapa, silently gazed/ into a broad smile./ one of the Buddha’s disciples,/ at the
flower and broke /
D. / is ascribed to the Flower Sermon,/ comes from the 14th century./ The origin of Zen
Buddhism/ the earliest source which /
E. / and twirled a flower and twinkled / tried to interpret what this meant / The Buddha
silently held up / his eyes, several of his disciples / though none of them was correct./
A. EBDAC B. DBAEC C. BCDEA D. CADBE
7.
A. / crisis in Kenya / remains unresolved /The post-election./
B. / to the country's economy is severe / depend on trade beyond /the Kenyan border are
reeling. / The damage being done/: tourism, horticulture, and other industries that/
C. / and logistical support. /For this, I and many other/ Many countries responded, /
providing essential humanitarian assistance/ Kenyans are very grateful./
D. / along with investments throughout/ Thousands of livelihoods, / the region, are
threatened and collapsing/
E. / with murders, rapes, burning of property, looting,/ of people throughout the country /-
the international community was urged to help./ As the situation in Kenya escalated/ and the
displacement of thousands/
A. AEDBC B. ABCED C. ACDEB D. ABDEC
8.
A. / to be the dominant one/ /The rupee could become / The US market will continue / in the
foreseeable future./ even stronger./
B/ hedging as well as striving for / automatically suggests itself./ A greater recourse to /
multi-currency revenue streams/
C/ by resorting to these methods / performance during the first quarter./ Already one
company, TCS, / extensively has turned in an above – average/
D/ grappling with more mundane/ of attrition amidst rising wage costs/ and number of
American visas./ Most IT companies have been/ problems such as a high level / and inability
to secure the right type/
E/ medium-sized software exporters / The BPO industry and many / are reportedly operating/
on thin margins./
A. BCADE B. ABCDE C. DCBAE D. EDABC
25
9.
A. / huge population, / in Olympic Games./ Thus, despite India's / we have not done well/
B. / also, cricket remained / During the British period/popular in India./
C. / an extremely popular game/ Cricket has been/ in India for quite some time now./
D. / and corporate fraternity pay due/ sports and we redeem our / / It is time our government
/ attention to other games/ national pride in Olympic Games./
E. / other games sports did not / However, due to this reason, / receive the required attention
they deserve./
A. EACDB B. BDACE C. CBEAD D. DCEAB
10.
A. / the world have expressed / Economists all over/ anxiety in this regard/
B. / have been subjected / As a result, Indian people/ to high cost of living and inflation./
C. / shown desirable growth / Indian economy has not/ in the recent years./
D. /Grim global economic scenario/ has also contributed to this /problem and it seems a /quick
fix solution is yet far away./
E. / for such a situation has been / to take tough decisions./ But, one of the primary reasons/
Indian government's inability /
A. CDAEB B. ACDBE C. DEABC D. EADCB
26
IV. READING COMPREHENSION ADVANCED TYPE
The list below contains these question types along with common keywords that are often
included in the question stem. For each question type, there are one or two characteristics that
frequently define the correct answer.
• Strengthen
• Weaken
• Inference
• Find the Assumption
• Explain the Discrepancy
• Copy the Logic
• Style, Tone
• Main Idea
STRENGTHEN
Common Keywords
• Strengthen
• Support
Common Question Stems

• Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen...
• Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the argument above?
• Which of the following, if true, least weakens the argument?
• Which of the following, if true, adds credence to the argument?
• Which of the following, if true, reinforces the argument?
Common Correct Answer

The correct answer almost always provides a premise that the argument is missing. By adding
a missing premise, the argument's conclusion is strengthened. It is important to point out that
the correct answer need only strengthen the argument's conclusion--it does not need to prove
it.
WEAKEN
Common Keywords
• Weaken
• Cast doubt
• Undermine
• Which of the following, if true, most undermines...
• Which of the following most seriously weakens...
• Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the claim that...

The correct answer almost always either undermines one of the premises or shows that the
argument's conclusion does not logically follow from its premises (i.e., there is an assumption
in the argument).
27
INFERENCE
Common Keywords
• Implied
• Infer

• Which of the following inferences is best supported by the statement made above?
• Which of the following can properly be inferred from the statement above?
• Which of the following can be most properly inferred from...

The correct answer is almost always based upon the information in the stimulus. A common
trap is to include answers that are true yet are not based upon the stimulus. The correct answer
usually relates directly to the central point of the stimulus and requires a minimal jump from
the premises and conclusion of the argument.
ASSUMPTION
Common Keywords
• Rely
• Assumption
• Based
• The above argument relies on which of the following assumptions?
• The argument above is based on which of the following assumptions?
• Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above...

Similar to the common correct answer choice for weaken questions, the correct answer choice
for find the assumption questions often highlights the fact that the argument rests on
unwarranted assumptions.
Explain the Discrepancy
Common Keywords
• Explain
• Paradox
• Harmonize
• Discrepancy
• Resolve
• Reconcile

• Which of the following, if true, would most contribute to an explanation of the facts above?
• Which of the following, if true, best explains the reason for the apparent discrepancy described
above?
28
COPY THE LOGIC
Common Keywords
• Similar
• Parallel

The above argument is most parallel in its structure to which of the following?
These questions require you to understand the logical structure of the argument. The correct
answer choice follows the same logical structure, even if the original argument contained a
logical flaw.
TYPE 1 – Critical Reasoning
EXERCISE: 16
1. The school board has responded to the new school lunch guidelines by replacing fried
potatoes with fruit in a standard meal option that used to consist of a hamburger, fried potatoes,
and milk. However, the guidelines specifically require that vegetables, not fruits, be included
in every meal.
The information above most strongly supports which of the following conclusions?
(A) Fruit provides just as much health value to students as vegetables.

(B) Students are more likely to eat fruit than vegetables.
(C) The school board is not following the new school guidelines.
(D) The school board is responsible for the health of the student population.
(E) The new school lunch guidelines are unnecessarily strict.
2. While many people think of the lottery as a harmless way to have fun and possibly win some
money, buying lottery tickets is a form of gambling. Therefore, public officials shouldn’t buy
lottery tickets.
The argument above relies upon which of the following assumptions?
(A) Individuals who play the lottery are less likely to win a big payout than they are to be killed
in a car crash.
(B) Some public officials are guilty of much more serious offenses than gambling.
(C) Public officials shouldn’t gamble.
(D) Many public officials are easily tempted to violate rules governing their positions.
(E) Most lottery winners are not made as happy by their winnings as they expected.
3. Some say that Saddlebrook College provides the best value in our state. Yet, students at our
state’s Tunbridge College pay less, enjoy newer buildings and smaller class sizes, and earn
29
larger incomes after graduation.
The information above, if true, most strongly supports which of the

following judgments?
(A) Tunbridge College provides the best value in our state.

(B) Tunbridge College has more stringent entrance requirements than Saddlebook College, and
thus attracts students of a higher caliber.
(C) It is not true that Saddlebrook College provides the best value in our state.
(D) Student income after graduation is a valid means of judging the value of a college
education.
(E) Students at Tunbridge College report higher rates of satisfaction than students at
Saddlebrook College.
4. Studies have long shown that people who drive red cars receive more speeding tickets from
the police than do those who drive cars of other colors. Researchers have thus concluded that
the color of a car influences its driver’s behavior.
The researchers’ conclusion depends upon which of the following assumptions?
(A) Drivers of black cars receive the second-most speeding tickets.

(B) Red cars do not attract more attention from the police than do cars of other colors.
(C) Police officers do not drive red cars.
(D) Red cars do not receive any more parking tickets, on average, than do cars of other colors.
(E) Drivers of red cars who are ticketed for speeding are able to appeal their tickets more often
than drivers of other color cars.
5. The recent decline in the employment rate was spurred by predictions of slow economic
growth in the coming year. However, those predictions would not have affected the
employment rate if major industries had not lacked capital reserves. So if major industries
increase their capital reserves, the employment rate will not decline in the future.
Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the validity of the argument above?
(A) Major industries foresaw the drop in employment.

(B) Some major industries had appreciable capital reserves.
(C) An increase in labor costs could adversely affect the employment rate.
(D) The government could pass legislation mandating that major industries set aside a fixed
amount as capital reserves every year.
(E) The drop in the employment rate was more severe this year than last.
6. New methods of math education in this country do a disservice to our children. In the lower
grades, math instruction should focus on the basic skills that students will need to solve
complex problems in higher grades. Learning basic math skills is like learning the scales and
chords that one will later use to master complicated concertos and symphonies. Increasingly,
math educators in this country seem to have it backward, emphasizing in higher grades the
same narrow, skills-based approach that students learned in lower grades rather than the
analytical tools that they will need to solve complex math problems.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn above?
30
(A) While music courses are often included in elementary school curricula, such classes are
rarely taught in high school.
(B) On international tests of complex math skills, high school students in this country
performed worse than they used to relative to their counterparts from countries in which
problem solving is
emphasized in higher grades.
(C) When presented with a math problem to solve, students in higher grades are more likely to
arrive at different answers than students in lower grades.
(D) Older students tend to receive higher grades in math than younger students do.
(E) Universities report a steady increase in the percentage of high school applicants from this
country who qualify to take courses such as engineering that require advanced math.
7. The fight against the drug trade in Country X should focus for the time being on tightening
the country’s borders and targeting major smugglers. Wiping out poppy fields in rural areas
means inflicting even greater hardship on an economically depressed farming population.
Rather, the United Nations and the government of Country X must carefully rebuild
agricultural infrastructure in areas where the economy depends on these poppy fields.
What purpose do the two boldface sentences serve in the passage?
(A) The first is the conclusion drawn by the speaker; the second is the alternative to that
conclusion.
(B) The first is a short-term solution to a problem; the second is a long-term solution to the
same problem.
(C) The first presents a problem; the second poses an ideal solution to the problem.
(D) The first presents a popular solution to a problem; the second presents a solution preferred
by the author.
(E) The first presents an argument; the second presents evidence to support the argument.
8. In the 18th and 19th centuries, it was believed by many in coastal cities of the United States
that the waterfront was an undesirable location for residential buildings. As a result, much of
the waterfront in these cities was never developed aesthetically and instead was left to industry
and commerce. Today, however, waterfront properties are generally seen as prestigious, as
evidenced by the large sums paid for homes along the beach front. A developer who wishes to
make a large profit would be wise to buy urban waterfront lots and erect residential buildings
on them.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the claim made about urban waterfront
properties?
(A) People today have more money, relatively speaking, to spend on real estate than they did
in previous centuries.
(B) Homeowners will be willing to spend large sums on residential properties in traditionally
industrial or commercial districts.
(C) Many urban waterfront lots are available for purchase.
(D) Many coastal cities are encouraging developers to rehabilitate the waterfront through tax
incentives.
(E) Properties in interior residential districts in coastal cities are significantly more expensive
than those along the waterfront.
31
9. Psychiatric research has shown that receiving high-quality outpatient care, rather than being
confined to an institution, produces the best quality of life for people who are mentally ill.
Responding to this research, Congress in 1963 passed a law that released 95% of the mentally
ill patients who had been confined to institutions. In 1983, however, researchers discovered
that, on average, mentally ill people in the United States were faring worse than ever.
Which if the following, if true, best resolves the paradox in the above passage?
(A) More people were diagnosed with psychiatric disorders in 1983 than in 1963.
(B) In 1983, men who had been released from mental institutions fared worse than their female
counterparts.
(C) A number of psychiatric medications were discovered between 1963 and 1983, including
some early antidepressants.
(D) Congress never supplied the funding that would have been necessary to provide high-
quality outpatient care to the newly released patients.
(E) Most of the released patients who were doing badly in 1983 suffered from one of three
mental illnesses.
10. In response to the increasing cost of producing energy through traditional means, such as
combustion, many utility companies have begun investing in renewable energy sources, chiefly
wind and solar power, hoping someday to rely on them completely and thus lower energy costs.
The utility companies claim that although these sources require significant initial capital
investment, they will provide stable energy supplies at low cost. As a result, these sources will
be less risky for the utilities than nonrenewable sources, such as gas, oil, and coal, whose prices
can fluctuate dramatically according to availability.
The claim of the utility companies presupposes which of the following?
(A) The public will embrace the development of wind and solar power.
(B) No new deposits of gas, oil, and coal will be discovered in the near future.
(C) Weather patterns are consistent and predictable.
(D) The necessary technology for conversion to wind and solar power is not more expensive
than the technology needed to create energy through combustion.
(E) Obtaining energy from nonrenewable sources, such as gas, oil and coal, cannot be made
less risky.
11. Inorganic pesticides remain active on the surfaces of fruits and vegetables for several days
after spraying, while organic pesticides dissipate within a few hours after application, leaving
the surface of the sprayed produce free of pesticide residue. Therefore, when purchasing from
a farm that uses inorganic pesticides, one must be careful to wash the produce thoroughly
before eating it to prevent the ingestion of toxins. But one need not worry about ingesting
pesticides when purchasing from farms that use only organic pesticides.
The argument above assumes which of the following?
(A) All produce that has been treated with inorganic pesticides must be labeled as such at the
point of sale.
(B) Produce from farms that use organic pesticides reaches the consumer within hours after it
is picked or harvested.
32
(C) No farm uses both organic and inorganic pesticides.
(D) Organic pesticides are incapable of penetrating the skin of a fruit or vegetable.
(E) The use of either type of pesticide does not increase the cost of produce.
12. Unlike juvenile diabetes, which is a genetic condition present from birth, type 2 diabetes is
acquired later in life, generally as a result of obesity and inactivity. The number of cases of
type 2 diabetes has been steadily increasing in the United States since 1970, indicating to many
researchers that the U.S. population is becoming increasingly heavy and sedentary. If the
government wishes to stem the spread of the disease, it should educate the public about the
dangers of an inactive, calorie-laden lifestyle and promote healthful diets and exercise.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest reason to believe that the proposed
education program will not be effective?
(A) School health programs already educate middle-school students about the issue.
(B) The public already has access to this information through the Internet.
(C) Food companies encourage the public to indulge in unhealthful snacks.
(D) The government has not set aside money for such a program.
(E) Healthful foods and exercise programs are beyond the financial means of many people.
13. Every year, many people become ill because of airborne mold spores in their homes. After
someone becomes ill, specialists are often hired to eradicate the mold. These specialists look
in damp areas of the house, since mold is almost always found in places where there is
substantial moisture. If one wishes to avoid mold poisoning, then, one should make sure to
keep all internal plumbing in good condition to prevent leakage that could serve as a breeding
ground for mold.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(A) Mold itself does not create moisture.

(B) Most homeowners know enough about plumbing to determine
whether theirs is in good condition.
(C) Mold cannot grow in dry areas.
(D) No varieties of mold are harmless.
(E) Mold spores cannot be filtered from the air.
14. To prevent overcrowding, last month the town zoning board limited the number of new
buildings that can be constructed in the town in any given year. The board claims that doing so
will preserve open spaces and lessen the strain on municipal resources such as schools and
garbage disposal. Critics of the changes argue that the plan will harm the community or, at the
very least, will fail in its purpose.
Which of the following, if true, most supports the claims of the critics of the plan?
(A) Other towns have had mixed success with similar zoning plans.
(B) No new schools have been built in the town in ten years.
(C) Property taxes in the town are higher than in neighboring towns.
(D) Under the zoning plan, new apartment buildings would be
exempt from the limits on new construction.
(E) The nearest garbage dump is several miles away from the town.
33
15. Because of a rare type of fungus that killed off many cacao trees in Brazil, there was an
unusually meager harvest of cacao beans this year. The wholesale price of cocoa solids and
cocoa butter has increased significantly and is unlikely to fall in the foreseeable future. As a
result, the retail price of chocolate is certain to increase within six months.
The answer to which of the following questions would provide information relevant to
evaluating the argument above?
(A) Has the price of cocoa solids and cocoa butter remained steady during other periods of
poor harvest?
(B) Are consumers willing to spend more for chocolate?
(C) Have the prices of other ingredients in chocolate decreased recently?
(D) What percentage of cacao trees in Brazil were affected by the fungus?
(E) Can the fungus be eliminated within the next six months?
16. Two years ago, the cost of the raw material used in a particular product doubled after an
earthquake disrupted production in the region where the material is mined. Since that time, the
company that makes the product has seen its profit margins decline steadily. Aiming to improve
profit margins, the company’s head of engineering has decided that he must find a new source
for the raw material.
Which of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the validity of the head of
engineering’s decision?
(A) New competitors have entered the market every six months for the past two years, resulting
in price wars that have progressively driven down revenues across the market.
(B) Although the earthquake occurred two years ago, the region’s mines have still not
recovered to pre-earthquake production capacity.
(C) There are several other regions in the world where the raw material is mined, but those
regions do not produce as much of the raw material as the current source region.
(D) The company could use a completely different raw material to make its product.
(E) Recent advances in mining technology will make mining the raw material much more
efficient and cost-effective in the future.
17. According to a recent research study, more than 90% of graduates of the private high
schools in a certain county continue their education in college. By contrast, only 65% of
graduates of the public high schools subsequently pursue college education. Therefore, if
parents in the county wish to increase the likelihood that their children will attend college, they
should send them to private rather than public schools.
Which of the following statements, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?
(A) Graduates of private schools typically score higher on standardized tests and other tests of
academic achievement.
(B) While private schools are typically very expensive, attendance of public school is free for
the residents of the county.
(C) In comparison with graduates of private schools, a substantially greater proportion of public
school graduates receive need-based financial aid for their college education.
(D) In comparison with private schools, public schools provide more opportunities for student
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involvement in sports and other athletic activities, which almost always increase the likelihood
of students’ acceptance to colleges.
(E) Since most public schools are located in rural areas of the county populated primarily by
farmers, nearly 30% of students from public high schools choose to pursue farming occupations
rather than apply to colleges.
18. Due to high jet fuel costs, airline carriers are looking for new ways to increase revenues
and thereby counteract declining profits. Airline A has proposed increasing the number of
passengers that can fit on its airplanes by creating several standing room only “seats” in which
passengers would be propped against a padded backboard and held in place with a harness.
This proposal, since it relates to passenger safety, cannot be implemented without prior
approval by the Federal Aviation Administration.
The above statements, if true, indicate that Airline A has made which of the following
conclusions?
(A) The addition of standing room only “seats” will generate more revenue than the cost of
ensuring that these seats meet safety standards.
(B) The Federal Aviation Administration will approve Airline A’s specific proposal.
(C) The revenue generated by the addition of standing room only “seats” is greater than the
current cost of jet fuel.
(D) There are no safer ways in which Airline A can increase revenues.
(E) Passenger safety is less important than increasing revenue.
19. A recent development in the marketplace for consumer technology goods has been the
premium placed on design—products with innovative and appealing designs relative to
competing products can often command substantially higher prices. Because design
innovations are quickly copied by other manufacturers though, many consumer technology
companies charge as much as possible when it comes to their new designs to extract as much
value as possible from their new designs.
But large profits generated by the innovative design will give competitors stronger incentives
to copy the designs. Therefore, the best strategy to maximize overall profit from an innovative
new design is to charge less than the greatest possible price.
In the argument above, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?
(A) The first is an assumption that assists a course of action criticized by the argument; the
second provides a consideration to support the argument’s recommended position.
(B) The first is a consideration that helps explain the appeal of a certain strategy; the second
presents an alternative strategy endorsed by the argument.
(C) The first is an assumption that justifies a specific strategy; the second is that strategy.
(D) The first is a consideration presented to demonstrate that a particular strategy will not
apply; the second is a factor cited to support the argument’s main position.
(E) The first is a factor used to justify a particular strategy; the second is a factor against that
strategy.
20. Smoking is a known cause of certain serious health problems, including emphysema and
lung cancer. Now, an additional concern can be added to the list of maladies caused by
smoking. A recent study surveyed both smokers and non-smokers, and found that smokers are
significantly more anxious and nervous than non-smokers.
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Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument rests?
(A) Anxiety and nervousness can lead to serious health problems.
(B) Anxiety and nervousness do not make individuals more likely to start smoking.
(C) Equivalent numbers of smokers and non-smokers were surveyed for the study.
(D) Smokers are aware of the various health problems attributed to smoking, including lung
cancer and emphysema.
(E) Smokers who had smoked a cigarette immediately before responding to the survey were
more anxious and nervous than smokers who had not smoked for several hours.
21. Whether you can accomplish a specific goal or meet a specific deadline depends first on
how much time you need to get the job done. What should you do when the demands of the
job exceed the time you have available? The best approach is to divide the project into smaller
pieces. Different goals will have to be divided in different ways, but one seemingly unrealistic
goal can often be accomplished by working on several smaller, more reasonable goals.
The main idea of the passage is that
A. jobs often remain only partially completed because of lack of time.

B. the best way to complete projects is to make sure your goals are achievable.
C. the best way to tackle a large project is to separate it into smaller parts.
D. the best approach to a demanding job is to delegate responsibility.
22. Health clubs have undergone a major transformation that can be described in three words:
mind, body, and spirit. Loud, fast, heart-thumping aerobics has been replaced by the hushed
tones of yoga and the controlled movements of Pilates. The clubs are responding to the needs
of their customers who are increasingly looking for a retreat from their hectic lifestyles and a
way to find a healthy balance in their lives by nurturing their whole selves.
The main idea of the paragraph is that
A. exercise is less important now than it once was.

B. health clubs are much less popular now than they were ten years ago.
C. many health clubs will go out of business because of the decline in traditional exercise.
D. people’s desire to nurture all aspects of themselves has contributed to big changes for health
clubs.
23. For most judges, sentencing a person who has been convicted of a crime is a difficult
decision. In the majority of jurisdictions throughout the country, judges have few sentencing
options from which to choose. Generally, their options are confined to a fine, probation, or
incarceration. Crimes, however, cover a wide spectrum of criminal behaviour and motivation,
and a wide variety of sanctions should be available.
A. there should be laws that dictate which sentence a judge should hand down.
B. someone other than a judge should be allowed to sentence a criminal.
C. judges should be given more sentencing options from which to choose.
D. more money should be spent on the criminal justice system.
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24. Managing job and family is not simple. Both commitments make strong demands on people
and are sometimes in direct opposition to each other. Saying yes to one means saying no to the
other, and stress can often result. Being realistic and creating a balance in life can help set
priorities
A. most family responsibilities cause stress at home and at work.

B. because it pays the bills, a job must take priority over other commitments.
C. it is important to have a balance between job and family responsibilities.
D. because they are so important, family duties must take priority over the job.
25. All registered cyclists have passed an examination covering traffic rules and safety. Those
interested in the new BikeShare Program must register their bicycles and provide a major credit
card to ensure payment. Call 555-1212 for more information.
Identify the tone of the passage
(A) argumentative
(B) sentimental
(C) idealistic
(D) informative
(E) caustic
26. On hot summer nights his family drove to the local ice cream stand, where, for just a few
minutes, nothing mattered but the cold, sweet treat. No dessert, before or since, was as delicious
as a double-dip cone eaten while he balanced on a log behind the parking lot.
Identify the tone of the passage
(A) nostalgic
(B) biting
(C) irreverent
(D) cynical
(E) satirical
TYPE 2 - Standard
EXERCISE:17
1. Understanding where you are in the world is a basic survival skill, which is why we, like
most species come hard-wired with specialized brain areas to create congnitive maps of our
surroundings. Where humans are unique, though, with the possible exception of honeybees,
is that we try to communicate this understanding the world with others. We have along
history of doing this by drawing maps – the earliest version yet discovered were scrawled on
cave walls 14,000 years ago. Human cultures have been drawing them on stone tablets,
papyrus, paper and now computer screens ever since.
Given such a long history of human map-making, it perhaps surprising that is only within the
37
last few hundred years that north has been consistently considered to be at the top. In fact, for
much of human history, north almost never appeared at the top, according to Jerry Brotton, a
map historian… “North was rarely put at the top for the simple fact that north is where
darkness comes from,” he says. “West is also very unlikely to be put at the top because west
is where the sun disappears.”
Confusingly, early Chinese maps seem to buck this trend. But, Brotton, says, even though
they did have compasses at the time, that isn’t the reason that they placed north at the top.
Early Chinese compasses were actually oriented to point south, which was considered to be
more desirable than deepest darkest north. But in Chinese maps, the emperor, who lived in
the north of the country was always put at the top of the map, with everyone else, his loyal
subjects, looking up towards him. “In Chinese culture the Emperor looks south because it’s
where the winds come from, it’s a good direction. North is not very good but you are in a
position of the subjection to the emperor, so you look up to him,” says Brotton.
Given that each culture has a very different idea of who, or what, they should look upto it’s
perhaps not surprising that there is very little consistency in which way early maps pointed.
In ancient Egyptian times the top of the world was east, the position of sunrise. Early Islamic
maps favoured south at the top because most of the early Muslim cultures were north of
Mecca, so they imagined looking up (south) towards it Christian maps from the same era
(called Mappa Mundi) put east at the top, towards the Garden of Eden and with Jerusalem in
the centre.
So, when did everyone get together and decide that north was the top? It’s tempting to put it
down to European explorers like Christopher Columbus and Ferdinand Megellan who were
navigating by the North Star. But Brotton argues that these early explorers didn’t think of the
world like that at all. “When Columbus describes the world, it is in accordance with east
being at the top,” he says “Columbus says he is going towards paradise, so his mentality is
from a medieval mappa mundi.” We’ve got to remember, adds Brotton, that at the time, “no
one knows what they are doing and where they are going.”
Questions
Q1) Which one of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do?
A) It questions on explanation about how maps are designed.

B) It corrects a misconception about the way maps are designed.
C) It critiques a methodology used to create maps
D) It explores some myths about maps
Q2) Early maps did NOT put north at the top for all the following reasons EXCEPT
A) North was the source of darkness

B) South was favoured by some emperors.
C) East and south were more important for religious reasons for some civilisations
D) East was considered by some civilisations to be a more positive direction
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Q3) According to the passage, early Chinese maps placed north at the top because
A) the Chinese invented the compass and were aware of magnetic north
B) they wanted to show respect to the emperor.
C) the Chinese emperor appreciated the winds from the south.
D) north was considered the most desirable direction.
Q4) It can be inferred from the passage that European explorers like Columbus and Megellan
A) set the precedent for north-up maps.

B) navigated by the compass.
C) used an eastward orientation for religious reasons.
D) navigated with the help of early maps
Q5) Which one of the following about the northern orientation of modern maps is asserted in
the passage?
A) The biggest contributory factor was the understanding of magnetic north

B) The biggest contributory factor was the role of European explorers
C) The biggest contributory factor was the influence of Christian maps
D) The biggest contributory factor is not stated in the passage
Q6) The role of natural phenomena in influencing map-making conventions is seen most
clearly in
A) early Egyptian maps

B) early Islamic maps
C) early Chinese maps
D) early Christian maps
2. I used a smartphone GPS to find my way through the cobblestoned maze of Geneva’s Old
Town, in search of a handmade machine that changed the world more than any other
invention. Near a 13th-century cathedral in this Swiss city on the shores of a lovely lake, I
found what I was looking for: a Gutenberg printing press. “This was the Internet of its day —
at least as influential as the iPhone,” said Gabriel de Montmollin, the director of the Museum
of the Reformation, toying with the replica of Johann Gutenberg’s great invention. [Before
the invention of the printing press] it used to take four monks…up to a year to produce a
single book. With the advance in movable type in 15th-century Europe, one press could crank
out 3,000 pages a day. Before long, average people could travel to places that used to be
unknown to them — with maps! Medical information passed more freely and quickly,
diminishing the sway of quacks…The printing press offered the prospect that tyrants would
never be able to kill a book or suppress an idea. Gutenberg’s brainchild broke the monopoly
that clerics had on scripture. And later, stirred by pamphlets from a version of that same
press, the American colonies rose up against a king and gave birth to a nation.
So, a question in the summer of this 10th anniversary of the iPhone: has the device that is
perhaps the most revolutionary of all time given us a single magnificent idea? Nearly every
advancement of the written word through new technology has also advanced humankind.
Sure, you can say the iPhone changed everything. By putting the world’s recorded knowledge
in the palm of a hand, it revolutionized work, dining, travel and socializing. It made us more
39
narcissistic — here’s more of me doing cool stuff! — and it unleashed an army of awful
trolls. We no longer have the patience to sit through a baseball game without that reach to the
pocket. And one more casualty of Apple selling more than a billion phones in a decade’s
time: daydreaming has become a lost art.
For all of that, I’m still waiting to see if the iPhone can do what the printing press did for
religion and democracy…the Geneva museum makes a strong case that the printing press
opened more minds than anything else…it’s hard to imagine the French or American
revolutions without those enlightened voices in print…
Not long after Steve Jobs introduced his iPhone, he said the bound book was probably headed
for history’s attic. Not so fast. After a period of rapid growth in e-books, something closer to
the medium for Chaucer’s volumes has made a great comeback.
The hope of the iPhone, and the Internet in general, was that it would free people in closed
societies. But the failure of the Arab Spring, and the continued suppression of ideas in North
Korea, China and Iran, has not borne that out… The iPhone is still young. It has certainly
been “one of the most important, world-changing and successful products in history, “as
Apple CEO. Tim Cook said. But I’m not sure if the world changed for the better with the
iPhone — as it did with the printing press — or merely, changed.
Questions
Q1) The printing press has been likened to the Internet for which one of the following
reasons?
A) It enabled rapid access to new information and the sharing of new ideas
B) It represented new and revolutionary technology compared to the past
C) It encouraged reading among people by giving them access to thousands of books
D) It gave people access to pamphlets and literature in several languages
Q2) According to the passage, the invention of the printing press did all of the following
EXCEPT
A) Promoted the spread of enlightened political views across countries

B) Gave people direct access to authentic medical information and religious texts
C) shortened the time taken to produce books and pamphlets.
D) enabled people to perform various tasks simultaneously.
Q3) Steve Jobs predicted which one ‘of the following with the introduction of the iPhone?
A) People would switch from reading on the Internet to reading on their iPhones.
B) People would lose interest in historical and traditional classics.
C) Reading printed books would become a thing of the past.
D) The production of e-books would eventually fall.
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Q4) “I’m still waiting to see if the iPhone can do what the printing press did for religion and
democracy.” The author uses which one of the following to indicate his uncertainty?
A) The rise of religious groups in many parts of the world.

B) The expansion in trolling and narcissism among users of the Internet
C) The continued suppression of free speech in closed societies
D) The decline in reading habits among those who use the device
Q5) The author attributes the French and American revolutions to the invention of the
printing press because
A) maps enabled large numbers of Europeans to travel and settle in the American continent.
B) the rapid spread of information exposed people to new ideas on freedom and democracy
C) it encouraged religious freedom among the people by destroying the monopoly of
religious leaders on the scriptures.
D) it made available revolutionary strategies and opinions to the people.
Q6) The main conclusion of the passage is that the new technology has
A) some advantages, but these are outweighed by its disadvantages.

B) so far not proved as successful as the printing press in opening people’s minds
C) been disappointing because it has changed society too rapidly
D) been more wasteful than the printing press because people spend more time daydreaming
or surfing.
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V. ANALYTICAL WRITING TASKS
The GRE essay section, also known as the GRE Analytical Writing Assessment (AWA),
actually comprises two parts: the Issue essay and the Argument essay. You are allotted 30
minutes for each essay. Both test your ability to write a cogent thesis statement that you must
defend over the course of several paragraphs.
Your goal here is to read through the prompt, then agree or disagree with the premise and
explain the extent to which you agree or disagree. Best part is, the topics are available in ETS
website, which helps students to prepare in advance. The ETS provides pool of topic, Hence,
one can review the Topic Pool. The prompts are drawn from a GRE topic pool, you can have
some idea of what the Issue task will look like before. Think how to approach a topic.
ISSUE ANALYTICAL WRITING
Steps to write the essay.
1. Read the directions carefully
2. Brainstorm over the directions
3. Mind map the points
4. Outline pros and cons
5. Choose a side
6. Choose reasons and examples to support those reasons
(especially important for claim and reason prompts)
7. Select a concession point
8. Write down the essay.
9. Proofreading and editing
Strategies
Given below are important AWA Issue Strategies to look for while writing essay.
1. Be Organized
Any essay must have this form: the introduction, a few body paragraphs, and a conclusion.
The Intro should not be long, make is brief to introduce the topic. Define the thesis statement
and brief your stand clearly. This should be ONE of the many points of view about the topic,
not more than one. The body paragraphs should develop your thesis. Finally, the conclusion
should recap what’ve you said and don’t try to add any new information.
2. Focus on your Paragraphs
Focused on analyzing the issue. Make sure your sentences are connected, without loop holes
and be sure to develop an example, so that by the end of the paragraph you can persuade the
reader and can clearly show how your example supports your thesis.
Don’t use repetitive sentence structure, Use punctuations wherever necessarily.
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4. Be Specific
Hypothetical sentence are tough part, don’t use them unless it is convincing your point.
Avoid using some, many, few, you, he/she that sounds vague, racist, unsure and sexist terms.
Be sure of your points.
Student GRE Issue Essay Analysis: Prompts, Essays, and Grading Samples
All of the following essays were written in real time response to the GRE Issue prompts.
GRE Issue Essay Prompt 1: University Requirements Prompt

Universities should require students to take courses only within those fields they are interested
in studying.
Instructions
Write a response in which you discuss your views on the policy and explain your reasoning
for the position you take. In developing and supporting your position, you should consider
the possible consequences of implementing the policy and explain how these consequences
shape your position.
5.5 Essay and Analysis
Student Essay
Some people believe that universities should put stringent policies in place that require
students to take courses only within a chosen field of study, thus harshly limiting the breadth
of knowledge that they are able to study. Concentrating on only one field is important in
terms of developing expert knowledge and specialization, but it is also crucial that the student
hone a well rounded knowledge of the nature of the world so that their field of specialization
is accented with courses from outside disciplines as well. It is for this reason that I believe
that students should focus their study on a specific field yet also be allowed and encouraged
to accent and expand their specialized knowledge by sampling courses from other areas of
specialty as well.
Our current globalizing world contains diversity of knowledge, culture and creed that is
increasing at a rapid pace and in order to succeed in a world such as this, it is necessary to
hone a diverse skill set of knowledge and expertise. Therefore, university policies should
encourage students to accent their study of a specific discipline with outside courses that will
enhance the breadth of their knowledge about the nature of the world. A student studying
medicine, for example, clearly needs to focus the majority of their time on understanding the
inner workings of the human body on a scientific level. However, it is also crucial for them to
have a more general knowledge of the way in which humans function on an individual or
cultural scale (i.e. psychology and anthropology), because effective doctors are not simply
capable of diagnosing diseases, but can also interact effectively, with individual and cultural
sensitivies, with their patients in order to provide the most well-rounded care. A
mathematician who knows only about math and knows nothing about the ancient civilizations
whose cultures discovered geography will be ill-suited to make math interesting to his future
43
students or to understand the real world implications of the equations he slaves over daily. A
one-dimensional course of study will only serve to foster bias and an uncritical approach to
life in such students. Thus, because we live in a world that is multi-faceted, it is important for
every specialist to learn a bit about specialities outside of their main discipline in order to
augment their understanding of the world at large.
When universities provide a structure of encouragement for their students to augment their
specified studies by selecting some courses from outside their discipline, there are some
possible consequences, such as the potential for students to change their mind about what
they want to focus on. Some may say this is an inefficient use of time and that it will confuse
students. However, I would argue that it will foster a wider breadth of knowledge that is
ultimately beneficial for any student; a student that started studying biology but then switched
to psychology, for example, will always appreciate and pay heed to the importance of our life
sciences and will not neglect to consider how the functions of the body may affect someone’s
mental health. The existence of knowledge in a wider range of disciplines will only provide
the student with more information with which to take charge in a world that is highly
complex and rapidly changing all the time, and so allowing them to experiment a little and
change their mind once or twice is to their benefit rather than to their detriment.
In conclusion, I disagree that universities should require students to take courses only within
their specific, chosen field of study. When students are able to focus their study on one
specific topic but then augment it by sampling courses from other disciplines, their
knowledge becomes more wide ranging and interdisciplinary, thus providing a better
foundation for them to succeed in a rapidly globalizing world. While they may change their
minds as to their preferred topic of study one or two times, they will ultimately succeed by
having a wide breadth of knowledge that will teach them to approach the world without a
subject specific bias. Overall, it is best that universities allow their students to take courses
outside of their chosen course of study in order to diversify their pallate of knowledge.
Issue Essay Analysis
Score: 5.5
This GRE Issue essay starts off with a strong intro that clearly articulates the author’s
position.
The essay is also very long, and the body paragraphs well developed. In terms of ideas this is
a strong—though if slightly limited—essay. It makes a compelling case for interdisciplinary
learning. A physician studying anthropology will be more culturally sensitive; a psychologist
who studied biology will have a great appreciation for the biological underpinnings of the
psyche. The writer justifies this well-roundedness in terms of relevancy: a one-dimensional
person will struggle in our complex, globalized world.
As well thought out and supported as these points, they are far too similar, and this essay
would have benefited from picking another example that argues in favor of allowing students
to take courses outside of their majors. Another flaw is the essay doesn’t directly addresses
the directions: “should consider the possible consequences of implementing the policy.” Is a
world of well-rounded, complex individuals the consequence of allowing students to choose
subjects outside of their majors?
Stylistically this essay is not perfect, and I have some minor grumblings.
I like the first use of “accent” but after the third time the use of the word is not nearly as
fresh. In this case, other words could do: supplement, etc. Some of the sentences are heavy-
44
handed and overloaded with clauses (“When universities provide a structure of
encouragement for their students to augment their specified studies by selecting some courses
from outside their discipline, there are some possible consequences, such as the potential for
students to change their mind about what they want to focus on”). Other examples of where
too many nouns compromise the effectiveness of writing is the first sentence of the body
paragraph (can “creed” “increase at a rapid pace”).
All in all, this essay is a strong essay but the narrow scope and the overly oblique focus on
the directions prevents it from getting a ‘6.’
4.0 Essay and Analysis
Student Essay
The author states that students should only take classes within their realm of study. Although,
students may gain more of a grasp on what they are studying, this requirement fails to take in
what students can learn outside of their required classes. To say that students can only take
classes within their concentration is occluding them to knowledge that they may learn in
other fields of study.
For example, universities typically require students to pick their major, as well as a minor.
Some programs may also require students to select a few elective classes as well, so students
can establish themselves as more rounded individuals.
Also, taking classes outside of a student’s field of study may help boost the student’s overall
GPA. For example, if a student has an in major GPA of 2.5 and an out of major GPA of 3.2,
then the overall GPA will increase. However, it could be vice versa as well. If someone isn’t
doing that great in their elective classes, it could bring their overall GPA down.
If this policy is implemented, the consequences may be severe. One consequence could be
that a student may not be able to graduate on time because they may not have enough credits.
Or they may not meet the GPA requirements to graduate because they failed a few classes
within their major.
If the university decides that students can only take courses within his or her chosen field of
study, then the university may not produce well rounded individuals.
Issue Essay Analysis

Score: 4.0
This essay is an example of a 4.0—just barely—that is undeveloped and thus on the short
side. It is not an example of a longer, totally one-sided ‘4’ that ignores the directions (notice
how the final body paragraph addresses the “consequences” mentioned in the instructions).
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What the author has written is an intelligent response to the prompt. She doesn’t simply agree
with the prompt, but takes the opposing side, providing support (“To say that students can
only take classes within their concentration is occluding them to knowledge that they may
learning other fields of study.”). In passing, I should mention that “occlude” is used
incorrectly. This is not a major problem, but remember that, if you use GRE words, make
sure you know how to use them correctly.
What could have easily made this essay much stronger is more. More words, more examples.
In coming up with examples, the writer should avoid the wishy-washiness apparent in the
third paragraph (“It could be vice versa as well.”). While such missteps might point at a 3.5,
the essay is never unclear (the grammar and word usage—besides “occlude”—are accurate).
Pool of issue tasks.(As taken from ETS website)
The following passages contains the Issue topics for the Analytical Writing section of the
GRE® General Test. When you take the test, you will be presented with one Issue topic
from this pool.
Each Issue topic consists of an issue statement or statements followed by specific task
instructions that tell you how to respond to the issue. The wording of some topics in the test
might vary slightly from what is presented here. Also, because there may be multiple
versions of some topics with similar or identical wording but with different task instructions,
it is very important to read your test topic and its specific task directions carefully and
respond to the wording as it appears in the actual test.
To understand the most important characteristics of a society, one must study its major cities.
Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the
statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting
your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might not hold true
and explain how these considerations shape your position.
Educational institutions have a responsibility to dissuade students from pursuing fields of

study in which they are unlikely to succeed.
claim. In developing and supporting your position, be sure to address the most compelling
reasons and/or examples that could be used to challenge your position.
Scandals are useful because they focus our attention on problems in ways that no speaker or
reformer ever could.
Claim: Governments must ensure that their major cities receive the financial support they
need in order to thrive.
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Reason: It is primarily in cities that a nation's cultural traditions are preserved and generated.
47
claim and the reason on which that claim is based.
Some people believe that government funding of the arts is necessary to ensure that the arts
can flourish and be available to all people. Others believe that government funding of the arts
threatens the integrity of the arts.
Write a response in which you discuss which view more closely aligns with your own
position and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting
your position, you should address both of the views presented.
In any field of inquiry, the beginner is more likely than the expert to make important
contributions.
The surest indicator of a great nation is represented not by the achievements of its rulers,
artists, or scientists, but by the general welfare of its people.
The best way to teach — whether as an educator, employer, or parent — is to praise positive
actions and ignore negative ones.
Teachers' salaries should be based on their students' academic performance.

Claim: Any piece of information referred to as a fact should be mistrusted, since it may well
be proven false in the future.
Reason: Much of the information that people assume is factual actually turns out to be
inaccurate.
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Claim: Nations should suspend government funding for the arts when significant numbers of
their citizens are hungry or unemployed.
49
Reason: It is inappropriate — and, perhaps, even cruel — to use public resources to fund the
arts when people's basic needs are not being met.
Claim: Many problems of modern society cannot be solved by laws and the legal system.
Reason: Laws cannot change what is in people's hearts or minds.
Educators should take students' interests into account when planning the content of the
courses they teach.
recommendation and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and
supporting your position, describe specific circumstances in which adopting the
recommendation would or would not be advantageous and explain how these examples shape
your position.
The primary goal of technological advancement should be to increase people's efficiency so

that they have more leisure time.
Educators should base their assessment of students' learning not on students' grasp of facts
but on the ability to explain the ideas, trends, and concepts that those facts illustrate.
recommendation and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and
supporting your position, describe specific circumstances in which adopting the
recommendation would or would not be advantageous and explain how these examples shape
your position.
All parents should be required to volunteer time to their children's schools.

Claim: No act is done purely for the benefit of others.

Reason: All actions — even those that seem to be done for other people — are based on self-
50
interest.
51
ARGUMENT ANALYTICAL WRITING:
Twenty years ago, Dr. Field, a noted anthropologist, visited the island of Tertia. Using an
observation-centered approach to studying Tertian culture, he concluded from his
observations that children in Tertia were reared by an entire village rather than by their own
biological parents. Recently another anthropologist, Dr. Karp, visited the group of islands
that includes Tertia and used the interview-centered method to study child-rearing practices.
In the interviews that Dr. Karp conducted with children living in this group of islands, the
children spent much more time talking about their biological parents than about other adults
in the village. Dr. Karp decided that Dr. Field's conclusion about Tertian village culture must
be invalid. Some anthropologists recommend that to obtain accurate information on Tertian
child-rearing practices, future research on the subject should be conducted via the interview-
centered method.
Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to
decide whether the recommendation and the argument on which it is based are reasonable. Be
sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the
recommendation.
Strategies
Regardless of the approach you take, consider the following steps:
a) Is there an alternative explanation for the events in question that can invalidate, either in
whole or in part, the explanation given in the passage?
b) How can I break the argument into its component parts to understand how they create the
whole argument?
c) Can I identify the line of reasoning used to create the argument?
d) What does the author of the argument assume to be true for the argument to be true?
e) Does the line of reasoning validate the conclusion?
f) Can I imagine an example that refutes any or several of the statements in the argument?
g) Am I able to evaluate the argument based on the quality of the facts and reasons presented
in it?
Based on your responses to all or some of these questions, you must present a well-developed
evaluation of the argument. You should take brief notes when you identify the arguments
claims, assumptions, and conclusion. Jot down as many alternative explanations as you can
along with additional evidence that might support or refute the claims in the argument.
Finally, list the changes in the argument that would make the reasoning more solid. It is more
important to be specific than it is to have a long list of evidence and examples.
This argument cites the results of two studies concerning child-rearing practices on the island
of Tertia and the group of islands that includes Tertia and makes a recommendation about
further research.
In developing your response, you are required to generate questions that will help you decide
if the recommendation and the argument on which it is based are reasonable and then explain
how the answers to your questions would help evaluate the recommendation. It might be
52
helpful to isolate the recommendation.
Recommendation:
To obtain accurate information on Tertian child-rearing practices, future research on the
subject should be conducted via the interview-centered method.
Next, identify the argument’s conclusions and the evidence that led to those conclusions.
Claims and assumptions:
a) Dr. Field's conclusion about Tertian village culture must be invalid. This assumption
supports the recommendation to conduct further studies using the interview-based approach.
Later studies seem to negate Field’s findings.
b) The observation – centered approach yields inaccurate results. This unstated assumption
underlies the recommendation that, in order to obtain accurate results, further studies should
be conducted using the interviewbased approach.
c) The interview-centered method yields accurate results. The conclusions in Karp’s research
seem to justify this conclusion. This assumption supports the recommendation.
d) Some anthropologists recommend the interview-centered approach for future research.
e) You should now be able to generate some questions that could clarify or weaken the
argument.
Questions:
a) If the interview-centered approach had been used before the observation-centered
approach, would the second results have invalidated those first results?
b) What kinds of questions were included in the interviews?
c) What outside influences may have arisen in the twenty years between the two studies?
Have the women in the islands gone outside of the home to work? Have television and/or the
Internet become available? Think about the ways in which your own community has changed
in the last twenty years.
d) Has the family structure undergone any changes in the twenty years between the two
studies? Are families having fewer children?
e) What other islands were included in Dr. Karp’s study? Were child-rearing practices similar
on all of the islands?
f) Are the results of each study both valid and reliable? Did the studies indeed measure what
they were intended to measure? If the same study were done again, would the results be the
same?
g) Did Dr. Fields’ study make the people of Tertia reconsider their method of child-rearing?
His questions may have caused them to reflect upon the way they perform this task.
Your notes do not have to be exhaustive. As you begin to write your essay, your brain will
generate new ideas. Make certain that you keep the directions in mind as you develop your
ideas. Use as many or as few paragraphs as you consider appropriate for your argument, but
you should create a new paragraph when you move on to a new idea or example of support
for your position. The GRE readers are not looking for a specific number of ideas or
paragraphs. Instead, they are reading to determine the level of understanding of the topic and
the complexity with which you respond.
You are free to organize and develop your response in any way you think will enable you to
effectively communicate your evaluation of the argument. You may recall writing strategies
that you learned in high school or a writing-intensive course that you took in college, but it is
not necessary to employ any of those strategies. It is important that your ideas follow a
53
logical progression and display strong critical thinking.
SAMPLE ARGUMENT ESSAY 1
Change in virtually every society around the world is occurring at almost lightning speed.
Tertia and the group of islands to which it belongs are not likely to be immune to change. If
we assume that Dr. Field’s conclusions were appropriate twenty years ago, we must ask
ourselves if events during the intervening years may have changed the child-rearing practices
that he observed. Exposure to other people visiting the island, access to television and the
Internet, and even people leaving the island would influence future studies of the culture. Dr.
Field’s study, alone, could have caused the residents of Tertia to question their child-rearing
practices and, as a result, modify them. Dr. Karp’s recent study, regardless of the technique
he used, could not fail to yield different results than the earlier study. Playing devil’s
advocate for a moment, let’s reverse the order of the studies. Assume that Dr. Karp
completed his study using the interview-centered approach and that, twenty years later Dr.
Field arrived at the island and used his observation-centered approach to complete his study.
The results would most certainly still disagree with each other. In this case, do Dr. Field’s
results invalidate those of Dr. Karp?
The scope of each study appears to be different, as well. Dr. Field allegedly studied only the
families on the island of Tertia while Dr. Karp visited the group of islands that includes
Tertia. The fact that the subjects were different for each event is enough to nullify one’s
superiority over the other. It also appears that Dr. Field observed the culture of Tertia as a
whole, while Karp focused on child-rearing practices. Having used two variants of research
procedures, the anthropologists were destined to achieve unreliable results.
We should take a closer look at the approaches that each anthropologist adopted. As Field
employed the observation- centered method to study the culture of Tertia, what did he
observe in addition to child-rearing practices? One could infer that those practices were a
small, perhaps even minor, portion of his entire project. On the other hand, Karp’s project,
using an interview-centered method, seems to have ignored other aspects of the culture. Why
would a group of scientists use these disparate studies as a basis for further research?
Overall, the results of these studies have too much dissimilarity and leave too many questions
unanswered to use them as justification for more research using either one of the methods
mentioned in the argument. The author of the argument may have more information than he
has seen fit to reveal and, thus, may be qualified to sit in judgment of the methods and the
results. However, based on what has been revealed here, the recommendation is based on
flawed reasoning.
SAMPLE ARGUMENT ESSAY 2
The following is a recommendation from the personnel director to the president of Acme
Publishing Company.
“Many other companies have recently stated that having their employees take the Easy Read
Speed-Reading Course has greatly improved productivity. One graduate of the course was
able to read a 500-page report in only two hours; another graduate rose from an assistant
manager to vice president of the company in under a year. Obviously, the faster you can read,
the more information you can absorb in a single workday. Moreover, Easy Read would cost
Acme only $500 per employee - a small price to pay when you consider the benefits.
Included in this fee is a three-week seminar in Spruce City and a lifelong subscription to the
Easy Read newsletter. Clearly, Acme would benefit greatly by requiring all of our employees
to take the Easy Read course.”
54
Write a response in which you discuss what specific evidence is needed to evaluate the
argument and explain how the evidence would weaken or strengthen the argument.
Strategies
A good place to start your analysis is by creating a statement that reveals the main idea of the
argument. Although the writer is creating an argument, he may ultimately be stating a
position, making a recommendation, or making a prediction. It may be helpful for you to
determine which of these formats is most evident in the argument.
Based on examples from other companies, the personnel director at Acme Publishing
Company is recommending the Easy Read Speed-Reading course as a means of benefiting
Acme Publishing Company.
Assumptions:
a) Easy Read Speed-Reading Course increases productivity in the workplace.
b) Graduates of the course are more likely to be promoted.
c) People who read faster absorb more information.
d) Benefits of taking the course outweigh the cost.
e) Productivity needs to be improved at Acme Publishing Company.
Evidence needed:
a) The ability for employees to read faster is important to productivity at Acme Publishing
Company.
b) The percentage of employees whose jobs require them to read rapidly.
c) The manner in which employees are promoted at Acme Publishing Company.
d) The focus of businesses that have seen greater productivity after their workers completed
the speed reading course.
e) The cost of travel for employees of Acme Publishing Company to travel and stay in Spruce
City.
f) The effect on Acme Publishing Company of its employees' being gone for three weeks.
g) Other factors in addition to speed reading that led to the employee's promotion
h) Reading faster leads to greater knowledge.
i) The productivity of Acme workers.
Sample Essay
Companies are always looking for ways to improve the efficiency of their workers. Time is
money, and the more that employees can accomplish in a workday, the more money the
company is likely to make. Methods to increase productivity must be tailored to the type of
work being done and the results desired by the company. Acme Publishing Company's
owners need evidence of the benefit to be derived from the speed-reading course before
investing both time and money.
The ability to speed read is important in some occupations. Students doing research can
benefit from quickly reading through documents in order to extract pertinent facts. Lawyers
frequently wade through volumes of documents or case law, and the ability to speed read can
save them a lot of time. Acme Publishing Company should determine how many of its
employees actually need to read more quickly in order to perform more efficiently. The focus
of the business may not include voluminous reading, so spending the money on the course for
all of Acme's employees would not be a wise use of resources. Committing to a three-week
retreat for all employees may be unrealistic. If the retreat is scheduled for only one three
week period, Acme Publishing Company would have to shut down to send all of its workers,
potentially leading to a loss of business. The company may decide that some of its workers
could become more productive after taking the speed-reading course and attending the retreat
55
which would cost much less while, perhaps, making those employees feel more positive
about their jobs.
The personnel manager cites examples of employees at one or more other companies who
increased their reading speed or got promotions after taking the course. It would be helpful to
know how rapidly the first employee read 500 pages before taking the course and whether or
not reading faster was the main objective of his job. Evidence should also be forthcoming
that the assistant manager’s receiving a promotion was a direct result of taking the speed-
reading course. That employee may have been in line to become vice president anyway based
on his or her other qualifications. The president of Acme Publishing Company also needs
evidence that the two employees cited work for a company whose goals and objectives are
similar to those of Acme. If the other company involves vastly different work or product than
Acme Publishing, then the examples are irrelevant. The ability to read rapidly may not be a
factor in earning promotions at Acme Publishing. Evaluating the strength of this argument
would be easier if the reader knows the criteria that Acme uses when selecting candidates for
higher positions in the company.
Before accepting this recommendation, the company president should ask for evidence about
his workers' level of productivity at all tasks required by Acme. The evidence may show that
all of his workers meet established productivity levels, making the speed-reading course
unnecessary. He may find that productivity levels are subpar in areas where the ability to read
quickly is not a factor. On the other hand, he may find lower productivity in departments
where a course in speed-reading would help those workers perform better. This evidence can
help the president determine which of his personnel can help the Company move forward by
completing the recommended course.
The president of Acme Publishing needs evidence that speed reading leads to the absorption
of more knowledge. Because more knowledge is important in virtually every industry, this
evidence could prove the value of the course to the company and its employees. Lack of this
evidence negates the personnel director’s conclusion that the money spent on the speed-
reading course would be a wise use of company resources.
Argument 3
The following appeared in a memorandum from the owner of Movies Galore, a chain of
movie-rental stores.
“In order to reverse the recent decline in our profits, we must reduce operating expenses at
Movies Galore's ten movie-rental stores. Since we are famous for our special bargains,
raising our rental prices is not a viable way to improve profits. Last month our store in
downtown Marston significantly decreased its operating expenses by closing at 6:00 p.m.
rather than 9:00 p.m. and by reducing its stock by eliminating all movies released more than
five years ago. Therefore, in order to increase profits without jeopardizing our reputation for
offering great movies at low prices, we recommend implementing similar changes in our
other nine Movies Galore stores.”
Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to
decide whether the recommendation and the argument on which it is based are reasonable. Be
sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the
recommendation.
Argument 4
Nature’s Way, a chain of stores selling health food and other health-related products, is
opening its next franchise in the town of Plainsville. The store should prove to be very
successful: Nature's Way franchises tend to be most profitable in areas where residents lead
healthy lives, and clearly Plainsville is such an area. Plainsville merchants report that sales of
56
running shoes and exercise clothing are at all-time highs. The local health club has more members
than ever, and the weight training and aerobics classes are always full. Finally, Plainsville's
schoolchildren represent a new generation of potential customers: these schoolchildren are
required to participate in a fitness-for-life program, which emphasizes the benefits of regular
exercise at an early age.
Argument 5
Fifteen years ago, Omega University implemented a new procedure that encouraged students to
evaluate the teaching effectiveness of all their professors. Since that time, Omega professors have
begun to assign higher grades in their classes, and overall student grade averages at Omega have
risen by 30 percent. Potential employers, looking at this dramatic rise in grades, believe that grades
at Omega are inflated and do not accurately reflect student achievement; as a result, Omega
graduates have not been as successful at getting jobs as have graduates from nearby Alpha
University. To enable its graduates to secure better jobs, Omega University should terminate
student evaluation of professors.
Write a response in which you discuss what specific evidence is needed to evaluate the argument
and explain how the evidence would weaken or strengthen the argument.
57
Company Question Papers
Mock Accenture Paper
(55 questions in 60 minutes)
Section 1: Verbal Ability (20 questions)
Directions for Questions 1 to 3: Choose the option which will correctly fill the blank.
1. I am writing to enquire the possibility of hiring a conference room at the hotel on the 2nd of
September.
1] Of 2] About 3] Into 4] After
2. having her lunch, she stood the tree and waited him.
1] With, below, for 2] After, under, for
3] Inside, further, to 4] About, across, into
3. The microscopic animals are the primary food for larval cod and their decline has meant that fewer
fish are making it to adulthood to be caught trawler men.
1] In 2] Into 3] By 4] With
Directions for Questions 4 to 6: Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in ITALICS from the
given options:
4.The jacket is impervious to water.

1] Dirty 2] Pure 3] Impenetrable 4] Favorable
5. Chandan was chagrined with the continuous disruption of the power supply to his home.
1] Delighted 2] Creation 3] Peeved 4] Security
6. The latest ordinance issued by the government has provided the bank with two options.
1] Decision 2] Law 3] Opinion 4] Verdict
Directions for Questions 7 to 10: Choose the answer option which will correctly fill the blank.
7. Great writer is convinced that whatever he says is not an echo or imitation of what others have said.
1] An 2] A 3] The 4] No article required
8. Reserve Bank of India directed banks to closely watch spending through

International Debit Cards.
1] A, the 2] The, the 3] The, a 4] In, the
9. The officer received official letter from Ministry of IT in Central Government.

1] a, the, an 2] an, the, the 3] a, an, the 4] an, an, the
10. You cannot send out uneducated man into world of technology and expect him to perform.
58
1] an, an 2] a, an 3] an, the 4] the, an
Directions for Questions 11 to 15: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis
of the information provided in the passage.
A Microprocessor is an electronic computer Central Processing Unit (CPU) made from miniaturized
transistors and other circuit elements on a single semiconductor Integrated Circuit (IC). Before the
advent of microprocessors, electronic CPUs were made from individual small scale Integrated Circuits
containing the equivalent of only a few transistors. By integrating the processor onto one or a very few
large-scale Integrated Circuit packages (containing the equivalent of thousands or millions of discrete
transistors), the cost of processor power was greatly reduced. The evolution of microprocessors has
been known to follow Moore's Law when it comes to steadily increasing performance over the years.
This law suggests that the complexity of an Integrated Circuit with respect to minimum component
cost will double in about 18 months. From humble beginnings as the drivers for calculators, the
continued increase in power has led to the dominance of microprocessors over every other form of
computer; every system from the largest mainframes to the smallest handheld computers now uses a
microprocessor at their core. As with many advances in technology, the microprocessor was an idea
whose time had come. Three projects arguably delivered a complete microprocessor at about the same
time: Intel's 4004, Texas Instruments' TMS1000, and Garrett Ai Research's Central Air Data
Computer. .
A computer-on-a-chip is a variation of a microprocessor, which combines the microprocessor core

(CPU), some memory, and I/O (input/output) lines, all on one chip. The proper meaning of
microcomputer is a computer using a (number of) microprocessor(s) as its CPU(s), while the concept
of the patent is somewhat more similar to a micro controller.
11. Which of the following descriptions would NOT fit a microprocessor?

1] Electronic computer 2] Central Processing Unit
3] Memory disk 4] A single integrated chip circuit.
12. Select the TRUE statement from the following.

1] Microprocessors and computers on a chip are variations of each other.
2] Integration of processing power on chips has made processing power cheaper.
3] Before microprocessors, CPUs were not made from individual small scale ICs.
4] A microprocessor circuit only has transistors in it.
13. Which of the following was NOT the first to develop a microprocessor?
1] Microsoft 2] Intel 3] Texas Instruments 4] Garret
14. According to the passage, which of these is NOT a use of microprocessors?

1] Drivers for calculators 2] Core for large mainframes
3] Advanced mobile phones 4] Used for small handheld computers
15. "A number of microprocessors at its CPU" is an apt description of a:

1] Micro-controller 2] Micro-computer
3] Micro-processor 4] Micro-transistor
59
Directions for Questions 16 to 20: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis
of the information provided in the passage.
Dynamic Link Libraries
Windows provides several files called dynamic link libraries (DLLs) that contain collections of
software code that perform common functions such as opening or saving a file. When Windows
application wants to use one of those functions or routines, the application sends a message to
Windows with the names of the DLL file and the function. This procedure is known as calling a
function. One of the most frequently used DLLs is Windows COMMDLG.DLL, which includes
among others, the functions to display File Open, File Save, Search, and Print dialog boxes. The
application also sends any information that the DLL function will need to complete the operation. For
example, a program calling the Open File function in COMMDLG.DLL would pass along a file spec,
such as *. * or *.DOC, to be displayed in the dialog box's Filename text box. The application also
passes along a specification for the type of information it expects the DLL to return to the application
when the DLL's work is done. The application, for example, may expect return information in the form
of integers, true/false values, or text. Windows passes the responsibility for program execution to the
DLL, along with the parameters and the return information the DLL will need. The specific DLL is
loaded into memory, and then executed by the processor. At this point the DLL, rather than the
application, runs things. The DLL performs all the operations necessary to communicate with
Windows and, through Windows, with the PC's hardware. After the DLL function is complete, the
DLL puts the return information into memory, where it can be found by the application, and instructs
Windows to remove the DLL routine from memory. The application inspects the return information,
which usually tells whether the DLL function was able to execute correctly. If the operation was a
success, the application continues from where it left off before issuing the function call. If the
operation failed, the application displays an error message.
16. By using DLLs, Windows:

1] Saves processing time 2] Multitasks
3] Shares program code 4] Communicates with PCs hardware
17. To use any routine of a DLL, Windows:

1] Searches and copies it in the application code and executes it
2] Loads the DLL file and searches and executes the routine
3] Loads just the required routine in memory and executes it
4] Searches the location of the routine and instructs the application to execute it
18. Which information does an application need to pass to Windows to use a DLL routine?
1] Just the name of the routine
2] Just the name of the DLL, which finds in turn the routine to be executed in return
3] Both the name of the routine as well as DLL and any parameters
4] Name of the DLL, routine, any parameters and type of information to be returned
19. According to the passage, while the DLL routine is executing, the calling application:
1] Waits for the routine to execute
2] Continues with other tasks
3] Helps the DLL routine perform by communicating with Windows and through Windows with the
PC's hardware
60
4] Passes all responsibility of program execution to the DLL and is removed from memory
20. The DLL function after execution returns:

1] The parameters and information into memory, where it can be inspected by the calling
application
2] Information into memory, where it can be inspected by the calling application
3] To the calling application the information required by it so that it can inspect it
4] The information required into memory so that DLL can inspect whether the function
operation was a success
MOCK Capgemini PAPER
Section 1: Verbal Ability (20 questions in 20 minutes)
Directions for Questions 1-3: Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the
blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
1. This train travels from London Paris.
a) At b) to c) over d) below
2. We stood at the back the theater.
a) Of b) on c) in d) for
3. I will work five o'clock.
a) Until b) up c) in d) to
Directions for Questions 4-6: Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in ITALICS from the
given options.
4. The antidote to these problems is hard to find
a) Cause for b) result of c) remedy for d) Consequence of
5. Because of a family feud, he never spoke to his wife’s parents.
a) Crisis b) trouble c) problem d) quarrel
6. The article is written in a very lucid style.
a) Elaborate b) clear c) intricate d) noble
Directions for Questions 7-10: Choose the answer option which will correctly fill the blank.
7. Man ran into the street. A car hit man.
61
a) A, the b) an, The c) the, the d) none of these
8. The interesting thing about Romans is all the roads that they built in Britain.
a) A b) an c) the d) None of these
9. Albert Einstein was famous scientist. Einstein won Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921.Einstein left his
country and lived in States until he died in 1955.
a) A, the, an b) A, the, the c) A, an, the d) An, an, the
10. Are you shopping for health club to join so you can get in shape? Shop wisely! You could end up
choosing wrong club and losing more money than pounds.
a) The, an b) the, the c) A, the d) an, the
Directions for Questions 11-16: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of
the information provided in the passage.
The pioneers of the teaching of science imagined that its introduction into education would remove the
conventionality, artificiality, and backward-lookingness which were characteristic; of classical studies,
but they were gravely disappointed. So, too, in their time had the humanists thought that the study of
the classical authors in the original would banish at once the dull pedantry and superstition of
mediaeval scholasticism. The professional schoolmaster was a match for both of them, and has almost
managed to make the understanding of chemical reactions as dull and as dogmatic an affair as the
reading of Virgil's Aeneid. The chief claim for the use of science in education is that it teaches a child
something about the actual universe in which he is living, in making him acquainted with the results of
scientific discovery, and at the same time teaches him how to think logically and inductively by
studying scientific method. A certain limited success has been reached in the first of these aims, but
practically none at all in the second. Those privileged members of the community who have been
through a secondary or public-school education may be expected to know something about the
elementary physics and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but they probably know hardly more than
any bright boy can pick up from an interest in wireless or scientific hobbies out of school hours. As to
the learning of scientific method, the whole thing is palpably a farce. Actually, for the convenience
of teachers and the requirements of the examination system, it is necessary that the pupils not only do
not learn scientific method but learn precisely the reverse, that is, to believe exactly what they are told
and to reproduce it when asked, whether it seems nonsense to them or not. The way in which educated
people respond to such quackeries as spiritualism or astrology, not to say more dangerous ones such as
racial theories or currency myths, shows that fifty years of education in the method of science in
Britain or Germany has produced no visible effect whatever. The only way of learning the method of
science is the long and bitter way of personal experience, and, until the educational or social systems
are altered to make this possible, the best we can expect is the production of a minority of people who
are able to acquire some of the techniques of science and a still smaller minority who are able to use
and develop them.
11. The author implies that the 'professional schoolmaster' has
a) No interest in teaching science b) thwarted attempts to enliven education
62
c) Aided true learning d) supported the humanists
12. The author’s attitude to secondary and public school education in the sciences is
a) Ambivalent b) supportive c) satirical d) contemptuous
13. The word ‘palpably’ most nearly means
a) Empirically b) obviously c) tentatively d) markedly
14. The author blames all of the following for the failure to impart scientific method through the
education system except
a) Poor teaching b) examination methods
c) The social and education systems d) lack of interest on the part of students
15. If the author were to study current education in science to see how things have changed since he
wrote the piece, he would probably be most interested in the answer to which of the following
questions?
a) Do students know more about the world about them?
b) Do students spend more time in laboratories?
c) Can students apply their knowledge logically?
d) Have textbooks improved?
16. Astrology is mentioned as an example of
a) A science that needs to be better understood
b) A belief which no educated people hold
c) Something unsupportable to those who have absorbed the methods of science
d) The gravest danger to society
Directions for Questions 17-20: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of
the information provided in the passage.
Furthermore, insofar as any conclusion about its author can be drawn from five or six plays attributed
to him, the Wakefield Master is without exception considered to be a man of sharp contemporary
observation. He was, probably clerically educated, as indicated by his Latin and music, his Biblical and
patristic lore. Even today he is remembered for his quick sympathy for the oppressed and forgotten
man, his sharp eye for character, a ready ear for colloquial, vernacular turns of speech and a humor
alternately rude and boisterous, coarse and happy. Therefore in spite of his conscious artistry as can be
seen in his feeling for intricate metrical and stanza forms, he is regarded as a kind of medieval
63
Steinbeck, indignantly angry at, uncompromisingly and even brutally realistic in presenting the plight
of the agricultural poor.
It is now fairly accepted to regard the play as a kind of ultimate point in the secularization of the
medieval drama. Therefore more stress has been laid on it as depicting realistically humble manners
and pastoral life in the bleak of the west riding of Yorkshire on a typically cold night of December
24th. After what are often regarded as almost ''documentaries'' given in the three successive
monologues of the three shepherds, critics go on to affirm that the realism is then intensified into a
burlesque mock- treatment of the Nativity. Finally as a sort of epilogue or after-thought in deference to
the Biblical origins of the materials, the play slides back into an atavistic mood of early innocent
reverence. In actuality, the final scene is the culminating scene and also the raison d’etre of the
introductory ''realism.''
Superficially the present play supports the conventional view of its mood of secular realism. At the
same time, the ''realism'' of the Wakefield Master is of a paradoxical turn. His wide knowledge of
people, as well as books indicates no cloistered contemplative but one in close relation to his times.
Still, that life was after all a predominantly religious one, a time which never neglected the belief that
man was a rebellious and sinful creature in need of redemption. So deeply (one can hardly say
''naively'' of so sophisticated a writer) and implicitly religious is the Master that he is less able (or less
willing) to present actual history realistically than is the author of the Brome Abraham and Isaac. His
historical sense is even less realistic than that of Chaucer who just a few years before had done for his
own time ''costume romances,'' such as The Knight's Tele, Troilus and Cressida, etc. Furthermore, used
highly romantic materials, which could excuse his taking liberties with history.
17. Of the following statements, which is not true of Wakefield Master?
a) He and Chaucer were contemporaries.
b) Wakefield Master is remembered as having written five or six realistic plays.
c) His plays realistically portray the plight of the country folk of his day
d) His writing was similar to that of John Steinbeck.
18. The word 'patristic' in the first paragraph is used to mean:
a) Patriotic b) superstitious c) folk d) relating to the Christian Fathers
19. The statement about the ''secularization of the medieval drama'' (opening sentence of the second
paragraph) refers to the
a) Introduction of religious themes in the early days
b) Presentation of erudite material
c) Return to early innocent reverence at the end of the play
d) Introduction of mundane matters in religious plays
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20. From the following what would the writer be expected to do in the subsequent paragraphs:
a) Make a justification for his comparison with Steinbeck
b) Put forth a view point, which would take up the thought of the second paragraph
c) Point out the anachronisms in the play
d) Discuss the works of Chaucer
COGNIZANT PAPER
1. Pick up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the underlined word and replaces it
without altering the meaning of the sentence.
The school superintendent wasn’t popular, but no one could question her moral chastity.
A. rectitude
B. demagogue
C. tilt
D. beliefs
2. Pick up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can
replaces it without altering the meaning of the sentence.
The movie got rave reviews from all the critics.
A. defeated
B. enthusiastic
C. foiled
D. devastating
3. In sentence below, four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed in bold
type, one which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt. Mark the
incorrect part as the answer.
A. He is as
B. good if not
C. better than the
D. others.
E. All correct
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4. Find the correctly spelt word.
A. Ommineous
B. Omineous
C. Ominous
D. Omenous
5. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase underlined to make it
grammatically correct?
There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by their short names
only
A. initials
B. signatures
C. pictures
D. middle names
E. No correction required
6. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the underlined phrase to make it
grammatically correct?
If they would have paid attention, they would not have to be told again.
A. would have paid attention

B. would pay attention
C. had paid attention
D. paid attention
E. No correction required
7. In question below, the passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the
beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled as
P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
S1: For some time in his youth Abraham Lincoln was manager for a shop.
P: Then a chance Customer would come.
Q: Young Lincoln way of keeping shop was entirely unlike anyone else's
R: Lincoln would jump up and attend to his needs and then revert to his reading.
S: He used to lie full length on the counter of the shop eagerly reading a book.
S6: Never before had Lincoln had so much time for reading as had then. The Proper sequence should
be:
A. SRQP
B. QSPR
C. SQRP
D. QPSR
8. In question below, the passage consists of four jumbled up sentences. These are labelled as A, B,C
and D. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
A.But when hundreds of them gathered on February 15th , on top of a parking garage next to
66
Microsoft’s Silicon Valley offices, it was to protest against the “Windows Tax”.
B.Customers who use another operating system, such as Linux, should get a refund
C.When Silicon Valley nerds stage a demonstration, it is usually to show off their new technology.
D. Computer users, they argue, have pay dues to Microsoft, because almost all PCs come with
Windows. The Proper sequence should be:
A. DCBA
B. CADB
C. ABCD
D. QSRP
9. In question below, the passage consists of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence is given in the
beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled
as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
S1: For decades, American society has been calling a melting pot
P: Differences remained - in appearance, mannerisms, customs, speech, religion and more.
Q: The term has long been a cliché and half-truth.
R: But homogenization was never achieved.
S: Yes, immigrants from diverse cultures and traditions did cast off vestiges of their native lands and
become almost imperceptibly woven in to the American fabric.
S6: In recent years, such differences accentuated by the arrival of immigrants from Asia and other parts
of the world in the United States - have become something to celebrate and to nurture.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. QRSP
B. SQRP
C. SQPR
D. QSRP
10.In question below, the passage consists of four jumbled up sentences. These are labelled as A, B, C
and D. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
A. Unfortunately, today, there is increasing evidence of bias and injustice against the minorities in this
country.
B. Even as the rest of the world makes rapid progress in science and technology, we Indians continue
to fight over issues like personal laws, languages and religion.
C. Equality, justice and dignity form the bedrock on which the Indian constitution rests and from
which the concept of democracy flows.
D. Though the facts prove to be untrue, a myth has been successfully createwd about the Muslim
appeasement.
The Proper sequence should be:
A. ABDC
B. DCBA
C. BACD
D. CABD
11.Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice. After driving
professor Kumar to the museum, she dropped him at his hotel.
A. After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar was dropped at his hotel.
B. Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his hotel.
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C. After she had driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
D. After she was driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
12. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice. Do you imitate
others?
A. Are others being imitated by you?
B. Are others imitated by you?
C. Have others being imitated by you?
D. Were others being imitated by you?
13. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words. GARISH
A. Sober
B. Natural
C. Truthful
D. Gawdy
14. In question below a sentence broken into five or six parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful
sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.
1. was 2. and 3. Suresh 4. Kind 5. Loving
A. 31425
B. 54213
C. 34251
D. 15243
15. A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may
improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.
Had I realized how close, I was to failing, I would not have gone to the party.
A. Had I realized how close
B. If I would have realized
C. Had I realized how close
D. When I realized how close
16. A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may
improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.
When this was is over, no nation will either be isolated in war or peace.
A. either be isolated in war or peace
B. be isolated in war or peace
C. be isolated in neither war nor peace
D. be isolated either in war or in peace
17. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence. The study of ancient
societies
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A. Anthropology
B. Archaeology
C. History
D. Ethnology
18. Choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech. told him that he
was not working hard.
A. I said to him, "You are not working hard."
B. I told to him, "You are not working hard."
C. I said, "You are not working hard."
D. I said to him, "He is not working hard."
19.Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence. A person who insists on
something
A. Disciplinarian
B. Stickler
C. Instantaneous
D.Boaster
20. Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence. A style in which a writer
makes a display of his knowledge
A. Pedantic
B. Verbose
C. Pompous
D. Ornate
21. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence.
A. A lot of travel delay is caused
B. due to the inefficiency and lack of good management
C. on behalf of the railways.
D. No error.
22.Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
Re-melting old metal cans rather than making primary aluminium from bauxite ore shipped from
overseas saves producers millions of dollars in and production costs.
A. distributed
B. salvage
C. storage
D. procurement
23. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
The ruling party will have to put its own house order.
A. in
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B. on
C. to
D. into
24. Pick out the best one which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully. His
appearance is unsmiling but ......
A. his heart is full of compassion for others
B. he looks very serious on most occasions
C. people are afraid of him
D. he is uncompromising on matters of task performance
E. he is full of jealousy towards his colleagues
25. Select the pair which has the same relationship. ARTICULATE: CLEARLY
A. orate : strongly
B. shout : loudly
C. lecture : will fully
D. jest : belligerently
HCL
Directions for questions 1 to 5:

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
Alzheimer’s disease impairs a person’s ability to recall memories, both distant as well as recent as a
few hours before. Although there is no cure yet for the illness, there may be hope for a cure with a
protein called nerve growth factor. The protein is produced by nerve cells in the same region of the
brain where Alzheimer’s occurs. Based on this relationship, scientists from the University of Sweden
and the University of California at San Deigo designed an experiment to test whether doses of nerve
growth factors could service the effects of memory loss caused by Alzheimer’s. Using group of rats
with impaired memory, the scientists gave half of the rats doses of nerve growth factor while giving
the other half a blood protein as a placebo, thus creating a control group. At the end of the four-week
test, the rats given the nerve growth factor performed equally to rats with memory abilities. While
experiments do not show that nerve growth factor can stop the general process of deterioration caused
by Alzheimer’s they do show potential as a means to slowing the process significantly.
1. The passage is mainly concerned with:

1] cures for Alzheimer’s disease
2] Impaired memory of patients
3] The use of rats as experimental subjects
4] nerve growth factor as a cure for Alzheimer’s
2. According to the passage where is nerve growth factor produced in the body?
1] In the pituitary gland
2] In nerve cells in brain
70
3] In red blood cells in the circulatory system
4] In nerve cells in special column
3. The word ‘impairs’ is most similar to which of the following?

1] affects 2] destroys
3] enhances 4] diminishes
4. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

1] Alzheimer’s disease is deadly
2] Though unsuccessful, the experiments did show some benefits derived from nerve growth factors
3] The experiment did not show any significant benefits from nerve growth factor
4] More work needs to be done to understand the effects of nerve growth factor
5. The passage most closely resembles which of the following patterns of organizations?
1] Chronological 2] Statement and Illustration
3] Alphabetical order 4] None of these
Directions for questions 6 to 9: Out of the given options choose the word that is most similar in
meaning to the capitalized word:
6. BONHOMIE
1] Friendliness
2] Wrath
3] Very
4] Greed
7. OMINOUS
1] Threatening
2] Powerful
3] Ubiquitous
4] Burdensome
8. HIATUS
1] Atrocious
2] Gap
3] Dominance
4] Obscure
9. FEIGN
1] Hesitate
2] Pretend
3] Deserve
4] Attend
Directions for questions 10 to 13: Out of the given options choose the word that is most opposite in
meaning to the capitalized word:
10. TRANSIENT
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1] Urgent 2] Youthful 3] Original 4] Eternal
11. TIRADE
1] Censure 2] Declamation 3] Discredit 4] Eulogy
12. NEBULOUS
1] Cold 2] Fundamental 3] Porous 4] Clear
13. PROLIFIC
1] Barren 2] Backward 3] Reckless 4] Profound
Directions for questions 14 to 18: In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is
underlined. Beneath is sentence, four different ways of phrasing the sentence are given.
Choose the best alternative:
14. Except for you and I, everyone brought a present to the party.
1] With the exception of you and I, everyone brought

2] Except for you and I, everyone had brought
3] Except for you and me, everyone brought
4] Except for you and me, everyone had brought
15. We want the teacher to be him who has the best rapport with the students.
1] We want the teacher to be
2] We want him to be the teacher
3] We desire the teacher to be him
4] We anticipate the teacher to be him
16. He does not smoke, nor he drinks.

1] nor he does drink
2] neither he does drink
3] nor does he drink
4] no change
17. She wished that her career could be as glamorous as the other women but not willing to work as
they had.
1] as glamorous as the other women’s
2] more glamorous than the career of the other women
3] glamorous
4] no change
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18. Modern films have a detrimental effect on child psychology for they make the children think that
violence is justifiable.
1] for they make the children think that violence is justifiable.
2] for these films make them think that violence is justifiable.
3] for they make them think that violence is justifiable.
4] they make those children think that violence is justifiable.
Directions for questions 19 to 21: In each of the following questions, different parts of a sentence are
underlined. One of the parts has an error. Choose the best alternative:
19. A. The ways of B. travelling has changed C. dramatically since D. the late nineteenth century
1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D
20. A. The first year of child’s life is B. characterized C. in D. rapid physical growth
1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D
21. A. The girl B. said that she preferred C. the blue saree than D. the pink one
1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D
Directions for questions 22 to 25: Make the correct sequence out of the given four statements:
22.
A. One day, a 17-year old shepherd boy came to visit his brothers and asked, “Why don’t you stand up
and fight the giant?”
B. We all know the story of David and Goliath, in which there was a giant who was bullying and
harassing the children in the village.
C. But David said,” No, he is not too big to hit: he is too big to miss.”
D. The brothers were terrified and they replied,” Don’t you see he is too big to hit?”
1] BADC 2] ACDB 3] BACD 4] BDCA
23.
A. Businesses often think that since they have lot of market muscle and in such a dominant position,
maintenance will be enough.
B. IBM has also suffered from lower priced clones when the mystique of computers was off and there
was no longer a need for reassurance from the solidity of Big Blue
C. IBM fell behind on the concept of “connectivity” and has suffered as a result.
D. In recent years, however, even mighty IBM found that market domination was not enough if you
fall behind on concept.
1] ADCB 2] CABD 3] CDBA 4] DCAB
24.
A. Of Course, they have not made the blunders that some others have made, but neither did they grow.
B. The chief executive had done excellent job in welding a group of motley and successful company
into a profitable one.
C. It is not surprising that company had been sitting on a cash hoard of about $24 billion year after year
without any attempt to use it for growth and development.
D. The Chief executive of General Electric Company in England once told me that he was very happy
when there were no problems in any of his many divisions.
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1] BADC 2] DABC 3] CBDA 4] DBCA
25.
A. In the past, the customized tailoring units were localized to the township or city and catered
exclusively to domestic demand
B. Traditionally, Indians preferred custom-made clothing and the concept of ready-to wear is a
relatively recent one.
C. Consumer awareness of styling issues and the convenience afforded by ready-to-wear helped RMG
industry make small inroads into the domestic market in the 1980s.
D. The customized tailoring outfits have always been a major source of clothing for domestic market.
1] BCDA 2] BDAC 3] CDBA 4] DBAC
INFOTECH
Section 3: Verbal Ability
Directions for questions 1 to 8: Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
The word euthanasia is of Greek origin and literally means “a good death.” The American Heritage
Dictionary defines it as “the act of killing a person painlessly for reasons of mercy.” Such killing can
be done through active means, such as administering a lethal injection, or by passive means, such as
withholding medical care or food and water.
In recent years in the United States, there have been numerous cases of active euthanasia in the news.
They usually involve the deliberate killing of ill or incapacitated persons by relatives or friends who
plead that they can no longer bear to see their loved ones suffer. Although such killings are a crime, the
perpetrators are often dealt with leniently by our legal system, and the media usually portrays them as
compassionate heroes who take personal risks to save another from unbearable suffering.
The seeming acceptance of active forms of euthanasia is alarming, but we face a bigger, more insidious
threat from passive forms of euthanasia. Every year, in hospitals and nursing homes around the
country, there are growing numbers of documented deaths caused by caregivers withholding life-
sustaining care, including food and water, from vulnerable patients who cannot speak for themselves.
While it is illegal to kill someone directly, for example with a gun or knife, in many cases the law has
put its stamp of approval on causing death by omitting needed care. Further, many states have “living
will” laws designed to protect those who withhold treatment, and there have been numerous court
rulings which have approved of patients being denied care and even starved and dehydrated to death.
Because such deaths occur quietly within the confines of hospitals and nursing homes, they can be kept
hidden from the public. Most euthanasia victims are old or very ill, so their deaths might be attributed
to a cause other than the denial of care that really killed them. Further, it is often relatives of the patient
74
who request that care be withheld. In one court case, the court held that decisions to withhold life-
sustaining care may be made not only by close family members but also by a number of third parties,
and that such decisions need not be reviewed by the judicial system if there is no disagreement
between decision makers and medical staff. The court went so far as to rule that a nursing home may
not refuse to participate in the fatal withdrawal of food and water from an incompetent patient!
“Extraordinary” or “heroic” treatment need not be used when the chance for recovery is poor and
medical intervention would serve only to prolong the dying process. But to deny customary and
reasonable care or to deliberately starve or dehydrate someone because he or she is very old or very ill
should not be permitted. Most of the cases coming before the courts do not involve withholding heroic
measures from imminently dying people, but rather they seek approval for denying basic care, such as
administration of food and water, to people who are not elderly or terminally ill, but who are
permanently incapacitated. These people could be expected to live indefinitely, though in an impaired
state, if they were given food and water and minimal treatment.
No one has the right to judge that another’s life is not worth living. The basic right to life should not be
abridged because someone decides that someone else’s quality of life is too low. If we base the right to
life on quality of life standards, there is no logical place to draw the line.
To protect vulnerable patients, we must foster more positive attitudes towards people with serious and
incapacitating illnesses and conditions. Despite the ravages of their diseases, they are still our fellow
human beings and deserve our care and respect. We must also enact positive legislation that will
protect vulnerable people from those who consider their lives meaningless or too costly to maintain
and who would cause their deaths by withholding life sustaining care such as food and water.
1) The tone of the author can best be described as

A. pleading
B. argumentative
C. compassionate
D. emphatic
E. empathetic
2) In paragraph 3, the author finds starvation and dehydration induced euthanasia is to be “more
insidious" because
A. euthanasia is legally considered to be a criminal act
B. the public’s attitude toward euthanasia is becoming more positive
C. it often involves those who cannot protest
D. the patient has asked to die with dignity
E. its perpetrators are viewed as kindly caregivers
3) As used in paragraph 3, what is the best synonym for insidious?

A. mischievous
B. treacherous
C. seductive
D. apparent
E. cumulative
4) The author maintains that death by withholding care is

A. largely confined to hospitals
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B. largely confined to the terminally ill
C. often requested by family members
D. approved by living wills
E. difficult to prove if prosecuted
5) As used in paragraph 7, which is the best definition of abridged?

A. trimmed
B. curtailed
C. lengthened
D. protracted
E. compressed
6) Using the passage as a guide, it can be inferred that the author would find euthanasia less
objectionable in cases in which
I. the patient’s death is imminent
II. the patient has left instructions in a living will not to provide care
III. the patient refuses to accept nourishment
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
7) The main idea of paragraph is that

A. lawyers will be unable to prosecute or defend caregivers
B. no comprehensive right or wrong definition of euthanasia will exist
C. using a subjective standard will make the decision to end an individual’s life arbitrary
D. no boundary will exist between euthanasia and care omission
E. ‘quality of life’ will no longer be able to be rigidly defined
8) In the final paragraph the author writes, "Despite the ravages of their diseases, they are still our
fellow human beings and deserve our care and respect." The main purpose of this statement is to
A. prove a previous argument
B. illustrate an example
C. gainsay a later statement
D. object to a larger idea
E. justify an earlier statement
Directions for questions 9 to 11: Out of the given options, find out the pair that has the same
relationship as the capitalized pair:
9) Scalpel: Surgeon
a) Laser: Agronomist
b) Magnet: Ecologist
c) Telescope: Astronomer
d) Syringe: Geologist
e) Microscope: Geometrician
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10) Endemic: Region
a) Homogeneous: Population
b) Inborn: Individual
c) Hybrid: Species
d) Sporadic: Time
e) Aberrant: Norm
11) Overdose: Prescription

a) Deprivation: Materialism
b) Indiscretion: Convention
c) Affliction: Sympathy
d) Adventure: Expedition
e) Drug: Medicine
Directions for questions 12 to 15: Find the Antonym for the word given in Bold:
12) MALIGN
a) Eulogize
b) Cheerful
c) Brittle
d) False
13) NUGATORY
a) Consequential
b) Invalid
c) Negate
d) Void
14) PRAGMATIC
a) Practical
b) Utopian
c)Hard headed
d) Aquatic
15) RENEGADE
a) Deserter
b) Loyalist
c) Recreant
d) Cavalcade
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TECH MAHINDRA VERBAL ABILITY
Directions for questions 1 and 2: In each of the questions below, there is some grammatical error. In
one of the four options select the option which contains the error.
1.
1] He prides his skill as a painter.
2] He is definite about what is right and what is wrong.
3] Do you want me to help you out with something?
4] How do you deal with someone who doesn’t listen to a reason.
2.
1] The newborn baby was a bundle of joy for the family.
2] The number of students have drastically gone down, since last year.
3] Did you leave the door open, before going out?
4] Within a moment, she burst into tears.
Directions for questions 3 to 7: Select the correct word or phrase to complete the given sentence.
3. I have lived ……… this street ten years.

1] on……. during 2] in……...for 3] near……since 4] with for
4. He was ill ……… a full week, and.......the entire period, his wife never left his bedside.
1] during ……. in 2] in ………. in 3] since........for 4] for.......during
5. He was fined ………... parking his car ........ a no parking area.

1] while ……… on 2] on ……… in 3] for ……… in 4] to within
6. He advised the crowd to work ……the good ……their country; the crowd received his advice
……shouts.......contempt.
1] to …for …with … in 2] for … of … with … of
3] towards … for … by … of 4] on … of … among … of
7. Go back ……… the hotel, and wait there......I call for you.
1] to ……. before 2] in ……... so that 3] to until
4] towards after
Directions for questions 8 to 12: Choose the correct word from the options given below so as to
complete the sentence logically and grammatically.
8. His father always insisted ————the benefits of a good education.

1] in 2] on 3] with 4] for
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9. Nisha is taller than ————.
1] him 2] he 3] I 4] None of these
10. I replied to my professor ————the affirmative.

1] by 2] of 3] with 4] in
11. Everyone benefits ————— a transparent education system.

1] out of 2] with 3] of 4] from
12. No sooner did the assembly begin, ————the crowd started applauding.
1] when 2] than 3] then 4] as
Directions for questions 13 to 20: Read the questions given below and choose the option which is most
nearly similar to the word in question.
13. Lucid
1] Vitality 2] Comfort 3] Wisdom 4] Clarity
14. Intrepid
1] Honest 2] Sick 3] Bold 4] Ugly
15. Transgress
1] To violate limits 2] To Observe from a distance
3] To learn a new language 4] To go to a foreign country
16. Stridency
1] Harshness 2] Flippancy 3] Stress 4] Consistency
17. Debilitate
1] To support 2] To honour 3] To weaken 4] To outlaw
18. Terse
1] Nasty 2] Clear 3] Transparent 4] Brief
19. Fester
1] Celebrate 2] Graduate 3] Mourn 4] Rot
20. Xenophobia is the fear of:

1] Heights 2] Open Spaces 3] Foreigners 4] Crowd
Directions for questions 21 to 25: In each of these questions each sentence has 4 underlined words or
phrases marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. Choose one word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be
correct.
21. Hard work and self-discipline often result (1) in a rise (2) not only in one’s(3) salary, but also in
your self-esteem.(4)
22. Caffeine (1) in coffee is relative (2) harmless if people drink (3) it moderately. (4)
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23. The girl (1) said that she preferred (2) the blue saree than (3) the pink one.(4)
24. More than (1) one scientist (2) have contributed (3) to the success of this venture.(4)
25. It is (1) impossible of (2) an (3) alcoholic to (4) drink moderately.
Directions for Questions 26 to 30: Choose the option that is most nearly opposite to the word given in
question.
26. Ameliorate
1] Lessen 2] Hasten 3] Expedite 4] Worsen
27. Gorgeous
1] Desperate 2] Plain 3] Fashionable 4] Sumptuous
28.Former
1] Subsequent 2] Later 3] Resultant 4] Latter
29. Deceit
1] Realty 2] Trust 3] Truthful 4] Fact
30. Dearth
1] Extravagance 2] Scarcity 3] Abundance 4] Sufficiency
Directions for questions 31 to 35: Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the
phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct?
31. You need not come unless you want to.

1] You don't need to come unless you want to 2] You come only when you want to
3] You come unless you don't want to 4] You needn't come until you don't want to
32. There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by their short
names only
1] initials 2] signatures 3] pictures 4] middle names
33. The man to who I sold my house was a cheat.

1] to whom I sell 2] to who I sell
3] who was sold to 4] to whom I sold
34. They were all shocked at his failure in the competition.

1] were shocked at all 2] had all shocked at
3] had all shocked by 4] No correction required
35. I need not offer any explanation regarding this incident - my behaviour is speaking itself. 1] will
speak to itself 2] speaks for itself
3] has been speaking 4] speaks about itself
80
Directions for Questions 36 to 40: Fill in the blanks with the correct preposition from the options given
below:
36. They lament and express their despair ———— the way Gandhi has been forgotten in his land.
1] over 2] of 3] in 4] with
37. The country is ushering——————— a new era.

1] into 2] in 3] of 4] over
38. The event passed ————without any untoward incident.

1] of 2] on 3] off 4] away.
39. He is a traitor ——the country.

1] for 2] to 3] in 4] of
40. Research in the work place reveals that people work for many reasons—————.
1] beside money 2] besides money 3] than money 4)money besides
Directions for Questions 41 to 45: From the options given under each word which is misspelt, choose
the correct option, which spells the word correctly.
41. Aberation
1] Abberation 2] Aberetion 3] Aberration 4] Abarration
42. Fastideous
1] Fastedious 2] Fastidious 3] Fastidous 4] Fastiduous
43. Loqacious
1] Locqacious 2] Locqacous 3] Loqacuous 4] Loquacious
44. Bonhomi
1] Bonhomie 2] Bonhomei 3] Baunhomie 4] Bonhaumie
45. Desultry
1] Desultary 2] Desultory 3] Desoltery 4] Desaltary
Directions for Questions 46 to 50: Choose the correct option from the alternatives given below each
question.
46. To make clean breast of

1] To gain prominence 2] To praise oneself
3] To confess without reserve 4] To destroy before it blooms
47. To keeps one's temper

1] To become hungry 2] to be in good mood
81
3] To preserve ones energy 4] To be aloof from
48. ‘To be down in the dumps’ is the same as:

1] To fail a test 2] To feel sad and miserable
3] To lack energy 4] To lose one’s way
49. ‘To drive someone up the wall’ is the same as:

1] To use physical force on someone 2] To praise someone
3] To annoy someone 4] To give rewards and appreciation to someone
50. ‘The tip of the Iceberg’ is the same as:

1] something that shows or suggests a much larger problem.
2] to be arrested for corruption.
3] to be at the top position.
4] to be in a tough situation or dilemma.
Directions for Questions 51 to 60: Fill in the following blanks with the correct articles:
51. He can read ______ Vedas.

1] a 2] an 3] the 4] no article required
52. She is _____ untidy girl.

53. sun shines brightly.

54. Life is not________ bed of roses.

55. ______higher you climb _______ colder it gets.

1] a, the 2] a, a 3] the, the 4] no article required
56. In ________ Park I saw ________one eyed beggar.

1] a, a 2] the, the 3] the, a 4] no article required
57. Bombay is _______ Manchester of India.

58. Help _____ poor and _____needy.

1] a, the 2] a, a 3] the, the 4] no article required
59. owl cannot see during day time.

60. He became _____ good doctor.

Directions for Questions 61 to 80: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
82
follow:
Passage - 1
We inhabit a divided world; on one hand the rich are critical of our continuing poverty- on the other
they warn us against their own methods. We do not wish to impoverish the environment any further
and yet we cannot for a moment forget the grim poverty of large number of people. Are not poverty
and greed the greatest polluters? For instance, unless we are in a position to provide employment and
purchasing power for the daily needs of the tribal people and those who live in or around jungles, we
cannot prevent them from combing the forest for food and livelihood, from poaching and from
despoiling the vegetation. When they themselves seem deprived how can we urge the preservation of
animals? How we speak to those who live in villages and in slums about keeping the oceans, the rivers
and the air clean when their own lives are contaminated at the source? The environment cannot be
improved in conditions of poverty. Nor can poverty be eradicated without the use of science and
technology.
61. Which of the following four statements is true?

1] We live in a united world
2] The rich countries do not criticize us for our poverty
3] The rich countries willingly allow us to use their own methods
4] Poverty and need are the biggest polluters.
62. One of the statements is not true, which one----

1] We inhabit a divided world.
2] We do not wish to pollute the environment any further.
3] The environment can be improved even in conditions of poverty.
4] We cannot prevent the people living in or near jungles from combing forest unless we
provide them employment and purchasing power for the daily needs.
63. We can uproot the poverty------

1] By providing employment to everyone
2] With the use of science and technology
3] By giving wealth to everyone
4] By giving education to everyone
64. The word ‘poaching’ means

1] killing of animals
2] illegal killing of animals
3] cutting trees
4] spoiling vegetation
65. Why do the tribal people and those who live in or around the jungles comb the forest? 1] They do
so to earn money
2] They comb the forest for food and livelihood
3] They comb the forest to pollute the environment
4] They do so because they wanted to do so
Passage - 2
Our awareness of time has reached such a pitch of intensity that we suffer acutely whenever our travels
take us into some corner of the world where people are not interested in minutes or seconds. The
83
unpunctuality of the Orient, for example, is appalling to those who come freshly from a land of fixed
meal-time and regular train service. For a modern American or Englishman waiting is a psychological
torture. An Indian accepts the blank hours with resignation even with satisfaction. He has not lost the
fine part of doing nothing. Our notion of time as a collection of minutes, each of which must be filled
with some business or amusement, is wholly alien to the Oriental, just as it was alien to the Greek. For
the man who lives in pre-industrial world, time moves at a slow and easy pace; he does not care about
each minute, for the good reason that he has not been made conscious of the existence of minutes.
66. Why do we suffer acutely?

1] In the company of people conscious of time
2] Among the people careless of time
3] On account of much awareness of time
4] On account of the unpunctuality of the orient
67. How does an Indian accept blank hours?

1] Happily 2] With ease 3] Unhappily 4] Uneasily
68. ‘Pre-Industrial’ means:

1] Before the industrial revolution
2] After the Industrial revolution
3] Before there was a portfolio for industry in India
4] Before watches started being manufactured on a large scale
69. The opposite word for ‘pre’ is-----------

1] post 2] past 3] future 4] late
70. The word ‘appalling’ means

1] pitiable 2] praiseworthy 3] hateful 4] horrible
Passage - 3
We are living in an age where technology has suddenly annihilated distance. Physically we are all now
neighbours but psychologically we are still strangers to each other. We have never been so conscious
of variety as we are now. What shall be the outcome now when we have come to such close quarters
with our neighbours? How are we going to react? Are we going to let this consciousness of variety
make us fear and hate each other? In that event, we shall be dooming others to wipe each other out. Or
are we going to learn to live like a single family? This is the only alternative to mutual destruction; but
to achieve this high degree of amity, we have to value the variety of human heritage. We are not only
to appreciate our neighbour’s distinctive contributions. We have to love these as precious parts of
mankind’s common treasure. And we have to love our neighbours themselves as precious members of
human family which is not exposed to the common danger of being wiped out by atomic warfare. This
is why India’s conspicuous achievement of variety-in-unity is of worldwide importance.
71. Technology has annihilated----------

1] variety 2] unity 3] Psychological differences 4]Physical difference
72. Consciousness of variety is the result of

1] Annihilation of technology 2] Meeting the strangers closely
3] Physical neighbourhood 4] Psychological and physical distance
84
73. The antonym of ‘amity’ is
1] enmity 2] friendship 3] variety 4] unity
74. The word ‘conspicuous’ mean

1] importance 2] admirable 3] distinct 4] by leaps and bounds
75. ‘Heritage’ is-----

1] Land grabbed by the children 2] Physical difference
3] Mental development of the other people 4] Cultural traditions coming from ancestors
76. Which word from the passage can be used to fill in the blank to make it meaningful? There is no
______ to this plan.
1] conspicuous 2] alternative 3] mutual 4] consciousness
77. Which word from the passage can be used to fill in the blank to make it meaningful? You are
_____ your health by drinking too much.
1] not living 2] wiping 3] dooming 4] appreciating
78. Choose the word in the passage which means ‘aware’

1] Conscious 2] Conspicuous 3] Close 4] Mutual
79. Choose the word in the passage which means ‘invaluable’

1] Conspicuous 2] Treasure 3] Common 4] Precious
80. Fill in the blanks: You shouldn’t _______ if he abuses you

1] hate 2] react 3] achieve 4] fear
Directions for Questions 81 to 90: Fill in the blanks with appropriate tenses:
81. He told the teacher that he _______ his books at home.

1] leave 2] left 3] has left 4] will leave
82. I have never ______ a car

1] drive 2] driven 3] let out 4] buy
83. I _______ America for two years.

1] visited 2] visit 3] have been visiting 4] had been visiting
84. While I worked, she _________

1] slept 2] was sleeping 3] has slept 4] will be sleeping
85. She told me that she _________ me in the market.

1] meets 2] met 3] would meet 4] has met
86. The earth ________ around the Sun.

1] moved 2] moves 3] will move 4] has moved
87. The teacher ______ a new lesson tomorrow.

1] discusses 2] would discuss 3] will be discussing 4] discussed
85
88. He cried when she ______ him.
1] Has insulted 2] insulted 3] had insulted 4] did insult
89. The scissors _____ blunt.

1] is 2] are 3] am 4] none
90. The table ______ in the corner.

1] are 2] is 3] had been 4] would be
Directions for Questions 91 to 100: In questions given below, a part of the sentence is underlined.
Below are given alternatives to the italicized part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative.
91. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.
1] hell bent on getting 2] hell bent for getting
3] hell bent upon getting 4] No improvement
92. When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the
protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.
1] into crushing 2] in crushing
3] without crushing 4] No improvement
93. If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed time.
1] If the room was brighter 2] If the room are brighter
3] Had the room been brighter 4] No improvement
94. The record for the biggest tiger hunt has not been met since 1911 when Lord Hardinge, then
Viceroy of India, shot a tiger that measured 11 feet and 6 inches.
1] improved 2] broken
3] bettered 4] No improvement
95. His powerful desire brought about his downfall.

1] His intense desire 2] His desire for power
3] His fatal desire 4] No improvement
96. Will you kindly open the knot?

1] untie 2] break 3] loose 4] No improvement
97. He sent a word to me that he would be coming late.

1] sent word 2] had sent a word 3] sent words 4] No improvement
98. John had told me that he hasn't done it yet.

1] told 2] tells 3] was telling 4] No improvement
99. If he had time he will call you.

1] would have 2] would have had 3] has 4] No improvement
86
100. Will you lend me few rupees in this hour of need?
1] lend me any rupees 2] borrow sme a few rupees
3] lend me a few rupees 4] No improvement
MOCK Wipro PAPER
(50 questions in 60 minutes)
Section 1: Verbal Ability (20 questions)
1. Given below are words three of which belong to the same category. Find the word which does not
belong to that category.
1] Entertain 2] Dialogue 3] Snoop 4] Welcome
2. In the following sentence one important punctuation mark is missing. Select a suitable one from the
given alternatives.
Malati not her sister is in the University.
1] “ “ 2] , 3] : 4] !
3. Given below are sentences which when arranged logically form a coherent passage. Choose the
option which gives the correct sequence.
S1. The Hound of Baskervilles was feared by the people of the area.
P. Some people spoke of seeing a huge, shadowy form of a hound at midnight on the moor.
Q. But they spoke of it in tones of horror.
R. Nobody had actually seen the hound.
S. The shadowy form did not reveal any details about the animal.
S6. The hound of Baskervilles remains an unsolved mystery.
1] PQRS 2] PSRQ 3] SPQR 4] SRPQ
4. Choose the lettered pair that expresses a relationship most similar to the relationship expressed in the
capitalized pair.
INFALLIBLE: ERROR
1] irreversible: cure 2] invulnerable: emotion
3] impeccable: flaw 4] intolerable: defect
5. Select among the given choices, the word or phrase for each blank that best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
With the merger of ICICI with ICICI bank, the latter had become a force in the Indian sector
with assets of over Rs.1 lakh crore and a wide variety of services.
1] stupendous 2] formidable 3] vulnerable 4] stupefying
6. Select the word or phrase among the given choices that is most nearly similar in meaning to the
word - OBLIVIOUS
1] Indifferent 2] Watchful 3] Precarious 4] Unmindful
7. Select the word among the given choices that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word -
LUSCIOUS
87
1] Dry 2] Sour 3] Ugly 4] Stale
8. For the following sentence, choose the most suitable word from the given options.
It was a day on which the Germans invaded Russia.
1] fatal 2] fitful 3] fatalist 4] fateful
9. Select among the given choices a word to fill in the blank.

It is unfortunate that the unruly crowd the limited over match between India and the West Indies.
1] distorted 2] disrupted 3] doomed 4] dispersed
10. Given below are four words, three of which belong to the same category. Find the word which does
not belong to that category.
1] Intemperance 2] Intelligence 3] Intention 4] Intelligible
11. Given below are sentences which when arranged logically form a coherent passage. Choose the
option which gives the correct sequence.
S1. Today the earth has many satellites besides the moon.
P. But the pull of the earth keeps them from doing so.
Q. The artificial satellites do not fall because they are going too fast to do so.
R. They are artificial satellites made by man and much smaller than the moon.
S. As they speed along, they tend to go straight off into space.
S6. As a result, they travel in orbit round the earth.
1] PRQS 2] QPSR 3] RQSP 4] SPRQ
88
12. Select the option that gives the correct meaning of the given idiomatic expression or phrase –
Will - o’ the - wisp.
1] acting in a foolish way 2] having desires not backed by effort
3] anything which eludes or deceives 4] yeaning of the spirit
13. Select the word among the given choices that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word.
OVERT
1] Deep 2] Shallow 3] Secret 4] Unwritten
14. Choose the lettered pair that expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized
Pair: MOISTEN: DRENCH
1] enclose: confine 2] prick: stab 3] disregard : ignore 4] scrub : polish
15. Select the word or phrase among the given choices that is most nearly similar in meaning to the
word - MANDRILL
1] Baboon 2] Musical Instrument 3] Tropical fruit 4] Narcotic heab
Directions for questions 16-20: Read the passage below and answer question 16-20
As civilization a progress, man has congregated in large cities; at the same time economies of scale
have forced our industrial facilities to grow larger. There is, therefore, potential for man-made
catastrophes of unprecedented magnitude. Moreover, we now live longer, and want to make, our
lives safer.
Accidents and even natural disasters, once dismissed as acts of God, are now considered to be under
our control. Not that we need to deny the existence of God, but there is also no need to blame him
for our problems and our incompetence. Only recently, however, has any serious attempt been made
to express risks in quantitative terms, and these attempts-are not understood by the decision-makers
and politicians of our society. Some of our decisions are crippled by this lack of understanding.
One problem is comparing risks and diverse benefits — which is a bit like comparing apples and
oranges. In energy matters, we can simplify by expressing all benefit in the common energy unit —
kilowatt hour (KW) of electricity produced. This is, of course, valid only if all methods of
producing electricity cost about the same.
We see clearly from an analysis of available statistics that some sources of energy are worse than
others, and hydropower, which superficially seems benign, is bad. But while we can use this to
guide us in selecting between fossil fuel and nuclear power, for example, it does not tell us how
much to spend on reducing risks. May be some risks can be reduced almost to zero by a modest
expense. Therefore, we usually make a risk-cost analysis whereby we compare costs of reducing
risks.
There are over 50,000 deaths due, to automobile accidents in the US every year. We now insist that
all cars have seat belts and shoulder harnesses to reduce the death toll. Probably only a third-of all
travelers buckle their belts, but about a third of road deaths could be avoided if everyone buckled
their belts.
In the US we spend about $40 for factory installed seat belts in nearly ten million automobiles per
year for a total cost of $400 million. About 5000 lives are saved — at a cost of $80,000 per life.
89
Injuries are also reduced, increasing the value of seat belts. Is the expense of seat belts worthwhile?
Society says yes, and demands the payment.
Should we then say that a human life is ‘worth’ $100,000? That would be too naive a view of risk-
benefit analysis. If we can save a life immediately, we often do so at a cost far greater than $100000
and even risk our lives in the process — out of such matters heroes are made. The religious among
us may argue that a human life is priceless, so how do we express the results of such an analysis?
Should we just increase the ‘value’ of a human life indefinitely? Should we spend $1.00 million to
save a life? Even in the US, we can’t spend $100 million more than 1000 times a year — and more
than 1000 occasions arise. We must spend our money so as to save as many lives as possible.
One way of expressing the result of a risk benefit analysis might be to say that society should spend
X dollars in the expectation of saving or prolonging life when the particular life is not known and
unknowable; X should presumably be a number gradually increasing with society’s affluence, and
roughly constant from activity to activity.
16. The phrase that best captures the essence of this passage is
1] Calculating human risk. 2] The Cost of Safety.
3] Seat belts - Life Saviors. 4] The Cost of human life.
17. The organization of this passage can best be described as

1] a hypothesis is stated in paragraph 1 and then rejected.
2] an argument is made and later on proved correct by giving illustrations.
3] a lot of rhetorical questions are asked to emphasize the argument.
4] available statistics are analyzed to prove the author’s main argument.
18. What could be the function of paragraphs 4 and 5 in the passage as a whole?
I. To argue in favor of installation of seat belts in cars.
II. To give a concrete example to prove the benefits of risk cost analysis.
III. To give a concrete example to explain the benefits of risk cost analysis.
IV. To show how much the American society is willing to pay to ensure the safety of its members.
1] only I above 2] only II above 3] only III above 4] both I & IV above
19. Which one of the following is not a result of the trend towards increased size of cities and
industrial facilities?
1] There is a possibility of man-made catastrophes on a scale never before
2] There is an increased need to quantify risks.
3] We consider ourselves as infallible as we think we can control both man-made and natural
disasters.
4] All of these
20. According to the author the difference between saving the life of a person in an actual scenario,
and saving lives in abstract is.
1] If you save a known person you are a hero, saving lives in abstract is a responsibility, a civic
duty.
2] Individual citizens can save lives; it costs the state too much to save lives in the abstract.
3] Different criteria may apply in terms of cost factor.
4] None of these
90
ARITHEMETIC
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

1. A tells B, “when I was half of your present age you were 1/4th of my present
age.” If A’s present age is 36 what is the B’s present age?
a) 18 b) 9 c) 30 d) 27
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

2. A tells B, “I am twice as old as you were when I was as old as you are.” Sum of
their present ages is 91, find A’s present age?
a) 26 b) 42 c) 52 d) 36
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

3. When you reverse the digits of the number 13, the number increases by 18.
How many other 2 digit numbers satisfy this condition?
a) 7 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

4.A takes 5 hours more than B to cover a distance of 500 Km. If instead A doubles
his speed he would reach the destination 7½ hours before B. Find A’s speed?
a) 40 kmph b) 50 kmph c) 20 kmph d) 25 kmph
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

5.Find the no of non negative integral solutions of x+10y+40z = 87?
a) 2 b) 5 c) 10 d) 15
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

6. A, B and C each had some amount of money. A doubled the amounts with the
others. B then doubled the amounts with the others. C then doubled the
amounts with the others. At this stage each of them had Rs. 120.Find the initial
amount with B
a) 85 b) 95 c) 105 d) 120
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

7. A faulty balance has pans whose weights are in the ratio 5:4. A cube weighs 15 kg
when kept on one pan but weighs 12 kg when kept on the other pan. Find the actual
weight of the cube
a) 13.5 kg b) 10.5 kg c) 12 kg d) 13 kg
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

8. If 2a2 + 17b2 +8c2 – 6ab – 20bc =0 then a:b:c is
a) 6:4:5 b) 4:5:3 c)2:3:5 d) 1:2:3
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

9. If p:q=1:2,q:r=2:3,r:s=9:4,s:t=1:3 and t:u=3:4 then pqr/stu is
a) 9:64 b)27:128 c)81:128 d) none
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

10. If( p+q)/r = (q+r)/p = (r+p)/q = k then k is
a) 2 b) -1 c) 2 or -1 d) none
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

CDC,SRM IST, KTR
11.A varies directly with square of B and inversely with C. When A is 18 units, B is 8 units
and C is 16 units. Find the value of A When B = 4 and C = 36 units?
a) 32 b) 16 c) 8 d) 2
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

12. If a varies inversely with b and b varies directly with the square of c then find the
value of 9a+5c when b=27. Given that when b=3 then a=4 and c=6
a) 94 b) 49 c) 76 d)38
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

13.The value of a diamond varies directly with the square of its weight. A diamond broke
into 3 pieces whose weights are in the ratio 32:24:9. The loss caused due to the breakage
were 25.44 lakhs. Find the initial value of the diamond ( in lakhs ) ?
a) 82.25 b) 72.25 c) 52.25 d) 42.25
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

14.The price of sugar increased by 50%, then by what % does the consumption of
sugar be reduced so that the total expenditure on sugar increased by 20%?
a) 20% b) 25% c) 40% d) 10%
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

15.The price of tea increased by 20%, then by what % should the consumption be
decreased so that the total expenditure is decreased by 10%?
a) 20% b) 25% c) 40% d) 10%
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

16.In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be introduced, 2878 persons took part of
which 1652 were males. 1226 persons voted against the proposal of which 796 were
males. 1425 persons voted for the proposal. 196 females were undecided.
(i) How many females voted for the Proposal?
a) 430 b) 600 c) 624 d) 640
(ii) How many males were undecided?
a) 31 b) 227 c) 426 d) 581
(iii) How many females were not in favour of the proposal?
a) 430 b) 496 c) 586 d) 1226
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

17.By selling 80 apples a man gains the SP of 20 apples. Find the gain %?
a) 25% b) 20% c) 33% d) 50%
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

18.A person sold 2 TV’s each for Rs.8000. On one he gained 11(1/9)% and on
the other he lost 9(1/11)%. Find his overall gain %?
a) 20% b) 12% c) 30% d) 0%
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

19. A trader sells his goods at 20% profit and gives 800 grams for every Kg. Find his
overall gain %?
a) 45% b) 50% c) 80% d) 40%
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

20. A incurred a loss of 15% by selling 130 apples for Rs. 2210. To gain 20% how
many apples should he sell for Rs. 9600 ?
a) 400 b) 300 c) 200 d) 100
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

21. If the cost of a pen is decreased by 20%, Raj can buy 90 more pens for Rs3600.
Find the original price of the pen ?
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

22.A sold a book to B at 20% profit. B sold it to C at 10% profit. If C paid Rs.528, find
A’s profit?
a) 40 b) 80 c) 100 d) 120
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

23. A trader marked an article at (5x)% above the cost price. After giving a discount of
( x+5 )% he got a profit of (3x – 5 )%. Find his profit %
a) 40 b) 25 c) 20 d) 50
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

24.What annual installment will discharge a debt of Rs. 1035 due in 3 years at 15% SI?
a) 300 b) 400 c) 350 d) 325
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

25.The SI and CI on a sum for 2 years are Rs. 800 and Rs. 864 respectively. Find
the sum and rate% p.a.?
a) 3600, 8% b) 4000, 16% c) 2500, 16% d) 5000, 12%
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

27.A group of 20 friends went to a hotel. 16 of them paid Rs. 50 each and
the remaining 4 paid Rs. 10, 15, 25, 30 more than the average amount paid
by all. Find the total bill?
a) 900 b) 1000 c) 1100 d) 1150
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

28.The average mark of 120 students is 35. If the average mark of a Pass student is 39
and that of the fail student is 15 find the number of Pass students?
a) 80 b) 90 c) 100 d) 105
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

29.Average mark of 12 students calculated to be 40. But it is found hat the marks of
one student wrongly entered as 42 instead of 54 and another 74 instead of 50. Find the
correct average?
a) 35 b) 37 c) 38 d) 39
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

30. 12 years ago, the average age of a joint family having 10 members was 25 years. 4 years
later a member aged 50 years died and a child was born in the family that year. 4 years after
that another member aged 50 years died and another child was born. Find the present
average age of the family ?
a) 27 b) 37 c) 24 d) 34
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

31.A chemist has 10 ml of solution that contains 30% concentrated acid. How many ml of
pure acid should be added to the solution so that the concentration of the acid is increased to
50%?
a) 2 ml b) 3 ml c) 4 ml d) 5 ml
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

32.In grade 1 gold ornament gold and silver are in the ratio 7:2 and in the grade 2 it is
13:3. To form grade 3, grade 1 & 2 are melted in the ratio 3:4. Find the ratio of gold and
silver in grade 3 gold ornament?
a) 31:14 b) 67:17 c) 13:2 d) 51:53
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

33.A container contains 80 Kgs of milk. From this 8 kgs of milk was taken out and
replaced by water. This process was further repeated 2 times. How much milk is now
contained by he container?
a) 55 b) 56.34 c) 58.34 d) 60
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

34. There are 2 vessels P and Q. Vessel P contains 120 liters of milk and Q contains 120
liters of water. In the first operation 30 liters is removed from P and poured in to Q and
then 30 liters from Q is poured back in to P. Like this one more operation takes place, that
is transferring 30 liters from P to Q and then transferring 30 liters from Q to P. What is the
ratio of milk and water in P finally ?
a) 17:8 b) 8:17 c) 5:11 d) 11:5
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

35. 3 varieties of rice A,B and C costs Rs 25 , 30 and 35 per kg. A total of 10 kg of A & C and
8 kg of B are mixed to make a mixture costing Rs 32 per kg. Find the ratio in which A & C are
mixed ?
a) 7 : 43 b) 43:7 c) 33 : 5 d) 5:33
Explanation:
CDC,SRM IST, KTR

LOGICAL REASONING
CAREER DEVELOPMENT CENTRE-

SRMIST
2020 – 2021 EVEN
CODING AND ANALOGY
Directions for questions 1 to3: Choose the appropriate option.

1. In a certain code, TERMINAL is written as SDQLJOBM. How is CREDIBLE
written in that code?
a]BQDCJCMF b]DSFEJCMF c]BQDCHAKD d]DSFEHAKD
2. In a certain code, LABOUR is written as KBAPTS. How is CANDID written in that
code?
a]DBOEJE b]DZOCJC c]BBMCHC d]BBMEHE
3. In a certain code, ‘BELIEF’ is written as ‘AFKKDI’. How is ‘SELDOM’ written
in that code?
a]RDKCNL b]TFKENP c]RFKENM d]RFKFNP
Directions (Q.4-6) : According to a certain code: ‘min fin bin gin’ means ‘His name is
Steve’ ‘gin din cin hin’ means ‘Name of that man’. ‘bin cin vin rin’ means ‘Steve was
good man’. ‘din kin fin vin’ means ‘Of his good mind’.
4.Which word is represented by ‘vin’?

a]Steve b]was c]good d]man
5.His name is good’ would be written as

a]fin gin min vin b]min cin din fin c]fin din gin vin d]gin hin min din
6.‘hin min kin’ would mean

a]That was mind b]Mind has name c]Mind is good d]That is mind
Directions for questions 7 to10: In each of the following questions find out
the alternative that will come in place of question mark .

7.Flow : River : : Stagnant : ?
a]Rain b]Stream c]Pool d]Canal
ANS : c]Pool
8.Carbon : Diamond : : Corundum : ?
a]Garnet b]Ruby c]Pukhraj d]Pearl
ANS : b]Ruby
9.Tiger : Forest : : Otter : ?
a]Cage b]Sky c]Nest d]Water
ANS : d]Water
10.Cassock : Priest : : ? : Graduate
a]Cap b]Tie c]Coat d]Gown
ANS : d]Gown
Directions for questions 11to 13: The numbers given in the question share a
relationship with each other. Choose an appropriate option that shares similar
relationship.
11.(8, 18, 37 )
a](4, 9, 20) b] (16, 33, 67) c](13, 30, 67) d](5, 12, 25)
12.(4, 8, 4, 1)
a](6, 12, 6, 3/2 ) b](5, 10, 5, 2) c](2, 3, 2, 2/3 ) d](8, 12, 6, 1/4)
13.(48, 72, 108)

a](64, 96, 144) b](24, 36, 72) c](84, 126, 188) d](36, 18, 9)
48 * 1.5 = 72 ; 72 * 1.5 = 108
64 * 1.5 = 96 ; 96 * 1.5 = 144
SERIES & ODD ONE OUT
Directions for Q.1-3: Answer according to the directions given in the respective
question.
1.How many 7s are there in the following series that are not immediately followed by 3
but immediately proceeded by 8
898762263269732872778737794
a] 2 b] 3 c] 4 d] 6
ANS : a] 2
2. If the given numbers are arranged in the descending order based on the sum of the
digits of each number, which number will be in the middle?
842 641 961 479 715 216 523
14 11 16 20 13 9 10
a] 961 b] 641 c] 479 d] 715
ANS :d] 715
3.If by beginning with 1, consecutive numbers are continuously written to its right, then
which digit will be written on thirty-fist position?
a] 1 b] 2 c] 3 d] 0
12
ANS : d] 0
Directions (Q.4-6): Choose the number that can replace?
4. 4832, 5840, 6848, ?

a] 7815 b] 7846 c] 7856 d] 7887
5. 325, 259, 204, 160, 127, 105, ?
a] 94 b] 96 c] 98 d] 100
2 3 4 5
6. , ,
5 5 5 5 25
, ,?
6 6 6 7
a] b] c] d]
5 5 25 5 125 25
Directions (Q.7-10): Choose the term that can replace?
Directions (Q.7-10): Choose the term that can replace?
7. 2A11, 4D13, 12G17, ?
a]36I19 b]36J21 c]48J21 d]48J23
ANS: d]48J23
9.KM5, IP8, GS11, EV14, ?

a]BX17 b]BY17 c]CY18 d]CY17
ANS: d]CY17
10.2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34 V13, ?

a]27U24 b]47V14 c]45U15 d]47U15
ANS: d]47U15
Directions (Q.11-15):Choose the number that can replace ?
11. 1, 2, 6, 7, 21, 22, 66, 67, ?

a] 70 b] 134 c] 201 d] 301
12.48, 24, 96, 48, 192, ?
a]76 b]90 c]96 d]98
13.1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, ?, 54
a]18 b]27 c]36 d]81
14. 165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ?
a] 375 b] 390 c] 420 d] 435
15. 9, 27, 31,155, 161, 1127, ?

a] 316 b] 1135 c] 1288 d] 2254
Directions for Q.16-17: Choose the odd one out.
16. a]Paper-White b]Sky – Blue c]Cassette – Song d]Leaf – Green
ANS : c]Cassette – Song
17. a]Hard-Soft b]Pointed-Blunt c]Long-High d]Sweet-sour
ANS : c]Long-High
Directions (Q.18-21):Find the the term missing.
18.A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY
a]LMNO b]MNO c]MNOP d]NOPQ
Ans: c]MNOP
19.AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ?

a]MQORN b]MQNRO c]NQMOR d]QMONR
Ans: b]MQNRO
20.Z, ?, T, ?, N, ?, H, ?, B
a]W, Q, K, E b]W, R, K, E c]X, Q, K, E d]X, R, K, E
Ans: a]W, Q, K, E
21.A, G, L, P, S,?
a]U b]W c]X d]Y
Ans: a]U
23. Raju walks 80 mts towards south. Then, turns to his right & starts walking straight
till he completes another 80 ms. Then, again turning to his left he walks for 60 metres.
He then turns to his left & walks for 80 metres. How far is he from his initial position?
A. 100 metres B. 60 metres C. 20 metres D. 120 metres E. 140 meters
EXPLANATION : AB = 80 + 60 = 140
22.Ajay walks 24 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of
another 10 km. He then turning to his right (drives towards West) another 10 km. He
then turns to his left & walks another 8 km. After that, he turns to his right & travels 14
km. How far is he from his initial point & in which direction?
A. 20 km East B. 18 km south C. 16 km West D. 10 km South E. None of these
EXPLANATION : 10 + 8 = 18 KMS SOUTH.

Varun drove his car for 80 kms due North. Then he turned left and drove for 100 kms.
Again he turned left & drove yet another 80 kms. Again he turned left and drove his car
120 kms. How far do you think he actually drove his car from the initial position?
A. 20 kms B. 100 kms C. 60 kms D. None of these E. Can't Say
EXPLANATION : Distance from initial position = 120 – 100 = 20.

One morning after sunrise, Amrit was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole
was forming on the left side. Which direction was Amrit facing?
A.East B. West C. North D. South E. None of these
EXPLANATION: Sun always rises in the east . So in morning, the shadow falls
towards the west .now Pole's shadow falls to the left of Amrit. So, he is standing, facing
North.
I drove 50 km towards east from a city ‘S’ and then turned right and drove another 30
km. Now I turned to my left & drove another 30 km. Finally I turned my right & drove
30 km to reach a city ‘F’. Find the shortest straight distance between cities S and F.
A. 20 km B. 25 km C. 30 km D. 40 km E. 100 km
EXPLANATION: Clearly by Pythagoras theorem SF = 100km

1. How many points will be on the face opposite to in face which contains 2 points?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
2. From the four positions of a dice given below, find the color which is opposite to yellow?
a. Violet
b. Red
c. Rose
d. Blue
3. Two positions of a dice are shown below. Which number will appear on the face opposite to the
face with the number 5?
a. 2/6
b. 2
c. 6
d. 4
Answer & Explanations :
1. Option (d). Exp: In first two positions of dice one common face containing 5
is same. Therefore according to rule no. (3) the face opposite to the face which
contains 2 point, will contains 6 points.
2. Option (a). Exp: The colours adjacent to yellow are orange, blue, red and
rose. Hence violet will be opposite to yellow.
3. Option (c). Exp: According to the rule no. (3),common faces with number 3,
are in same positions. Hence the number of the opposite face to face with
number 5 will be 6.
Directions for questions 1 to 4: The following questions are based on the
information given below:
1. There is a cuboid whose dimensions are 4 x 3 x 3 cm.
2. The opposite faces of dimensions 4 x 3 are coloured yellow.
3. The opposite faces of other dimensions 4 x 3 are coloured red.
4. The opposite faces of dimensions 3 x 3 are coloured green.
5. Now the cuboid is cut into small cubes of side 1 cm.
1. How many small cubes will have only two faces coloured?
a. 12
b. 24
c. 16
d. 14
2. How many small cubes have three faces coloured ?
a. 24
b. 20
c. 16
d. 8
3. How many small cubes will have no face coloured?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
4. How many small cubes will have only one face coloured?
a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 18
1. Option (c). Exp:
Number of small cubes having only two faces coloured = 6 from the front + 6
from the back + 2 from the left + 2 from the right = 16.
2. Option (d). Exp:
Such cubes are related to the corners of the cuboid and there are 8 corners.
Hence, the required number is 8.
3. Option (b). Exp:
Number of small cubes have no face coloured = (4 - 2) x (3 - 2) = 2 x 1 = 2.

4. Option (a). Exp:
Number of small cubes having only one face coloured = 2 x 2 + 2 x 2 + 2 x 1

=4+4+2
= 10
Mixtures and Alligations
Weighted Average:
If average of ‘m’ number of quantities
is ‘x’ and the average of ‘n’ number of
quantities is ‘y’, then the average of all
these quantities is
(m*x + n*y)/(m+n)
i.e.,
The weighted average= Sum total of
all the groups / Total number of
elements in all groups together
A mixture, as the name suggests is mixing two or more things together and
alligation, enables us to find the ratio in which the ingredients/ things have been
mixed and at what price they are sole to earn profit or face loss.
Suppose a container contains x units of a liquid from which y units are
taken out and replaced by water. After n operations, quantity of pure
liquid
Rule of Alligation
Problem 1: A rice variety of 4 kg that costs Rs. 10 per
kg is mixed with the another variety of 8 kg that costs
Rs. 12 per kg. Find the average price of the resulting
mixture.
• Here, the average price= Total cost / Total

quantity
• So, average price = (4*10 + 8*12)/ (4+8)
• = 136/12
• = Rs. 11.33
Problem 2: On combining two groups of students having 30 and
40 average marks respectively in an exam, the resultant group
has an average score of 34. Find the ratio of the number of
students in the first group to the number of students in the
second group.
Method 1:
(X*30 + Y*40) / (X+Y) = 34. We can find the ratio now.
Method 2: (Alligation Rule)
A B
30 40
34
(40-34) (34-30)
=6 =4
So, the ratio of two groups will be 6:4 i.e, 3:2

Problem 3:
On mixing two classes A and B of students having average marks 25 and
40 respectively, the overall average obtained is 30. Find the number of
students in the class A if class B has 30 students.
A B
25 40
30
10 5
So, the ratio of number of students in class A and B is 2:1.
1 part is equivalent to 30. So, 2 parts are equivalent to 60.
Class A has 60 students.
Problem 4:
5 Kg of rice at Rs. 6 per kg is mixed with 4 kg of rice to get a
mixture costing Rs. 7 per kg. Find the price of the costlier
rice variety.
( 5 Kg) ( 4 Kg)
A B
6 X
X-7 1
(X-7) : 1 = 5 : 4
i.e, (X-1)/1 = 5/4
X= Rs. 8.25
Problem 5: How many kilograms of sugar worth Rs. 3.60
per kg should be mixed with 8 kg of sugar worth Rs. 4.20
per kg, such that by selling the mixture at Rs. 4.40 per kg,
there may be a gain of 10%?
( X Kg) ( 8 Kg)
A B
3.6 4.2
0.2 0.4
So, the ratio of the quantities of two varieties is 1:2. The quantity of
the second variety is 8 kg. So, the quantity of the first variety should be
4 kg.
Problem 6: A mixture of 125 gallons of wine and water contains 20%
water .How much water must be added to the mixture in order to
increase the percentage of water to 25% of the new mixture?
Method 1:
Let’s take Variety A is the mixture of 125 gallons of wine and 20% water
And Variety B is the pure water(100% water).
(125 gallons) ( X gallons)
A B
20% 100%
25%
75% 5%
Therefore the quantity should be in the ratio 75: 5 i.e., 15:1.
15:1 = 125:x
X= 8.33 gallons.
Method2:
Let’s solve by using the wine content of the two varieties
(125 gallons) ( X gallons)

A B
80 0
75
75 5
Now, the ratio of the two varieties should be 75:5 i.e., 15:1.
15:1 = 125:x
X= 8.33 gallons.
Problem 7: Ravi lends Rs. 3600 on simple interest to harsh for a period of
5 years. He lends the part of the amount at 4% interest and the rest at 6%
and receives Rs. 960 as the amount of interest. How much money did he
lend on 4% interest rate?
Interest is Rs. 960 for five years for the principal of Rs. 3600. So, the rate of interest per annum
is 5.33%
A B
4 6
5.33
0.66 1.33
So, the ratio should be 0.66:1.33 i.e., 1:2

So, split 3600 in the ratio 1:2 .
We get Rs. 1200 for the first one (4% interest) and Rs. 2400 for the second one (6% interest).
So, the answer is Rs. 1200.
Problem 8: A cistern contains 50 litres of water. 5 litres of water is taken
out of it and replaced by wine. The process is repeated again. Find the
proportion of wine and water in the resulting mixture.
Method 1:
50 * (45/50) * 45/50)
Or
50* (9/10) * (9/10) is the quantity of water in the final mixture. I.e.,
40.5 litres of water will be there in the final mixture.
Remaining 9.5 litres is the quantity of wine.
So, the ratio of Wine and Water= 9.5 : 40.5 i.e, 19:81
Method 2:
We need not bother about the quantity. Initially water is 100 %.
Every time, 10% of water is replaced.
After the first replacement of water with wine, We will have 90%
of water.
After the second replacement 90% of 90% is water. i.e.,
(90/100)*(90/100)=81% is water.
Remaining 19% is wine. So, the ratio of wine and water is 19:81
Problem 9: In a zoo, there are some deers and ducks. If the heads are counted,
there are 180, while the legs are 448. What will be the number of deers in the
zoo?
The average legs per animal is 448/180. We know each deer has 4 legs and
each duck has 2 legs.
Deer Duck
4 2
448/180
(448/180)-2 4-(448/180)
So, the ratio of the number of deers and ducks should be

(448/180)-2 : 4-(448/180)
i.e., 88:272 which is 44 and 136 in our case ( since the sum should be 180 ).
So, There are 44 deers and 136 ducks.
Problem 10: A man decides to travel 80 km in 8 h party by foot and party
on a bicycle. If his speed on foot is 8 km/h and on bicycle 16 km/h, what
distance would he travel on foot?
By foot By Bicycle
8 16
10
6 2
So the duration travelled by foot and the duration travelled by bicycle are in the ratio
6:2.
We get (6*8 + 2*16) = 80 km (the total distance to be covered). He covered 48 km
by foot.
(Note: In this method, the time taken is considered as quantity and the speed is
considered as average)
Problem 11:While driving through the countryside one
day I saw a farmer tending his pigs and ducks in his
yard. I was curious to know how many of each he had. I
stopped the car and inquired. Leaning on the stile
jovially, he replied, 'I have altogether 60 eyes and 86
feet between them.' I drove off trying to calculate in my
mind the exact number of ducks and pigs he had. What
do you think is the answer?
Ducks Pigs
2 4
86/30
4- (86/30) (86/30)-2
Pigs : Dugs will be in the ratio of 34/30 : 26/30.

ie, 34:26. Here, It is 17 ducks & 13 Pigs ( since the
number of heads is 30.
Problem 12: An unscrupulous trader decided to make
some extra profit on Coffee. He bought one type of
coffee powder at Rs. 32 a kilo and mixed some of it
with a better quality of coffee powder bought at Rs. 40
a kilo, and he sold the blend at 43 a kilo. That gave him
a profit of 25 per cent on the cost. How many kilos of
each kind must he use to make a blend of a hundred
kilos weight?
32 40
172/5
28/5 12/5
so the ratio will be 28:12.

Here, the quantities will be 70 Kg of Rs.32 variety and 30 Kg of
Rs. 40 variety.
Problem 13: We have three containers which hold 19,
13 and 7 ounces of liquid respectively. The 19 ounce
container is empty but the 13 and 7 ounce containers
are full. How can we measure out 10 ounces by using
only the three above mentioned containers?
The following would be the procedure in chart form:'
19 Ounces :13 Ounces:7 Ounces

0 13 7
Step 1 : 7 13 0
Step 2 : 19 1 0
Step 3 12 1 7
Step 4 12 8 0
Step 5 5 8 7
Step 6 5 13 2
Step 7 18 0 2
Step 8 18 2 0
Step 9 11 2 7
Step 10 11 9 0
Step 11 4 9 7
Step 12 4 13 3
Step 13 17 0 3
Step 14 17 3 0
Step 15 10 3 7
Problem 13 : A friend of mine in London has a very nice cellar. He has two
large barrels in the cellar. The larger barrel is mostly empty. But the
smaller barrel is only 5/6th full of wine while it can hold 336 litres.
Supposing he empties the smaller barrel and fills the bigger barrel to find
that the wine fills only 4/9ths of it, how much wine would the larger
barrel hold when full ?
5/6 * 336 = 4/9 * X

X= 5/6* 336* 9/4
= 630 litres
Problem 14: I love to mix drinks. When I have one glass orangeade and
one glass lemonade each glass contains the same amount. I take 2
ounces full of the orangeade and mix it with the lemonade, and then I
take 2 ounces full of this mixture and put it back in the orangeade. What
do you think of the resulting mixture? D o you think there is more
orangeade in the lemonade or more lemonade in the orangeade?
Let’s assume we have solution A(instead of Orangade) and solution

B( instead of Lemonade) 6 litres each.
2 litres of A is mixed with B. So, the ratio of B:A will be 3:1 in the
second vessel.
Now, 2 litres of the second vessel is mixed with the first vessel ( out
of this 2 litres, 1.5 is solution B and 0.5 is solution A). Already vessel
A has 4 litres of solution A. So, Now Vessel A will have 4.5 litres of
solution A and 1.5 litres of solution B. The ratio of A:B is 3:1
So, the answer is both have the another solution in the same
proportions.
A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was
taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times.
How much milk is now contained by the container?
A. 29.16 litres B. 28 litres
C. 28.2 litres D. 26 litres
Explanation:
Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety of tea in
the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, what is the price of the
third variety per kg ?
A. Rs.175.50 B. Rs.180
C. Rs.182.50 D. Rs.170.5
Explanation:
Two vessels A and B contain spirit and water in the ratio 5 : 2 and 7 : 6
respectively. Find the ratio in which these mixtures be mixed to obtain a
new mixture in vessel C containing spirit and water in the ratio 8 : 5 ?
A. 7 : 9 B. 3: 4
C. 9 : 7 D. 4 : 3
Explanation:
8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This
operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left
in cask to that of the water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask originally hold?
A. 26 litres B. 24 litres
C. 30 litres D. 32 litres
Explanation:
In what ratio must water be mixed with milk costing Rs.12 per
litre in order to get a mixture worth of Rs.8 per litre?
A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 2
C. 3 : 1 D. 1 : 3
Explanation:
A dishonest milkman sells his milk at cost price but he mixes it with water
and thereby gains 25%. What is the percentage of water in the mixture?
A. 24% B. 22%
C. 25% D. 20%
Explanation:
Solution 1
Solution 2
The compounded ratio of (2 : 3), (6: 11) and (11 :2) is
A) 1:2 B) 2:1
C) 11:24 D) 36:121
For any two numbers m , n ; (m+n) : (m-n) : mn = 7: 1: 60 . Find the value of 1/m : 1/n
A) 4:3 B) 8:7
C) 3:4 D) 7:8
Number System
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

1 . Consider a large number N = 1234567891011121314………979899100. What is
the remainder when first 100 digits of N is divided by 9?
a) 0 b) 8 c) 1 d) 5
Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

2. Number N = 26 * 55 * 76 * 107; how many factors of N are even numbers?
a) 1183 b) 1200 c) 1050 d ) 840
Explanation:
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3. Find the number of factors of 243243 which are multiples of 21 ?
a) 24 b) 23 c) 25 d) 2
Explanation:
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4. How many factors of 24 x 35 x 104 are perfect squares which are greater than 1?
a) 40 b) 48 c) 58 d) 44
Explanation:
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5. Find the sum of all even factors of 3600?
a) 4030 b) 12896 c) 6046 d) 12090
Explanation:
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6. Find the smallest number that has exactly 18 factors
a) 180 b) 216 c ) 240 d) None of these
Explanation:
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7. How many pairs of positive integers x, y exist such that HCF of x, y = 35 and sum
of x and y = 1085?
a) 12 b) 8 c) 15 d) 30
Explanation:
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8. 6 different sweet varieties of count 32, 216, 136, 88, 184, 120 were ordered for a
particular occasion. They need to be packed in such a way that each box has the same
variety of sweet and the number of sweets in each box is also the same. What is the
minimum number of boxes required to pack?
a) 129 b) 64 c) 48 d) 97
Explanation:
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9. Q is the number formed by knocking of all the terminal zeros from 256!. What is
the index of highest power of 12 that divides Q ?
a) 96 b) 128 c) 64 d) 84
Explanation:
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10. What are the last two digits of the number 745?
a) 07 b) 23 c) 49 d) 47
Explanation:
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11. Find the last 2 digits in ( 784 ) 489 ?
a) 64 b) 84 c) 52 d) 24
Explanation:
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12. If the product of three consecutive positive integers is 15600 then the sum of the
squares of these integers is
a) 1777 b) 1785 c) 1875 d) 1877
Explanation:
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13). What is the remainder when (13100 + 17100) is divided by 25?
a) 0 b) 2 c) 4 d) 11
Explanation:
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14. A number when divided by 18 leaves a remainder 7. The same number when
divided by 12 leaves a remainder n. How many values can n take?
a) 2 b) 0 c) 1 d) 3
Explanation:
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Explanation:
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16.
A.96 ≤ n < 104 B. 104 ≤ n < 107 C. 107 ≤ n < 111 D. 111 ≤ n < 116
Explanation:
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SRM IST,CDC, KTR
17.
A.1 22187/47710 B.2 22187/47710 C.3 22187/47710 D.None of these

Explanation:
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18.
A.0 B.-1 C.1 D.2
Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

19. The 260th term of the series a, b, b, c, c, c, d, d, d, d, e, e, e, e, e, f, f, f, f, f, f, ....is:
A. U B. W C. T D. V
Explanation:
Explanation:
Total number of terms in the series = 26(26+1)/2 = 351
351 – 26 = 325 --> (326 to 351 will be z)
325 – 25 = 300 --> (301 to 325 will be y)
300 – 24 = 276 --> (277 to 300 will be x)
276 – 23 = 253 --> (254 to 276 will be w)
So, the 260th element in the series is w.
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

20. In an AP of 21 terms, the sum of the first 3 terms is – 33 and that of the middle 3 is
75. What is the sum of the AP?
A. -955 B. -1155 C. 525 D. 715
Explanation:
The AP can be expressed as a, (a + d), ---, (a +20d).
The sum of the first 3 terms is (3a + 3d) = -33 and the sum of the middle 3 terms is (3a
+ 30d) = 75.
Solving these two equations, we get a = -15 and d = 4.
The sum of the 1st 21 terms is (21/2) (2 * -15 + 20 * 4) = 525.
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

21. 1-2-3+2-3-4+3-4-5+….. Find the sum of first 99 terms?
A. -660 B. -690 C. -695 D. -687
Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

22. The side of a square is 16 cm infinite no. of squares are made by joining mid
points of each side of the squares. Then calculate the total area of all the infinite
no. of squares?
A. 512 B. 513 C. 514 D. 516
Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

23. In a cricket tournament, 16 school teams participated. A sum of Rs. 8000 is to be
awarded among them as prize money. If the team placed last is awarded Rs. 275 as
prize money and the award increases by the same amount for successive finishing
teams, how much will the team placed first receive?
a. 1000 b. 500 c. 1250 d. 725
Explanation:
Let the team which got placed first receive an amount a.
Since the award money increases by the same amount for successive finishing
teams, the series will be in AP. Let the constant amount be d.
Now, l = 275 , n = 16 and S16= 8000

l = a + (n - 1) d and hence 275 = a + 15d
S16= 16/2 [2a + (16 -1)(d)] and hence 8000 = 8 (2a + 15d)
On solving these equations,
275 = a + 15d
1000 = 2a + 15d
(2a + 15d) - (a + 15d) = 1000 - 275

SRM IST,CDC, KTR
a = 725
24. Find the equality of p and q from the given two equations
6p2+p-1 =0
14q2+ 9q + 1 =0
A. p >q B. p < q C. p = q D. p ≥ q
Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

25. Out of a group of swans, 7/2 times the square root of the total number are playing on the
shore of the pond. The remaining 2 are inside the pond. Find the total number of swans.
a. 16 b. 25 c. 4 d. 9
Explanation:
Let the number of swans = x2
x2= 7x/2 + 2 --> x2= (7x + 4)/2
2x2= 7x + 4, --->2x2- 7x - 4 = 0
The roots of x are 4, -1/2.Here -1/2 is not possible, so the x

value will be 4.
The total number of swans is x2i.e 16.
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

26. Fishing is a serious environmental issue. It has been determined by the scientists that
if the net of a trawler has mesh size x cm by x (square mesh) then the percentage of
fish entering the net that is caught in the net is 100-0.02x^2-0.05x. For example, if the
mesh size is zero, 100% of the fish that enter the net will be caught. The trawler with a
square mesh that was suspected of using an illegal size net, dropped its net to the
ocean floor near the damans and coast guard officials arrested the crew. The scientists
later looked at the size of the fish caught and estimated that the net used by the
trawler at least caught 97.93% of the fish entering the net. What is the maximum
value of x for the net by the trawler?
a) 8.5 b) 9 c) 11 d) 12
Explanation:
For some x, 97.93% fish was caught. So

⇒ 100 - 0.02x2- 0.05x = 97.93
⇒ 0.02x2 + 0.05x = 2.07
⇒ x2+ 2.5x = 103.5
⇒ x2+ 2.5x – 103.5 = 0
Using options , we can see 9 is max
So x = 9 is correct option.
SRM IST,CDC, KTR
27. If 2x-1+2x+1=320,then x is equal to
A.6 B.8 C.5 D.7
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

28. If 17x = 4913, find the value of 22x-1.
a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) 128
Explanation:
17x = 4913
⇒17x = 4913
⇒17x = (17)3
⇒x = 3
Value of 22x-1 ⇒ 22.3-1⇒ 25 = 32
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

29.
A. 0.2 B. 0.3 C. 0.1 D. 1
Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

30.
a) 1 b) 2 c)1 d)0.2
Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

31.
a) 1 b) – 1 c) 0.01 d) 0.1
Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

Explanation:
SRM IST,CDC, KTR

PERMUTATION & COMBINATION
PROBABILITY
 6 in hundreds place
 1X9X9=81 ways
 6 in tens place
 8x1x9=72
 6 in unit’s place
 8X9X1=72
 Total number of times 6 appears exactly
once is 81+72+72=225
 three conditions in this question first 4 digit number second even number
third less than 6000
 with repeating
 _x_x_x_
 12345 X _X_X02468
 5X10x10x5=2500
 Without repeating
 __X__X__X__
 12345X___X___X02468
 Common possibilities as one case and non common possibilities as one case
 Case 1
 Last digit is 2 or 4
 4X8X7X2=448
 Case2
 Last digit is 068
 5X8X7X3=840
 Total numbers 448+840=1288
 Here Mr. X is selected unless Mr. Y is not selected
means Mr. X will come for selection only if Mr. Y is
not selected
 So Mr. X selection depends on Mr. Y selection
 So case1: Mr. Y selected remaining 2 members we
have to select from remaining group that is
 6c2
 Case2: Mr. Y is not selected
 7c3
 Answer 6c2+7c3 =15+35=50 ways
 a + b + c = 10. Now, let us place ten sticks in a row
| | | | | | | | | |
This question now becomes the equivalent of placing two
'+' symbols somewhere between these sticks. For instance,
| | | | + | | | | | + |
This would be the equivalent of 4 + 5 + 1. or, a = 4, b =
5, c = 1.

There are 9 GAP between the sticks, out of which one has
to select 2 for placing the '+'s.
 SO ANSWER IS 9C2
 case 1 three 2’s and four 3’s and last two digit is
32
 Case2 six 2’s and one 3 and last two digit is 32
case1:
No of possibilities =5! / 3!2! = 10
Six 2's and one 3 - The first 5 digits should all be

2's. So, there is only one number 2222232.
So, there are a total of 10 + 1 = 11 solutions.
 Hence the answer is "11"
 Single digit numbers: 1, 3 or 5:
 Two–digit numbers: 5*3 = 15
 Three–digit numbers: 4 * 5 *3 = 60
=> 4–digit numbers: There will be 3 * 4* 5 * 3 = 180
numbers.
=> 5–digit numbers: There will be 2 * 3 * 4 * 5 * 3 = 360
numbers.
=> 6–digit numbers: There will be 1 * 2 * 3 * 4 * 5 * 3 = 360
numbers.
Total number of numbers = 360 + 360 + 180 + 60 + 15 + 3

= 978.
 ATTITUDE has 8 letters, of which 3 are Ts
 We have AIUDE. These can be arranged in 5! way.
__A __ I __ U __ D __ E__
 These can be arranged in 5!
 And there are 6 gap in between before and after
letters .to satisfies the condition no two T
together select these gaps for T’s
 That can be done in 6c3
 So answer 5! * 6c3 =2400
 For the product of a 3 digit number to be lesser than
5, it should comprise of either 1, 2 ,3 or 4 in a certain
way.
Let’s start with product = 1 => this is possible in
only one way (111).
 Product =2 => Possible in 3 ways(211, 112 and 121).

Product = 3=> Possible in 3 ways(311, 113 and 131).

Product = 4 => Possible in 3 ways(411, 114, 141,
221, 212 and 122).

Total = 1+3+3+6 =13 numbers.
 Total number of rearrangements = 4! Ways = 24.
 Each of the four digits appear in 24/4=6 time (
total ways divided by no of digits )
..
Therefore, sum of units place = 6*(2+3+1+4) =
60
Sum of tens place = 6*(20+30+10+40) = 600.
Sum of hundreds place = 6*1000 =6000
Sum of thousands place = 6*10000 =60000.
Therefore, sum of all rearrangements of 3214 =
66660.
 Let us assume the 4 kids to be a , b , c , d such that a
+ b + c + d = 7.
 There are 6 gap in between 7 we have to select 3 for
distributing 4 kids
 6c3 ways
⟹ 6×5×4/3×2×1 = 20
It is given that no body gets more than 3 erasers so
let us say that one kid could get 4 , 5 , 6 eraser.
If one kid a, gets 4 erasers the other kids b , c , d can
get each one respectively such that 4 , 1 , 1 , 1 or 1 ,
1 , 1 , 4 or 1 , 4 , 1 , 1 or 1 , 1 , 4 , 1 so there are
chances of 4 ways.
So, 20 – 4 = 16 ways
 Choice A is the correct answer
 One digit numbers 4
 Two digit numbers 4*5=20
 Three digit numbers 4*5*5=100
 Four digit numbers less than 4000 is 3*5*5*5
= 375
 Four digit numbers from 4000 to 4244 is
1*3*5*5=75
 Last number 4300 is 1 way
 Total numbers 20+100+375+75=575
 All physics as one unit and all chemistry as 1
unit and all biology as 1 unit because same
subject together
 Three unit arranged in 3!
 And with in the unit again can arranged in
6!*3!*4!
 Total arrangements 3!*( 6!*3!*4!) = 622080
 First friend can invite in any of three servant
so 3 way same for other 5 friends
 Total number of ways 3*3*3*3*3*3 = 36
=729
 Here two teachers are always separated by
student means exactly one student between tw
teachers
 T1 S T2 as one unit
 Remaining 17 students and one unit can
arranged in 17! Ways in circular table
 With in that one unit two teachers can arranged
in 2! And student can selected in 18 ways so total
nu8mber of ways is
 17! * 18 *2!=18!*2
 PRIME
 45231
 HERE 45231 IS CODE FOR PRIME THAT MEANS P IS 4 POSITION
AMONGTHE LETTERS AND R IS 5 TH POSITION AMONG LIKE
 PRIME
 45231
 4!*3 =24*3 =72
 3!*3 = 6 *3 =18
 2!*1 =2*1
 1!*1=1
 Here if given word is 5 letters start with 4! Tha t means n letters
start with n-1 !
 4!*3 is code of P is 4 right side of P how any values are less than
4 so 3 values less than 4 that is way
 4!*3 same for remaining letters final answer is 72+18+2+1=93
but rank is 94 add ‘1’ to final value in this method.
 PLACES first arranged in alphabetical order
 ACELPS
 Possibilities satring with A is 120
 A*-*-*-*-*- =5!=120 but required one is 48th
position so
 Possibilities starting with AC is
 AC*-*-*-*- =4!=24
 Next starting with AE
 AE*-*-*-*- =4!=24
 So 48th element is last element in AE*-*-*-*- that
means AE followed by reverse alphabetical order
which is AESPLC
 Say ,there are a total m points and out of
which n are collinear. Then
 number of straight lines formed= mc2 ─ nc2
+1 = 12c2 ─ 4c2 +1 =61
 number of traingles formed = mc3 ─ nc3 =
12c3 ─ 4c3 =216
 In N sided figure total Nc2 lines possible and
Nc2 – N diagonals possible
 Same ways 10c2 -10 =10*9/2 -10=45 -
10=35
 A die is thrown three times sum is 15 is
possible only
 6 6 3 =3!/2!=3ways
 5 5 5 =3!/3!=1ways
 6 5 4 = 3!= 6 ways
 In last case first thrown was 4 possible two
ways that is 4 5 6 and 4 6 5
 So probability that the first throw was 4 is
=fav/total =2/10=1/5

If 6 actually appeared, he can report it with the
probability of 3/4.
If 6 has not appeared, still he can report it wrongly
with the probability of 1/4
So the probability that it is actually a 6 =
(Probability to appear 6 x His truthfulness to
report) + (Probability to appear any other number x
His lying probability ) = (1/6 × ¾) + (5/6 × ¼) =
1/3
The probability that it is actually 6 = (Probability
that he reports 6) / (Total probability to appear 6)
= (3/4×1/6) / (1/3) = 3/8
 As the objects are replaced, the probability of
drawing red or blue is equal.
P (exactly 3 red and 1 blue) = ½ x ½ x ½ x ½
= 1/16
P (exactly 3 blue and 1 red) = ½ x ½ x ½ x ½
= 1/16
Total P = (1/16) + (1/16) = 1/8
 Total events = 6*6*6 = 216
Possible cases for sum = 10 are
(1,3,6)  6 combinations
So, total combinations = 27
So, probability will be 27/216 = 1/8
 Explanation:
 x/15 = 1/5
x=3
3 + 3 (removed 3 blue balls) = 6
 Explanation:
 There are 13 spades in a standard deck of
cards. There are four aces in a standard deck
of cards. One of the aces is a spade. So, 13 +
4 – 1 = 16 spades or aces to choose from.
Since we have a total of 52 cards, the
probability of selecting an ace or a spade is
16/52.
 Probability of getting head is ½ and
probability of getting tail is ½
 Probability of getting exactly 6 heads I when
10 time tossed is
 10c6*(1/2)6*(1/2)4 =105/512
 P(Getting a red ball from the37/120 first
bag) = (1/2)*(5/12) = 5/24
P(Getting a red ball from the 2nd bag) =
(1/2)*(3/15) = 1/10
P(Drawing a red ball) = (5/24) + (1/10)
 Numbers which don’t have 2 from 1 to 9 = 8 nos
Numbers which don’t have 2 from 10 to 99 (2 digit
nos): 8 x 9 ways = 72 nos
Numbers which don’t have 2 from 100 to 999 = 8 ×
9 × 9 = 648 nos
Numbers which don’t have 2 from 1000 to 1099
=10_ _ = 9 × 9 = 81 nos
Finally 1100 does not have 2. So 1 number
Total numbers with no 2 in them = 8 + 72 + 648 +
81 + 1 = 810
Tickets with 2 in them = 1100 – 810 = 290
Required probability = 290 / 1100
Ratio and Proportion
Ratio:
- The ratio of two quantities a and b of same units is the fraction x/y, where b ≠ 0
- The fraction x/y can be represented as x:y
Different types of ratios are:

Direct Variation
An example of direct variation
If it takes 3 gallons of paint to cover 100 square feet, how many gallons of paint will
be needed to cover 600 square feet?
The problem gives us the ratio of 3 gallons of paint to cover 100 square feet. We
can use this information to set up our proportion:
Inverse Variation
When two variables or quantities change in opposite directions, you have

inverse variation.
The time required to paint the house varies inversely with the number of
people painting. This means the more people painting the house, the less total
time it will take to paint. When we say "y varies inversely with x," we can
express this as:
Where k is the constant of variation

Example
A particular hotel has a custodial staff of 12 employees, and they can typically
clean all of the hotel rooms in 6 hours. If four members of the custodial staff are
not at work today, how long will it take the remaining custodians to clean all of
the hotel rooms?
In this example, the total time taken to complete the job is inversely
proportional to the number of workers. The constant of variation, k, is simply
6 • 12 = 72.
We want to know the numbers of hours it will take the remaining custodians to
do the job.
Since 4 are absent, that leaves 8 workers (12 – 4 = 8).
Joint Variation
Joint variation is just an extension of direct variation. When we say that "y
varies jointly with x and z" we have an example of joint variation. This can be
written as:
An example:
The variable y varies jointly with x and z. The value of y is 12 when x is 4

and z is 8. What is y when x = 6 and z = 10?
y = 12 when x is 4 and z is 8
Find y
Combined Variation
Combined variation involves both direct and inverse variation. For example, if we
say "y varies directly with x and inversely with z," we are faced with combined
variation. This can be written as follows:
It takes 2 hours for 3 people to paint 100 ft. of 6-ft. fencing. Assuming that each
person is capable of painting at the same rate, how long will it take for 12 people to
paint 1,800 ft. of the same fencing?
Explanation:
The total time (t) needed to paint a section of fencing is directly proportional to
the length of the fence (l) and inversely proportional to the number of people (n)
who are painting.
First, we determine the constant of variation, k.
solve for the missing variable(t):

Variation:
If a = kb for some constant k, then we can say that a is directly proportional to b.
If ba =k for some constant k, then we can say that a is inversely proportional to b.
If ratio between first and second quantity m : n = a : x, second and third quantity n : p
= b : y, fourth and fifth quantity p : q = c : z, then m : n : p : q can be easily solved by
using the trick shown below:
1. If a:b =3:2 and their product is 216, find a?
a) 108 b) 36 c) 18 d)3
The third proportional to 9 and 12 is ?
A) 14 B) 16 C) 18 D) 20
Explanation:
Let the third proportion to 9 & 12 be 'x'.
=> 9:12 = 12 :p
=> p = 12x12/9 = 16.
Find the fourth proportional to 5, 8, 20

Explanation:
Take fourth proportion is ‘a’
Then 5 : 8 :: 20 : a
According to property of proportions
Product of extreams = Product of means

5a = 160
a = 160/5 = 32
If a : b = c : d = e : f = 5 : 6 then find the value of
According property of equal ratios

3.Divide 2600 in the ratio ½ : 1/3 : ¼ ?
a) 600,400,300 b) 1200,800,600 c) 1200,500,1100 d) None
4.Divide 1900 into 3 parts a,b,c, such that 4a = 3b = c?

a) 400,500,1000 b) 600,400,900 c) 300,400,1200 d) None
5.If a:b = 3:4, b:c = 5:2 then a:b:c is -
a) 10:15:8 b) 15:20:8 c) 12:5:7 d) None
6.If a:b = 3:2, b:c = 4:3, c:d = 5:2 then a:b:c:d is -

a) 30:20:15:6 b) 30:20:13:7 c) 30:20:12:7 d) None
The compounded ratio of (2 : 3), (6: 11) and (11 :2) is
A) 1:2 B) 2:1
C) 11:24 D) 36:121
For any two numbers m , n ; (m+n) : (m-n) : mn = 7: 1: 60 . Find the value of 1/m : 1/n
A) 4:3 B) 8:7
C) 3:4 D) 7:8
7. If p:q=1:2,q:r=2:3,r:s=9:4,s:t=1:3 and t:u=3:4 then pqr/stu is
a) 9:64 b)27:128 c)81:128 d) none
8.The ratio of ages of A and B is 7:9. If B is 12 years older than A, What are the respective
ages of A and B in years?
a) 94, 128 b) 36, 42 c) 48, 42 d) 42, 54
9.Three numbers are such that the difference of the squares of the first and the
third is 260. If their ratio is 4:6:9, find the numbers?
a) 12, 18, 24 b) 6, 12, 16 c) 8, 12, 18 d) 12,18, 27
10.A bag contains coins of denominations 25 paise, 50 paise and 1 Rs in the ratio
8:6:5. Find the amount in the bag, if the value of 50 paise coins is four rupees
more than the value of 25 paise coins?
a) 60 b) 20 c) 50 d) 40
11.The ratio of incomes of A and B is 4:3. The ratio of their expenditures is 5:4.
If the saving of B is one-third of his income, then find the ratio of their savings?
a) 1:1 b) 3:2 c) 5:4 d) 4:3
Sol) Let the incomes be 4x , 3x & Expenditures be 5y, 4y
Given 3x - 4y = 1/3 * 3x , hence x=2y

Savings ratio = ( 4x-5y ) : ( 3x-4y) = 3:2
12.The ratio of ages of A and B is 2:3. Twelve years from now the ratio of
their ages will become 4:5. What is A’s present age?
a) 12 b) 18 c) 24 d) 30
13.The mean proportion of 2 numbers is 12. The 3rd proportion of the
same numbers is 96. Find the greater of the 2 numbers?
a) 12 b) 18 c) 24 d) 16
14. If( p+q)/r= (q+r)/p=(r+p)/q=k then k is

a) 2 b) -1 c) 2 or -1 d) none
15.If x +16 : 4x + 20 is the triplicate ratio of 3:4 then x is –
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11
16. A Hare and a Jackal run a race. 5 leaps of the hare is equal to 4 leaps of the
jackal. For every 6 leaps of the hare, the jackal takes 5 leaps. Find the ratio of
their speads ?
a) 6:5 b) 16:25 c)25:24 d) 24:25
18.The volume of a cube varies with the cube of its side. If 3 cubes of sides 6cm,
8cm, and 10 cm are taken together and melted to form a 4th cube find the side
of the 4th cube?
a) 6 cm b) 10 cm c) 24 cm d) 12 cm
19.A is directly proportional to B when C is constant and inversely proportional

to the square of C when B is constant. In a particular instance when A = 18, B =
25 and C = 10, find A if C = 9 and B = 18?
a) 24 b) 16 c) 32 d) 12
20.The value of a diamond varies directly with the square of its weight. A diamond
broke into 3 pieces whose weights are in the ratio 32:24:9. The loss caused due to
the breakage were 25.44 lakhs. Find the initial value of the diamond?
a) 82.25 Lakhs b) 72.25 Lakhs c) 52.25 Lakhs d) 42.25 Lakhs
Time and Work
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

1. In a poultry farm, 50 hens give 200 eggs in 2 days. In how many days will 20 hens
give 400 eggs?
(A) 5 (B) 15 (C) 10 (D) 20
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

OR
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

2. An air container can cool the hall in 40 minutes while another takes 45 minutes to
cool under similar conditions. If both air conditioners are switched on at same
instance, then how long will it take to cool the room?
(A) About 22 minutes (B) About 20 minutes
(C) About 30 minutes (D) About 25 minutes
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

3 Pipe A fills a tank at the rate of 100lit/min, Pipe B fills at the rate of 25 lit/min, pipe C
drains at the rate of 50 lit/min. The three pipes are kept open for one minute each, one
after the other. If the capacity of the tank is 7000 liters, how long will it take to fill the tank
if
A is kept open first, followed by B and then C.
B first, followed by A, and then C.
B first, followed by C, and then A.
A) 279.25 mins, 280 mins and 280 mins B) 280 mins, 280 mins and 279.25 mins
C) 279 mins, 280 mins and 279.25 mins D) 277 mins, 277 mins 45 sec and 279 mins
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

CDC, SRM IST, KTR
CDC, SRM IST, KTR
CDC, SRM IST, KTR
CDC, SRM IST, KTR
4. Naresh completes a work in 10 days and Suresh does it in 12 days and John does it
in 15 days. If the same job has been completed in 6 days who are the workers who
completed the job in 6 days?
(A) Naresh , John (B) John, Suresh (C) Naresh, Suresh
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

CDC, SRM IST, KTR
5. A does 80% of a work in 20 days. He then calls in B and they together finish the
remaining work in 3 days. How long B alone would take to do the whole work?
(A) 23 (B) 27 (C) 37 1/2 (D) 40
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

CDC, SRM IST, KTR
6. Two content Managers can complete developing questions for a module in 18 days.
7days after they start working. 10 interns join them. How many days will they take to
complete the remaining work if they are all equally efficient?
(A) 15/6 (B) 11/144 (C) 2 (D) 21/6
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

CDC, SRM IST, KTR
7. A group of women can finish a piece of work in 50 days. In how many days will one-
third the number of women be able to finish two-third of the work?
(A) 150 (B) 75 (C) 60 (D) 100
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

8. A water pump takes 6 hrs to fill an overhead tank. Stand by pump takes 10 hrs to fill
the same overhead tank. If first pump fails after 2 hrs then how long will the standby
pump take to fill the over head tank?
(A) 6 hrs (B) 8 2/3 hrs (C) 8 hrs (D) 6 2/3 hrs
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

9. A chemical mixture requires two chemicals, A and B in proportion 3:2. The mixture is to
be prepared in a tank of capacity 50 litres. Pipe A can fill the tank with chemical A in 15
mins and pipe B can fill the tank with chemical B in 30 mins. If both pipes are opened when
the tank is empty, then for how long should the pipes A and B run to obtain the
mixture?(in mins)
(A) (10,10) (B) (9,9) (C) (12,12) (D) (9,12) (E) (12,9)
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

10. Rahul can finish one fifth of his homework in one hour. Neha can finish three seventh
of her homework in one hour thirty mins, riya can finish three-fourth of her homework in
three hours thirty mins. If all of them start their home work at 12.00pm, and can go to play
as soon as they complete their work. When can they go to play if they take a break at
3.30pm for thirty minutes?
(A) 5.00pm (B) 5.30pm (C) 4.40pm (D) 6.30pm (E) 3.30pm
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST, KTR

CDC, SRM IST, KTR
CDC, SRM IST, KTR
CDC, SRM IST,KTR
1. An escalator moves towards the top level at the rate of 11 ft/sec and its length is 140
feet. If a person walks on the moving escalator at the rate of 3 feet per second towards
the top level, how much time does he take to cover the entire length.
a) 14 sec b) 10 sec c) 12 sec d)8 sec
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

2. Two trains, 250 metres and 150 metres long respectively, are running on parallel
lines. If they are running in the same directions, the faster train crosses the slower
train in 40 seconds. If they are moving in the opposite direction, they pass each other
in eight seconds. What is the speed of the slower train?
a) 108kmph b) 82kmph c)92 kmph d) 72 kmph
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

3. Two persons , Ram & Lakshman , who are at a distance of 100 km from each other, move
towards each other from two places P and Q at speeds of 20 kmph and 25 kmph respectively.
Lakshman reaches P, returns immediately and meets Ram at R, who started on the return
journey to P immediately after reaching Q. What is the distance between Q and R?
a) 33 1/3 km b) 25 km c)30km d)27 1/3 km
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

4. Without any halt a train travels a certain distance with an average speed of 75 kmph and
with halts it covers the same distance at an average speed of 60 kmph. When it is traveling
with halts, how many minutes/hr does the train halt on an average?
a)48 min. b)12min. c)15min. d)18min.
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

5. Two buses A and B leave the same bus depot, A towards the North and B towards the East.
The bus A travels at a speed of 5 km/hr more than that of the bus B. If after four hours the
distance between the two buses is 100 km, find the speed of the bus A.
a) 60 kmph b) 40 kmph c) 20 kmph d) 15 kmph
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

6. A person travelled from his house to office at 30 kmph; then he was late to his office by
5 minutes. If he increases his speed by 10 kmph he would be early by 15 minutes to his
office. What should be his speed so that he reaches his office on time?
a) 36 kmph b) 32 kmph c) 34 kmph d)35 kmph
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

7. There are 4 people who has to cross a stretch of 300 km. They normally run at a speed of
10 kmph. One of them has a bike that travels at 50 kmph. The bike first takes one person
alone and crosses the stretch while the other two keep running. Then he comes back
without wasting time and picks up another person from the way, drives him across the
stretch, and does the same for the last person. How long does this whole process take?
a)24 hrs b)16 hrs c) 56/3 hrs d) 58/3 hrs
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

CDC, SRM IST,KTR
9. In a 1000 m race Usha beats Shiny by 50 m. In the same race, by what time margin
Shiny beat Mercy who runs at 4 m/s?
a) 100 sec. B) 50 sec c) 25 sec d) Data not sufficient
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

12. Mr. X decides to travel from Delhi to Gurgaon at a uniform speed and decides to reach
Gurgaon after T hr. After 30 km, there is some engine malfunction and the speed of the car
becomes (4/5)th of the original speed. So, he travels the rest of the distance at a constant
speed (4/5)th of the original speed and reaches Gurgaon 45 minutes late. Had the same
thing happened after he travelled 48 km, he would have reached only 36 minutes late. What
is the distance between Delhi and Gurgaon?
a) 90 km b) 120 km c) 20 km d) 40 km
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

CDC, SRM IST,KTR
13. Two friends A and B leave City P and City Q simultaneously and travel towards Q and P
at constant speeds. They meet at a point in between the two cities and then proceed to
their respective destinations in 54 minutes and 24 minutes respectively. How long did B
take to cover the entire journey between City Q and City P?
a) 60 b) 36 c) 24 d) 48
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

14. Two trains A and B are 100 m and 150 m long and are moving at one another at 54 Km/hr
and 36 Km/hr respectively. Arun is sitting on coach B1 of train A. Calculate the time taken by
Arun to completely cross Train B.
a) 6s b) 10s c) 4s d) 8s
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

15. Arjun travels from A to B, a distance of 200 Km at the speed of 40 Km/hr. At the same
time, Rakesh starts from point B at a speed of 20 Km/hr along a road which is perpendicular
to AB. Find the time in which Arjun & Rakesh will be closer to each other?
a) 1.5 hr b) 3.33 hr c) 5 hr d) 4 hr
Explanation:
CDC, SRM IST,KTR

CDC, SRM IST,KTR
CLOCKS
IMPORTANT POINTS :
1. The shape of a clock is a circle and hence the total angle is 360 degree. The clock is divided into 12 hour
spaces or 60 minute spaces.
2. The minute hand in 60 minutes covers an angle of 360 degree or in 1 minute it covers 360/60=6o
3. The hour hand in 12 hours covers an angle of 360 degree or in 1 hour it covers 360/12=30 o
4. COINCIDENT POSITION: When the 2 hands are one over the other the position is called coincident position
( angle =0o ). Generally this position happens once in every hour. But between 11 to 12 & 12 to 1 the hands
coincides once only i.e at 12. So in every 12 hours the hands coincide 11 times or in a day 22 times.
5. RIGHT ANGLE POSITION: When the 2 hands are 15 minute spaces apart the position is called right angle
position ( angle=90 degree ). Generally this position happens twice in every hour. But between 2.30 to 3 & 3 to 3.30
the hands are in right angle once only i.e at 3. Similarly we can observe the same between 8.30 to 9 & 9 to 9.30
.So in every 12 hours the hands are in right angle at 22 times or in a day 44 times.
6. OPPOSITE DIRECTION POSITION: When the 2 hands are 30 minute spaces apart the position is called
opposite direction position (angle=1800 ). Generally this position happens once in every hour. But between 5 to 6 &
6 to 7 this position happens once only i.e at 6. So in every 12 hours the hands are in opposite direction at 11 times
or in a day 22 times.
7. The hands are in same straight means the position is coincident or opposite direction.
8. To find the angle between the hands we can use the formula, θ = | (11/2) m – 30 h |
9 Note : In a correct clock the gap between any 2 coincides is 1-05 5/11 minutes i.e 65 5/11 minutes.
If the hands of the clock coincide before this 65 5/11 minutes then we say the clock is running fast or it is
gaining the time. ( or ) if the hands of the clock coincide after 65 5/11 minutes then we say the clock is
running slow or it is losing the time.
QUESTIONS
1. If a clock shows 9:30, what time does it show in the mirror?

a) 3:30 b) 2:30 c) 1:30 d) 4:30
2. A boy observes the reflection of wall clock in a mirror. The time observed by the boy in the mirror is 3:45.
What is the time shown in the clock?
a) 9:15 b) 7:15 c) 8:30 d) 8:15
3. A clock strikes once at 1 O’ clock, twice at 2 O’ clock and so on. What is the total number of strikes in a
day?
a) 78 b) 156 c) 100 d) 312
4. A clock strikes once at 1 O’ Clock, twice at 2 O’ Clock and so on. If it takes 12 sec. to strike at 4 O’ Clock,
how much time will it take to strike at 8 O’ Clock?
a) 20 sec b) 22 sec c) 28 sec d) 30 sec
5. What is the angle between the hands of a clock when the time is 7 hours and 20 minutes?
a) 110o b) 90o c) 120o d) 100o
6. What is the angle between the hands of a clock when time is 10 hours and 10 minutes?
a) 95o b) 105o c) 115o d) 125o
7. In a day,
(i) For how many times will the hands be at the same position?
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 22
(ii) For how many times will the hands be pointing to opposite directions?
a) 11 b) 12 c) 22 d) 24
(iii) For how many times will the hands be perpendicular to each other?
a) 44 b) 45 c) 46 d) 48
(iv) For how many times will the angle between the hands be 150 o?
a) 48 b) 46 c) 44 d) 42
8. Between 8 O’clock and 9 o’clock

(i) at what will the hands be at the same position?
a) 8:40 b) 8:42 8/11 c) 8.43 7/11 d) 8:44 6/11
(ii) at what time will be hands be pointing to the opposite direction?
a) 8:11 9/11 b) 8:10 10/11 c) 8:06 4/11 d) 8:09 1/11
(iii) at what time will the angle between the hands be 50o ?
a) 8:34 6/11 b) 8:52 8/11 c) 8:41 9/11 d) Both (a) & (b)
(vi) at what time the hand be in right angle position?
a) 8:27 3/11 b) 9:00 c) 8:42 6/11 d) Both (a) & (b)
9. A clock is set right at 8 am. The clock gains 10 min in 24 hours. What will be the true time when the clock
indicates 1 pm on the following day?
a) 11:48 b) 12:48 c) 1:10 d) 1:48
10. A clock set right at 5 am. The clock looses 16 min in 24 hours. What will be the true time, when the clock
indicates 10 pm on the 4th day?
a) 9 pm b) 10 pm c) 11 pm d) 12 pm
11. Clock A gains 2 min per hour and Clock B loses 3 min per hour. They are set correct time at 12 O’ Clock.
What is the time difference between the time shown by the clocks after 36 hours?
a) 3 hours b) 3.6 hours c) 4 hours d) 4.8 hours
12. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at an interval of 65 minutes of correct time. How
much a day does the clock gain?
a) 10 & 10/143 min b) 8 & 3/143 min c) 11 & 109/121 d) 10 min
13. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand in every 66 minutes. How much time will the clock
lose or gain when the clock runs for 24 hours?
a) 6 min b) 12 min c) 24 min d) 48 min
CLOCKS
1. If a clock shows 9:30, what time does it show in

the mirror?
a) 3:30 b) 2:30 c) 1:30 d) 4:30
sol ) Actual Time = 12—Mirror Time =12—9.30

=2.30
2. A boy observes the reflection of wall clock in a

mirror. The time observed by the boy in the
mirror is 3:45. What is the time shown in the
clock?
a) 9:15 b) 7:15 c) 8:30 d) 8:15
sol ) Mirror Time = 12— Actual Time =12—

3.45=8.15
3. A clock strikes once at 1 O’ clock, twice at 2 O’

clock and so on. What is the total number of
strikes in a day?
a) 78 b) 156 c) 100 d) 312
sol ) Ans= 2 ( 1+2+3+..........+12 ) = (2*12*13
)/2 =156
4. A clock strikes once at 1 O’ Clock, twice at 2 O’

Clock and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike
at 4 O’ Clock, how much time will it take to
strike at 8 O’ Clock?
a) 20 sec b) 22 sec c) 28 sec d) 30
sec
sol ) To strike 4, i.e for 3 gaps time taken =12 sec

Therefore to strike 8, i.e for 7 gaps time
taken = ?
So answer is 28 seconds
5. What is the angle between the hands of a clock

when the time is 7 hours and 20 minutes?
a) 110o b) 90o c) 120o d) 100o
sol ) To find the angle between the hands we use

the formula, θ = | (11/2) m – 30 h |
=| (11/2) 20 – 30*7 |
= 100 degree
( OR )
Angle made by the minute hand in 20 minutes

= 20 *6 =120 degree
Angle made by the hour hand in 7 hours 20
minutes = 7 (1/3 ) * 30 = 220 degree
So the positive difference = 100 degree
6. What is the angle between the hands of a clock

when time is 10 hours and 10 minutes?
a) 95o b) 105o c) 115o d) 125o
sol)
θ = | (11/2) m – 30 h |
= | (11/2) 10 – 30*10 |
= 245 degree, i.e Answer = 360 –245
=115o
7. In a day,
(i) For how many times will the hands be at
the same position?
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 22
(ii) For how many times will the hands be
pointing to opposite directions?
a) 11 b) 12 c) 22 d) 24
(iii) For how many times will the hands be
perpendicular to each other?
a) 44 b) 45 c) 46 d) 48
(iv) For how many times will the angle
between the hands be 150o?
a) 48 b) 46 c) 44 d) 42
sol ) (i) Ans = 22

(ii) Ans = 22
(iii Ans = 44
(iv) Ans = 44
8. Between 8 O’clock and 9 o’clock

(i) at what will the hands be at the same
position?
a) 8:40 b) 8:42 8/11 c) 8.43 7/11
d) 8:44 6/11
(ii) at what time will be hands be pointing to
the opposite direction?
a) 8:11 9/11 b) 8:10 10/11 c) 8:06 4/11
d) 8:09 1/11
(iii) at what time will the angle between the

hands be 50o ?
a) 8:34 6/11 b) 8:52 8/11 c) 8:41 9/11
d) Both (a) & (b)
(vi) at what time the hand be in right angle

position?
a) 8:27 3/11 b) 9:00 c) 8:42 6/11
d) Both (a) & (b)
sol ) Between 8 O’clock to 9 o’clock , h=8 &

minutes = m (say )
(i) same position means angle between the
hands = 0 degree
i.e | (11/2) m – 30 h | = 0
| (11/2) m – 30 * 8 | = 0,
implies m= 480/11 =43 7/11
So Ans = 8.43 7/11
(ii) opposite direction means angle between the

hands = 180 degree
i.e | (11/2) m – 30 h | = 180
| (11/2) m – 30 * 8 | =
180
(11/2) m – 240 ) =
+180 or (11/2) m – 240 ) = --180
So m= 840/11 or 120/11
i,e m= 76 4/11 or 10 10/11
Therefore Answer = 8. 10
10/11
(iii) Given | (11/2) m – 30 h | = 50
| (11/2) m – 30 * 8 | = 50
(11/2) m –240 ) = +50

or (11/2) m – 240 ) = --50
So m= 580/11 or 380/11
i,e m= 52 8/11 or 34 6/11
Therefore Answer = 8:52 8/11

or 8:34 6/11
(vi) right angle direction means angle between the

hands = 90 degree
i.e | (11/2) m – 30 h | = 90
| (11/2) m – 30 * 8 | =90
(11/2) m – 240 ) =
+90 or (11/2) m – 240 ) = --90
So m= 42 6/11 or27
3/11 , implies Answer = 8:27 3/11 or 8:42 6/11
9. A clock is set right at 8 am. The clock gains 10

min in 24 hours. What will be the true time
when the clock indicates 1 pm on the following
day?
a) 11:48 b) 12:48 c) 1:10 d) 1:48
sol) Gain in 24 hours = 10 minutes

Therefore gain in 29 hours = 12 minutes
(roughly )
So Answer = 1 pm –12 minutes = 12.48
10. A clock set right at 5 am. The clock looses 16

min in 24 hours. What will be the true time,
when the clock indicates 10 pm on the 4th day?
a) 9 pm b) 10 pm c) 11 pm d) 12 pm
sol) Loss in 24 hours = 16 minutes

Therefore loss in 89 hours = 16+16+16+12
=60 min (since 89 hours = 24+24+24+18
hours )
So Answer = 10 pm + 1 hour = 11 pm
11. Clock A gains 2 min per hour and Clock B

loses 3 min per hour. They are set correct time
at 12 O’ Clock. What is the time difference
between the time shown by the clocks after 36
hours?
a) 3 hours b) 3.6 hours c) 4 hours
d) 4.8 hours
sol ) Given time difference between the 2 clocks

in 1 hour = 2 – (-3 ) =5 minutes
Thereforetime difference between the 2
clocks in 36 hours = 36 *5 =180 minutes = 3
hours
12. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the

hour hand at an interval of 65 minutes of correct
time. How much a day does the clock gain?
a) 10 & 10/143 min b) 8 & 3/143 min
c) 11 & 109/121 d) 10 min
NOTE:In a correct clock the gap between any 2

coincides is 1-05 5/11 minutes i.e 65 5/11
minutes.
If the hands of the clock coincide before this
65 5/11 minutes then we say the clock is
running fast or it is gaining the time. ( or ) If
the hands of the clock coincide after 65 5/11
minutes then we say the clock is running slow
or it is losing the time.
sol ) Gain in 65 minutes = 65 5/11 – 65 = 5/11

minutes
Therefore gain in a day, i.e 24 * 60 minutes
=?
i.e ( 5/11 *
24 *60 ) / 65 = 1440/143 =10 10/143 minutes
13. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the

hour hand in every 66 minutes. How much time
will the clock loose when the clock runs for 24
hours?
a) 6 min b) 12 min c) 24 min d) 48 min
sol ) Lossin 66 minutes = 66 – 65 5/11 = 6/11
minutes
Therefore loss in a day, i.e 24 * 60 minutes =
?
i.e ( 6/11 *
24 *60 ) / 66 = 1440/121 =11 19/121 =12 minutes
(approx )
NETWORKS (CAT 2006) SET1
A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below. Points A,
B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees
for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.
Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of travelling is
the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them.
Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes. The government can control the flow of
traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using
junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs 14 (i.e. Rs 9 + Rs 5) plus the toll charged at junction A.
Q1) If the government wants to ensure that all motorists travelling from S to T pay the same amount (fuel costs
and toll combined) regardless of the route they choose and the street from B to C is under repairs (and hence
unusable), then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this
goal is:
(1) 2, 5, 3, 2
(2) 0, 5, 3, 1
(3) 1, 5, 3, 2
(4) 2, 3, 5, 1
(5) 1, 3, 5, 1
Q2) If the government wants to ensure that no traffic flows on the street from D to T, while equal amount of traffic
flows through junctions A and C, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D
respectively to achieve this goal is:
(1) 1, 5, 3, 3
(2) 1, 4, 4, 3
(3) 1, 5, 4, 2
(4) 0, 5, 2, 3
(5) 0, 5, 2, 2
Q3) If the government wants to ensure that all routes from S to T get the same amount of traffic, then a feasible set
of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
(1) 0, 5, 2, 2
(2) 0, 5, 4, 1
(3) 1, 5, 3, 3
(4) 1, 5, 3, 2
(5) 1, 5, 4, 2
Q4) If the government wants to ensure that the traffic at S gets evenly distributed along streets from S to A, from S
to B, and from S to D, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to
achieve this goal is:
(1) 0, 5, 4, 1
(2) 0, 5, 2, 2
(3) 1, 5, 3, 3
(4) 1, 5, 3, 2
(5) 0, 4, 3, 2
Q5) The government wants to devise a toll policy such that the total cost to the commuters per trip is minimized.
The policy should also ensure that not more than 70 per cent of the total traffic passes through junction B. The cost
incurred by the commuter travelling from point S to point T under this policy will be:
(1) Rs 7
(2) Rs 9
(3) Rs 10
(4) Rs 13
(5) Rs 14
Solutions
First, find which all routes are possible.

SAT, SBCT, SBAT, SDT, SDCT are the routes possible.
Let a, b, c, d be the tolls levied at A, B, C, and D respectively.

So the cost for different routes are:
SAT = 14 + a
SBCT = 7 + b + c
SBAT = 9 + b + a
SDT = 13 + d
SDCT = 10 + d + c.
Q# 1,
SBCT route is not possible as it is under repairs.
Total cost of all the other routes should be same.
So, 14 + a = 9 + b + a = 13 + d = 10 + d + c
14 + a = 9 + b + a. So, b = 5
13 + d = 10 + d + c. So, c = 3
14 + a = 13 + d. So, d – a = 1.
There are 2 options with the same answer. Any one is fine.
Q#2,
SDT route is not possible, and total cost of other routes should be same.
So, 14 + a = 7 + b + c = 9 + b + a = 10 + d + c
Solving as above, we get, b = 5.
7 + b + c = 10 + d + c. ----> 7 + b = 10 + d. So, d = 2.
Also, 14 + a = 12 + c (after d = 2 substitution)
So, we have b = 5, d = 2, c – a = 2.
Find the option.
Q# 3,
All routes have same cost.
So, 14 + a = 7 + b + c = 9 + b+ a = 13 + d = 10 + d + c.
We get b = 5, d = 2 (like above)
If d = 2, a =1, and finally, we get c = 3.
Q#4,
Equal traffic from S to A,B and D. However, through B&D, there is more than 1 way, from which the commuter
can choose. We can restrict them to move through 1 way from B&D if we increase the toll in C. So that passengers
move through the route without “C” junction involved. So, the routes involved will be SAT, SBAT, SDT, and the
tolls of these should be same.
14 + a = 9 + b + a = 13 + d.
b = 5, d – a = 1. We can keep a = 0 and d = 1. (As the options have value of a = 0/1 only, and if a = 1, d = 2 which
is not there in option)
So, we have a = 0, b = 5, d = 1. (We can stop the solution here, as we have only 1 option satisfying this).
If you need to find value of C,
We know that SBAT < SBCT, so, 14 < 12 + c. c >2.
Also, SDT < SDCT, so 14 < 11 + c. So, c > 3.
Hence c > 3.
Q# 5,
The least expense route is SBCT, if without toll, cost is 7.
However, if we do not keep toll, 100% traffic will flow through B, which is not possible.
The next highest cost route is SDCT which is 10Rs.
So, if we keep a toll in B for 3rs, then traffic will split 50-50 between SBCT and SDCT, and the total cost of the
journey will be 10rs.
SELECTIONS (CAT 2006) SET 2
K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, U and W are the only ten members in a department. There is a proposal to form a team from
within the members of the department, subject to the following conditions:
A team must include exactly one among P, R, and S.

A team must include either M or Q, but not both.
If a team includes K, then it must also include L, and vice versa.
If a team includes one among S, U, and W, then it must also include the other two.
L and N cannot be members of the same team.
L and U cannot be members of the same team.
The size of a team is defined as the number of members in the team.
Q1) What could be the size of a team that includes K?

(1) 2 or 3
(2) 2 or 4
(3) 3 or 4
(4) Only 2
(5) Only 4
Q2) In how many ways a team can be constituted so that the team includes N?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4)5
(5) 6
Q3) What would be the size of the largest possible team?
(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 5
(5) Cannot be determined
Q4) Who can be a member of a team of size 5?

(1) K
(2) L
(3) M
(4) P
(5) R
Q5) Who cannot be a member of a team of size 3?
(1) L
(2) M
(3) N
(4) P
(5) Q
SOLUTION
Team comprises
Exactly one among P,R,S

Exactly one among M,Q
K<->L
S<->U<->W
L ** N
L ** U
Q#1,
One among P,R,S
One among M,Q
If K is there, L should be there.
If L is there, we cannot have N and U.
If we cannot have U, we cannot have S & W.
So, only possible team is

P/R
M/Q
K
L
Q#2,
Includes N.
So no L, hence no K.
One among P,R,S and one among M,Q
If S is there, then U and W should be there.
So, the possible teams are
P,M,N
P,Q,N
R,M,N
R,Q,N
S,U,W,M,N
S,U,W,Q,N
Q#3,
Largest possible team – we know 1 among P,R,S and 1 among M,Q.
We cannot select P,R and we will not be able to select U,W (who comes only with S)
So we have S,U,W and 1 among M/Q.
Since U is there, we cannot have L and hence no K.
We can have N in the team.
So the team will be S, U, W, M/Q, N. Totally 5 members.
Q#4,
As explained in the earlier question, team of 5 includes S,U,Q, M/Q, N
Q# 5,
Team of size 3 means S,U,W is not there ( as M/Q should be there in the team).
We can have P/R as 1 member.
We can have M/Q as the 2nd member.
We cannot have K and L, as they need to be together, and it makes the team strength a minimum of 4.
The 3rd member can be N.
ARRANGEMENT (CAT 2008) SET 3
There are three houses on each side of the road.

These six houses are labeled as P, Q, R, S, T and U.
The houses are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.
The houses are of different heights.
T, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured house.
The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Green coloured house.
U, the Orange coloured house, is located between P and S.
R, the Yellow coloured house, is exactly opposite to P.
Q, the Green coloured house, is exactly opposite to U.
P, the White coloured house, is taller than R, but shorter than S and Q.
Q1) What is the colour of the tallest house?

(1) Red
(2) Blue
(3) Green
(4) Yellow
(5) none of these
Q2) What is the colour of the house diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured house?
(1) White
(2) Blue
(3) Green
(4) Red
(5) none of these
Q3) Which is the second tallest house?

(1) P
(2) S
(3) Q
(4) R
(5) cannot be determined
Read the question fully and thoroughly, work on the “fixed” details first, and then the lesser known details, more
importantly, work on 1 set of clues a time. i.e. Do not mix colors with height and assign to houses. 1st try to
arrange the houses, then set the color, and then the height.
We know, U is between P & S. So, P,U,S are in one side.
RQT on the other side. R is opposite to P, Q is opposite to U. So T is opposite to S.
Houses can be arranged as (It can be in the reverse order also, but it makes no difference)
Now, let us set the colors:

U = Orange, P = White, Q = Green, R = Yellow.
T is tallest and opposite to Red colored house. So S is red colored house.
Hence, T is Blue.
Now the height :
T is tallest.
P is taller than R, but shorter than S & Q.
U is shortest.
Now, all the questions can be answered. :-)

GAMES & TOURNAMENTS (CAT 2008)
In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two
stages. Each team plays three matches in Stage-I and two matches in Stage-II. No team plays against the same
team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the
completion of Stage-I and Stage-II are as given below.
Stage - I:
One team won all the three matches.
Two teams lost all the matches.
D lost to A but won against C and F.
E lost to B but won against C and F.
B lost at least one match.
F did not play against the top team of Stage- I.
Stage - II:
The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.
Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
One more team lost both matches in Stage- II.
Q1) The team(s) with the most wins in the event is (are):
(1) A
(2) A & C
(3) F
(4) E
(5) B & E
Q2) The two teams that defeated the leader of Stage-I are:
(1) F & D
(2) E & F
(3) B & D
(4) E & D
(5) F & D
Q3) The only team(s) that won both the matches in Stage-II is (are):
(1) B
(2) E & F
(3) A, E & F
(4) B, E & F
(5) B & F
Q4) The teams that won exactly two matches in the event are:
(1) A, D & F
(2) D & E
(3) E & F
(4) D, E & F
(5) D & F
Read the question fully and thoroughly, solve the 1st round first, and then follow to the second round. Take 1 clue
at a time and work at it, starting with the fixed “given” details first.
Let’s work on the first round:
D – A – Won by A
D – C – Won by D
D – F – Won by D
E – B – Won by B
E – C – Won by E
E – F – Won by E
Now, we know that 1 team won all the 3 matches. It cannot be D, E, C, and F as they already lost. Also, the clue
says B lost at least 1 match. So A won all the 3 matches.
Also, we know that 2 teams have lost all their matches in the 1st round. Since A,D,B,E have already won, C&F are
the teams who lost all their matches.
Till now, we know:
D & E – played 3 matches
C & F – played 2 matches
A & B – played 1 match.
C cannot play against F, as C & F have to lose all their matches and hence they cannot play against each other.
This leaves F playing against A or B, but F does not play against the table topper (A), and so F plays against B and
C plays against A. So we have
B – F – Won by B
A – C – Won by A
Now we have only 1 match of A and B pending, and it is A vs B, won by A.
So the matches in stage 1 are:
D – A – Won by A
D – C – Won by D
D – F – Won by D
E – B – Won by B
E – C – Won by E
E – F – Won by E
B – F – Won by B
A – C – Won by A
A – B – Won by A.
Now, to stage 2:
A lost both its matches in stage 2 (leader of stage 1 is A)
A – F -> Won by F
A – E -> Won by E.
Out of 2 teams in bottom after stage 1 (C&F), 1 team won both matches, while the other lost the 2 matches. F has
already won 1 match against A. So F wins both matches, and C loses.
F – C -> Won by F
C – B -> Won by B
One more team loses both matches in stage 2. We see that E, F, B has already won at least 1 match. So D has to
lose both its matches in the next round.
D – B -> B
D – E -> E.
So, stage 2 has
A – F -> Won by F
A – E -> Won by E.
F – C -> Won by F
C – B -> Won by B
D – B -> Won by B
D – E -> Won by E.
So, the final table will look like:

All the questions can be answered now.
Rules to solve Crypt arithmetic Questions
1. Each letter should have a unique and distinct value.

2. Each letter represents only one digit throughout the problem.
3. Numbers must not begin with zero. i.e. 0937 (wrong), 937 (correct).
4. You have to find the value of each letter in the Crypt arithmetic.
5. There must be only one solution to the problem.
6. After replacing letters by their digits, the resulting arithmetic operations must be correct.
So, the problem is to find the unique digit corresponding to a unique letter.
Five examples have been discussed ,before exercises can be attempted by the student.
1. If AA + BB + CC = ABC, then what is the value of A+B+C= ?
1. 15
2. 18
3. 21
4. 12
Ans: Option 2
Explanation:
AA
+ BB
+ CC
-----------
ABC
------------
The digits are distinct and positive. Let’s first focus on the value A, when we add three 2 digit numbers the
most you get is in the 200’s (ex: AA + BB + CC = ABC ie, 99 + 88 + 77 = 264). From this, we can tell that
the largest value of A can be 2. So Either A = 1 or A = 2.
Now focus on value B, let’s take the unit digit of the given question: A + B +C = C (units). This can
happen only if A + B = 0 (in the units) ie,Aand B add up to 10.
Two possibilities: 11 + 99 + CC = 19C (1) or 22 + 88 + CC = 28C (2)
Take equation (2), 110 + CC = 28C
Focus on ten’s place, 1 + C = 8, here C = 7. Then 22 + 88 + 77 = 187
Thus, Equation (2) is not possible, because RHS of equation 2 will then be 287, a contradiction.
From Equation (1), 11+99+CC = 19C , 110 + CC =19C à 1 + C = 9, then C = 8.
11 + 99 + 88 = 198 , hence solved A = 1, B = 9 and C = 8
A + B + C = 18
Answer is 18
2. HERE = COMES – SHE, (Assume S = 8). Find the value of R + H + O.
1. 15
2. 18
3. 14
4. 12
Ans: Option 3
Explanation:
HERE = COMES – SHE which can also be written as HERE + SHE = COMES
HERE
+ SHE
------------
COMES
------------
Focus on unit digit first ,E + E = S = 8,2E = 8, therefore E=4.
Focus on E + S , both are single digit numbers.
When you add them carry can be 0 or maximum 1.
Now focus on H added to carry in the previous step should give a 5 digit answer.
This means there has to be a carry while adding E & S and it has to be 1,hence H should be 9 and O = 0.
(By now we also know that E + S = 4 + 8 = 12,hence 1 will be the carry)
So, 94R4 + 8H4 = 10M48
Now R + H should give 4 as unit digit. As H is 9,R should be 5.
R + H will give a carry = 1, Hence E + S + carry = M,4 + 8 + 1 = 13,hence M = 3
Therefore C = 1, O = 0, H = 9, S = 8, E=4 , R = 5 & M= 3
THUS R + H + O = 5 + 9 + 0 = 14
Answer is 14
3. N O + G U N + N O = H U N T, find the value of HUNT.
1. 1082
2. 1802
3. 1208
4. 1280
Ans: Option 1
Explanation:
NO
+ GUN
+ NO
-------------
HUNT
-------------
The answer is a 4 digit number.
Carry from N,U,N column has to be there, at least 1, maximum 2.
G + Carry, should be a 2 digit number to arrive at HU as the digits
This means G can be 8 or 9,depending on the carry.
8 + 2 = 10 =HU or 9 + 1 = 10 = HU or 9 + 2 = 11 = HU (this will give both H = 1 & U = 1 which can be
ruled out), this means H = 1 & U = 0.
Since U has to be 0,carry from N,U,N column should be 1,which means G should be 9.
Now consider N + U + N = N + carry (which is 1), but U = 0,
So N + N = N + Carry(which is 1),N can only take values from 5 to 9.
5 + 5 = 10
6 + 6 = 12
7 + 7 = 14
8 + 8 = 16
9 + 9 = 18
Now carry from O,N,O column when added to the above numbers should give same value of N, as
shown below
N N+N CARRY = 1 N+N+! Carry = 2 N + N +2
5 10 1 11 2 12
6 12 1 13 2 14
7 14 1 15 2 16
8 16 1 16 2 18
9 18 1 19 2 20
From above table N = 8 with carry 2 gives 18 & N = 9 with carry 1 ,gives 19. But N cannot be 9 ,because
G is already 9. So N = 8. & carry from O,N.O column must be 2.
So O + N + 0 = 2 (tens digit) and some unit digit which is T.
Since N = 8, If O = 6 ,we get O + N + O = 20,so carry 2,but T cannot be zero.
If O=7, O + N + O = 22,carry 2, T = 2 which is possible.
O cannot take 8 & 9 as it will violate crypt arithmetic rules.
HENCE : H=1,U=0,N=8,T = 2,O = 7,G=9
So HUNT = 1082
Answer is 1082
4. MAC + MAAR = JOCKO, find the value of 3A + 2M + 2C.
1. 31
2. 36
3. 33
4. 38
Ans: Option 1
Explanation:
MAC
+ MAAR
------------------
JOCKO
------------------
Here J is carry, J=1 when J=1, O=0 with carry 1 and M=9
C+R=O, & O= 0 with carry 1. So possibilities are
2 + 8, 3 + 7, 4 + 6
If C = 2, then A = 3, because M + A = C with carry one, .K = 7 & R = 8
Hence 3A + 2M + 2C = 3x3 + 2 x 9 + 2 x 2 = 9 + 18 + 4
{For 3 + 7 & 4 + 6 combination, rules of crypt arithmetic get violated}
Answer is 31
5.If POINT + ZERO = ENERGY, then E + N + E + R + G + Y = ?
1. 17
2. 13
3. 19
4. 18
Ans: Option 1
Explanation:
P O I N T
+ Z E R O
-----------------------------
E N E R G Y
-----------------------------
From the given data, the value of E will be 1 because it is the only carry-over possible from sum of 2
single digit number. E = 1, P = 9, N = 0, and N + R = G, 0 + R = G but R = G not possible. 1 + R = G
possible. So R and G are consecutive. G > R. 1 + I = R, so I and R are consecutive. R > I. i.e., G > R > I.
and G, R, I are consecutive. Now O + T should give carry over and O + Z also give carry over. So O is
bigger number. Now take values for G, R, I as 8, 7, 6 or 7, 6, 5 etc. and do trial and error. POINT =
98504, ZERO = 3168 and ENERGY = 101672. So E + N + E + R + G + Y = 1 + 0 + 1 + 6 + 7 +2 = 17
Answer is 17
NOTE : WHILE MATHEMATICAL SKILLS CAN GIVE YOU A CLUE TO THE ANSWER,CRYPT ARITHMETIC
INVOLVES A TRIAL & ERROR PROCEDURE AT SOME POINT IN TIME TO ARRIVE AT THE FINAL RESULT.
EXERCISES FOR CRYPT ARITHMETIC (Answer options marked in RED colour)
1. If YOUR + YOU = HEART (Assume O = 4). Find the value of Y + U +R +E?

(A)15 (B)16 (C)17 (D)18
2. If TOM + NAG = GOAT Value of G + O + A + T is ?

(A)15 (B)12 (C)14 (D)Cannot be determined
3. If EVER + SINCE = DARWIN then D + A + R + W + I + N is?

(A) 24 (B) 23 (C)22 (D)21
4. If E A T + T H A T = A P P L E, what is the value of A + T + L = ?

(A) 12 (B)13 (C)14 (D)15
5. If BANANA + GUAVA = ORANGE, thenO + R + A + N + G + E = ?

(A) 31 (B) 30 (C) 29 (D) 28
Deductive Reasoning (Syllogisms)
We will be dealing only with Venn diagram approach in arriving at meaningful conclusions from the given
set of statements or premises.
When the statements has a quantifier some we use “X” and in other cases we shade the region as shown
above.
Points to note:
When ALL S are P, every S is contained in P,so we shade that part of S that is not P,as shown above.
When NO S is P,We shade the intersection of the two sets.
Shaded region indicates no element is present in that region.

Whenever we encounter the word SOME, we use a X in the venn diagram to represent at least one
element is common to both sets or at least one element is not common to both sets in case of SOME
NOT.
Follow the you tube link given below where the method is explained in detail.
USING VENN DIAGRAMS TO TEST FOR VALIDITY.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rcyeHdx0Qv4
EXAMPLES:
Directions to Solve
In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by
two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give answer:
 (A) If only (1) conclusion follows
 (B) If only (2) conclusion follows
 (C) If either (1) or (2) follows
 (D) If neither (1) nor (2) follows and
 (E) If both (1) and (2) follow.
1. Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
1. Some actors are dancers.
2. No singer is actor.
A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B.Only (2) conclusion follows
C.Either (1) or (2) follows
D.Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E.Both (1) and (2) follow
Note : In this method we always represent the universal statement first on the venn diagram by carriying out the
shading & then represent the particular statement by showing the X mark.
First mark “ALL SINGERS ARE DANCERS” The next statement is “SOME ACTORS ARE DANCERS” Note that we have
shown this using “X” in that place of S∩A that is not shaded.
Hence first conclusion “SOME ACTORS ARE DANCERS “ can be easily verified. There is a X mark in A∩D.
Second conclusion is “NO SINGER IS ACTOR” means S∩A should be fully shaded ,which is not true.
Hence only conclusion 1 follows
2.Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes.
Conclusions:
1. All the flutes are instruments.
2. All the harmoniums are flutes.
3.
A.Only (1) conclusion follows
We shade the regions in the Venn diagram based on the given premises.
Conclusion 1 is ‘ALL FLUTES ARE INSTRUMENTS”, this means set FLUTES has to be shaded fully excluding portion
F∩I,which is not the case.
Conclusion 2 is ALL HARMONIUMS ARE FLUTES,Harmonium set is fully shaded and H∩F too partly.
Conclusion 2 follows.
3.Statements: NO A is B. NO B is C.
Conclusions:
4. Some B’s are C’s
5. All A’s are C’S
A.Only (1) conclusion follows
The regions corresponding to NO A Is B and NO B is C are shaded.
By convention, a shaded portion indicates that the region is empty. This implies first conclusion is not possible.
Second conclusion is All A’s are C’s, which means every A is contained in C and it should be fully shaded which is
not the case.
Hence option D is the answer.
4. Statements: All green are blue. All blue are white.

Conclusions:
1. Some blue are green.
2. Some white are green.
3. Some green are not white.
4. All white are blue.
5.
A.Only (1) and (2)
B.Only (1) and (3)
C.Only (1) and (4)
D.Only (2) and (4)
We shade the regions as stated in the premise.
Conlusion (1) SOME BLUE ARE GREEN ,is right because a portion of GREEN ∩ BLUE is unshaded.
Conclusion (2) SOME WHITE ARE GREEN is right because a portion of GREEN ∩ WHITE is unshaded.
Conclusion (3) SOME GREEN ARE NOT WHITE is not possible because one portion of GREEN ∩ WHITE is shaded
which means there is nothing in it and another portion of GREEN ∩ WHITE is unshaded which means SOME WHITE
ARE GREEN and Vice Versa
Conclusion (4) is not possible because if ALL WHITE ARE BLUE,WHITE should be shaded excluding BLUE∩WHITE
which is not the case.
5.Statements: All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates.

Conclusions:
1. All men are mammals.
2. All mammals are men.
3. Some vertebrates are mammals.
4. All vertebrates are men.
5.
A.Only (4)
B.Only (2)
C.Only (3)
D.Only (1)
E.Only (1) and (3)
We first shade the statement ALL MEN ARE VERTEBRATES.
For the next statement “SOME VERTEBRATES ARE MAMMALS”, we put a X in the region of VERTEBRATES ∩
MAMMAL. Point to note is where do you put the cross in that region .Since we cant decide conclusively we put it
on the arc that divides the region of intersection into two parts.
Let us examine the conclusions:
6. 1.All men are mammals. :

7. Not possible, The intersection of men & vertebrates excluding Mammals is not shaded.
8. 2.All mammals are men.
9. Not possible, Mammals set is not shaded.
10. 3.Some vertebrates are mammals.
11. Possible, the X indicates that & the region is not shaded
12. 4.All vertebrates are men.
13. Vertebrates set is not shaded. Not possible.
14. Hence the result.
15.
6. Statements: No A’s are B’s . Some B’s are C’s.
Conclusions:
3. Some C’s are not A’s
4. Some A’s are not C’s
A. Only (1) conclusion follows
We shade A∩B and then mark X in the unshaded portion of B∩C.
Conclusion 1 follows because there is one C which is not A.

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SEMESTER VI

CAREER DEVELOPMENT CENTRE

Here, we shall practice learning words through some activities.

Which sentence do you think sounds better?

Let’s replace that with

These are few examples

precise, exact, unimpeachable, perfect,

Rewrite the following words using describing words

1. Is an egoist selfish? YES / NO

Write S for same, O for opposite and D for different

1. Apprise ................ inform

Match the following

1. Notorious a. beyond reform

1. Disparage a. flatter lavishly

4. her ICONOCLASTIC phase:

10. POSTHUMOUS child:

12. Shows PERSPICACITY:

13. An unpopular MARTINET:

14. GREGARIOUS person:

15. Generally PHLEGMATIC:

16. An INVETERATE gambler:

17. An EGREGIOUS error:

18. CACOPHONY of a large city:

20. UXORIOUS husband:

From inference to meaning

1. With a big smile and a warm hug, my uncle greeted me .

Berate Derogatory Embroiled

From inference to meaning

A. work harder than people from other generations.

3. Should girls play boys' sports?

1. Statement: Should vacations of court judges be reduced?

A. If only argument I is strong

2. Statement: Should non-vegetarian food be totally banned in our country?

A. Only argument I is strong

A. Only argument I is strong

A. Only argument I is strong

A. Only argument I is strong

Situation Reaction Test

A. Jump out quickly to avoid embarrassment

A. Opportunities for promotion

A. Try to run away from the spot immediately

Statement and Conclusion

A. If only conclusion I follows

A. Only conclusion I follows

A. if only Conclusion I follows

A. Only conclusion I follows

5. Statement: Vegetable prices are soaring in the market

A. if only conclusion I follows

Evaluating Courses of Action

A. If only conclusion I follows

A. If only conclusion I follows

5. Statement: Many people in city Y are suffering from flu.

IV. SENTENCE CORRECTION

A) DBACE B) ECDBA C) ABDCE D) EBDCA

A. BCEAD B.CBAED C. DACEB D. ADCEB

A. ECDAB B.BAECD C. DACEB D.DBAEC

A. ECDAB B. BAECD C. DACEB D. DEACB

A. ACEBD B. CAEDB C. DEABC D. BADEC

A. EBDAC B. DBAEC C. BCDEA D. CADBE

A. AEDBC B. ABCED C. ACDEB D. ABDEC