IOT Questions and Answers – IP Address

« Prev
Next »
This set of IOT Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IP Address”.

1. What is the format of IP address?

a) 34 bit
b) 64 bit
c) 16 bit
d) 32 bit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The format of an IP address is a 32-bit numeric address written as four
numbers separated by periods. Each number can be zero to 255. For example,
1.160.10.240 could be an IP address.

2. Version 6 of IP address has how many bits.

a) 64 bits
b) 128 bits
c) 32 bits
d) 256 bits
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Because of the growth of the Internet and the depletion of available IPV4
address, a new version of IP(IPV6), using 128 nits for the IP address, was developed in
1995, and standardized as RFC 2460 in 1998. IPV6 deployment has been ongoing since
the mid 2000s.

3. IANA stands for __________

a) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority
b) Internal Assigned Numbers Authority
c) Internet Associative Numbers Authoritative
d) Internal Associative Numbers Authority
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The IP address space is managed globally by the Internet Assigned Numbers
Authority(IANA), and by five Regional Internet Registries(RIR) responsible in their
designated territories for assignment to end users and local Internet registries, such as
Internet services providers.

4. RIR stands for ________

a) Regional Internal Registries
b) Registries Internet Regional
c) Regional Internet Registries
d) Registries Internal Regional
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The IP address space is managed globally by the Internet Assigned Numbers
Authority(IANA), and by five Regional Internet Registries(RIR) responsible in their
designated territories for assignment to end users and local Internet registries, such as
Internet services providers.

5. Geolocation software is used by host.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The header of each IP packet contains the IP address of the sending host, and
that of the destination host. A host may use geolocation software to deduce the geolocation
of it communication peer.

6. How many version /s of IP’s are there?

a) 4 versions
b) 3 versions
c) 2 versions
d) 1 version
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Two versions of the Internet Protocol are in common use in the Internet today.
The original version of the Internet Protocol for use in the Internet is Internet Protocol
Version 4, first installed in 1983.

7. VLSM stands for ________

a) Version Length Subnet Masking
b) Variable Length Subnet Masking
c) Variable Length Surface Masking
d) Version Length Surface Masking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The class system of the address space was replaced with Classless Inter –
Domain Routing in 1993. CIDR is based on variable length Subnet Masking to allow
allocation and routing based on arbitrary length prefixes.

8. Many desktops and operating systems include which protocol?

a) IPv6 protocol
b) IPv4 protocol
c) Both IPv6 and IPv4 protocol
d) IPv3 protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All modern desktop and enterprise server operating systems include native
support for the IPv6 protocol, but it is not yet widely deployed in other devices, such as
residential networking routers, voice over IP(VoIP) and multimedia equipment, and network
peripherals.

9. The design of the Internet protocol suites adhere to the ________ principle.
a) Data corruption
b) Connection oriented
c) End to End principle
d) Reliability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The design of the Internet protocol suite adheres to the end to end principle, a
concept adapted from the CYCLADES project. Under the end to end principle, the network
infrastructure is considered inherently unreliable at any signal network element or
transmission medium and is dynamic in terms of availability of links and notes.

10. ___________ adjusts the segment size to be smaller than MTU.

a) Internet Protocol 6
b) User Datagram Protocol
c) Internet Protocol 4
d) Transmission Control Protocol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Transmission Control Protocol is an example of a protocol that adjusts its
segment size to be smaller than the MTU.

IOT Questions and Answers – MAC Address

« Prev
Next »
This set of IOT Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “MAC Address”.

1. Hardware address is known as _________

a) MAC address
b) IP Address
c) Network Interface Card
d) Address Resolution Protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Along with an IP address there is also a hardware address. Typically it is tied
to a key connection device in your computer called the network interface card. Every NIC
has a hardware address that’s known as MAC, for Media Access Control.

2. MAC stands for ________

a) Media Area Control
b) Memory Access Control
c) Memory Area Control
d) Media Access Control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MAC, for Media Access Control. Where IP addresses are associated with
TCP/IP, MAC address are linked to the hardware of the network adapters.

3. What translates IP address into MAC address?

a) Organizationally Unique Identifier
b) Address Resolution Protocol
c) Network Interface Card
d) Burned In Address
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A MAC address is given to an adapter when it is manufactured. It is hardwired
or hard-coded onto your computer’s NIC and it is unique to it. Something called the ARP
(Address Resolution Protocol) translates an IP address into MAC address.

4. Networking Hardware Address is referred with ________

a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) NIC
d) Organizationally Unique Identifier
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hardware and software working together, IP address and MAC address
working together. For this reason, the MAC address is sometimes referred to as a
networking hardware address, the burned in address or the physical address.

5. Does MAC address contain characters.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The MAC address itself doesn’t look anything like an IP address. The MAC
address is a string of usually six sets of two digits or characters, separated by colons.

6. MAC addresses are very useful in diagnosing network issues.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MAC addresses are very useful in diagnosing network issues, such as
problems with IP address. They are useful for network diagnosis because they never
change, as opposed to a dynamic IP address, which can change from time to time.

7. On wireless networks ________ filtering is the security measure.

a) OUI
b) IP
c) NIC
d) MAC
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: On wireless networks, a process called MAC filtering is a security measure to
prevent unwanted network access by hackers and intruders. In MAC address filtering, the
router is configured to accept traffic only from specific MAC addresses.

8. MAC addresses are used as ________

a) Network addresses
b) IP address
c) Hardware address
d) Burned in address
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MAC address is used as a network address for most IEEE 802 network
technologies, including Ethernet and Wi-Fi. Logically, MAC addresses are used in the
media access control protocol sub layer of the OSI model.

9. IEEE standards for Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MAC addresses are formed according to the rules of one of three numbering
name spaces managed by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers(IEEE).

10. The original IEEE 802 MAC address comes from________

a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) Ethernet address
d) Http
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The original IEEE 802 MAC address comes from the original Xerox Ethernet
addressing scheme. This 48-bit address space contains potential 242 or
281,474,976,710,656 possible MAC addresses.

IOT Questions and Answers – IOT Gateway

« Prev
Next »
This set of IOT Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IOT Gateway”.

1. Gateway provides the connection between _________ and _________

a) Cloud and controller
b) Network and Cloud
c) Network and Controller
d) Controller and device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An Internet of Things (IoT) gateway is a physical device or software program
that serves as the connection point between the cloud and controller, sensors and intelligent
devices.

2. Sensors provide _______ data per second.

a) Hundreds of Hundreds of data
b) Hundreds of thousands of data
c) Tens of Hundreds of data
d) Tens of thousands of data
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sensors generate tens of thousands of data per second. Gateway processes
the data at edge and minimizes the volume of data that needs to be forwarded to cloud.

3. Does IOT gateway provide security for the network.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IOT Gateway is that it provides additional security for the IOT network and the
data it transports.

4. A sensor uses which network?

a) LAN and HAN
b) HAN and PAN
c) LAN and PAN
d) LAN, PAN and HAN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sensors usually have very limited capability in terms of networking connection.
Your sensors can likely utilize Bluetooth networking connectivity. The protocols like LAN,
HAN and PAN has a common they can directly connect to large networks like WAN or
Internet.

5. Gateway software should be smart enough to handle ___________

a) GPS
b) Message
c) Logging
d) Sensors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gateway software should be smart enough to handle system logging. It has to
find the right balance between the number of log entries d=stored on the device and those
sent to the data centre.

6. Number of approaches gateway can be installed?

a) 2 approaches
b) 3 approaches
c) 2 approaches
d) 2 approaches
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three main approaches for this issue
1. Factory Bootstrap
2. Server limited Bootstrap
3. Client Initiated Bootstrap.

7. Drawback of Factory Bootstrap?

a) It should not have many gateways
b) It should not have many devices
c) Complex circuit can’t be handled
d) It should have many gateways
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the factory bootstrap approach, it doesn’t scale well if your solution include a
large number of the gates.

8. Central software management server communicates with the gateway devices in which
approach?
a) Factory Bootstrap
b) Server limited Bootstrap
c) Client Initiated Bootstrap
d) Bootstrap
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In server initiated bootstrap, the central software management server
communicates with the gateway device and deploys the proper version of the software to it.

9. Which mode assumes that it is the gateway’s responsibility to connect to the central
repository server?
a) Factory Bootstrap
b) Server limited Bootstrap
c) Client Initiated Bootstrap
d) Bootstrap
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Client initiated bootstrap mode assumes that it is the gateway’s responsibility
to connect to the central repository server and download the proper version of the software.
In this scenario, the gateway is required to have lightweight bootstrap software installed so
it can communicate with the software management server.

10. The feature of IoT Gateway is the ability to download updates over-the-air.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One important extremely feature of IoT Gateway is the ability to download
updates over-the-air.

IOT Questions and Answers – Bootstrapping

« Prev
Next »
This set of IOT Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Bootstrapping”.

1. Bootstrap is used for __________

a) Web applications
b) IoT
c) Bigdata
d) Data
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bootstrap is a free and open source front end web framework for designing
websites and web applications.

2. It contains __________ design based templates for topography.

a) SMTP
b) HTML
c) MQTP
d) CoAP
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It contains HTML and CSS based design templates for typography, forms,
buttons, navigation and other interface components, as well as optional JavaScript
extensions.

3. Bootstrap is a front end development only.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unlike many web frameworks, it concerns with front-end development only.

4. __________ stars and __________forks are there in bootstrap.

a) 111,600 and 51,500
b) 51,500 and 111,600
c) 125,124 and 36,154
d) 36,154 and 125,124
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bootstrap is the second most starred project on GitHub, with more than
111,600 stars and 51,500 forks.

5. Bootstrap was originally named as __________

a) Twitter Bootstrap
b) Twinkle Bootstrap
c) Twitter Blueprint
d) Twinkle Blueprint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bootstrap, originally named as Twitter Blueprint, was developed by Mark Otto,
and Jacob Thornton at Twitter as a framework to encourage consistency across internal
tools.

6. Which bootstrap has twelve column responsive grid layout system?

a) Bootstrap 4
b) Bootstrap 3
c) Bootstrap 2
d) Bootstrap
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bootstrap 2 was released, which added a twelve column responsive grid layout
system, inbuilt support for Glyphicons, several new components, as well as changes to
many of the existing components.

7. Which bootstrap uses flat design?

a) Bootstrap 2
b) Bootstrap 3
c) Bootstrap 4
d) Bootstrap
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bootstrap 3 was released, which resigned components to use flat design, and
a mobile first approach.

8. Bootstrap 4 has how many versions?

a) 4 versions
b) 3 versions
c) Only one version
d) 2 versions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first alpha version of bootstrap 4 was released on august 19, 2015. The
first beta version was released on august 10 2017.

9. Do bootstrap 3 supports Google chrome.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bootstrap 3 supports the latest version of the Google Chrome, Firefox, Internet
Explorer Opera, and Safari. In additional support back to IE8 and the latest Firefox
Extended Support Release.

10. Does bootstrap 4 supports Sass and flexbox.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The version 4.0 alpha release added Sass and flexbox support.

11. __________ is used instead of less for stylesheets.

a) Hackathon
b) Grid layout
c) Flexbox
d) Sass
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sass s used instead of less for the stylesheets. Each Bootstrap component
consists of an HTML structure, CSS declaration, and in some cases accompanying
JavaScript code.

12. Sass stands for __________

a) Syntactically awesome Spreadsheets
b) Syntactically awesome Stylesheets
c) Scripting awesome Stylesheets
d) Scripting awesome Spreadsheets
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sass(Syntactically awesome Stylesheets) is a style sheet language initially
designed by Hampton Catlin and developed by Natalie Weizenbaum.

13. Grid system and responsive design come standard with __________ pixel wide grid
layout.
a) 1270
b) 1500
c) 1170
d) 1350
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Grid system and responsive design come standard with 1170 pixel wide grid
layout. Alternatively, the developer can use a variable width layout.

14. ___________ provides a set of stylesheets that provide basic style definition for HTML
components.
a) Bootstrap
b) Javascript
c) Sass
d) Flexbox
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bootstrap provides a set of stylesheets that provide basic style definition for
HTML components. These provide a uniform, modern appearance for formatting text, tables
and form elements.

15. Bootstrap uses what?

a) Pixels
b) Root ems
c) Less
d) Pager component
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bootstrap 4 is almost rewritten from Bootstrap 3. Changes include:
Switched from Less to Sass
Switched from pixel to root ems.
 Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Analyzing
Subnet Masks
« Prev
Next »
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Analyzing Subnet Masks”.

1. Which of the following is the broadcast address for a Class B network ID using the default
subnetmask?
a) 172.16.10.255
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 172.16.255.255
d) 172.255.255.255
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In this case, the class B network ID is 172.16.0.0. We know that the default
mask of a class B network is 255.255.0.0. If we OR any address in a network with the
complement of the default mask (0.0.255.255), we get the broadcast address of the
network. In this case, the result of OR would be 172.16.255.255.

2. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is

your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
a) Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
b) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
c) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
d) Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that the prefix 172 lies in class B (128 to 191) of IPv4 addresses.
From the subnet mask, we get that the class is divided into 2 subnets: 172.16.13.0 to
172.16.13.127 and 172.16.13.128 to 172.16.13.255. The IP 172.16.13.5 lies in the first
subnet. So the starting address 172.16.13.0 is the subnet address and last address
172.16.13.127 is the broadcast address.

3. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C network ID, which subnet mask would
you use?
a) 255.255.255.252
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If you have eight networks and each requires 10 hosts, you would use the
Class C mask of 255.255.255.240. Why? Because 240 in binary is 11110000, which means
you have four subnet bits and four host bits. Using our math, we’d get the following:
24-2=14 subnets
24-2=14 hosts.
4. The combination of _________ and __________ is often termed the local address of the
local portion of the IP address.
a) Network number and host number
b) Network number and subnet number
c) Subnet number and host number
d) Host number
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is termed as the local address because the address won’t be applicable
outside the subnet. Sub networking is implemented for remote sensing in transparent way
from that host which is contained in the sub network which called a local operation.

5. _________ implies that all subnets obtained from the same subnet mask.
a) Static subnetting
b) Dynamic subnetting
c) Variable length subnetting
d) Dynamic length subnetting
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Static subnetting is used when the requirement is of same number of hosts in
each subnet for the institution. The same subnet mask can be used to find the subnet id of
each subnet. It is usually used to divide large networks into smaller parts.

6. State whether true or false.

i) A connection oriented protocol can only use unicast addresses.
ii) The any cast service is included in IPV6.
a) True, True
b) True, False
c) False, True
d) False, False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a connection oriented protocol, the host can only establish connection with
another host on one unique channel, that’s why it can only use unicast addresses. In IPv6,
there is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a group of devices
but not all devices in a network.

7. __________ is a high performance fiber optic token ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over
distances upto 1000 stations connected.
a) FDDI
b) FDDT
c) FDDR
d) FOTR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FDDI stands for Fiber Distributed Data Interface. It is a set of standards for
fiber optic token ring LANs running at 100 Mbps over distances up to 200 km in diameter
and 1000 stations connected.
8. Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?
a) 1000 BASE-SX
b) 1000 BASE-LX
c) 1000 BASE-CX
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In computer networking, Gigabit Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE) is a term describing
various technologies for transmitting Ethernet frames at a rate of a gigabit per second
(1,000,000,000 bits per second), as defined by the IEEE 802.3-2008 standard. It came into
use beginning in 1999, gradually supplanting Fast Ethernet in wired local networks, as a
result of being considerably faster.

9. _________ is a collective term for a number of Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at the
nominal rate of 1000 Mbit/s against the original Ethernet speed of 10 Mbit/s.
a) Ethernet
b) Fast Ethernet
c) Gigabit Ethernet
d) Gigabyte Ethernet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fast Ethernet is a set of Ethernet Standards which were introduced in 1995,
that carry traffic at the nominal rate of 1000 Mbit/s. 100BASE-TX is the most commonly
used Fast Ethernet standard.

10. _________ is another kind of fiber optic network with an active star for switching.
a) S/NET
b) SW/NET
c) NET/SW
d) FS/NET
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A 50-MBd active star fiber optical Local area network (LAN) and its optical
combiner and mixing rod splitter are presented. The limited power budget and relatively
large tapping losses of light wave technology, which limit the use of fiber optics in tapped
bus LAN topologies, are examined and proven tolerable in optical star topologies.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Designing

Subnet Masks
« Prev
Next »
This set of Computer Networks MCQs focuses on “Designing Subnet Masks”.

1. A network administrator is connecting hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet

interfaces, as shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful.
What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts?

i. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

ii. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

iii. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.

iv. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.

v. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.

a) i only
b) ii only
c) iii and iv only
d) i and v only
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: First, if you have two hosts directly connected, as shown in the graphic, then
you need a crossover cable. A straight-through cable won’t work. Second, the hosts have
different masks, which puts them in different subnets. The easy solution is just to set both
masks to 255.255.255.0 (/24).

2. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the
following can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router?

i. 172.16.1.100

ii. 172.16.1.198

iii. 172.16.2.255

iv. 172.16.3.0

a) i only
b) ii and iii only
c) iii and iv only
d) ii only
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The router’s IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is
255.255.254.0. This makes the third octet a block size of 2. The router’s interface is in the
172.16.2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 172.16.3.255 because the next subnet is
172.16.4.0. The valid host range is 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254. The router is using the first
valid host address in the range.

3. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?

i. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.

ii. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.

iii. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.

iv. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.

a) i and iii
b) ii and iv
c) i, ii and iv
d) ii, iii and iv
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there
are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this
makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host
10.16.3.65 is in the 10.16.2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 10.16.4.0, so the broadcast
address for the 10.16.2.0 subnet is 10.16.3.255. The valid host addresses are 10.16.2.1 to
10.16.3.254.

4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local
subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets,
each with 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network
address? Not at all. The number of host bits would never change.

5. You need to subnet a network into 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful
subnet mask would you use?
a) 255.255.255.192
b) 255.255.255.224
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240
provides 16 subnets with 14 hosts which is less than 15, so this will not work. The mask
255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts so this may work. The mask
255.255.255.192 provides 4 subnets, each with 60 hosts so this may work. Comparing both
the possible masks, 255.255.255.224 provides the best answer.

6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host
addresses available on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to
provide the correct subnet mask?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We
need more subnets, so let’s add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask.
This provides 5 subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the
best answer.

7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what

would be the valid subnet address of this host?
a) 172.16.112.0
b) 172.16.0.0
c) 172.16.96.0
d) 172.16.255.0
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and
fourth octets are used for subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and
1 bit in the fourth octet. Since there is only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-
which is a value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, which has a
broadcast address of 127 since 128 is the next subnet

8. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the
router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router
interface?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 30
d) 32
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host
bits. Six hosts are the maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface.
Out of the 8 addresses possible with the host bits, the first and the last address are for the
subnet id and broadcast address respectively.

9. What is the subnet id of a host with an IP address 172.16.66.0/21?

a) 172.16.36.0
b) 172.16.48.0
c) 172.16.64.0
d) 172.16.0.0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third
octet, so we just count by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next
subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 71.255.

10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
b) 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
c) 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
d) 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is
only 3 subnet bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IP Routing

« Prev
Next »
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“IP Routing”.

1. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and DEC net?
a) Ethernet 802.3
b) Ethernet 802.2
c) Ethernet II
d) Ethernet SNAP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Ethernet 802.3 framing is used for NetWare versions 2 to 3.11, and the
Ethernet 802.2 framing is used for NetWare versions 3.12 and later plus OSI routing,
Ethernet II is used with TCP/IP and DEC net, and Ethernet SNAP is used with TCP/IP and
AppleTalk. The type field in Ethernet 802.2 frame is replaced by a length field in Ethernet
802.3.

2. Consider a situation in which you are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you
are running NetWare 4.11 and you cannot communicate with your router. What is the likely
problem?
a) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
b) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation
c) Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11
d) NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The default encapsulation on Cisco routers is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and
NetWare 3.12and later defaults to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11 and earlier defaults to 802.3.

3. NetWare IPX addressing uses a network number and a node number. Which statement
is not true?
a) The network address is administratively assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits
long
b) The node address is always administratively assigned
c) The node address is usually the MAC address
d) If the MAC address is used as the node address, then IPX eliminates the use of ARP
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The network address can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits in length. The node
number is 12 hexadecimal digits. The node address is usually the MAC address. An
example IPX address is 4a1d.0000.0c56.de33. The network part is 4a1d. The node part is
0000.0c56.de33. The network number is assigned by the system administrator of the Novell
network and the MAC address/node address is not assigned by the administrator.

4. Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3–network layer—of the OSI model?
a) IPX
b) NCP
c) SPX
d) NetBIOS
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange) is the NetWare network layer 3 protocol
used for transferring information on LANs that use Novell’s NetWare.

5. Which NetWare protocol provides link-state routing?

a) NLSP
b) RIP
c) SAP
d) NCP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP) provides link-state routing. SAP
(Service Advertisement Protocol) advertises network services. NCP (NetWare Core
Protocol) provides client-to-server connections and applications. RIP is a distance vector
routing protocol. NLSP was developed by Novell to replace RIP routing protocols.

6. As a system administrator, you want to debug IGRP but are worried that the “debug IP
IGRP transaction” command will flood the console. What is the command that you should
use?
a) Debug IP IGRP event
b) Debug IP IGRP-events
c) Debug IP IGRP summary
d) Debug IP IGRP events
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The “debug IP IGRP events” is used to display a short summary of IGRP
routing information. You can append an IP address onto either console’s command-line to
see only the IGRP updates from a neighbor. The command will only give a short summary
and hence won’t flood the command line.

7. What does the following series of commands “Router IGRP 71 network” accomplish?
10.0.0.0 router IGRP 109 network 172.68.7.0
a) It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0
b) It loads IGRP for networks 109 and 71
c) It disables RIP
d) It disables all routing protocols
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It isolates network 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0 and associates autonomous
systems 109 and71 with IGRP. IGRP does not disable RIP, both can be used at the same
time.

8. The “IPX delay number” command will allow an administrator to change the default
settings. What are the default settings?
a) For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks
b) For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN interfaces, one tick
c) For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN interfaces, five ticks
d) For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN interfaces, zero Ticks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tick is basically the update rate of clients in the network. The IPX delay
number will give the ticks at a certain time. The default ticks are–for LAN interfaces, one
tick, and for WAN interfaces, six ticks.

9. As a system administrator, you need to set up one Ethernet interface on the Cisco router
to allow for both sap and Novell-ether encapsulations. Which set of commands will
accomplish this?
a) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0.2 IPX network 6c
b) Interface Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
c) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX
encapsulation sap
d) Interface Ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The following commands setup the sub interfaces to allow for two types of
encapsulation:interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e
interface Ethernet0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c.
10. What does the “IPX maximum-paths 2” command accomplish?
a) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths
b) It sets up routing to go to network 2
c) It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing
d) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are unequal metric paths
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths. The
default is 1 path and the maximum is 512 paths. The value must always be greater than 1
and must be a natural number.

11. You want to enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one router interface. How do
you do this?
a) The interface can handle multiple encapsulation types with no extra configuration
b) Assign two network numbers, one for each encapsulation type
c) Enable Novell-ether to run multiple encapsulation types
d) Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so you don’t have to configure anything
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To assign multiple network numbers, you usually use sub interfaces. A sample
configuration follows: IPXEthernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation novell-ether ipx network 9e
interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c

12. By default, Cisco routers forward GNS SAPs to remote networks.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GNS is Novell’s protocol to Get Nearest Server. If there is a server on the local
network,that server will respond. If there isn’t, the Cisco router has to be configured to
forward theGNS SAP.

13. To prevent Service Advertisements (SAPs) from flooding a network, Cisco routers do
not forward them. How are services advertised to other networks?
a) Each router builds its own SAP table and forwards that every 60 seconds
b) Each router assigns a service number and broadcasts that
c) SAPs aren’t necessary with Cisco routers
d) Cisco routers filter out all SAPs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cisco routers build SAP tables and forward the table every 60 seconds. All
SAPs can’t befiltered even with 4.x since NDS and time synchronization uses SAPs.

14. Novell’s implementation of RIP updates routing tables every _________ seconds.
a) 60
b) 90
c) 10
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Novell’s RIP updates routing tables every 60 seconds, Apple’s RTMP is every
10 seconds, routers ARP every 60 seconds, IGRP signal every 90 seconds, and Banyan
VINES signals every 90 seconds.

15. In Novell’s use of RIP, there are two metrics used to make routing decisions. Select the
correct metrics.
a) Ticks & Hops
b) Hops & Loops
c) Loops & Counts
d) Counts & Ticks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It first uses ticks (which is about 1/18 sec.); if there is a tie, it uses hops; if hops
are equal, then it uses an administratively assigned tiebreaker.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Ports

« Prev
Next »
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Ports”.

1. Multiple objects can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in a
persistent HTTP connection.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Persistent connections are kept active after completing transaction so that
multiple objects can be sent over the same TCP connection.

2. HTTP is ________ protocol.

a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) data link layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is an Application layer protocol used to define how messages are
formatted and transmitted through the World Wide Web.

3. In the network HTTP resources are located by __________

a) Uniform resource identifier
b) Unique resource locator
c) Unique resource identifier
d) Union resource locator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Uniform Resource Identifier is a name and locator for the resource to be
located by the HTTP. The URLs and URNs are derived through the identifier.

4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the

server.
a) User datagram protocol
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Border gateway protocol
d) Domain host control protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP clients perform requests using a TCP connection, because the TCP
connection provides a more reliable service. UDP is not a reliable protocol, border gateway
protocol is used on top of TCP, while domain host control protocol is a network layer
protocol.

5. In HTTP pipelining __________

a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the
corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests cannot be sent on a single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP pipelining helps the client make multiple requests without having to
waiting for each response, thus saving a lot of time and bandwidth for the client.

6. FTP server listens for connection on which port number?

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Port 20 is used for FTP data. Port 22 is used for SSH remote login. Port 23 is
used for TELNET.

7. In FTP protocol, a client contacts a server using ______ as the transport protocol.
a) Transmission control protocol
b) User datagram protocol
c) Datagram congestion control protocol
d) Stream control transmission protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The clients use the Transmission Control Protocol for FTP as it’s more reliable
than UDP, DCCP, and SCTP, and reliability of file transfer is required to be as high as
possible for FTP.
8. In Active mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Passive mode of FTP, the client initiates both data and control connections,
while in Active mode, the client initiates the control connection and then the server initiates
the data connection.

9. The File Transfer Protocol is built on __________

a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) connection oriented architecture
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to share files.
The server can have multiple clients at the same time while the client communicates with
only one server at a time.

10. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in __________

a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) message mode
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Stream mode, the data is transferred in a continuous stream. In Block mode,
data is transferred after being divided into smaller blocks. In Compressed mode, data is
transferred after being compressed using some compression algorithm.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Security In The

Internet
« Prev
Next »
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Security In The Internet”.

1. IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________

a) transport layer
b) network layer
c) application layer
d) session layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IPSec is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data integrity and
confidentiality between two machines in an IP network. In the TCP/IP model, it provides
security at the IP layer i.e. the network layer.
2. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the ______
a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) IP trailer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the tunnel mode, IPSec adds control bits into the packets to encrypt the
entire packet between the IPSec endpoints. Using encryption, it provides secure
communication between the two endpoints.

3. Network layer firewall works as a ________

a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) signal filter
d) content filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As you know, firewalls are available as hardware appliances, as software-only,
or a combination of the two. In every case, the purpose of a firewall is to isolate your trusted
internal network (or your personal PC) from the dangers of unknown resources on the
Internet and other network connections that may be harmful. The firewall prevents
unauthorized access to your internal, trusted network from outside threats.

4. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories called ____________

a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall
b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) frame firewall and packet firewall
d) network firewall and data firewall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Most network layer firewalls can operate as stateful or stateless firewalls,
creating two subcategories of the standard network layer firewall. Stateful firewalls have the
advantage of being able to track packets over a period of time for greater analysis and
accuracy — but they require more memory and operate more slowly. Stateless firewalls do
not analyze past traffic and can be useful for systems where speed is more important than
security, or for systems that have very specific and limited needs. For example, a computer
that only needs to connect to a particular backup server does not need the extra security of
a stateful firewall.

5. WPA2 is used for security in _______

a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi
d) e-mail
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: WPA2 or WiFi Protected Access 2 is a security protocol used to provide users
and firms with strong data security and protection for their wireless networks (WiFi) to give
them confidence that only authorized users can access their network.

6. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called

______
a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Denial of Service attack, the attacker won’t let the victims access the
network by using a certain method that ensures that an essential network resource is
unavailable to the victim. The methods that the attacker can use are vulnerability attack,
bandwidth flooding and connection flooding.

7. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in ______

a) wired personal area network
b) wireless networks
c) wired local area network
d) wired metropolitan area network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication protocol
used to connect a network node to the Internet. It designed through extending the methods
used by the Point-to-Point Protocol for authentication.

8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in ______

a) browser security
b) email security
c) FTP security
d) wifi security
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PGP is an encryption method used in e-mail security to encrypt and decrypt
the content of an e-mail transmitted over the internet. It makes sure that the message
cannot be stolen by other unauthorized users.

9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called ______

a) international data encryption algorithm
b) private data encryption algorithm
c) internet data encryption algorithm
d) local data encryption algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The IDEA was designed in 1991 by Xuejia Lai and James Massey. Before
IDEA, PGP used the cipher method BassOmatic.

10. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no
authority giving that information, then it is called _________
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) DNS authorizing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In DNS spoofing, also known as DNS cache poisoning, an attacker gets the
valid credentials from a victim by spoofing the intended resource, and tricking the victim to
give his/her valid authorization credentials.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Firewalls

« Prev
Next »
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Firewalls”.

1. Network layer firewall works as a __________

a) Frame filter
b) Packet filter
c) Content filter
d) Virus filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As you know, firewalls are available as hardware appliances, as software-only,
or a combination of the two. In every case, the purpose of a firewall is to isolate your trusted
internal network (or your personal PC) from the dangers of unknown resources on the
Internet and other network connections that may be harmful. The firewall prevents
unauthorized access to your internal, trusted network from outside threats.

2. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as _________

a) State full firewall and stateless firewall
b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) Frame firewall and packet firewall
d) Network layer firewall and session layer firewall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Most network layer firewalls can operate as stateful or stateless firewalls,
creating two subcategories of the standard network layer firewall. Stateful firewalls have the
advantage of being able to track packets over a period of time for greater analysis and
accuracy — but they require more memory and operate more slowly. Stateless firewalls do
not analyze past traffic and can be useful for systems where speed is more important than
security, or for systems that have very specific and limited needs. For example, a computer
that only needs to connect to a particular backup server does not need the extra security of
a stateful firewall.

3. A firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted
external network meet which is also known as __________
a) Chock point
b) Meeting point
c) Firewall point
d) Secure point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a router, a midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation,
or a combination of these that determines which information or services can be accessed
from the outside and who is permitted to use the information and services from outside.
Generally, a firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted
external network meet, which is also known as a chokepoint.

4. Which of the following is / are the types of firewall?

a) Packet Filtering Firewall
b) Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
c) Screen Host Firewall
d) Dual Host Firewall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, a router,
or combination of these. Depending on the requirements, a firewall can consist of one or
more of the following functional components: Packet-filtering router

5. A proxy firewall filters at _________

a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer
d) Application layer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The application firewall is typically built to control all network traffic on any
layer up to the application layer. It is able to control applications or services specifically,
unlike a stateful network firewall, which is – without additional software – unable to control
network traffic regarding a specific application. There are two primary categories of
application firewalls, network-based application firewalls and host-based application
firewalls.

6. A packet filter firewall filters at __________

a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer or Transport layer
d) Application layer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In computing, a firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls
the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.[1] A
firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted, secure internal network and
another outside network, such as the Internet, that is assumed not to be secure or trusted.
[2] Firewalls are often categorized as either network firewalls or host-based firewalls.
7. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls?
a) You can control where traffic goes in three networks
b) You can do stateful packet filtering
c) You can do load balancing
d) Improved network performance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DMZ stands for De-Militarized Zone. In a topology with a single firewall serving
both internal and external users (LAN and WAN), it acts as a shared resource for these two
zones. So load balancing can be done by adding another firewall.

8. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data stream that has been divided into
packets?
a) The source routing feature
b) The number in the header’s identification field
c) The destination IP address
d) The header checksum field in the packet header
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The source routing feature provides a path address for the packet to help the
firewall to reassemble the data stream that was divided into packets. After reassembling,
the firewall can then filter the stream.

9. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________ which is a list of active connections.

a) Routing table
b) Bridging table
c) State table
d) Connection table
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The routing table basically gives the state of each connection i.e. whether the
connection is active or not. A routing table ensures the best performance for the stateful
firewall.

10. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it can grow proportionally with the network
that it protects.
a) Robust
b) Expansive
c) Fast
d) Scalable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The firewall has to be expansive because a network is expected to grow with
time and if the firewall is unable to grow with it, the firewall won’t be able to handle the
growing network traffic flow and will hence fail.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Network

Utilities
« Prev
Next »
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Network Utilities”.

1. Ping can _________

a) Measure round-trip time
b) Report packet loss
c) Report latency
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PING (Packet Internet Groper) command is the best way to test connectivity
between two nodes, whether it is Local Area Network (LAN) or Wide Area Network (WAN).
Ping uses ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) to communicate to other devices.

2. Ping sweep is a part of _________

a) Traceroute
b) Nmap
c) Route
d) Ipconfig
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A ping sweep is a method that can establish a range of IP addresses which
map to live hosts and are mostly used by network scanning tools like nmap. A ping sweep is
basically a collective ping command execution on a range of IP addresses.

3. ICMP is used in _________

a) Ping
b) Traceroute
c) Ifconfig
d) Both Ping & Traceroute
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ICMP stands for Internet Control Message Protocol. ICMP operates over the
IP packet to provide error reporting functionality, so in case the node is not active or there is
no route, ICMP will be used to report the specific errors for Ping and Traceroute.

4. __________ command is used to manipulate TCP/IP routing table.

a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The route command is used to view and manipulate the TCP/IP routing table in
Windows OS. The manipulations done in the routing table with the help of this command will
count as static routes.
5. If you want to find the number of routers between a source and destination, the utility to
be used is ___________
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Traceroute command is available on Linux OS to find the path i.e. the number
of the routers that the packet has to go through to reach the destination. In Windows,
Tracert command is used to perform the function.

6. Which of the following is not related to ipconfig in Microsoft Windows?

a) Display all current TCP/IP network configuration values
b) Modify DHCP settings
c) Modify DNS settings
d) Trace the routers in the path to destination
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Tracert command is available on Microsoft Windows to find the path i.e.
the number of the routers that the packet has to go through to reach its destination.

7. __________ allows checking if a domain is available for registration.

a) Domain Check
b) Domain Dossier
c) Domain Lookup
d) Domain registers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are billions of domains available for registration on the World Wide Web,
and many of them are already registered. So when one wants to register a domain, they
need to check whether the domain is available through a domain check.

8. Choose the wrong statement from the following.

a) Nslookup is used to query a DNS server for DNS data
b) Ping is used to check connectivity
c) Pathping combines the functionality of ping with that of route
d) Ifconfig can configure TCP/IP network interface parameters
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pathping combines the functionality of ping with that of traceroute (tracert).
The Ping command is used to test connectivity between two nodes and the
Tracert/Traceroute command is used to find the path i.e. the number of the routers that the
packet has to go through to reach its destination.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Internet

« Prev
Next »
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Internet”.

1. What is internet?
a) a single network
b) a vast collection of different networks
c) interconnection of local area networks
d) interconnection of wide area networks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Internet is nothing but an interconnected computer network providing a variety
of communication facilities, consisting of a huge amount of small networks using
standardized communication protocols.

2. To join the internet, the computer has to be connected to a _________

a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet service provider
d) different computer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ISPs (Internet Service Providers) are the main agents through which every
computer is connected to the internet. They are licensed to allot public IP addresses to its
customers in order to connect them to the internet.

3. Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network is
provided by _______
a) leased line
b) digital subscriber line
c) digital signal line
d) digital leased line
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is the technology designed to use the existing
telephone lines to transport high-bandwidth data to service subscribers. DSL was used to
allow the early users access to the internet and it provides dedicated, point-to-point, public
network access.

4. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their networks by __________

a) internet exchange point
b) subscriber end point
c) isp end point
d) internet end point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ISPs exchange internet traffic between their networks by using Internet
Exchange Points. ISPs and CDNs are connected to each other at these physical locations
are they help them provide better service to their customers.
5. Which of the following protocols is used in the internet?
a) HTTP
b) DHCP
c) DNS
d) DNS, HTTP and DNS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is used to browse all the websites on the World Wide Web, DHCP is
used to allot IPs automatically to the users on the internet, and DNS is used to connect the
users to the host servers on the internet based on the Domain Name.

6. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________

a) 32 bits
b) 64 bits
c) 128 bits
d) 265 bits
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. Therefore, 2128 i.e. 340 undecillion
addresses are possible in IPv6. IPv4 has only 4 billion possible addresses and IPv6 would
be a brilliant alternative in case IPv4 runs out of possible new addresses.

7. Internet works on _______

a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) both packet switching and circuit switching
d) data switching
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Packet switching is the method based on which the internet works. Packet
switching features delivery of packets of data between devices over a shared network.

8. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol used in internet?
a) remote procedure call
b) internet relay chat
c) resource reservation protocol
d) local procedure call
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Resource reservation protocol is a transport layer protocol used on the
internet. It operates over IPv4 and IPv6 and is designed to reserve resources required by
the network layer protocols.

9. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the internet?

a) DHCP
b) IP
c) RPC
d) RSVP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP stands for Domain Host Control Protocol. It is responsible to remotely
assign IP address to the clients connected to the internet. The server that performs this
fuction is called the DHCP server.

10. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?
a) ethernet
b) digital subscriber line
c) fiber distributed data interface
d) packet switching
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Packet switching is not really related to media access control as it just features
delivery of packets of data between devices over a shared network. Internet is actually
based on packet switching.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Bluetooth

« Prev
Next »
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Bluetooth”.

1. An interconnected collection of piconet is called ___________

a) scatternet
b) micronet
c) mininet
d) multinet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of a bluetooth system having a master node and upto
seven active slave nodes. A collection of piconets is called scatternet and a slave node of a
piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of the scatternet.

2. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.

a) 63
b) 127
c) 255
d) 511
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A slave node in a piconet can be instructed by the master node to go into
parked mode. Then the slave node enters the parked mode in which the node is not
disconnected from the network but is inactive unless the master wakes it up.

3. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________

a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) metropolitan area network
d) wide area network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology used to create a wireless personal area
network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters. It operates on 2.45 GHz frequency
band for transmission.

4. Bluetooth uses __________

a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency hopping spread spectrum is a method of transmitting radio signals
by rapidly changing the carrier frequency and is controlled by the codes known to the
sender and receiver only.

5. Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth

connection is called _________
a) bluemaking
b) bluesnarfing
c) bluestring
d) bluescoping
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth
connection is called Bluesnarfing. It is done through exploiting the vulnerabilities of the
Bluetooth device to steal the transmitted information.

6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution profile)?

a) a bluetooth profile for streaming audio
b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video
c) a bluetooth profile for security
d) a bluetooth profile for file management
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A2DP stands for Advanced Audio Distribution Profile is a transfer standard use
to transmit high definition audio through Bluetooth. It is mainly used in Bluetooth speakers
and wireless headphones.

7. In a piconet, one master device ________

a) can not be slave
b) can be slave in another piconet
c) can be slave in the same piconet
d) can be master in another piconet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a scatternet, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet
that is part of the scatternet. The scatternet uses this property to connect many piconets
together to create a larger network.

8. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.

a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bluetooth operates on 2.45 GHz frequency ISM band for transmission. It is
used to create a wireless personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10
meters.

9. Bluetooth supports _______

a) point-to-point connections
b) point-to-multipoint connection
c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
d) multipoint to point connection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Bluetooth, each slave node communicates with the master of the piconet
independently i.e. each master-slave connection is independent. The slave is not allowed to
communicate with other slaves directly.

10. A scatternet can have maximum __________

a) 10 piconets
b) 20 piconets
c) 30 piconets
d) 40 piconets
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A scatternet can have maximum of 10 piconets and minimum of 2 piconets. To
connect these piconets, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is
part of the scatternet.

Top Active Directory Multiple Choice

Questions and Answers
Active Directory Multiple Choice Questions with Answers:-
1. A ——————the group is a group that contains the same users as an OU. (Fill in the
blank)
A. Operation
B. Administration
C. Primary
D. Shadow
Ans:- D
2. ACL stands for Access Control List
A. True
B. False
Ans:- A
3. How do you create a group by using Active Directory Users and Computers snap- in?
A. Left click the OU in Find which you want to create a group, select New, and choose
Group.
B. Right-click the OU in Find which you want to create a group, select New, and choose
Group.
C. This can only be done in the registry editor.
D. You can create a group by typing MSCONFIG in the Run box.
Ans:- B
4. LDIFDE is a defragment tool in all versions of Windows Server.
A. False
B. True
Ans:- A
5. The Dsadd command –secgrp {yes | no} specifies group type: security (yes) or
distribution (no).
A. False
B. True
Ans:- B
6. Find what option can you use to prevent deleting a group in Windows Server 2008?
A. You could prevent this by formatting the hard drive.
B. You can prevent deleting a group by restarting the computer.
C. Protect object from accidental deletion.
D. Use /reboot to prevent deleting a group.
Ans:- C
7. There are two types of groups in Active Directory.
A. True
B. False
Ans:- A
8. Find what default group has the right to log on locally, start and stop services, perform
backup and restore operations, format disks, create or delete shares, and even power down
domain controllers?
A. Server Operators
B. Schema Admins
C. Enterprise Admins
D. Backup Operators
Ans:- A
9. How many group scopes are there in Active Directory?
A. Three
B. Zero
C. Ten
D. Five
Ans:- A
10. Find what is the basic syntax for Dsrm?
A. dsrm ObjectND.,,(subtree-(+exclude)) (+yesprompt) (*c)
B. dsrn ObjectDN. noprompt – c
C. dsrm ObjectDN…[-subtree [-exclude]] [-noprompt] [-c]
D. dsrm ObjectN…. [-subtree [-exclude]] [noprompt] [c-]
Ans:- B
11. Find which is not one of the four divisions or container structures in Active Directory?
A. Forests
B. Domain
C. Webs
D. Organizational units
E. Sites
Ans:- C
12. Find what is a forest?
A. Physical groupings are independent of the domain and OU structure. Sites
distinguish between locations connected by low- and high-speed connections and are
defined by one or more IP subnets.
B. The collection of every object, its attributes and attribute syntax in the Active
Directory.
C. Containers in Find which domains can be grouped. They create a hierarchy for the
domain and create the structure of the Active Directory’s company in geographical or
organizational terms.
D. A collection of computers that share a common set of policies, a name and a
database of their members.
Ans:- B
13. Find what do domain controllers do?
A. Store the database, maintain the policies and provide the authentication of domain
logons.
B. Control granular settings in a domain environment.
C. Receive and relay domain commands
Ans:- A
14. Find what are Group Policy Objects?
A. A set of folder rules that determine where Outlook will save email messages.
B. Affords the capability for secure extension of network operations to the Web
C. They determine the hierarchy of a domain, Find which can fit the operational
structure of an organization.
D. A collection of settings that define Find what a system will look like and how it will
behave for a defined group of users.
Ans:- D
15. In Windows Server 2012 and Windows 8, Group Policy Objects give administrators the
ability to select new Internet Explorer policies.
A. True
B. False
Ans:- A
16. Active Directory Rights Management Services is designed to give complete control of all
documents stored in RMS-enabled applications.
A. True
B. False
Ans:- B
17. According to Jonathan Hassell, Find what is a good practice to follow with forest
trusts?
A. Use shortcut trusts
B. Keep a current list of all trust relationships in the forest
C. Back up and ensure you have restore capability
D. All of the above
Ans:- D
18. According to Gary Olsen, domain controller load can be insufficient for the following
reason(s):
A. Inefficient LDAP queries can put an unpredictable load on DC.
B. The number of authenticated clients is unpredictable because multiple DCs share the
load for clients in and out of the site.
C. Active Directory (AD) analysis and monitoring tools put additional load on the DC.
D. A and C only
E. A, B, and C
Ans:- E
18. About how many settings are in a single Group Policy Object
A. 1,800
B. 3,200
C. 900
D. 5,000
Ans:- A
19. In Find what version of Windows did Microsoft adopt Kerberos as an authentication
policy?
A. Windows NT
B. Windows Server 2003 R2
C. Windows Server 2000
D. Windows 2008
Ans:- C
20. Between Sites, you can also choose to use ________ for replication, but only for changes
in the Schema or Configuration.
A. Internet Message Access Protocol
B. Post Office Protocol
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
D. E-mail
Ans:- C
21. Active Directory and a Windows-based file server are not required to implement
________ on client Windows computers.
A. Windows Registry
B. Internet Explorer
C. Windows 2000
D. Roaming user profile
Ans:- D
22. Authentication across this type of trust is Kerberos based (as opposed to ________).
A. LM hash
B. NTLM
C. Samba (software)
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
Ans:- B
23. Unlike earlier versions of Windows Find which used ________ to communicate, Active
Directory is fully integrated with DNS and TCP/IP—indeed DNS is required.
A. NetBIOS
B. NetBIOS Frames protocol
C. Server Message Block
D. Ethernet
Ans:- A
24. Another option is to use ________ with its translucent overlay, Find which can extend
entries in any remote LDAP server with additional attributes stored in a local database.
A. Mac OS X
B. Berkeley DB
C. Berkeley Software Distribution
D. OpenLDAP
Ans:- D
25. A different ‘cost’ can be given to each link (e.g., DS3, T1, ________, etc.) and the site
link topology will be altered accordingly by the KCC.
A. OSI model
B. Integrated Services Digital Network
C. Universal Serial Bus
D. Physical Layer
Ans:- B
ACTIVE DIRECTORY Objective Type Questions pdf free Download::
26. AGDLP (implementing ________ using nested groups)
A. Mandatory access control
B. Active Directory
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Role-based access control
Ans:- D
27. Active Directory is a technology created by ________ that provides a variety of network
services, including:
A. Microsoft
B. Internet Explorer
C. Microsoft Office
D. Microsoft Windows
Ans:- A
28. ADAM is capable of running as a service, on computers running Microsoft ________ or
Windows XP Professional.
A. Windows Server 2003
B. Windows Server 2008
C. Windows 2000
D. Microsoft Windows
Ans:- A
29. In ________, ADAM has been renamed AD LDS (Lightweight Directory Services).
A. Microsoft Windows
B. Windows Vista
C. Windows Server 2008
D. Windows 2000
Ans:- C
30. To Find which of the following Active Directory containers can Group Policies be
applied?
A. sites
B. OUs
C. domains
D. all of the above
Ans:- D
31. To create a GPO for a domain or an organizational unit, you use either the Active
Directory Users and Computers console or the __________.
A. Group Policy Maintenance console
B. Domain Policy Management console
C. Group Policy Management Console
D. Active Directory Sites and Services console
Ans:- C
32. For each GPO, there is a GPC container stored in the system policies folder in the
__________.
A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts console
B. Active Directory GPO and Sites console
C. Active Directory Users and Computers console
D. Active Directory Group Policy console
Ans:- C
33. Each GPT folder is identified by the ___________ for the GPO.
A. GPCID
B. GPTID
C. GPID
D. GUID
Ans:- D
34. Group Policy settings are divided into two categories: Computer Configuration settings
and __________.
A. Policy Configuration settings
B. Organizational Configuration settings
C. Group Configuration settings
D. User Configuration settings
Ans:- D
35. Find which of the following containers contains all Registry-based Group Policy
settings, including settings for Windows Components, System, and Network?
A. Administrative Templates
B. Software Templates
C. Windows Templates
D. Login Settings
Ans:- A
36. Find which of the following is a function of the GPMC?
A. It can be used to link sites, search for sites, and to delegate Group Policy-related
features.
B. It can be used to sign and encrypt all LDAP communications.
C. It provides administrators with the ability to back up, restore, import, and copy/paste
GPOs, as well as to create, delete, and rename them.
D. It can be used to view all Group Policy management functions.
Ans:- C
37. Find which of the following are exceptions to the order in Find which GPOs are
processed?
A. The default order for processing Group policy settings is also affected by selecting
the Enforced setting.
B. You can modify the default behavior by using the Block Inheritance option.
C. If a computer belongs to a workgroup, it processes only local GPOs.
D. all of the above
Ans:- D
38. when you configure loopback in ________ mode, the Computer Configuration GPO
settings are appended to the default list of GPOs.
A. Replace
B. Merge
C. Default
D. Append
Ans:- B
39. In order to delegate permissions for a GPO, you must have the ___________ permission
for the GPO.
A. Edit user, context, menu
B. Edit settings, delete and modify the security
C. Edit group, delete, modify user
D. none of the above
Ans:- B

40. The GPMC combines the functionality of the ACL Editor, Delegation Wizard, and
Resultant Set of the Policy tool.
A. True
B. False
Ans:- A
41. The GPT contains all of the Registry entries, as well as associated files and folders
required to implement the various GPO functions.
A. True
B. False
Ans:- A
42. Administrative settings are used to determine the applications that will be distributed
to computers or users via a GPO.
A. True
B. False
Ans:- B
43. The User Group Policy loopback processing mode is used when both the user account
and the computer account are members of a Windows 2000 or later domain.
A. True
B. False
Ans:- A
44. You assign permissions to delegate administrative control over a GPO on the
Delegation tab in the GPMC.
A. True
B. False
Ans:- A