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(Usept) : BPU Universitas Sriwijaya

The document provides instructions for a listening comprehension test called the Universitas Sriwijaya English Proficiency Test (USEPT). It explains that the test has three parts (Part A, Part B, and Part C) and each part has special directions. For Part A, test takers will hear 30 short conversations followed by a question about each conversation. They will then choose the best answer from five options on their answer sheet. The document provides a sample conversation and question to demonstrate the format of Part A.
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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
14K views37 pages

(Usept) : BPU Universitas Sriwijaya

The document provides instructions for a listening comprehension test called the Universitas Sriwijaya English Proficiency Test (USEPT). It explains that the test has three parts (Part A, Part B, and Part C) and each part has special directions. For Part A, test takers will hear 30 short conversations followed by a question about each conversation. They will then choose the best answer from five options on their answer sheet. The document provides a sample conversation and question to demonstrate the format of Part A.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 37

02

BPU
UNIVERSITAS SRIWIJAYA

(U S E P T)
(UNIVERSITAS SRIWIJAYA ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST)

TES BAHASA INGGRIS

PETUNJUK UMUM
1. Pilihlah jawaban yang benar A, B, C, D atau E dengan cara meng clicknya pada soal
dimonitor sesuai dengan pilhan anda.

2. Apabila anda ingin mengubah jawaban, Silahkan click jawaban baru sesuai yang
anda ubah.

3. Apabila anda telah selesai, tetaplah di tempat duduk masing-masing sampai


pengawas selesai mengumpulkan semua naskah soal dan lembar jawaban dan
mengizinkan anda meninggalkan ruangan.

4. Apabila anda berbuat curang,memberikan , meminta jawaban dari orang lain,atau


men JOKI maka anda akan dikenakan sanksi yang telah ditetapkan.

5. Selama Test berlangsung anda dilarang izin keluar.

1
UNIVERSITAS SRIWIJAYA ENGLISH PROFICIENCY TEST

(USEPT)

SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION

In Section 1, there are three parts (Part A, Part B, and Part C) with
special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis
of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. You are not
allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Read the directions.

PART A
Directions: In Part A, you will hear 30 short conversations between
two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about
the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be
repeated. After you hear a question, read the five possible answers in
your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Now we will begin Part A with the first conversation.

1. (A) She recently purchased (C) The man can get a job
laundry detergent. where the woman
(B) She will buy some works.
detergent for the man.
(D) The man should keep
(C) The Laundromat is
around the corner. his current job.
(D) The man can buy (E) The man should stop
detergent at the store. his job.
(E) She will give detergent
for the man. 3. (A) She did not realize that
their team had won.
2. (A) The man will find a job (B) Their team nearly lost
if he continues to look. the game.
(B) The man should look (C) She called to find out
for a job in a different the score of the game.
field. (D) Their team usually wins

2
its games. changed the
(E) Their teams played conference time.
well. (B) He is planning to stay
until the conference is
4. (A) The woman should finished.
continue driving. (C) He will not attend the
(B) They will arrive late for concert.
dinner. (D) He will wait for the
(C) He forgot to make Woman.
reservations. (E) He will call the woman.
(D) He is not sure what is
wrong with the car. 8. (A) The woman and the
(E) He stopped driving. man have plans to
eat out together
5. (A) The woman did not (B) The woman would
remember her prefer to stay
appointment. home this evening
(B) The woman needs to (C) The man has changed
get a calendar. his mind about the new
(C) The appointment must restaurant.
be changed to a (D) The man is sorry he
different day. cannot join the woman
(D) The calendar shows for dinner.
the wrong month. (E) The man did not leave
(E) The woman shows the for the restaurant.
calender.
9. (A) The woman should call
6. (A) He thinks the woman’s the professor the next
computer is broken. day.
(B) He worked on the (B) He is cancelling the
woman’s computer for choir rehearsal because
too long. of illness.
(C) He sometimes gets (C) The woman will feel
headaches after doing better in a day or two.
computer work. (D) He will turn up the heat
(D) He needs to take in the choir room.
longer break. (E) The woman will call the
(E) he bought a new Professor.
Computer.
10. (A) She does not believe it
7. (A) Professor Campbell will snow.
3
(B) Snow in October is (C) He prefers to play in
unusual. the gym.
(C) Canadian winters are (D) It is not supposed to
rather long.
rain tomorrow.
(D) Winter is her favorite
season. (E) The will not play in the
(E) He likes the season gym.

11. (A) He lost his wallet on a 14. (A) Type the letter as it is.
trip to Germany. (B) Change some wording
(B) His private lessons did in his letter.
not help him. (C) Send the letter without
(C) His German tutor typing it.
charges him a (D) Check to make sure
reasonable fee. his facts are correct.
(D) He plans to continue (E) Type the letter.
taking lessons.
(E) He did not take the 15. (A) It is next to the
lessons. Holiday Motel.
(B) It is nicer than the
Holiday Motel.
12. (A) The committee has
(C) It is very inexpensive.
just begun to (D) It is a little farther than
write the report. the Holiday Motel.
(B) The report will be (E) It is very popular.
short.
(C) The committee 16. (A) She is still using her
members have just economics book.
become acquainted. (B) She knows where the
(D) The report is finished man can buy the book.
except for the (C) She will talk to
introduction. Professor Phillips.
(E) The report is unclaer. (D) She will lend her book
to the man.
13. (A) They should play (E) She will call the man.
another time.
(B) They will probably 17. (A) She no longer teaches
have to play in the architecture.
gym. (B) She takes photographs
of different subjects.
4
(C) She did not enjoy her movie tonight.
trip to the desert. (C) He has already seen
(D) She just took down the the movie on a big
display at the student screen.
center. (D) He is planning to buy a
(E) She learned at the tv with a large screen.
student center. (E) He has a new Tv.

18. (A) He rarely sends e-mail 21. (A) She did not see the
messages. play last night.
(B) He thought the woman (B) She does not enjoy
read the message. going to plays.
(C) He will have his (C) She will give her ticket
computer repaired later to the man.
today. (D) She will meet the man
(D) He was unable to send at the door of the
an e-mail message. theater.
(E) He did not get e-mail (E) She will get the ticket
Message. from the man.

19. (A) He will not get a refund 22. (A) She had a hard time
for a purchase. finding a table.
(B) He does not feel well (B) She does not like old
enough to attend a furniture.
concert. (C) The table was not
(C) A radio program has expensive.
been canceled. (D) The table needs to be
(D) A concert will not take repaired.
place. (E) She bought a new
(E) He was happy to join table.
the concert.
23. (A) He just started
20. (A) He knows that watching exercising at the gym.
a movie on a small (B) He also feels tired
screen is not ideal. today.
(B) He will try to come to (C) The woman will
the showing of the probably be tired for a

5
few days. as teachers.
(D) The woman should not (E) They go to the student
sleep so late. center.
(E) She also needs to
Drink. 27. (A) She might have to buy
a new computer.
24. (A) He also had to miss (B) She liked her old
mark’s party. computer better.
(B) He took his sister to (C) She might not use all of
mark’s party. the new computer's
(C) His sister also had the features.
flu. (D) She needs to have her
(D) His sister will have a computer repaired.
graduation party soon. (E) She might have a new
(E) He enjoyed the party. A new computer.

25. (A) She works at the


bookstore. 28. (A) She could base her
(B) She will borrow the presentation on the
man’s book. article she read.
(C) She will help the man (B) She could make her
study for a test. presentation at a later
(D) She has an important time.
exam next week. (C) She should include
(E) She will buy books at several articles by
the bookstore. Chomsky.
(D) She should read all the
26. (A) They work at the sources he
student center on recommended.
campus. (E) She should not show
(B) they do not know how her presentation.
to get to the student
center. 29. (A) She thinks that the man
(C) They are interested in should not complain.
finding out something (B) She thinks that one tray
about jobs. will be enough to feed
(D) They both plan careers everyone.

6
(C) She believes that (B) Buy a cup of coffee.
Norah (C) Order a sandwich.
is very clever. (D) Have his cup refilled.
(D) She would have (E) Drink a cup of tea.
chosen different food
for the party.
(E) She does not know that
the man will complain.

30. (A) Come back this


afternoon.

Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations.
After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The
conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the five possible answers in your test
book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

(B) Using computers to


31. (A) She will be able to join the increase business
economics seminar. efficiency.
(B) She finished paying her (C) A way to help people
loan. improve their economic
(C) She got an A on her term conditions.
paper. (D) The expansion of
(D) She has a new printer for international business.
her computer. (E) The development of
(E) She has no money to buy economics.
A new computer.
33. (A) It is the topic of his term
32. (A) The importance of paying paper.
back loans promptly. (B) He would like to find a job

7
there. 37. (A) A classical temple.
(C) His economics professor (B) A well-known museum.
did research work there. (C) A natural landscape.
(D) Microcredit programs have (D) A modern office building.
been very successful there. (E) A traditional cultures.
(E) he will contact to professor.
38. (A) Traditional views on the
purpose of a museum.
34. (A) Cancel her credit card. (C) Traditional notions of
(B) Sign up for the economics respect for elected leaders.
seminar. (D) Traditional forms of
(C) Type the man’s term paper. classical architecture.
(D) Do research on banks in (B) Traditional values of Native
Asia. Americans.
(E) work in office. (E) The changing function of
the modern architecture.
35. (A) The life of a well know
Canadian architect.
(B) The architectural design of
a new museum.
(C) The variety of museums in
Washington D.C.
(D) The changing function of
the modern museum.
(E) Traditional activities on the
purpose of a museum.

36. (A) Both were designed by the


same architect.
(B) Both are located in
Washington D.C.
(C) Both feature similar
exhibits.
(D) Both were built around a
central square.
(E) Both are not similar
exhibits.

8
Part C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After
each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and the questions will
not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the five possible
answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test
pages.

Now we will begin Part C with the first talk.

39. (A) They are examples of mass.


the usual sequence of (D) Scientists were unable
observation and to balance equations of
explanation. energy without it.
(B) They provide evidence (E) It could give energy
of inaccurate scientific Measured.
observation.
(C) Their discovery was 41. (A) That it carries a large
similar to that of the amount of energy.
neutrino. (B) That it is a type of
(D) They were subjects of electron.
1995 experiments at (C) That it is smaller in size
Los Alamos. than previously
(E) The clearing of the thought.
Experiments. (D) That it has a tiny
amount of mass.
40. (A) Its mass had previously (E) That it brings a small
been measured. Energy.
(B) Its existence had been
reported by Los Alamos 42. (A) The clearing of New
National Laboratory. England forests.
(C) Scientists were looking (B) The role of New
for a particle with no England trees in British

9
shipbuilding. (B) How they got their
(C) The development of name.
shipbuilding industry in (C) How they hunt.
New England. (D) How they solve
(D) The role of the British problems.
surveyor general in (E) How they imitate.
colonizing New
England. 48. (A) By changing its
(E) The progress of the appearance.
economics value. (B) By imitating signals that
the other spiders send.
43. (A) Law (C) By spinning a large
(B) Mathematics web.
(C) History (D) By imitating insects
(D) Engineering caught in a web.
(E) Agriculture (E) By jumping in the web.

44. (A) Sugar Maple 49. (A) Avoid attacks by other


(B) Oak Spiders.
(C) White pine (B) Cross some water.
(D) Birch (C) Jump to the edge of the
(E) Teak tray.
(D) Spin a long thread.
45. (A) Its width (E) Change its appearance.
(B) Its height
(C) Its straightness 50. (A) It would keep trying to
(D) Its location reach the rock the
(E) its weight same way.
(B) It would try to reach the
46. (A) M rock a different way.
(B) % (C) The scientist would
(C) K move the spider to the
(D) → rock.
(E) L (D) The scientist would
place another spider in
47. (A) How they swim long the tray.
distances. (E) It would jump to

10
reach the rock THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 1

PLEASE STOP WORKING ON


SECTION

11
Section 2
Reading Comprehension
Time: 55 minutes

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is
followed by a number of questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are
to choose the one best answer (A), (B), (C), (D) or (E) to each question.
Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of


what is stated or implied in that passage.

Now begin work on the questions.

Questions 1-5

In 1915 a German scientist, Alfred Wegener, published a book that


contained a bold new hypothesis concerning Earth's continents.
According to Wegener, all the landmasses on Earth were once united in
a giant supercontinent. This primeval landmass, which he named
5 Pangaea, broke apart, forming the continents and oceans as we know
them today.
Wegener's book was not translated into English until the end of the
1920s. By then, Wegener’s notion of continental drift-the fragmentation
of Pangaea and the slow movement of the resulting continents away
10 from each other-was already a topic of hot debate in geological circles in
many parts of the world. An American geologist, F. B. Taylor, had written
a long article in support of continental drift. But most other geologists
could not conceive of the possibility that whole continents might be
mobile, functioning like giant rafts.
15 Wegener had marshalled a good deal of circumstantial evidence:
fossil plants and animals from widely separated locales; climatic
environments (as indicated by sedimentary rocks) unlike those now
prevailing; and the remarkable fact that the coastlines of continents,
especially those of South America and Africa, can be made to fit so well
20 with each other, suggesting that the continents had once been actually
joined together. Plausible as continental drift was to those who believed
this evidence, there was one major problem: the process or mechanism
that causes continents to move remained unexplained.
12
As sometimes happens when a new scientific concept emerges,
25 the hypothesis of continental drift failed to gain credibility among many
geologists, in part because the mechanisms proposed by Wegener
himself, as well as others, were implausible. Wegener suggested that
Earth's gravitational force, which is slightly weaker at the equator than
elsewhere, was capable of gradually pulling the continents apart. Taylor
30 proposed that the Moon was torn from Earth in what is today the Pacific
Basin, and that the continents have been steadily moving into the gap
thereby created. Such notions damaged the credibility of the entire
continental drift hypothesis. It was only in the 1950s, when scientists
discovered that ocean floors move and spread, that Wegener's theory
gained general acceptance among geologists.

1. What does the passage 3. The word "primeval" in line


mainly discuss? 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) Wegener's explanation (A) Movable
of how oceans (B) Very big
influence continental (C) Very ancient
drift. (D) Assumed
(B) Wegener's theory of (E) Very strong
continental drift and
how it was received by 4. According to the second
scientists. paragraph, how did most
(C) Geological theories that geologists view Wegener's
preceded Wegener's theory by the end of the
theory of continental 1920s?
drift. (A) They found it extremely
(D) Geological concepts difficult to accept.
developed by Wegener (B) They knew little about it
that gained because Wegener's
immediate acceptance. book had not yet been
(E) Wegener had translated.
marshalled a good deal (C) They considered it
of circumstantial possible but waited for
evidence. more evidence.
(D) They agreed that
2. The word "bold“ in line 2 is continents move but
closest in meaning to rejected proposed
(A) convincing explanations of how
(B) daring they move.
(C) complex (E) They had written a long
(D) attractive article in support of
(E) Simple continental drift

13
(C) Forests
5. The word "locales" in line (D) Coasts
16 is closest in meaning to (E) Continents
(A) Places
(B) Distances

Questions 6-10

Although the deep-sea anglerfish has been a subject of curiosity


for a long time, it is still very much a mystery to scientists. This type of
fish has escaped close scientific observation because it lives deep at the
bottom of the ocean. For this reason, scientists have not had many
5 chances to follow the anglerfish around in its natural environment.
Furthermore, because the anglerfish inhabits the deep dark waters of
the ocean, it cannot be examined in the same way that scientists study
many other fish in the laboratory. However, we do know some things
about the anglerfish. What we do know, we've gathered mainly from
10 anglerfish that have gotten caught in the nets of fishing boats.
The anglerfish comes in many shapes and sizes. Its length can
range from about twenty centimeters to over three meters. However, all
anglerfish have a few things in common. They all have a large head with
small eyes and a huge mouth filled with sharp, see-through teeth. The
15 anglerfish attracts its food, usually other small sea animals, with a
strange green glow given off by a long rodlike outgrowth over its mouth.
In the darkness of the deep sea, the anglerfish waves the shining "rod"
around until it catches the eye of another sea creature. When the
curious creature spots the glowing tip of the antenna, it cannot help but
20 swim closer for a better look. Then, in a split second, the creature is
swallowed up and eaten by the anglerfish. In this way, the anglerfish
uses its antenna much like a fishing rod to lure prey to it. That is why it is
called an anglerfish-because "angler" is just another word for someone
who fishes.
25 Although the anglerfish's ability to "fish" using its rod is a unique
one, it is not the anglerfish itself that produces the light which attracts
other sea creatures. The green glowing light is produced by a type of
special bacteria called photobacteria. Scientists do not know exactly why
photobacteria collect on the tip of the anglerfish's antenna, but they
thrive there. The large amount of salt in the ocean's water allows them to
survive and multiply. Although these green glowing bacteria cannot be
seen in small groups-that is, they are invisible in small groups-they
reproduce on the tip of the rod until there are so many of them that they
glow brightly. By doing this, the bacteria help the anglerfish to survive in
deep dark places near the ocean floor, places where very few sea

14
creatures are well adapted to live.

6. What is the passage mainly (A) Made


about? (B) Placed
(A) The unusual places (C) Changed
where fish live (D) Learned
(B) The unique features of (E) Caught
an odd fish
(C) Experiments scientists 9. What is probably true about
use to learn about fish the size of the anglerfish?
(D) Modem fishing (A) Its size varies greatly.
Techniques (B) Its size helps it catch
(E) close scientific prey.
observation (C) Its size is thb same as
that of other deep-sea
7. Why do scientists know so fish.
little ' about the deep-sea (D) Its size is not known for
anglerfish? certain.
(A) It is not a fish that is (E) Itself that produces the
eaten by humans. light which attracts
(B) It is a shy fish that other sea creatures
hides from humans.
(C) It lives far below the 10. The word "it" in line 19
surface of the ocean. refers to
(D) It was believed to be an (A) The sea creature
extinct species of fish. (B) The antenna
(E) It has been a subject of (C) The green glow
curiosity for a long time. (D) The deep-sea
anglerfish
8. The word "gathered" in line (E) The glowing bacteria
9 is closest in meaning to

Questions 11-15

In colonial New England during the seventeenth and eighteenth


centuries, the term "family" referred to all persons, related by blood or
not, who lived together as members of a household under a single head.
Families served many social and economic functions. The family was,
5 first of all, a business, an absolutely central agency of economic
production and exchange. Each household was more or less self-
sufficient, and its various members were inextricably united in the work
of providing for their fundamental material wants. Work, indeed, was a
wholly natural extension of family life and merged with all of the family's

15
10 other activities.
The family was also a school. Parents were charged by law to
attend to the education of all the children in their immediate care. Most
people had little chance for any other sort of academic education,
though "common schools" were just beginning to appear by the end of
15 the seventeenth century. At the same time, the family was a vocational
institute. However deficient it may have been in transmitting the formal
knowledge and skills of reading and writing, it clearly served to prepare
its young for effective, independent performance in the larger economic
system. For the great majority of persons, who became farmers, this
20 learning process was instinctive and almost unconscious. But it applied
with equal force to the various trades and crafts of the time, which were
usually learned in the home of a master craftsperson.
The family was many other things too. It was a house of correction.
Idle persons and even criminals were sentenced by the court to live as
25 servants in the families of more reputable citizens. The family was also a
welfare institution that provided several different kinds of welfare service.
It was occasionally a hospital, at least insofar as certain individuals
thought to have medical knowledge would receive sick persons into their
homes for day-to-day care and treatment. It was an orphanage in that
children whose parents had died were straightaway transferred into
another household (often that of a relative). It was a home for the aged
and infirm who, no longer able to care for themselves, were usually
incorporated into the households of their grown children.

16
11. What aspect of life in 14. The word "it" in line 20
colonial New England is the refers to
passage mainly about? (A) Family
(A) The various roles (B) The larger economic
played by the family. system
(B) The different types of (C) The great majority of
education that children persons
received. (D) This learning process
(C) The contribution that (E) Medical knowledge
families made to
reducing crime. 15. According to the third
(D) The size of the average paragraph, why were some
Family. persons sentenced to work
(E) Natural extension of as servants?
family life. (A) To provide them with
vocational training
(B) To correct their
12. AIl of the following are behavior
mentioned in the passage (C) To make the work of
as functions of the colonial the court easier
American family EXCEPT (D) To help families too
(A) Meeting the material poor to hire servants
needs of its members. (E) To transfer into another
(B) Providing treatment for household
persons who were ill.
(C) Providing housing for
officials of the court.
(D) Providing basic
education to its
members.
(E) Providing for their
fundamental material
wants.

13. The word "inextricably" in


line 7 is closest in meaning
to
(A) Ultimately
(B) Complexly
(C) Informally
(D) Inseparably
(E) Usually

17
Section 2
Reading Comprehension

Questions 16 – 20.

A seventeenth-century theory of burning proposed that


anything that burns must contain material that the theorists called
“phlogiston.” Burning was explained as the release of phologiston
from the combustible material to the air. Air was thought
(5) essential, since it had to provide a home for the released
phlogiston. There would be a limit to the phlogiston transfer, since
a given volume of air could absord only so much phlogiston.
When the air had become saturated, no additional amounts of
phlogiston could leave the combustible substance, and the
(10) burning would stop. Burning would also stop when the
combustible substance was emptied of all its phlogiston.
Although the phlogiston theory was self-consistent, it was
awkward because it required that imaginative, even mysterious,
properties be ascribed to phlogiston. Phlogiston was elusive. No
(15) one had ever isolated it and experimentally determined its
properties. At times it seemed to show a negative weight: the
residu left after burning weighed more than the material before
burning. This was true, for example, when magnesium burned.
Sometimes phlogiston seemed to show a positive weight, when,
(20) for example, wood burned, the ash weighed less than the strating
material. And since so little residue was left when alcohol,
kerosene, or high-grade coal burned, these obviously different
materials were thought to be pure or nearly pure phlogiston.
In the eighteenth century, Antoine lavoisier, on the basis of
(25) careful experimentation, was led to propose a different theory of
burning, one that required
a constituent of air- later shown to be oxygen- for combustion.
Since the weight of the oxygen is always, added, the weight of the
products of combustion, including the evolved gases, would
always be greater than the weight of the starting material.
Lavoisier’s interpretation was more reasonable and
straightforward than that of the phlogiston theorists. The
phlogiston theory, always clumsy, became suspect,
eventually fell into scientific disrepute, and was replaced by new
ideas.

18
16. What does the passage weight.
mainly discuss? (B) Leaves no residue after
(A) The cheminal composition burning.
of phlogiston. (C) Was thought to be made
(B) Attempts to explain what of nearly pure phlogiston.
happens when materials (D) Was thought to contain no
burn. phlogiston.
(C) Limitations of (E) Was more reasonable and
seventeenth-century straightforward.
scientific theories.
(D) The characteristics of the 20. Which of the following is true
residue left after fires. of both the phlogiston theory
(E) A different theory of of burning and Lavoisier’s
burning. theory of burning?
(A) Both theories propose that
17. The word “it” in line 5 refers to total weight always
(A) Burning increases during burning.
(B) Phlogiston (B) Both theories are
(C) Combustible material considered to be
(D) Air reasonable and
(E) Magnesium straightforward.
(C) Both theories have
18. The word “properties” in line difficulty explaining why
14 is closest in meaning to residue remains after
(A) Interpretations burning.
(B) Locations (D) Both theories recognize
(C) Characteristics that air is important to
(D) Virtues combustion.
(E) Substance (E) Both theories explain
propose that total weight
19. The author mentions always decreases during
“magnesium” in line 18 as an burning.
example of a substance that
(A) Seemed to have
phlogiston with a negative

Questions 21 - 25

Iron production was revolutionized in the early eighteenth


century when coke was first used instead of charcoal for refining
iron ore. Previously the poor quality of the iron had restricted its
use in architecture to items such as chains and tie bars for
(5) supporting arches, vaults, and walls. With the improvement in
refining ore, it was now possible to make cast-iron beams,
columns, and girders. During the nineteenth century further
19
advances were made, notably Bessemer's process for converting
iron into steel Which made the material more commercially viable.
(10) Iron was rapidly adopted for the construction of bridges,
because its strength was far greater than that of stone or timber,
but its use in the architecture of buildings developed more slowly.
By 1800 a complete internal iron skeleton for buildings had been
developed in industrial architecture replacing traditional timber
(15) beams, but it generally remained concealed. Apart from its low
cost, the appeal of iron as a building material lay in its strength, its
resistance to fire, and its potential to span vast areas. As a result,
iron became increasingly popular as a structural material for more
traditional styles of architecture during the nineteenth century, but
(20) it was invariably concealed.
Significantly, the use of exposed iron occurred mainly in the
new building types spawned by the Industrial Revolution: in
factories, warehouses, commercial offices exhibition halls, and
railroad stations, where its practical advantages far outweighed its
(25) lack of status. Designers of the railroad stations of the new age
explored the potential of iron, covering huge areas with spans
that surpassed the great vauits of medieval churches and
cathedrals. Paxton's Crystal Palace, designed to house the Great
Exhibition of 1851, covered an area of 1848 feet by 408 feet in
prefabricated units of glass set in iron frames. The Paris
Exhibition of 1889 included both the widest span and the greatest
height achieved so far with the Halle does Machines, spanning
362 feet, and the Eiffel Tower 1,000 feet high. However, these
achievements were mocked by the artistic elite of Paris as
expensive and ugly follies. Iron, despite its structural advantages,
had little aesthetic status. The use of an exposed iron structure in
the more traditional styles of architecture was slower to develop.

21. What does the passage architecture during the


mainly discuss? 1800’s.
(A) Advances in iron (E) The styles of architecture
processing in the during the nineteenth
eighteenth and nineteenth century.
centuries.
(B) The effects of the 22. Iron replaced stone and
Industrial Revolution on timber in the building of
traditional architectural bridges because iron was
styles. considered
(C) Advantages of stone and (A) More beautiful
timber over steel as a (B) New and modern
building material. (C) Much stronger
(D) The evolution of iron in (D) Easier to transport
20
(E) More expensive
25. The paragraph following the
23. The word “it” in line 15 refers passage most probably
to discusses
(A) industrial architectural (A) the gradual inclusion of
(B) internal iron skeleton exposed iron in traditional
(C) stone styles of architectural
(D) strength (B) further improvements in
(E) timber iron processing methods
(C) the return to traditional
24. The word “appeal” in line 16 is building materials dor use
closest in meaning to in commercial structures
(A) adjustment (D) the desreased use of
(B) assignment stone and timber as a
(C) attraction building material
(D) attempt (E) prefabricated units of
(E) Achievements glass set in iron frames.

Questions 26 - 30

The most easily recognizable meteorites are the iron variety,


although they only represent about 5 percent of all meteorite falls.
They are composed of iron and nickel along with sulfur, carbon,
and traces of other elements. Their composition is thought to he
(5) similar to that of Earth's iron core and indeed they might have
once made up the core of a large planetoid that disintegrated long
ago. Due to their dense structure, iron meteorites have the best
chance of surviving an impact, and most are found by farmers
plowing their fields.
(10) One of the best hunting grounds for meteorites is on the
glaciers of Antarctica where the dark stones stand out in stark
contrast to the white snow and ice. When meteorites fall on the
continent they are embedded in the moving ice sheets. At places
where the glaciers move upward against mountain ranges,
(15) meteorites are left exposed on the surface. Some of the
meteorites that have landed in Antarctica are believed to have
conic from the Moon and even as far away as Mars, when large
impacts blasted out chunks of material and hurled them toward
Earth. Perhaps the world's largest source of meteorites is the
(20) Nullarbor Plain, an area of limestone that stretches for 400 miles
along the southern coast of Western and South Australia. The
pale, smooth desert plain provides a perfect backdrop for spotting
meteorites, which are usually dark brown of black. Since very little
21
erosion takes place, the meteorites are well preserved and are
(25) found just where they landed. Over 1,000. fragments from 150
meteorites that fell during the last 20,000 years have been
recovered. One large iron meteorite, called the Mundrabilla
meteorite, weighed more than 11 tons.
Stony meteorites, called chordates, are the most common
type and make up more than 90 percent of all falls. But because
they are similar to Earth materials and therefore erode easily, they
are often difficult to find. Among the most ancient bodies in the
solar system are the carbonaceous chondrites that also contain
carbon compounds that might have been the precursors of life on
Earth.
(B) identifying
26. What is the passage mainly (C) cooling
about? (D) falling
(A) Finding meteorites on (E) spotting
Earth’s surface
(B) How the composition of 29. Where was teh Mundrabilla
meteorites is similiar to meteorite discovered?
that of Earth (A) On the Nullarbos Plain
(C) Why most meteorites do (B) In a field
not survive impact with (C) On a mountain
Earth (D) In Antarctica
(D) The origins of meteorites (E) on the continent
(E) where the glaciers move
upward against mountain 30. According to the passage,
ranges stony meteorites are
(A) composed of fragmented
27. The word “embedded” in line materials
13 is closest in meaning to (B) less likely to be discovered
(A) Isolated than iron meteorites
(B) encased (C) mostly lost in space
(C) enhanced (D) found only on the
(D) enlarged Nullarbor Plain
(E) preserved (E) found by farmers

28. The word “spotting” in line 22


is closest in meaning to
(A) removing

22
Questions 31 - 35

A pioneering set of experiments has been important in the


revolution in our understanding of animal behavior-a revolution
that eroded the behaviorist dogma that only humans have minds.
These experiments were designed to detect consciousness that
(5) is, signs of self-awareness or self-recognition-in animals other
han humans.
The scientific investigation of an experience as private as
consciousness is frustratingly beyond the usual tools of the
experimental psychologist. This may be one reason that many
(10) researchers have shied away from the notion of mind and
consciousness in nonhuman animals. In the late1960's, however,
psychologist Gordon Gallup devised a test of the sense of self:
the mirror test. If an animal were able to recognize its reflection in
a mirror as "self," then it could be said to possess an awareness
(15) of self, or consciousness. It is known that a cat or a dog reacts to
its own image in mirror, but often it treats it as that of another
individual whose behavior very soon becomes puzzling and
boring.
The experiment called for fanuliarizing the animal with the
(20) mirror and then marking the animal's forehead with a red spot. If
the animal saw the reflection as just another individual, it might
wonder about the curious red spot and might even touch the
mirror. But if the animal realized that the reflection was of itself, it
would probably touch the spot on its own body. The first time
(25) Gallup tried the experiment with a chimpanzee, the animal acted
as if it knew that the reflection was its own, it touched the red spot
on its forehead. Gallup' report of the experiment, published in a.
1970 article, was a milestone in our understanding of animal
minds and psychologists wondered how widespread self-
recognition would prove to be.

31. The word “dogma” in line 3 is nonhuman animals?


closest in meaning to (A) Most nonhuman animals
(A) evaluation show signs of self-
(B) proof consciousness
(C) intention (B) Most nonhuman animal
(D) belief can be taught self-
(E) reflection consciousness
(C) Chimpanzees are the only
32. Which of the following nonhuman animal that
statements best describes the have a human level of
behaviorist position with self- consciousness
regard to consciousness in (D) Nonhuman animal do not
23
possess self- (E) consciousness in
consciousness nonhuman animals
(E) Understanding of animal
behavior-a revolution 34. The phrase ”shied away from”
in line 10 is closest in
33. The author suggests that meaning to
researchers before 1960 (A) approached
probably avoided studying (B) avoided
nonhuman animal (C) respected
consciousness because they (D) allowed
(A) did non wish to experiment (E) designed
with live animal subjects
(B) were discouraged by 35. The chimpanzee in Gallup’s
earlier unsuccessful first experiment responded to
experiments that studied the mirror test by touching
human consciousness (A) its own forehead
(C) had not yet devised (B) the researcher’s forehead
adequate research (C) the red spot on the mirror
methods for animal (D) the red spot on another
consciousness chimpanzee
experiments (E) the sense of self
(D)lacked the necessary
laboratory equipment

Questions 36 - 40

The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the
twentieth century were marked by the development of an
international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines,
floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The
(5) Art Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together elements
of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and natural forms. The
glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often
deliberately distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored
device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on
(10) ancient glass that had been buried. Much of the Art Nouveau
glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had
been generically termed “art glass.” Art glass was intended for
decorative purposes and relied for its effect on carefully chosen
color combinations and innovative techniques.
(15) France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the
Art Nouveau style; among the most celebrated was Emile Galle
(1846-1904). In the United States, Louis Comfort Tiffany (1843-
1933) was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a
24
great variety of glass forms and surfaces, which were widely
(20) copied in their time and are highly prized today. Tiffany was a
brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian,
Japanese, and Persian motifs.
The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorativ
arts from 1895 until 1915, although its influence continued
(25) throughout the mid-1920’s. It was eventually to be overtaken by a
new school of thought known as Functionalism that had been
present since the turn of the century. At first restricted to a small
avant-garde group of architects and designers, Functionalism
emerged as the dominant influence upon designers after the First
World War. The basic tenet of the movement-that function should
determine from-was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic
code evolved: from should be simple, surfaces plain, and any
ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new
design concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the
styles and conventions of the preceding decades, created an
entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau types of glass
to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of
contrast, stark outline and complex textural surfaces.

36. What does paragraph 1 38. Para.1 mentions that Art


mainly discuss? Nouveau glass was
(A) Design elements in the sometimes similar to which
Art Nouveau style aspect of ancient buried
(B) The popularity of the Art glass
Nouveau style (A) The distortion of the
(C) Production techniques glass
for art glass (B) The appearance of the
(D) Color combinations glass surface
typical of the Art (C) The shapes of the glass
Nouveau style objects
(E) The new taste (D) The size of the glass
demanded dramatic objects
effects of contrast (E) conventions of the
preceding decades

37. The word “one” in line 5 39. What is the main purpose of
refers to paragraph 2?
(A) century (A) To compare different Art
(B) development Nouveau styles
(C) style (B) To give examples of
(D) coloration famous Art Nouveau
(E) reaction artists
(C) To explain why Art
25
Nouveau glass was so
popular in the United (A) clearly distinguished
States between art and design
(D) To show the impact Art (B) appealed to people who
Nouveau had on other liked complex painted
cultures around the designs
world (C) reflected a common
(E) To imitate the iridescent desire to break from the
surface past
(D) was easily interpreted
40. It can be inferred from the by the general public
passage that one reason (E) was eventually to be
Functionalism became overtaken
popular was that It .....

Questions 41-45

During most of their lives, surge glaciers behave like normal


glaciers, traveling perhaps only a couple of inches per day.
However, at intervals of 10 to 100 years, these glaciers move
forward up to 100 times faster than usual. The surge often
(5) progresses along a glacier like a great wave, proceeding from one
section to another. Subglacial streams of meltwater water
pressure under the glacier might lift it off its bed, overcoming the
friction between ice and rock, thus freeing the glacier, which
rapidly sliders downhill Surge glaciers also might be influenced by
(10) the climate, volcanic heat, or earthquakes. However, many of
these glaciers exist in the same area as normal glaciers, often
almost side by side.
Some 800 years ago, Alaska’s Hubbard Glacier advanced
toward the sea, retreated, and advanced again 500 years later.
(15) Since 1895, this seventy-mile-long river of ice has been flowing
steadily toward the Gulf of Alaska at a rate of approximately 200
feet per year. In June 1986, however, the glacier surged ahead as
much as 47 feet a day. Meanwhile, a western tributary, called
Valerie Glacier, advanced up to 112 feet a day. Hubbard’s surge
(20) closed off Russell Fiord with a formidable ice dam, some 2,500
feet wide and up to 800 feet high, whose caged waters threatened
the town of Yakutat to the south.
About 20 similar glaciers around the Gulf of Alaska are
heading toward the sea. If enough surge glaciers reach the ocean
(25) and raise sea levels, West Antarctic ice shelves could rise off the
seafloor and become adrift. A flood of ice would then surge into the
Southern Sea. With the continued rise in sea level, more ice would
26
plunge into the ocean, causing sea levels to rise even higher,
which in turn would release more ice and set in motion a vicious
cycle. The additional sea ice floating toward the tropics would
increase Earth’s Albedo and lower global temperatures, perhaps
enough to initiate a new ice age. This situation appears to have
occurred at the end of the last warm interglacial (the time between
glacations), called the Sangamon, when sea ice cooled the ocean
dramatically, spawning the beginning of the Ice Age.

41. What is the main topic of the (B) wave


passage? (C) machine
(A) The classification of (D) boat
different types of surge (E) Waters
glaciers
(B) The causes and 44. Which of the following does
consequences of surge the author mention as a
glaciers possible cause of surging
(C) The definition of a surge glaciers?
glacier (A) The decline in sea levels
(D) The history of a (B) The occurrence of
particular surge glacier unusually large ocean
(E) glaciers exist in the waves
same area as normal (C) The shifting Antarctic ice
glaciers shelves
(D) The pressure of
42. The word “intervals” in line 3 meltwater underneath
is closest in meaning to the glacier
(A) records (E) freeing the glacier
(B) speeds
(C) distances
(D) periods 45. Yakutat is the name of
(E) normal (A) an Alaskan town
(B) the last ice age
43. The author compares the (C) a surge glacier
surging motion of a surge (D) an Antarctic ice shelf
glacier to the movement of a (E) a formidable ice dam
(A) fish

27
Questions 46-50

According to sociologists, there are several different ways in


which a person may become recognized as the leader of a social
group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural
patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other
(5) cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may
gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process
of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally
through election or recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual
(10) personal ability, decades of research have failed to produce
consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural leaders.”
It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders
have in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized
as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs of that
(15) particular group.
Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social
groups have a single leader, research suggests that there are
typically two different leadership roles that are held by different
individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes
(20) the completion of tasks by a social group. Group members look to
instrumental leaders to “get things” done.” Expressive leadership,
on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective
well-being of a social group’s member. Expressive leader are less
concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing
(25) emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize
tension and conflict among them. Group members expect
expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the
group and provide support to individual members.
Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary
relationship to other group members. They give orders and may
discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the group’s
goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary
relationship to others in the group. They offer sympathy when
someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are
quick to lighten a serious moment with humor ,and try to resolve
issues that threaten to divide the group. As the differences in
these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive
more personal affection from group members; instrumental
leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may
enjoy a mote distant respect

28
46. What does the passage a similar set of
mainly discuss? characteristics
(A) The problems faced by (E) Social groups
leaders determine who will lead
(B) How leadership differs them
in small and large
groups 49. Which of the following
(C) How social groups statements about leadership
determine who will lead can be inferred from
them paragraph 2?
(D) The role of leaders in (A) A person who is an
social groups effective leader of a
(E) Different leadership particular group may not
roles be an effective leader in
another group.
47. The passage mentions all of (B) Few people succeed in
the following ways by which sharing a leadership role
people can become leaders with another person.
EXCEPT (C) A person can best learn
(A) Recruitment how to be an effective
(B) Formal election process leader by studying
(C) Specific leadership research on leadership.
training (D) Most people desire to be
(D) Traditional cultural leaders but can produce
patterns little evidence of their
(E) Evidence of their qualifications.
qualifications (E) People minimize tension
and conflict among
48. In mentioning “natural them.
leaders” in lines 10-11, the
author is making the point 50. The passage indicates that
that instrumental leaders
(A) Few people qualify as generally focus on
“natural leaders” (A) ensuring harmonious
(B) There is no proof that relationships
“natural leaders” exist (B) sharing responsibility
(C) “Natural leaders’ are with group members
easily accepted by the (C) identifying new
members of a social leaders
group (D) achieving a goal
(D) “Natural leaders” share (E) give orders

29
THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2

30
31
Section 3: Structure
Time: 25 minutes

Directions: Questions 1 – 40 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each


sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked A, B, C, D and E.
Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.

Now begin work on the questions.

1. Hanya Holm is a dancer, 4. It is said that United Stales


choreographer, and ..... literature ........ individualy and
(A) Ance that she teaches identity in the twentieth
(B) Her teaching of dance century, after long imitation of
(C) To teach dancing European models.
(D) Dance teacher (A) Was
(E) That to teach (B) Achieved
(C) To achieve
2. Despite is fishike form, the (D) Achieving
whale is............and will drown (E) Achieve
if submerged too long.
(A) An animal breathers air that 5. A nation’s merchant marine is
(B) An animal that berathes air made up of its commercial
(C) An animal breathes air ships and the people ..... them.
(D) That an animal breathes air (A) They operate
(E) An that animal breathes air (B) Who operate
(C) They operate of
3. Under the influence of Ezra (D) Do they operate
Pound, Hilda Doolittle became (E) To be operated
associated with the imagists
and ..... into one of the most 6. ……including climate, mineral
original poets of the group. content, and the permanency
(A) Developed of surface water, wetland may
(B) To be developing be mossy, grassy, scrubby, or
(C) Who developed wooded.
(D) Developing it (A) Depending on many
(E) Is developed factors
(B) Many factors depending

32
on
(C) Factors depending on 11. Color and light, taken
many together, ..... the aesthetic
(D) On many factors depending impact of the interior of a
(E) Depend many factors building.
(A) Very powerfully influence
7. A microscope can reveal (B) Very influence powerfully
vastly ..... detail than is visible (C) Powerfully very influence
to the naked eyes. (D) Influence powerfully very
(A) Than more (E) Influence very powerful
(B) Than more
(C) More than 12.Portland, .......,is located
(D) More primarily on two hilly
(E) That more than peninsulas overlooking Casco
Bay and its many island.
8.The term "ice age" refers to (A) Which Maine's largest city
any of several periods of time (B) Maine's largest city where
when glaciers covered (C) Is Maine's largest city
considerably more of Earth's (D) The largest Maine’s city
surface ...... (D) Maine's largest city
(A) As is today (E) Where city maine’s largest
(B) Than today is
(C) Than they do today
(D) That today 13. Total color blindness ..... as
(E) Is that today the result of a defect in the
retina.
9. Industrialization has been (A) a rare condition that
responsible for ..... most (B) a rare condition
radical of the environmental (C) that a rare condition
changes caused by humans. (D) Is a rare condition
(A) a (E) a rare that condition
(B) the
(C) some of which 14.Cells,first identified by the
(D) which are the early microscopists, began to
(E) which some of be considered ........ in the
nineteenth century.
10. Helium is not flammable and, (A) Them as microcosm of
next to hydrogen ,is ....... living organisms
(A) Known the lightest gas (B) The microcosm of living
(B) Lightest the known gas organisms
(C) The lightest gas known (C) The microcosm of living
(D) The known gas lightest organisms to be
(E) The gas lightest known (D) As which, the microcosm

33
of living organisms 19. Most of ..... archaeologists
(E) The microcosom organism know about prehistoric
living cultures is based on studies
of material remains.
15. ..... no conclusive evidence (A) These
exists, many experts believe (B) What
that the wheel was invented (C) Which
only once and then diffused (D) Their
to the rest of the world (E) Who
(A) Even
(B) But 20. Flag Day is a legal holiday
(C) Although only in the state of
(D) So Pennsylvania, ......... Betsy
(E) That Ross sewed the first
American flag.
16. In her time, Isadora Duncan (A) Which
was ..... today a liberated (B) Where
woman. (C) That
(A) Calling what we would (D) What
(B) Who would be calling (E) Whom
(C) What we would call
(D) She would call it
(E) What calling it 21. Coinciding with the
development of jazz in New
17. ..... around stones that are Orleans in the 1920’s ..... in
sun-warmed, even the blues music.
smallest of the stones creates (A) Was one of the greatest
tiny currents of warm air. (B) One of the greatest periods
(A) The cool air (C) Was of the greatest
(B) If the air is cool periods
(C) That the air cools (D) The greatest periods
(D) The cooler the air (E) The periods greatest
(E) The air cool that
22. Speciation , ........, results
18. Beef cattle ......... of all when an animal population
livestock for economic growth becomes isolated bv some
in certain geographic regions. factor, usually geographic.
(A) The most are important (A) Form biological species
(B) Are the most important (B) Iological species are
(C) The most important are formed
(D) That are the most (C) Which forming biological
important species
(E) Are most important that (D) The formation of biological

34
species worms, and snails ..... for
(E) Biological forming species their food by probing the
ground with their long bills.
22. Most free frogs change color (A) And searching
to harmonize ..... (B) And to search
backgrounds. (C) And search
(A) With its (D) And searches
(B) Within such (E) And to searching
(C) With their
(D) For its 27.One of the most difficult
(E) For with problems in understanding
sleep is determining what .....
23.The tongue is capable of (A) The functions of sleep is
many motions and (B) Is the functions of sleep
configurations and plays a (C) The functions of sleep are
vital role in chewing, ..... (D) Are the functions of sleep
(A) swallowed, and speaking. (E) The sleeping function of
(B) swallowing, and speaking
(C) swallowed, and spoke 28.In an area first explored by
(D) swallow, and speak Samuel de Champlain, .....
(E) swallow and speaking (A) Establishment of the city
of Halifax in 1749.
24.Instead of being housed in (B) In 1749 the city of Halifax
one central bank in established.
Washington, the Federal (C) In 1749, establishing the
Reserve system ..... twelve city of Halifax.
districts. (D) The city of Halifax was
(A) Is division into established in 1749.
(B) Are divided up to (E) Establishing the city of
(C) Are dividing onto Halifax in 1949.
(D) Is divided into
(E) Will devide 29. ..... Nat Turner who led a
revolt against slavery in
25.Philodendrons of various Virginia in 1831.
kinds are cultivated for their (A) Where was
..... (B) It was
(A) Beautifully foliage (C) He was
(B) Foliage beautifully (D)That he was
(C) Beautiful foliage (E) When he was
(D) Beauty foliage
(E) Foliage beautiful 30. William Walker’s mural, “Wall
of Respect,” .... an outdoor
26.Kiwi birds mainly eat insects, wall in Chicago, deals with

35
social (B) Hollow teeth which are
(A) Covers called
(B) Covers it (C) Hollow teeth are called
(C) Which covers (D) Hollow teeth call
(D) Which it covers (E) Hollow teeth calling
(E) Covering which
35. The annual worth of Utah’s
manufacturing is greater than
31. The most elaborate of all bird .....
nests .......dome communal (A) That of its mining and
structure built by social farming.
weavebirds. (B) Mining and farming
(A) Larger combination.
(B) Largely is (C) That mining and farming
(C) The large combined.
(D) Is the large (D) Of its combination mining
(E) Is largest and farming.
(E) That mined and farmed
32. The museum on Ellis Island, combining
a former immigration station,
contains documents and
artifacts ........ to four 36. Since prehistoric people first
centuries of United States applied natural pigments to
immigration. cave walls, ...... have painted
(A) Related them to express themselves.
(B) Related (A) When artists
(C) Related that (B) Artists
(D) Be related (C) Artists who
(E) That related (D) That artists
(E) When artist
33. The photoperiodic response
of algae actually depends on 37. It is proving less ..... for drug
the duration of darkness ..... makers to market directly to
(A) The light is not on patient
(B) And not on light (A) Cost and more profit
(C) But is not on the light (B) Costly and more
(D) Is not on light profitable
(E) The light is on not (C) Costly and more
profitably
34. Some snakes have ..... fangs (D) Costing and more
that they use to poison their profitably
victims. (E) Cost and more profit
(A) Hollow teeth are calling

36
38. Any acid can, in principle, (A) On all another
neutralize any base, although (B) On all others
...... between some of the (C) On all the others
more reactive compounds. (D) On all other
(A) Side reactions can occur (E) On all any other
(B) The occurrence of side
reactions can 40. Pleasing to look at and touch,
(B) The occurrence of side beads come in shapes,
reactions can colors, and materials ....... to
(C) Can side reactions occur handle and to sort them.
(D) Side reactions that can (A) That almost compel one
occur (B) One compels
(E) Eactions side that can (C) That compel almost
(D) One is almost compelled
39. Like snakes, lizards can be (E) Compel that
found ..... continents except
Antarctic

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 3

37

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