Previous Years Papers CSIR NET Life Sciences Eduncle

5 Previous Year Papers with Answer Key
(June 2018 to June 2020)
CSIR-NET Life Sciences
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Life Sciences (PSP-2018 June)
Life Sciences
Previous Year Solved Paper - 2018 June
Duration : 180 minutes Maximum Marks : 200
Read the following instructions carefully.
The question paper is divided in three parts :
Part ‘A’ : This part contains twenty (20) objective type questions.The candidates shall be required
to answer any 15 questions.Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks
allocated to this section shall be 30 out of 200.
Part ‘B’ : This part contains fifty (50) objective type questions. The candidate shall be required to
answer any 35 questions. Each question shall be of two marks.The total marks allocated
to this section shall be 70 out of 200.
Part ‘C’ : This part contains seventy five (75) objective type questions. A candidate shall be required
to answer any 25 questions. Each question shall be of four marks.The total marks
» There will be negative marking for all three PARTS @ 25% marks for each wrong answer.
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PART - ‘A’
1. In a 100 m race A beats B by 10 m B beats C by 5 m By how many meters does A beat C?

(1) 15.0 m (2) 5.5 m
(3) 10.5 m (4) 14.5 m
2. Suppose (i) “A  B” means “A is the father of B”, (ii) “A B” means “A is the husband of B”, (iii)
“A B” means “A is the wife of B” and (iv) “A  B” means “A is the sister of B”.
Which of the following represents “C is the father-in-law of the sister of D” ?
(1) C  E  F  D (2) C  E  F  D
(3) C  E  F  D (4) C  E  F  D
3. In a group of 11 persons, each shakes hand with every other once only once. What is the total
number of such handshakes ?
(1) 110 (2) 121
(3) 55 (4) 66
4. Path of a ray of light between two mirrors is shown in the diagram. If the length of each mirror
is ‘’, what is the total path length of the ray between the mirrors ?
30º

3 4
(1)  (2) 
4 3
3
(3)  (4) 2
2
5. What is the value of (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ..... + 4033) + 7989 × 2017 ?

(1) 20170000 (2) 20172017
(3) 20171720 (4) 20172020
6. What is the last digit of (2017)2017 ?

(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 7 (4) 9
7. Pick the correct statement :

(1) The sky is blue because Sir C.V. Raman gave the correct explanation.
(2) Copernicus believed that the Sun, and not the Earth, was at the centre of the Solar
System.
(3) The sky appears blue when seen from the Moon.
(4) No solar eclipse is visible for an astronaut standing on the Moon.

8. A librarian is arranging a thirteen-volume encyclopedia on the shelf from left to right in the
following order of volume numbers : 8, 11, 5, 4, 9, 1, 7, 6, 10, 3, 12, 2. In this pattern, where
should the volume 13 be placed ?
(1) Leftmost (2) Rightmost
(3) Between 10 and 3 (4) Between 9 and 1
9. Nine-eleventh of the members of a parliamentary committee are men. Of the men, two-thirds are
from the Rajya Sabha. Further, 7/11 of the total committee members are from the Rajya Sabha.
What fraction of the total number are women from the Lok Sabha ?
(1) 1/11 (2) 6/11
(3) 2/11 (4) 3/11
10. When a farmer was asked as to how many animals he had, he replied that all but two were cows,
all but two were horses and all but two were pigs. How many animals did he have ?
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 12
11. The distribution of marks of students in a class is given by the following chart :
100
90
80
No. of Students
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
1 2 3 4
5 6 7 8 9 10
Marks
If 3.30 marks is the passing score in a 10 mark question paper, which of the following is false ?
(1) Majority of the students have scored above the pass mark
(2) Mode of the distribution is 3
(3) Average marks of passing students is above 55%
(4) Average marks of students who have failed is below 20%
12. Mohan lent Geeta as much money as she already had. She then spent ` 10. Next day, he again
lent as much money as Geeta now had, and she spent ` 10 again. On the third day, Mohan again
lent as much money as Geeta now had, and she again spent ` 10. If Geeta was left with no
money at the end of the third day, how much money did she have initially ?
(1) ` 11.25 (2) ` 10
(3) ` 7.75 (4) ` 8.75
13. In a sequence of 24 positive integers, the product of any two consecutive integers is 24. If the
17th member of the sequence is 6, the 7th member is :
(1) 24 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 17
14. The prices of diamond having a particular colour and clarity are tabulated below :
Weight of Dimaond Price of Diamond
(in Carats) (in Rupees/Carat)
0.25 1 Lakh
0.5 2 Lakh
1 4 Lakh
2 8 Lakh
How many 0.25 carat diamonds can be purchased for the price of a 2 carat diamond ?
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 32 (4) 64
15. The university needs to appoint a new Vice Chancellor which will be based on seniority. Ms. West
is less senior to Mr. North but more senior to Ms. East. Mr. South is senior to Ms. West but junior
to Mr. North. If the senior-most declines the assignment then who will be the new Vice Chancellor
of the University ?
(1) Mr. North (2) Ms. East
(3) Ms. West (4) Mr. South
16. Areas of the three rectangles inside the full rectangle are given in the diagram.
8
12 4
What is the area of the full rectangle ?
(1) 36 (2) 48
(3) 72 (4) 96
17. Which should be the correct pattern in the empty square ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

18. How much gold and copper (in g), respectively, are required to make a 120 g bar of 22 carat
gold ?
(1) 90 and 30 (2) 100 and 20
(3) 110 and 10 (4) 120 and 0
19. A water tank that is 40% empty holds 40 L more water than when it is 40% full. How much water
does it hold when it is full ?
(1) 100 L (2) 75 L
(3) 120 L (4) 200 L
20. If all the angles of a triangle are prime numbers, which of the following could be one such angle ?
(1) 89º (2) 79º
(3) 59º (4) 29º
PART - ‘B’
21. Which one of the following peptides can coexist in both cis- and trans- conformation ?
(1) Ala-Ala-CONH2 (2) Pro-Gly-CONH2
(3) Asn-Gly-CONH2 (4) Val-Pro-CONH2
22. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?

(1) Allosteric enzymes do not obey Michaelis-Menten kinetics.
(2) The free-energy change provides information about the spontaneity but not rate of a
reaction.
(3) Competitive and non-competitive inhibitions are kinetically indistinguishable.
(4) A kcat/KM(M–1 s–1) of – 2 × 108 for an enzyme indicates that the value is close to diffusion-
controlled rate of encounter.
23. Which one of the following pair of amino acids are glucogenic and ketogenic in nature ?
(1) Alanine and Lysine (2) Lysine and Leucine
(3) Isoleucine and Phenylalanine (4) Aspartate and Lysine
24. The [OH–] of 0.1 N HCl solution is

(1) 10–14 M (2) 10–13 M
(3) 10–12 M (4) 10–7 M
25. Ability of a membrane protein to span the lipid bilayer strictly depends on the presence of
(1) Zinc finger domain (2)  helices
(3) parallel  sheet (4) antiparallel  sheet
26. Which one of the listed below is a P-type ion transporter ?

(1) Mg+2 and Fe+2 (2) Mg+2 and Fe+3
(3) Mg+2 and Cl– (4) Na+ – K+, Ca+2 and H+

27. The cell maintains a high concentration of protons inside the lysosome because of
(1) antiporter in the lysosomal membrane.
(2) ATP-powered proton pump in the lysosomal membrane.
(3) facilitated diffusion proton channel in the lysosomal membrane.
(4) facilitated diffusion proton uniporter in the lysosomal membrane.
28. It is known that there is a large difference in the DNA content between two organisms with similar
developmental complexity. This is due to large differences in the number of
(1) transposable elements, repetitive DNA and coding sequences.
(2) transposable elements and repetitive DNA.
(3) introns and coding sequences.
(4) introns and transposable elements.
29. A uracil containing plasmid was constructed and was used in transformation into the wild type
(ung+) and uracil-N-glycosylase mutated (ung–) E coli cells and scored for transformants in the
presence of appropriate antibiotic. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the
experimental outcome ?
(1) ung+ cells will have fewer transformants compared to ung– cells.
(2) ung– cells will give fewer transformants compared to ung+ cells.
(3) No transformants will be obtained in ung– cells as uracil excision repair will not occur and
the plasmid would not replicate.
(4) Presence of uracil in DNA is unnatural and the plasmid DNA with uracils in it will not
produce transformants in either ung+ or ung– cells.
30. E coli takes 40 min to duplicate its genome using a bi-directional mode of replication. If E coli
were to use uni-directional mode of replication of synthesize a full copy of DNA complementary
to just one of the strands of the genome, it would take
(1) 40 min (2) 80 min
(3) 20 min (4) 60 min
31. Transcriptional regulation of trp operon by tryptophan involves binding of tryptophan to

(1) the repressor protein and inhibition of transcription by its interaction with the operator
region.
(2) RNA polymerase and inhibition of transcription.
(3) the repressor protein leading to structural changes and its degradation by proteases.
(4) the repressor protein leading to its interaction with the sigma subunit and inhibition of
transcription.
32. Phosphorylation of eIF2  subunits (at Ser51) leads to

(1) inactivation of Met-tRNA, binding activity of eIF2B.
(2) sequestration of eIF2B because of tight binding between eIF2 and eIF2B.
(3) degradation of eIF2B.
(4) enhance guanine exchange activity of e|IF2B.

33. If a disease caused by an intracellular pathogen is associated with host anti-inflammatory response,
which one of the following may lead to an effective therapeutic approach ?
(1) Treatment with TGF-.
(2) Treatment with macrophage activating agent.
(3) Depletion of IFN- from the system.
(4) Treatment with IL-4 and IL-10.
34. Cervical cancer-causing papilloma virus produces two oncoproteins E6 and E7 which are
responsible for interfering with cell cycle regulation by
(1) inactivating pRb and p53, respectively.
(2) modulating p53 and pRb, respectively.
(3) binding to cyclin D1 and CDK4.
(4) activating expression of p21.
35. Which one of the following permits the rapid diffusion of small, water-soluble molecules between
the cytoplasm of adjacent cells ?
(1) Tight junctions (2) Anchoring junctions
(3) Adherence junctions (4) Gap junctions
36. Which one of the following is NOT true for alternative pathway of complement activation ?
(1) Alternative pathway uses the same membrane-attack complex as the classical pathway.
(2) Alternative pathway does not require antigen-antibody interactions.
(3) Alternative pathway produces C3 by the same route as the classical pathway.
(4) Certain microbial surfaces have physico-chemical properties that may result in activation
of alternative pathway.
37. Fertilization in sea urchin eggs involves Ca2+ release from the endoplasmic reticulum for cortical
granule reactivation. The major molecule responsible for releasing Ca2+ from intracellular stores is
(1) zona pellucida glycoproteins (2) protamines
(3) inositol 1, 4, 5-trisphosphate (4) N-acetylglucosaminidase
38. What is the observed phenotype when the ultrabithorax gene is deleted in Drosophila ?
(1) The third thoracic segment is transformed into another second thoracic segment resulting
in a fly with four wings.
(2) Since it specifies the second thoracic segment, instead of antenna leg grows out of the
head socket.
(3) Since it specifies the third thoracic segment, a fly with two pairs of halters develop.
(4) Since this gene fails to be expressed in the second thoracic segment, the antennae
sprout in the leg position.
39. Which one of the following statements with respect to amphibian development is correct ?
(1) The organizer is itself induced by the Nieuwkoop Central located in the dorsal-most
mesodermal cells.
(2) The organizer functions by secreting proteins like Noggin, Chordin and Follistatin that
blocks BMP signal that would otherwise dorsalize the mesoderm.
(3) In the presence of BMP activators the ectodermal cells form neural tissue.
(4) Wnt signalling causes a gradient of -catenin along the anterior-posterior axis of the
neural tube that appears to specify the regionalization of the neural tube.

40. Which one of the following statements related to components/features of senescence in plants
is INCORRECT ?
(1) Programmed cell death in plants may generate functional cells or tissues.
(2) Senescence can be induced by application of cytokinins and delayed by overexpression
of salicylic acid.
(3) Plants defective in autophagy demonstrate accelerated plant senescence.
(4) Leaf senescence is regulated by NAC and WRKY genes families.
41. Which one of the following secondary metabolites is characterized by the presence of a central
carbon atom that is bound by a sulphur to a glycine group, and by a nitrogen to a sulfonated
oxime group ?
(1) Alkaloids (2) Terpenes
(3) Phenolics (4) Glucosinolates
42. Dark grown Arabidopsis seedlings show ‘triple response’ when exposed to ethylene hormone.
Which one of the following options is characteristic of ‘triple response’ ?
(1) Reduced shoot elongation, increased shoot thickness and tightening of apical hook.
(2) Reduced shoot elongation, reduced shoot thickness and loosening of apical hook.
(3) Increased shoot elongation, increased shoot thickness and loosening of apical hook.
(4) Increased shoot elongation, reduced shoot thickness and tightening of apical hook.
43. Brassinosteroid are a group of steroid hormones that function in a variety of cellular and
developmental contexts in plants. Which one of the following acts as an inhibitor of the
brassinosteroid receptor ?
(1) BRI 1 (2) BKI 1
(3) BAK 1 (4) BSK 1
44. Which one of the following metabolites moves from mitochondria to peroxisome during the
operation of the C2 oxidative photosynthetic cycle ?
(1) Glycerate (2) Glycolate
(3) Glycine (4) Serine
45. Sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons that are cholinergic, innervate

(1) sweat glands (2) parotid glands
(3) hair follicles (4) pancreas
46. Melanopsin is found in which cell of the retina ?

(1) Cones (2) Rods
(3) Ganglion cells (4) Bipolar cells
47. Prestin, a membrane protein, is found in which one of the following cells of the organ of Corti ?
(1) Inner hair cells (2) Inner phalangeal cells
(3) Outer hair cells (4) Outer phalangeal cells

48. Two individuals A and B, each of 75 kg body weight, have similar volume of body water. Both of
them had high salt snack. However, individual A also had a glass of alcoholic drink. Based on this
information, which one of the following statements is true ?
(1) A will have lower circulating level of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) than B
(2) B will have lower circulating level of ADH than A
(3) The level of ADH will not change in these two individuals
(4) The reabsorption of water in kidney will be more in A then B
49. An intron was cloned within a transposable elements. Absence of the intron following transposition
of the element, will indicate that it
(1) following conservative mode of transposition
(2) following replicative mode of transposition
(3) is a retrotransposon
(4) is an insertion element
50. In an organism, allele for red eye colour is dominant over the allele for white eye colour. A cross
is made between a white eyed male and a red eyed female. In the progeny all males are red eyed
while the females are white eyed. The reciprocal cross leads to all red eyed progeny. Based on
the above information which one of the following conclusions is correct ?
(1) This is a sex-limited trait, and the male is the homomorphic sex.
(2) This is a sex-linked trait, with male being the homomorphic sex.
(3) This is a sex-linked trait, with female being the homomorphic sex.
(4) This is a case of autosomal inheritance, with incomplete penetrance
51. In a sample from a population there were 65 individuals with BB genotype, 30 individuals with Bb
genotype and 15 individual with bb genotype. The frequency of the ‘b’ allele is :
(1) 0.59 (2) 0.27
(3) 0.41 (4) 0.73
52. A male snail homozygous for dextral alleles is crossed with a female homozygous for sinistral
alleles. All the F1 individuals showed sinistral phenotype. When F1 progeny snails were self
fertilized all individual of F2 progeny had dextral coiling. This experiment demonstrated.
(1) dominant epistasis as dextral allele is dominant over sinistral allele
(2) recessive epistasis as in F2 dextral allele appeared in homozygous condition
(3) maternal effect as the nuclear genotype of the F1 mother has governed the phenotype of
the F2 individuals.
(4) maternal inheritance as the mitochondrial genes of the F1 mother has governed the
phenotype of the F2 individuals.
53. Bipinnaria and branchiolaria are the larval forms of

(1) Crustacea
(2) Arthropoda and Mollusca, respectively
(3) Ophiuroidea and Holothuroidea, respectively
(4) Asteroidea

54. The animals belonging to phylum Onychophora

(1) have Arthropoda characteristics and thus also considered as a class of Arthropoda
(2) have both annelidan and arthropodan characteristics
(3) have both arthropodan and molluscan characteristics
(4) serve as a connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca
55. Which one of the following parameters is NOT used in phenetic classification of bacteria ?
(1) trophism
(2) susceptibility of a bacteria to a particular bacteriophage
(3) reaction to a particular antibody
(4) 16S rRNA sequence
56. Which of the following groups represents SAR clade of protists ?

(1) Euglenozoans, Red algae, Parabasalids
(2) Brown Algae, Forams, Radiolarians
(3) Slime Molds, Entamoeba, Diplomonads
(4) Charophytes, Choanoflagellates, Tubulinids
57. Given below are biodiversity hotspots in decreasing order of endemic plant species recorded in
them. Select the correct order.
(1) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka > Indo-Burma > Sundaland > Philippines
(2) Philippines > Sundaland > Indo-Burma > Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
(3) Sundaland > Indo-Burma > Philippines > Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
(4) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka > Sundaland > Philippines > Indo-Burma
58. Which of the following options lists ecosystems in increasing order of plant productivity per day
per unit leaf area ?
(1) Tropical forests, hot deserts, temperate forests
(2) Hot deserts, temperate forests, tropical forests
(3) Hot deserts, temperate grasslands, tropical forests
(4) Tropical forests, temperate grasslands, hot deserts
59. A general increase in the average body mass of animals population within a species with latitude
is known as
(1) Allen’s rule (2) Bergmann’s rule
(3) Allee effect (4) Hamilton’s rule
60. Ruderal species are those which are found in the environments with
(1) low disturbance, high competition
(2) high disturbance, low competition
(3) low disturbance, low competition
(4) high disturbance, high competition

61. Scientists discovered two new plant species, “A” and “B” that look similar except that, species
“A” bears flowers and leaves that are twice the size of those in species “B”. Which method
should the scientists use to appropriately investigate if species “A” is a result of gene duplication
in species “B” ?
(1) Sequence similarity, gene structure and gene size.
(2) Plant size, physical proximity of gene and genome size.
(3) Sequence similarity, physical proximity of gene, genome size.
(4) Sequence length, gene structure and chromosome count.
62. A group of palaeontologists digging in an area discovers a pre-historic human burial site. The
same group, while exploring a nearby area, discovered fossil remains of what appeared to be
more than 100 million year old dinosaur bones. Which of the following combinations of modern
radiometric dating techniques should they use to calculate the age of these fossils most
accurately ?
14 235
(1) C dating for human remains and U dating for dinosaur remains
87
(2) Rb dating for both human and dinosaur remains
14
(3) C dating for both human and dinosaur remains
129 129
(4) I dating for human remains and Xe for dinosaur remains
63. Given below are statements related to the two competing hypotheses on the origin of modern
humans the Out-of-Africa hypothesis and the multi-regional hypothesis. Which of the following
statements is INCORRECT ?
(1) Both the hypotheses support that Homo erectus originated in Africa and expanded to
Eurasia.
(2) Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and Y chromosome DNA evidence support the ‘Out-of-Africa’
hypothesis.
(3) The principal conflict between the two hypotheses is that multi-regional hypothesis does
not support African origin of Homo erectus.
(4) The multi-regional hypothesis states that independent multiple origins occurred in the
million years since Homo erectus came out of Africa.
64. Which one of the following statements is TRUE for positive-frequency dependent selection ?
(1) Fitness of a genotype increases as it becomes less common.
(2) Fitness of a genotype increases as it becomes more common.
(3) Fitness of a genotype decreases as it becomes less common.
(4) Fitness of a genotype decreases as it becomes common and gets fixed.
65. The MALDI mass spectrum of a peptide gave a single peak with M/z of 2000. The ESI mass
spectrum of the same peptide gave multiple peaks. These observations indicate that
(1) degradation has occurred while acquiring ESI mass spectrum
(2) multiple charged species of the same compound are observed in the ESI spectrum
(3) the sample is impure
(4) ESI induces polymerization of the peptide

66. Protein conformational dynamics CANNOT be determined by which one of the following techniques
(1) NMR spectroscopy (2) Differential scanning calorimetry
(3) Mass spectroscopy (4) Fluorescence microscopy
67. Given below are a few statements on Agrobacterium mediated transformation of plants. Which
one of the following statements is CORRECT ?
(1) T-DNA transfer occurs from left border to right border.
(2) The gfp reporter gene can never be used for selection of transgenic plants.
(3) Transformation frequencies will decrease on overexpression of virulence genes.
(4) Host plant genes play an important role in influencing transformation frequencies.
68. Which one of the following assay systems can specifically detect apoptotic cells ?
(1) Tetrazolium dye (MTT) based colorimetric assay
(2) FITC - annexin V based FACS analysis
51
(3) Cr release assay
(4) Trypan blue exclusion assay
69. From the various techniques listed below, which one CANNOT be used to precisely map the
transcription start-site of a gene ?
(1) S1 Mapping
(2) Sequencing the region downstream of promoter
(3) 5’ RACE
(4) Primer Extension Method
70. Following are statements to depict relationship among measures of central tendency in a skewed
dataset :
(A) In positively skewed datasets, mean > median > mode
(B) In positively skewed datasets, mode > median > mean
(C) In negatively skewed datasets, mean > median > mode
(D) In negatively skewed datasets, mode > median > mean
Which of the above statements are TRUE ?
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (C)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (D)

PART - ‘C’
71. Following are structures of stereoisomers of aldohexoses which differ in the stereochemistry.
CHO CHO CHO
HO C H H C OH H C OH
HO C H HO C H HO C H
H C OH H C OH HO C H
H C OH H C OH H C OH
CH2 OH CH2 OH CH2 OH

D-Mannose D-Glucose D-Galactose
Based on above structures, following information was given below :
(A) D-glucose and D-mannose are epimers because they differ in the stereochemistry at C-
2 position.
(B) D-glucose and D-galactose are epimers because they differ in the stereochemistry at C-
4 position.
(C) D-mannose and D-glucose are epimers because they differ in the stereochemistry at C-
3 position.
(D) D-galactose and D-glucose are epimers because they differ in the stereochemistry at C-
5 position.
Choose one of the correct combinations of above statements ?
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (C) and (D)
(3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (D)
72. Following statements are made related to protein structure

(A) The hydrogen bonding patterns between the CO and NH groups are :
n  n + 3 in -helix; n  n + 4 in 310 helix and n  n + 5 in  helix.
(B) In a  turn, there are 10 atoms between the hydrogen bond donor and acceptor.
(C) In a  turn, there are 6 atoms between the hydrogen bond donor and acceptor.
(D) Parallel sheets have evenly spaced hydrogen bonds, which bridge the strands at an angle.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct ?
(1) (A) and (C) (2) (A) and (B)
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (B) and (D)
73. The following statements are made on nucleic acid structure :

(A) In the B-form of DNA, the sugar pucker is C2’ endo.
(B) In RNA, the sugar pucker is C3’ exo.
(C) The wobble base pair is formed between G and A in RNA.
(D) A change in the sugar pucker from C2’ endo in the B form of DNA to C3’ endo alters the
width and depth of the major groove.
(1) (A) and (C) (2) (B) and (D)
(3) (A) and (D) (4) (B) and (C)

1
74. The Vmax and Km from a Lineweaver-Burk plot of an enzyme reaction where  40 M–1 min at
v
1 1 1
 0 and  1.5  10 2 mM–1 at  0 are :
(S) (S) v
(1) 0.025 M min–1 and 0.67 × 10–2 mM

(2) 0.025 M–1 min and 0.67 × 10–2 mM–1
(3) 0.025 M min–1 and 1.5 × 102 mM–1
(4) 0.038 M min–1 and 0.67 × 10–2 mM
75. From the following statements :

(A) Biosynthesis of proteins and nucleic acids from precursors results in production of chemical
energy in the form of ATP, NADH, NADPH and FADH2.
(B) The spontaneity of a reaction in cells does not depend whether Gº for the reaction is
positive or negative.
(C) Both oxidative phosphorylation and photo-phosphorylation involve oxidation of H2O to O2.
(D) Only chemical potential energy contributes to proton motive force in mitochondria.
Which one of the following combinations represents all INCORRECT statements ?
(1) (A), (B), (C) (2) (B), (C), (D)
(3) (A), (B), (D) (4) (A), (C), (D)
76. Match the enzymes in Column-A with their respective biological function in Column-B :
Column-A Column-B
(a) Lipases (i) Catalysis of ATP-dependent translocation
of the aminophospholipids,
phosphatidylethanolamine and
phosphatidylserine from the extracellular to the
cytosolic leaflet of the plasma membrane.
(b) Flippases (ii) Catalysis of ATP-dependent translocation of
plasma membrane phospholipids from the
cytosolic to the extracellular leaflet.
(c) Floppases (iii) Catalyze hydrolysis of triacylglycerols.
(d) Scramblases (iv) Catalyze the movement of any membrane
phospholipid across the bilayer down its
concentration gradient.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

77. An integral membrane protein (P) has been identified as a cell surface protein of hepatocytes and
assigned to bind to hepatitis B virus (HBV) and promote its entry into cytosol. Upon binding to
HBV particles, the C-terminal of P interacts with F-actin in the cytosol and in turn, helps in the
entry of the HBV particles. P was successfully cloned and expressed in animal cells in culture
where in its N-terminal is exposed on the surface while the C-terminal resides in the cytosol. The
recombinant protein P so expressed retains its complete structure and function. From the list of
experiments given below, which one of the experiments will you perform to show the C-terminal
of the protein P via interacting with F-actin helps in HBV entry ?
(1) Incubating radiolabelled HBV with hepatocytes in culture and follow up its association with
F-actin by immuno-precipitation analysis using anti-F-actin antibody.
(2) Incubating radiolabelled HBV with hepatocytes over-expressing the C-terminal mutant of
P and repeat the rest of the experiment as in “I”.
(3) Incubating radiolabelled HBV with hepatocytes over expressing the N-terminal mutant of
P and repeat the rest of the experiment as in “I”.
(4) Using wild type P as well as C-terminal mutant of P and their individual over expression
in a heterologous cell line (completely devoid of endogenous P protein) and then repeat
experiment as in “I”.
78. The cell membrane of neuron maintains intracellular conditions that differ from those of the
extracellular environment. Such difference in intra- and extracellular conditions are critical to the
function of the nerve cell as the nerve cell membrane resembles a charged capacitor. Assuming
the electric field (E) across a parallel-plate capacitor is uniform and if membrane thickness is
7nm and potential difference across the membrane is – 60 mV, calculate E of the membrane.
(1) 6 × 105 Vm–1 (2) 7 × 105 Vm–1
(3) 8.6 × 106 Vm–1 (4) 6.6 × 106 Vm–1
79. Two liposome preparations (“X” and “Y”) are made using basic lipid composition as
phosphatidylcholine (PC) and cholesterol (Chol). In “Y” a ganglioside (asialo-GM1) is incorporated
during the preparation besides PC and Chol. In an attempt to find out the localization of asialo-
GM1 in the membrane bilayer of “Y” (taking “X” as a negative control) and considering liposome
as a true depiction of lipid bilayer structure of cellular membrane, following reagents are provided
as probes :
(A) Phospholipase A (B) Galactose binding lectin
(C) Exoglycosidase (D) Cyclodextrin
Choose the most appropriate reagent(s) from the above list to ascertain the localization of asialo-
GM1.
(1) Only (A) (2) Both (C) and (D)
(3) Both (B) and (C) (D) Both (A) and (D)
80. Genes translocated to the heterochromatic regions of chromosomes are silenced. In S, pombe,
a translocation event was detected wherein a gene of interest was translocated to the centromere
region and is silenced. Mutagenesis leading to loss of function of the following target gene of
interest was done to allow expression of the gene of interest from its new locus.
(A) Mutation in histone deacetylase (Clr3).
(B) Mutation in histone acetyltransferase (HAT-8).
(C) Mutation in histone H3 lysine 9 methyl transferase (Clr4).
(D) Loss of Dicer, an RNA processing enzyme.
Which of the above event could allow the expression of this gene from the centromeric region ?
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (A), (C) and (D)
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A) and (C) only
81. A group of scientists performed an experiment where they artificially fused mouse cells with
monkey cells. The resulting fused cells were labelled with fluorescently tagged antibodies against
mouse and monkey surface receptor proteins, X and Y respectively. At the time 0 minute just after
fusion events, two receptors were confined to their own half in the heterokaryon. However, such
surface receptors (X and Y) intermixed on the cell surface after 60 minutes. Which one of the
given statements correctly reflects the outcome of the experiment ?
(1) The proteins in cytoplasm are in a dynamic state.
(2) The proteins on the membrane surface are in a dynamic state.
(3) Surface membrane proteins exchange with the cytosolic proteins.
(4) membrane surface proteins are in a static phase.
82. Eg5 is a well-studies protein in Xenopus. To understand the function of Eg5 in mammalian cells,
a team of researchers treated mammalian cells during late G2 phase with Eg5-inhibitor. The
following diagrams represent images of mitotic cells.
Based on the above information, what function might be attributed to Eg5 during mitosis ?
(1) Eg5 inhibits actin dynamics.
(2) Eg5 can activate GPCR signalling.
(3) Eg5 has motor activity.
(4) Eg5 can impact mitochondrial dynamics
83. Actinomycin D inhibits the process of transcription in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.
The following statements are made about actinomycin D–mediated inhibition of transcription :
(A) Actinomycin D inhibits transcription from a double stranded DNA template by either E coli
or yeast RNA polymerases.
(B) Actinomycin D inhibits transcription from a single stranded RNA template by eukaryotic
viral RNA polymerases.
(C) Actinomycin D inhibits transcription from single stranded x174 DNa template by E coli
RNA polymerase immediately after viral DNA entry.
(D) Actinomycin D inhibits transcription from double stranded RNA template by eukaryotic
RNA polymerase II.
Which of the combinations of the above statements is a true representation of the mechanism
of actinomycin D mediated inhibition.
(1) (A) only (2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (A), (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (D) only

84. During maturation process of some RNA molecules, formation of a 2'–5' phosphodiester bond
takes place. Following statements are made about this phenomenon.
(A) Spliceosome mediated removal of intronic sequences occurs through the formation of a
2'–5' phosphodiester bond.
(B) Removal of group II introns occurs through the formation of 2'–5' phosphodiester bond.
(C) Enzymatic removal of introns from the yeast tRNA precursors involves 2'–5' phosphodiester
bond formation.
(D) RNaseP mediated 5'-end maturation of tRNA precursors involves formation of a 2'–5'
phosphodiester bond.
Which one of the following combinations of the statements is a true representation ?
(1) (A) only (2) (A) and (D)
(3) (A) and (B) (4) (C) and (D)
85. A plasmid with a linking number (Lk) of 200, topological winding (Tw) number of 200 and a
writhing number (Wr) of 0 was transformed into E coli. The plasmid was re-isolated from the
culture of the transformant. The re-isolated plasmid was found to possess the same molecular
weight as the original plasmid, but it possessed a writing number of –5. Following statements are
made about this observation.
(A) Lk of the re-isolated plasmid would be 195.
(B) Lk of the re-isolated plasmid would remain 200.
(C) Tw of the re-isolated plasmid would remain 200.
(D) Tw of the re-isolated plasmid would be 195.
Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is the correct representation
of the facts.
(1) A only (2) (A) and (C)
(3) (A) and (D) (4) (D) only
86. Following statements are being made about the orientation of the N-glycosidic bond between the
base and the sugar in the following DNA duplexes.
(A) 'anti' for B form DNA duplexes
(B) 'syn' for B form DNA duplexes
(C) 'anti' for A form DNA duplexes
(D) 'syn' for A form DNA duplexes
Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct ?
(1) (A) and (C) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (D) (4) (B) and (D)
87. During translation in prokaryotes, when ribosomes reach the termination codon, the termination
codon is recognized by the class I release factors (RF1 and RF2) leading to the release of the
polypeptide. A second class II release factor (RF3) facilitates the termination process. Which of the
following statements regarding the mechanism of action of the release factors is INCORRECT ?
(1) Class I release factors decode the stop codons while the RF3 is a GTPase that stimulates
recycling of the class I release factors.
(2) Free RF3 has a higher affinity for GTP than GDP
(3) RF1 and RF2 share a conserved segment of 'GGQ' sequence which is essential for the
polypeptide release.
(4) RF1 and RF2, individually possess another stretch of tripeptide sequences which are
involved in the recognition of the termination codons.
88. E coli DNA ligase catalyses formation of a phosphodiester bond between the adjoining 3' hydroxyl,
and the 5' phosphoryl ends in DNA duplexes. The energetic need for this reaction is met by the
hydrolysis of NAD+ to NMN+ and AMP in a three-step reaction. Following statements are being
made about the mechanism of this reaction.
(i) AMP is linked to the 5' phosphoryl end of the nicked DNA.
(ii) Adenylyl group of NAD+ is transferred to the  -amino group of Lys in DNA ligase to form
a phosphoamide adduct.
(iii) DNA ligase catalyses the formation of a phosphodiester bond by the nucleophilic attack
of the 3' hydroxyl group onto the phosphate and releases AMP.
Based on the statements made above identify the correct sequence of the reaction steps.
(1) (i)–(ii)–(iii) (2) (i)–(iii)–(ii)
(3) (ii)–(i)–(iii) (4) (iii)–(i)–(ii)
89. Given below are the types of vaccination (column A), the diseases or conditions against which
these vaccination types are used (column B) and the advantages or disadvantages for using
these vaccination types (column C)
Column A Column B Column C

Strong immune response; often life-long
(a) Live attenuated (i) Rabies (x)
immunity with a few doses
Stable immune response; cold chain is
(b) Inactivated or killed (ii) Measles (y)
not required
Chance of untoward immunological
reactions are very low; less successful
(c) Inactivated exotoxin (iii) Diptheria (z)
in inducing longterm immunity; need to
be administered repeatedly
Which one of the following combinations is the most appropriate match ?
(1) a–i–z, b–ii-y, c–iii–x (2) a–ii–x, b–i–y, c–iii–z
(3) a–iii–y, b–ii–x, c–i–z (4) a–ii–z, b–iii–x, c–i–y
90. G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) are used to detect and respond to many different types
of signals, including neurotransmitters, hormones involved in glycogen and fat metabolism and
even photons of light.
Which one of the following statements regarding GPCR is INCORRECT ?
(1) GPCRs are a large family with a common structure of seven membrane spanning  -
helices.
(2) GPCRs are coupled to trimeric G proteins comprising three subunits ,  and .
(3) The G  subunit is a GTPase switch protein that alternates between an active ('on') state
with bound GTP and an inactive ('off') state with GDP.
(4) The 'on' form gets bound to  and  subunits and activates a membrane-bound effector
like adenylyl cyclase, phospholipase C or ion channel.

91. The following intracellular event occurs in a cell that is subjected to conditions of starvation.
Which one of the following statements correctly represents the event shown above ?
(1) The cell is undergoing apoptotic cell death with the help of lysosomes (A).
(2) The cell is undergoing autophagy by formation of autophagolysosomes (C).
(3) The cell is undergoing necroptosis.
(4) The cell is undergoing autophagy and fusion occurs between lysosome (B) and
autophagolysosome (A).
92. The extracellular matrix (ECM) is a complex combination of secreted proteins that is involved in
holding cells and tissues together. The components of ECM form a network by binding to each
other and communicate with cells by binding to adhesion receptors on the cell surface. ECM
comprises mainly two classes of macromolecules, proteoglycans and very high molecular weight
large proteins.
Which one of the following statements regarding ECM constituents is INCORRECT ?
(1) Proteoglycans are a subset of secreted or cell surface-attached glycoproteins containing
covalently linked specialized polysaccharide chains called glycosaminoglycans (GAGs).
(2) GAGs are long branched polymers of specific repeating disaccharides of sialic acid and
glucose or galactose.
(3) Major types of GAGs present in ECM are heparan sulphate, chondroitin sulphate, dermatan
sulphate, keratan sulphate and hyaluronan.
(4) Major types of large proteins present in ECM are collagen, laminin, elastin and fibronectin.

93. Present-day cancer treatment uses many approaches. Beyond surgery and radiation treatment,
which are most often employed in cases of larger, more discrete tumors, drug therapies can be
used to target residual tumor cells and to attack dispersed cancers. Chemotherapies by anti-
cancer drugs are mostly aimed at blocking DNA synthesis and cell division.
A list of anti-cancer drugs is given in column A, their chemical nature in column B and their
mechanism of action in column C.
Column A Column B Column C

(i) Methotrexate (a) Podophyllotoxin I Inhibits fromation of tetrahydrofolate
(ii) Etoposide (b) Pyrimidine analogue II Inhibits thymidylate synthase
Interferes with break down of
(iii) 5-fluorouracil (c) Alkaloid III
microtubules required for cell division
Forms stable complex with DNA and
(iv) Paclitaxel (d) Folic acid analogue IV topoisomerase II affecting re-ligation of
DNa strands
Which one of the following is the most appropriate match ?
(1) i-a-I, ii-b-II, iii-c-III, iv-d-IV (2) i-b-II, ii-a-III, iii-d-I, iv-c-IV
(3) i-c-III, ii-d-IV, iii-a-II, iv-b-I (4) i-d-I, ii-a-IV, iii-b-II, iv-c-III
94. Activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID) is the key mediator of somatic hypermutation, gene
conversion and class-switch recombination. In order to ascertain the role of AID in class-switch
recombination, immune response against a target antigen was compared between AID knock-out
mice (AID-/-) with that of mice retaining a functional copy of the AID gene (AID+/–). Development
of IgM and IgG antibodies against the target antigen was then measured following successive
immunization and plotted graphically.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate representation of the experiment ?
AID +/- AID -/-
IgM IgG
0.6 0.6
Arbitrary Units
Arbitrary Units
st st
0.5 1 Immunization 0.5 1 Immunization
0.4 0.4
2nd Immunization
0.3 0.3 nd
2 Immunization
(1) 0.2 0.2
0.1 0.1
0 0
Days Days
IgM IgG
0.6 st
1 Immunization 0.6
Arbitrary Units
Arbitrary Units
0.5 0.5 1s t Immunization

2nd Immunization
0.4 0.4 2nd Immunization
0.3 0.3
0.2 0.2
(2)
0.1 0.1
0 0
Days Days

IgM IgG
0.6 st
1 Immunization 0.6
Arbitrary Units
Arbitrary Units
st
0.5 2nd Immunization 0.5 1 Immunization
0.3 0.3
0.2 0.2
(3)
0.1 0.1
0 0
Days Days
IgM IgG
0.6 st
1 Immunization 0.6
Arbitrary Units
Arbitrary Units
st
0.5 0.5 1 Immunization
nd
0.3 2 Immunization 0.3

0.2 0.2
(4)
0.1 0.1
0 0
Days Days
95. Following statements were made regarding vulval development in Caenorhabditis elegans :
(A) The six vulval precursor cells (VPCs) are influenced by the anchor cell to form an
equivalence group.
(B) In the loss of function lin-12 mutants, both cells become uterine whereas in gain of
function mutants, both become anchor cell.
(C) If the anchor cell is destroyed early in development, all the six VPCs divide once and
contribute towards the formation of hypodermal cells.
(D) The anchor cell/ventral uterine precursor decision is due to Notch-Delta mediated
mechanism of restricting adjacent cell fates.
(E) The paracrine factor secreted by the anchor cell directly activates the Notch-delta pathway.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements ?
(1) (A), (C) and (D) (2) (A), (B) and (D)
(3) (C), (D) and (E) (4) (B), (D) and (E)
96. Given below are few statements regarding the role of Disheveled (Dsh) and -catenin (-cat) in
the development of sea urchin.
(A) Dsh is localized in the vegetal cortex of the oocyte before fertilization and in the region of
the 16-cell embryo about to become the micromeres.
(B) Dsh is localized in the cytosol of the oocyte during, oogenesis and in the micromere
forming blastomeres of a 16-cell embryo.
(C) -cat accumulates predominantly in the micromeres and somewhat in the veg2 tier cells.
(D) Treatment of embryos with lithium chloride does not allow the accumulation -cat in the
nuclei of all blastula cells, and the animal cells thus become specified as endoderm and
mesoderm.
(E) When -cat is prevented from entering the nucleus, the embryo develops as a ciliated
ectodermal ball.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements ?
(1) (B), (C) and (E) (2) (A), (C) and (D)
(3) (A), (C) and (E) (4) (B), (D) and (E)
97. Which one of the following statements regarding limb regeneration in salamander is correct ?
(1) A normal limb is regenerated after amputation, irrespective of whether the cut was made
below the elbow or through the humerus.
(2) It occurs by compensatory regeneration and does not include formation of an apical
ectodermal cap.
(3) Regeneration occurs through formation of a blastema, which essentially consists of
unspecified multipotential progenitor cells.
(4) Proliferation of the blastema cells does not require nerves or factors secreted by the
nerves.
98. Change in leaf morphology is observed during transition from vegetative to reproductive phase in
several plants. The following statements are proposed to explain the above observation :
(A) Alteration in the gene content of leaves of reproductive phase from those of vegetative
phase.
(B) Differential methylation pattern of genes influencing leaf development and morphology.
(C) Mutation in transcription factor that prevents its association with promoter elements of
genes regulating leaf development.
(D) Small RNA mediated inhibition of gene expression of a homeotic gene.
Which one of the following options represents a correct combination of statements that could
explain the observed changes ?
(1) (B) and (C) (2) (A) and (D)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (C)
99. cAMP signalling plays a very important role in the development of Dictyostelium discoideum.
Below are few statements related to it.
(A) Every amoeba at the time of aggregation has the potential to make, receive and relay
cAMP.
(B) acb mutants develop normally but the spores formed appear glassy and are unable to
germinate.
(C) The spores formed by the acg  mutants germinate in the sorus itself.
(D) RegA is an extracellular phosphordiesterase.

(E) cAMP is continuously secreted in nanomolar amounts during aggregation.
Which combination of the above statements is correct ?
(1) (A) and (D) (2) (A) and (B)
(3) (A) and (E) (4) (B) and (D)

100. Torpedo, is known to serve as a receptor for Gurken. Deficiencies of the torpedo gene is Drosophila
cause ventralization of the embryo. In an experiment, the germ cell precursors from a wild type
embryo were transplanted into embryos whose mother carried the torpedo mutation. Also, the
reverse experiment, i.e., transplantation of germ cell precursors from torpedo mutants into wild
type embryos was done. The torpedo deficient germ cells developed in a wild type female
showed normal dorso-ventral axis, while the wild type germ cells developed in a torpedo deficient
female showed ventralized egg.
Some of the following statements are drawn from the above experiments and some from known
facts to understand the functioning of Torpedo.
(A) Zygotic contribution of Torpedo is essential for the development of dorsoventral axis.
(B) Maternal contribution of Torpedo is essential for the development of dorso-ventral axis.
(C) Since Torpedo is a receptor for Gurken and follicle cells surround the part of the oocyte
where Gurken is expressed, it is likely that Torpedo is expressed in follicle cells.
(D) Gurken signalling initially dorsalizes the follicle cells, which in turn send signal to organize
the dorso-ventral polarity in oocyte.
(E) Gurken signalling initially dorsalizes the nurse cells which help in generation of dorso-
ventral polarity in oocyte.
Which one of the following combination of statements is most appropriate ?
(1) (B), (C) and (D) (2) (A), (C) and (D)
(3) (B), (C) and (E) (4) (A), (D) and (E)
101. Stomata from detached epidermis of common dayflower (Commelina communis) were treated
with saturating photon fluxes of red light. In a parallel treatment, stomata treated with red light
were also illuminated with blue light (indicated by arrow). From the graphs shown below, select
the correct pattern of stomata opening (solid lines and dotted lines represent stomatal aperture
under red and blue lights, respectively).
Stomatal Aperture
Stomatal Aperture
(1) (2)
Time (h) Time (h)

Stomatal Aperture
Stomatal Aperture
(3) (4)
Time (h) Time (h)

102. Following are certain statements regarding Rubisco, the predominant protein in plant leaves that
catalyzes the initial reaction of the Clavin-Benson cycle.
(A) During the oxygenase activity of Rubisco, O2 is used as substrate to produce three-
carbon molecule, 3-phosphoglycerate and two carbon molecule, 2-phosphoglycolate.
(B) In red and brown algae, the large subunit of Rubisco is localized in the chloroplast while
small subunit is localized in the nucleus.
(C) The bound sugar phosphates in Rubisco are specifically removed by an ATP dependent
enzyme, Rubisco activase.
(D) The active form of Rubisco catalyzes carboxylation or oxygenation reactions in five steps.
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (A), (B) and (D)
(3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (C) and (D)
103. Given below are certain statements regarding plant-pathogen interactions :

(A) The pattern recognition receptor (PRR), upon perceiving pathogen or microbe-associated
patterns (PAPMs/MAMPs), activates plant defenses resulting in pattern triggered immunity
(PTI).
(B) AcePto is a resistance gene in tomato that acts against pathogenic attack by the bacterium
Pseudomonas syringae pv. tomato.
(C) The effector molecules produced by pathogen is recognized by resistance (R) gene
present in plants resulting into a defense strategy known as effector triggered immunity
(ETI).
(D) Defense mechanisms triggered in plants during PTI are usually stronger than those during
ETI.
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (C) and (D)
(3) (A) and (C) (4) (B) and (D)
104. To characterize the mechanism/s by which heat-stress is perceived in Arabidopsis., a team of

researchers fused a Heat Shock promoter with luciferase gene. Transgenic plants having promoter
luciferase fusion were raised. Such plants revealed strong luciferase expression upon heat-
stress but they showed no expression under unstressed control condition. Subsequently, these
transgenic plants were mutagenized by EMS and seeds from F2 generation were obtained. To
analyze the downstream positive regulators of heat-stress, the researcher should analyze seedlings
that are :
(1) expressing luciferase in the presence of heat-stress.
(2) not expressing luciferase in the presence of heat-stress.
(3) expressing luciferase in the absence of heat-stress.
(4) not expressing luciferase in the absence of heat-stress.
105. Two near inbred parental lines P1 and P2 of an angiosperm species are crossed to produce F1
seeds in which, the ploidy of the endosperm is 6N. If plants generated from these F1 seeds are
backcrossed with P1 what will be ploidy of the somatic cells in the next generation ?
(1) 2N (2) 4N
(3) 5N (4) 6N

106. The table given below represents the types of intercellular transport in “Column-I” in land plants
and their transport pathways in “Column-II”.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Apoplastic (i) Via interconnecting plasmodesmata.
(B) Symplastic (ii) Via the water filled spaces of the cell wall
matrices and lumen of xylem tracheary
elements.
(C) Transcellular transport (iii) Via the vacuole across the tonoplast followed
by exit across the plasma membrane before
regaining entry to the adjacent cell through
the plasma membrane.
Which one of the following combinations matches column-I correctly with column-II
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii) (2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii)
(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i) (4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii)
107. The Cl– content of red blood cells (RBCs) in the venous blood was found to be higher than that in
arterial blood in a human subject. Following proposals were made to explain these observations :
(A) The high pCO2 in venous plasma leads to increased diffusion of CO2 into RBC and the
formation of H2CO3.
(B) HCO3– content in the RBC of venous blood becomes much greater than that in plasma.
(C) The excess HCO3– leaves the RBC of venous blood along with Na+ to plasma by a Na+
– HCO3– symporter.
(D) The increased Na+ in the venous plasma is transported to the RBC along with Cl–.
Select the combination with INCORRECT statements from the following options.
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (D) (4) (C) and (D)
108. The different waves of normal electrocardiogram (ECG) of a human subject are shown below :
R
+1
P T
mV 0
Q
S
–1
Time (s)
The relationship of the events of cardiac cycle to these ECG waves are proposed in the following
statements :
(A) The P wave occurs due to the depolarization of atria.
(B) The atrial repolarization is responsible for the T wave.
(C) The QRS complex occurs during ventricular depolarization.
(D) Q – T interval indicates plateau portion of auricular action potential.
Select the combination with INCORRECT statements from the following options :
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (B) and (D)
109. The excitation of auditory hair cells by the displacement of stereocilia has been explained in the
following proposed statements :
(A) The gradual increased height of stereocilia is required for the transduction process.
(B) The changes of membrane potential of auditory hair cells are proportional to the direction
and magnitude of the displacement of stereocilia.
(C) The higher concentration of K+ in endolymph and higher concentration of Na+ in perilymph
are not required for the excitation of hair cells.
(D) The mechanically sensitive cation channels on the top of stereocilia are not adapted to
maintain displacement of stereocilia.
Select the combination with INCORRECT statements from the following options :
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (C)
110. The peaks of the compound action potential (i.e., A, B and C) recorded from a mammalian mixed
nerve were affected after application of increasing pressure on the nerve. Some probable changes
of compound action are stated below :
(A) 'A' peak was inhibited by lower intensity of pressure
(B) 'C' peak was inhibited by higher intensity of pressure
(C) 'B' peak was inhibited by lower intensity of pressure
(D) 'C' peak was inhibited by lower intensity of pressure
(E) 'A' peak was inhibited by higher intensity of pressure
Select the option with the combination of CORRECT statements.
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (D) and (E)
111. The different segments of renal tubule (column A) and the mechanism of Na+ transport in the
apical membrane of tubular cells (column B) are tabulated below :
Column A Column B
(a) Proximal tubule (i) Na+ - CI symporter
(b) Thick ascending loop of Henle (ii) Diffusion through Na+ selective channel
(ENaC)
(c) Early distal tubule (iii) Na+ - glucose symporter
(d) Late distal tubule and collecting (iv) 1 Na+ – 1 K+ – 2 Cl– Symporter
duct
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

112. The figure below represents normal sex determination, differentiation and development in humans.
Identify A, B, C and D.
(1) A = WT1 (Wilm’s Tumor 1), B = MIS (Mullerian Inhibitory Substance), C = SRY, D =
Testosterone.
(2) A = GnRH, B = FSH, C = Testosterone, D = 5 Reductase
(3) A = SRY, B = MIS, C = Testosterone, D = DHT (Dihydrotestosterone)
(4) A = WT1, B = LH, C = ABP (Androgen Binding Protein), D = Inhibin
113. A virgin Drosophila female was crossed with a wild type male. The F1 progeny obtained had four
types of males as shown below :
White Eyed
Phenotype White Eyed Wild Type Crossveinless and
Crossveinless
Number 50 3 44 3
Assuming that white eye and crossveinless mutations are X-linked and recessive, the following
statements were made :
(A) F1 females were also of four types as that of males.
(B) The white eyed crossveinless male flies appeared due to independent assortment.
(C) The map distance between the genes for white eye and crossveinless is estimated to be
12 cM.
(D) The map distance between white eye and crossveinless is estimated to be 6 cM.
(E) All F1 females are expected to be wild type.
(F) The F1 wild type males appeared due to crossing over.
The combination with correct statements is :
(1) (C), (E), (F) (2) (A), (B), (D)
(3) (A), (D), (F) (4) (B), (D), (E)

114. The location of five overlapping deletions have been mapped to a Drosophila chromosome as
shown below :
Deletion 1
Deletion 2
Deletion 3
Deletion 4
Deletion 5
(Horizontal lines in the above figure indicate the deleted regions)

Recessive mutations a, b, c, d and e are known to be located within this region, but the order
of mutations on the chromosome is not known. When the flies homozygous for the recessive
mutations are crossed with flies homozygous for the deletions, the following results are obtained
(letter “m” represents mutant phenotype and “+” represents the wild type).
Mutation
Deletion
a b c d e
1 + m m m +
2 + + m m +
3 + + + m m
4 m + + + m
5 m + + + m
On the basis of the above data, the relative order of the five mutant genes on the chromosome is
(1) b c d e a (2) a b c d e
(3) b c e a d (4) c d b e a
115. The pedigree given below follows the inheritance pattern of a late-onset (after age of 30 years)
genetic disease that is 100% penetrant. Affected individuals are indicated by a solid circle (woman)
or solid square (males). RFLP analysis of DNA from each individual is shown below in the
pedigree.
Generation
I
a b c d
II
a b
III a b c d
Ia Ib IIa Ic Id IIb IIIa IIIb IIIc IIId
Which grandchildren (IIIb to IIId) will be affected by the disease after attaining the age of 30 years ?
(1) Only IIIb (2) Both IIIb and IIIe
(3) Both IIIc and IIId (4) Both IIIb and IIId
116. A chemist synthesizes three new chemical compounds in the laboratory and names them as X,
Y and Z. After analysis mutagenic potential of all these compounds, the geneticist observed that
all are highly mutagenic. The geneticist also tested the potential of mutations induced by these
compounds to be mutations induced by these compounds to be reversed by other known mutagens
and obtained the following results.
Reversed by
Mutation Produced by
Nitrous acid Hydroxylamine Acridine orange
X Yes Some No
Y No No No
Z No No Yes
Assuming that X, Y and Z caused any of the three types of mutations, transition, transversion or
single base deletion, what conclusions can you make about the nature of mutations produced by
these compounds ?
(1) X causes transversion; Y causes transition; Z causes single base deletion.
(2) X causes transition; Y causes transversion; Z causes single base deletion.
(3) X causes transition; Y causes single base deletion; z causes transversion.
(4) X causes transversion; Y causes single base deletion; z causes transition.
117. An individual is having an inversion in heterozygous condition. The regions on normal chromosome
are marked as A, B, C, D, E, F, G while the chromosome having inversion has the regions as
a, b, c, d, e, f, g. the diagram given below shows pairing of these two homologous chromosomes
during meiosis and the site of a crossing over is indicated :
D
C
d E
A B c e F G
a b
f g
The following statements are given to describe the inversion and the consequence of crossing
over shown in the above diagram :
(A) This is a pericentric inversion.
(B) This will generate a dicentric and an acentric chromosome following separation of
chromosomes after crossing over.
(C) This will generate two monocentric recombinant chromosomes following separation of
chromosomes after crossing over.
(D) All the gametes thus formed will have deletion and/or duplication and will be non-viable.
(E) 50% of the gametes having recombinant chromatid will be non-viable, while 50% gametes
having non-recombinant chromatid will survive.
(F) This is a paracentric inversion.
Which combination of the above statements describe the inversion and meiotic consequences
correctly ?
(1) (A) (B) and (C) (2) (A), (C) and (E)
(3) (B), (E) and (F) (4) (C), (D) and (F)

118. Two Hfr strains, Hfr-1 (arg+ leu+ gal+ str+) and Hfr-2 (arg+ his+ pur+ str+) were mated with a F+ strain
(arg+ leu+ gal+ his+ pur+ str+). The results of the interrupted mating experiment are shown as plots
‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively.
a b
Number of recominations
Number of recominations
arg + str+ +
arg str
+
leu+ str+ his + str+
gal+ str+ gal+ str+

pur+ str+
10 20 30 40 10 20 30 40
Time of interruption minutes Time of interruption minutes
Based on these results, identify which of the options accurately reflects the order of loci ?
+
(1) arg leu his gal pur
+
(2) arg his leu gal pur

+
(3) arg his gal leu pur
+
(4) arg leu gal his pur
119. Three anatomical characteristics (A, B and C) of invertebrate nervous system are used to build
a generalized cladogram given below. Presence of the anatomical character is indicated by ‘+’
A B C
SPIRALIA + +
LORICIFERA +
NEMATODA +
NEMATOMORPHA +
ONYCHOPORA + +
ARTHROPODA + +
Based on the pattern of character distribution, pick the correct combination that are represented
by A, B and C.
(1) A-unpaired nerve cord, B-paired nerve cord, C-cephalic ganglia.
(2) A-cephalic ganglia, B-unpaired nerve cord, C-paired nerve cord.
(3) A-cephalic ganglia, B-paired nerve cord, C-unpaired nerve cord.
(4) A-unpaired nerve cord, B-cephalic ganglia, C-paired nerve cord.
120. In order to survive in a non-aquatic environment, plants acquired several adaptations with specialized
functions. Given below is a list of features/characteristics. (Column A) and their potential role
(Column B).
Column A Column B
(A) Waxy cuticle (i) Mechanical support
(B) Thickened or lignified cell walls (ii) Protection against excess light
(C) Homoiohydry (iii) Restrict water loss
(D) Pigmentation (iv) Vascular system
Which one of the following options represents a correct match between the adaptations and their
functions ?
(1) (A)-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) (2) (A)-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(3) (A)-(ii), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) (4) (A)-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(iv)
121. Following table presents bryophyte phyla with their selected characteristics :
Phylum
Characters
A B C
Gemetophyte cell with numerous chloroplasts + + –
Gametophyte with multicellular rhizoid + – –
Sporophyte body with stomata + – +
+ Present; – Absent
In the above table, phyla A, B and C represent
(1) A-Marchantiophyta, B-Bryophyta, C-Anthocerotophyta
(2) A-Bryophyta, B-Marchantiophyta, C-Anthocerotophyta
(3) A-Anthocerotophyta, B-Marchantiophyta, C-Bryophyta
(4) A-Bryophyta, B-Anthocerotophyta, C-Marchantiophyta
122. Following table shows a list of clades and plants :

Clades Plants
(A) Basal angiosperms (i) Black pepper
(B) Magnolids (ii) Orchid
(C) Monocots (iii) Star anise
(D) Eudicots (iv) Strawberry
Which one of the following in a correct match for the above ?
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) (2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i) (4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
123. The following table shows names of bones (Column A) and specific features (Column B).
Column A Column B
(A) Axis vertebra (i) Deltoid ridge
(B) Humerus (ii) Acromion process
(C) Ulna (iii) Odontoid process
(D) Pectoral girdle (iv) Sigmoid notch
Which one of the following options gives the correct match of the bones with their specific
features ?
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii) (2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii) (4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

124. The figure below shows the nervous system of Mollusca with ganglia and the connecting nerves.
The connecting nerves are labelled as A, B, C and D.
A
B
Which one of the following option has correct labelling of A, B, C and D ?

(1) A-Cerebral commissure; B-Left Cerebro pedal connective; C-Pedal commissure; D-Left
Pedal visceral connective.
(2) A-Cerebral connective; B-Left Cerebro pedal commissures; C-Pedal connective; D-Left
Pedal visceral commissure.
(3) A-Occipital commissure; B-Occipito pedal connective; C-Pedal commissure; D-Left
Pedocaudal connective.
(4) A-Cerebral connective; B-Left Cerebro pedal commissure; C-Pedal commissure; D-Pedal
caudal connective.
125. Following are certain statements regarding energy efficiencies of ectotherms and endotherms :
(A) Ectotherms have high assimilation efficiency but low production efficiency.
(B) Ectotherms have low assimilation efficiency but high production efficiency.
(C) Endotherms have high assimilation efficiency but low production efficiency.
(D) Endotherms have low assimilation efficiency but high production efficiency.
Which one of the following represents the combination of correct statements ?
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (C)
126. Given below are some properties related to botanical and zoological nomenclature.
(A) Absence of tautonyms
(B) Presence of genus and species ranks only
(C) Absence of principle of coordination
(D) Presence of only holotype and neotype
Select the correct combination that distinguished botanical nomenclature from zoological
nomenclature system.
(1) (A), (B) and (D) (2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (C) only (4) (A), (C) and (D)
127. Following table gives a list of international environmental agreements and areas covered.
Agreement Area covered
(A) Basal convention (i) Biosafety
(B) Cartagene protocol (ii) Control of transboundary movement of
hazardous wastes and their disposal
(C) Kyoto protocol (iii) Greenhouse gas emission reductions
(D) Stockholm convention (iv) Persistent organic pollutants

Which of the following is correct combination ?

(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) (2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii) (4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
128. The following figure is a “risk-graph” that illustrates the percent risk a species faces towards
extinction.
c
a
b
The following are ranks assigned according to IUCN’s red-list category :

(i) Critically endangered (ii) Near threatened
(iii) Vulnerable (iv) Least concern
Which one of the following is the most appropriate match between the percent-risk and their
assigned rank ?
(1) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(ii) (2) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) (4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
129. The complexity of a food web in a community is quantified using certain parameters which are
defined below. Which of the following is an INCORRECT representation ?
(1) Chain length
Average number of links between trophic level


Total number of trophic levels
(2) Connectance
Actual number of links in a food web


Potential number of links in a food web
(3) Potential links in a food web where ‘n’ species are present
n(n  1)

Actual number of links
(4) Linkage density
Actual number of links in a food web


Number of species in a food web

130.
Max Max
Immigration Rate
Extinction Rate
0 0
Distance of Island for mainland
Size of Island
The above graph illustrates two lines that represent the immigration and extinction rates for an
island based on its distance from mainland (solid line) and its size (dotted line). Which of the
following is true for this island ?
(1) It is close to the mainland and is very small.
(2) It is far from mainland and is very large.
(3) It is close to the mainland and is very large.
(4) It is far from the mainland and is very small.
131. Inclusive fitness of an animal can be measured as a sum of direct fitness and indirect fitness.
Imagine you have 10 offsprings. Through diligent parental care, 5 survive to reproduce. You give
your life in a heroic deed to save a total of 5 of your nieces and nephews. What is your inclusive
fitness ?
(1) 15 (2) 12.5
(3) 7.5 (4) 3.75
132. Altruism describes a behaviour performed by animals that may be disadvantageous to self while
benefitting others. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT about altruism ?
(1) It is the net gain of direct fitness when sociality is facultative.
(2) It is under positive selection via indirect fitness benefits that exceed direct fitness costs.
(3) It generates Indirect benefit by enhancing survivorship of kin.
(4) It is favoured when rb – c > 0 where c is fitness cost to altruist, b is fitness benefit to
recipient and r is genetic relatedness.
133. Given are some statements with reference to the use of genes in plant molecular systematics.
(A) mtDNA are not preferred over cpDNA or rDNA because they generally show slow rate of
sequence evolution and fast rate of structural evolution.
(B) cpDNA are not preferred because of their haploidy, uniparental inheritance, and absence
of recombination among cpDNA molecules.
(C) rDNA such as ITS are preferred for their higher evolutionary rates as well as shorter
sequence length.
(D) rDNA and cpDNA cannot be used simultaneously in molecular systematics since they
represent conflicting patterns of inheritance.
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT ?

(1) (A), (C) and (D) (2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (C) only (4) (B) and (D) only
134. Following are key points about the effect of genetic drift :
(A) Genetic drift is significant in small populations.
(B) Genetic drift can cause allele frequencies to change in a pre-directed way.
(C) Genetic drift can lead to a loss of genetic variation within populations.
(D) Genetic drift can cause harmful alleles to become fixed.
Which one of the following combination of the above statements are true ?
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (A), (C) and (D)
135. Following table contains some of the generalization of evolutionary biology :

Column I Column II
(A) Cope’s Rule (i) Population lineages tend to increase in body
size over evolutionary time.
(B) Dollo’s Law (ii) There is constant probability of extinction in
family of related organisms.
(C) Orckham’s Principle (iii) Complex characters, once lost, are not
regained.
(D) Van Valen’s Law (iv) Accept the simplest theory that works.
Which of the following is correct match between Column I and II ?
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii) (2) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv) (4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
136. A 1257 bp genomic DNA sequence of a prokaryotic gene was cloned under a strong constitutive
promoter along with a suitable polyA signal and used for development of transgenic tobacco
plants. Molecular analysis revealed the presence of three types/lengths of transgene derived
mRNAs : 555 bp, 981 bp and 1257 bp – in the leaves of transgenic plants. The following
statements were proposed to explain the above results.
(A) The three mRNAs represent alternatively spliced transcripts due to the presence of putative
intronic sequence in the gene.
(B) The gene sequence was characterized by the presence of potential polyadenylation signals
that resulted in premature termination of transcription.
(C) Expression of full-length transcripts (1257 bases) was lethal to the transformed cells.
(D) The transgenic plants were chimeric in nature and comprised of a mix of transformed and
untransformed cells.
Which of the following combinations of the above statements would correctly explain the obtained
results ?
(1) (A) and (C) (2) (B) and (D)
(3) (A) and (B) (4) (C) and (D)

137. In order to detect minor variations in antigen concentration, the following procedures were suggested.
Which one will likely be the best option ?
(1) Antigen coated microtitre well  add antibody  add enzyme conjugated secondary
antibody  add substrate and measure colour.
(2) Antibody coated microtitre well  add antigen  add enzyme conjugated secondary
antibody  add substrate and measure colour.
(3) Preincubate antigen with fixed amount of antibody  add to antigen coated well  add
enzyme conjugated secondary antibody  add substrate and measure colour.
(4) Preincubate antigen with fixed amount of antibody  add to antibody coated well  add
enzyme conjugated secondary antibody  add substrate and measure colour.
138. Three students (P, Q, R) in a research lab were trying to identify proteins that interact with a
transcription factor X. P performed gel filtration experiments and identified that X was found along
with proteins A, B, C and D. Q performed co-immunoprecipitation experiments using antibodies
to X and identified A, B and C. R did a yeast-2-hybrid screen and identified only B.
The following are likely conclusions that may explain all the results :
(i) A, B, C and D are in a complex with X.
(ii) X directly interacts with B.
(iii) Only A, B and C are in complex with X.
(iv) D is probably weakly associated with X.
Which of the above conclusions best explains all the results ?
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
139. Sub-cellular fractionation-based assays have been used to identify various organelles in the
mammalian cells. In order to characterize such organelles in a living mammalian cell, which of
the following microscopy-base method would be the most accurate ?
(1) use of fluorescent probes specific for organelles.
(2) use of organelle specific fluorescent probes followed by microinjection of fluorescent
antibodies against organelle-specific protein.
(3) use of fluorescent probes in permeabilized cells.
(4) use of organelle specific fluorescent probes followed by cryo-electron microscopy.
140. From the following statements :

(A) Surface plasmon resonance can be used to determine binding constants only in the range
of 102 – 103 M.
(B) de novo sequencing is not possible by mass spectral methods.
(C) The position of hydrogen atoms in proteins is not directly determined by X-ray diffraction.
(D) Circular dichroism and nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy do not give the same
information on protein structure.
Choose the option with all correct statements.
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (A), (C) and (D)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (C) and (D)

141. A researcher attempted to clone two genes (X and Y) independently in a plasmid vector for over
expression and purification in E coli. All attempts to clone gene X were unsuccessful whereas
gene ‘Y’ could be cloned easily. When the researcher attempted to clone gene ‘X’ in the plasmid
clone containing gene ‘Y’, gene ‘X’ could be cloned. The following statements were proposed to
explain the above results.
(A) Protein encoded by gene ‘Y’ is not lethal to the cell.
(B) Gene ‘X’ has introns, which prevents its expression in E coli.
(C) Expression of ‘X’ protein is lethal to the cell.
(D) The ‘Y’ gene product inhibits the activity of ‘X’ protein.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements to explain the
observations ?
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (A) and (D) only (4) (A), (C) and (D)
142. In order to visualize the intracellular organization of a cell, one can utilize various microscopy-
based techniques. These include :
(A) Differential interference contrast (DIC) microscopy
(B) Phase contrast microscopy
(C) Dark field microscopy
(D) Epifluorescence microscopy
(E) Scanning electron microscopy
(F) Transmission electron microscopy
(G) Confocal microscopy
Which of the above mentioned microscopes can be used to study the intra cellular dynamics
using live cell imaging ?
(1) (A), (B), (E), (F), (G) (2) (A), (B), (C), (D), (G)
(3) (A), (D), (E), (F), (G) (4) (C), (D), (E), (F), (G)
143. A certain protein has been assumed to play an indispensable role in the survival of an intracellular
parasite inside the host cells. Which one of the following techniques will best prove the assumption
to be correct ?
(1) Treat the parasite-infected host cells with an inhibitor of the protein and check the number
of parasites per host cell under the microscope.
(2) Check the expression of the protein in parasite-infected host cells.
(3) Check the activity of the protein in parasite-infected host cells.
(4) Treat the parasite-infected host cells with an activator of the protein and check the number
of parasites per host cell under the microscope.
144. Given below is a table with information on isotopes, their half life and type of particle(s) the emit.
Symbol and atomic Types of particle(s)

Half life
weight emitted
11
(a) C (i) 5700 yrs (x) b
14 (y)
(b) C (ii) 15.1 hours g
24
(c) Na (iii) 20 min.

Choose the correct combination from the options given below :

(1) (a)-(iii)-(y); (b)-(ii)-(x), (y); (c)-(i)-(y)
(2) (a)-(iii)-(x); (b)-(i)-(x); (c)-(ii)-(x), (y)
(3) (a)-(ii)-(x), (y); (b)-(iii)-(x), (y); (c)-(i)-(x)
(4) (a)-(i)-(x); (b)-(ii)-(x); (c)-(iii)-(x), (y)
145. Which one of the following set of essential components are required for Sanger method of DNA
sequencing in a required buffer containing MgCl2 and Trix-HCl ?
(1) DNA template, a primer, 4 deoxyribonucleotides, 4 labelled dideoxyribonucleotides, DNA
polymerase.
(2) DNA template, a primer, 4 labelled dideoxyribonucleotides, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase.
(3) DNA template, 4 deoxyribonucleotides, 4 labelled dideoxyribonucleotides, DNA polymerase,
DNA ligase.
(4) DNA template, a primer, 4 labelled dideoxyribonucleotides, DNA polymerase, .
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 4 3 4 1 3 2 3 1 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
4 4 3 4 4 2 3 3 4 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
4 3 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
1 2 2 2 4 3 3 1 4 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
4 1 2 4 1 3 3 1 3 2
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 3 4 2 4 2 3 4 2 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
4 1 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 4
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
1 4 3 4 4 1 4 3 3 4
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 3 1 3 2 1 2 3 2 4
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
2 2 4 1 1 3 1 3 2 1
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
1 4 3 3 2 2 4 4 3 *
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
1 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 2 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
2 4 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 3
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
4 1 4 4 2 3 3 2 2 4
141 142 143 144 145
4 2 1 2 1

Life Sciences (PSP-2018 Dec.)
Life Sciences
Previous Year Solved Paper - 2018 Dec.

PART - ‘A’
1. A rectangular photo frame of size 30 cm × 40 cm has a photograph mounted at the centre leaving
a 5 cm border all around. The area of the border is
(1) 600 cm2 (2) 350 cm2
(3) 400 cm2 (4) 700 cm2
2. At a birthday party, every child gets 2 chocolates, every mother gets 1 chocolate, while no father
gets a chocolate. In total 69 persons get 70 chocolates. If the number of children is half of the
number of mother and fathers put together, then how many fathers are there ?
(1) 22 (2) 23
(3) 24 (4) 69
3. What is the value of 12 – 22 + 32 – 42 + 52 – ... + 172 – 182 + 192 ?

(1) –5 (2) 12
(3) 95 (4) 190
4. The curves of y = 2x2 and y = 4x intersect each other at

(1) only one point (2) exactly two points
(3) more than two points (4) no point at all
5. The diameters of the pinholes of two otherwise identical cameras A and B are 500 m and 200
m, respectively. Then the image in camera A will be
(1) sharper than in B (2) darker than in B
(3) less sharp and brighter than in B (4) sharper and brighter than in B
6. If D = ABC + BCA + CAB where A, B and C are decimal digits, then D is divisible by
(1) 37 and 29 (2) 37 but not 29
(3) 29 but not 37 (4) neither 29 nor 37
7. For the following set of observed values

{60, 65, 65, 70, 70, 70, 70, 82, 85, 90, 95, 95, 100, 160, 160},
which of the statements is true ?
(1) mode < median < mean (2) mode < mean < median
(3) mean < median < mode (4) median < mode < mean
8. A circular running track has six lanes, each 1m wide. How far ahead (in metres) should the runner
in the outermost lane start from, so as to cover the same distance in one lap as the runner in
the innermost lane ?
(1) 6 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 36

9. In an examination 100 questions of 1 mark each are given. After the examination, 20 questions
are deleted from evaluation, leaving 80 questions with a total of 100 marks. Student A had
answered 4 of the deleted questions correctly and got 40 marks, whereas student B had answered
10 of the deleted questions correctly and got 35 marks. In this situation
(1) A and B were equally benefitted. (2) A and B lost equally.
(3) B lost more than A. (4) A lost more than B.
10. A tourist drives 20 km towards east, turns right and drives 6 km, then drives 6 km towards west.
He then turns to his left and drives 4 km and finally turns right and drives 14 km. Where is he
from his starting point ?
(1) 6 km towards east (2) 20 km towards west
(3) 14 km towards north (4) 10 km towards south
11. If ‘SELDOON’ means ‘NOODLES’ then what does ‘SPUOS’ mean ?

(1) SALAD (2) SOUPS
(3) RASAM (4) ONION
12. An ideal pendulum oscillates with angular amplitude of 30° form the vertical. If it is observed at
a random instant of time, its angular deviation from the vertical is most likely to be
(1) 0° (2) ±10°
(3) ±20° (4) ±30°
13. In the context of tiling a plane surface, which of the following polygons is the odd one out ?
(1) Equilateral triangle (2) Square
(3) Regular pentagon (4) Regular hexagon
14. Scatter plots for pairs of observations on the variables x and y in samples A and B are shown
in the figure.
x x
x x x x
x x
x x x
x x x
y x x x y
x
x
x A B
x x
Which of the following is suggested by the plots ?
(1) Correlation between x and y is stronger in A than in B.
(2) Correlation between x and y is absent in B.
(3) Correlation between x and y is weaker in A than in B
(4) y and x have a cause - effect relationship in A, but not in B

15. Two solutions X and Y containing ingredients A, B and C in proportions a:b:c and c:b:a, respectively,
are mixed. For the resultant mixture to have A, B and C in equal proportion, it is necessary that
c a ab
(1) b (2) c
2 2
ab ca
(3) c (4) b
2 2
16. Find the missing figure in the following sequence.
+ + + + + +
?
+ + +
+ + +
+ +
(1) (2)
+ +
+ +
(3) (4)
+ +
17. In triangle ABC, AB = 11, BC = 61, AC = 60, and O is the mid-point of BC. Then AO is
B C
O
(1) 18.5 (2) 24.0
(3) 30.5 (4) 36.0
18. Areas of three parts of a rectangle are given in unit of cm2. What is the total area of the
rectangle ?
3 9
6
(1) 18 (2) 24
(3) 36 (4) 108

19. A student is free to choose only chemistry, only Biology or both. If out of 32 students, Chemistry
has been chosen by 16 and Biology by 25, then how many students have chosen Biology but not
Chemistry ?
(1) 9 (2) 16
(3) 25 (4) 7
20. The lift (upward force due to air) generated by the wings and engines of an aircraft is
(1) positive (upwards) while landing and negative (downwards) while taking off.
(2) negative (downwards) while landing and positive (upwards) while taking off.
(3) negative (downwards) while landing as well as while taking off.
(4) positive (upwards) while landing as well as while taking off.
PART - ‘B‘
21. Which one of the following statements is true ?

(1) The specific rotation of enantiomers will be identical.
(2) The rate constant of a first order reaction has only time but no concentration units.
(3) The value of pH + pOH depends on temperature.
(4) The bond disassociation energy (kJ/mol) of –C–C– will be greater than –CC–.
22. Which one of the following statement on protein conformation is NOT true ?
(1) Dihedral angles of side-chains in amino acids are depicted in the Ramachandran plot.
(2) Infrared spectroscopy can be used to deduce hydrogen bonding in peptides.
(3) Three dimensional structures of protein composed of ~ 100 amino acids can be obtained
by nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy.
(4) Globuiar proteins have -helical and -sheet components.
23. Choose the correct answer from the following statements on biosynthesis.
(1) In the biosynthesis of palmitate, all the carbon atoms are derived from activated malonate.
(2) The amino acids Met, Thr, Lys, Ile, Val and Leu are biosynthesized from oxaloacetate and
pyruvate in most bacteria.
(3) Alanine is a major precursor for the biosynthesis of porphyrin.
(4) Tryptophan is converted to L-DOPA in the biosynthesis of epinephrine.
24. Which one of the following statements on nucleic acids is NOT true ?
(1) The conformation of ribose in DNA is -2’-deoxy-D-ribofuranose.
(2) Hydrolysis of RNA takes place under alkaline conditions unlike DNA, as the 2’-hydroxyl in
RNA acts as a nucleophile in an intramolecular displacement.
(3) DNA can occur in different three-dimensional forms.
(4) In DNA, deamination of cytosine to uracil can occur in a non-enzymatic manner.
25. If one of the two fatty acyl chains is removed from the phosphoglyceride by hydrolysis in solution,
such phospholipids will form:
(1) liposomes (2) micelles
(3) phospholipid bilayer (4) symmetric phospholipid bilayer

26. In metazoan cell cycle, metaphase to anaphase transition is regulated by the activity of:
(1) Cdk1 /cyclinB (2) APC/C
(3) Cdc25 (4) Wee1
27. Which one of the following statements is true about human chromosomes ?
(1) The chromosomes that have highest gene density generally localize towards the centre
of the nucleus.
(2) The chromosomes that have highest gene density generally localize near the nuclear
periphery to facilitate rapid transport of the nascent transcripts.
(3) The centromeres of different chromosomes tend to cluster together at the centre of the
nucleus.
(4) Chromosomal positioning in the nucleus is absolutely random.
28. Which one of the following activities is NOT involved in protein folding in the endoplasmic
reticulum ?
(1) Peptidyl prolyl isomerase (2) Protein disulphide isomerase
(3) Protein glycosylation (4) Protein ubiquitination
29. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?

(1) Together with proteins, rRNA provides a site for polypeptide synthesis.
(2) All DNA molecules are unbranched polymers of nucleotides.
(3) DNA is synthesized in a 5’- 3’ direction while RNA synthesis occurs in a 3’- 5’ direction.
(4) A tRNA anticodon may pair with more than one codon.
30. What would be the tripeptide produced by translation of the transcript produced by the following
DNA sequence ?
3’- A A G T A C T C T – 5’
(1) Arg – Phe – Trp (2) Arg – Leu – Gly
(3) Thr – Lys – Ser (4) Phe – Met – Arg
31. Which one of the following statements is generally true about RNA polymerase II ?
(1) It is dedicated to transcribing RNA from a single transcription unit, generally a large
transcript which is then processed to yield three types of ribosomal RNA.
(2) It transcribes varieties of small non-coding RNAs which are expressed in all cell types.
(3) It generally synthesizes various types of mRNAs and small non-coding RNAs.
(4) It is exclusively involved in synthesis of rRNA and tRNA.
32. Viruses adopt different strategies to suppress immune response of the host. Which one of the
following statements is NOT correct ?
(1) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) destroys CD4+ T cells.
(2) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) produces a homolog of human IL-10.
(3) Human influenza virus directly infects CD8+ T cells.
(4) Human Cytomegalo Virus (CMV) establishes latent infection in bone marrow stem cells.

33. Which one of the following inactivates the serine/threonine protein kinase, mTOR, related to cell
growth in mammalian system ?
(1) Rifamycin (2) Rapamycin
(3) Erythromycin (4) Chloramphenicol
34. Match the following tumor cell origin with their nomenclature.
TUMOR CELL ORIGIN NOMENCLATURE
A. Muscle cell a. Carcinoma
B. Germ cell b. Sarcoma
C. Epithelial Cell c. Leukemia
D. White blood cell d. Teratocarcinoma
(1) A–a, B–c, C–d, D–b (2) A–d, B–a, C–b, D–c
(3) A–c, B–b, C–d, D–a (4) A–b, B–d, C–a, D–c
35. Many cytotoxic T lymphocytes initiate killing of target cells via delivery of molecules that could
induce target-cell via delivery of molecules that could induce target-cell damage directly. Which
one of the following is the most appropriate ?
(1) Interferon  (2) Peroxynitrite
(3) Lysozyme (4) Granzyme
36. Membrane-bound, Golgi-derived structures containing proteolytic enzymes in sperms of sea urchin
are called
(1) cortical granules (2) micromeres
(3) acrosomal vesicles (4) macromeres
37. In case of Hydra, the major head inducer of the hypostome organizer is a set of Wnt proteins
acting through the canonical -catenin pathway. What would be the result, if a transgenic Hydra
is made to globally mis-express the downstream Wnt effector -catenin ?
(1) Ectopic buds will be formed all along the body axis and even on the top of the newly
formed buds.
(2) Ectopic tentacles form at all levels.
(3) Both ectopic tentacles and buds would be formed along the body axis.
(4) There would be no change observed.
38. Both TGF- and Sonic hedgehog signals play important roles in both neurulation and cell-fate
patterning of the neural tube. Which one of the following statements is true ?
(1) High levels of BMP specify the cells to become epidermis.
(2) Very low levels of BMP specify the cells to become neural plates.
(3) High levels of BMP specify the cells to become neural plate.
(4) Intermediate levels of BMP do not effect the formation of neural crest cells.
39. In which stage of Arabidopsis embryogenesis is hypophysis first observed ?

(1) Octant (2) Dermatogen
(3) Globular (4) Transition

40. Which one of the following mineral deficiency will first be visible in younger leaves ?
(1) Calcium (2) Nitrogen
(3) Zinc (4) Molybdenum
41. The CO2 compensation point for C3 plants is greater than C4 plants because in C3 plants
(1) dark respiration is higher (2) dark respiration is lower
(3) photorespiration is present (4) photorespiration is absent
42. Which one of the following best describes the function of Casparian bands during the translocation
of nutrients and water across the root ?
(1) Block apoplastic nutrient transport
(2) Block symplastic nutrient transport
(3) Act as a nutrient carrier
(4) Help in creating passage cells
43. Which one of the following components is expected to be most abundant in the phloem sap of
a plant ?
(1) Proteins (2) Organic acids
(3) Sugars (4) Phosphates
44. Which one of the following is NOT secreted be capillary endothelium ?

(1) Prostacyclin (2) Guanosine
(3) Endothelin (4) Nitric oxide
45. The “Mayer waves” in the blood pressure originate due to

(1) systole and diastole of ventricle
(2) inspiration and expiration
(3) reflex oscillation of neural pressure control mechanisms
(4) Bainbridge reflex
46. The maturation of red blood cells does not depend on

(1) folic acid (2) vitamin B12
(3) pyridoxine (4) tocopherol
47. Which one of the following is NOT a function of angiotensin II ?

(1) Facilitates the release of norepinephrine from postganglionic sympathetic neurons
(2) Increases the sensitivity of baroreflex by acting on brain
(3) Produces arteriolar contraction
(4) Increases the secretion of vasopressin

48. The pedigree below represents the inheritance of an autosomal recessive trait.
What is the probability that individual ‘6’ is a heterozygote ?

(1) 1/4 (2) 1/2
(3) 2/3 (4) 1/3
49. The allele l in Drosophila is recessive, sex-linked and lethal when homozygous or hemizygous.
If a female of the genotype L1 is crossed with a male, what is the ratio of females : males in the
progeny ?
(1) 3 :1 (2) 2 :1
(3) 1 :1 (4) 1 :2
50. Deamination of the bases is a common chemical event that produces spontaneous mutation.
Which one of the following bases will be formed by deamination of 5-methylcytosine ?
(1) Uracil (2) Thymine
(3) Cytosine (4) Guanine
51. In a population of 2000 individuals of a plant species, genetic difference at a single locus leads
to different flower colours. The alleles are incompletely dominant. The population has 100
individuals with the genotype rr (white flowers), 800 individuals with the genotype Rr (pink
flower) and the remaining have genotype RR (red flowers). What is the frequency of the r allele
in the population ?
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50
(3) 0.75 (4) 1.00
52. Which of the following plastid coding region(s) have been recommended as a core barcode by
Plant Working Group of the consortium for the Barcode of Life ?
(1) CO1 and rbcL (2) rbcL and matK
(3) CO1 and matK (4) rbcL only
53. Given below are some statements related to lower eumetazoans. Select the INCORRECT
statement.
(1) Ctenophores are diploblastic with radial symmetry.
(2) Placozoans, with weakly differentiated tissue layers, are not diploblasts.
(3) Cnidarians are diploblastic with typically two stages in their life cycle.
(4) Hydrozoans, a Cnidarian class, often have colonial polyps in their life cycle.

54. Based on the type of excretion of nitrogenous waste, animals can be categorized as ammonotelic,
ureotelic and uricotelic. Given below are combinations of groups of organisms and type of excretion.
Select the correct combination.
(1) Poriferans, adult amphibians, cartilaginous fishes are ammonotelic.
(2) Ascaris, cockroaches, prawn are uricotelic
(3) Paramecium, amphibian tadpoles, crocodiles are mainly ammonotelic.
(4) Humans, sharks and aquatic anurans are ureotelic.
55. Basal angiosperms are NOT represented by the members of:

(1) Chloranthales (2) Nymphaeales
(3) Austrobaileyales (4) Amborellales
56. Which one of the following is the correct increasing order for the daily net primary productivity
(NPP) per unit leaf area in different ecosystems ?
(1) Deserts < Temperate forests < Tropical forests
(2) Deserts < Tropical forests < Temperate forests
(3) Temperate forests < Tropical forests < Deserts
(4) Tropical forests < Temperate forests < Deserts
57. The equilibrium model of island biogeography proposed by MacArthur and Wilson assumes that
the number of species on an island represents a balance between
(1) resource consumption rate and predation rate.
(2) birth rate and death rate.
(3) colonization rate and extinction rate.
(4) speciation rate and hybridization rate.
dN  N
58. A population grows according to the logistic growth equation,  rN  1   where dN/dt is the
dt  K
rate of population growth, r is the intrinsic rate of increase, N is population size and K is the
carrying capacity of the environment. According to this equation, population growth rate is maximum
at
(1) K/ 4 (2) K/ 2
(3) K (4) 2K
59. What is the significance of upwelling zone for marine ecosystems ?

(1) It is responsible for uniformity of temperature in ocean to support the marine life.
(2) It brings nutrients from deeper zones to relatively nutrient poor ocean surface thus increasing
marine productivity.
(3) It is responsible for uniform oxygenation of marine waters thus increasing marine productivity
(4) It helps in circulating decomposers from the bottom of ocean to surface for proper
decomposition of dead material on the surface.

60. Given below in Column A are schematic representations of three types of pairwise species
interactions and the name of some interactions are in Column B.
Column A Column B
(A) (i) Apparent Competition
(B) (ii) Interference Competition
(C) (iii) Direction Amensalism
(iv) Exploitation Competition

Select the best match for interaction between column A & B in each schematic figure.
(1) A – (iii); B – (ii); C – (iv) (2) A – (iv); B – (ii); C – (iii)
(3) A – (ii); B – (iv); C – (i) (4) A – (iii); B – (i); C – (ii)
61. Consider a single locus with two alleles which are at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency
of one of the homozygous genotypes is 0.64, what is the frequency of heterozygotes in the
population ?
(1) 0.16 (2) 0.20
(3) 0.32 (4) 0.36
62. Competition for mates and variance in fitness is higher among females than among males in
which of the following animal mating systems ?
(1) Monogamy (2) Polygyny
(3) Polyandry (4) Sequential monogamy
63. Which one of the following will have the least impact on allele frequencies in small populations ?
(1) Inbreeding (2) Random mating
(3) Genetic drift (4) Outbreeding
64. Given below is a marker profile for two parental lines (P1 and P2) and their derived F1 progeny:
The marker that is represented in the above figure is most likely to be

(1) RFLP or SSR (2) SSR only
(3) SSR or RAPD (4) RAPD only
65. DNA vaccines offer several advantages over other existing vaccine approaches. Which one of the
following statements related to DNA vaccine is NOT correct ?
(1) The immune response is directed to the antigen encoded by the DNA and able to induce
both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
(2) DNA vaccine can induce prolonged expression of the antigen, enhancing the induction of
immunological memory.
(3) DNA vaccine could remain stable and potent for long time without refrigeration, eliminating
the challenges of storage and transportation
(4) DNA vaccine construct can be engineered to carry several antigens to infect host and
replicate in neuronal cells.
66. The following cassette was designed to create estrogen receptor knockout mice:
SoH: site of homology; GoI: gene of interest

What would ensure that proper recombination has taken place ?
(1) Cells survive when cultured in presence of only G418.
(2) Cells survive when cultured in presence of G418 followed by ganciclovir
(3) Cells die when cultured in presence of G418
(4) Cells survive when cultured with G418 and die when cultured with ganciclovir
67. Detergents at low concentration generally do not denature proteins and are thus used for extracting
proteins in their folded and active form. For isolation of ‘Porins’, an E. coli membrane protein,
which one of the following purification approaches will be most appropriate ?
(1) Use of low concentration of non-ionic detergent without salt.
(2) Use of low concentration of ionic detergent.
(3) Use of salt solution containing non-ionic detergent.
(4) Use of salt solution containing ionic detergent.
68. Choose the correct answer from the statements indicated below:
(1) Chi square test is parametric
(2) Nonparametric test assumes normal distribution
(3) Results can be significantly affected by outliers in a parametric test
(4) Nonparametric test is more powerful as compared to parametric test
69. Which one of the following statements regarding restriction/modifying enzymes used in
recombinant DNA technology is correct ?
(1) Endonucleases remove nucleotides, one at a time, from the ends of a sequence.
(2) Type II class of restriction enzymes do not recognize palindromic sequences.
(3) Mung bean nuclease acts on double stranded DNA or RNA termini.
(4) Type II class of restriction enzymes can generate either “sticky” (staggered) or “blunt”
ends.

70. Which one of the following is used as a source of excitation in a confocal microscope ?
(1) Lasers (2) Electron beams
(3) Mercury lamp (4) Masers
PART - ‘C’
71. Following are statements on -turns:

A. All the 20 coded amino acids have equal propensity to form ..-turns.
B. Pro cannot occur in -turns.
C. Pro-Gly sequence strongly favours -tums.
D. In Asn-Gly turns, Asn can have positive   values.
Choose the combination with all correct statements:
(1) B,D (2) A,C
(3) A,D (4) C,D
72. DNA melting temperature (Tm) was found to be 47O C and enthalpy measured at Tm was 0.032kJ.
The entropy change would be:
(1) 1 x 10-3 kJ (2) 1 x 10-4 kJ
(3) 3 x 10-2 kJ (4) 6 x 10-2 kJ
73. Match the following bonds with their approximate energies :
a. Hydrogen bond i. 0.5 kcal

b. Van der Waals forcesii. 40 kcal
c. Covalent bond iii. 80 kcal
d. Ionic bond iv. 3 kcal
(1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
74. The following are some statements regarding glycolysis:

A. Glycolysis is not regulated by pyruvate kinase
B. Lactate can be an end product of glycolysis
C. Glycolysis cannot function anaerobically
D. In erythrocytes, the second site in glycolysis for ATP generation can be bypassed.
From the above, choose the combination with both INCORRECT statements:
(1) A and B (2) B and D
(3) C and D (4) A and C

75. For a reversible noncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme, choose the plot that you would use to
determine Km :
76. An investigator expresses a GFP-fused protein that localizes to the outer membrane of Golgi
apparatus. Upon visualizing GFP-signal in the fluorescent microscope, it was noted that GFP is
pericentrosomal in its localization (Fig A). Treatment of such GFP expressing cells with a newly
identified drug disrupted the Golgi into small vesicles (Fig B)
Following is a list of potential targets of the drug :

(a) Dynein complex (b) Myosin
(c) Microtubules (d) Dicer
Choose the combination with all the correct targets:
(1) a, b and d only (2) b and d only
(3) a and c only (4) a only
77. Following observation was made when a mammalian cell in one phase of cell cycle was fused
with a cell in another phase of cell cycle:
1. Fusion of a cell in G1 phase with S phase caused the G1 nucleus to enter S phase.
2. Upon fusion of a G2 cell with an S phase cell, G2 cell does not enter S phase.
3. Upon fusion of a G1 cell with G2 cell, G1 nucleus enters G2 phase
4. Fusion of an S phase cell with a M phase causes the S phase cell to immediately enter
mitosis.
Choose the combination with all correct statements:
(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 1, 3, 4
(3) 2, 3, 4 (4) 1, 2, 4
78. In an experiment, intact chromatin was isolated and digested with micrococcal nuclease in
independent tubes for 30 min, 1h, 2h and 4h. Further, the DNA was purified from each tube,
separated on agarose gel and Southern hybridization was performed with rRNA gene probe and
a centromeric DNA probe. Which one of the following patterns of signal intensity from both of the
probes is likely to be obtained following Southern hybridization ?
(1) With increasing time, compared to centromeric probe, a rapid increase in signal intensity
of rRNA gene probe was observed.
(2) With increasing time, compared to centromeric probe, a rapid decrease in signal intensity
of rRNA gene probe was observed.
(3) Irrespective of incubation period, both probes produced identical band intensities.
(4) Treatment with micrococcal nuclease would instantly degrade the DNA, hence, no
hybridization signal would be obtained in any of the samples.
79. Which one of the following proteins is most likely to be found in the intermembrane space of
mitochondria ? A protein containing
(1) an N-terminal matrix targeting sequence followed by hydrophobic stop-transfer anchor
sequence.
(2) an N-terminal matrix targeting sequence followed by a cleavable hydrophobic sequence
that blocks complete translocation.
(3) a protein with multiple internal sequences that are recognized by Tim 22 complex
(4) a protein with an outer membrane localization sequence followed by a matrix targeting
signal
80. A single protofilament of microtubules grows at the speed of 2 m / min .Consider that there is no
catastrophe in the microtubule nucleation and the size of the tubulin unit is of the order of 5 nm,
how many tubulin units are added to the growing microtubule per minute ?
(1) 400 (2) 1600
(3) 3200 (4) 5200
81. mRNA of a gene was depleted in human cells using siRNA that arrest cells in the G2 phase of
the cell cycle. In order to test whether the G2 arrest is due to an off-target or an on-target effect
of siRNA mediated mRNA depletion, an investigator can:
1. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the gene coding for the wild-type mRNA and protein.
2. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the gene that is different in its mRNA sequence at the
siRNA target site but encodes for the same protein.
3. re-introduce an ectopic copy of the gene that codes for different mRNA and protein.
4. utilize few more siRNAs targeting different regions of the mRNA in question
Choose the combination with correct statements
(1) 1, 2, 3 only (2) 3 and 4 only
(3) 2 and 4 only (4) 2, 3, 4 only

82. Presence of selenocysteine in proteins in E.coli is a consequence of:

(1) post-translational modification of cysteine present in special structural regions of the proteins
by SelB and SelC.
(2) post-translational modification of serine present in special structural regions of the proteins
by SelB and SelC.
(3) aminoacylation of a special tRNA (tRNA SeCys) by serine tRNA synthetase with serine
followed by further modification of the attached serine to selenocysteine followed by its
transport to the ribosome by SelB
(4) aminoacylation of a special tRNA (tRNA SeCys) by serine tRNA synthetase with
selenocysteine followed by its transport to the ribosome by SelB
83. A DNA segment was cloned into the active site region of lacZ gene and the recombinant plasmid
introduced into lacZ- strain of E.coli and plated on a medium containing X-gal. The colonies
showed blue colour.
Which one of the following statements is true ?
(1) The nature of the cloned DNA segment need not be special as cloning of any DNA in lacZ
will result in disruption of its reading frame and production of blue colour on X-gal plates.
(2) The cloned DNA segment could be a Group I intron whose removal from the precursor
lacZ transcript in E. coli results in production of mature lacZ mRNA which can then
produce active lacZ protein.
(3) The cloned sequence is likely to be lacY sequence which is naturally a part of lac operon
in E coli.
(4) The cloned sequence is likely to be an anti-terminator sequence that which allows full
length transcription of lacZ
84. An intron in a yeast reporter gene carries a mutation in the splice site branch point (UACUAAC
to UACA*AAC). To suppress the mutation, a library of point mutants of snRNAs was introduced
into the mutant strain. The suppressor is most likely to have a point mutation in:
(1) U1snRNA (2) U2snRNA
(3) RNase P (4) U6snRNA
85. A researcher wanted to identify the enhancer sequences of a newly discovered gene. Shown
below are the relevant regions of some of the reporter constructs the researcher designed to
identify the enhancer.
Which of the above constructs can be used to identify the enhancer ?

(1) 1 only (2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 3 (4) 3 only

86. In a genetic assay, randomly generated fragments of yeast DNA were cloned into a bacterial
plasmid containing gene ‘X’ essential for yeast viability on minimal media. The recombinant
plasmid was used to transform a yeast strain deficient in recombination and lacking ‘X’ gene.
Transformants, which survive on minimal media and form colonies should essentially have:
(1) Yeast centromeric sequence which ensures integrity of the plasmid after transformation.
(2) Enhancers for the essential gene missing in the transformed strain.
(3) A sequence similar to bacterial origin of replication
(4) Yeast autonomous replicating sequence
87. Following statements have been made about recombination in a diploid organism:
1. Recombination could be identified by genotyping parents and offsprings for a pair of loci.
2. Recombination frequency does not exceed 0.5, therefore, 50 cM would be the maximum
distance between two loci.
3. Recombination is a reciprocal process. However, a non-reciprocal exchange may cause
gene conversion.
4. Occasionally non-homologous recombination happens and this functions as a source of
chromosomal rearrangement.
Select the combination with all the correct statements:
(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 1, 2, 4
(3) 2, 3, 4 (4) 1, 3, 4
88. Bacteria adopt different strategies to evade host defence mechanisms. From the lists of various
different mechanisms and bacterial strategies against host defence given below, select the option
representing all correct pairing:
(1) a – W; b – X; c – Y; d – Z (2) a – X; b – Y; c – Z; d – W
(3) a – Z; b – Y; c – X; d – W (4) a – Y; b – W; c – Z; d – X

89. Bacterial chemotaxis response is mediated by histidine-kinase-associated receptors that activate

a two-component signalling pathway which enables chemotaxis receptors to control the flagellar
motors. When bacteria move towards attractant, they produce smooth swimming by rotating
flagella counter-clockwise, whereas when bacteria move away from repellant, they produce
increased tumbling by rotating flagella clockwise. Which of the following characteristics regarding
chemotaxis receptor is NOT true ?
(1) The receptors are dimeric transmembrane proteins that bind specific attractants and
repellents on the outside of the plasma membrane.
(2) The cytoplasmic tail of the receptor is stably associated with a histidine kinase CheA via
an adapter protein CheW.
(3) The receptor and its associated proteins are all clustered at one end of the cell.
(4) The binding of an attractant increases the activity of the receptor whereas binding of a
repellent decreases the activity.
90. Following are a list of extracellular matrix proteins (Column A) along with their functional
characteristics (Column B):
Column A Column B
Connexin The chief endothelial cell proteins that are
recognized by the white blood cell integrins
A. (i)
and member of immuneglobulin (Ig)
superfamily
Plasmodesmata Cell surface carbohydrate binding proteins that
B. (ii) mediate a variety of transient cell-cell adhesion
interactions in the bloodstream.
ICAM Four-pass transmenbrane protein which is the
C. (iii) major constituent of gap junction in forming a
continuous aqueous channel.
Selectin It is the only class of intercellular junctions in
D. (iv) plants that directly connect the cyto-plasm of
adjacent cells.
Which one of the following is the correct match ?
(1) A – i ; B – iv ; C – iii ; D – ii (2) A – ii ; B – iii ; C – iv ; D – i
(3) A – iii ; B – iv ; C – i ; D – ii (4) A – iv ; B – i ; C – ii ; D – iii
91. A western blot analysis after treating cancer cells with a prospective anti-cancer drug is shown
below:

The following assumptions were made:

1. The drug may have arrested the growth of cells at the G1 phase.
2. The drug targeted the JAK-STAT signalling pathway
3. The drug led to apoptosis of the cells.
4. Drug-induced apoptosis was through the extrinsic or mitochondrial-independent pathway
Which one of the following combination is correct ?
(1) Only 2 and 4 (2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) Only 1 and 2 (4) 2, 3 and 4
92. Which one of the following statements regarding clonal selection hypothesis is NOT CORRECT ?
(1) Mature B lymphocytes bear Ig receptors on their cell surface and all receptors on a single
B cell have variable specificity for antigen.
(2) On antigen stimulation, B cell matures, migrates to lymphoid organs and replicates. Its
clonal descendants bear the same receptor as parental B cell and secrete antibodies with
identical specificity.
(3) After immune response, more B cells bearing receptors will remain in the host and act
as memory cells for mounting enhanced secondary response.
(4) B cells with receptors for self antigens are deleted during embryonic development.
93. Susceptible individuals are infected with pathogen A and pathogen B separately. Pathogen A has
a very short incubation period and disease symptoms are already underway by the time memory
cells are activated. Pathogen B on the other hand has a long incubation period and which allows
the memory cells to activate and respond. Which one of the following will be the most appropriate
vaccination strategy against both pathogen A and B ?
(1) Repeated vaccination against both A and B for maintaining high levels of neutralizing
antibodies.
(2) Repeated vaccination against A and a single injection of pathogen B vaccine for maintaining
high levels of neutralizing antibodies.
(3) Single injection of pathogen A vaccine and repeated vaccination against pathogen B for
maintaining high levels of neutralizing antibodies.
(4) Single injection of both pathogens A and B vaccine so that memory cells can respond by
producing high levels of serum antibodies.
94. Human sperms are allowed to fertilize ova having non-functional ovastacin. The following possibilities
may be of significance in the fusion of these gametes:
A. The sperms will not fertilize ova
B. The sperms will bind and penetrate the zona pellucida but will not be able to fuse with
ovum membrane
C. ZP2 will not be clipped by cortical granule protease
D. CD9 protein of egg membrane microvilli will not be able to interact with sperm membrane
proteins in the absence of ovastacin.
E. Polyspermy may occur frequently
Which combination of statements represent the outcome of the above event ?
(1) A and B (2) C and E
(3) C and D (4) B and C
95. Temporal expression of N-cadherin is extremely important during early development of the mammalian
embryos. Accordingly which one of the following statements about N-cadherin is true ?
(1) Injection of N-cadherin antibodies just prior to condensation of mesenchymal cells will aid
cartilage formation.
(2) Presence of N-cadherin just prior to condensation will facilitate nodule formation and
development of the limb skeleton.
(3) The border between the nervous system and skin will form properly only if epidermal cells
are experimentally made to express N-cadherin.
(4) Expression of N-cadherin is redundant during separation of neural and epidermal precursor
cells.
96. The zygote of C elegans exhibits rotational cleavage. When the first two blastomeres formed (P1
and AB) are experimentally separated, the following outcomes may be possible:
A. The P1 cell in isolation generates all the cells it would normally make, showing autonomous
specification.
B. The P1 cell in isolation generates all the cells it would normally make, showing conditional
specification.
C. The AB cell in isolation generates a small fraction of cell types it would normally make,
showing conditional specification.
D. The AB cell in isolation generates a small fraction of cell types it would normally make,
showing autosomal specification.
Which one of the above combination of statements is true ?
(1) A and C (2) B and C
(3) B and D (4) A and D
97. Given below are some of the statements regarding regeneration:

A. The type of regeneration characteristic of mammalian liver is considered as Compensatory
regeneration.
B. Regrowth of hair shaft from follicular cells exemplifies stem cell mediated regeneration.
C. Regeneration occurring through the repatterning of existing tissues with little new growth
is known as morphallaxis.
D. Adult structures undergoing de-differentiation forming a blastema, that then redifferentiates
to form the lost structure, is called epimorphosis.
Choose the most appropriate combination of correct statements:
(1) D only (2) C and D only
(3) A, B and C only (47) A, B, C and D
98. Following are certain statements regarding apomixis in plants:

A. Apomixis cannot be used to maintain hybrid vigor over many generations in plants.
B. In sporophytic apomixis maternal genotype is maintained.
C. There is an event of meiosis during gametophytic apomixis and is also referred as
apomeiosis.
D. In diplospory, meiosis of the megaspore mother cell is aborted, resulting in two unreduced
spores, out of which one forms the female gametophyte.
Which one of the following combinations is correct ?
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) B and C (4) B and D

99.
The following assumptions were derived from the above experiment:

A. Medium A contained bFGF and PDGF
B. Medium B contained retinoic acid
C. Cells cultured in Medium B were determined to become functional neurons prior to addition
of the medium.
Which one of the following combinations represents correct statements ?
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and C
(3) B and C only (4) A and C only
100. Following statements were made with respect to symbiotic association of rhizobia with legumes.
A. nodD is a regulatory gene.
B. Nod factors are lipochitin oligosaccharides.
C. Nod factors predominantly have –14 linked N-acetyl-D-glu-cosamine backbone
D. Receptors for Nod factors are protein kinases with extracellular sug-ar-binding Lys M
domain.
Which one of the following combinations represents all correct statements ?
(1) A, B and C (2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D (4) A, B and D
101. A quadratic check of gene combinations and disease reaction types in a host-pathogen system
where the gene-for-gene concept operates is represented below:
Virulence or avirulence Resistance or susceptibility genes in the plant

genes in the pathogen R (resistance) domain r (susceptible) recessive
A (avirulent) dominant AR Ar
a (virulent) recessive aR ar
The following statements were made about the above genotypes.
(A) AR genotype has incompatible (resistant) reactions.
(B) Ar genotype has compatible (susceptible) reactions.
(C) ar genotype has compatible (susceptible) reactions.
(D) aR genotype has incompatible (resistant) reactions.
Choose the combination with all correct statements.
(1) A, B and D (2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D

102. Following observations were recorded while studying physiological parameters of sorghum and
wheat under similar conditions:
(A) Sorghum RUBISCO exhibits relatively higher affinity for CO2 compared to that of wheat.
(B) Light saturation of net photosynthetic flux is relatively lower for sorghum compared to that
of wheat.
(C) Warburg effect is difficult to record for sorghum and could be said as “not measurable”
whereas it could be easily recorded for wheat.
(D) Temperature optimum for net photosynthesis is lower for sorghum compared to that of
wheat.
13
(E) C/12C ratio of assimilate is relatively higher for sorghum compared to that of wheat.
Which one of the following combination of the above observation is correct ?
(1) Only A, B and C (2) Only B, C and E
(3) Only A, B and D (4) Only A, C and E
103. Following are certain statements regarding respiratory metabolism in plants:

(A) Respiratory quotient during partial breakdown of carbohydrate (alcoholic fermentation) will
be infinity.
(B) Respiratory quotient indirectly provides information about (i) nature of the substrate used
for respiration and (ii) the relative rate of competing respiratory processes.
(C) Breakdown of organic acids in mature fruit will exhibit a respiratory quotient value of more
than one since organic acids are relatively oxygen-rich compared to other common
substrates.
(D) Anabolic metabolism can influence respiratory quotient by removing reduction equivalents
leading to decrease in oxygen uptake.
Which one of the following combination of the above statement is correct ?
(1) Only A (2) Only B and C
(3) Only D (4) A, B, C and D
104. Sieve elements of phloem conduct sugars and other organic materials throughout the plant. The
following statements were made about characteristics of sieve elements in seed plants:
(A) Angiosperms contain sieve plate pores.
(B) There are no sieve plates in gymnosperms.
(C) P-protein is present in all eudicots and many monocots
(D) There is no P-protein in angiosperms.
Which one of the following combination is correct ?
(1) B, C and D (2) A, B and C
(3) A, B and D (4) A, C and D

105. The plant hormones, auxins and cytokinins, and their interactions play an important role in regulating
apical dominance. The following figure represents an experiment related to the study of gene
interactions that influence axillary bud outgrowth or dormancy. Q, Z and M represent genes
involved in phytohormone pathway.
Based on the above figure, the following statements were made:

(A) ‘X’ is an auxin that maintains expression of ‘Q’ and ‘Z’ and represses ‘M’.
(B) ‘Y’ is a cytokinin that promotes axillary bud growth and is induced by ‘M’
(C) Decapitation (removal of apex) activates ‘X’
(D) ‘X’ is a cytokinin that repressed ‘M’
Which one of the following options represents correct statement(s) ?
(1) A and C only (2) B and D only
(3) A and B only (4) C only
106. The conduction velocity of action potential in a myelinated nerve fibre was much greater than that
of an unmyelinated fibre of the same diameter. The following statements were proposed to
explain this observation.
(A) The speed of conduction in a nerve fibre is determined by the plasma membrane resistance
and axial resistance of axonal cytoplasm.
(B) The electrical properties of myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibres are not similar
(C) The myelin sheath decreases the effective membrane resistance.
(D) The magnitude of an electrotonic potential decreases more with distance along the axon
in myelinated nerve fibres than that of unmyelinated fibres.
(E) The voltage-gated Na+ channels are highly concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.
Choose one of the following combinations with both INCORRECT statements.
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) D and E
107. A four year old boy was brought to hospital for weak bones in spite of sufficient intake of calcium
in his diet. The attending doctor examined the functioning of the following organs:
(A) Liver (B) Kidney
(C) Lung (D) Pancreas
Which one of the following options represents a combination of probable malfunctioning organs ?
(3) C and D (4) A and D

108. The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve illustrates the relationship between pO2 in blood and
the number of O2 molecules bound to haemoglobin. The ‘S’ shape of the curve has been explained
in the following proposed statements.
(A) The quaternary structure of haemoglobin determines its affinity to O2.
(B) In deoxyhaemoglobin, the globin unit s are tightly bound in a T-configuration.
(C) The interactions between globin subunits are altered when O2 binds with deoxyhaemoglobin.
(D) The affinity to O2 in T-configuration of haemoglobin is increased
(E) In the relaxed configuration of haemoglobin, the affinity to O2 is reduced.
Choose one of the following combinations with both INCORRECT statements:
109. The changes in left atrial, left ventricular and aortic pressure in a cardiac cycle are shown below
in the figure:
120
C
100
Pressure (mm Hg)
B
80
Left atrial pressure
60 Left vestibular pressure
Aortic pressure
40 D
A
20
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8

Time (sec)
Given below are the events of cardiac cycle (column A) associated with marked points (A, B, C
and D) in the figure (column B).
Column A Column B
(a) Aortic value opens (i) D
(b) Mitral value closes (ii) B
(c) Mitral value opens (iii) A
(d) Aortic value closes (iv) C
Choose the option that matches the events with marked points in the figure:
(1) a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv) (2) a - (i), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii)
(3) a - (iv), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (ii) (4) a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (iv), d - (i)
110. A person recovered from a moderate degree of haemorrhage shock. The participating physiological
mechanisms in this recovery process are proposed in the following statements:
(A) A decrease in arterial pressure after haemorrhage causes inhibition of sympathetic-
vasoconstrictor system.
(B) After haemorrhage, the angiotensin II level in blood is increased which causes increased
re-absorption of Na+ in renal tubules.
(C) The increased secretion of vasopressin after haemorrhage increases water retention by
the kidneys.
(D) After haemorrhage, the reduced secretion of epinephrine and nor-epinephrine from adrenal
medulla induces decreased peripheral resistance.
(E) In haemorrhage, the central nervous system ischemic response elicits sympathetic
inhibition.
Choose one of the following combinations with both the correct statements.
111. A healthy individual was immersed in water up to neck in an upright posture for 3 h. The plasma
concentration of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), renin and aldosterone were measured for 5 h at
1 h intervals including the immersion period. The results are graphically represented below:
The results of this experimental condition (EC) are explained in the following proposed statements
which may be correct or incorrect.
(A) ANP secretion is proportional to the degree of stretch of atria.
(B) The decreased plasma renin concentration in EC is due to increase in sympathetic
activity.
(C) The decreased aldosterone level in EC is the effect of plasma renin level.
(D) The effect of gravity on the circulation is counteracted in EC
(E) The central venous pressure is decreased in EC
Choose one of the following combinations with all correct statements
(1) A, B, C (2) A, C, D
(3) C, D, E (4) B, C, D
112. Several mutants (1-4) are isolated, all of which require compound E for growth. The compounds
A to D in the biosynthetic pathway to E are known, but their order in the pathway is not known.
Each compound is tested for its ability to support the growth of each mutant (1-4). In the following
table, a plus sign also indicates growth and a minus sign indicates no growth.
Medium supplement with compound

Mutant
A B C D E
1 – – + + +
2 – + + + +
3 – – + + +
4 – – – – +
What is the order of compounds (A to E) in the pathway ?
(1) E  D  C  B A (2) A  C  D  B  E
(3) E  B  D  C A (4) A  B  C  D  E
113. Following is the picture of an inversion heterozygote undergoing single crossing-over event
The following statements are given towards explaining the consequences at the end of meiosis.
(A) The resultant two chromosomes will have deletions and duplications.
(B) A dicentric and an acentric chromosome will be formed
(C) The inversion does not allow crossing over to occur, so even if a crossing over is initiated,
it will fail to occur.
(D) The crossing over is considered suppressed by inversion as the acentric chromosome
will not segregate normally.
(E) All the gametes formed with cross-over chromatids at the end of meiosis will be non-
viable as they carry large deletion or duplication.
(F) The gametes having non-crossover (parental) chromatid will survive.
Which combination of statements is correct ?
(1) B and E (2) A and C
(3) B, D and F (4) A, E and F
114. Polymorphic DNA sequences are used for molecular identification. Short tandem repeats (STRs)
and Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNPs) are used as polymorphic markers. The table below
summarizes the status of autosomal SNP, autosomal STR, mitochondrial SNP, Y-linked STR for
four individuals related to each other, representing parents and their two children.
Autosomal Mt DNA Y-linked

Individual SNP STR SNP1 SNP2 STR
A C/C 13/12 C G 13
B C/G 13/13 C A 13
C C/G 14/13 C A –
D C/C 13/14 C A –
Based on the above data, identify the individuals representing the two parents.
(1) Individuals A and D (2) Individuals A and C
(3) Individuals B and C (4) Individuals C and D
115. An autosomal recessive condition affects 1 newborn in 10,000 in a random mating population
without any disruptive acting force. What is the approximate expected frequency of carriers in this
population ?
(1) 1 in 1000 newborns (2) 1 in 500 newborns
(3) 1 in 100 newborns (4) 1 in 50 newborns

116. Angelman Syndrome (AS) and Prader-Willi Syndrome (PWS) have very distinct symptoms. Factors
responsible for the occurrence of these syndromes are given below:
(A) Microdeletion of 15q11-13 in paternal chromosome
(B) Uniparental disomy of maternal chromosome 15.
(C) Lack of functional maternal copy of ubiquitin ligase E3A.
(D) Lack of SNURF-SNRPN transcript, which is produced only from paternal chromosome.
(E) Deficiencies of small nucleolar RNAs, which are encoded from the introns of SNURF-
SNRPN transcript from paternal chromosome.
Which of the following combination of answers is correct for Angelman and Prader-Willi
Syndromes ?
(1) PWS - A, C, D ; AS - B, E (2) PWS - B only ; AS - A, C, D, E
(3) PWS - A, B, D, E ; AS - C only (4) PWS - A, B ; AS - C, D, E
117. Using uninterrupted mating, four Hfr strains were analysed for the sequence in which they
transmitted a number of different genes to a F-strain. Each Hfr strain was found to transmit its
genes in a unique order as summarized in the table [Only the first five genes were scored]
Order of Hfr strain

transmission 1 2 3 4
First A B M F
B A K H
D L J G
F M G J
Last H K H K
Which one of the following correctly represents the gene sequence in the original strain from which
the Hfr strains were derived as well as the place of integration and polarity of the F plasmid ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
118. Given below is a list of bacteria either functioning as methanogens or methanotrophs:

(A) Methanobacterium sp (B) Methanococcus sp
(C) Methylomonas sp (D) Methylosinus sp

Which of the following options classifies the above list correctly ?

(1) Methanogen - A; Methanotrophs - B, C, D
(2) Methanogens - A, B, C; Methanotrophs - D
(3) Methanogens - A, B; Methanotrophs - C, D
(4) Methanogens - A, D; Methanotrophs - B, C
119. The table given below provides a list of groups of Arthropods (A-D) and some features (i-v)
(A) Onychophorans (i) includes insects
(B) Trilobites (ii) have cephalothorax and often pincer-like
appendage
(C) Hexapods (iii) marine arthropods that disappeared in the
Permian extinction
(D) Chelicerates (iv) are considered related to arthropods but have
unjointed appendages
(v) only arthroped group without antennae
Which one of the following options represents the correct match between the arthropod groups
with these features ?
(1) A - (iv); B - (iii); C - (i); D - (iv) (2) A - (i); B - (iii); C - (iv); D - (ii)
(3) A - (iii); B - (iv); C - (ii); D - (i) (4) A - (iv); B - (iii); C - (v); D - (ii)
120. In the following table, a list of threat categories and animals of India is given in an alphabetical
order:
Animals Threat Category
(i) Bengal Florican (A) Critically
(ii) Ganga River Dolphin (B) Endangered
(iii) Indian Rhinoceros (C) Vulnerable
(iv) Indian Vulture
Which of the following options shows correct combination of animals and their threat category
as per the Red Data list of IUCN ?
(1) i - A; ii - A; iii - B; iv - C (2) i - A; ii - B; iii - C; iv - A
(3) i - B; ii - C; iii - B; iv - A (4) i - C; ii - A; iii - B; iv - B
121. Following table shows presence (+) and absence (-) of selected distinguishing characters of
different plant taxa:
Characters
Taxon Xylerm and
Wood Flowers Seeds
Phloem
A + – – –
B + + + +
C – – – –
D + + – +
Based on the above, which of the following shows correct identity of taxa A, B, C and D ?
(1) A - Hornworts; B - Oaks; C - Ferns; D - Pines
(2) A - Ferns; B - Oaks; C - Hornworts; D - Pines
(3) A - Hornworts; B - Pines; C - Ferns; D - Oaks
(4) A - Ferns; B - Pines; C - Hornworts; D - Oaks

122. Following table shows an alphabetical list of certain domesticated crops and places of origin:
Crop Place of origin

i. Barley A. China
ii. Baize B. Fertile Crescent
iii. Mung Bean C. India
iv. Rice D. Southern Mexico
v. Wheat
Based on the above, which of the following options represent the correct match between crops
and their place of origin ?
(1) i - C; ii - D; iii - A; iv - B; v - B
(2) i - B, D; ii - B; iii - A, C; iv - A; v - B
(3) i - C; ii - D; iii - C; iv - B; v - C
(4) i - B; ii - D; iii - C; iv - A, C; v - B
123. A list of floral formulae and plant families are given in the following table:
Floral Formula Family
(i)  K(5) C(5) A(5) G(2) (A) Brassicaseae
(ii)  P(3+3) A(3+3) G(3) (B) Fabaceae
(iii) Å K2+2 C4 A2+4 G(20 (C) Liliaceae
(iv) † K(5) C(2), 3 A10 G1 (D) Solanaceae

Which of the following options most appropriately matches given plant families with their
representative floral formulae ?
(1) i - D; ii - B; iii - A; iv - C (2) i - D; ii - C; iii - A; iv - B
(3) i - D; ii - C; iii - B; iv - A (4) i - A; ii - C; iii - B; iv - D
124. Grassland plots with varying number of grass species were cultivated for 10 years. At the end
of the experiment, total plant cover was measured. Soil nitrogen was also measured to assess
its utilization by plants. The relationships are shown in the following plots.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above experiment ?
(1) Grasses in plots with lower species richness enriched soil nitrogen, thereby increasing
the plant cover.
(2) Plots with greater species richness showed greater stability and more efficient soil nitrogen
utilization.
(3) Plots with greater species richness utilized nitrogen more efficiently, but would not show
increased net primary production.
(4) No correlation can be drawn between species richness, community productivity and nitrogen
utilization.
125. Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate option. Global analysis of a large
number of plant species traits showed that with increase in leaf lifespan,
(1) specific leaf area increases whereas leaf nitrogen and net photosynthesis rate decrease.
(2) specific leaf area, leaf nitrogen and net photosynthesis rate increase.
(3) specific leaf area, leaf nitrogen and net photosynthesis rate decrease.
(4) specific leaf area decreases whereas leaf nitrogen and net photosynthesis rate increase.
126. Forest fragments in an agricultural landscape can be viewed as islands of habitat in an ocean
of non-habitat. MacArthur and Wilson’s island biogeography model can be used to predict patterns
of species in these forest fragments which are represented in the graphs below:
Species Richness Species Richness
Species Richness Species Richness

in Fragment
in Fragment
(A) (B)
Fragment Area Fragment Area

in Fragment
in Fragment
(C) (D)
Distance to Nearest Distance to Nearest
Fragment Fragment
Which one of the following combinations of the graphs correctly represents predictions from the
model ?
(1) A and C (2) A and D
127. In order to estimate population size of a fish species in lake, a researcher captures 100 fish from
the lake and marks them with coloured tags. A week later, the researcher returns to the lake and
catches 150 fish of the same species and finds that 25 of them are previously tagged ones.
Assuming no immigration or emigration occured, the total population size of the fish species in
the lake will be:
(1) 17 (2) 38
(3) 600 (4) 860

128. Given below is a graphical representation of plant life histories based on Grime’s model in which
stress, disturbance and competition are the important factors.
Which of the following options correctly represent A, B and C, respectively in the figure above ?
(1) perennial herbs, trees and shrubs, annual plants.
(2) annual plants, perennial herbs, trees and shrubs.
(3) annual plants, trees and shrubs, perennial herbs.
(4) trees and shrubs, perennial herbs, annual plants.
129. Following table shows attributes of selected species A, B, C and D:

Species
Attributes
A B C D
Dispersal ability High Low High Low
-Selected Yes Yes No No
Predominant
reproduction Asexual Sexual Asexual Sexual
mode
Competitive ability High Low High Low
Based on the above information, which of the following is most likely to become invasive if climate
matches between its site of origin and site of colonization ?
(1) Species A and D (2) Species A only
(3) Species D only (4) Species B and C
130. Four drugs (A, B, C, D) were used to disrupt a biological rhythm in experimental animals. The
changes in the pattern of the biological rhythm as compared to untreated are shown below. The
solid line represents the biological rhythm of the untreated and broken line represents that of the
treated animals.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Which of the following interpretations from the above experiment is IN-CORRECT ?

(1) Drug A can be used to reduce the period length of the rhythm.
(2) Drug B can be used for sustained lowering of amplitude of the rhythm without changing
its period.
(3) Drug C can be used for sustained lowering of amplitude and period of the rhythm.
(4) Drug D can be used to reduce the robustness and dampen out the rhythm.
131. The phylogenetic tree below shows evolutionary relationships among 8 species. Males of these
species are either blue (b) or red (r) in colour, the colour being indicated next to each species
name.
A
F
G
H
Based on the principle of parsimony, which of the following statements best represents the
evolution of male body colour in this set of species ?
(1) The most recent common ancestor of all 8 species was blue; red evolved independently
5 times.
(2) The most recent common ancestor of all 8 species was blue; red evolved independently
4 times.
(3) The most recent common ancestor of all 8 species was red; blue evolved independently
3 times.
(4) The most recent common ancestor of all 8 species was red; blue evolved independently
2 times.
132. An alphabetical list of tropical rainforest mammals from South America and Africa is given below:
South America Africa
(i) Agouti (A) Bosman’s Potto
(ii) Giant Armadillo (B) Chevrotain
(iii) Paca (C) Pangolin
(iv) Three toed sloth (D) Royal Antelope
Pair the species in the list to demonstrate the concept of convergent evolution between the two
continents.
(1) i - D; ii - C; iii - A; iv - B (2) i - A; ii - C; iii - D; iv - B
(3) i - A; ii - B; iii - D; iv - C (4) i - D; ii - C; iii - B; iv - A

133. A study tested the importance of learning mechanisms in the development of anti-predator escape
responses in tadpoles of a frog species. Tadpoles hatched from eggs in the lab were kept
individually either with predator chemical cues (PRIOR EXPOSURE) or without predator chemical
cues (NAIVE) for 1 week. These individuals were tested for their escape response when exposed
to a live predator. They were tested either alone or together with 3 older experienced tadpoles.
The graph below shows the escape response of the test individuals in the four different treatments.
Some of the inferences drawn are given below:

(A) Prior exposure to predator cues is necessary for the development of escape response.
(B) Prior exposure to predator cues positively influences the development of escape response.
(C) The presence of older experienced individuals is necessary for the development of escape
response.
(D) The presence of older experienced individuals positively influences the development of
escape response.
(E) An individual with prior exposure and with older and experienced individuals showed the
strongest escape response.
Which one of the following combination of statements represents the correct inference from the
experiment ?
(1) A and C (2) B and D
(3) A and D (4) A, C and E
134. Beak shape in birds has evolved in response to their diet. The table listing bird species and food
type is given below:
Bird Species Food Type
(i) Barn Swalow (A) Fruits
(ii) Great hornbill (B) Insects
(iii) House sparrow (C) Nectar
(iv) Purple sunbird (D) Seeds
Match the bird species shown above to their main food resource:
(1) i - D; ii - A; iii - C; iv - B (2) i - B; ii - D; iii - A; iv - C
(3) i - C; ii - B; iii - D; iv - A (4) i - B; ii - A; iii - D; iv - C

135. Given below are four statements related to Agrobacterium-mediated transfer of T-DNA into plant
cells:
(A) Production of single-stranded T-DNA by VirD1 and VirD2 proteins.
(B) Interaction of VirE2 with V1P1 and VirE3.
(C) Use of VirB/VirD4 type IV secretion system.
(D) Activation of VirA-VirG complex.
The correct sequence of events (from earliest to latest) is:
(1) A-B-D-C (2) B-C-A-D
(3) C-A-B-D (4) D-A-C-B
136. Construction of knockout mice may be performed using the Cre-LoxP system. Eventually, the Cre
recombinase of the bacteriophage P1 mediates site-specific recombination at a 34 bp sequence,
lox P.
From the following statements, choose the INCORRECT event:
(1) The alteration of the chromosomal copy of the target gene requires a guide RNA.
(2) The loxP containing mice should not express Cre recombinase prior to mating.
(3) The Cre recombinase can be expressed by an inducible promoter.
(4) Induction of the promoter results in the expression of Cre, recombination at lox P sites and
excision of the sequence in between.
137. Monoclonal antibodies can be modified for better research and therapeutic applications. Several
such approaches are mentioned below (Column A) along with their possible applications (Column
B)
Column A Column B
(i) Binding sites of the original (a) Abzymes
mouse mAb are placed onto the
Fc regions of human antibodies
(ii) Antibodies are modified by (b) Reduce side effect of xenogenic antibodies in
conjugation to toxins designed to immunotherapy
kill cells to which the antibody will bind
(iii) Generation of mAb that specifically (c) Immunotoxins
bind and stabilize the transition
state of a chemical reaction
Which one of the following options represents a correct combination of terms in Column A and
Column B ?
(1) i-a; ii-b; iii-c (2) i-b; ii-a; iii-c
(3) i-c; ii-b; iii-a (4) i-b; ii-c; iii-a
138. Given below is a table comprising various terms associated with plant tissue culture in Column
A and Column B.
Column A Column B
(A) Auxin (i) Embryogenesis
(B) Protoplast culture (ii) 6-Furfury-laminopurine
(C) Cytokinin (iii) Pectinase and Cellulase
(D) Microspore culture (iv) Indole-3-acetic acid
Which one of the following options represents the most appropriate match between all the terms
of Column A and Column B ?
(1) A-ii; B-i; C-iv; D-iii (2) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i
(3) A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii (4) A-iv; B-i; C-ii; D-iii
139. In an attempt to increase the yield of a commercially important enzyme from natural isolate,
several strategies were adopted as follows:
(A) Genome was selectively modified to increase yield.
(B) Reappraisal of culture requirements of the modified organism to increase yield.
(C) Induced mutants were screened and selected for organism synthesizing improved levels
of the enzyme.
(D) Organism was genetically modified, so that it produces a factor that enhances stability of
the enzyme.
Which one of the following options represents strategies that are appropriate for the purpose ?
(1) A, B, C and D (2) B and C only
(3) A, C and D only (4) A and B only
140. Given below are names of techniques (Column A) and their characteristic features/applications
(Column B)
Column A Column B
(A) Hybridoma technology (i) Separation of proteins according to charge
(B) MALDI – TOF (ii) Identification of protein complexes in cells
(C) Ion-exchange chromatography (iii) Production of identical antibodies
(D) Co-immunoprecipitation (iv) Determination of molecular weight of protein
and/or peptides
Which one of the following represents a correct match between Column A and Column B ?
(1) A - (ii); B - (iii); C - (iv); D - (i) (2) A - (iii); B - (iv); C - (i); D - (ii)
(3) A - (iv); B - (i); C - (ii); D - (iii) (4) A - (ii); B - (iv); C - (i); D - (iii)
141. Three proteins, Blm1, Blm2, Blm3 were shown to be involved in repair of DNA double strand
breaks. A chromatin immunoprecipitation experiment was performed for the three proteins. The
pattern of results obtained is shown below:
Based on the above figure, choose the option that correctly interprets the data:
(1) B1m 1, B1m 2, B1m 3 bind to DNA break sites.
(2) B1m binds to the break site; B1m 3 binds to the break site and beyond.
(3) B1m 2 remains bound to DNA after the break is induced.
(4) B1m 3 binds to DNA irrespective of the break.
142. The most important property of any microscope is its resolution (D). Which one of the following
wavelengths (nm) would be used to achieve the best resolution using a light microscope with
lenses having numerical aperture (NA) of 1.4 ?
(1) 450 (2) 480
(3) 560 (4) 700
143. Detailed NMR spectra of a 20-residue peptide were recorded using a 600 MHz instrument. If the
peptide adopts an  -helical conformation, which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Prominent NHi – NHi+1 NOE peaks would be observed along with 3JNH–HA coupling constants
~8.5 Hz
(2) Prominent CaHi – NHi+1 NOE peaks would be observed along with 3JNH–HA coupling constants
~4.8 Hz
(3) Prominent CaHi – CaHi+1 NOE peaks would be observed along with 3JNH–HA coupling
constants ~8.5 Hz
(4) Prominent NHi – NHi+i NOE peaks would be observed along with 3JNH–HA coupling constants
~4.8 Hz
144. Given below are names of statistical distribution (Column I) and their characteristic features
(Column II)
Column I Column II
(A) Binomial distribution (i) Each observation represents one of two
outcomes (success or failure)
(B) Poisson distribution (ii) Probability distribution that is symmetric about
the mean
(C) Normal distribution (iii) Probability of a given number of events
happening in a fixed interval of time
Which one of the following represents a correct match between columns I and II ?
(1) A - (ii) ; B - (i) ; C - (iii) (2) A - (i) ; B - (ii) ; C - (iii)
(3) A - (i) ; B - (iii) ; C - (ii) (4) A - (iii) ; B - (ii) ; C - (i)
145. Highly purified peptides P1, P2 and P3 were subjected to MALDI mass spectral analysis. The
following observations were made:
P1 : Showed a m/z of 16 more than the expected value
P2 : Showed a m/z of 80 more than the expected value. MS/MS spectra of the peptide resulted
in a precursor ion with m/z 98 less than the expected m/z.
P3 : Showed a m/z that was double the expected value.
[Note : z =+1 for all the mass spectra]
Which one of the options given below comprises all correct interpretations ?
(1) P1: Cys is oxidized; P2: has undergone oxidation at multiple Met residues; P3; is a non-
covalent dimer.
(2) P1: Met is oxidized; P2: is phosphorylated; P3; is a covalent dimer.
(3) P1: Met is oxidized; P2: multiple Cys are oxidized; P3; is a covalent dimer.
(4) P1: Cys is oxidized; P2: phosphorylated and oxidized at Met; P3; is a non-covalent dimer.

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 4 3 1 4 3 3 3 2 4
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 1 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 2 1
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 1 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 2
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1 2 2 3 1 1 3 2 2 3
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
3 3 2 4 4 2 3 3 4 1
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
4 2 4 4 3 3 4 2 2 4
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
3 3 2 2 1 4 4 2 4 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
2 1 2 2 2 1 4 4 1 4
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
2 4 4 2 3 3 1 4 1 2
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
2 4 4 2 4 3 3 3 1 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
2 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 3
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
4 4 2 4 4 1 4 2 1 2
141 142 143 144 145
2 1 4 3 2

Life Sciences
Part ‘A’ : This part contains twenty (20) objective type questions. The candidates shall be required
to answer any 15 questions. Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks
answer any 35 questions. Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks allocated
to answer any 25 questions. Each question shall be of four marks. The total marks

PART-A
1. Of four agents Alpha, Beta; Gamma and Delta, three have to be sent together on a mission. If
Alpha and Beta cannot go together, Beta and Gamma cannot go together and Gamma and Delta
cannot go together. Then which of the following holds ?
(1) Any three agents can be sent.
(2) Alpha, Delta and any one out of Beta and Gamma can be sent.
(3) Beta. Gamma and any one out of Alpha and Delta can be sent.
(4) The mission is impossible.
2. An open rectangular box is made by excluding the four identical corners of a piece of paper as
shown in the diagram and folding it along the dotted lines
10 cm
10 cm
40 cm
40 cm
The capacity of the box (in cm3) is

(1) 8000 (2) 1000
(3) 4000 (4) 6000
3. Which of the following is the largest ?

250, 340, 430, 520
(1) 250 (2) 340
(3) 430 (4) 520
4. A monkey climbs a tree to eat fruits. The amount of energy gained from eating fruits and the
energy spent in climbing on different branches have a relationship shown in the figure.
Energy Gained
0.0 Energy Spent

The ratio of energy gained to energy spent will be the maximum
(1) at a point where the slope of the curve is the maximum
(2) at a point where the slope of the curve is unity
(3) at a point on the curve where the tangent passes through the origin
(4) at the highest point on the curve

5. The length of a cylinder is measured 10 times yielding 10 distinct values. For this set of values,
consider the following statements
a. Five of these values will lie above the mean and five below it
b. Five of these values will lie above the median and five below it
c. At least one value will lie above the mean
d. At least one value will lie at the median
Which of the statements are necessarily correct ?
(1) b and c (2) a and c
(3) b and d (4) a, c and d
6. In the given circle, O is the centre,

PAO = 40º, PBQ = 30º and outer angle AOB = 220º.
P
Q
22 30º
40 0º
º
A B
Then AQB is
(1) 70º (2) 80º
(3) 60º (4) 110º
7. A canal system is shown in the figure

G1
A B
G2
Water flows from A to B through two channels. Gates G1 and G2 are operated independently to
regulate the flow. Probability of G1 to be open is 10% while that of G2 is 20%. The probability that
water will flow from A to B is
(1) 10% (2) 20%
(3) 28% (4) 30%
8. A long ream of paper of thickness t is rolled tightly. As the roll becomes larger, the length of the
paper wrapped in one turn exceeds the length in the previous turn by
(1) t (2) 2t
(3) t (4) 2t

9. Point A on a wheel of radius r touches the horizontal plane at point P. It rolls without slipping, till
point A is at the highest position in the first turn. What is the final distance AP ?
A
P
Initial Final
(1) 2r (2) r (1  2 )
(3) r (4  2 ) (4) 2r (1  2 )
10. In a bacterial cell, a protein is synthesized at random location in the cytoplasm. The protein has
to reach one pole of the cell for its appropriate function. The protein reaches the pole by
(1) chemical attraction (2) random movement
(3) enzymatic action (4) attraction between opposite charges
11. A precious stone breaks into four pieces having weights in the proportion 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. The value
of such a stone is proportional to the square of its weight. What is the percent loss in the value
incurred due to breaking ?
(1) 0 (2) 30
(3) 70 (4) 90
12. Two runners starting together run on a circular path taking 6 and 8 minutes, respectively, to
complete one round. How many minutes later do they meet again for the first time on the start
line, assuming constant speeds ?
(1) 8 (2) 24
(3) 32 (4) 60
13. The distribution of grades secured by students in a class is given in the table below.
Grade Fraction of the population

A 0.1
B 0.4
C 0.3
D 0.2
What is the least possible population of the class ?
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 10
14. The nine numbers x1, x2, x3 ... x9. are is ascending order. Their average m is strictly greater than
all the first eight number.
Which of the following is true ?
(1) Average (x1, x2 ....x9, m) > m and Average (x2, x3, ... x9) > m
(2) Average (x1, x2 ...x9, m) < m and Average (x2, x3, ...x9) < m
(3) Average (x1, x2 ...x9, m) = m and Average (x2, x3, ...x9) > m
(4) Average (x1, x2 ...x9, m) < m and Average (x2, x3, ...x9) = m

15. Which among the following diagrams represents women, mothers human beings ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
16. A boy and a girl make the following statements, of which at most one is correct.
The one in a white shirt says: “I am a girl” (statement-I)
The one in a blue shirt says: “I am a boy” (statement-II)
Which of the following is the correct inference ?
(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(2) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is incorrect
(3) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
(4) The correctness of the statement I and II cannot be ascertained.
17. How many quadrilaterals does the following figure have ?
(1) 17 (2) 18
(3) 19 (4) 20
18. 12 balls, 3 each of the colours red, green, blue and yellow are put in a box and mixed. If 3 balls
are picked at random, without replacement, the probability that all 3 balls are of the same colour
is
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/12
(3) 1/36 (4) 1/55
19. Some aliens observe that roosters call before sunrise every day. Having no other information
about roosters and sunrises, which of the following inferences would NOT be valid ?
(1) Rooster-call and sunrise may be independent cyclic events with the same periodicity
(2) Both may be triggered by a common cause
(3) Rooster-call may be causing the sunrise
(4) Sunrise cannot be the cause of rooster-call as the rooster-call precedes sunrise

20. Twenty-one litres of water in a tank is to divided into three equal parts using only 5, 8, and 12
litre capacity cans. The minimum number of transfers needed to achieve this is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 7
PART-B
21. The first step in glycogen breakdown releases glucose units as

(1) glucose 6-phosphate (2) glucose 1-phosphate
(3) glucose (4) glucose and glucose 6-phosphate
22. The Na+/K+ ATPasc pump is found on the plasma membrane of most animal cells. A mutation
in the intrinsic phosphorylation site of the pump is most likely to affect.
(1) the outward movement of Na+ only.
(2) inward movement of K+ only.
(3) both the inward and outward movement of K+ and Na+.
(4) has no effect on pump activity but affects its stability.
23. The site of the division plane during cytokinesis of animal cells is determined
(1) by position of nucleus (2) by the central spindle
(3) by the pre-prophase band (4) randomly
24. To prepare individual tissue cell from a primary culture, the cell-cell and cell-matrix interaction
must be broken. To achieve this, one would NOT use :
(1) EDTA (2) Trypsin
(3) Collagenase (4) Separase
25. Which one of the following statement is NOT true about nucleosomal organization of core particle?
(1) The typical structure of DNA is altered in the middle of the core particle.
(2) In core particle, DNA is organized as flat super helix with 1.65 turns around the histone
octamer.
(3) While forming 30 mm fibers, generally 6 nucleosomes per turn organize into two start
helix.
(4) The N-terminal histone tails in a core particle are strictly ordered and exit from the
nucleosomes between turns of the DNA.
26. During replication, RNaseH removes all of the RNA prime except the ribonucleotide directly linked
to the DNA end. This is because
(1) it can degrade RNA and DNA from their 5’ end
(2) it can only cleave bonds between two ribonucleotides.
(3) it can degrade RNA and DNA from their 3’ end.
(4) activity of RNaseH is inhibited by the presence of duplex, containing both strands as DNA.

27. Which one of the statements on protein conformation, detailed below Is INCORRECT?
(1) L-amino acids can occur in Type 1' -turns where ,  are both positive.
(2) A peptide rich in proline is unlikely to adopt -helical structure.
(3) Proline residues have high propensity to occur in -turns.
(4) The dihedral angles , of amino acids in unfolded proteins are exclusively positive.
28. Choose the INCORRECT statement from the following statements made for an enzyme catalyzed
reaction.
(1) The kinetic properties of allosteric enzymes do not diverge from Michelis-Menten behaviours.
(2) In feedback inhibition, the product of a pathway inhibits an enzyme of the pathway.
(3) An antibody that binds tightly to the analog of the transition state intermediate of the
reaction S  P, would promote formation of P when the analog is added in the reaction.
(4) An enzyme with Kcat = 1.4 × 104 s–1 and Km = 9 × 10-5 M has activity close to the diffusion
controlled limit.
29. On sequence analysis of a double stranded DNA, the results showed the content of cytosine, C
was 20%. What is the amount of A and T put together?
(1) 20% (2) 30%
(3) 50% (4) 60%
30. Eukaryotic mRNAs are modified to possess a 5' cap structure. Which one of the following is an
INCORRECT statement about the function of the 5' cap structure?
(1) It protects the mRNA from 5'  3' exoribonuclease attack.
(2) It facilitates splicing of the nascent transcripts.
(3) It protects the transcript from degradation by RNAse III family enzymes.
(4) It facilitates attachment to 40S subunit of ribosome.
31. Which one of the following does NOT belong to human antimicrobial proteins and peptides at
epithelial surfaces forming part of innate immunity?
(1) Lactoferrin (2) Defensin
(3) Calprotectin (4) Vimentin
32. Which one of the following best describes death-upon-detachment?

(1) Necroptosis (2) Anoikis
(3) Extravasation (4) Metastasis
33. Fruit bats are known to harbour and spread several viruses that can infect other animals and
humans. Which one of the following viruses in NOT reported to spread by fruit bats?
(1) Ebola (2) Nipah+
(3) SARS (4) HIV–
34. In a type I hypersensitivity-mediated asthemetic response, which one of the following is through
to contribute significantly to the prolonged bronchospasm and build up of mucous seen in
asthematics?
(1) Thromboxane (2) Leukotriene
(3) TGF (4) Chondroitin

35. In a human cell line, a large fraction of double-strand DNA breaks are repaired by non-homologous
end joining (NHEJ). An inhibitor of FLAP endonuclease will effect
(1) recruitment of DNA-dependent kinase
(2) gap trimming
(3) DNA unwinding
(4) Pairing of micro-homology regions
36. Sugar puckering in double stranded nucleic acids is exclusively

(1) C-2’ endo in double stranded DN
(2) C-3’ endo in double stranded DNA
(3) C-2’ endo in double stranded RNA
(4) C-3’ endo in hybrid duplex with one strand as DNA and the other as RNA
37. Homeobox transcription factors (Hox proteins), play important roles in specifying whether a particular
mesenchymal cell will become stylopod, zeugopod or autopod. Based on the expression patterns
of these genes, a model was proposed wherein these Hox genes specify the identity of a limb
region. What would be the observed phenotype for human homozygous for a HOXDI3 mutation?
(1) No zeugopod formation
(2) Abnormalities of the hands and feet wherein the digits fuse
(3) Deformities in stylopods
(4) No femur or patella formation
38. Which one of the following describes the function of silicon in plants?
(1) Constituent of amino acids
(2) Contributes to cell wall rigidly and elasticity
(3) Constituent of the photosynthesis reaction centre
(4) Maintenance of cell turgor and electroneutrality
39. Most of the plans disease resistance (R) gene products contain.
(1) G-Box domains (2) Transcription repression domains
(3) Leucine-rich repeats (4) Enzymatic activities
40. Out of several gibberellins identified in plants, which one of the following is NOT bioactive?
(1) GA1 (2) GA3
(3) GA4 (4) GA5
41. Nitrogenase, a complex metal containing enzyme is involved in conversion of N2 to NH3. Which
one of the following metals is NOT involved in the activity of nitrogenase?
(1) Molybdenum (Mo) (2) Iron (Fe)
(3) Vanadium (V) (4) Cobalt (Co)
42. Which one of the following agents cause relaxation of mesangial cells?
(1) Histamine (2) Thromboxane A2
(3) Norepinephrine (4) Dopamine

43. A patient comes to the hospital complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. The doctor suggested that
the patient take glucose and electrolyte solution orally. Which one of following membrane proteins
is likely to be involved in rehydrating the patient?
(1) Cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator (CFTR)
(2) Sodium glucose transporter protein 1 (SGLT 1)
(3) Insulin receptor protein (IRP)
(4) Sucrase-isomaltase protein (SIP)
44. In certain plants, the mechanism where timing of another dehiscence and stigma receptivity do
not coincide to avoid self-pollination is called
(1) dichogamy (2) herkogamy
(3) monoecy (4) dioecy
45. In Xenopus embryos, -catenin plays an important role in the Dorsal/Ventral axis development.
What would you expect if the endogenous glycogen synthase kinase 3(GSK3) is knocked out by
a dominant-negative from of GSK3 in the ventral cells of the early embryo?
(1) Blocking of GSK 3 on the ventral side has no effect. A normal embryo will from.
(2) The resulting embryo will only have ventral sides.
(3) A second axis will form
(4) The dorsal fate is suppressed.
46. Assuming that the A, B, C and D genes are not linked, the probability of a progeny being
AaBBccDd from a cross between AaBBccDd and aaBBccDD parents will be
(1) 4/32 (2) 3/16
(3) 1/4 (4) 3/32
47. The new born baby of a mother having blood group AB, Rh+ and father having blood group O,
Rh-, got mixed with other babies in the hospital. The baby with which of the following blood group
is expected to be of the said couple?
(1) O,Rh+ (2) O, Rh-
(3) AB, Rh- (4) B, Rh+
48. Which one is required for vitamin B12 absorption in small intestine?
(1) Cobalophilin (2) Hephaestin
(3) Hepcidin (4) Na+ -cotransporter
49. Which one is the correct sequence of events that takes place during phototransduction when light
falls onto the retina?
(1) Closure of Na+ channels  activation of transducin  decreased release of glutamate
 decrease in intracellular cGMP  structure changes in rhodopsin
(2) Decreased release of glutamate  structural changes in rhodopsin  activation of
transducin  decrease in intracellular cGMP  closure of Na+ channels
(3) Structural changes in rhodopsin  activation of transducin  decrease in intracellular
cGMP  closure of Na+ channels  decreased release of glutamate
(4) Decrease in intracellular cGMP  activation of transducin  decreased release of
glutamate  structural changes in rhodopsin  closure of Na+ channels
50. A Lod score of 3 represent a Recombination Frequency (RF) that is

(1) 3 times as likely as the hypothesis of no linkage.
(3) 100 times as likely as the hypothesis of no linkage
51. Which one of the following is a fungal disease of plants ?

(1) Cucumber mosaic (2) Fire blight of pear
(3) Crown gall (4) Apple scab
52. Which one of the following influenza A virus subtypes caused severe avian flu and was responsible
for disease outbreak in the year 1997 in Hong Kong ?
(1) H1N1 (2) H7N7
(3) H3N2 (4) H5N1
53. Which one of the following DNA markers can be used to distinguish between a homozygote and
a heterozygote ?
(1) RAPD (2) AFLP
(3) RFLP (4) ISSR
54. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Ectomycorrhizal associations predominantly reduce phosphorus limitation, and
endomycorrhizal associations reduce both nitrogen and phosphorus limitation.
(2) Endomycorrhizal associations predominantly reduce phosphorus limitation, and
ectomycorrhizal associations reduce both nitrogen and phosphorus limitation.
(3) Ecto-and endo-mycorrhizal associations limitation.
(4) Ecto- and endo-mycorrhial associations are able to reduce only phosphorus limitation
55. Which of the following statements is correct for the process of speciation?
(1) Allopatric speciation occurs between adjacent populations.
(2) Parapatric speciation may, occur between geographically separated populations.
(3) Sympatric speciation occurs within one continuously distributed population.
(4) Sympatric speciation occurs when continuously distributed populations are fragmented.
56. Which one of the following does NOT contribute to microevolutionary change?
(1) Mutation (2) Random mating
(3) Genetic drift (4) Natural selection
57. According to Hamilton’s rule altruistic behaviour can evolve when rb > C, where b is the extra
benefit gained by the recipient as a result of the altruistic act, c is the cost to the actor arising
from performing the altruistic act and r is the relatedness between the :
(1) Individual performing the altruistic act and the offspring of the recipient
(2) Individual performing the altruistic act and the recipient
(3) recipient and the offspring of the individual performing the altruistic act
(4) individual performing the altruistic act and the members of its population

58. Analyses of nucleotide sequences of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) are particularly useful for evolutionary
studies of living organisms because of the following reasons EXCEPT
(1) rRNA is evolutionarily ancient.
(2) no free-living organism lacks rRNA.
(3) rRNS, since critical for translation, can undergo lateral transfer amongst distant species.
(4) rRNA has evolved slowly over geological time.
59. Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of ‘Gene Pyramiding’ in plants?
(1) Introducing different genes for resistance to a specific pest in different genotypes.
(2) Introducing a single gene for resistance to a particular pest in different genotypes.
(3) Introducing different genes for resistance to a single pest in a single genotype.
(4) Introducing a single gene for resistance of multiple pests in different genotypes.
60. Depicted below is a phylogenetic free of select texa :
A
B Group X
C
D
E Group Y
F
G
Based on the above, which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Group X is monophyletic and Group Y is polyphyletic.
(2) Group X is paraphyletic and Group Y is monophyletic.
(3) Both Group X and Y are monophyletic
(4) group X is monophyletic and Group Y is paraphyletic.
61. Which of the following describes the identification features of non-poisonous snakes?
(1) Cylindrical tail and small belly scales
(2) Cylindrical tail, broad transverse belly scales and 4th infralabial scale is the largest
(3) Flat tail, broad transverse scale and 3rd supralabial scale touches eye and nose
(4) Cylindrical tail, broad transverse belly scales and a loreal pit between eye and nostril
62. A road is constructed through a wet tropical forest, following which the population of a species
of forest butterfly declines. Which of the following is NOT a possible explanation for the road
causing a decline in the forest butterfly population?
(1) Road facilitates immigration of gap-loving species which compete with the forest species.
(2) Road facilitates increased movement of individuals of the forest butterfly within the forest,
which reduces genetic diversity.
(3) Road internally fragments the habitat and negatively affects important micro-habitat
conditions for the forest butterfly.
(4) Road facilitates invasion by non-native plants that displace native host and nectar plants
of the forest butterfly.

63. Which one of the following statements regarding normal distribution is NOT correct?
(1) It is symmetric around the mean
(2) It is symmetric around the median
(3) It is symmetric around the variance
(4) It is symmetric around the mode
64. Tropical regions may have more species diversity because of the following possible reasons, EXCEPT
(1) tropical regions have had more time to diversify under relatively stable climatic conditions
than temperate regions.
(2) tropical regions have high spatial heterogeneity
(3) greater biological competition in the tropics leads to narrower niches.
(4) lower predation intensity in the tropics allows survival or more prey species.
65. A multimeric proteins when run on an SDS gel showed 2 bands at 20 kDa and 40 kDa. However,
when the protein was run on a native gel, showed a single band at 120 kDa. The native from of
the protein would be
(1) homotrimer (2) heterotetramer
(3) heterodimer (3) heterotimer
66. A solution contains NADH and NAD+, both at 0.1 mM concentration. If NADH has a molar extinction
coefficient of 6220 and that of NAD+ is negligible, the optical density measured in a cuvette of
5 mm path length will be
(1) 0.62 (2) 0.062
(3) 0.31 (4) 0.031
67. Orientation of a cloned DNA fragment (gene) in a plasmid vector can be checked by
(1) PCR using two gene-specific primers.
(2) Restriction digestion with an enzyme that has a single restriction site within the cloned
gene and none in the vector.
(3) PCR using a combination of one gene-specific primer and other vector-specific primer.
(4) Restriction digestion with an enzyme that has two restriction sites within the vector sequence
and none in the cloned gene.
68. The emission maximum of tryptophan fluorescence in a protein is ~ 335 nm. This suggests that
tryptophan
(1) is in a hydrophobic environment (2) occurs in a helical segment
(3) has proximal cysteine residues (4) is oxidized
69. To test the impact of cAMP on protein kinase A conformation in cells, an investigator made FRET
biosensor by fusing two fluorescent proteins at the N- and C -terminus of protein kinase A. In the
absence of cAMP in the cellular milieu, no FRET signal was detected. However, upon cAMP
addition, a strong emission at 530 nm was observed. What could be the best configuration of
fluorophores that were used by the investigator?
(1) Green fluorescent protein (GFP) and Red fluorescent protein (RFP).
(2) Cyan fluorescent protein (CFP) and Yellow fluorescent protein (YFP).
(3) Yellow fluorescent protein (YFP) and Red fluorescent protein (RFP).
(4) Red fluorescent protein (RFP) and CYAN fluorescent protein (CFP).

70. In bioremediation by microorganisms detailed below, choose the INCORRECT option?

(1) The organic contaminants provide a source of carbon.
(2) The bacteria do not get net energy by degrading contaminants.
(3) Bacteria can produce oxidized or reduced species that can cause metals to precipitate.
(4) Bacteria act on contaminants by aerobic and anaerobic respiration
PART-C
71. THERMODYNAMICS of protein folding is depicted as a free energy funnel below :

0
A
in native conformation
Percentage of protein
Energy
D 100
Given below are regions in the diagram (List-I) and their representation (List-II)
List-I List-II
(a) A (i) Native Structure
(b) B (ii) Structure with Highest Entropy
(c) C (iii) Molten Globule
(d) D (iv) Discrete Folding Intermediates
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
72. Table below shows the list of organelles (List-I); and the signals (List-II) that target proteins to the
organelle
List-I List-II
(a) Lysosome (i) Stretch of amino acid sequence rich in Lys
and Arg residues
(b) Mitochondria (ii) C-terminal tripeptide
(c) Nucleus (iii) N-terminal amphipathic helix rich in Lys and Arg
(d) Peroxisome (iv) Mannose-6-Phosphate
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

73. Following statements are made about chromatin remodelling in human cells.
(A) Local chromatin conformation may play more important role than the local DNA sequence
of the promoter.
(B) Histones in nucleosome can undergo many different covalent modifications, which in turn,
alter the chromatin architecture locally.
(C) Chromatin remodelling is a developmentally regulated passive process which does not
require ATP
(D) Several histone variants exist, which replace the standard histones in specific types of
chromatin.
Select the option that has the combination of all correct answers.
(1) (A), (C), (D) (2) (A), (B), (C)
(3) (A), (B), (D) (4) (B), (C), (D)
74. In an experiment, the student has infected mammalian host cell with cytoplasmic RNA virus. The
virus growth was monitored by measuring the intracellular viral RNA at different time intervals. It
was observed that viral RNA titre progressively went down with time, particularly 12 hours post
infection. Following are few possibilities which can explain this observation.
(A) The virus infection triggered upregulation of miRNAs that might have downregulated the
host factor critical for viral RNA replication.
(B) The virus might encode miRNAs that regulate (inhibits) its own replication.
(C) One of the viral proteins inhibits replication of the viral RNA to restrict rapid proliferation.
(D) Viral RNA goes to nucleus with time and thus not detectable in the cytoplasm 12 hour post
infection.
Which one of the following options has all correct statements ?
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (A), (C) and (D)
(3) (A), (B) and (D) (4) (B), (C) and (D)
75. Irrespective of the chromosomal configuration, a single X-chromosome remains active in all
diploid human somatic cell lines. Which one of the following mechanisms best accounts for the
above phenomenon?
(1) A maternally inherited X-chromosome is developmentally programmed to remain active by
avoiding DNA methylation.
(2) Chromosome specific expression and binding of rox1 to one of the X-chromosomes
protects it from Xist mediated silencing.
(3) The T-six gene produce just enough of the Xist antisense RNA to block one Xic locus.
(4) A cell produces just enough of the blocking factor to block one Xic locus.
76. In eukaryotic cells, replication initiation from a replication origin occurs only once per cell cycle
and S-phase CDKs play a vital role in the regulation of DNA replication. In budding yeast a protein
complex known as the origin recognition complex (ORC) is associated with DNA replication origin
during G1; however, origins fire only once at the beginning of S-phase. DNA replication does not
start in G1 because :
(A) MCM helicases are inactive in G1
(B) Spindle checkpoint is active in G1
(C) DNA polymerase is not recruited in G1

(D) ORC and initiation factors Cdc6 and Cdt1 do not recruit MCM helicase to the site of
replication initiation in G1.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (C)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (B) and (D)
77. Measurements of the rate of actin treadmilling in vivo show that it can be several times higher
than can be achieved with pure actin in vitro. The treadmilling in vitro can be enhanced by
providing
(A) profilin that binds G-actin on the site opposite the nucleotide binding cleft.
(B) Cofilin binds specifically to the ADP containing F-actin and destabilizes the actin filament.
(C) buffer with ATP and low levels of cations.
(D) buffer with ADP and low levels of cations.
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (B)
78. Equal volumes of pH 4.0 and pH 10.0 solution are mixed. What will be the approximate pH of the
final solution?
(1) 7.0 (2) 5.0
(3) 6.0 (4) 4.0
79. The inborn error of amino acid metabolism, alkaptonuria, is due to the lack of one of the following
enzymes :
(1) Fumaryl acetoaetate hydrolase (2) -ketoacid decarboxylase
(3) Homogentisate oxidase (4) p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dehydroxylase
80. The structure of a protein with 100 residues was determined by X-ray analysis at atomic resolution
and NMR spectroscopy. The following observations are possible.
(A) The dihedral angles determined from the X-ray structure and NMR will be identical.
(B) The dihedral angles determined from the X-ray structure will be more accurate.
(C) -turns can be determined only by NMR.
(D) -sheets can be more accurately determined from the X-ray structure.
Indicate the combination with ALL correct answers
(1) (A) and (C) (2) (B) and (D)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (D)
81. The different arms in the tRNA structure are shown in List-I. The specific signatures associated
with the different arms are shown in List-II.
List-I List-II
(a) Acceptor Arm (i) Dihydrouridine
(b) Anticodon Arm (ii) 7 bp stem and CCA sequence
(c) TC Arm (iii) 5 bp stem
(d) D-Arm (iv) Pseudouridine
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
82. Some coenzymes that serve as transient carriers of specific chemical groups are shown below :
List-I : (Coenzyme) List-II : (Chemical group Transferred)
(a) Coenzyme A (i) Electrons
(b) Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide (ii) Acyl Groups
(c) Pyridoxal Phosphate (iii) Hydride Ions
(d) Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (iv) Amino Groups
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
83. In a laboratory experiment it was observed that both ‘Virus A’ and ‘Virus B’ could infect a mammalian
host cell, when infected individually. Interestingly, if the cells were first infected with ‘Virus A’ (with
large MOI), Virus B failed to infect the same cell. If the Virus B (with large MOI) is added first
followed by Virus A, both the virus can infect the cells. However, infection with ‘Virus A’ was found
to be in lesser extent. Considering X and Y are the receptors/ co-receptors which may be involved
for the virus entry, following are few possibilities that can explain the observation
(A) ‘Virus A’ uses ‘X” as receptor and Y as coreceptor.
(B) ‘Virus B’ uses exclusively ‘Y’ as receptor for entry
(C) Both ‘Virus A’ and Virus B’ need X as receptor.
Choose the option with all correct statement
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (C)
84. While testing the effect of several potent anticancer compounds on cycling human oral cancer
cells, a student observed that a major percentage of cells showed dose-dependent cell death
after 12 hours of drug treatment. However, the remaining cells repopulated the culture dish once
the compounds were removed and the cells were cultured in complete medium. The student
made the following assumptions :
(A) Not all cells were equally affected by the compounds as they were not synchronized
before treatment.
(B) The compound selectively killed cells which were in Ga phase.
(C) The cancer stem cells were impervious to the effects of the compounds and therefore
repopulated the culture.
(D) The cancer cells differentiated into a mesenchymal phenotype and grew in fresh culture
medium containing inhibitors of epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT).

Which one of the following combination of assumptions would best justify the result ?
(1) (B) and (C) (2) (A) and (C)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (B)
85. When 8-cell embryo of tunicates is separated into 4 blastomere pairs and allowed to grow
independently in culture medium, then each blastomere pair can form most of the cell types;
however, cells for nervous system are not developed. The following statements are formed from
the above observations :
(A) Nervous system development demonstrated autonomous specification.
(B) The other tissue types are formed due to conditional specification.
(C) All the tissue types, except nervous tissues that developed, demonstrated autonomous
specification.
(D) Nervous system development demonstrated conditional specification.
The correct combination of statement that explains the above result is :
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (D)
86. In a strain of E. coli, a fusion between the lac and trp operon took place and the new locus
structure is shown below. The strain lacks the wild-type trp operon.
trpE trpB trpC trpD trpA

lac I lac o/p
Trp biosynthetic genes
Given below are some of the potential scenarios :

(A) Tryptophan will be synthesized in a medium containing lactose and tryptophan.
(B) Tryptophan synthesis will be repressed in a medium containing glucose
(C) Tryptophan synthesis will take place only in the absence of sufficient tryptophan in the
medium
Choose the option that correctly describes the behaviours of the fusion operon.
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (C)
(3) (C) only (4) (B) and (C)
87. Following statements have been made about removal of supercoiling produced by DNA unwinding
at the replication fork :
(A) Accumulation of supercoils is the result of DNA helicase activity during unwinding of DNA
(B) Problem of DNA supercoiling is valid only for circular chromosomes of bacteria and not
for the linear chromosomes
(C) Supercoiling of DNA is removed by topoisomerases by breaking either one or both strands
of DNA on the unreplicated DNA in front of replication fork.
(D) Both topoisomerase I and topoisomerase II can remove positive supercoiling during
replication
Which one of the following options has all correct statements:
(1) (A), (B), (C) (2) (A), (B), (D)
(3) (A), (C), (D) (4) (B), (C), (D)

88. Phosphorylation of the -subunit of elF2 at Ser 51 position in Saccharomyces cerevisiae leads
to sequestration of elF2B, a guanosine exchange factor. This phenomenon is
(1) known to activate translation of the capped mRNAs in the cytosol
(2) known to activate translation of many key mRNAs possessing short ORFs, (uORFs) in
the mRNA sequence that precedes the main ORF
(3) an essential requirement for translation of IRES containing mRNAs
(4) an essential requirement for the transport of mature mRNAs out of the nucleus
89. E. coli mutants isolated from a genetic screen showed following classes of mutations
(A) Points mutations in lacl
(B) Deletions immediately downstream of the transcription start site of the lacZYZ mRNA
(C) Duplication of part or whole of lacY
(D) Duplication of part of whole of Lac A
Choose the option which is likely to result in constitutive expression of the lac operon?
(1) Both (A) and (B) (2) Both (B) and (C)
(3) Both (C) and (D) (4) Only (A)
90. For Escherichia coli chromosomal DNA replication, which one of the following statement is true?
(1) DNA polymerase I is the main polymerase required for DNA replication
(2) DNA polymerase I though identified originally by Kornberg as the one responsible for
replication, is not important for the DNA replication process
(3) Requirement of DNA polymerase I is in the context of removal of RNA primer needed for
DNA synthesis, and then fill in the same with DNA equivalent
(4) DNA polymerase I is the primary enzyme for error prone DNA synthesis in response to
SOS
91. Following observations were made about variations among genomes of eukaryotic organisms :
(A) Single nucleotide polymorphisms are the numerically most abundant type of genetic variants
(B) Both, interspersed and tandem repeated sequences can show polymorphic variation
(C) Mitotic recombination between mispaired repeats causes change in copy number and
generates minisatellite diversity in population
(D) Smaller variable segments in the genome can be identified by paired end mapping
technique.
Select the option with all correct statements
(1) (A), (B), (C) (2) (A), (C), (D)
(2) (B), (C), (D) (4) (A), (B), (D)
92. There are number of specific T cell surface molecules involved in various functions of adaptive
immune response. List-I represents a list of T cell surface molecules and List-II with the possible
functional characteristics :
List-I List-II
(a) T Cell Receptor (i) Binds to CD40 on B cells and APCs and
triggers activation of APCs and activation/
differentiation of B cells

(b) CD28 (ii) Binds to MHC class I molecules and restricts

T cytotoxic cells to recognizing only peptide
presented on MHC class I
(c) CD8 (iii) Binds to B7-1, 2 or CD80/86 on B cells and
APCs, which triggers T cell activation.
(d) CD154 (iv) Consists of two polypeptide chains  and
 and some consist of polypeptide chains
 and .
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
93. In an experiment it was observed that a protein was upregulated in the cancer tissues (compared
to control tissues) that showed correlation with disease progression. Following are a few possibilities
which can explain the above observation.
(A) A mutation could be located in the 3’UTR of the corresponding mRNA at a miRNA binding
site.
(B) A mutation changes the conformation of the protein, resulting in its better stability
(C) A mutation in the corresponding mRNA promotes ribosome read-through of the termination
codon resulting in increased synthesis of the protein
(D) A mutation in the corresponding mRNA increased the stability of the RNA due to change
in secondary structure.
Which one of the following combinations represents the most likely explanations ?
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (C), (D) and (A) (4) (A), (B) and (D)
94. The extracellular matrix contains a number of non-collagen proteins that typically have multiple
domains, each with specific binding sites for other matrix molecules and cell surface receptors.
These proteins therefore contribute to both organizing the matrix and helping cells attach to it. The
most well characterized matrix protein of this kind of fibronectin. Which one of the following
characteristics is NOT TRUE for fibronectin ?
(1) It is a large glycoprotein found in all vertebrates and important for many cell-matrix
interactions.
(2) It is composed of three polypeptides that are disulfide bounded into a crosslink structure.
(3) In human genome, there is only one fibronectin gene containing about 50 exons, but the
transcripts can be spliced in different ways to produce many different fibronectin isoforms.
(4) Fibronectin binds to integrin through an RGD motif. Even very short peptide containing
RGD sequence can inhibit attachment of cells of fibronectin matrix.

95. Following are the list of some cellular receptors (List-I) and with possible functional characteristics
(List-II) :
List-I List-II
(a) Asialoglyco Protein Receptor (i) Intracellular high affinity receptor which upon
binding with ligand acts as transcription factor
and binds to DNA.
(b) Transferrin Receptor (ii) Extracellular receptor which upon binding with
ligand is subjected to endocytosis. Receptor-
ligand complex accumulates in acidic
endosomes/CURL (compartment of
uncoupling of receptor and ligand), delivers
the cargo, receptor- ligand complex recycles
back
to cell surface and the ligand disassociates.
(c) Steroid Receptor (iii) Extracellular receptor which upon binding with
ligand is subjected to endocytosis. Receptor-
ligand complex accumulates in acidic
endosomes/CURL, ligand gets dissociated,
transfers to lysosomes and the receptor
recycles back to cell surface.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii)
96. Given below are statements related to different aspects of plant growth and development.
(A) Leaf longevity is increased in ethylene-insensitive mutants etr 1-1 and ein2 of Arabidopsis.
(B) Programmed cell death (PCD) is responsible for the formation of prickles, thorns and
spines in plants.
(C) Senescence and PCD occur only in the development of vegetative tissues and does not
occur in reproductive tissues.
(D) Redifferentiation of organelles is an integral component during initial stages of senescence
in plants.
Which one of the following represents the combination of all correct statements ?
(1) (A), (C) and (D) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A), (B) and (D) (4) (C) and (A)

97. The following demonstrates proposed functions of different genes which determine the decision
to become either trophoblast or inner cell mass (ICM) blastomere during early mammalian
development:
MORULA
TROPHOBLAST ICM ESC
YAP Cdx2 Ocl4
TEAD4 Stat3
Eomes Nanog
Based on the above figure, which one of the following assumption is correct?
(1) The interplay between Cdx2 and Oct4 can influence the formation of ICM
(2) The ICM would form even if expression of Oct4 was inhibited.
(3) YAP and TEAD4 are upstream components of Cdx2 and can be inhibited by Nanog.
(4) The expression of Stat3 is optional for maintaining pluripotency of the ICM
98. Jasmonate is known to inhibit root growth while auxin facilitates roots growth. Upon infection with
pathogenic bacteria that produce coronatine, we may expect the following in plans:
(A) Upregulation of COI-I gene and inhibition of root growth.
(B) Upregulation of Auxl-I gene and inhibition of root growth.
(C) Inhibition of Auxl-I gene and promotion of root growth.
(D) Inhibition of COI-I gene and promotion of root growth.
Which of the following is correct?
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (A)
(3) Only (B) (4) Only (C)
99. Following are certain statements with regard to plant respiration:

(A) Metabolism of glucose into pyruvate through glycolysis generates NADH and not NADPH.
(B) Metabolism of glucose through oxidative pentose phosphate cycle does not produce NADPH.
(C) Cyanide forms a complex with haem iron of cytochrome oxidase leading to prevention of
change in valency, which in turns stops electron transport in the respiratory chain.
(D) Alternative oxidase is insensitive to cyanide and has higher Km than that of cytochrome
oxidase.
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A), (C) and (D)
100. Blue light receptor cry 1 binds to COP1 and SPA1 complex by interacting with C-terminal region
of cry1 (CCT) in a light dependent manner and regulates photomorphogenesis via transcription
factor HY5. Read the following statements :
(A) cry 1 binds to COP 1 and SPA 1 complex leading to degradation of HY5.
(B) cry 1 binds to COP1 and SPA1 complex and prevents degradation of HY5
(C) CCT is overexpressed and the plants are kept in dark.
(D) CCT is overexpressed and the plants are kept in light.

Which of the following combination above statements will result in Photomorphogenesis?

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B)
(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (B), (C) and (D)
101. After absorbing light, chlorophyll molecules in green plants exist in singlet and triplet states.
Following are certain statements on singlet and triplet states of chlorophyll molecules
(A) Singlet state is short lived compared to triplet state.
(B) Singlet state is long lived compared to triplet state.
(C) Singlet state contains electron with anti-parallel spins while triplet state has electron with
parallel spins
(D) Singlet state contains electrons with parallel spins while triplet state has electrons with
anti-parallel spins
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (C) (4) (B) and (D)
102. Only members of the plant kingdom and many bacteria have capability of biological nitrogen
reduction. In this regard, following statements are given :
(A) Nitrogen is normally taken by the plant in their fully oxidized from but need to be reduced
before incorporation in organic molecules.
(B) Conversion of oxidized nitrogen into reduced nitrogen needs energy in the from of NAD(P)+.
(C) The metal associated with the enzyme nitrate reductase in Magnesium
(D) Nitrate reduction takes place in the cytoplasm, whereas nitrite reduction takes place in
chloroplast matrix.
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (D)
103. During interaction with host, phytopathogen are known to deliver effector proteins directly into the
host cells. The following statements were made regarding the role of these effector proteins.
(A) May promote pathogen virulence.
(B) May elicit avirulence response.
(C) May suppress defense response
(D) May promote plant growth
(1) (A), (B) and (D) (2) (A), (C) and (D)
(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (B), (C) and (D)
104. During wing development in chick, if Apical Ectodermal Ridge (AER) is removed, the limb
development ceases, on the other hand placing leg mesenchyme directly beneath the wing AER,
distal hindlimb structures develop at the end of the wing, and if limb mesenchyme is replaced by
non-limb mesenchyme beneath AER, the AER regresses. This may demonstrate that :
(A) the limb mesenchyme cells induce and sustain AER.
(B) the mesenchyme cells specify the type : wing or limb.
(C) the AER is responsible for specifying the type : wing or limb.

(D) the AER is responsible for sustained outgrowth and development of the limb
(E) the AER does not specify the type wing or limb.
Which combination of above statement is demonstrated by the experiment ?
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only
(3) (C), (D) and (E) only (4) (A) and (E) only
105. The following statements regarding the generation of dorsal/ventral axis in Drosophila was
made :
(A) Gurken protein moves along with the oocyte nucleus and signals follicle cells to adopt the
ventral fate.
(B) Maternal deficiencies of either the gurken or torpedo gene cause ventralization of the
embryo.
(C) Gurken is active only in the oocyte and Torpedo is active only in the somatic follicle cells.
(D) The Pipe protein is made in the dorsal follicle cells.
(E) The highest concentration of Dorsal is in the dorsal cell nuclei, which becomes the
mesoderm.
Which one of the following combination of the above statements is true ?
(1) (A) and (E) (2) (C) and (D)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (B) and (E)
106. A specialized area of teratogenesis involves the misregulation of the endocrine system. Which one
of the following statements regarding endocrine disruptors is true ?
(1) They can act as antagonist and inhibit the binding of a hormone to its receptors or block
the synthesis of a hormone.
(2) They do not affect the synthesis, elimination or transportation of a hormone in the body.
(3) They do not mimic the effect of natural hormones.
(4) Low dose exposure to endocrine disruptors is not sufficient to produce significant disabilities
later in life.
107. During prolonged illumination, rhodopsin is desensitized which leads to the termination of visual
response. The associated proteins (List-I) and their effects (List-II) are given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Phosphorylated Opsin (i) Phosphorylates Opsin
(b) Rhodopsin Kinase (ii) Binds to Phosphorylated Opsin
(c) Arrestin (iii) Decreases Activation of Transducin
(d) Phosphatase (iv) Reverses The Termination Process
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

108. Estrus cycle is rats is controlled by pituitary and gonadal hormones. While treating a set of rats
with vitamin D, a student accidentally injected the rats with an inhibitor of 17-hydroxypregnenolone
and checked vaginal smear for 10 consecutive days.
Which one of the following observations is correct?
(1) The smears showed well formed nucleated epithelial cells throughout the period.
(2) The smears initially showed normal estrus stage but eventually entered a prolonged
diestrus stage.
(3) The smears showed leukocytes and few epithelial cells.
(4) The cells showed metestrus for 3 days and then returned to the proestrus stage.
109. Centromere positions can be mapped in linear tetrads in some fungi. A cross was made between
two strains a b a+ b + and 100 linear tetrads were analysed. The genes a and b are located on
two arms of the chromosome. The tetrads were divided into 5 classes as shown below :
Class 1 2 3 4 5
ab ab ab ab ab
a' b a b' ab a' b' a' b
a b' a' b a' b' ab a' b
a' b' a' b' a' b' a' b' a b'
Linear Tetrads 15 29 52 2 2
Based on the above observation, the following conclusions were drawn :
(A) Class 1 is a result of a cross over between ‘a’ and the centromere
(B) Class 2 is a result of a double crossover involving 3 strands between ‘a’ and the centromere
(C) Class 5 is a result of a double crossover between ‘a’ - centromere, and ‘b’ - centromere,
involving three strands
(D) Class 4 is a result of a double crossover, involving all the 4 strands
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements:
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (C)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (C) and (D)
110. Two yellow mice with straight hair were crossed and the following progeny was obtained
1/2 yellow, straight hair
1/6 yellow, fuzzy hair
1/4 gray, straight hair
1/12 gray, fuzzy hair
In order to provide genetic explanation for the result and assign genotypes to the parents and
progeny of this cross, the following statements were given :
(A) The 6 : 2 : 3 : 1 ration obtained here indicates recessive epistasis
(B) This cross concerns two independent characteristics - body colour and type of hair
(C) The deviation of dihybrid ratio from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 to 6 : 2 : 3 : 1 may be due to one of the
genes being a recessive lethal
(D) The lethal allele is associated with straight hair
The most appropriate combination of statements to provide genetic explanation for this result is :
(1) (B) and (C) (2) (A) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (C) an (D)

111. A family was examined for a given trait which is represented in the pedigree shown below.
Further, he degree of expression of the trait is highly variable among members of the family;
some are only slightly affected while others developed severe symptoms at an early age.
I
1 2
II
1 2 3 4 5
III
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
IV
1 2 3
The following statements are made to explain the pattern of inheritance shown in the pedigree
(A) X-linked dominant mutation
(B) X-linked recessive mutation
(C) Mitochondrial inheritance
(D) Variable expression can be due to heteroplasty
The best possible explanation for this inheritance is
(1) (A) and (D) (2) (C) and (D)
(2) (B) only (4) (A) only
112. The location of six deletions (shown as solid line underneath the chromosome) has been mapped
to the Drosophila chromosome as shown in the diagram given below :
Chromosome
Deletions 1
Deletions 2
Deletions 3
Deletions 4
Deletions 5
Deletions 6
Recessive mutations a, b, c, d, e, f and g are known to be located in the region of deletions, but
the order of mutations on the chromosome is not known. When flies homozygous for the recessive
mutations are crossed with flies homozygous for the deletions, the following results were obtained,
where the letter ‘m’ represents a mutant phenotype and ‘+’ represent the wild type.
Mutations
Deletion a b c d e f g
1 + m m m + + +
2 + + m m + + +
3 + + + m m + +
4 m + + m m + +
5 m + + + + m m
6 m + + m m m +
The relative order of the seven mutant genes on chromosome is :
(1) b c ea f g d (2) b c df g e a
(3) b c de a f g (4) c d ea g f b
113. In the following pedigree, individuals with shaded circle or shaded square show presence of a
recessive autosomal trait.
I
1 2 3 4
II
1 2 3 4 5 6
III ?
1
The calculated risk of occurrence of this trait for III-1 is
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/4
(3) 1/8 (4) 1/3
114. During the course of vertebrate evolution, the jaw bones got modified into three ear ossicles
in mammals. Which one of the following is a correct match of ear ossicle and its ancestral jaw
bone ?
(1) Stapes – Articular; Incus – Hyomandibular; Malleus – Quadrate
(2) Stapes – Quadrate; Incus – Articular; Malleus – Hyomandibular
(3) Stapes – Quadrate; Incus – Hyomandibular; Malleus – Articular
(4) Stapes – Hyomandibular; Incus – Quardrate; Malleus – Articular
115. The CO2 dissociation curves of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are given along with dissolved
CO2 below :
80
70 Deoxygenated blood
Co2 content (ml/dL)
60
50
40
30 Oxygenated blood
20
Dissolved CO 2
10
0 20 40 60 80
PCO2 (mm Hg)
Following are the statements deduced form the curve above and/or based on the knowledge
about CO2 transport, which may or may not be correct ?
(A) The deoxygenated haemoglobin has greater affinity for CO2 than oxygenated haemoglobin.
(B) The deoxygenated haemoglobin does not bind with free H+ ions released during the formation
of HCO3 from CO2
(C) The haemoglobin saturation with O2 has no effect on CO2 dissociation curve.
(D) O2 and CO2 bind to haemoglobin at different sites.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of all correct statements ?
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (D)

116. Given below are the different intervals/durations of electrocardiogram of a human subject (List-I) and
the events in heart during the process (List-II).
List-I List-II
(a) PR interval (i) Ventricular action potential
(b) QRS duration (ii) Atrioventricular conduction
(c) QT interval (iii) Ventricular depolarization
(d) ST interval (iv) Plateau portion of the ventricular action
potential
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
117. The pathways of synthesis of aldosterone in zona glomerulosa along with the intracellular locations
is shown below :
Cholesterol
A Mitochondria
Pregnenolone
B Smooth ER
Progesterone
C Smooth ER
11-Deoxycorticosterone
Mitochondria
Aldosterone
The enzymes below are required for different steps of synthesis of aldosterone :
List-I List-II
(a) A (i) 21-Hydroxylase
(b) B (ii) P450 Side Chain Cleavage Enzyme
(c) C (iii) 3-Hydroxy Steroid Dehydrogenase
Which one of the following option represents correct matches for A, B and C?
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii)

118. Given below is a figure of proopiomelanocortin (POMC) polypeptide and its cleavage products
(marked as A, B, C, D) which have different hormonal activities. The names of the cleaved
products obtained from POMC are shown in the table below the diagram.
POMC (1-134)
A (1-39) B (1-134)
C (1 -13) D (104 -134)

List-I List-II
(a) A (i) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
(b) B (ii) -Liptropin
(c) C (iii) -Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone
(d) D (iv) -Endotropin
Which one of the following option represent A, B, C and D correctly ?
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
119. The table given below lists types of plant communities and types of growth forms.
List-I : (Plant Communities) List-II : (Growth Forms)
(a) Dry grasslands (i) Chamaephytes
(b) Semi desert (ii) Cryptophytes
(c) Tropical forests (iii) Hemicryptophytes
(d) Tundra (iv) Phanerophytes
Which of the following is the best match for the plant communities with most dominant growth
from generally present in that community?
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (iii)
120. Following are some of the generalizations regarding energy flow in an ecosystem:
(A) Assimilation efficiency of carnivores is higher than herbivores
(B) Consumption efficiency of aquatic herbivores is higher than terrestrial herbivores.
(C) Vertebrates have higher production efficiencies than invertebrates.
(D) Trophic-level transfer efficiency is higher in terrestrial food chains than in marine.

Based on the above, select the correct option

(1) Only (A) and (C) (2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (A), (C) and (D)
121. In an experiment to show that biogeochemical cycles interact, nitrogen fixing vines (Galactia sp.)
were grown in plots under normal levels of CO2 (Control) and under artificially elevated atmospheric
CO2 (Experimental). Effect of elevated CO2 levels on nitrogen fixation was measured over a
period of 7 years (Plot A) and the concentrations of iron and molybdenum in the leaves of these
plants were quantified at the end of the study (Plot B).
Elevated Co2 effect on N-fixation Plot A
80
60
(as % of baseline
40
20
Base
20
40
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Year
Plot B
Controls plants
Experimental plants
Concentrations in Leaves
60
40
20
Iron (mg/g) Molybdenum

(mg/g)
Which one of the following inferences CAN NOT be made from the above experiment?
(1) Decreasing rate of N-fixation correlates with decreased levels of leaf iron and molybdenum,
two micronutrients essential for N-fixation
(2) An initial exposure to elevated CO2 increased N-fixation by these plants
(3) There is a continuous decrease in N-fixation due to elevated CO2 treatment.
(4) Plants exposed to continuous elevated levels of CO2 had lower levels of iron and
molybdenum in their leaves

122. Match the following invasive plants to the likely habitats which they are expected to occur :
List-I : (Invasive Plant) List-II : (Habitat(s) that They Invade)
(a) Eichhornia Crassipes (i) Arid and Semi-Arid Habitats
(b) Lantana Camara (ii) Dry and Moist Tropical Forests
(c) Prosopis Juliflora (iii) Wetlands
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii)
123. Incorporating additional ecological factors into the Lotka-Volterra predator- prey model can changes
the predator isocline. Given below are three state-space graphs (a-c) representing modification
of predator iso-cline due to the ecological factors listed below (i-iii).
List-I List-II
Number of Predators (P)
(a) (i) Victim abundance acting as predator carrying
Number of
Victims (V)
Number of P redators (P)
(b) (ii) Availability of alternate prey (victim) population
Number of
V ictims (V)
Number of P redators (P)
(c) (iii) Predator carrying capacity determined by
Number of
V ictims (V)
Which of the following options represents all correct matches of the state-space graphs with their
ecological factor ?

Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii)
124. Birds in a population show two foraging phenotypes, A and B, Birds of phenotype A search, attack
and capture prey while birds of phenotype B steal prey from birds of phenotype A. A and B are
maintained in the population through negative frequency dependent selection. The graph below
shows the fitness of A (broken line) and B (solid line) at different relative frequencies of A (frequency
of B = 1 - frequency of A.)
A
B
FITNESS
0
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 1.0
Frequency of Phenotype A
Which of the following statement does the graph support?
(1) A outcompetes B; at equilibrium, A goes to fixation
(2) B outcompetes A; at equilibrium, B goes to fixation
(3) A and B are both maintained in the population; the equilibrium frequencies are A = 0.6,
B = 0.4
(4) A and B are both maintained in the population; the equilibrium frequencies are A = 0.9,
B = 0.1.
125. Antelopes are proposed to from groups to reduce the risk of predation. A researcher measured
the predation of individuals in groups of different sizes. She found that per capita mortality risk
decreased with increasing group size for males (solid line) but remained unchanged for female
(dashed line). Furthermore, males in all groups experienced greater per capita mortality risk than
females.
Identify the graph below that best depicts the above findings:
per capita mortality risk
0.4 0.4
0.2 0.2
(1) (2)
0 0
20 40 20 40
Group size (no. of individuals) Group size (no. of individuals)


0.4 0.4
0.2 0.2
(3) (4)
0 0
20 40 20 40
Group size (no. of individuals) Group size (no. of individuals)
126. The prominent mammal species found in four different protected areas are listed below:
Area A : Tiger, Wild dog, Leopard Elephant
Area B : Common Langur, Barking deer, wild dog, Elephant
Area C : Tiger, Indian rhinoceros, Pygmy hog, Wild pig
Area D : Blackbuck, Indian gazelle, Hyena, Indian wolf
The area with the greatest phylogenetic diversity is
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
127. The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allele frequencies in a population will remain constant
over generations if certain assumptions are met.
(A) Random mating (B) Mate choice
(C) Small population size (D) Large population size
(E) Lack of mutations (F) Directional selection
Which of the above factors will cause changes in allele frequencies over generations?
(1) (A), (D) and (F) (2) (B), (D) and (F)
(3) (A), (C) and (E) (4) (B), (C) and (F)
128. Given below are few traits and related functions :

TRAIT FUNCTION
i Aposematism A Acquiring food
ii Basking B Avoiding predation
iii Cooperative hunting C Territory defence
iv Song D Thermoregulation
Match the above given traits to their most likely functions
(1) i-C; ii-D; iii-B; iv-A (2) i-D; ii-B; iii-A; iv-C
(3) i-B; ii-D; iii-A; iv-C (4) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B

129. Following is a diagrammatic representation of human evolutionary tree.
Australopithecus
C
B
A D
Homo S apiens
In the above diagram A,B,C and D respectively represent :

(1) Denisovan, Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Homo neanderthalensis
(2) Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Homo neanderthalensis, Denisovan
(3) Homo-erectus, Homo habilis, Homo neanderthalensis, Denisovan
(4) Homo erectus, Denisovan, Homo neanderthalensis, Homo habilis
130. Given below are the names of the animals in list X and the accessory respiratory organs in
teleost...... fishes (list Y)
List X List Y
A Anabas i Labyfinthine organ
B Clarias ii Air sacs
C Amphipnous iii Supra branchial cavity
D Channa iv Arborescent organ
The correct match of the animals with the accessory respiratory organs they have are :
(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i (2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(3) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii (4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
131. The terms expressing some of the developmental events or specific body structures are given
in List X and the names of animals that are associated with them in List Y :
List X List Y
A Torsion i Star fish
B Metagenesis ii Obelia
C Apolysis iii Taenia
D Pedicellaria iv Apple snail
The correct match of the terms in list X with the name of animals in list Y is
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv (2) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
(3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv (4) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii

132. The table lists characteristic anatomical features and names of plants.
Anatomical features Plants
a Prostele, xylem core (i) Lycopodium
surrounded by phloem
b Siphonostele, centre pith (ii) Marsilea rhizome
present or medulated
protostele
c Eustele, conjoint vasculature (iii) Selaginella species
on edges of the pith
(iv) Equisetum
Choose the option that correctly matches plant with characteristic features
Codes :
a b c
(1) iii ii iv
(2) i iii iv
(3) iii i ii
(4) i ii iv
133. The table given below provides a list of female gametophyte feature and plant genera
Female Gametophyte Plant Genera

(i) Monosporic, 8 nucleate A Allium
(ii) Monosporic, 4 nucleate B Oenothera
(iii) Bisporic, 8 nucleate C Peperomia
(iv) Tetrasporic, 16 nucleate D Polygonum
Which one of the following options correctly matches the plant genera to female gametophyte
features?
(1) i - D; ii - C; iii - A; iv - B (2) i - D; ii - B; iii - A; iv - C
(3) i - A; ii - B; iii - D; iv - C (4) i - D; ii - B; iii - C; iv - A
134. Following are some generalizations related to wood anatomy of higher plants :
A. The axial system of conifer woods consist mainly or entirely of tracheids.
B. The rays of conifers typically contain only parenchyma cells.
C. The rays of angiosperms typically contain both sclerenchyma cells and tracheids.
D. Angiosperm wood may be either diffuse-porous or ring-porous.
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements:
(1) A and B only (2) A and D only
(3) B and C only (4) C and D only

135. A field ecologist gathers following data (abundance values) in order to study diversity of species
in four plant communities.
Community
Species
C1 C2 C3 C4
Sp1 90 0 0 40
Sp2 60 0 0 65
Sp3 15 25 25 40
Sp4 0 180 0 0
Sp5 25 0 215 45
Sp6 65 0 20 55
Based on the above observations, the ecologist draws following conclusions :
A. Plant communities C1 and C4 show strong similarity with each other
B. Plant communities C1 and C4 as well as communities C2 and C3 show strong similarity
with each other
C. Plant community C1 is most diverse
D. Plant community C4 is most diverse
Which of the following statements is correct regarding above conclusions?
(1) All the conclusions are correct
(2) Only conclusions A and D are correct
(3) Only conclusions A and C are correct
(4) Only conclusions B and D are correct.
136.
+ –
Albmin 1 2  
The blood plasma proteins (albumin and globulins) from a healthy person were separated by
electrophoresis as shown above. The diagnosis of acute inflammation can be done based on one
of the following observations:
(1) Increase in both 1 and 2; decrease in albumin.
(2) Increase in albumin; decrease in 1, 2 and .
(3) Increase in albumin and decrease in -globulin.
(4) Only decrease in albumin.
137. Following statements were given regarding factors influencing variation in expression levels of
transgene in transgenic plants:
A. Difference in restriction enzyme sits within the T-DNA.
B. Difference in copy number of the transgene.

C. Variations in site of integration of the T-DNA within the plant genome.

D. Presence of multiple promoters within T-DNA region
Which of the following options represents a combination of statements that would NOT Lead to
variations in transgene expression levels in transgenic plants generated using the same T-DNA/
binary vector?
(1) A and C only (2) B only
(3) C and D only (4) A and D only
138.
Fluorescene intensity
X Y Z
300 325 350 375
Wavelength (nm)
The above figure shows the fluorescence emission spectra of three different proteins: Protein (X),
Protein (Y), and Protein (Z) excited at 280 nm.
Which of the following statements gives the correct interpretation.
(1) Protein (Y) and (Z) have tryptophan while protein (X) has only phenylalanine.
(2) Protein (X) has only tyrosine and protein (Y) has tryptophan on the surface while protein
(Z) has tryptophan buried inside.
(3) Protein (x) has tryptophan buried inside while proteins (Y) and (Z) have tryptophan on the
surface.
(4) Protein (X) has only tyrosine and protein (Y) has tryptophan buried and protein (Z) has
tryptophan on the surface.
139. Specimens for light microscopy are commonly fixed with a solution containing chemicals that
crosslink/denature cellular constituents. Commonly used fixatives such as formaldehyde and
methanol could act in various ways as described below:
A. Formaldehyde cross-links amino groups on adjacent molecules and stabilizes protein-
protein and protein-nucleic acid interactions.
B. Methanol acts as a denaturing fixative and acts by reducing the solubility of protein molecules
by disrupting hydrophobic interactions.
C. Formaldehyde cross-links lipid tails in biological membranes.
D. Methanol acts on nucleic acids, cross-links nucleic acids with proteins and thus stabilizes
protein-nucleic acid interactions.
Which of the following combinations represent all correct statements?
(3) B and D (4) A and B

140. Run off transcription assays were performed to establish the specificity of three novel sigma
factors for their promoters. Results of the experiments are shown below:
A B A B C
   + 
P1 115 bp
P2 95 bp
A. A initiates transcription from P2 and B from P1

B. C can initiates transcription from both promoters.
C. B prevents initiation of transcription from P2
D. A initiates transcription from P1.
Choose the option that correctly interprets the result.
(1) A, B and C only (2) A and B only
(3) C and C only (4) B, C and D only
141. Based upon phenotypic observation, it was concluded that an unknown gene responsible for an
agronomically important trait is present in a particular plant. In order to identify the gene, a
researcher proposes to use the following strategies :
A. PCR amplification of the gene.
B. Map based cloning of the gene.
C. Subtractive DNA hybridization
D. Genome sequencing
E. Develop molecular markers linked to the trait
Which of the following option is most suitable for identifying the unknown gene?
(1) A and C (2) B and E
(3) C only (4) A and D
142. A T0 transgenic plant contains two unlinked copies of the T-DNA of which, one is functional and
the other is silenced, Segregation of the transgenic to non-transgenic phenotype would occur in
a ratio in progeny obtained by backcrossing and in a (ii) ratio in F1 progeny obtained by self
pollination.
Fill in the blanks with the correct combination of (i) and (ii) from the options given below :
(1) (i) - 3 : 1 and (ii) - 15 : 1 (2) (i) - 1 : 1 and (ii) - 3 : 1
(3) (i) - 3 : 1 and (ii) - 3 : 1 (4) (i) - 1 : 1 and (ii) - 15 : 1
143. List X lists two diseases and column Y lists name of proteins which are commonly used for
routine clinical diagnosis of these diseases
List X List Y
A Myocardial Infarction (i) Amylase
B Pancreatitis (ii) Creatine kinase
(iii) Lipase
(iv) Troponin

Find out the correct combination

(1) A - ii; B - i; A - iv; B - iii (2) A - iii; B - iv; A - ii; B - i
(3) A - i; B - ii; A - iii; B - iv (4) A - iv; B - iii; A - i; B - ii
144. Given below are the steps to assess the population size of grasshoppers in a given area:
A. ‘n’ individuals are collected randomly from the study are in a defined period of time.
B. The captured individuals are counted, marked and released at the site of collection. Next
day, individuals are captured from the same site for same length of time. Number of
marked (nm) and unmarked (nu) individuals are separated and counted.
C. This capture-release and recapture is continued till one gets 100% marked individuals.
D. The size of the population (N) is estimated as follows :
N nm  nu

n nm
E. The size of population (N) is estimated as follows :
N nu

n nm
The most appropriate combination of steps for estimating population size using mark-recapture
method is
(1) A, B and D (2) A, B and E
(3) A, B, C and D (4) A, B, C and E
145. A neurophysiologist was interested in using the patch-clamp technique. Following statements are
related to this technique:
A. Intracellular movement of ion channels.
B. Post-translational modification of the ion channel protein
C. Ligand that controls the opening or closing of ion channels.
D. Changes in current flow in a single ion channel
Which one of the following combinations will be achievable using the patch-clamp technique?
(3) C and D (4) D and A

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 3 2 3 1 1 3 4 3 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 2 4 3 1 3 3 4 4 4
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 3 2 4 4 2 4 1 4 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4 2 4 2 2 4 2 2 3 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
4 4 2 1 3 3 4 1 3 4
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
4 4 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 4
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
1 2 3 4 2 3 3 1 2 2
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
1 3 3 1 4 2 4 4 3 2
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
4 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 1 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
4 4 4 2 3 3 1 2 4 4
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
3 4 3 2 3 1 3 2 2 1
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
2 3 4 4 4 2 3 1 4 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
3 3 3 3 4 2 4 3 2 3
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
2 1 2 2 2 1 4 4 4 1
141 142 143 144 145
2 2 1 1 3

Life Sciences
Previous Year Solved Paper - 2019 Dec.

PART - 'A'
1. Which of the following 7-digit numbers CANNOT be perfect squares?

A = 45xyz26, B = 2xyz175, C = xyz3310
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only C (4) All three
2. A four-wheeled cart is going around a circular track. Which of the following statements is correct,
if the four wheels are free to rotate independent of each other, and the cart negotiates the track
stably?
(1) All wheels rotate at the same speed.
(2) The four wheels have different speeds each.
(3) The wheels closer to the inside of the track move slower than the outer-side wheels.
(4) The wheels closer to the inside of the track move faster than the outer-side wheels.
3. In a very old, stable forest, a particular species of plants grows to a maximum height of 3 m. In
a large survey, it is found that 30% of the plants have heights less than 1 m, and 50% have
heights more than 2 m. From these observations we can say that the height of the plants
increases
(1) at the slowest rate when they are less than 1 m tall.
(2) at the fastest rate when they are between 1 m and 2 m tall.
(3) at the fastest rate when they are more than 2 m tall.
(4) at the same rate at all stages.
4. The result of a survey to find the most preferred leader among A, B, C is shown in the table.
Votes A B C
st 13 54 33
1 preference
nd 24 37 39
2 prererence
rd 63 9 28
3 preference
First, second and third preferences are given weights 3, 2, 1, respectively. Statistically, which of
the following can be said to represent the preferences of the voters?
(1) A and C are within 10% of each other.
(2) B is the most preferred.
(3) B and C are within 10% of each other.
(4) C is the most preferred.
5. In a race five drivers were in the following situation. M was following V, R was just ahead of T,
and K was the only one between T and V. Who was in the second place at that instant?
(1) V (2) R
(3) T (4) K

6. An ice cube of volume 10 cm3 is floating over a glass of water of 10 cm3 cross-section area and
10 cm height. The level of the water is exactly at the brim of the glass. Given that the density
of ice is 10% less than that of water, what will be the situation when ice melts completely?
(1) The level falls by 10% of the side of the cube.
(2) The level falls by 10% of the original height of the water column.
(3) The level increases by 10% of the side of the cube and water spills out.
(4) There is no change in the level of the water.
7. In a college admission where applicants have to choose only one subject, 1/4th of the applicants
opted for Biology, 1/6th for Chemistry, 1/8th for Physics and 1/12th for Maths. 18 applicants did not
opt for any of the above four subjects. How many applicants were there?
(1) 22 (2) 24
(3) 36 (4) 48
8. A bag contains 8 red balls, 10 blue balls, 17 green balls. What is the minimum number of balls
that needs to be taken out from the bag to ensure getting at least one ball of each colour?
(1) 19 (2) 18
(3) 28 (4) 27
9. How many non-square rectangles are there in the following figure, consisting of 7 squares?
(1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 11
10. Karan’s house is 20 m to the east of Rahul’s house. Mehul’s house is 25 m to the North-East
of Rahul’s house. With respect to Mehul’s house in which direction is Karan’s house?
(1) East (2) South
(3) North-East (4) West
11. A two-digit number is such that if the digit 4 is placed to its right, its value would increase by 490.
Find the original number.
(1) 48 (2) 54
(3) 64 (4) 56
12. What is the ratio of the surface area of a cube with side 1 cm to the total surface area of the
cubes formed by breaking the original cube into identical cubes of side 1 mm?
1 1
(1) (2)
6 10
1 1
(3) (4)
100 36
13. Based on the bar chart shown here, which of the following inferences is correct?
60
per lakh litres of water

kg of rice produced
40
30
20
A B C D
Region
(1) Region A uses maximum water per kg of rice.
(2) Average water consumption of the four regions is 37.5 lakh litres.
(3) Region D uses thrice the amount of water used by region A per kg of rice.
(4) Region B uses 20 lakh litres of less water than region A.
14. A multiple choice exam has 4 questions, each with 4 answer choices. Every question has only
one correct answer. The probability of getting all answers correct by independent random guesses
for each one is
4
1  1
(1) (2) 4
4  
4
3 3
(3) 4 (D)  
  4
15. Of three children, Uma plays all three of cricket, football and hockey. Iqbal plays cricket but not
football, and Tarun plays hockey but neither football nor cricket. The number of games played by
at least two of the children is
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Zero
16. The mean of a set of 10 numbers is M. By combining with it a second set of M numbers, the
mean of the combined set becomes 10. What is the sum of the second set of numbers?
(1) 10M – 1 (2) 10M + 1
(3) 20 (4) 100
17. Given that K! = 1 x 2 x 3 x . . . x K, which is the largest among the following numbers?
(1) (2!) 1/2 (2) (3!) 1/3
(3!)
(3) (4!) 1/4 (4)
2

18. What day of the week will it be 61 days from a Friday?

(1) Saturday (2) Sunday
(3) Friday (4) Wednesday
19. A cyclist covers a certain distance at a constant speed. If a jogger covers half the distance in
double the time as the cyclist, the ratio of the speed of the jogger to that of the cyclist is
(1) 1:4 (2) 4:1
(3) 1:2 (4) 2:1
20. Which is the curve in the figure whose points satisfy the equation y = const x ex ?
Y
B A
X
O
C
D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
PART - 'B'
21. Which one of the following statements CANNOT be included while defining the fermentation
process?
(1) Alcohol is formed from sugar residues
(2) Requires an electron transport system
(3) Utilizes an organic compound as the final electron acceptor
(4) Produces lactic acid in oxygen deprived muscle
22. The interaction energy between two opposite charges separated by 3Å in vacuum is
–500 kJmol –1. The interaction energy between these two charges in water will be closest to
(1) –1500 kJmol–1 (2) –166 kJmol–1
(3) –55 kJmol–1 (4) –6 kJmol–1
23. In summer squash, white colour fruit (W) is dominant over yellow colour (w) and disc-shaped
phenotype (D) is dominant over sphere-shaped phenotype (d). Determine the genotype of the
3
parents if the cross between white, sphere crossed with white, sphere gives 4 white, sphere and
1
4 yellow, sphere.
(1) WWDD × wwdd (2) Wwdd × Wwdd

(3) WwDd × wwdd (4) wwDD × WWdd

24. In what respect does the genome of slow-acting retroviruses differ from those of transducing
viruses?
(1) They cannot activate nearby cellular proto-oncogenes after integration into the genome of
the host cell
(2) They lack an oncogene
(3) They exclude mouse mammary tumor viruses
(4) They have acquired mutations during acquisition of an oncogene
25. The T-DNA region of the Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens harbours two genes : X and
Y. Mutation of gene 'X' produces a rooty tumour while mutation of gene 'Y' produces shoots in
the tumor. Based on the above information, which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Gene 'X' encodes auxins and gene 'Y' encodes cytokinins
(2) Gene 'X' encodes cytokinins and gene 'Y' encodes auxins
(3) Gene 'X' and gene 'Y' both encode auxins
(4) Gene 'X' encodes opines while gene 'Y' encodes cytokinins
26. Which one of the following lipid-soluble hormones can interact with a cell surface receptor?
(1) Progesterone (2) Estradiol
(3) Thyroxine (4) Prostaglandin
27. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is frequently used as a vector to create transgenic plants. Under
laboratory conditions Agrobacterium–mediated plant transformation does not require
(1) host plant genes (2) bacterial type IV secretion system
(3) vir genes (4) opine catabolism genes
28. Which one of the following plants has this combination of key plant traits: sporophyte dominant
in the lifecycle, vascular tissue, lack of seeds?
(1) Mosses (2) Ferns
(3) Cycads (4) Monocots
29. Which one of the following is not a G-protein coupled receptor?

(1) Epinephrine receptor (2) Transferrin receptor
(3) Glucagon receptor (4) Thyroid stimulating hormone receptor
30. Which of the following factors is known to be involved in postponing programmed cell death in
cereal aleurone until endosperm mobilization is complete?
(1) Gibberellic acid
(2) Abscisic acid
(3) Acidic pH of the vacuoles
(4) cGMP mediated signal transduction pathway
31. Cnidarians are

(1) triploblastic animals with bilateral symmetry
(2) diploblastic animals with medusa as one of the basic body forms.
(3) monoblastic organisms with tube feet.
(4) asymmetric organisms with tentacles containing poison glands.
32. Phosphoenol pyruvate:sugar phosphotransferase system (PTS) transports a variety of sugars

into bacteria. In E. coli, PTS consists of EI, EII (EIIA, EIIB, and EIIC) and Hpr. During this process
the sugar molecule is phosphorylated by direct transfer of phosphate group from
(1) EI-P (2) EIIA-P
(3) EIIB-P (4) Hpr-P
33. Which one of the following hormones is responsible for mobilizing calcium from the bone and
increasing urinary excretion of phosphate?
(1) Calcitonin (2) Angiotensin II
(3) Parathormone (4) Vasopressin
34. During the exponential phase of growth, if No, Nt, and n define the initial population number,
population number at time t, and the number of generations in time t, respectively, then
(1) Nt = No × 2n (2) No = Nt/2
(3) Nt/No = 2n (4) No/Nt = 2n
35. The sodium-independent iodide/chloride transporter is named as

(1) megalin (2) pendrin
(3) transthyretin (4) prestin
36. Which one of the following parts of roots is involved in perceiving gravity?
(1) Quiescent center (2) Endodermis
(3) Root cap (4) Elongation zone
37. What is the probability of getting a sum of 9 from simultaneously throwing two dice?
(1) 1/6 (2) 1/8
(3) 1/9 (4) 1/12
38. Which one of the following regulatory proteins can act as a positive and negative regulator on
binding to the same DNA elements?
(1) Lac repressor (LacI (2) Lambda (cI repressor)
(3) Ara C protein (AraC) (4) Trp repressor (TrpR)
39. Which one of the following reactions takes place during the reduction phase of the Calvin-Benson
cycle?
(1) Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate to 3-phosphoglycerate
(2) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(3) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
(4) Ribulose 5-phosphate to ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate
40. A researcher samples n individuals randomly from a population of blackbuck and identifies their
sex. The number of females in the sample follows
(1) an exponential distribution (2) a binomial distribution
(3) a Poisson distribution (4) a normal distribution
41. Which one of the following synaptic vesicle proteins is involved in tethering of the vesicle to the
cytoskeletal system in the nerve terminus?
(1) Synaptotagmin (2) Synapsin
(3) Synaptophysin (4) Synaptobrevin
42. Which one of the following does NOT use RNA-sequencing?

(1) Mapping transcription initiation sites
(2) Long non-coding RNA profiling
(3) Alternative polyadenylation profiling
(4) Mammalian epigenome sequencing
43. Centrolecithal eggs show

(1) superficial cleavage (2) displaced radial cleavage
(3) bilateral cleavage (4) discoidal cleavage
44. The frequency of homozygotes in a diploid population is 0.68. Assuming that the population is in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequencies of the two alleles are
(1) 0.1 and 0.9 (2) 0.2 and 0.8
(3) 0.4 and 0.6 (4) 0.5 and 0.5
45. The cells of inner cell mass of a blastocyst stage mammalian embryo are
(1) totipotent (2) pluripotent
(3) multipotent (4) unipotent
46. In electron microscopy, to detect specific macromolecule or structure such as spindle pole body
(SPB), the frequently used procedure is to couple secondary antibody with
(1) Alexa 568 (2) Cy5
(3) Gold particle (4) Osmium tetraoxide
47. Which one of the following statements related to molecular cloning procedures is INCORRECT?
(1) 5' overhangs of restricted DNA fragments can be blunt-ended by Klenow polymerase but
not by DNaseI.
(2) A DNA fragment obtained as an Xhol fragment (CTCGAG) may be ligated at the SalI site
(GTCGAC) in a vector.
(3) To prevent self-ligation of a vector digested with KpnI (GGTACC), alkaline phosphatase
enzyme is used to remove 3' -PO4 groups from the ends of fragments.
(4) -complementation/blue-white screening may produce blue coloured recombinant colonies
(containing cloned fragments) in case of translational fusion with the -galactosidase
gene.
48. The amino acid side chains of the four histones in the nucleosome are subjected to remarkable
variety of post-translation modifications such as phosphorylation, acetylation and methylation.
Which one of the following post-translational marks on histone tails is usually associated with
transcriptional repression?
(1) Acetylation of H3K9 (2) Methylation of H3K9
(3) Acetylation of H4K5 (4) Phosphorylation of H3S10
49. Readers of histone modifications include:

(1) SUN domain proteins (2) BAG domain proteins
(3) PAS domain proteins (4) TUDOR domain proteins
50. The ratio of variance in male mating success (Vm) to variance in female mating success (Vf) is
strongly male biased (Vm > Vf) in species P, strongly female biased in species Q (Vf > Vm) and
similar in species R (Vm=Vf). All else being equal, which one of the following matches between
species and mating system is most likely?
(1) P-monogamy; Q-polyandry; R-polygyny
(2) P-polyandry; Q-polygyny; R-monogamy
(3) P-polygyny; Q-polyandry; R-monogamy
(4) P-monogamy; Q-polygyny; R-polyandry
51. For bacterial growth, a single cell elongates in size before it divides into two, in a process called
binary fission. During cell growth,
(1) new peptidoglycan synthesis is required along with the hydrolysis of bonds linking the old
peptidoglycan chains.
(2) new peptidoglycan synthesis is required but no hydrolysis of the old peptidoglycan occurs.
(3) the old peptidoglycan is completely degraded and replaced with the newly synthesized
longer polymer.
(4) newly synthesized peptidoglycan is utilized to deposit a new layer of the peptidoglycan in
the cell wall.
52. In context of DNA methylation, which one of the following statements is FALSE?
(1) Generally, methylation occurs at the 3rd carbon position of cytosine and converts it to 3-
methylcytosine
(2) Maintenance methyltransferase acts constitutively on hemimethylated sites and converts
them to fully methylated sites
(3) During mammalian gametogenesis, the genomic methylation patterns are erased in
primordial germ cells
(4) Replication converts a fully methylated site to hemimethylated site
53. In a neuron, proteins and membranes are primarily synthesized in the cell body. These materials
must be transported down the axon to the synaptic region using microtubules in an anterograde
fashion. Such axonal transport is directed by
(1) Dynein (2) Kinesin I
(3) Dynein and Kinesin I (4) Myosin
54. Some statements regarding the process of autophagy are given below :
a. Autophagy occurs when cells contain aggregated proteins
b. Autophagosomes fuse with any organelles
c. Autophagosome is a single membrane structure
d. Autophagosomes fuse with lysosomes to form autophagolysosomes
Which one of the following combination of the above statements is correct?
(3) C and D (4) D and A

55. Vascular wilts are wide spread and destructive plant diseases. The symptoms of this disease are
primarily caused by the clogging of
(1) xylem vessels (2) phloem vessels
(3) stomata (4) hydathodes
56. In a lake, reducing the population of a fish which feeds on plankton was followed by a decline in
the rate of primary productivity. This is consistent with which one of the following hypotheses
regarding the regulation of primary productivity?
(1) Bottom-up control (2) Eutrophication
(3) Top-down control (4) Trophic pyramid
57. Match the following vitamins with the corresponding pathological condition arising from their
deficiencies.
Vitamin Disease
(a) A (i) Pernicious anaemia
(b) B12 (ii) Subdermal haemorrhaging
(c) D (iii) Night blindness
(d) K (iv) Rickets
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iv)
58. If you inject a mouse with radioactive material of current activity of 256 Bq, what will be the activity
after completion of 6 half-lives?
(1) 4 Bq (2) 8 Bq
(3) 16 Bq (4) 24 Bq
59. Which one of the following statements related to transcription and processing of mRNA is
INCORRECT?
(1) During prokaryotic transcription, DNA binding properties of RNA polymerase are altered by
sigma factor
(2) In eukaryotic transcription, synthesis of rRNA, mRNA and some small RNAs occurs by
RNA polymerases I, II and III respectively
(3) Splicing observed in tRNA involves successive/sequential cleavage and ligation reactions
while pre-mRNA splicing proceeds through lariat formation
(4) mRNAs with premature stop codons are degraded by Nonsense-Mediated Decay (NMD)
and mRNAs without an in-frame stop codon get accumulated and translated in the
cytoplasm.

60. While screening an EMS-mutagenized population of a plant, a researcher identified a mutant with
reduced gibberellic acid sensitivity. Which one of the following proteins is most likely to be
defective in this mutant?
(1) Sucrose non-fermenting related kinase 2(SnRK2)
(2) Constitutive triple response 1 (CTR1)
(3) Phytochrome interacting factor (PIF)
(4) Coronative-insensitive 1 (COI1)
61. Two strains of mice which are genetically identical except for a single genetic locus or region are
said to be :
(1) Syngenic (2) Allogenic
(3) Congenic (4) Heterogenic
62. In a form of stress response, bacteria synthesize a group of proteins called stress protein (or
heat shock proteins) such as DnaK, DnaJ, GroEL, and GrpE. DnaK is an ATP binding protein,
which attaches to the newly synthesized polypeptide in conjunction with DnaJ. Which one of the
following statements correctly states a step in the subsequent process of protein folding?
(1) The affinity of DnaK to the polypeptide increases upon hydrolysis of the ATP to ADP.
(2) DnaJ is an exchange factor that replace ADP with ATP in DnaK
(3) ATP hydrolysis is required for the phosphorylation of DnaJ
(4) ATP hydrolysis is required for the phosphorylation of GrPE
63. Which one of the following plants has a bisporic, 8 nucleate, bipolar embryo sac development?
(1) Oenothera (2) Penaea
(3) Plumbago (4) Allium
64. Interacting genes which are involved in producing continuous variation in phenotypes in a population
are known as/constitute
(1) codominant genes (2) pseudogenes
(3) alleles (4) QTLs
65. Which one of the following graphs best describes the dependence of free energy change (G)
of ATP hydrolysis on Mg2+ concentration?
8.5
– G (kcalmol–1 )
8.5
–G (kcalmol– 1 )
8
8
7.5 7.5
(1) (2)
7 7
10 – 7 10– 6 10 – 5 10– 4 10– 3 10 – 2 10– 1 10– 7 10– 6 10 – 5 10– 4 10 – 3 10– 2 10– 1
[Mg2 +] (M) 2+
[Mg ] (M)
8.5 8.5
8 8
7.5 7.5
(3) (4)
7 7
10– 7 10– 6 10 – 5 10 – 4 10– 3 10– 2 10– 1 10– 7 10– 6 10 – 5 10 – 4 10– 3 10– 2 10– 1
2+ 2+
[Mg ] (M) [Mg ] (M)
66. Which one of the following statements is true regarding amino acids?
(1) Proline has high propensity to form -helix in globular proteins
(2) Both isoleucine and threonine can exist as diastereomers
(3) Side chain pKa of aspartic acid is more than the side chain pKa of a glutamic acid
(4) The  dihedral angle of proline is more restricted than the  dihedral angle
67. Which one of the following was recently reported to be the first mammal to have become extinct
as a result of climate change?
(1) Bramble Cay melomys – Melomys rubicola
(2) Gangetic river dolphin – Platanista gangetica
(3) Malaga giant rat – Hypogeomys antimena
(4) Tapanuli orangutan – Pongo tapanuliensis
68. Which one of the following is NOT true in the process of acclimatization to high altitude?
(1) Respiratory alkalosis
(2) Increases 2, 3-DPG in RBC
(3) Rise in pH of cerebrospinal fluid
(4) Increase cytochrome oxidase in tissues
69. Which one of the following show complete metamorphosis in all three orders?
(1) Coleopterans, Dipterans and Hymenopterans
(2) Coleopterans, Hymenopterans and Orthopterans
(3) Dipterans, Lepidopterans and Hemipterans
(4) Hymenopterans, Lepidopterans and Orthopterans
70. An interaction where the actor and the recipient both suffer a cost is referred to as
(1) Altruism (2) Cooperation
(3) Mutualism (4) Spite
PART - ‘C’
71. Given below are schematic representations of the T-DNA regions of four constructs that are to
be used for Agrobacterium – mediated transformation to silence an endogenous plant gene
represented as 'XYFP' that is expressed constitutively in the plant.
35SPr XYFP Intron XY OCSpA
A. LB M RB
35SPr XY Intron FP OCSpA

B. LB M RB
35SPr PFXY OCSpA

C. LB M RB

35SPr XYFP Intron PFYX OCSpA

D. LB M RB
M : Selectable marker gene expression cassette

LB : Left Border
RB : Right Border
Which of the four constructs depicted above could be used to silence the target gene 'XYFP'?
(1) A and B only (2) B and D only
(3) A and C only (4) C and D only
72. Following statements were made with respect to transcription in eukaryotes :

a. RNA polymerase III synthesises mRNAs in the nucleoplasm
b. The target promoter for RNA polymerase III is usually represented by a bipartite sequence
downstream of the transcription start site.
c. The assembly factors TFIIIA and TFIIIC assist the binding of the positioning factor TFIIIB
at the precise location.
d. TFIIIB is the last factor that joins the initiation complex.
e. Phosphorylated Ser residues in the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II serve
as binding sites for mRNA processing enzymes.
Which one of the following options represents the correct combination of the statements?
(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and E
(3) B, D and E (4) A, C and E
73. Which one of the following graphs best represents the net CO2 fixation of typical C3 and C4 plants
under increasing CO2 concentration and saturating light?
60 60
C3 C3
50 50
NetCO2 fixation
NetCO2 fixation
40 40
( mol m– 2 s –1 )
( mol m– 2 s –1 )
30 30
C4
20 20 C4
(1) 10 (2) 10
0 0
–10 100 200 300 400 500 –10 100 200 300 400 500
–20 CO2 Conc. (L/L) –20 CO2 Conc. (L/L)
60 60
C4 C4
50 50
NetCO2 fixation
NetCO2 fixation
40 40
( mol m– 2 s –1 )
( mol m– 2 s –1 )
30 30
C3 C3
20 20
(3) 10 (4) 10
0 0
–10 100 200 300 400 500 –10 100 200 300 400 500
–20 CO2 Conc. (L/L) –20 CO2 Conc. (L/L)

74. Thousands of proteins that are synthesized in the cytoplasm are imported into the nucleus
through the nuclear pore complex (NPC) every minute. These proteins contain Nuclear Localization
signal (NLS) that direct their selective transport into the nucleus. This nuclear import requires :
a. A small monomeric G-protein Ran
b. A nuclear transport receptor that interacts with the NLS on a cargo protein.
c. A GTPase activating protein (GAP) bound to the chromatin tethered to the nuclear
membrane.
d. A Guanine Exchange Factor (GEF) bound to the chromatin inside the nucleus.
Which one of the following options represents all correct statements?
(1) a, c, d (2) a, b, d
(3) b, c only (4) a, c only
75. Several plants produce metabolites with important medicinal properties and have been extensively
used in traditional medicine across the world. Many of these compounds can now be purified or
synthesized and are used in modern medicine. Given below is a list of metabolites, their plant
source and medicinal use :
Metabolite Plant source Medicine/Use
a. Digoxin (i) Artemisia annua q. Aspirin
b. Salicin (ii) Papaver somniferum r. Anti-malarial
c. Morphine (iii) Digitalis purpurea s. Cardiac ailment
d. Artemisinin (iv) Willow tree t. Narcotic analgesic
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate match of the compound with its plant
source and use?
(1) a-(iii)-r; b-(i)-t; c-(iv)-q; d-(ii)-s
(2) a-(iv)-q; b-(iii)-r; c-(ii)-s; d-(i)-t
(3) a-(ii)-t; b-(iii)-s; c-(i)-r; d-(iv)-q
(4) a-(iii)-s; b-(iv)-q; c-(ii)-t; d-(i)-r
76. Ribosomes prepared from a bacterium were fractionated by source density gradient centrifugation
(panel i) to separate the 30S, 50S and 70S populations. When the ribosome preparation was
incubated individually with either elongation factor-G (EF-G), or a newly identified protein X, or
GTP, the profile remained unchanged. Likewise, no changes were seen in the profile when the
ribosomal preparation was incubated with EF-G + GTP or protein X + GTP. However, when the
ribosomal preparation was incubated with protein X, EF-G and GTP together, it resulted in a
change of profile which showed a decrease of the 70S peak area and increase in the peak areas
for 30S and 50S (panel ii).
(i) (ii)
70S 50S
A26 0
A2 60
50S
30S
70S
30S
ml ml

Choose the option that defines a correct conclusion from the observations.
(1) Protein X is an anti-association factor which functions in the presence of EF-G and GTP
(2) Protein X is a dissociation factor which functions in the presence of EF-G and GTP
(3) Protein X binds GTP
(4) EF-G is known to bind GTP, hence it can be concluded that the effect of GTP is through
EF-G and protein X does not bind GTP
77. Match the following plant diseases with the name of pathogen associated with the disease
Disease Pathogen
(a) Powdery mildew (i) Erwinia amylovora
(b) Rice blast (ii) Pseudomonas syringae pv. syringae
(c) Bacterial canker (iii) Magnaporthe oryzae
(d) Fire blight (iv) Erysiphe cichoracearum
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
78. Given below are various types of molecular markers in List-I and properties of these markers in
List-II.
List-I List-II
(a) RFLP (i) Single locus
(b) SSR (ii) Multi-allelic
(c) AFLP (iii) Co-dominant
(d) RAPD (iv) Single-allelic
(v) Multi-locus
(vi) Dominant
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (vi) (i) (ii) (v)
(2) (v) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (v) (vi)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (ii)
79. Thyroid hormone (T3) increases the heart rate and the force of contraction of cardiac muscles.
The mechanisms of these effects of T3 have been explained by a researcher in the following
statements:
a. T3 inhibits the expression of gene for -myosin heavy chain and enhances the expression
of gene for -myosin heavy chain
b. The expression of gene for Na+-Ca++ antiporter is enhanced by T3
c. The sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca++ ATPase is increased by T3

d. T3 increases ryanodine Ca++ channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

e. The number of -adrenergic receptors in heart muscles is inhibited by T3
Which one of the following combinations contains both correct explanations?
80. Listeria is a food-borne pathogen that causes mild gastro-intestinal symptoms. To move from one
host-cell to another, it polymerizes actin into a comet tail like structure. Listeria can assemble
host-cell actin at its rear and because:
a. Listeria has on its surface a protein called Act A
b. Listeria can activate Arp 2/3 complex
c. Listeria has on its surface -tubulin
d. Listeria has on its surface myosin II motor
(1) a and d (2) a and b
(3) a and c (4) c and d
81. Given below are certain adaptations which are seen in various groups of animals :
A. Ovipary
B. Streamlined body
C. Pouch for carrying eggs
D. Porous egg shell
E. Breast bone as large keel
F. Webbed feet
G. Laterally compressed coccygeal bone
H. Unidirectional pulmonary system to provide large quantities of oxygen
I. Barbules or hooklets on the vanes of each feather
Which combination of the above adaptations facilitate bird flight?
(1) B, E, H, I (2) A, B, C, G
(3) D, F, G, I (4) B, D, E, F
82. Following statements were made about the post-transcriptional processing of RNA in eukaryotes.
A. Soon after transcription initiation, RNA polymerase II pauses ~30 nucleotides downstream
from the site of initiation until the Cap structure is added to the 5' end of the nascent pre-
mRNA.
B. The 5' splice sites are functionally divergent whereas the 3' sites are functionally equivalent.
C. In addition to helping in recognition of the splice sites, the exon definition also functions
as a splicing regulator by allowing pairing and linking of adjacent 5' and 3' splice sites.
D. The intron definition mechanism applies only to the larger introns (above 500 nucleotides
length) and assists in achieving alternate splicing.
E. The splicing reactions carried out in vitro have revealed that the first and second
transesterification reactions are reversible.
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct?
(1) A, B and D (2) B, C and D
(3) B, D and E (4) A, C and E
83. In the diagram below, the dotted line marks the point of initiation of bidirectional replication.
5' 3'
3' 5'
a. On the right side of the dotted line, leading strand synthesis occurs using the upper strand
as the template.
b. On the right side of the dotted line, leading strand synthesis occurs using the lower strand
as the template.
c. A ligase deficient (lig–) mutant would affect replication of the upper strand on the left side
of the dotted line.
d. A ligase deficient (lig–) mutant would affect replication of the lower strand on the left side
of the dotted line.
Which one of the following options represents the combinations of the correct statements?
(1) a and d (2) b and c
(3) b and d (4) a and c
84. Absorption spectra of L-tyrosine in acidic (continuous line) and basic (dotted line) medium was
estimated and plotted on a graph as depicted below :
1.0
0.8
Absorbance
0.6
0.4
0.2
260 270 280 290 300 310 320 330 340 350
Wavelength (nm)
Following interpretations were made :
a. Change in the pH from acidic to basic results in shift in the lowest energy absorption
maximum and decrease in the molar absorptivity.
b. Shifting of the absorption band to longer wavelength signifies a shift to lower energy, also
known as red shift.
c. Shifting of the absorption band to shorter wavelength signifies a shift to higher energy, also
known as blue shift
d. Wavelength shift is always accompanied by change in intensity of the absorption band.
Select the combination with correct interpretations.
(1) a and b (2) a and c
(3) b and c (4) b and d

85. To investigate the dynamic nature of two unrelated centrosome-localized GFP-tagged proteins
[GEP-A; GFP-B], a team of scientists conducted fluorescence recovery after photo bleaching
(FRAP) experiment. The FRAP profile of these two proteins is given below :
1.0
Normalized Intensity
0.8 GFP-B
GFP-A
0.6
0.4
0.2
0 10 20 30 40 50
Time(s) post-bleach
The following statements for this FRAP analysis were made
A. GFP-B shows faster exchange rate than GFP-A
B. GFP-A shows faster exchange rate than GFP-B
C. GFP-A has more immobile fraction than GFP-B
D. GFP-B has more immobile fraction than GFP-A
Which of the above mentioned statements for GEP-A and GFP-B are correct?
(1) A and C (2) A and D
86. Given below are two sets of terms related to various methods used in biological science
List-A List-B
(a) RACE (i) DNA-protein interactions
(b) South-Western blotting (ii) FAM
(c) Recursive PCR (iii) Determining the ends of mRNA
(d) TaqMan (iv) Construction of synthetic DNA
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

87. Which one of the following phylogenies best represents the evolutionary relationship among
whales, dolphins, seals, deer and dogs?
Whales
Whales
Dolphins
Dolphins
Deer
(1) Seals (2) Seals
Deer
Dogs Dogs
Whales
Whales
Dolphins
Dolphins
Seals Seal
(3) (4) Deer
Deer
Dogs Dogs
88. Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of Na+ from the tubular fluid in the thick ascending limb
of loop of Henle and in the distal tubule. These effects are explained in the following proposed
statements:
A. Aldosterone increases the number of Na+-Cl– symporter in the apical membrane of principal
cells in the early portion of distal tubule
B. The number of Na+ channels (ENaC) is increased in the apical membrane of principal
cells in the late portion of distal tubule by aldosterone
C. The synthesis of Na+, K+-ATPase in the basolateral portion of principal cells in distal tubule
is decreased by the action of aldosterone
D. Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of Na+ across the apical cell membrane in the
thick ascending limb of loop of Henle by decreasing Na+, K+-ATPase in it
Which one of the following combinations represents both correct statements?
(3) C and D (4) A and D
89. Which of the following set of conditions will qualify a species to be considered as endangered
(EN) as per IUCN criteria?
(1) 80% reduction in population size, <100 km2 area of occupancy, at least 50% estimated
extinction risk in five generations.
(2) <2,500 individuals with declining population, <250 mature individuals, at least 20% estimated
extinction risk in 10 years.
(3) <10,000 individuals with declining population, <1000 mature individuals, at least 10%
estimated extinction risk in 10 years
(4) 75% reduction in population size, <500 km2 area of occupancy, at least 20% estimated
extinction risk in five generations.

90. During fertilization in mammals proteins Izumo and Juno are required for recognition of sperm
and egg. Izumo and Juno are found specifically in sperm and egg, respectively. Which one of the
following in vivo experiments will demonstrate that Izumo and Juno interact with each other?
(1) If sperms from a male mouse where Izumo has been knocked out is used to fertilize eggs
from a normal female and no fertilization occurs.
(2) Whole mount immunostaining for Izumo and Juno shows its presence on the sperm and
egg, respectively
(3) If a CFP fused Izumo protein is mixed with YFP fused Juno protein in a tube, FRET
occurs, i.e., when CFP is excited, emission of YFP is observed
(4) Two independent kidney cell lines are developed, one expressing Izumo and the other
Juno. If the two cells are mixed, they tend to aggregate with each other.
91.
Predators Resource
Condition Abundance
learn overlap
A Mimic>Model Yes Yes
B Model>Mimic Yes No
C Mimic=Model No Yes
D Model  Mimic No No
Which among the above sets of conditions are best suited for mimicry to be successful?
(1) Condition A (2) Condition B
(3) Condition C (4) Condition D
92. During cell cycle, entry in the S-phase is tightly regulated. This is possible because:
A. APC/C promotes ubiquitination of S-phase cyclins and mitotic cyclins, marking them for
proteolyses at the mitotic exit.
B. Cyclin B1 helps in the activation of S-phase CDKs only in late G1.
C. As mitotic CDK activity declines in late mitosis, cdc14 phosphatase activates APC/C by
dephosphorylating Cdh1, thus promoting formation of APC/CCdhl.
D. Securin keeps S-phase cyclins in inactive state till late G1.
Which one of the options represents all correct statements?
(1) A and B (2) A and C
93. The following statements are made

A. B form of DNA has ~10 base pairs/turn and A form of DNA has ~2.3Å helix rise per base
pair
B. Both the A and B form of DNA have wider major groove and narrow minor groove
C. The crystalline nature of cellulose is brought about by (1  4) linkage between the
glucose subunits.
D. The double bonds in natural lipids are always cis, which provides fluidity to the plasma
membrane.
Which of the following combinations represents the correct statements?
(3) A and D (4) C and D

94. In the graph below, large boxes (denoted by P, Q, R, S) represent a region, whereas smaller
boxes represent habitats. Labels S1, S2,...... above each small box represent species present in
the given habitat denoted by that box.
S 1 ,S2 S 1,S2 S1 ,S2,S3 S1,S2 ,S3
S 1 ,S2 S 1,S2 S1 ,S2,S3 S1,S2 ,S3

(P) (Q)
S1 S2 S 1 ,S2 S3
S1 S2 S4 S5
(R) (S)
Given the above graphs, choose the options which correctly depicts the regions which show
maximum  and maximum  diversity, respectively.
(1) Q and S (2) P and R
(3) S and P (4) Q and R
95. Bacterial infections are generally divided into two broad classes: intracellular and extracellular
bacterial infections. Given below are some of the properties which are applicable for bacterial
infections.
a. Humoral immune response is the main protective response against extracellular bacteria.
b. Innate immunity is not effective against intracellular bacterial pathogens
c. Bacterial endotoxins do not induce an innate immune response.
d. Intracellular bacterial infections generally induce a cell-mediated immune response resulting
in secretion of cytokines which activate macrophages.
Which one of the following combination of statement is correct
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) c and d (4) a and d
96. The table below shows photosynthetic type, temperature and sunlight intensity levels.
Photosynthetic Sunlight
Temperature
Type Intensity
A. C3 plant i High P. High
B C4 plant ii Moderate Q. Moderate
iii Low R. Low
Which of the following correctly matches the plant photosynthetic type with the temperature and
sunlight conditions in which photosynthetic rate per unit leaf area is maximum for that plant?
(1) A – i – P; B – iii – R (2) A – iii – P; B – i – Q
(3) A – i – R; B – ii – Q (4) A – ii – Q; B– i– P

97. In the nervous system, the action potential is generated at the axon hillock in physiological
conditions and it is conducted to the terminal end of axon. The location specific origin of action
potential and its direction-specific conduction are explained by a researcher in the following
proposed statements:
a. The membrane of axon hillock has highest threshold for the generation of action potential
b. The membrane of axon hillock contains large numbers of voltage-gated Na+ channels and
that makes it more excitable
c. The propagating action potential in the middle of the axon cannot generate another action
potential in the direction of cell body since a large fraction of voltage-gated Na+ channels
in the preceding portion is voltage inactivated
d. As the member of voltage-gated Na+ channels is less in the preceding portion of axonal
membrane, the propagating action potential in the middle of the axon cannot generate
another action potential in the direction of cell body.
Which one of the following combinations represents both correct explanations?
98. A mutant mating type mt strain of Chlamydomonas that was resistant to the antibiotic kanamycin
(kanr) and herbicide PPT (pptr) was crossed to a wild type mating mt+ kans ppts strain that was
sensitive to kanamycin and PPT. Twenty tetrads of the progeny were analyzed for mating type
and resistance/sensitivity to kanamycin and PPT. The following observations were made :
Type I Type II Type III

r r r s r r
mt kan ppt mt kan ppt mt kan ppt
r r r s r s
+ r s + r r + r r
+ r s + r r + r s
Number of
each type 8 9 3
observed
The following statements were made to explain the observations:
a. mt and ppt loci are on two different chromosomes
b. Inheritance of mating type and ppt-resistance/sensitivity are demonstrating cytoplasmic
inheritance
c. Inheritance of kanamycin-resistance/sensitivity is demonstrating nuclear inheritance
d. Nuclear inheritance is being demonstrated by mating and ppt-resistance/sensitivity analysis
Which one of the combinations of above statements is correct?
(1) a and b (2) a and d
(3) b and c (4) c and d

99. The membrane phospholipid structures in bacteria and archaea differ. Which one of the following
correctly states the differences between the two?
(1) The bacterial membrane phospholipid consist of D-glycerol linked to hydrophobic chains
(tails) with ester bonds whereas those of the archaeal membranes consist of L-glycerol
linked to hydrophobic tails through ether bonds.
(2) The bacterial membrane phospholipid consist of L-glycerol linked to hydrophobic chains
(tails) with ester bonds whereas those of the archaeal membranes consist of D-glycerol
linked to hydrophobic tails through ether bonds.
(3) The bacterial membrane phospholipid consist of D-glycerol linked to hydrophobic chains
(tails) with ether bonds whereas those of the archaeal membranes consist of L-glycerol
linked to hydrophobic tails through ester bonds.
(4) The bacterial membrane phospholipid consist of L-glycerol linked to hydrophobic chains
(tails) with ether bonds whereas those of the archaeal membranes consists of D-glycerol
linked to hydrophobic tails through ester bonds.
100. A disease-resistant plant was crossed with a susceptible plant and the resultant F1 plants were
disease resistant. The F1 plant was selfed and the F2 individuals were analyzed for qualitative and
quantitative disease resistance. The following statements were hypothesized
a. Qualitative resistance follows Mendelian ratio.
b. In the F2 individuals demonstrating qualitative resistance, "resistance" is dominant
c. Quantitative resistance is always monogenic
d. Qualitative resistance can be polygenic
(1) a, c and d (2) a, b and c
(3) a, b and d (4) b, c and d
101. The phylogeny below shows evolutionary relationship between 9 extant bird species and whether
they display red or blue plumage.
Red
Red
Red
Blue
Blue
Red
Red
P
Blue
Blue
Based on the above phylogeny and the distribution of red and blue character states among the
extant species, and using the principle of parsimony, which of the following is the correct inference
about plumage colour of the ancestor at the root P?
(1) Ancestral state at P is blue
(2) Ancestral state at P is red
(3) Ancestral state at P is more likely to be red than blue.
(4) Ancestral state at P is equally likely to be red or blue.

102. The following observations are made on a 30-residue polypeptide

a. Unordered structure is observed in water but a helical conformation is observed in medium
of low dielectric constant.
b. The peptide is resistant to degradation by proteases
c. Red blood cells are lysed by the peptide
d. -mercaptoethanol has no effect on peptide structure.
Which of the following statements can be correctly attributed to the above observations?
(1) The peptide is entirely composed of D-amino acid and is amphipathic.
(2) The peptide is entirely composed of L-amino acids and is not amphipathic
(3) The peptide is rich in disulphide bonds between D-cysteines.
(4) The peptide is entirely composed of L-aromatic amino acids.
103. The nucleosome is the fundamental subunit of chromatin in eukaryotes. Following statements are
made about nucleosome:
a. Generally, a typical nucleosome contains ~200bp of DNA and two copies of each histone
(H2A, H2B, H3 and H4)
b. 146 bp length of DNA per nucleosome core particle is strictly maintained across the
organisms
c. The histone octamers are not conserved during/after replication, however, H32–H42 tetramers
are
d. Variants have been identified for all core histones except histone H3
e. While wrapping around the core histone, the structure of DNA is altered at the middle of
the nucleosome core particle and exhibits increased number of base pairs per turn
Which one of the following combination of statements is most appropriate?
(1) a, c and e (2) a, b and d
(3) b, d and e (4) a, c and d
104. Deletion analysis of a promoter region of a gene was carried out to identify the regulatory elements
in it. In the figure below, the filled boxes denote the areas of deletion and the observed activities
(in arbitrary units) of the promoter are as shown.
-300 -250 -200 -150 -100 -50 Activity
WT promoter; no deletion 100

100
175
175
50
50
0
Based on the observations, following statements were made :
a. The region between -100 and -50 houses a positive regulatory element
b. The region between -200 and -250 houses a negative regulatory element
c. The region between -150 and -200 houses a positive regulatory element
Which one of the following options represents the correct interpretation of the data?
(1) Both a and b (2) a only
(3) b only (4) Both b and c
105. In an experiment, a 1 kb fragment with a single BamHI site (as shown below in figure 'A') is to
be cloned in the SmaI (CCC  GGG) site of a cloning vector of 3kb length (figure 'B'). None of
the other enzymes of the multiple cloning site are present in the fragment to be cloned.
(A) (B)
EcoRV
BamHI
HlndIII
EcoRI
Smal
Xhol
BamHI
P
5' 3'
0.2 0.8
Based on the information given above, a series of digestions were set up for the potential clones
and their fragment profiles are given below :
a. BamHI : 200bp + 3.8 kb
b. BamHI : 800bp + 3.2 kb
c. HindIII+EcoRI : ~1kb + ~3kb
d. XHoI+BamHI : ~200bp + ~800bp + ~3kb
Which one of the above digestion profiles confirms successful cloning of the fragment in the
vector in an orientation wherein the 5' end of the cloned fragment is towards 'P'?
(1) a only (2) b only
(3) a and c (4) c and d
106. Match the following taxa with the genus of the microorganism
List-I List-II
(Taxa) (Genus)
(a) Ascomycota (i) Rhizopus
(b) Basidiomycota (ii) Erysiphe
(c) Zygomycota (iii) Pythium
(d) Oomycota (iv) Ustilago
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (ii)
107. Hormones act by producing/activating a variety of effectors intracellularly. Below are given a
variety of effectors in List-I and hormones in List-II
List-I List-II
(a) Inositol triphosphate (IP3) (i) Leptin
(b) cGMP (ii) IGF-1
(c) cAMP (iii) Oxytocin
(d) Receptor Kinase (iv) Somatostatin
(e) Associated Kinase (v) ANF
Which one of the following combinations of effector and the specific hormone is correct?
(1) a (i) and b (ii) (2) b (iv) and a (iii)
(3) c (iv) and d (ii) (4) e (ii) and c (i)

108. Area of patch 1 is 2000 m2 with a resource density of 5 units/m2. Area of patch 2 is 3000 m2 with
a resource density of 10 units/m2. As per the theory of idea-free distribution, organisms distribute
themselves such that the expected ratio of abundance of organisms in the two patches (patch
1 : patch 2) is
(1) 1:2 (2) 2:3
(3) 1:3 (4) 3:2
109. Which of the following NOT a mechanism for species coexistence?

(1) Niche differentiation
(2) Niche complementarity
(3) Niche overlap
(4) Amount of limiting resources is greater than the number of species
110. A small number (approximately 10) of mice are introduced into an uninhabited island. Their
population grows exponentially initially and after 3 years, reaches a population size of 520 after
which the population becomes stable. At what point would you expect their population to attain
their highest growth rate?
(1) When the mice population was first introduced.
(2) When the population size is 260
(3) Their population growth rate remains constant throughout.
(4) When the population size reaches 520
111. The ECG recorded by different leads is analysed on the basis of variation of electrical potential
at various loci on the surface of the body, and the time scale relation of different waves. After
analysing the ECG, following particulars of heart are proposed to be obtained.
a. Stoke volume and cardiac output
b. Volume and pressure changes during cardiac cycle
c. Anatomical orientation of heart
d. Various disturbances in the rhythm and conduction of cardiac excitation
e. The extent, location and progress of ischemic damage to myocardium
Which one of the following combinations represent both INCORRECT particulars of hear?
(3) c and d (4) d and e
112. Female fiddler crabs prefer male fiddler crabs with larger claws over males with smaller claws.
If the selection pressure exerted is strong resulting in a skewed distribution of claw size, which
of the following statements is true about population's mean, median and mode?
(1) Mean > Median > Mode (2) Mean < Median < Mode
(3) Mean = Mode < Median (4) Mean = Median = Mode

113.
Column I Column II Column III

(A) Auxin and (a) Transmembrane (i) Response mediated by
Gibberellins receptor phosphorylation/dephosphorylation
(B) Cytokinin and (b) Soluble receptor (ii) Response mediated by
Brassinosteroid proteasome-mediated protein
degradation
Match the above columns involving plant hormones and their signalling pathways.
(1) (A) - (a) - (i) and (B) - (b) - (ii) (2) (A) - (b) - (ii) and (B) - (a) - (i)
(3) (A) - (b) - (i) and (B) - (a) - (ii) (4) (A) - (a) - (ii) and (B) - (b) - (i)
114. Analysis of a homotetrameric protein and a double stranded DNA (that had been incubated in
standard buffer) on native gels revealed that they migrated true to their physical states (tetrameric
nature of the protein and double stranded nature of the DNA). Following hypotheses were made
for the effect of adding high salt to the incubation mix and subsequent analysis on native gels.
(a) The protein would migrate as a homotetramer and DNA is double stranded form
(b) The protein would migrate as a monomer but DNA in double stranded form.
(c) The protein would migrate as a homotetramer but the DNA in single stranded form
(d) The protein would migrate as a monomer and the DNA in single stranded from.
Which of the following combination of hypotheses is most likely?
115. A mixture cell population was stained with two antibodies, one specific for cell surface antigen A
and the other specific for cell surface antigen B. Anti-A antibody was labelled with fluorescein and
anti-B antibody was labelled with rhodamine. The cell population was then analysed for the
presence of antigens by flow cytometry. Which one of the following is the correct outcome for
this cell population?
Red Fluorescence
Red Fluorescence
A¯ B¯ A¯ B+ A + B¯ A¯ B+
(1) A + B¯ A + B+ (2) A¯ B¯ A + B+
Green Fluorescence Green Fluorescence

Red Fluorescence
Red Fluorescence
A¯ B+ A + B+ A¯ B+ A + B+
(3) A¯ B¯ A+ B¯ (4) A¯ B¯ A¯ B+
Green Fluorescence Green Fluorescence

116. The following statements were made with the assumption that the concentration of 3
phosphoglycerate is high inside chloroplasts of an actively photosynthesizing leaf.
a. There will be high concentration of triose phosphate in the chloroplast.
b. The activity of ADP-glucose pyrophosphorylase will be inhibited.
c. The carbon flow will be diverted from sucrose to starch.
d. Starch synthesis will be inhibited and carbon flow will be more towards sucrose synthesis
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
(1) a and b (2) b and d
(3) c and d (4) a and c
117. Consider the following facts :

a. Chlorophyll absorbs more in the red region of the visible spectrum than in far-red.
b. The phytochrome photoreceptor (P) of plants occurs in two inter convertible forms, Pr and
Pfr where red light converts Pr to Pfr and far-red light converts Pfr to Pr.
c. Growing a sun plant under the canopy shed causes increased stem elongation
Which one of the following combination of statements is correct for the plant growing under the
canopy as compared to those growing above the canopy?
(1) Red : far-red ratio is lower; Pr:Pfr ratio is higher; Pfr inhibits stem elongation.
(2) Red : far-red ratio is higher; Pr:Pfr ratio is higher; Pr inhibits stem elongation
(3) Red : far-red ratio is lower; Pr:Pfr ratio is lower; Pfr promotes stem elongation
(4) Red : far-red ratio is higher; Pr:Pfr ratio is lower; Pr promotes stem elongation
118. Following statements are made about double-strand break repair (DSBR) model of homologous
recombination:
a. Process of DSBR recombination is triggered by introducing a double-strand break in a
DNA duplex
b. In a process known as 3' -end resection, the exonucleases along with a DNA helicase
degrade one strand on either side of the break and generates 3' -single stranded termini
c. One strand of the donor duplex is displaced due to formation of heteroduplex DNA and
generates a displacement loop (D-Loop)
d. Branch migration allows the point of crossover to move 5'  3' direction of recipient
strand
e. Completion of DSBR recombination may generate either crossover recombinant or non-
recombinant product.
(1) a, b and d (2) a, c and e
(3) a, c and d (4) a, b and e

119. The anterior-posterior compartment of each segment of Drosophila is defined by wingless and
engrailed genes. The following statements are given towards explaining their regulation:
a. Wingless is a secretory factor
b. Engrailed is a secretory factor and forms a long-range concentration gradient
c. Engrailed regulates Wingless through Hedgehog which forms a short-range concentration
gradient
d. -catenin homologue is the signalling molecule upstream of Engrailed, which gets cleaved
by GSK3 homologue
e. Cubitus interruptus is an intracellular signalling molecule in the Engrailed expressing cells.
Which one of the following option has all the correct statements towards the regulation of anterior
posterior compartment of segments?
(1) b only (2) c only
(3) b and e (4) a, c and d
120. Match the geological time period with the extinction or diversification events associated with them
List-I (Geological time) List-II (Event)
(a) Cenozoic (i) Angiosperm diversification
(b) Cretaeous (ii) Modern fauna diversification
(bivalves, gastropods, bryozoans,
malacostracan crustaceans)
(c) Paleozoic (iii) Megafauna extinction
(d) Quaternary (iv) Mammal diversification
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (iv)
121. Cells are physically linked to one another and to extracellular matrix through their cytoskeleton
and this imparts strength and rigidity of tissues and organs. Most of the animal cells have three
type of cytoskeletal filaments, which are listed in List-I. The possible function are listed in List II
List-I List-II
(a) Intermediate filaments (i) Determine the shape of cell surface and are
necessary for cell locomotion
(b) Microtubules (ii) Maintain the position of membrane-enclosed
organelles and provide intracellular transport
(c) Actin filaments (iii) Provide mechanical strength of a cell
Codes:
(a) (b) (c)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii)
122. Which of the following represents exponential growth in populations?
1 dN
– ––
dN N dt
—–
(1) dt (2)
N N
dN 1 dN
–– – ––
dt N dt
(3) (4)
N N
123. The top panel (graphs a-c) represents trends of number of sperms produced per mating season
with respect to number of mates, while the bottom panel (graphs i-iv) represents trends of time
invested in paternal care with respect to number of mates in birds.
No. of sperms produced
Top panel (a) (b) (c)

per mating season
1 3 5 7 9 11 1 3 5 7 9 11 1 3 5 7 9 11
No. of mates No. of mates No. of mates
Bottom panel
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Time invested in
Paternal Care
1 3 5 7 9 11 1 3 5 7 9 11 1 3 5 7 9 11 1 3 5 7 9 11
No. of mates No. of mates No. of mates No. of mates
Select the correct trend from each panel
(1) c, iv (2) a, ii
(3) b, iii (4) a, i

124. Following statements are being made regarding specification/determination during animal
development:
a. During the course of commitment, the cell may not appear different from its nearest or
most distant neighbours in the embryo and show no visible signs of differentiation; but its
developmental fate is restricted.
b. At the stage of specification, cell commitment is not labile.
c. A cell or tissue is determined when it is capable of differentiating autonomously even when
placed into another region of the embryo, or a cluster of differently specified cells in a
petridish
d. Cytoskeletal arrangements maintain positioning of nuclei in the syncytium, which enables
specification of these nuclei by opposing morphogen gradients namely Bicoid and Caudal
in Drosophila.
e. Capacity for "mosaic" development allows cells to acquire different functions as a result
of interactions with neighbouring cells.
(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d
(3) c, d and e (4) a, c and d
125. The individuals considered in this question are having two haploid sets of autosomes and no Y-
chromosome. The X:A ratio of the individuals, the type of organisms chosen, their primary sex
and number of Barr bodies expected in their cells are shown in the table below :
Number of
X: A ratio Organism Primary Sex
Barr bodies
i. 0.5 A. Human I. Male a. Zero
ii. 2 B. Drosophila II. Female b. One
III. Metafemale c. Two
d. Three
Select the option below with all correct matches :
(1) i-A-II-a; ii-A-II-d; i-B-I-a; ii-B-III-a
(2) i-A-I-a; ii-A-IIc; i-B-II-a; ii-B-I-a
(3) i-A-II-c; ii-A-I-d; i-B-Ic; ii-B-II-b
(4) i-A-II-a; ii-A-II-d; i-B-III-a; ii-B-I-a
126. Individuals in a population are divided into various blood groups (in List-I) based on the set of
enzymes they have (in List-II)
List-I List-II
(a) A (i) Fucose transferase
(b) B (ii) GalNAc transferase
(c) AB (iii) Gal transferase
(d) O
Which one of the following combinations is NOT correct for the blood group type and the set of
enzymes a person has?
(1) (a) - (i) and (ii) (2) (b) - (i) and (iii)
(3) ab - (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (d) - (i), (ii) and (iii)

127. A form and Z form of double stranded DNA differ in the handedness of their helices, nucleotide
sequence, and configuration of base to sugar. Based on these properties, which one of the
following statements defines a correct combination for A and Z forms of DNA?
(1) Right handed double helix and anti-configuration for the base to sugar arrangement in A
DNA; and left handed helix with alternating sequence of G and C (as a general pattern),
and alternating syn - and anti - configurations for the base to sugar arrangement in the
Z DNA
(2) Right handed double helix and syn-configuration for the base to sugar arrangement in A
DNA; and left handed double helix with alternating A and G sequence (as a general
pattern) and anti-configurations for base to sugar arrangement in the Z DNA
(3) Left handed double helix and anti-configuration for base to sugar arrangement in the A
form DNA and right handed helix and syn-configuration for base to sugar arrangement in
the Z form DNA.
(4) Left handed double helix and syn-configuration for base to sugar arrangement in the A
form DNA and right handed double helix and anti-configuration for the base to sugar
arrangement for the Z form DNA.
128. Given below are some physicochemical properties (List-I) and their manifestations (List-II)
List-I List-II
(a) Pauling electronegativity (i) Charge separation
(b) Isolated -orbital overlap (ii) Solvation of atoms
(c) Aromaticity (iii) Restricted rotation
(d) Dielectric constant (iv) Planarity of molecules
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
129. An individual is having a paracentric inversion (denoted by the region f-e-d, marked by arrows)
in homozygous condition
a b c f e d g h i
The meiotic consequences of inversion can be:

a. generation of an acentric and a dicentric chromosome
b. the recombinants will have long deletion or duplication and may be lethal
c. the inversion will suppress crossing over
d. all gametes will have complete genome and will survive normally
Which of the above statements or their combinations will explain the meiotic consequence of the
given inversion logically?
(1) a, b and c (2) a and b
(3) b and c (4) Only d
130. Strain A mice were crossed with strain B mice and first generation F1 mice were obtained, i.e.
(A × B)F1. A scientist then implanted thymectomized and irradiated (A × B)F1 mice with a B-type
thymus and then reconstituted the animal's immune system with an intravenous infusion of
(A × B)F1 bone marrow cells. The chimeric mice were infected with lymphocytic choriomeningitis
virus (LCMV) and the spleen T cells were then tested for their ability to kill LCMV-infected target
cells from the strain A or strain B mice.
Which one of the following is the correct outcome of the experiment?
(1) LCMV-infected target cells from strain A only will be killed
(2) LCMV-infected target cells from strain B only will be killed
(3) LCMV-infected target cells from both strain A and B will be killed
(4) Neither cells from strain A nor from strain B will be killed
131. The following statements are made regarding developing a transgenic mouse :
A. The transgenic mouse thus born will be a homozygous transgenic animal and can be
maintained by crossing with another transgenic animal.
B. The fertilized transgenic eggs are allowed to develop in vitro.
C. The desired gene is preferably microinjected in male pronucleus after sperm entry in
oocyte.
D. For best efficiency, the desired gene is always microinjected in the male gametes and
then they are allowed to fertilize the female gametes.
E. Blastocyst stage embryos are transferred to the uterus of hormonally prepared mother.
F. The fertilized eggs are collected from specific strain of mouse.
G. The female mouse of specific strain is superovulated, oocytes are collected and allowed
to fertilize in vitro.
Choose the combination of statements arranged in the correct sequence for developing transgenic
mouse.
(1) G  C  E (2) F  C  B A
(3) G  DA (4) D  F  B A
132. Many organisms encode only 18 aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases (aaRS). These organisms lack
aaRS that use Asn or Gln (as one of the substrates) for direct aminoacylation of the tRNAAsn and
tRNAGln, respectively. Which one of the following statements represents the correct option?
(1) The organisms lacking AsnRS and GlnRS lack Asn and Gln in their proteins
(2) In these organisms, selected Asp and Glu residues in the proteins are post-translationally
modified by a regulated mechanism.
(3) In these organisms, the tRNAAsn and tRNAAsn and tRNAGln are first aminoacylated by
AspRS and GluRS, respectively, and then the Asp and Glu attached to the tRNAs are
modified to Asn and Gln, respectively
(4) In these organisms, the precursors of mRNAs that encode AspRS and GluRS are
alternatively spliced to generate AsnRS and GlnRS.

133. Certain plant species produce cyanogenic glycosides to protect them from pathogens. A researcher
has identified a variant of such a plant that has higher level of cyanogenic glycoside yet it is highly
susceptible to a specific fungal pathogen. To interpret this counter-intuitive observation, the
researcher hypothesizes that the fungal pathogen has higher level of
a. -glucosidase activity
b. formamide hydrolyse activity
c. cytochrome P-450 enzyme
d. cyanide-resistant, alternative oxidase activity
Which one of the following combinations of the above hypotheses is correct?
(3) c and d (4) b and d
134. A pedigree shown below depicts that the individual I-1 is heterozygous for a dominant disease
allele D and for molecular markers M1/M2. The paternal molecular markers present in the progeny
individuals are indicated in the pedigree.
I.
1 2
D/d. M1/M2 d/d. M2/M2
II.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
M1 M1 M1 M2 M2 M2 M1 M2 M1 M2
The following statements may be drawn from the above pedigree:
a. The two loci D/d and M1/M2 appears to be linked
b. The recombination frequency between the two loci is 20%
c. If LOD score comes out to be 3, then it ensures that the two loci are independently
assorting
d. A LOD score < 1 would have ensured that the two Loci are linked
Which combination of the above statements can correctly interpret the depicted pedigree?
(1) c and d (2) Only c
(3) a and b (4) Only d
135. In the following pedigree three STR loci A, B and C are linked on the long arm of the X-chromosome
in the order centromere-A-B-C-telomere. Further in the table, the STR alleles present in each
individual is indicated.
I.
1 2 3 4
II.
1 2
III.
1 2 3 4

Loci Generation
I II III
1 2 3 4 1 2 1 2 3 4
A 5,6 4 5,6 4 4,6 6 6 4 6 6
B 7,8 9 8,9 7 7,9 8 8,9 9 7 7,8
C 1,2 2 1,2 3 1,2 1 1,2 2 2 1
Based on the above, X-chromosome(s) in which of the following individuals are recombinant?
[Hint. X-chromosome in males will help identify the phase of the alleles]
(1) II-1, III-1 and III-2 (2) II-2, III-1 and III-2
(3) III-1 and III-3 (4) III-2 and III-4
136. The figure below shows the structure of a replication fork.

3'
5'
(i)
5' (ii)
3'
(iii)
(iv)
3'
5'
Based on this information, following statements are made :
a. (i) represents the leading strand while (ii), (iii) and (iv) represent the Okazaki fragments
b. Among the Okazaki fragments, synthesis of (iv) occurs prior to the synthesis of (iii) and
(ii)
c. Among the Okazaki fragments, synthesis of (ii) occurs prior to the synthesis of (iii) and
(iv).
Which one of the following option represents the correct statements(s)?
(3) a and b (4) a and c
137. Following statements were made about the events occurring during chick development.
a. The fertilized chick egg undergoes discoidal meroblastic cleavage, however the cleavage
does not extend into the yolky cytoplasm.
b. Development of primary hypoblast is mediated by localized migration of a group of highly
specified and connected cluster of 30-40 cells.
c. By the stage XIII of chick embryogenesis and little prior to primitive streak formation, the
formation of the hypoblast is just complete.
d. Hensen's node of the chick embryo signifies a region at the anterior end of the primitive
streak with regional thickening of cells
e. Inhibition of Wnt planar cell polarity pathway in the epiblast causes the mesoderm and
endoderm to form centrally instead of peripherally.
Which one of the following combinations represents all correct statements?
(1) a, b and d (2) a, c and e
(3) a, b and c (4) a, c and d

138. Given below is the [P] vs time plot of an enzymatic reaction carried out by the enzyme 'X'
90
60
[P]
30
0 15 30 45 60 75 90
Time (seconds)
Which one of the following statements is the correct interpretation of the data?
(1) The Km and Vmax of the enzyme 'X' are 15 and 60 units, respectively.
(2) The Vmax is 60 but the Km cannot be determined
(3) The Km is 15 but the Vmax cannot be determined
(4) Neither the Km nor the Vmax of the enzyme 'X' can be determined from these data
139. Acetylcholine is potent neurotransmitter, which is released from the neurons. After release they
diffuse across the synaptic cleft and combine with nicotinic acetylcholine receptor molecules in
the membrane of the postsynaptic cell. The interaction of acetylcholine with the nicotinic
acetylcholine receptor produces large transient increase in the permeability of the membrane to
specialized ions resulting in signal transduction for nerve impulse. Acetylcholine receptor is a
(1) ligand-gated cation channel (2) ligand-gated anion channel
(3) voltage-gated cation channel (4) voltage-gated anion channel
140. In an organism, a+allele governs gray body colour, while its mutant allele a gives yellow body
colour. Further, presence of b+ allele gives long and thin hairs while b allele gives rise to short
and thick hairs. The alleles a+ and b+ are dominant over a and b, respectively. An individual with
the genotype
+ +
a b
a b
has a patch of yellow cells with short and thick hairs. Which one of the following events is most
likely to lead to the above?
(1) Non disjunction of the homologous chromosomes during mitosis
(2) Somatic recombination involving a and b
(3) Translocation occurring in a few somatic cells
(4) Mutation of both a+ and b+ alleles in the somatic cells

141. A "morphogen" can determine the fate of a cell by its concentration. Given below are some
statements on the experiment performed to study the gradient-dependent effect of the morphogen,
activin on cell fate by placing activin (4 nm)-secreting beads on unspecified cells from an early
Xenopus embryo:
a. Beads without activin did not elicit expression of either Xbra or goosecoid genes.
b. Cells nearest to the beads getting highest concentration of activin induced goosecoid
gene whose product is a transcription factor, specifies the frog's dorsal-most structures.
c. Cells nearest to the beads getting highest concentration of activin induced Xbra gene
whose product is a transcription factor, specifies the frog's dorsal-most structures.
d. Cells farthest from the beads getting negligible activin activate Xbra gene and become
blood vessels and heart.
e. Cells farthest from the beads getting negligible activin, activated neither Xbra nor goosecoid
and the 'default' gene expression instructed the cells to become blood vessels and heart,
Which of the above observations and conclusions drawn are correct?
(3) c, d and e (4) a, b and e
142. In the table below List-I lists ligands and List-II lists classes of receptors
List-I List-B
(a) Serotonin (i) Binding activates a G-protein which activates
or inhibits and enzyme that generates a
specific second messenger and opens ion
channel
(b) Interferons (ii) Binding causes receptor monomers to
dimerize. Dimeric receptor then interacts with
and activates one or more cytosolic tyrosine
protein kinases
(c) Glycine (iii) Binding changes the conformation of the
receptor so that specific ions flow through it
(d) Insulin (iv) Binding leads to activation of intrinsic tyrosine
kinase activity
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

143. The following diagram represents a longitudinal section through an Arabidopsis shoot apical
meristem (SAM) and leaf primordium at its flank. The dorsal (4) and ventral (V) domains are
marked. The D and V genes are expressed in the dorsal and ventral domains, respectively.
l
rsa
Do
Ventral
D V
SAM
Consider the following statements describing the phenotypes of leaf polarity.

a. Loss of D function makes the leaf ventralized whereas its overexpression dorsalizes the
leaf
b. Loss of V function makes the leaf dorsalized whereas its overexpression ventralizes the
leaf
c. Loss of microRNA miR166 dorsalizes the leaf whereas its overexpression ventralizes the
leaf.
d. miR166 functions by inhibiting its target mRNA.
miR166 miR166
D V D V
(1) (2)
Dorsal Ventral Dorsal Ventral
identity identity identity identity
miR166 miR166
D V D V
(3) (4)
Dorsal Ventral Dorsal Ventral
identity identity identity identity
144. Given below are a few statements on use of plant breeding to develop improved varieties of a
crop plant:
a. Genotypic/phenotypic variation in the desired trait should be available in the germplasm
resources of the crop plant.
b. Availability of molecular markers linked to the trait of interest would decelerate the process
of trait introgression into desired varieties.
c. Breeding procedures to improve plant varieties are generally more successful among
sexually compatible species as compared to sexually incompatible species
d. Co-dominant molecular markers cannot be used for selection of plants with the desired
trait
Which of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?
(1) a an c (2) b only

145. Drawn below is an intestinal epithelial cell (IEC) performing the absorption of digested
monosaccharides from the dietary carbohydrates ingested.
Fructose Lumen Glucose
Brush
border
A B
Na+
IEC
Glucose
Fructose
C
Blood
Which one of the following combinations of the transporter (A, B and C in the figure above) and
the transported monosaccharide is correct?
(1) A – GLUT5; B – SGLT1; C – GLUT2
(2) A – GLUT2 ; B – GLUT5; C – SGLT1
(3) A – SGLT1; B – GLUT2; C – GLUT5
(4) A – SGL1; B – GLUT5; C – GLUT2

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 3 2 2 3 4 4 3 3 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 2 3 2 2 4 4 4 1 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 2 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 4 1 2 2 3 3 2 4 3
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1 1 2 4 1 3 1 1 4 3
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
3 1 4 4 1 2 1 3 1 4
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
4 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 3 2
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
1 4 3 3 1 2 2 1 4 4
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
2 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 1 3
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
1 1 1 3 2 1 3 3 3 2
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
1 2 2 1 3 4 1 2 4 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
3 2 2 4 1 4 1 3 4 2
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
1 3 4 3 3 3 4 4 1 2
141 142 143 144 145
4 1 3 4

Life Sciences
Part ‘A’ : This part contains twenty (20) objective type questions. The candidates shall be required
to answer any 15 questions. Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks
answer any 35 questions. Each question shall be of two marks. The total marks allocated
to answer any 25 questions. Each question shall be of four marks. The total marks

PART-A
1. A student obtains 59, 60, 69 and 81% marks in 4 courses carrying weights in the proportion
4 : 3 : 2 : 2, respectively. The following table gives conversion of marks to grade points. What
will be the Grade Point Average of the student ?
% marks Grade Point

>89 9
80-89 8
70-79 7
60-69 6
50-59 5
<50 0
(1) 6.0 (2) 6.5
(3) 7.0 (4) 7.5
2. A clock takes 7 seconds to announce 7 o'clock by chiming seven times. How many seconds will
this clock take to announce 10 o'clock by chiming 10 times?
(1) 10 (2) 9.5
(3) 10.5 (4) 11
3.
45 50 55 60 65 70 75
Weight (kg)
The probability distribution of weights of a certain population is normal as shown in the figure.
What is the probability that the weight of a person picked at random is more than 60 kg?
(1) 1/2 (2) 1
(3) 2/3 (4) 1/3
4. There are several boulders of three types of rocks A, B and C. Each boulder of A, B and C weighs
600 kg, 300 kg and 80 kg, respectively. Each boulder of A is 8 times as valuable as that of C.
Each boulder of B is 3 times as valuable as that of C. Which of the following combinations that
can be carried using a truck of 4000 kg capacity, would be the most valuable?
(1) 6 boulders of A and 1 boulder each of B and C
(2) 6 boulders of A, none of B and 5 boulders of C
(3) 5 boulders of A, 2 boulders of B and 5 boulders of C
(4) 5 boulders of A, none of B and 12 boulders of C

5.
More daylight
L1
hours
Equal day and
equator night hours
L2 Less daylight
hours
M1 Months M2
The graph shows daylight hour variations with months at two latitudes L1 and L2. Which one of
the following can be true?
(1) L1 is 40º N and M1 is June (2) L1 is 40º S and M1 is June
(3) L2 is 40º S and M2 is June (4) L2 is 40º N and M2 is December
6. Among the children of a family, each boy has as many brothers as sisters but each girl has twice
as many brothers as sisters. How many boys and girls are there in the family?
(1) 3 boys, 2 girls (2) 2 boys, 2 girls
(3) 4 boys, 3 girls (4) 4 boys, 2 girls
7.
Temperature
Precipitation
The bubble plot shows an effect of temperature and precipitation on annual growth of trees of a
certain species. The area of a bubble is proportional to the tree-growth. Based on the plot, the
growth of the trees is
(1) directly proportional to both precipitation and temperature.
(2) directly proportional to precipitation but inversely proportional to temperature.
(3) inversely proportional to precipitation but directly proportional to temperature.
(4) inversely proportional to both precipitation and temperature.
8. Starting from the same point, two particles move along a circle of radius 10 m in opposite
directions with speeds 5 m/s and 8 m/s. At the instant of crossing each other, their speeds are
interchanged but not their directions. What would be the difference between their arrival times at
the starting point ?
3
(1) 0 s (2) s
8
13  20
(3) s (4) s
8 13 
9. lf n is an even number, then the sum of the first n natural numbers is divisible by
(1) both n and (n + 1) (2) n but not (n + 1)
(3) (n + 1) but not n (4) neither (n + 1) nor n

10. An explorer starts from a place on the equator of the Earth, travels 1500 km towards the north,
500 km towards the east, then 1500 km towards the south and finally 500 km towards the west.
He ends at a place
(1) exactly where he started. (2) to the east of where he started.
(3) to the south of where he started. (4) to the west of where he started.
11. The number of persons infected by a particular virus for the first 30 days was equal to the square
of the number of days. After 30 days, the number of infected persons doubled every 4 days. At
the end of 50 days, 3,800 persons had died and on subtracting their number from the total
number of cases, the number of infected persons was found to double every 5 days. After how
many days of the onset of the infection, did the number of infected persons become 4 lakh?
(1) 90 (2) 100
(3) 70 (4) 80
12. The equation x2 + y2 + 2x = 0 represents

(1) a parabola (2) a circle
(3) a pair of straight lines (4) a hyperbola
13. Hollow open-ended cylinders are made in two sizes, 1000 cm3 and 250cm3 , using a metal sheet.
The amount of material required to make the larger cylinder and the amount required to make four
small cylinders
(1) have to be the same (2) are always in the ratio of 1:2
(3) can be the same (4) are always in the ratio of 1:4
14. The probability that team A wins a match against team B is 2/3. If teams A and B play 4 matches
against each other, what is the probability that team A will win at least one match? (Assume that
result of one match does not influence the rest.)
(1) 2/3 (2) 4/9
(3) 1 (4) 80/81
15.
1/2
(0, 0)  x
/4 /2 3/4
–1/2
–1
Which of the following functions is represented by the given graph?
(1) sin x (2) sin 2x
(3) sin x cos x (4) sin2 x

16. In which of the following options is the amount of gold identical in the two coins? (Pure gold is
24 carat)
(1) 24g coin of 22 carat and 22g coin of 24 carat
17.
D C
A E F B
In the given rectangle ABCD, AE=EF=FB. What is the ratio of the area of triangle EFC to the area
of rectangle ABCD?
(1) 1:8 (2) 1:6
(3) 1:3 (4) 1:9
18. Of the employees of a company 60 are male and the rest are female. The overall average salary
is Rs. 9,000; the average for the female employees is Rs. 12,000 and that of male employees
is Rs. 7000. The difference between the numbers of male and female employees is
(1) 30 (2) 10
(3) 20 (4) 40
19.
A B
1 1
In the given figures shaded areas are circles. Ratio of the unshaded area in the square A to the
unshaded area in the square B is
(1) 1:1 (2) 1 : 16
(3) 1:2 (4) 16 : 1
20.
P
A B
D C
An equilateral triangle APB is constructed on side AB of the square ABCD having a side of 1 unit.
What is the radius of the circle passing through points C, P and D?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 3/2

PART-B
21. Electron transfer from donors such as NADH and FADH2 to O2 occurs in
(1) membranes of ER, chloroplast and mitochondria
(2) chloroplast only
(3) mitochondria only
(4) organellar membranes which possess ATP synthase
22. A plant that produces disc-shaped fruit is crossed with another plant that produces long fruit. All
the F1 plants gave disc-shaped fruits. When the F1 were intercrossed, F2 progeny were produced
in the following ratio: 9/16 plants with disc-shaped fruits; 6/16 plants with spherical fruits and 1/
16 plants having long fruits. Which one of the following options gives correct genotype of spherical
fruits obtained in F2 ?
(1) A_bb only (2) aaB_ only
(3) A_bb and aaB_ (4) A_B_ and aabb
23. The term “abominable mystery” was used by Darwin in the context of origin and diversification
of
(1) angiosperms (2) microorganisms
(3) beetles (4) birds
24. If bird song is selected to maximize broadcast range and to minimise degradation, then according
to the “Acoustic Adaptation Hypothesis” which of the following combination of features is likely to
be shown by birds singing in dense forests?
(1) Low frequency with narrow bandwidth
(2) High frequency with narrow bandwidth
(3) Low frequency with wide bandwidth
(4) High frequency with wide bandwidth
25. Given below is a schematic representation of a Southern blot performed to identify single copy
integration events of the T-DNA among six transgenic plants (T1 - T6).
Untrans- T1 T2 T3 T4 T5 T6
Formed
Control
Which one of the following options represents potential single copy events?
(1) T1, T5 and T6 (2) T2 and T3
(3) T4 only (4) T1 only

26. Amongst the following, which one is the most appropriate strategy to sequence and assemble
highly repeated regions of a genome?
(1) Shot gun sequencing (2) Illumina sequencing
(3) 454 sequencing (4) Sequencing of BAC libraries
27. In Trypanosoma, some of the introns generate Y shaped structure in place of a lariat. Such
structure is generated during
(1) cis-splicing (2) trans-splicing
(3) alternate splicing (4) RNA editing
28. Erythromycin is an inhibitor of protein synthesis. It acts by:

(1) binding to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome, thus inhibiting binding of aminoacyl - tRNAs.
(2) binding to 50S subunit of bacterial ribosome, thus inhibiting translocation.
(3) inhibits peptidyl transferase activity of eukaryotic 60S ribosomal subunit
(4) causes premature chain termination by acting as an analog of aminoacyl-tRNA in both
prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
29. In the enzyme-linked antibody used in ELISA, the interaction between the enzyme and antibody
is stabilized by
(1) hydrogen bond (2) Ionic bond
(3) covalent bond (4) van der Waal’s interactions
30. The translocation into which one of the organelles listed below DOES NOT depend on an amino
acid sequence as a signal for import ?
(1) Nucleus (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lysosome (4) Peroxisome
31. Which one of the following routes is responsible for maximum amount of body heat loss in
humans at an ambient temperature of 21°C?
(1) Radiation and conduction (2) Respiration
(3) Urination and defecation (4) Vaporization of sweat
32. A plot with which one of the following axes is drawn to exhibit enzyme inhibition kinetics applying
Dixon's plot ?
1 1
(1) Vi vs [I] (2) vs
Vi [I]
1 1
(3) vs[I] (4) Vi vs
Vi [I]

33. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to ecotones?
(1) Ecotones are rich in endemic species and only contain species not found in surrounding
ecosystems.
(2) Ecotones refer to areas that are under habitat degradation and contain endangered species
that are not found in the neighbouring communities
(3) Ecotones are species poor habitats due to scarcity of soil nutrients and availability of
resources
(4) Ecotones are transition areas between two ecosystems and have greater number of
species than either of the neighbouring communities.
34. The 50 km wide Palghat Gap is the only major topographic breach in the Western Ghats. This
gap continues as the Ranotsara Gap in the Angavo escarpment. Which country is the Ranotsara
Gap located in?
(1) Sri Lanka (2) Madagascar
(3) Mozambique (4) Kenya
35. Sonic hedgehog (Shh) specifies the anterior-posterior axis during limb development. Which one
of the following statements regarding it is correct?
(1) Shh secreting cells undergo apoptosis after performing its function
(2) Descendants of Shh secreting cells become the bone and muscle of the anterior limb
(3) When the genes for Shh and Gli3 are conditionally knocked out in the mouse limb, the
resulting limbs do not form any digit
(4) Specification of the digit is primarily dependent on the amount of time the Shh gene is
expressed and to a small extent on the concentration of the Shh protein that other cells
receive.
36. Suppression of VPE (Vascular Processing Enzymes) gene expression in Nicotiana benthamiana
plants will NOT
(1) abolish hypersensitive response (2) enhance TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Virus)
infection
(3) reduce caspase-like activity (4) reduce DNA fragmentation
37. Given below are plots that show changing titres of natural killer cells (NK cells), cytotoxic T-
lymphocytes specific to the virus (virus-specific CTLs) and interferon / during a virus infection.
A B
(increasing tires)
VIRUS TITRES
0 4 8 12
Days after virus infection

With respect to changing virus titers, select the plots that represent these factors correctly from
the options given below.
(1) A : Interferon; B : virus-specific CTLs; C : NK cells
(2) A : NK cells; B : Interferon; C : virus-specific CTLs.
(3) A : Interferon; B : NK cells; C: virus-specific CTLs
(4) A : virus-specific CTLs; B : Interferon; C : NK cells.
38. A gene was located on 10p11. This means the gene was located on the
(1) short arm of chromosome 10 at G-sub band 1 of band 1
(2) short arm of chromosome 10 at G-band 11
(3) short arm of chromosome 10 much away from the centromere
(4) long arm of chromosome 10 at G-sub band 1 of band 1
39. Which one of the following systems forms a chemical mediator that is involved in the mechanism
of pain during inflammation?
(1) Activated blood clotting cascade (2) Plasmin - Fibrinolytic system
(3) Kininogen - Bradykinin system (4) B-cell activation
40. Artemisinin and Dhurrin belong to which two respective groups of the plant natural compounds?
(1) Alkaloids and Terpenes
(2) Flavonoids and Alkaloids
(3) Cynogenic glycosides and Flavonoids
(4) Terpenes and Cynogenic glycosides
41. Autogamy refers to

(1) self-abortion of gametes (2) flower failing to open
(3) self-pollination of flowers (4) cross-pollination of flowers
42. In both males and females, the gonads secrete a polypeptide hormone, called inhibin B, which
inhibits
(1) luteinizing hormone (2) follicle-stimulating hormone
(3) prolactin (4) thyroid-stimulating hormone
43. Which one of the following plant pathogens has largest genome size?
(1) Phytophthora infestans (2) Ustilago maydis
(3) Botrytis cinerea (4) Fusarium graminearum
44. A lectotype refers to

(1) a specimen of the opposite sex to the holotype and designated from among paratypes.
(2) an illustration based on which a new species is described.
(3) a specimen later selected from a group of syntypes to serve as the type specimen for a
species, after its original description was published.
(4) a substitute specimen selected to serve as the type specimen of a species after its
original description was published, when an original holotype has been lost or destroyed.

45. Which one of the following enzymes present in erythrocytes helps bypass the first step of ATP
formation in glycolysis?
(1) Bisphosphoglycerate mutase
(2) Phosphoglycerate kinase
(3) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
(4) Phosphofructose mutase
46. In Agrobacterium mediated transformation, which one of the following approaches is more likely
to generate transgenic plants with INCOMPLETE transfer of the passenger gene?
(1) Placement of selection marker gene towards left border and passenger gene towards
right border of T-DNA
(2) Expression of selection marker gene under constitutive promoter and passenger gene
under tissue-specific promoter
(3) Placement of passenger gene towards left border and marker gene towards right border
of T-DNA
(4) Expression of both selection marker gene and passenger gene under constitutive promoters
47. Which one of the statements given below is INCORRECT?

(1) The three common types of membrane lipids are cholesterol, phospholipids and glycolipids
(2) Phosphoglycerides carry a glycerol backbone, two fatty acid chains, and a phosphorylated
alcohol
(3) Most phospholipids and glycolipids form bimolecular sheets rather than micelles in aqueous
media
(4) The common alcohol moieties in phosphoglycerides are glycerol, inositol, choline,
ethanolamine and tyrosine.
48. Which one of the following ensures stable binding of RNA polymerase at the promoter site?
(1) DNA photolyase (2) Sigma factor
(3) DNA glycosylase (4) Rec A
49.
The trait shown in the above pedigree is

(1) X-linked recessive trait (2) autosomal recessive trait
(3) Y-linked trait (4) X-linked dominant trait
50. In which one of the following subcellular organelles is serine synthesized during the oxidative
photosynthetic carbon (C2) pathway?
(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria
(3) Peroxisome (4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
51. Human polysyndactyly (joining of extra digits) syndrome results from a homozygous mutation at
(1) antennapedia complex locus (2) one of the genes of Hox D
(3) one of the genes of Hox C (4) -catenin locus
52. The following table lists names of scientists and advances made by them
List-I List-II
(a) Linus Pauling (i) Myoglobin structure
(b) Emil Fischer (ii) Model of -helix
(c) John Kendrew (iii) Lock and Key model
(d) Christian Anfinsen (iv) Sequence-structure relationship
Which one of the following options correctly matches contents of column A with column B?
(1) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)
53. Genome of an organism was analysed by Cot curve analysis. Highly repeated sequences
represented 30% of the total genome fraction. The Cot value of the highly repeated sequence was
found to be 0.001 moles nucleotide liter-1. What would be the actual Cot value (in moles nucleotide
liter-1) of the highly repeated sequence?
(1) 0.003 (2) 0.001
(3) 0.0003 (4) 0.007
54. The immunoglobulin heavy-chain that is rearranged first and is displayed on the surface of early
stages of B-cell development is associated with
(1) class-II associated invariant chain peptide (CLIP).
(2) a surrogate light chain
(3)  2 - macroglobulin
(4) immunoglobulin-like cell adhesion molecule.
55. In mammals, the primary circadian clock is located in which of the following parts of the brain?
(1) Occipital lobe of cerebrum (2) Amygdala
(3) Suprachiasmatic nucleus (4) Frontal lobe of cerebrum
56. A student added DMEM culture medium which was pink in colour to growing liver cells. Three
days later the medium colour was yellow. This indicated
(1) change in cell morphology
(2) change in pH of the medium
(3) depletion of nutrients in the medium
(4) lack of antibiotics in the culture
57. Which one of the following statements regarding amphibian development is correct?
(1) The Nieuwkoop centre is formed on the dorsal side of the embryo due to accumulation
of -catenin which helps activate the siamois and twin genes
(2) The ectodermal cells form neural tissues in the presence of BMP molecules
(3) Brain formation requires the activation of both Wnt and BMP pathway
(4) There is a gradient of Nodal-related protein across the endoderm with low concentration
on the dorsal side of the embryo

58. Two populations of squirrels evolved across two regions separated by a large geographic barrier.
Over a long period of time these populations are reproductively and geographically isolated from
each other. This is an example of
(1) sympatric speciation (2) allopatric speciation
(3) artificial speciation (4) anagenesis
59. A panel of six hybrid cell lines, each containing a different subset of human chromosomes, was
examined for the presence of the gene product as shown below:
Cell Gene Human chromosomes present

line product
present 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A + + + + + – – – – – –
B + – – + + + + + – – –
C – – + + – – – – + + +
D – – + – – – + + + + –
E – – + – – – + – – – –
F + + + – + + + – – – –
The gene which codes for the given gene product is located on which chromosome?
(1) Chromosomes 3, 4 or 5 (2) Chromosome 3
(3) Chromosome 3 or 4 (4) Chromosome 4
60. If the pyrollidine ring of proline is reduced to a linear form, the new amino acid will have
(1) constrained  than proline (2) constrained  than proline
(3) relaxed  than proline (4) unaffected  and 
61. In Africa “AS” represents a carrier of sickle cell anaemia, where A is the allele for normal
haemoglobin and S for sickle cell haemoglobin. If the allele S is maintained at a high frequency
in some populations, this represents a case of
(1) homozygote advantage (2) heterozygote advantage
(3) dominance (4) genetic drift
62. Which one of the following is NOT released by sympathetic preganglionic neurons?
(1) Neurotensin (2) Enkephalin
(3) Serotonin (4) Substance P
63. Dr. Ralph M. Steinman was awarded Nobel Prize for his discovery on:
(1) acquired immunological tolerance
(2) role of major histocompatibility complex in antigen recognition by T-cells
(3) chemical structure of antibody
(4) role of dendritic cells in adaptive immunity
64. Which one of the following conditions will switch on Lac operon in E. coli?
(1) + Glucose, + Lactose (2) + Glucose, - Lactose
(3) - Glucose, - Lactose (4) - Glucose, + Lactose
65. The maximum frequency of recombination that can occur between two loci is
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (4) 100%
66. Receptor for which one of the following proteins spans the plasma membrane of target cells but
DOES NOT contain intrinsic protein kinase activity?
(1) Epidermal growth factor (2) Insulin
(3) Insulin like growth factor (4) Growth hormone
67. According to Hamilton’s rule, 'r' is the coefficient of relatedness between two interacting individuals,
'B' is the benefit to the recipient and 'C' is the cost to the donor. Which of the following relationships
will result in an altruistic behaviour?
(1) rB = C (2) rC – B = 0
(3) r > C/B (4) rC – B > 0
68. Which one of the following statements regarding double fertilization in plants is correct?
(1) The same sperm cell fuses with both egg cell and central cell
(2) Two sperm cells fuse with the egg cell
(3) One sperm cell fuses with the egg cell and second with the central cell
(4) Two sperm cells fuse with the central cell.
69. Spermidine represents which of the following group of compounds:

(1) jasmonic acid (2) polyamine
(3) auxin (4) strigolactone
70. Given below are the survivorship curves showing the proportion of individuals surviving over time
or age. Three generalised types of curves (a, b and c) are depicted below. Which of the following
represent the correct survivorship curve for the given organisms?
100
a
individuals surviving
Percentage of
0 Age
(1) a = Elephants; b= Lizards; c = Oysters
(2) a = Oysters; b = Elephants; c = Lizards
(3) a = Lizards; b = Oysters; c = Elephants
(4) a = Oysters; b = Lizards; c = Elephants

PART-C
71. A researcher intends to stimulate neurons via glutamate receptors in medial septum of an
experimental animal. The following apparatus/ instruments are available in the laboratory:
(a) Stereotaxic apparatus
(b) Slow perfusion pump
(c) Microcannula
(d) Radiofrequency lesion maker
(e) Electrical stimulator
(f) Nichrome coated bipolar steel electrode
Which one of the following options contains all the correct items required for the experiment?
(1) a and b only (2) a, b and c
(3) d and e only (4) d, e and f
72. Given below are proposed analogous structures among organisms.

(a) wings of birds and bats
(b) wings of bats and tetrapod digits
(c) tendrils of vitis and tendrils of pumpkin
(d) tubers of potatoes and sweet potatoes
(e) fins of fish and flippers of a whale
Which one of the following options correctly states the analogous structures?
(1) a, c and d (2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and e (4) a, d and e
73. E coli cells were simultaneously infected with two strains of phage . One strain of  had a
mutant host range, is temperature sensitive and known to produce clear plaques (genotype h st
c); another strain of  carried the wild type alleles (genotype h+ st+ c+). Progeny phages were
collected from the lysed cells and were plated on bacteria. The following numbers of different
progeny were obtained:
Progeny Phage Genotype Number of Plaques
+ + +
h c st 350
h+ c st 86
+ +
h c st 4
h c st 300
+ +
h c st 90
h c st+ 6
+ +
h c st 114
+
h c st 50
What will be the order of the three genes and the map distance between them?
(1) h c st (2) c h st
36cM 15cM 21cM 15cM
(3) h st c (4) h c st
21cM 15cM 36cM  cM

74. The table below lists cell cycle regulatory proteins and their known functions
Cell Cycle Regulatory Proteins Function
(a) Cdk - activating kinase (CAK) (i) Suppresses G1/S-Cdk and S-Cdk activation
in G1; helps cells withdraw from cell cycle
when they terminaly differentiate;
phosphorylation by Cdk2 triggers its
ubiquitylation by SCF.
(b) Wee1 kinase (ii) Suppresses G1/S-Cdk and S-Cdk activities
following DNA damages
(c) p27 (mammals) (iii) Phosphorylates inhibitory sites in Cdks:
primarily involved in suppressing Cdk1 activity
before mitosis
(d) p21 (mammals) (iv) Phosphorylates an activating site in Cdks
Which one of the following options represents the correct match between cell cycle regulatory
proteins with their known functions?
(1) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)
75. Kallmann syndrome generally exhibits gonadal dysfunctions in males. Following statements are
made relating to such males.
(a) They mostly suffer from hypergonadism
(b) They mostly suffer from hypogonadism
(c) They have higher level of circulating gonadotropins
(d) They have lower level of circulating gonadotropins
Which one of the following combinations of statements is correct?
76. In C. elegans, activation of the CED-3 and CED-4 proteins are essential for the apoptosis
pathway. In addition, gain-of-function mutations in the ced-9 gene cause its protein to be made
in cells that would normally die, resulting in survival of those cells. Given these facts, which one
of the following diagrams correctly represents a cell death pathway?
EGL-1 EGL-1
CED-4 CED-3
CED-3 CED-4
(1) (2)
CED-9 CED-9
Apoptosis Apoptosis

CED-4 EGL-1
EGL-1 CED-9
CED-9 CED-4
(3) (4)
CED-3 CED-3
Survival Apoptosis
77. cGMP is produced from GTP by the enzyme guanylate cyclase which exists in soluble and
membrane-bound forms. Following statements are made related to signaling molecules that are
associated with cGMP signaling cascade.
(a) Atrial natriuretic factor causes natriuresis and diuresis by interacting with membrane-
bound form of guanylate cyclase.
(b) Nitroglycerin causes smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation by interacting with soluble
form of guanylate cyclase.
(c) Nitroprusside causes smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation by interacting with
membrane-bound form of guanylate cyclase.
(d) Atrial natriuretic factor causes natriuresis and diuresis by interacting with soluble form of
guanylate cyclase.
78. Given below are four DNA sequences and a set of forward and reverse primers for PCR
amplification.
Sequence Primes
(a) 5'-ACAATCGT.....ACTAGTAC - 3’ FP:5'-TGTTAG-3’
RP: 5’-TAGTAC-3’
(b) 5'-AGTCTTAG.....ATGCCAGT-3’ FP:5'-AAGACT-3'
RP: 5’-ACTGGC-3'
(c) 5'-CTTGACTA.....GTACAGTCA-3’ FP:5'-CTTGAC-3’
RP:5’-TGACTG-3’
(d) 5'-GATCTAGC.....TCAAGCAGAC-3' FP: 5'-GATCTA-3’
RP: 5’-CAGACG-3’
In the absence of any other factors such as (but not restricted to) Tm, length, percent GC, etc.,
which one of the above template-primers combinations would produce an amplified fragment?
(1) Both (a) and (c) (2) (b) only
(3) Both (c) and (d) (4) (c) only

79. The following statements are made with reference to the replication of DNA.
(a) The eukaryotic counterpart of the bacterial -clamp protein is proliferating cell nuclear
antigen (PCNA)
(b) Mutation inactivating one of the subunits of the Mcm 2-7 complex negatively affects the
initiation of DNA replication in eukaryotes, but has no effect on elongation of the replication
fork
(c) All DNA polymerases responsible for replicating the eukaryotic genome catalyze DNA
chain extension in a DNA template-dependent manner.
(d) The FENI protein plays a role in the synthesis of the lagging strand during DNA replication
as well as in base excision repair
Which one of the following options represents INCORRECT statement(s) ?
(1) b only (2) b and c only
(3) b and d only (4) a, b and c
80. Loss of a large quantity of blood in an individual due to haemorrhage provokes many physiological
changes which are compensatory and decompensatory in nature. The following statements
describe few compensatory or decompensatory mechanisms operating in this condition.
(a) The peripheral chemoreceptors are stimulated when arterial blood pressure is reduced
below 60 mm Hg due to blood loss
(b) The cardiovascular centres in the brain stem become depressed in severe hypotension
due to blood loss.
(c) The mononuclear phagocytic system becomes depressed during the course of
haemorrhagic hypotension
(d) Renin is secreted from juxtaglomerular apparatus in haemorrhagic hypotension.
(e) Considerable quantity of interstitial fluid may be drawn into circulation due to lower
hydrostatic pressure in capillaries resulting from blood loss.
Choose the option describing only the decompensatory mechanisms:
81. According to the classical Lotka-Volterra competition model, which of the following conditions
allow for co-existence of two competing species?
(1) both species are equally capable of inhibiting each other
(2) intraspecific competition of each species > interspecific competition
(3) intraspecific competition < interspecific competition
(4) there is no intraspecific competition in either species

82. The figure below represents a profile of DNA markers in two parents (P1 and P2), progeny (F1)
from a cross between P1 and P2 and that of gametes produced from F1. Eight different patterns
(DH1 to DH8) were observed in case of gametes. The numbers below, DH1 to DH8 indicate the
number of individuals observed in each case
DH1 DH2 DH3 DH4 DH5 DH6 DH7 DH8
P1 P2 F1
(12) (13) (14) (11) (10) (15) (14) (11)
a e
d
Based on the above observations, the following statements were made:
(a) Markers 'b' and 'f' are likely to be allelic in nature
(b) Markers 'c' and 'd' are linked in trans with a map distance of 24 cM
(c) Marker 'b' assorts independently from marker 'c'
Which one of the following have a combination of all correct statements?
(1) a, b and c (2) a and b
(3) a only (4) c only
83. A researcher developed a mutant of Arabidopsis plant where the function of SLEEPY 1 (SLY1)
containing SCF complex has been disrupted. Which one of the following statements is
INCORRECT in the developed mutant in relation to gibberellic acid (GA) signal transduction?
(1) GA will bind to GA-insensitive dwarf 1 (GID1) protein
(2) A complex of GA-GID1 and DELLA protein will be formed
(3) The DELLA protein will be ubiquitinated
(4) The DELLA protein will not be degraded.
84. Co-existence of several species of birds in an area is possible under the following conditions
(1) High niche overlap and high niche differentiation
(2) Low niche overlap and high niche differentiation
(3) High niche overlap and low niche differentiation
(4) Low niche overlap and low niche differentiation

85.
(i) Positive skew
a b c
(ii) Negative skew
c b a
In the two graphs given above, what do a, b and c refer to:
(1) a = mean, b = median, c = mode (2) a = median, b = mode, c = mean
(3) a = mode, b = median, c = mean (4) a = mean, b = mode, c = median
86. Following are the statements which explain why patients with -linked hyper-lgM syndrome express
normal genes for other antibody subtypes but fail to produce IgG, IgA, or IgE:
(a) CD40 expressed on B cells is defective
(b) CD40L mediates binding of B-cells to T-cells and sends co-stimulatory signals to the B-
cells for class switching
(c) Without CD40 on macrophage, class switching does not occur
(d) CD40L mediates binding of B-cells to macrophages and sends co-stimulatory signals to
the B-cells for class switching.
Select the option with correct combination.
(1) a, c and d (2) a, b and c
(3) a and b (4) a and d
87. Given below is a list of natural disturbances.

(a) Coral bleaching (b) Rising sea levels
(c) Shifts in species distribution (d) Lowering of sea levels
(e) Increase in glacial sheets
Which one of the following combinations of disturbances can be attributed to global warming?
(1) a, d and e (2) a, b and c
(3) b, c and e (4) c, d and e
88. Dark grown Arabidopsis seedlings when exposed to ethylene gas shows typical triple response.
Following are certain statements regarding the triple response:
(a) A dominant ethylene receptor mutant will not show triple response in the presence of
ethylene.
(b) Tightening of apical hook is one of the features of triple response.
(c) Loss of function of multiple receptors will show triple response even in the absence of
ethylene.
(d) Increase in hypocotyl length is a feature of triple response.
(1) a, b and c (2) a, c and d
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b and d
89. The statements given below refer to the lambda phage.

(a) Clear plaques are formed in Q mutants
(b) No plaques are formed in nut mutants
(c) Clear plaques are formed in cll mutants
(d) Turbid plaques are formed in integrase mutants
(e) Clear plaques are formed in P mutants
(f) No plaques are formed in cl mutants
Which of the following combination of statements is correct?
(1) a, b and f only (2) c, d and e only
(3) b and c only (4) d and f only
90. The discharge patterns in a single afferent nerve fibre from carotid sinus at various levels of mean
arterial pressure (MAP) are plotted against changes in aortic pressure with time in the following
figure:
Pressure
Phasic
aortic
50
Pressure (mm Hg)
75
Mean Arterial
100
125
200
0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0

Time (s)
The following statements were proposed from the above figure:
(a) Baroreceptors are more sensitive to phasic change of aortic pressure at normal MAP
(b) The baroreceptor firing rate is reduced at lower MAP than in normal MAP
(c) The phasic change in baroreceptor fibre is less prominent at lower MAP
(d) A burst of action potentials appear in a single baroreceptor fibre during diastole at normal
MAP
(e) The discharge of baroreceptors even extends to systole at higher MAP
Choose the option with both CORRECT statements:
91. Creationism is rejected by evolutionary biologists because

(1) it offers no explanation about the origin of adaptation
(2) it suggests that all species descended from a common ancestor
(3) theologians have not settled on a date for the origin of life on earth
(4) supernatural events have not been shown to be very common

92. The figure below shows a gene duplication event followed by a divergence event in species 1 and
2.
White colour
Ancestral gene
Gene duplication
Different colour
Evolutionary Divergence
B
Based on the details given above determine what is represented by A and B
(1) A : duplicated genes; B : ancestral genes
(2) A : paralogs; B : ancestral genes
(3) A : orthologs; B : paralogs
(4) A : paralogs; B : orthologs
93. The Hill equation and its plot describe the following enzyme kinetic behaviours
(a) Saturation Kinetics (b) Cooperative Kinetics
(c) Log Vi/(Vmax – Vi) versus Log[s] (d) Log (Vmax – Vi)/ Vi versus Log[s]–1
Which one of the following combination represents correct descriptions?
(1) a and c (2) b and c
(3) b and d (4) a and d
94. Calvin-Benson cycle is divided into three phases, namely carboxylation, reduction and regeneration.
The following statements are related to the three phases of Calvin-Benson cycle:
(a) The product of light reaction, ATP and NADPH is utilized in the carboxylation phase.
(b) Six molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate is converted into six molecules of glyceraldehyde 3-
phosphate in the reduction phase.
(c) The action of aldolase enzyme for the production of fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate takes
place in reduction phase
(d) Formation of seven carbon compound, sedoheptulose-7- phosphate takes place in the
regeneration phase
Which one of the following combinations is correct?
(1) a and c (2) b and d
(3) a and b (4) c and d

95. Several marine organism release their gametes into the environment, where sperm attraction and
subsequent events lead to successful fertilization. With reference to sea urchins, which one of
the following statements is NOT true?
(1) Addition of resact into a drop of seawater containing sperms specifically attracts sperms
of A. punctulata.
(2) IP3 is formed initially at the site of sperm entry and releases sequestered Ca2+
(3) Ca2+ prevents docking of cortical granules of the egg to the cell membrane
(4) Inhibitors that specifically block PLCy can be circumvented by microinjecting IP3 into the
egg.
96. The following information refers to ecological interactions.

List-I List-II
(a) Bass introduction into aquatic (i) Bioaccumulation
systems
(b) Beavers (ii) Aposematism
(c) Sea bird (such as puffins) (iii) Keystone species
(d) Yellow and black stripes in a wasp (iv) Trophic cascade
Which one of the following options represents the correct match between List-I and List-II
(1) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
97. The following statements are made with reference to membrane fusion reactions in vesicle
transport catalyzed by transmembrane SNARE proteins.
(a) The SNARE transmembrane proteins exist as complementary sets, with v-SNARES on
vesicle membranes and t-SNARES on target membranes
(b) A v-SNARE is usually composed of 3 proteins and t-SNARE is a single polypeptide chain
(c) The v-SNARE and t-SNARE proteins of a pair interact via helical domains possessed by
the two proteins, resulting in formation of a stable two-helix bundle
(d) Membrane fusion is catalysed by the energy that is freed when the interacting helices
wrap around each other to pull the membrane faces together, concurrently squeezing out
water molecules from the interface.
98. The following statements are related to transcription in bacteria/ eukaryotes.

(a) During concurrent promoter sequence recognition and melting, melting commences with
base flipping where two bases are flipped out into pockets of the primary sigma factor
(b) Binding of -amanitin to RNA polymerase II permits entry of nucleotides into RNA pol II
active site and synthesis of RNA, but prevents translocation
(c) RNA polymerase I can use upstream promoters with 3 consensus sequences, as well as
internal promoters having a bipartite structure
(d) FACT is associated with RNA polymerase during transcriptional elongation and helps
displace histone octomers during transcription
Which of the following combinations of statements represents all correct statements?
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d
(3) b, c and d (4) b and d only

99. Three strains of pathogenic bacteria were found to express proteins mimicking human proteins
associated with complement pathway. Bacterium ‘X’ expressed on its surface proteins mimicking
Decay Accelerating Factor (DAF) and Complement Receptor 1 (CR1). Bacterium 'Y' secreted a
protein that mimicked protein S of humans and bacterium 'Z' secreted protein that mimicked
Factor I activity.
Given below are statements on the possible effect of complement activation on these pathogenic
bacteria. Select the INCORRECT statement.
(1) Bacterium X will prevent formation of C3 convertase on its surface by alternate and
classical pathways.
(2) Bacterium Y will prevent formation of C3 convertase on its surface by lectin pathway.
(3) Bacterium Z will be susceptible to complement attack by Membrane Attack Complex
(MAC) despite secreting Factor I-like protein to cleave C3b and C4b.
(4) Bacterium Y will prevent formation of Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) on its surface.
100. The three domain classification of life proposed by Carl Woese divides life forms on the basis
of
(1) mitochondrial DNA and membrane structures
(2) ribosomal rRNA and protein sequences
(3) mitochondrial DNA and protein sequences
(4) presence of single or double membranes
101. In classical Anfinsen’s protein folding experiment the enzymatically active ribonuclease is treated
with -mercaptoethanol and 8 M urea. Following which, the preparation was
(a) dialyzed to remove the -mercaptoethanol and 8 M urea
(b) the sample was completely oxidized in 8M urea after dialysis
(c) trace amounts of -mercaptoethanol was added to the dialysed sample
(d) 8M urea was added to the dialyzed sample
Which one of the following steps will lead to regaining of the full enzymatic activity of ribonuclease?
(1) a followed by c (2) A followed by b
(3) a followed by d (4) A alone
102. Body weight of rabbits is determined by pairs of alleles at two loci, 'a' and 'b', that are additive
and equal in their effects. Rabbits with genotype a– a– b– b– have average 1 kg body weight,
whereas individuals with genotype a+ a+ b+ b+ have animals that average 3.4 kg in weight. A male
rabbit with a– a– b– b– is crossed with a female of genotype a+ a+ b+ b+. What will be predicted
average weight of F1 progeny of this cross?
(1) 2.2 kg (2) 1.6 kg
(3) 1.2 kg (4) 2.8 kg
103. Felsenstein zone in a phylogenetic tree refers to a region of tree space where,
(1) maximum likelihood would be inconsistent
(2) lineages converge due to shared common ancestry
(3) outgroups relationship is influential
(4) Maximum parsimony would be inconsistent

104. Select the correct statement. The bark of a woody plant is collectively made up of the following
tissues:
(1) primary phloem, primary phloem fibres, pericycle and periderm
(2) primary xylem, primary phloem fibres, stem cortex, rays, and periderm
(3) vascular cambium, rays, pericycle and periderm
(4) secondary phloem, secondary phloem fibres, stem cortex, pericycle and periderm
105. Curled wing (cu), ebony body colour (e) and sepia eye (se) are three recessive mutations that
occur in fruit flies. The loci for these mutations have been mapped and they are separated by the
following hypothetical map distances:
cu e se
20 cM 12 cM
The interference between these genes is 0.4.
A mutant cu e se fly was crossed with a homozygous wild type fly. The resulting F1 females were
test crossed that produced 1800 progeny. What number of flies in each phenotype class is likely
to be obtained in the progeny of the test cross?
(1) Non recombinants will be 1250; single crossover between cu and e 334; single cross over
between e and se 190; double cross over 26
(2) Non recombinants 1181; single crossover between cu and e 360; single cross over
between e and se 216; double cross over 43
(3) Non recombinants 1198; single crossovers 576; double cross overs 26
(4) Non recombinants 1233; single crossover 524; double cross over 43
106. A species of plant (species 1) is diploid (2n = 6) with chromosomes AABBCC and a related
species (species 2) is also diploid (2n = 4) with chromosomes PPQQ. The following statements
were given by students regarding the chromosome numbers involving these plant species:
(a) Autotriploid of species 1 will have 12 chromosomes
(b) Allotetraploid involving species 1 and 2 will have 16 chromosomes
(c) A monosomy in species 1 will generate 5 chromosomes
(d) A double trisomy in species 1 will generate 8 chromosomes
(e) A nullisomy in species 2 will generate 2 chromosomes
The combination of statements with all correct answers is:
(3) c, d and e (4) d, e and a
107. Given below is a list of plant species and reproductive forms :

Plant species Reproductive form
(i) Gingko
(ii) Conifers (a) Monoecious
(iii) Poplar
(iv) Maize
(v) Date palm (b) Dioecious
(vi) Mango
Which one of the following options correctly matches all the given plant species with their
reproductive forms?
(1) a = (i), (iii), (v); b = (ii), (iv), (vi) (2) a = (i), (ii), (v); b = (iii), (iv), (vi)
(3) a = (ii), (iv), (vi); b = (i), (iii), (v) (4) a = (iii), (iv), (vi); b = (i), (ii), (v)
108. Given below are statements related to various molecular techniques

(a) During molecular cloning of DNA fragments, a vector and insert molecule digested with
two different enzymes can never be ligated with each other.
(b) Only 3’  5’ exonucleases and not 5‘  3’ exonucleases can be used for digesting nucleic
acids to generate blunt-ended fragments for cloning.
(c) In Sanger's dideoxy sequencing method, each reaction consists of a mixture of three
dNTPs and one ddNTP.
(d) Self-ligation of a vector with compatible ends can be prevented by treatment with alkaline
phosphatase.
Which one of the following options represents a combination of correct statements?
(1) b and c (2) a and d
(3) c and d (4) a and b
109. Given below are four sentences with blanks (labelled X, Y, Z and L).
(a) RNA Pol I transcribes X
(b) miRNA genes are transcribed by Y
(c) The RNA polymerase found only in plants is Z
(d) tasiRNAs are synthesized by L
Which one of the following options would present the combination of all terms (in the order X, Y,
Z and L) to complete the above sentences correctly
(1) X - mRNAs; Y - RNA Pol Il; Z - RNA pol IV; L- RNA Pol III
(2) X - tRNAs; Y - RNA Pol Ill; Z - RNA pol V; L - RNA Pol I
(3) X - 45S rRNA; Y - RNA Pol Il; Z - RNA pol V; L- RNA Pol II
(4) X - 18S rRNA; Y - RNA Pol V; Z - RNA pol IV; L - RNA Pol I
110. The following statements describe the propensity and role of amino acids in the secondary
structure of proteins
(a) Alanine has a high frequency of occurrence in -helices
(b) Proline has a high frequency of occurrence in -helices
(c) The x1, does not affect the helix propensity of serine, threonine and valine
(d) Peptide bonds involving 'N' of proline may display cis-trans isomerism
Choose the correct combination.
(1) a and d (2) a and c
(3) b and c (4) c and d

111. Given below are the possible reasons of high probability for extinction of species:
(i) Increased homozygosity of alleles
(ii) Increased heterozygosity of alleles
(iii) Decreasing population sizes
(iv) Increasing demographic stochasticity
(v) Decreasing environmental stochasticity
Which one of the following options represents the correct combination of reasons that can lead
to the highest probability of extinction of species?
(1) (ii), (iii) and (v) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii), (iii) and (vi)
112. Pathogens continuously evolve strategies to evade host immune responses. For each of the
following evasion strategies (listed in List-I) match the pathogen (listed in List-II) which adopts it:
List-II List-II
(a) Changing the antigen expressed (i) Influenza virus
on their surface
(b) Increasing phagocytic activity of (ii) Neisseria
macrophage
(c) Developing resistance to (iii) Gram +ve bacteria
complement-mediated lysis
(d) Secreting proteases to inactivate (iv) No bacteria
antibodies
(e) Allowing point mutations in surface
epitopes resulting in antigenic drift
Choose the correct match
(1) (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv); (e)-(i)
(2) (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii); (e)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii); (e)-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii); (e)-(i)
113. For a given immunological application [List-I], select the type of antibody [List-II] that should be
used:
List-I List-II
(a) Bacterial agglutination (i) Only monoclonal
(b) Western blotting (ii) Only polyclonal
(c) Detection of a cytokine using a (iii) Either monoclonal or polyclonal
solid phase ELISA
(d) Diagnostic tissue typing
Choose the option with correct matches between terms of List-I and II.
(1) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

114. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to drug metabolism?
(1) The therapeutic window is simply the range of plasma drug concentrations in which the
drug has therapeutic benefits without causing extra safety risks due to drug toxicity.
(2) Each individual drug molecule is metabolized by a specific drug-metabolizing enzyme that
is dedicated to metabolism of that drug.
(3) An ultrafast metabolizer is a person who metabolizes a drug too quickly and is at a risk
of drug overdose
(4) A poor metabolizer is a person who cannot metabolize a drug properly and faces risk of
underdose.
115. Dreisch performed the "pressure plate experiment" to alter the distribution of nuclei in a 8-cell sea
urchin embryo. He obtained normal larvae from these embryos. Following possible conclusions
could be drawn:
(a) Prospective potency of the blastomeres is less than the actual prospective fate.
(b) Sea urchin embryo is a "harmonious equipotential system" implying that cell interaction is
critical for normal development.
(c) Prospective potency of the blastomere is greater than the actual prospective fate.
(d) Prospective potency of the blastomere is equal to the prospective fate.
Which one of the following combinations of statements represents the correct inference from the
experiment?
(3) b only (4) d only
116. An antigen was injected into a mouse. Macrophages and antigen primed TH cells were isolated
from this mouse to perform the following in vitro experiments:
(a) Macrophages were treated with the antigen for an hour and then incubated with TH cells.
(b) Macrophages were treated with paraformaldehyde first and then treated with the antigen
for an hour. These macrophages were then incubated with TH cells.
(c) Macrophages were treated with paraformaldehyde first then treated with the digested
(proteolytically cleaved) antigen for an hour. These macrophages were then incubated
with TH cells.
(d) Macrophages were treated with the antigen for an hour and then treated with
paraformaldehyde. These macrophages were then incubated with TH cells.
Which of the above experiments would lead to TH cells proliferation?
(1) a and d only (2) b only
(3) a, c and d only (4) c and d only

117. The NPR1 (non-expressor of pathogenesis-related genes 1) and two SA receptors (NPR3 and
NPR4) are known to play important role in SA mediated plant defense. The following statements
were made regarding their role in infected and non-infected tissues of the plants:
(a) In the infected tissue, SA binds to NPR3 and induces degradation of NPR1 to promote cell
death.
(b) In the infected tissue, SA binds to NPR4 and blocks the degradation of NPR1 to promote
cell death.
(c) In the non-infected tissue, SA binds to NPR4 and blocks the degradation of NPR1 to
favour cell survival.
(d) In the non-infected tissue, SA binds to NPR3 and promotes degradation of NPR1 to favour
cell survival.
118. Given below are few statements related to DNA replication:

(a) Replication in eukaryotic chromosomes from the origin(s) is initiated multiple times in
each cell cycle while it is initiated only once in each cell cycle at the origin in bacterial
chromosomes
(b) Improper reinitiation of replication in a eubacterial chromosome is prevented by hemi-
methylation status of the bacterial origin
(c) DNA polymerase III is the major replication polymerase responsible for de novo synthesis
of both leading and lagging strands of DNA in E. coli
(d) Rolling circle mode of replication produces multiple units of the original molecule
Which one of the following options represents INCORRECT statement(s)?
(1) a only (2) Both b and c
(3) Both a and d (4) b only
119. Expression of gene 'A' is a regulated by Mg2+. The expression of gene 'A' in untreated (UN) and
cells treated with Mg2+ (T) was analysed by Northern hybridization (N) and Western blotting (W).
A similar exercise was done for a mutant (Mut) which was isolated with a 6 bp deletion in 5’UTR
of the transcript of gene 'A'. The following are summary of four possible results that are hypothesized
to be obtained
UN T UN T
N N
WT WT
W W
(a) (b)
N N
Mut Mut
W W
UN T UN T
N N
WT WT
W W
(c) (d)
N N
Mut Mut
W W

UN = Untreated Cells, WT = Wild type cells, T = Cells treated with Mg2+, Mut = Cell with mutation
in gene A, N = Northern hybridization, W = Western blotting
lf the regulation of gene 'A' expression is controlled ONLY at the level of translation, which of the
above profile/s are possible correct representation of the experimental results.
(1) a only (2) d only
120. Given below are some terms in List-I and their corresponding properties/related terms in List-II
List-I List-II
(a) Bulk segregant analysis (i) QTL analysis of wider genetic diversity using
fewer individuals
(b) NILs (ii) Mapping monogenic qualitative trails
(c) Association mapping (iii) Co-dominant markers
(d) SNPs (iv) Repeated backcrossing of F1 to recurrent
parent
Which one of the following options represents the most appropriate match between all terms of
List-I and II ?
(1) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
121. The continued expression of engrailed and wingless is maintained by interactions between the
Engrailed- and Wingless-expressing cells. The following statements are given towards the initiation
of the cascade of events that occur for this interaction:
(a) The engrailed gene is expressed in cells where neither even skipped nor fushi tarazu gene
is active.
(b) The wingless gene is expressed in those cells that contain high concentration of either
Even skipped or Fushi tarazu.
(c) Wingless is a secreted protein, diffuses to the surrounding, binds with the Frizzled and
Lrp6 receptor proteins and activates engrailed gene via Armadillo.
(d) Hedgehog protein activates the transcription of engrailed and also activates its own
transcription.
(e) Hedgehog protein diffuses from cells and binds to Patched receptor on neighbouring cells
and enables transcription of wingless gene.
Which combination of above statements correctly represent the maintenance of engrailed and
wingless expression?
(1) a and b (2) b and d
(3) a and d (4) c and e
122. In some sheep, horns are produced by an autosomal allele, 'H', that is dominant in males and
recessive in females. H+H+ individuals are hornless. A horned female is crossed with a hornless
male. One of the resulting F1 females is crossed with a hornless male. What proportion of the
male and female progeny of F1 will have horns?
(1) 50% of male and 50% of female progeny will be horned
(2) 50% of male progeny but none of the female progeny will be horned
(3) 25% of male and 25% of female progeny will he horned
(4) 100% of male progeny and 50% of female progeny will be horned

123. Distance matrix of five species A to E is given below.

A B C D E
A 0
B 2 0
C 6 5 0
D 10 4 8 0
E 8 6 4 3 0
Which one of the following topologies represents the accurate species relationships among
species A to E if UPGMA clustering method is used for the given data?
7.5 7.5
5.5 5.5
(1) (2)
2 3 2 3
A B C D E A B D C E
7.5 7.5
5.5 5.5
(3) (4)
2 3 2 3
A B D E C A B C D E
124. An experiment was performed to introduce a transgenic trait in a crop plant by Agrobacterium -
mediated transformation using a transgene construct in which the transgene was expressed
using the CaMV 35S promoter. It was observed that expression levels of the transgenic protein
were very low in all transgenic plants while transgene mRNA levels were high and variable among
different plants. Further, different transgenic lines contained different numbers of the T-DNA insert.
The following statements were made to explain the above observation:
(a) Variations in the number of T-DNA inserts in different transgenic plants is due to more
number of host cells getting infected with the T-DNA
(b) Low expression levels of the transgenic protein in all transgenic plants could be due to
codon usage variations between the host plant and the heterologous source of the transgene
(c) The coding sequence of the transgene contained sequences that destabilized the transgene
mRNA
(d) Variation in copy number of T-DNA in different transgenic plants is due to variation in the
promoter used to express the transgene.
(1) a only (2) b and c
(3) a and d (4) b only
125. The electrical response of the afferent nerve terminal in a Pacinian corpuscle (PC), after application
of different grades of pressure, are proposed in the following statements:
(a) A non-propagated depolarizing potential or receptor potential is elicited when small magnitude
of pressure is applied to PC.
(b) The magnitude of receptor potential is increased as the pressure to PC is increased.
(c) An action potential is generated when receptor potential attains a critical value.
(d) The receptor potential shows all-or-none response.
(e) The receptor potential is not a graded potential.
Choose the option with both INCORRECT statements:
126. To study the effect of temperature on seed germination, 16 seeds of a plant species were
selected for an experiment. A total of four temperature treatments were provided to sets of four
seeds to study the onset of germination. What would be the within, between and total degrees
of freedom, respectively, in an analysis of variance?
(1) 3, 15 and 18 (2) 16, 4 and 20
(3) 4, 16 and 20 (4) 15, 3 and 18
127. The following statements were made to describe the role of Gibbs free energy
(a) Reaction can take place spontaneously if G is negative
(b) Reaction can take place spontaneously if G is positive
(c) G provides no information about the rate of a reaction
(d) G estimation provides the rate of a reaction.
Which one of the following represents all correct statements?
(1) a and c (2) b and c
(3) a and d (4) b and d
128. Gene therapy Is a promising tool for addressing several diseases in humans. With respect to the
above, which one of the following statements is FALSE?
(1) Gene therapy involves the direct genetic modification of the cells/model to achieve a
therapeutic goal.
(2) Current gene therapy is directed at modifying somatic cells.
(3) The only successful gene therapies are those in which cells are removed from a patient,
genetically modified, and then reintroduced into patients.
(4) Recessively inherited disorders are good targets for gene therapy.
129. Suresh was bitten by a poisonous snake and was immediately treated with anti-venom human
immunoglobulin and was saved. A year later he was bitten by the same type of snake second
time. Predict his response to the venom from second bite from the following:
(1) He will be fully protected from the effects of the poison second time because he developed
adaptive immunity after first snake bite.
(2) He will be equally sensitive as first encounter because there would be no recall of the first
encounter.
(3) There are residual cells or anti-venom antibodies that were involved in the original/first
encounter, hence he will be protected.
(4) There will be memory cells made after the first encounter hence he will be more sensitive.
130. Given below is a partial coding sequence of a gene:

5' - A A T G G A C G C A T G T G T C G A T G G - 3'
Which one of the following polypeptides CANNOT be produced by transcription and translation
of the above DNA sequence in any of the three possible reading frames?
(1) Asn - Gly - Arg - Met - Cys - Arg - Trp
(2) Asn - Ala - Cys - Phe - Ser - His
(3) Met - Asp - Ala - Cys - Val - Asp
(4) Trp - Thr - His - Val - Ser - Met

131. In high altitude, a number of compensatory mechanisms operate over a period of time to increase
altitude tolerance in humans which is called acclimatization. The following statements propose
these compensatory changes:
(a) The initial increase of ventilation is relatively small in high altitude but the ventilation
steadily increases over next few days.
(b) Red blood cell 2, 3-DPG is increased.
(c) The blood pH becomes more alkaline.
(d) The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left.
(e) The pH of cerebrospinal fluid is further increased.
Choose the option with both INCORRECT statements:
132. Appendix masculina is found in

(1) second abdominal appendages of male palaemon
(2) second maxillipede of male palaemon
(3) maxilla of both sexes of palaemon
(4) mandibles of male palaemon
133. A large patch of forested area was devastated by raging fires. After some years, the area was
found to recover its species. Which one of the following options best describes the process of
re-establishment in the area?
(1) mosses and lichens  grasses  shrubs and small plants  woody trees
(2) grasses  woody trees  herbs and shrubs  mosses and lichens
(3) woody plants  lichens and mosses  herbs and shrubs
(4) grasses  herbs and shrubs  woody trees
134. The mammalian protein HP1 plays a major role in heterochromatinization and silencing. The
following mutations are proposed to negatively impact HP1 function.
(a) Mutation inactivating the deacetylase that targets H3K14Ac
(b) Mutation inactivating HP1 bromo-domain
(c) Mutation inactivating HP1 chromo-domain
(d) Mutation inactivating the KMT1A methyltransferase whose target site is H3K9
(1) a, c and d (2) a, b and d
(3) b and d only (4) c and d only
135. Programmed cell death (PCD) plays an important role in development of barley aleurone. The
following statements are made with respect to involvement of various phytohormones and signaling
molecules.
(a) Gibberellic acid promotes PCD
(b) Abscisic acid postpones PCD.
(c) Cyclic GMP signaling postpones PCD
(d) Nitric oxide scavenger delays PCD
Which one of the following combinations of statements is correct ?
(3) a and b (4) c and d

136. Given below are a few statements related to biological principles and/or techniques:
(a) Genetic diversity plays an important role in the identification of combiners for heterosis
breeding
(b) Genotyping by sequencing (GBS) can be used to identify allelic diversity but is not useful
for construction of linkage maps.
(c) Genome editing by sequence specific nucleases (SSNs) in the presence of guide RNAs
would result in NHEJ-mediated knock outs and loss of function mutations.
(d) In a comparison of synteny and collinearity between diploid and polyploid plant genomes,
colinearity is high but synteny is low.
(1) a and c only (2) b and d only
(3) a, c and d (4) b only
137. In regulating the quantity of enzyme, its degradation plays a pivotal role. Following statements are
made to represent the degradation of enzymes in the 26S proteasome.
(a) The active sites of proteolytic subunits face exterior of the proteasome cylinder
(b) The active sites of proteolytic subunits face interior of the proteasome cylinder
(c) Degrading enzymes are targeted to exterior of proteasome by covalent attachment of one
or more molecules of ubiquitin
(d) Degrading enzymes are targeted to interior of proteasome by covalent attachment of one
or more molecules of ubiquitin
Which one of the following combinations of statements represent correct mode of enzyme
degradation?
138. The major structural characteristic of avian gastrulation is the primitive streak, which becomes
the blastopore lips of amniotic embryos. Migration through the primitive streak is controlled by
Fgf8. What would happen if the Fgf8 protein, which repels migrating cells away from the streak,
is over expressed in the primitive streak?
(1) The yolk sac will be deformed
(2) Wnt signalling will be activated and orientation of the primitive streak will change
(3) Cells of the streak will not form the paraxial mesoderm
(4) Cells generate mesodermal portions of the embryo.
139. PR proteins play important role during plant-pathogen interactions. List-I represents some of the
PR family proteins and List-II represents their main properties.
List-I List-II
(a) PR – 2 (i) Defensin
(b) PR – 5 (ii) Thaumatin-like
(c) PR – 12 (iii) Lipid transfer protein
(d) PR – 14 (iv) -1, 3-glucanase
The correct match of List-I with the property in List-II is
(1) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

140. The following statements were made regarding the role of protein modifications
(a) Attachment of acetyl groups to the amino termini of proteins makes it more resistant to
degradation.
(b) Attachment of hydroxyl groups to proline residues stabilizes fibres of newly synthesized
collagen
(c) Addition of sugars (glycosylation) makes protein more hydrophilic enabling protein-protein
interactions
(d) Addition of sugars (glycosylation) makes protein more hydrophobic enabling protein folding
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d
(3) b and c only (4) a and d only
141. The following statements are being made about the archaeal cell wall/membrane:
(a) Archaeal cell walls could stain Gram +ve or Gram -ve depending on the genus
(b) Archaea are characterized by Gram +ve staining of the cell wall
(c) Archaeal cell walls are susceptible to degradation by lysozyme
(d) Archaeal cell membranes possess branch chain hydrocarbons linked to glycerol by ether
links
Which of the following combinations of statements represents alll correct statements?
142. A researcher has treated pea leaves with p-chloromercuribenzene sulfonic acid (PCMBS), which
inactivates plasma membrane transporters. It was observed that phloem loading of sucrose is
inhibited.
Which one of the following interpretations is correct?
(1) Symplastic loading is eliminated
(2) Apoplastic loading is eliminated
(3) Both symplastic and apoplastic loadings are eliminated
(4) Photosynthesis rate is reduced.
143. For an exponentially growing culture of bacteria where No is the initial population number and Nt
is the population number at time t, the mean growth rate constant (K) is expressed as
logNt  logN0 logNt  logN0
(1) (2)
0.301t 0.301
logNt  logN0 logNt
(3) (4)
t 0.301t
144. Following are certain statements regarding nitrogen uptake and assimilation by plants:
(a) Plant roots can take up nitrogen in the form of NO3– or NH4+
(b) NH4+ taken up by plants can be directly assimilated into amino acids.
(c) Amino acids are synthesized exclusively in plastids and chloroplast of roots and leaves,
respectively.
(d) NO3– can be stored in vacuole of both, roots and leaves.
Which one of the following combinations is correct?
(3) a, b and d (4) a, c and d
145. A field biologist is sampling tree species in a forest area to estimate tree diversity. What method
can be employed to decide if his sampling effort is adequate to estimate the tree diversity in the
area ?
(1) Quadrat method of sampling
(2) Saturation using species accumulation curves
(3) Frequency distributions
(4) Jaccard’s dissimilarity coefficient
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1 3 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 2 3 4 1 1 2 3 1 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 3 1 1 1 4 2 2 3 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
1 3 4 2 4 2 3 1 3 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 2 1 3 1 3 4 2 2 2
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 2 3 2 3 2 1 2 4 3
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
2 3 4 4 2 4 3 3 2 1
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
2 4 3 1 3 4 1 4 2 2
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 3 3 2 3 3 2 1 3 1
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
1 3 2 2 3 2 4 2 2 2
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
1 1 4 4 1 3 3,4 3 1
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
2 2 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 1
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
4 2 4 4 4 4 1 3 2 2
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
4 1 4 1 3 1 3 2 3 1
141 142 143 144 145
1 2 1 3 2

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5 Previous Year Papers with Answer Key

(June 2018 to June 2020)

CSIR-NET Life Sciences

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Duration : 180 minutes Maximum Marks : 200

Read the following instructions carefully.

The question paper is divided in three parts :

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1. In a 100 m race A beats B by 10 m B beats C by 5 m By how many meters does A beat C?

5. What is the value of (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ..... + 4033) + 7989 × 2017 ?

6. What is the last digit of (2017)2017 ?

7. Pick the correct statement :

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17. Which should be the correct pattern in the empty square ?

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22. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?

24. The [OH–] of 0.1 N HCl solution is

26. Which one of the listed below is a P-type ion transporter ?

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31. Transcriptional regulation of trp operon by tryptophan involves binding of tryptophan to

32. Phosphorylation of eIF2  subunits (at Ser51) leads to

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45. Sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons that are cholinergic, innervate

46. Melanopsin is found in which cell of the retina ?

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53. Bipinnaria and branchiolaria are the larval forms of

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54. The animals belonging to phylum Onychophora

56. Which of the following groups represents SAR clade of protists ?

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CHO CHO CHO

CH2 OH CH2 OH CH2 OH

72. Following statements are made related to protein structure

73. The following statements are made on nucleic acid structure :

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(1) 0.025 M min–1 and 0.67 × 10–2 mM

75. From the following statements :

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Column A Column B Column C

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Column A Column B Column C

0.5 0.5 1s t Immunization

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0.3 2 Immunization 0.3

(D) RegA is an extracellular phosphordiesterase.

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Time (h) Time (h)

Time (h) Time (h)

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103. Given below are certain statements regarding plant-pathogen interactions :

104. To characterize the mechanism/s by which heat-stress is perceived in Arabidopsis., a team of

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