All India Test Series: JEE (Main) - 2021
All India Test Series: JEE (Main) - 2021
All India Test Series: JEE (Main) - 2021
General Instructions:
Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2021 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. The half lives of a radioactive sample are 30 years and 60 years for -emission and -emission
respectively. If the sample decays both by -emission and -emission simultaneously, the time
after which, only one fourth of the sample remain is
(A) 10 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 40 years
(D) 45 years
2. A system of two identical rods (L shaped) of mass m and length
are resting on a peg P as shown in figure. If the system is
P
displaced in its plane by a small angle , find the period of
oscillation
2
(A) 2
3g
2 2
(B) 2
3g
2
(C) 3
3g
(D) 3
3g
3. In a vernier calipers 5 vernier scale divisions are equal to 4 main scale divisions. One main scale
division is equal to 5 mm. A screw gauge with pitch equal to least count of above veriner callpiers
is designed. Number of divisions on circular scale of this screw gauge is equal to 100. Least
count of this screw is
(A) 0.1 mm
(B) 0.01 mm
(C) 0.001 mm
(D) 0.0001 mm
4. Two identical prisms with slightly different indices are located as
shown. Angel is small. When a laser beam strikes one of the
prisms perpendicular to the surface, the refracted ray is deviated
by a small angle . The difference between the indices of
refraction of the prism in terms of and is
(A)
(B)
2
(C)
2
(D)
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6. A uniform rope having linear density hangs vertically from the ceiling and its lower end is free. A
disturbance produced at the free end has a speed v0 at point P midway on the rope. Then, the
time taken by the disturbance pulse to reach the ceiling is
4v 0
(A)
g
2 2v 0
(B)
g
2 2v 20
(C)
g
2 2v 0
(D)
g
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9. What is the radius of the circular orbit of a stationary satellite which remains motionless with
respect to earth’s surface? (T = 24 hours)
1/3
gR 2 T 2
(A)
4
2
1/ 2
gR
(B) 2
4 T
1/3
gRT
(C) 4
1/ 2
gR
(D) 2T
10. In YDSE of equal width slits, if intensity at the centre of screen is I0, then intensity at a distance of
/4 from the central maxima is ( is the fringe width)
(A) I0
I0
(B)
2
I0
(C)
4
I0
(D)
3
320
11. Two vehicles are horning at Hz . They are moving directly towards each other, A is moving at
3
10 m/s and B is moving such that he hears a beat frequency of 5 Hz at t =0. If they are 90 m
apart at t = 0, at what time (in sec) vehicles cross each other? (speed of sound = 330 m/s)
(A) 2 sec
(B) 4 sec
(C) 6 sec
(D) 8 sec
12. If the frequency of incident radiation is doubled in a photoelectric effect experiment, the kinetic
energy of the fastest photo electron becomes
(A) double
(B) more than double
(C) less than double
(D) none of these
13. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A screen is placed
at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following
statement is correct ?
(A) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons.
(B) The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase.
(C) The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will decrease.
(D) The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will remain the same.
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14. A small ball is projected with initial speed u and at an angle with horizontal from ground. The
de-Broglie wavelength of ball at the moment its velocity vector becomes perpendicular to initial
velocity vector is
h
(A)
mu
h
(B)
mu sin
h
(C) tan
mu
h
(D)
mucos
r
15. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is given by V =V0 loge , where r0 is a
r0
constant. Assuming Bohr’s model to be applicable, write variation of r n with n, where n being the
principal quantum number
(A) rn n
1
(B) rn
n
(C) rn n2
1
(D) r
n2
17. Vertical displacement of a plank with a body of mass m on it is varying according to law
y = sin t + 3 cos t , where y is in meter and t is in sec.
The minimum value of for which the mass just breaks off the plank and the moment it occurs
first after t = 0 are given by (y is positive vertically upwards and g is gravitational acceleration)
g 2
(A) rad / s, sec
2 6 g
g 2
(B) rad / s, sec
2 3 g
g 2
(C) rad / s, sec
2 3 g
2
(D) 2g rad / s, sec
3g
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18. A ball of mass m and radius r is gently released in a viscous liquid. The mass of the liquid
displaced by it is m such that m > m. The terminal velocity is proportional to
m m
(A)
r
m m
(B)
r
m m
(C)
r2
(D) m m r 2
19. An organ pipe closed at one end and open at another end has length 42 cm and diameter 10 cm.
The air column in pipe vibrates in its second overtone with the maximum amplitude P0. The
pressure amplitude at a distance 24 cm from the open end of the tube is
P0
(A)
2
P0
(B)
2
(C) P0
3P0
(D)
2
20. When the voltage applied to an X-ray tube increases from V1 = 10 kV to V2 = 20 kV, the
wavelength interval between K line and cutoff wavelength of continuous spectrum increases by a
factor 3. Atomic number of the metallic target is
(A) 25
(B) 29
(C) 65
(D) 66
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
21. A distant hot air balloon subtends 0.25 at the objective lens of a telescope. The image subtends
1.5 at eyepiece when viewed with relaxed eye. The objective and eyepiece are in a 35 cm long
tube. Find the focal length of eyepiece lens (in cm).
22. Inside an insulated fixed share of radius R and uniform density , there is a
R
R
spherical cavity of radius such that the surface of the cavity passes B
2 A
through the centre of the sphere as shown in the figure. A particle of mass R/2
m0 is released from rest at centre B of the cavity. Calculate velocity with
P
which particle strike the center A of the sphere. If your answer is GR2 ,
Q
find the value of P + Q. (neglect earth’s gravity)
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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
23. An experiment is performed to obtain the value of acceleration due to gravity g by using a simple
pendulum of length L. In this experiment time for 100 oscillations is measured by using a watch of
1 second least count and the value is 90.0 seconds. The length L is measured by using a meter
scale of least count 1 mm and the value is 20.0 cm. Find the error (in %) in the determination of g.
24. In the given circuit, if the diode forward voltage drop is 0.3 V, Find the A
voltage difference (in volt) between A and B. 0.2 mA
5k
5k
15
25. Due to a point isotropic sonic source, loudness at a point is L = 60 dB. If density of air is
11
kg/m and velocity of sound in air is v = 330 m/s, the pressure oscillation amplitude at the point of
3
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AITS-PT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/2021 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
28. Measuring zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?
(A) Stability of the colloidal particles
(B) Size of the colloidal particles
(C) Viscosity
(D) Solubility
29. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form
coordination compounds?
(A) F SCN C2 O42 CN
(B) CN C2O42 SCN F
(C) SCN F C2 O42 CN
(D) SCN F CN C2O42
30. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is
(A) Acetone + Chloroform
(B) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(C) Ethanol + Acetone
(D) Benzene + Toluene
31. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is
(A) q 0, T 0,w 0 and Ssystem 0
(B) q 0, T 0,w 0 and Ssystem 0
(C) q 0, T 0,w 0 and Ssystem 0
(D) q 0, T 0,w 0 and Ssystem 0
32. The percentage composition by weight of an aqueous solution of a non-electrolyte solute (Molar
mass = 150) which boils at 373.52 K is: Given K b for H2O 0.52 K kg mol1
(A) 20%
(B) 13%
(C) 7%
(D) 25%
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35. Find vapour pressure of 10 M C2H5 OH aq solution at 300 K. (Assume ideal solution)
Given
dsolution 1 g / mL
PCo2H5 OH 40 mm of Hg
PHo2O 20 mm of Hg
(A) 25 mm of Hg
(B) 30 mm of Hg
(C) 27.5 mm of Hg
(D) 32.5 mm of Hg
36. In the metallurgy of Cu, the material obtained from bottom of blast furnace after smelting, which is
further subjected for bessemerization, is:
(A) Slag
(B) Impure Cu
(C) Matte
(D) Cuprous oxide
37. 25 mL sample of ozonized oxygen at NTP was passed through a solution of KI. The liberated
iodine required 15 mL of 0.08 N Na2S2O3 solution for complete titration. Calculate the volume of
ozone at NTP in the given sample.
(A) 15.44 mL
(B) 13.44 mL
(C) 14.44 mL
(D) 5 mL
3
38. The total number of isomers for the complex Co NO2 6 will be
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 1
(D) 2
39. Calculate the standard voltage that can be obtained from ethane-oxygen fuel cell at 25o C
7
C2H6 g O2 g
2CO2 g 3H2O , Go 1229.41 kJ / mol
2
(A) + 0.91 V
(B) + 0.54 V
(C) + 0.72 V
(D) + 1.08 V
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41. A certain gas effuses out of two different vessels A and B. A has a circular orifice while B has a
square orifice of length equal to the radius of the orifice of vessel A. The ratio of rate of effusion of
the gas from vessel A to that from vessel B is (Assuming all other conditions to be same):
(A) :1
(B) 1:
(C) 1:1
(D) 3:2
PV
42. Compressibility factor Z is plotted against pressure
nRT
N2
H2
CH4
CO2
Ideal gas
Z
P
What is the correct order of liquefiability of the gases shown in the above graph?
(A) H2 N2 CH4 CO 2
(B) CO2 CH4 N2 H2
(C) H2 CH4 N2 CO 2
(D) CH4 H2 N2 CO2
43. An ideal mixture of liquids A and B with 2 moles of A and 2 moles of B has a total vapour
pressure of 1 atm at a certain temperature. Another mixture with 1 mole of A and 3 moles of B
has a vapour pressure greater than 1 atm. But if 4 moles of liquid C are added to the second
mixture, the vapour pressure comes down to 1 atm. Given vapour pressure of C, PCo 0.8 atm.
Calculate the ratio of vapour pressures of pure A and pure B.
(A) 2
1
(B)
2
7
(C)
3
3
(D)
7
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SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
47. How many of the following species have at least one bond angle less than 100o?
H2O, H2 S, ClF3 , IF7 , XeF2 , SF6 , TeF5 , XeF4 , O3 , SO2 , SO3 .
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
1
. The value of CP,m / Cv,m will be
48. A gas expands adiabatically reversibly such that T V 2
49. The standard free energy change for the following reaction is – 120 kJ/mol. What is the standard
cell potential?
2H2 O2 aq. 2H2 O O 2 g
50. A 0.745% (w/V) KCl solution is ionized to the extent of 80%. The osmotic pressure at 27o C of
the solution will be (in atm): (Take R = 0.082 atm L K-1 mol-1), (Atomic mass of K and Cl = 39 and
35.5 respectively)
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SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
51. Let n C0 nC3 n C6 ..... 341 (n N), then the value of n can be
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
53. There be two bags A and B each containing 5 tickets numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. P1 and P2 be two
persons who randomly pick one ticket from bags A and B respectively. The probability that P1 has
a number higher than P2 is
1
(A)
2
2
(B)
5
3
(C)
5
4
(D)
5
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a b T
54. Let A be a 2 2 matrix such that trace of A A is equal to 6 (where A is transpose
T
c d
matrix of matrix A), then maximum value of a2bc2d is equal to (a, b, c, d R)
(A) 4
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 24
ex
cosec x 2cot x
ex 1
1 cos x
55. Let f x 3 sin x 2 tan x , then the value of lim f x is equal to
x x 0
2 3x 1
3
(A)
4
(B) 1
3
(C)
2
(D) doesn’t exist
56. Let a, b, c be three vectors such that a 1 , b 2 , c 4 and a b b c c a 10 , then the
value of 2a 3b 4c is equal to
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 24
57. If both roots of the equation x2 – (k + 1)x + k = 0 lies between the roots of the equation
x2 – 2kx + k2 – 1 = 0, then number of integral value(s) of k is/are
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) infinite
1 1
58. The value of 10 24i 2 10 24i 2 is equal to
(A) 2 2
(B) 4 2
(C) 6 2
(D) 8 2
x 1 y z
59. Let A (1, 1, 1) and B (2, 2, 2) be two points on the lines L1 : and
3 2 1
x y 1 z
L2 : . If distance AB is minimum, then the value of (1 + 1 + 1) – (2 + 2 + 2) is
1 2 3
equal to
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) –1
(D) 2
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10
r2 r 1 k
60. If the value of r 1r r 1r 2
r 2
is
40
, then k is equal to
(A) 29
(B) 27
(C) 23
(D) 21
61. Let and be the number of divisors of 88200 which are of the form (4k + 2) and (4k + 1)
respectively, (k is integer). The value of – is equal to
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 36
62. Let k be the coefficient of x13 in the expansion of (1 + 2x + 3x2)7, then number of odd divisors of k
is equal to
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 20
63. Six teams play a match with each other. The probability that neither a team win all the matches
nor a team loose all the matches is
75
(A)
216
57
(B)
216
175
(C)
216
157
(D)
216
64. Let z be a complex number satisfying the z117 = 1, then minimum value of |z – | is equal to
( is cube root of unity)
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
3
(C) 1
(D) none of these
65. The plane passing through (1, 2, –1) which is at farthest distance from (–1, 1, 2) passes through
the point
(A) (0, 1, 2)
(B) (2, 0, –1)
(C) (1, 2, 3)
(D) (4, 1, 0)
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66. Let x, y, z R+ and x + y + z = 10, then number of ordered triplets of (x, y, z) such that
xy2z2 = 1000 is
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 9
(D) none of these
67. Let P be a point with position vector r and A be a point with position vector a . If r satisfy the
equation r ˆi 2jˆ kˆ n 0 (where n is any vector in space) and a 2iˆ ˆj 2kˆ , then
maximum value of r a is equal to
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
68. Let k be the number of ways of distribution of 5 identical red coloured balls and 7 identical blue
k
coloured balls to 4 persons such that everyone gets atleast one ball, then the value of is
1990
equal to
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
69. Let A be a 3 3 matrix and AT is transpose matrix of A. If A = 3AT – 4I (when I is identity matrix of
order 3), then |A| is equal to
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 10
70. Number of value(s) of ‘a’ for which the real roots of the equation
x2 + (a2 – 4) x + a2 – 3a + 1 = 0 are equal in magnitude and opposite in sign is/are
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
71. Let a ˆi 2ˆj 2kˆ and b 2iˆ ˆj 2kˆ . r is a unit vector satisfying r a b r , then the value of
ˆ ˆ ˆ
r i j k is
72. Let total 5 letter words formed using the letters of the word EXAMINATION are k, then sum of
k
digits of is
565
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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
73. Number of integral value(s) of x such that x2 + 14x + 53 is perfect square is/are
a17
74. Let sum of the first 13 terms of the A.P. a1, a2, ….. an (n N) be 52a1, then value of is equal
a5
to
x 1 y z
75. Let perpendicular distance from (2, –1, 3) on the plane containing the lines and
3 2 1
x y z 1
be k, then the value of k2 is equal to
1 2 3
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