2

PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the
same line. (2 pts)
1. A. curriculum B. particular C. flexible D. economics
2. A. naked B. checked C. booked D. ticked
3. A. result B. destroy C. simple D. construct
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in
each question. (3 pts)
1. A. primary  B. religion C. tropical D. friendliness
2. A. magazine  B. understand C. embroider  D. entertain
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
1. “ Would you like me to get you a taxi ?” “.......................................”
A. That would be delightful. Thanks B. Well, let’s see
C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother. D. Yes, I see.
2............................... home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the
benifits of traditional schooling.
A. Despite that B. Because C. Inspite of D. Even though
3. Put all the toys away............................... someone slips and falls on them
A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. as long as
4. There’s almost no place .................................... that isn’t affected by pollution.
A. on earth B. on the world C. on the earth D. in the earth
5. Marie Curie was the first woman.................................... two Nobel prizes.
A. who awarded B. to be awarded C. awarding D. that was awarding
6. “Would you mind putting the parcel in the post for me?” “.........................................”
A. Don’t mention it B. Yes, I would. I’ll do it now.
C. Not at all. I’ll do it today D. Yes, of course
7. “ I don’t think we should exercise late at night.” “...................................................”
A. Neither do I B. I think so, too C. So do I D. I don’t, neither.
8. If you agree, I would like to ………………a suggestion.
A. show B. set up C. reach D. make
9. Never ....................till tomorrow what you can do today.
A. put out B. put off C. put away D. put down
10. It’s hard to................... well with him. He’s got such a difficult character.
A. get over B. get on C. get into D. get in
11. You look exhausted. ………………a long way?
A. Did you run C. Have you run
B. Have you been running D. Had you been running
12. “Would you be willing to travel as part of your job?” “…………………………”

A. That would be great B. I don’t mind it

C. I’d rather not D. A, B or C
13. There are only two seats left, and I don’t want to seat near the door. I’ll take.…………….
A. another one B.each other one C. other one D. the other one
14. .………………. two and one half hours to climb to the top of the Empire State Building.
A. Typically taking it B. Typically takes it
C. It typically takes D. To take it typically
15. Alfalfa is ………………. for livestock.
A. a primarily grown crop C. a grown crop primarily
B. grown primarily a crop D. a crop grown primarily
16. I really like Venice because it is. ………………unique city with a lot of manmade rivers.

A. the B. an C. a D. no article
17. He was………. George in the examination list.
 A. on B. above C. over D. up
18. .……………the newspapers have revealed so far can justify the action taken by the Army.
A. Nothing of that B. Nothing that C. Nothing as D. Nothing what
19. When you go out, will you get me ………………of Newsweek?
A. a copy B. an edition C. a paper D. a publication
20. They said they could order it for me because they didn’t have my size in………………
A. shop B. hold C. store D. stock
Question II. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
1. I didn’t go out last night because I was ... and I didn’t want to see anyone. DEPRESS
2. You’re always …………… Isn’t there anything that makes you happy? MISERY
3. We can only catch criminals if we have the full ……of the general public. COOPERATE
4. She gave me a very……look when she saw that I wasn’t wearing the correct. APPROVE
5. The bloodstain on her dress was very……………………… NOTICE
6. You shouldn’t interrupt someone in ……………………... . SENTENCE
7. Advertisements acount for three fourths of the ………… of the newspaper. COME
8. If your work is ……….you won’t get a raise. SATISFY
9. The athletes take part in the Olympic Games in the true spirit of ………… . SPORT
10. I am afraid you have been ………… .She no longer works for us. INFORM
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
Dear Jane,
I’m sorry I haven’t written to you for so long, but I (BE)…(1)…very busy lately. All last month I
(HAVE)…(2)…exams, and I haven’t done anything else but study for ages. Anyway, I (STOP) …(3)
…studying now, and I (WAIT)…(4)…for my exam results. As you can see from this letter, I
(CHANGE)…(5)…my address and (LIVE)…(6)…in Croydon now. I decided that I wanted a change
from central London because it has become so expensive. A friend of mine (TELL) …(7)…me about
this flat, and I moved here about two months ago. When you (COME)…(8)…to London this Summer,
please visit me. I (STAY)…(9)…here until the middle of August. Then I (GO)…(10)…on holiday to
Sctoland.
Please write to me soon,
Margaret.
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts)
Question I: Fill in the blanks with one suitable word. The first letter of the word has been provided
(10pts)
A story is a work of imagination. The people…(1)…write stories write them in order to give
pleasure to…(2)…who read stories. Story-readers are, generally…(3)…, women of all ages and
younger men. Readers love the start of a story, where there are new and sometimes strange people to
be…(4)...for the first time. They enjoy the story itself, the gentleness and the violence, the loves and
the…(5)… , with which a good writer interests his…(6)…. . They enjoy the end of the story, whether it
is happy or…(7)… . The reader’s chief purpose in all this is to…(8)...from ordinary life for a short…
(9)… . Older men, as a rule, find their ordinary lives…(10)...pleasant to run away from.

Question II: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each
space. (10 pts)
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. …(1)…human
activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world…(2)…on consuming two-
thirds of the world’s resources while half of the world’s population do so…(3)…to stay alive, we are
rapidly destroying the…(4)…resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper.
Everywhere fertile soil is…(5)…built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so
much that they will never be able to recover…(6)… . We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere
without any thought of the consequences. As a result, the planet’s ability to support people is being…
(7)…at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are…(8)…increasingly heavy
demands on it. The Earth’s natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy,
medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to…(9)…us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are
sensible in how we use the resources, they will…(10)…indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and
excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer.
 1. A. Yet B. Still C. Although D. Despite
2. A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows
3. A. already B. just C. for D. entirely
4. A. only B. individual C. lone D. alone
5. A. sooner B. either C. neither D. rather
6. A. quite B. greatly C. utterly D. completely
7. A. stopped B. narrowed C. reduced D. cut
8. A. making B. having C. taking D. doing
9. A. hold B. maintain C. keep D. stay
10. A. last B. stand C. go D. remain
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (5 pts)
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season.
Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat,
like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French
inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the
1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk.
Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860's, but supplies remained low
because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and
soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be
preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily
diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise
more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great
distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern city dwellers could
enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at
most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store
perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870's, and by
1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home
deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized
refrigerator replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods
that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many
families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to
achieve more varied fare.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage B. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
C. Commercial production of ice D. Population movements in the nineteenth century
2. The phrase "in season" in paragraph 1 refers to
A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food
3. During the 1860's, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas B. shipped in refrigerator cars
C. available in limited quantities D. a staple part of the American diet
4. The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances
5. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying B. Canning C. Cold storage D. Chemical additives

PART D: WRITING (30 pts)

Question I: Complete the second sentence with the same meaning as the first one. (10 pts)
1. People always laugh at his face, and he dislikes it.
à He hates ……………………………………………………………………………….
2. I am sorry I forgot to phone grandma.
à I apologise …………………………………………………………………………….
3. Given fair warning, I could have avoided that date.
 à If you had told me ..........................................................................................................
4. All the children will receive a prize, whatever their score in the competition.
à No matter what their ……………..…………………………………..……………….
5. Except for the inspector, everyone was in uniform.
à The inspector was the ……………………………………………..………………….
6. Bill found a job very quickly.
à It didn’t ……………………………………………………………………………….
7. You will have to spend at least $500 to get that sort of camera.
à You won’t get ……………………………………………………………..………….
8. They cancelled the flight because of the heavy rain.
à So heavily....................................................................................................................
9. Working for this travel agency will not be possible without a good command of English.
à Unless you have ...........................................................................................................
10. How well I sleep depends on how late I go to bed.
à The later.....................................................................................................................
Question II: Using the word given and other words, complete the second sentences so that it has the
same meaning as the first. Do not change the word given (10 pts)
1. I supposed you were very tired after your long walk. (MUST)
ð …………………………………………………….……………………
2. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
ð …………………………………………………….……………………
3. Flooding in this region was the result of the heavy rain. (RESULTED)
ð …………………………………………………….……………………
4. He was suspended for two matches for swearing at the referee. (EARNED)
ð …………………………………………………….……………………
5. Anna has improved a lot this term. (PROGRESS)
ð …………………………………………………….……………………
6. Martin had difficulty in accepting the loss of his money. (HARD)
ð …………………………………………………….……………………
7. Although her leg hurt, Jill finished the race. (PAIN)
ð …………………………………………………….……………………
8. Everyone but Jane failed to produce the correct answer. (SUCCEEDED)
ð …………………………………………………….……………………
9. I don’t really like her, even though I admire her achievement. (MUCH)
ð …………………………………………………….……………………
10. Quite by chance, Alice met Peter at the station. (RAN)
ð …………………………………………………….……………………

Question III: Write a paragraph of 120-150 words to support the argument that secondary school
students shouldn’t spend too much time playing computer games. (10 points)

3
A. LISTENING (1 pt)
Part 1. You will hear part of an interview with a boy called Simon who is helping to protect
the environment. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C to best answer each
of the following questions.
1. Simon enjoys taking his boat onto the River Stanton because _______.
A. he knows many people who go there.
B. the speed of the water makes it exciting.
C. it is the closest river to his home town.
2. Simon noticed that the river water _______.
A. was getting lower and lower.
B. was too dark to let him see the bottom.
C. was having a negative effect on him.
3. Simon learned more about the problem with the river _______.
 A. by looking on the internet.
B. by asking the people who owned the river.
C. by talking to his school teachers.
4. Why did Simon do a special course?
A. to join an organization that protects the river.
B. to learn about the geography of the river.
C. to be able to check the water quality of the river.
5. Simon is pleased because _______.
A. the company causing the problem closed.
B. he found a way to reduce the problem.
C. he discovered new plants that live in the river.
Part 2. You will hear some information about a café for young people. For each question, fill
in the missing information in the numbered space.

NOTES ABOUT THE RAINBOW CAFÉ

* This is a special café for teenagers which opened last month.
* The café is run by a (6) ……………..…………… of ten local teenagers.
* The teenagers got a grant worth (7) £ ……………..…………… to start the café.
* They need some more teenagers to work as cooks in the café.
* The café is currently open every (8) ……………..…………… from 1.30 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

* The café serves a range of hot and cold drinks and some (9) ……………..……………
* To get more information, call (10) ……………..…………… or visit www.youthcafe.com.
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the rest in each o f the following questions.
11. A. appealed B. denied C. hoped D. trained
12. A. doubt B. thumb C. subtle D. absorb
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f
the
rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. interfere B. entertain C. difference D. magazine
14. A. impossible B. geography C. information D. convenience
15. A. ethnic B. nuclear C. sewage D. persuade
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
16. Tom: “Can I borrow your umbrella for a day?” TMK: “___________”
A. With pleasure          B. Ready    C. Welcome  D. Yes, I can
17. -“What a new nice style of hair you have it cut!”           “___________.”
A. Yes, please B. It’s from Italy
C. Thank you D. No, I think it’s suitable for me.
18. Reese: remember, they want someone who works well with people . You’re going to show
them how easy- going and personable you are!
Kent: ________.
A. wait and see. Thanks B. thanks .I hope you
C. you see what I am like. Don’t worry D. Thanks. I’ll keep that in mind
19. Bill: -“Where can we meet?” – Joanna: “___________.”
A. at your house B. I do not know
C. I do not want to meet you D. It’s up to you
20. - “A bat can hear from a long distance .” “________”
A. You bet B. Yes, good hearer
 C. No, you can be so sure D. You know a bat well
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
21. When their rent increased from 200 to 400 a month, they protested against such a tremendous
increase.
A. light B. huge C. tiring D. difficult
22. In 1952, Akihito was officially proclaimed heir to the Japanese throne.
A. installed B. declared C. denounced D. advise
23. The augmentation in the population has created a fuel shortage.
A. increase B.necessity C. demand D. decrease
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
24. During the five- decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding at B. holding back C. holding to D. holding by
25. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
A. explicit B. implicit C. obscure D. odd
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.
26. It is imperative ________ what to do when there is a fire.
A. he must know about B. that everyone know C. we knew D. that he knew
27. Our industrial output ________ from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.
A. was rising B. rises C. rose D. has risen
28. That hotel is so expensive. They________ you sixty pounds for bed and breakfast.
A. charge B. fine C. take D. cost
29. Under no circumstances________in public places.
A. should we allow to be smoked B. should smoking be allowed
C. we should allow smoking D. smoking should be allowed
30. The carefully nurtured gardens with a wide________of flowers and fruit trees have added
elegance to this place and made it a major tourist attraction.
A. amount B. number C. species D. variety
31. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by___________ table.
A. an old wooden Chinese beautiful B. an old beautiful wooden Chinese
C. a wooden old beautiful Chinese D. a beautiful old Chinese wooden
32. While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I ________ this photograph of my
parents' wedding.
A. saw about B. looked down C. came across D. made up
33. We've already bought the house but won't ________ it until May, when the present occupants
have moved out.
A. take possession of B. keep track of C. catch sight of D. gain recognition of
34. ________my mother's encouragement, I wouldn't have made such a daring decision.
A. In spite of B. Providing C. But for D. Due to
35. The young lady sat still in the afternoon breeze, with her hair________her back.
A. streaming down B. fallen against C. flowed down D. running over
36. Mai is a student in Ms Lan's writing class. She is asking for Ms Lan's comments on her last
essay. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
- Mai. "You must have found reading my essay very tiring." - Ms Lan. "________. I enjoyed it."
A. You are welcome B. Just in case C. At all costs D. Not in the least
37. My car may be ugly, but it's certainly ________ . In fact, I haven't had any problem with it for
over five years.
A. dependable B. dependent C. independent D. dependant
38. Books and magazines________around made his room very untidy.
A. lying B. which lied C. laying D. that lie
39. Having traveled to different parts of our country, ________.
A. many interesting lifestyles and customs have been learned by us
B. we have learned a lot about interesting lifestyles and customs
C. much has been learned about interesting lifestyles and customs
D. we are seeing a lot of interesting lifestyles and customs
40. He wasn't attending the lecture properly and missed most of________.
A. what the teacher said B. which the teacher said
C. things said by the teacher D. that the teacher said
41. Angela’s enthusiasm makes________ her lack of work experience.
A. off with B. up with C. up for D. up to
42. After the car crash last night, all the injured ________ to the hospital in an ambulance.
A. was rushing B. were rushed C. was rushed D. were rushing
43. “The inflation rate in Venezuela is five times________my country,” he said.
A. as much as B. more than C. as many as that in D. as high as that in
44. If you don’t stop smoking, you ________ the risk of developing chronic bronchitis.
A. bear B. take C. make D. run
45. With ________, it is obvious that our approach to the problem was completely wrong.
A. retrospect B. hindsight C. afterthought D. review
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.
46. It is not ……………..…………… to stay up late the night before a test. ADVISE
47. The idea of working four, 10-hour work days was ……………..…………… to the employees.
ATTRACT
46. The major ……………..…………… of the show was a speech by the president. ATTRACT
45. The attorney's ……………..…………… questioning weakened the witness. PERSIST
50. Their ……………..…………… of the plan caused the experiment to be abandoned. APPROVE
51. It was obvious that the house was built ……………..……………. HAPHAZARD
52. His ……………..…………… to captain came unexpectedly. ADVANCE
53. The ……………..…………… of seeds is very quick with this new machine. DISTRIBUTE
54. His teacher gave him the ……………..…………… that he needed to learn the material. ENCOURAGE
55. John presented ……………..…………… the argument for his salary increase. PERSUADE
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following pas sage. Identify the errors, write the line number and
correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below. Number (00.) is done as an
example.
Line Passage
KEEPING OUR TEETH HEALTHY
1 It’s very important to have health teeth. Good teeth help us to chew our food. They
2 also help us to look nicely. How does a tooth go bad? The decay begins in a little crack in
3 the enamel covering of the tooth. This happens after germs and bits of food have collected
4 there. Then the decay slowly spreads inside the tooth. Eventually, poisonous goes into the
5 blood, and we may feel quite ill. How can we keep our teeth healthy? First, we ought to
6 visit our dentist twice a year. He can fill the small holes in our teeth before they destroy
7 the teeth. He can examine our teeth to check that they are growing in the right way.
8 Fortunate, many people wait until they have toothache before they see a dentist. Secondly,
9 we should brush our teeth with a toothbrush and fluoride toothpaste at least twice a day
10 once after breakfast and once before we go to bed. We can also use wood toothpicks to
11 clean between our teeth after a meal. Thirdly, we should eat food that is good for or teeth
12 and our body: milk, cheese, fish, brown bread, potatoes, red rice, raw vegetables and fresh
13 fruit. Chocolate, sweets, biscuits and cakes are bad, especially when we eat it between
14 meals. They are harmful because they stick to our teeth and cause decay.
15
Line Error Correction
00. health à healthy
56. à
57. à
58. à
59. à
60. à
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the
following sentences.
61. Little Angela hasn’t got ……………..…………… her shyness yet.
62. The garage gave me a 5 per cent discount ……………..…………… paying cash.
63. Our teacher explains things so quickly that sometimes I can’t keep up ……………..…………… her.
64. I’m so sorry I’m late, the car broke ……………..…………… on my way here.
65. Peter, you’re a stupid little boy! Stop showing ……………..…………… like that.
66. Children should be prohibited ……………..…………… smoking.
67. Everyone in the village was concerned ……………..…………… the plans for the new road.
68. It was a good attempt, but it didn’t really come ……………..……………, which was a pity.
69. He confessed to me that he had just been converted ……………..…………… some strange religion.
70. We are fortunate ……………..…………… having sufficient supplies of fuel for the winter.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
IT’S COOL TO CAMP
For many of us, life is full of man-made sounds: traffic, machinery, television and other
human beings. It is not surprising (71) ________ that camping continues to (72) ________in
popularity, as it teaches us to take our focus off these distractions and (73) ________to enrich our
lives. According to a recent report, one holiday (74) ________eight in Europe is a camping
holiday. Despite that, some would still have you believe that camping should be considered an
alternative holiday that you are driven towards because money is (75) ________ nonsense. It is a
lifestyle choice to be embraced and enjoyed, for it (76) ________us the freedom to explore in our
own time and (77) ________ our own speed. The opportunities available for (78)
________camping with some form of recreational activity are as varied as Europe’s many
thousands of miles of hiking trails, cycling routes, canals, rivers and lakes. Whether your chosen
form of activity is recreational or competitive, a sociable hobby or a way of (79) ________the
crowds, there can be nothing more pleasurable than sitting outside your tent after a day of activity
with only the hum of dragonflies and the gas stove (80) ________the peace. And just remember:
whatever form of camping you choose, as long as you are out there enjoying yourself and the
surroundings, the rest of the world can wait.
71. A. therefore B. nevertheless C. so D. though
72. A. enlarge B. grow C. raise D. stretch
73. A. contributes B. gives C. supplies D. helps
74. A. from B. on C. for D. in
75. A. hard B. rare C. tight D. slim
76. A. lets B. opens C. allows D. enables
77. A. of B. at C. by D. to
78. A. mixing B. attaching C. adding D. uniting
79. A. escaping B. separating C. clearing D. departing
80. A. stopping B. annoying C. disturbing D. breaking
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question below.
 A balanced diet contains proteins, which are composed of complex amino acids. There are
20 types of amino acids, comprising about 16 percent of the body weight in a lean individual. A
body needs all 20 to be healthy. Amino acids can be divided into two groups: essential and
nonessential. There are 9 essential amino acids. These are the proteins that the body cannot produce
by itself, so a healthy individual must ingest them. The 11 nonessential amino acids, on the other
hand, are produced by the body, so it is not necessary to ingest them. Proteins are described as
being either
high-quality or low-quality, depending on how many of the 9 essential amino acids the food
contains. High-quality proteins, typically found in animal meats, are proteins that have ample
amounts of the essential amino acids. Low-quality proteins are mainly plant proteins and usually
lack one or more of the essential amino acids. Since people who follow a strict vegetarian diet are
ingesting only low-quality proteins, they must make sure that their diets contain a variety of
proteins, in order to ensure that what is lacking in one food is available in another. This process of
selecting a variety of the essential proteins is called protein complementation. Since an insufficient
amount of protein in the diet can be crippling, and prolonged absence of proteins can cause death,
it is imperative that a vegetarian diet contains an ample amount of the essential proteins.
81. With what topic is this passage primarily concerned?
A. the 20 types of amino acids  B. high- and low-quality proteins 
C. the process of complementation  D. healthy diets for vegetarians 
82. The word "lean" in line 2 could be best replaced by
A. thin  B. fat  C. tall  D. short 
83. The word "ingest" in line 5 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. meager  B. frequent  C. substantial  D. harmful 
84. Which of the following would NOT be an example of a low-quality protein?
A. legumes  B. apples  C. grains  D. tuna 
85. According to the passage, a vegetarian could die from insufficient protein ingestion if he or she
A. did not follow a varied and properly protein-complemented diet. 
B. ate too many animal proteins,and could not digest them properly. 
C. did not follow a diet in which nonessential proteins were ingested. 
D. ate too many low-quality proteins. 
86. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "crippling" as used in line 19?
A. discouraging  B. betraying  C. incapacitating  D. amazing 
87. Which of the following words could best replace the word "prolonged" in line 15?
A. narrow  B. hollow  C. hard-hearted  D. extended 
88. In line 15, the word "imperative" can be best replaced by
A. crucial  B. impossible  C. wonderful  D. satisfying 
89. Which of the following best describes the author's tone in this passage?
A. forceful  B. light  C. casual  D. argumentative 
90. Which statement best describes the organization of this passage?
A. Contrasting views concerning proteins are compared. 
B. The author moves from a general comment to a specific argument. 
C. A statement is given and its cause is then discussed. 
D. Items are discussed in their order of importance. 
PART 2: WRITING (2 pts)
Task 1: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (1.0 pt – 0.2/ each)
Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged,
using the words given.
91. He speaks more persuasively than his brother.
@ He is a .............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
92. Mary told the police about the burglary.
@ Mary reported .........................................................................................................................................................................................................................
93. It is said that the thief stole everything in the house.
@ Everything ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
94. I only recognized him when he came into light.
@ Not until .....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
95. “You had better go to see the doctor immediately,” Jone said. (advised)
@ .....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
96. She liked Paris very little and Rome less. (worse)
@......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
97. I called my uncle for some advice. (order)
@ ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
98. Freda still hasn’t decided if she’ll study medicine or law next year. (mind)
@ Freda still hasn’t ………………………………………………………….. to study medicine or law next year.
99. I wish I hadn’t phoned my sister-in-law. (regret)
@ I ………………………………………………………….. that phone call to my sister-in-law.
100. I have absolutely no interest in TV reality shows. appeal
@ TV reality shows ………………………………………………………….. in the least.
101. It's a pity I had to sell my car. (wish)
@ I ………………………………………………………….. sell my car.
102. It looks as if he's forgotten about the meeting again. (have)
@ He seems ………………………………………………………….. about the meeting again.
103. He said to me, “I won’t go until I meet your manager”. (insisted)
@ He ………………………………………………………….. my manager.
104. We feel uncomfortable in the house. (fish)
@ We feel ………………………………………………………….. in the house.
105. In the area, Vietnam was far better than all other countries in football in 2018. (shoulders)
@ In the area, …………………………………………………..………………….. all other countries in football in 2018.
Part 2: Write a paragraph about this topic.Using cell phones and computers have made
communication among people much easier. What is your point of view about it?

4
PART A: LISTENING ( 15 points)
SECTION ONE
You are going to hear a conversation between a hotel receptionist and a customer who has come to
make a booking.
Question 1-6
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THREE WORDS AND OR/NUMBERS for each
answer
HOTEL INFORMATION
Name of accommodation: (0) Carlton Hotel
Length of stay: 3 nights
Ages of children: (1) _______£
Rooms available: Two en-suites at £270
Price inclusive of: (2) _____________________
Payment method: credit card
Name: Michael (3 ) _____________________
Date of birth: (4)_____________________ 1968
Address: 273, Stanton Court, London.
Post code: (5) _____________________
Telephone: 08773 (6)_____________________
Now pause the recording. You have 30 seconds to look at questions 7-10.
Questions 7-10
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THREE WORDS AND OR/ A NUMBER for
each answer
 TRANSPORT OPTIONS
Mode of Transport Cost Arrangements Travel time to
town
Taxi Approximately Pick up from the hotel 10 minutes
(7) £………………..
Bus £2 per person Walk down Oak Tree 15 minutes
(8) …………………..
Walking ……… Walk through
(9) ………….……… (10) ……………..

SECTION TWO
Questions 11 – 15
Listen to Paul asking about a club for children. For questions 11 – 15, circle A, B or C. You
will hear the conversation twice.
11. The club tries to help children with their………..
A. studies B. sports C. painting
12. This month, the children will get a …………
A. video B. magazine C. pen
13. The club has a competition every………
A. week B. month C. year
14. The club is for children under………..
A. 10 B. 13 C. 16
15. The club costs……….
A. £ 3 a year B. 5 £ a year C. £ 12 a year
PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the others by circling A, B, C or D. (3 points)
16. A. breath B. spread C. break D. headline
17. A. boot B. shoot C. food D. good
18. A. ragged B. wicked C. naked D. packed
Question II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others
by circling A, B, C or D. (2 points)
19. A. discriminate B. intellectual  C. hesitation  D. universal
20. A. advocate B. nonsense  C. neglect  D. rubbish

PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)

Question I. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences. (10 points)
21. I have just taken a Test of English as a Foreign Language or TOEFL _______ short.
A. of B. in C. on D. for
22. Prizes are awarded_______ the number of points scored.
A. resulting from B. adding up C. presented to D. according to
23. Those ballpoint pens are made in a large _______ of colors and styles .
A. series B. range C. collection D. network
24. The man is so arrogant that he is completely _______ to the criticism.
A. impervious B. unaware C. regardless D. unconscious
25 . Without written evidence, we don’t have a _______ on.
A. leg to stand B. foot to stand C. leg to lean D. foot to lean
26. If the rain doesn’t _______soon, we shall have to look for a taxi.
A. let up B. set about C. slow down D. go off
27. _______ of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would
improve.
A. At the bottom B. At the height C. On the top D. In the end
28. Tom: “ Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.”              -Mary: “_______”
A. I have nothing to tell you.        B. Oh. Poor me!         
C. Never mind!             D. You was absent - minded.
29. You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to _______ is at
the desk.
A. whoever B. who C. whom D. which
30. She is a kind of woman who does not care much of work but generally _______ only
with colleagues for meals, movies or late nights at a club.
A. supposes B. socializes C. attends D. discusses
Question II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (8 points)
31. It is highly desirable that every effort ( be ) made to reduce expenditure.
………………………………………………………………………………
32 + 33. And, paying for what he ( not eat), he went out, ( pass) two acquaintances without
sign of recognition.
……………………………………………………………………………….
34. He really didn’t expect ( introduce) to the president.
……………………………………………………………………………….
35. Should you pay the bill, the electricity ( not cut ) off.
………………………………………………………………………………..
36. ( Be) that as it may, our expenditure is bound to increase.
……………………………………………………………………………….
37. If you ( finish ) dinner , I’ll ask the waiter for the bill.
………………………………………………………………………………
38. (wait) five months for the fridge to be delivered, I decided to cancel the order.
………………………………………………………………………………..
Question III. Use the words given in bold at the end of each line to form a word that
fits in the space.(7 points)
39. The unemployment situation has improved ………..……………. EXPECT
40. Every evening you hear …………………..noise of motor-cycles DEAF
revving up in the town square .
41. Many wild animals are shot by ……………………..simply for sport. HUNT
42. He tries without success to ............................. her memory MISS
from his thoughts.
43. Travel can ……………...……one’s mind in many ways. BROAD
44 The conditions in the man’s prison were …………………….…. HUMAN
45. Hundreds of mature trees were …………………….. in the storm. ROOT
Question IV. (46-50) Each of the following sentences has a mistake. Find it and correct
it (5 points)
Everyone want to reduce pollution. However, the pollution problem is so complicated as it is
serious. It is complicated because much pollution is caused by things that benefits people. For
example, exhaust in automobiles causes a large percentage of all air pollution, but automobiles
provide transportation for million of people. Factories discharge much of the material that
pollutes the air and water, but factories give employment to a large amount of people. Too
much fertilizer or pesticide can ruin soil, but fertilizer and pesticide are important aids to the
growing of crops. …
Example: Line 1: want -> wants
46. ………………………………………..……
47: …………………………………………….
48: …………………………………………..…
49: ………………………………………..……
50: …………………………………………..…

PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 points)

Question I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only ONE word in each space. (10 points)
Clean freshwater resources are essential for drinking, bathing, cooking, irrigation, industry,
and for plant and animal (51)……………..……..……. Unfortunately, the global supply of
freshwater is (52) ………………………………. unevenly. Chronic water shortages (53)
……………………….…… in most of Africa and drought is common over much of the
globe. The (54) …………………………….… of most freshwater supplies - groundwater
(water located below the soil surface), reservoirs, and rivers - are under severe and
increasing environmental stress (55)………………..……………..….. of overuse, water
pollution, and ecosystem degradation. Over 95 percent of urban sewage in (56)
…………………… countries is (57) ………………….. untreated into surface waters such
as rivers and harbors; About 65 percent of the global freshwater supply is used in (58)
…………………… and 25 percent is used in industry. Freshwater (59) ……………....…
therefore requires a reduction in wasteful practices like (60) ……………….. irrigation,
reforms in agriculture and industry, and strict pollution controls worldwide.
Question II. Read the following passage and decide which item (A, B, C or D) best fits
each blank space. (10 points)
It is well-known that life expectancy is longer in Japan than in most other countries. A (61)
______ report also shows that Japan has the longest health expectancy in the world. A
healthy long life is the result of the (62) ______ in social environment. Scientists are trying
to work (63) ______ exactly what keeps elderly Japanese people so healthy, and whether
there is a lesson to be learnt from their lifestyles for the rest of us. Should we (64) ______
any changes to our eating habits, for instance, or go jogging each day before breakfast? Is
there some secret (65) ______ in the Japanese diet that is particularly (66) ______ to the
human body?
Another factor contributing to the rapid population aging in Japan is a decline in birthrate.
Although longer life should be celebrated, it is (67) ______ considered a social problem.
The number of older people had (68) ______ in the last half century and that has increased
pension and medical costs. The country could soon be facing an economic problem, if there
are so many old people to be looked after , and relatively few younger people working and
paying taxes to support them.
(69) ______ the retirement age from 65 to 70 could be one solution to the problem. Work
can give the elderly a (70) _____ of responsibility and mission in life. It’s important that the
elderly play active roles in the society and live in harmony with all generations.
61. A. late B. recent C. contemporary D. new
62.A. increase B. progress C. growth D. improvement
63.A. for B. out C. in D. off
64.A. do B. make C. set D. give
65. A. ingredient B. component C. portion D. helping
66.A. helpful B. supportive C. advantageous D. beneficial
67.A. therefore B. actually C. even D. however
68. A. reduced B. added C. doubled D. multiplied
69.A. Putting B. Moving C. Rising D. Raising
70.A. sense B. sentiment C. feeling D. characteristic
Question III . Read the following passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
(10 points)
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
When jazz began to lose its reputation as "low-down" music and to gain well-deserved
acclaim among intellectuals, musicians began to feature many instruments previously
considered inappropriate for jazz. Whereas before the 1950s, jazz musicians played only
eight basic instruments in strict tempo, in this decade they started to improvise on the flute,
electric organ, piccolo, accordion, cello, and even bagpipes, with the rhythm section
composed for string or piano. Big bands no longer dominated jazz, and most changes
emerged from small combos, such as the Dave Brubeck Quartet and the Gerry Mulligan
Quartet. The Gerry Mulligan Quartet proved that a small, modern band could sound
complete without a piano; the rhythm section consisted only of a set of drums and a string
bass.
Jazz continued to move in new directions during the 1960s. Saxophonist and composer
Omette Coleman led a quartet playing "free" jazz that was atonal. Planist Cecil Taylor also
conducted similar experiments with music, and John Coltrane included melodies from India
in his compositions. In the 1970s, musicians blended jazz and rock music into fusion jazz
which combined the melodies and the improvisations of jazz with the rhythmic qualities of
rock "n" roll, with three or five beats to the bar and in other meters. The form of jazz music
was greatly affected by electric instruments and electronic implements to intensify, distort,
or amplify their sounds. However, the younger musicians of the time felt compelled to
include a steady, swinging rhythm which they saw as a permanent and essential element in
great jazz.
71. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Quintessential Moments in Jazz Music
B. Popular Beats in Classical and Modern Jazz
C. The Achievements of Famous Jazz Musicians
D. The Rising Prestige and Diversity of Jazz
72. The passage implies that representative jazz musicians…………….
A. concentrated on melodious combination of sound
B. blended improvisation and sheet music together
C. created and modernized sophisticated devices
D. sought novel techniques in form and content
73. According to the passage, the changes in jazz music in the 1970s came from
A. ambitious aspirations B. sound amplifications
C. another harmonious scale D. another musical trend
74. The word “compelled” in the passage is closest meaning to
A. forced B. challenged C. obligated D. censored
75. The paragraph preceding this passage would most likely describe
A. Instruments used in jazz B. the origins of jazz
C. Jazz in the 1940s D. instrumental pieces in jazz
76. The author believes that the developments in jazz described in the
passage………….
A. appear largely suggestive B. may be perceived as discrete
C. should be considered influential D. should be seen as precocious
77. The author of the passage implies that in the 1950s, jazz musicians……………..
A. strictly adhered to its traditions and compositions
B. experimented with rhythm and instruments
C. probably continued with its tempo and instrumentation
D. increased the tempo to keep up with the changes
78. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. Chronological innovations in jazz music
B. Definitions of diverse jazz style
C. A classification of prominent jazz musicians
D. Descriptions and examples to illustrate jazz rhythm
79. It can be inferred from the passage that small jazz bands
A. consisted of drums and a string bass
B. included modern sound systems
C. were innovative in their music
D. were dominated by large orchestras
80. The author of the passage mentions all of the following EXCEPT
A. string bass B. harpsichord C. bagpipes D. percussion
PART E: WRITING (20points)
Question I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one.
(5 points)
81. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
Sad as.........……………………..…………………………………………...……….
82. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.
The man is …………………………………………….………………………….…
83. “ No, I really don’t want to stay the night, Sophia. ” Ann said.
Ann insisted………………………………………………………………………….
84. Falling prompt payment, the goods must be returned by you.
You must either …………………………………………………….……………….
85. Alice lost all her hope. She decided to stop her business.
Such ……………………..…………………………………………...…………..
Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between
three and five words, including the word given. (3 points)
86. They chose not to drive because they thought there would be too much snow. ( FEAR)
They chose not………………..…………………………..…….…to much sow.
87. We must continue our efforts whether there are problems or not. ( WHATEVER )
Regardless ……………………………………..……….… continue our efforts.
88. Prices may go up next year, so you should buy now. ( CASE )
You should buy now ………………….…………………….………up next year.
89. I feel that I don't fit with the people in the new office. ( FISH )
I feel like …………………………………………….……… in the new office.
90. I left my last job because I didn’t really agree with my manager’s approach. (EYE)
I left my last job because I didn’t really ………………………………….…my manager.
Question III: (10 points) Do you agree or disagree with the idea that English is a very
important language. Write a paragraph (about 100 to 130 words) to express your
personal point of view.

5
SECTION 1. LISTENING
 I. Listen and Complete the form below. (8 points)
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example: Global Bicycle Tours

Tour name: River Valley tour. Tour month: (1)

……………………………………….
Customer Name: (2) ……………………………………..Schmidt
Address: P. O. Box (3)…………………………. Manchester

Bicycle rental required? __Yes _☑_No

Dietary restrictions: (4 )………………………………………………
II.Questions 5-10 Listen and choose the correct letters A, B or C. (12 points)
5.What size of deposit does the caller have to pay?
A. 5 percent
B. 30 percent
C. 50 percent
6. When does the deposit have to be
paid? A. Two weeks from now
B. Four weeks from now
C. Six weeks from now
7. How will the luggage be carried?
A. By bus
B. By bicycle
C. By van
Questions 8-10 : Choose three latters A-F.
A.raincoat
B.Spare tire
C.maps
D.water bottle

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E.camera
F.guide book

SECTION 2. PHONETICS
III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write
your answers in the space provided. (6 points)
1. A. hummock B. struggle C. industry D. subsidy
2. A. thesis B. ethane C. author D. feather
3. A. wicked B. wrecked C. hatred D. naked
IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of
the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (4 points)
1.A. government B. prohibit C. applicant D. habitat
2.A. sympathetic B. participant C. curriculum D. discriminate
SECTION 3. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
V. Choose the correct answer to complete each of the following sentences. THERE
CAN BE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER TO SOME QUESTIONS. Write
your answers in the space provided. (70 points)
1. When I finish my writing this composition, I’m going to ___________ and go to
bed.
A. make time B. hit the hay C. hit the big time D. call it a day
2. Marry usually buys her clothes ___________. It’s cheaper than going to a dressmaker.
A. in public B. on the shelf C. off the peg D. on the house
3. You are at ___________ to do what you like.
A. freedom B. odds C. disposal D. liberty
4. Davwwwid has not seen Linda for fifteen years and has ___________ of her address.
A. no idea B. nothing C. no thought D. no mind
5. I have three brothers, ___________ of whom were there.
A. none B. neither C. no one D. either
6. - “Why don’t we listen to some news programmes.” - “___________”
A. I don’t care for them either.
B. Because they’re usually so boring
C. Because I like pop music and I like presenter
D. Yes, whenever I’m in my father’s car!
7. If you want to ___________ success in life, you have to work hard.
A. achieve B. receive C. award D. earn
8. ___________ he was lazy, he failed the exam.
A. Now that B. so C. consequently D. Thus
9. - A: “Will the Browns be invited?” - B: “ I___________”
A. expect so not B. so expect C. expect so D. don’t expect
10. Anyone ordering a new MP3 player ___________ the end of the month will receive a free
extra set of headphone.
A. at B. in C. upon D. before 11. My job is so ___________ that I don’t
think I’ll be able to take a summer break.
A. persisting B. hard C. demanding D. tough
12. We ___________ the beginning of the film if we had gone to the cinema 15
mimutes earlier.
A. would have never missed B. would never miss
C. would never have missed D. never missed
13. He regrets___________ that car.
A. not buying B. not to buy
Page 2 of
7
 C.having not bought D. not having bought
14. Paula would like to___________by the time he is 45.
A. travel B. to travel C. be going to travel D. have traveled

15. It is ___________ knowledge that newspapers report news.

A. plain B. common C. easy D. simple
16. ___________ ,the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Leaving uncovered B. Having lelf uncovered
C. lelf uncovered D. Been lelf uncovered
17. ___________ fire, please break the glass and ring the bell.
A. In case of B. During C. Because of D. With a view to
18. The strike was ___________ owing to a last-minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
19. I’m amazed that this game ever___________ - it’s so silly!
A. took in B. caught on C. took up D. caught by
20. The match will be screened on ITV with ___________ commentary by Sandy Curley.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
21. It was ___________that even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it.
A. such a surprising victory B. so surprising a victory
C. too surprising D. surprising
22. The first time I noticed something wrong was___________ I got home.
A. when B. whether C. since D. until
23. ___________, he cannot make ends meet.
A. Hard though he works B. Although he works hard
C. He works hardly D. Hard as he work
24. Everyone hoped that he would ________ after the operation.
A. pull through B. pull over C. get better D. pull out
25. ___________ new hostel for ___________ poor is being built in___________town
centre.
A. The/the/a B. A/Ø/ theC. The/ a /a D. A/ the/ the
26. I saw him hiding something in a ___________ bag.
A. small plastic black B. black small plastic
C. small black plastic D. plastic small black
27. The table___________when it was being moved to another room.
A. was broken B. broke C. got breaking D. got broken
28. “Did you meet Ann here at the university?
“No, We ___________ when I started college.
A. have already met B. had already met
C. had already been meeting D. have already been meeting
29. Of all the three sisters, Lan is ___________.
A. the best and most qualified B. the most qualified and best
C. the most qualified and the best D. the best and the most qualified
30. He offered to ___________ her a favour as the suitcase was too heavy for her to carry.
A. show B. lend C. help D. do
31. Smoke from factories can cause air___________.
A. pollute B. pollution C. polluting D. pollutant
32. Writers and novelists are___________people.
A. imaginary B. imaginative C. imaginable D. imagined
33. At the party last night, I met a lot of ___________ people.
A. interested B. interest C.interesting D. interestingly
34. I was the first person ___________ the accident.

Page 3 of 7
 A. to witness B. had witnessed
C. to have witnessed D. to be witnessed
35. By the time Peter came back, ___________ for Singapore.
A. I left B. I have left C. I had left D. he will have left
VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write
your answer in the space provided. (10 points)
1. In 1729, Benjamin Franklin published the Pennsylvania Gazette, which soon became the
read widely newspaper in the colonies.
A. published B. which C. soon D. read widely
2. Each of the hotel’s 500 rooms were equiped with high quality air conditioning and
television.
A. hotel’s B. were equiped C.high D. conditioning
3. The problem of inadequate salaries for teahers not only exists in smaller communities but
also in large cities.
A. problem B. for C. not only D. communities
4. If the water level had raised any higher, the dam would probably have broken down.
A. water level B. raised C. higher D. probably
5. Plants, which make up to 90 percentage of visible living organisms, get their food energy
from sunlight.
A. make up B. percentage C. living D. food
SECTION 4. READING
VII. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage. Write
your answers in the space provided. (20 points)
While___(1)___everyone accepts the goal of developing___(2)___in the three “R’s”-
reading, writing, and arithmetic- it often seems impossible to___(3)___agreement on any goal
beyond that. In the broadest___(4)___, the conflict over educational goals can be___(5)___as
a conflict between conservatives and liberals, or, ___(6)___they are sometimes called,
essentialists and progressives.
The conservatives, or essentialists, tend to identify a desirable education with the transmission of
the cultural heritage, a no-nonsense___(7)___featuring the threeR’s at the elementary-school
level and academic studies or strong vocational or business courses in the secondary school. They
put emphasis on the training of the mind and cultivation of the intellect.
The liberals, or progressives, tend to be interested in the development of the all- round child,
not merely in training the child’s mind or in preparing the child for adult life in a remote
future. They emphasize rich, meaningful school living in the present, and they view subject
matter as a resource___(8)___total human development___(9)___as a goal in itself. They do
not downgrade content but believe it should be___(10)___not for their own sake but as a
means of fostering thought and inquiry.
1. A. most B. mostly C. almost D. utmost
2. A. talents B. actions C. skills D. techniques
3. A. get B. accomplish C. take D. reach
4. A. terms B. words C. letters D. means
5. A. viewed B. thought C. counted D. named
6. A. but B. when C. although D. as
Page 4 of
7
 7. A. subject B. curriculum C. object D. progam
8. A. at B. in C. of D. for
9. A. but for B. rather than C. instead D. better
10. A. inquired B. required C. acquired D. requested
VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)
For centuries, sky watchers have reported seeing mysterious flashes of light on the
surface of the Moon. Modern astronomers have observed the same phenomenon, but no one
has been able to satisfactorily explain how or why the sporadically sparks. However,
reaearches now believe they have found the cause.
Researchers have explained the chemical content of Moon rocks retrieved by
astronauts during the Apollo missions and have found that they contain vlatile gases such as
helium, hydrogen and argon. The researchers suggest that stray electrons, freed when the rock
crakcs, may ignite these gases. Indeed, lunar rock samples, when fractured in the lab, throw
off sparks.
What causes these rocks to crack to the lunar surface? The flashes are most often seen
at the borders between sunlight and on the Moon, where the surface is being either intensively
heated or cooled. A sudden change in temperature may cause thermal cracking. Another
possibility is that meteors may stike the rocks and cause them to crack. Finally, lunar rocks
may be fractured by seismic events- in other words, by tiny moonquakes.
1. According to`the passage, how long have people been aware of the mysterious light on the
Moon?
A. For the last ten years
B. Since the Apollo missions
C. For hundreds of years D.
For thousands of years
2. According to the passage, the theory that Moon rocks give off sparks when they crack is
supported by………………………………….
A. a telescopic study of the Moon.
B. experiments conducted by astronauts
C. observations made centuries ago D.
an analysis of rocks from the Moon
3. Which of the following can be inferred from the text?
A.Modern astronomers have found out how and why the Moon sparks
B.Researchers now know exactly why the Moon sparks
C.When lunar rocks crack, they throw off sparks.
D. Researchers have no idea why lunar rocks spark.
4. The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to………….
A. Moon rocks B.researchers C.Apollo missions D. gases
5.Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a possible cause of cracks?
A. a sudden change in temperature

Page 5 of 7
B. lunar surface
C. tiny moonquakes
D. meteor strike
IX. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the
space
During the teenage years, many young can at______(1)_____be difficult to talk to.
They often seem to dislike______(2)_____questioned. They may seem unwilling to talk
about their work at school. This is a normal development at this______(3)_____.Though it
can be very hard for parents to_____(4)______, it is part of becoming independent of
teenagers trying to be adult while they are_____(5)______growing up. Young people are
usually unwilling to talk if they believe that questions are trying to check up on them.
Parents should do their_____(6)_____ to talk to their son and
daughter______(7)_____school, work and future plans but should not push them to talk if
they don’t_____(8)______to. Parents should also watch for danger signs. Some young people
in trying to be______(9)_____may experience with sex, drug, alcohol or smoking. Parents
need to watch for any signs of unusual behaviour which may be
connected______(10)_____these and help if necessary.
SECTION 5. WRITING
X. Finish the second sentence in each pair in such a way that it means the same
as the sentence before it. (10 points)
1. Martin thought the second part of the film was more interesting.
→ Martin didn’t thik the first _______________________________________________
2. Thanks to your father’s help , we were able to finish the project.
→ If your father ___________________________________________________________
3. Mary is proud of the fact that she is never late for shool.
→ Mary prides____________________________________________________________
4. As soon as I locked all the doors, the door bell rang.
→ Hardly ________________________________________________________________
5. My brother’s not feeling a terribly well these days.
→ My brother is feeling a bit under _________________________________________
XI. Complete the second sentence, using the word given in bold. Do not change the
word given. You must use between three and six words, including the word given. (10
points)
1. Tom and Barbara aren’t talking to each other at the moment. (terms)
→ Tom and Barbara aren’t __________________________________at the
moment. 2. The minister had to resign because of his health. (led)
→ Ill health ____________________________________resignation.
3. The only thing they didn’t steal was the old television. (except)
→ They stole____________________________________ the old
television. 4. My new hobby is playing chess with my friend. (up)

Page 6 of 7
→ I have____________________________________ chess with friend.
5. The salesman persuaded me to spend more than $200 on the shirt. (talked)
→ The salesman____________________________________ more than $200 on the shirt.
XII. Write about 150-160 words to give your opinion on the following topic: Should
smart phones be banned among students?(20 points)
6
PART A: LISTENING (15 pts)
Question I. Listen to the passage. Choose the best answer for each question below. You will
listen twice. (5 pts)
1. How many percents do graduate schools in the United States increase in applications from
international students this year?
A. nineteen percents B. ninety percents
C. nine percents D. one ninth percents
2. When are the increases the same as?
A. two years ago B. seven years ago
C. eleven years ago D. twenty- two years ago
3. Which countries showed the biggest increases in applications to enter master’s and doctoral
programs this fall?
A. China B. China, Mexico
C. Mexico and Brazil D. China, Mexico and Brazil
4. Which is the top area of study for international students?
A. Engine B. Business C. Engineering D. Engineer
5. Who made the survey?
A. South Korea B. The Council of Graduate Schools
C. India D. Brazil
Question II. Listen to the passage about jeans. Decide whether the following statements are
TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). You will listen twice. (5 pts)
T F
1. The word jeans comes from a kind of material that was made in Asia.
2. The 1960s’ fashions were embroidered jeans, painted jeans and so on.
3. More and more people started wearing jeans because they became cheaper 1970s.
4. Jeans at last became low fashion clothing in the 1980s.
5. The sale of jeans stopped growing because the worldwide economic situation got worse
in the 1990s.
Question III. Listen and fill in the blanks with the words you hear. You will listen twice. (5 pts)
Good morning. I hope you all had a good sleep. We are now ………(1)……… for Wanaka. We
arrive at the first destination, Puzzling World at 9.30. The first puzzling ………(2)……… which
welcomes you is the leaning Tower. When you get inside the spacious café, you will find yourself
among various wooden puzzles and games. The Illusion Room is a must-see as there’s nothing else
like it in the world. Puzzling World is possibly the most photographed attraction in New Zealand.
At 12.30 we ………(3)………for Lake Wanaka, New Zealand’s ……….(4)…….largest lake. This
“natural paradise” has something for everyone. Adventure lovers may follow the biking and walking
………(5)………. through the park.
 PART B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the
same line. (3 pts)
1.A.sensitive B. benefit C. pretty D. remedy
2.A exhibition B. exhaust C. exhibit D. exist
3. A. food B. school C. tool D. good
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in
each question. (2 pts)
1. A. intermediate B. documentary C. psychedelic D. communicate
2. A. exhibition B. precaution C. position D. selection

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
1. 1. Let’s go somewhere for a drink, ______?
A. shall we B. won’t we C. will we D. shan’t we
2. When we get to the park, there will be several places ______ we can have lunch.
A. when B. what C. where D. which
3. In spite ______, he did not get the highest grade in the final exam.
A. of his intelligence C. he was intelligent
B. his intelligence D. of he was intelligent
4. The water supply of Hanoi was ______ off because the main underground pipeline supplying
water from Da River in Hoa Binh to Hanoi burst.
A. held B. paid C. handed D. cut
5. He took a lot of interest ______ our work and he promised to help us ______ any troubles.
A. for / from B. about / at C. in / with D. for / on
6. The greatest ______ between fresh water and seawater lies in its concentration of salt.
A. difference is B. difference C. is a difference D. difference that
7. It is ______ that about 700 deer have been killed in the last few years due to their horns.
A. estimated B. grown C. declined D. damaged
8. How are you ______ on with your work? - It is OK.
A. calling B. looking C. laying D. getting
9. During the interview, you should speak ______.
A. slowly and clearly B. slow and clearly C. slowly and clear D. slow and clear
10. Not until darkness fell ______ he hadn’t done half of his work.
A. that he realized B. did he realize C. didn’t he realize D. that he didn’t realize
Question II: Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the sentence. (10 pts)
1. Going to university has made her more ____________ (confide)
2. Teachers must keep a record of students'____________ (attend)
3. They are thinking of the ____________ of travelling abroad this summer. (attract)

4. Daisy has fulfilled all the____________ for graduation. (require)

5. An____________ is a student in a college or university who has not (graduate)
received a degree yet.
6. You should make____________ for the wishes of others. (allow)
7. He was paid for the_____________ he worked. (time)
8. Red Cross chapters provide______________ services to help people within (human)
communities lead safer, healthier, more self-reliant lives.
 9. The practice of____________ helps maintain an adequate supply of timber (forest)
for the manufacture of paper and other wood products
10. ____________ banks traditionally served businesses, but they now meet the (commerce)
financial needs of individuals as well.
Question III: Use the correct forms of the verbs in the brackets to complete the sentences.(10 pts)
1. What do you think the children (do) ......................when we get home ?
2. I was terribly disappointed (discover) ......................that he (lie) ......................to me.
3. Nothing (give) ......................to you if you (not study) ......................hard.
4. We (tell) ......................not to go out at night recently.
5. “I left a cake on the desk but now it’s gone. What happened to it?” – “I don’t know. One
of the children (eat) ......................it”.
6. The ideas (present) ......................in this book are not really interesting.
7. Scarcely she (leave) ......................... the office when they arrived.
8. Should you agree to help us with the housework, we (finish) ......................everything on.

PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I: Read the following passage and fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word to
complete it (10pts)
Maybe you recycle cans, glass, and paper. Do you know that nature recycles, too? One of the
nature (1) _______ is water. Water goes from oceans, lakes, and rivers into the air. Water falls from
the air as (2) _______ or snow. Rain and snow eventually find their way back to the oceans.
Nature’s recycling program for water is (3) _______ the water cycle.
The water cycle has four stages: storage, evaporation, precipitation, and runoff. Water on
Earth gets stored in oceans, lakes, rivers, ice, and even underground. Water goes from storage into
the atmosphere by a process called (4)______ . When water evaporates, it changes from a liquid (5)
_______ a gas, called water vapor. Water vapor goes up into (6) _______ atmosphere. Water returns
to the Earth as precipitation in rain or snow by changing into drops of water when the air (7)
_______ cold enough. Clouds are collections of water droplets. Most precipitation falls into the
oceans and goes right back into storage.
Water that falls (8)_______ land always flows from (9) _______ places to lower ones. This
flow is called runoff. Water from land flows into streams. Streams join (10) _______ to make rivers
and eventually the water flows into storage in the oceans. Then the water cycle starts all over again.
Question II: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each
space. (10 pts)
It is easy in these days for a boy or a girl to have a book to enjoy. Today books are light and (1)
. . . . . . . . . . Try to imagine a time when there were no books. There was (2) . . . . . . . .. . a time.
When man first began to draw, he used the walls of his caves; later he made marks on (3)
. . . . . . . . . . . . . other objects such as large pieces of stone and bricks of clay. (4) . . . . . . . . . . . . time,
man thought of using the smooth sides of animal hides to write on. You see, paper did not yet exist.
Without paper, books (5) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . we know them could not be made.
Paper was first produced by the Egyptian many hundreds of years ago. At that time there grew
in the valley of the Nile River in Egypt a reedy plant (6) . . . . . . . . . . . . . the papyrus. In endeavoring to
find material suitable (7) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . writing, the Egyptian found a (8) . . . . . . . . . . . . . to use
this plant. The stem of the plant, especially its center or pith, was cut up and laid out in layers which
were processed by soaking, pounding, and drying into thin, flexible, writing (9) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . A
wonderful development of great importance to mankind had been (10) . . . . . . . . .
1. A. portable B. transferable C. moveable D. transportable
2. A. in fact B. really C. such D. indeed
3. A. endless B. variety C. numerate D. numerous
4. A. Without B. With C. In D. On
5. A. as B. like C. which D. that
6. A. called B. calling C. known D. addressed
 7. A. with B. for C. of D. in
8. A. method B. way C. technique D. manner
9. A. plates B. sheets C. blocks D. patches
10. A. made B. reached C. done D. realized
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in
the United States before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in
American homes had improved very little over that of ancient times. Through the colonial period,
homes were lit with tallow candles or with a lamp of the kind used in ancient Rome-a dish of fish oil or
other animal or vegetable oil in which a twisted rag served as a wick. Some people used lard, but they
had to heat charcoal underneath to keep it soft and burnable. The sperm whale provided superior
burning oil, but this was expensive. In 1830 a new substance called "camphene" was patented, and it
proved to be an remained expensive, had an unpleasant odor, and also was dangerously explosive.
Between 1830 and 1850 it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United
States was the wider use of gas. In the 1840s American gas manufacturers adopted improved British
techniques for producing illuminating gas from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the consumer
remained so high that until mid- century gas lighting was feasible only in urban areas, and only for
public buildings for the wealthy. In 1854 a Canadian doctor, Abraham Gesner, patented a process for
distilling a pitch like mineral found in New Brunswick and Nova Scotia that produced illuminating
gas and an oil that he called "kerosene" (from "keros", the Greek word for wax, and "ene" because it
resembled camphene). Kerosene, though cheaper than camphene, had an unpleasant odor, and Gesner
never made his fortune from it. But Gesner had aroused a new hope for making illuminating oil from a
product coming out of North American mines.

1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had become necessary by
the mid- nineteenth century?
A. development of railroads B. demand for better medical facilities
C. increases in the number of new factories D. growth of cities
2. The phrase "served as" inline 5 is closest meaning to ___________.
A. differed from B. functioned as C. rested upon D. reacted to
3. The word "this" in line 7 refers to ___________.
A. lard B. charcoal C. wick D. oil
4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a disadvantage of camphene?
A. high cost B. bad smell C. potential to explode D. greasy texture
5. What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in the paragraph?
A. It was first developed in the United States.
B. It was not allowed to be used in public buildings,
C. It was not widely available until mid- century.
D. It had an unpleasant smell.
6. The word "resembled" in line 17 is closest in meaning to____.
A. was similar to B. cost the same as C. was made from D. sounded like
7. According to the passage, what advantage did the kerosene patented by Gesner have over
camphene?
A. Kerosene had a more pleasant smell. B. Kerosene was less expensive.
C. Kerosene burned more brightly. D. Kerosene was safer to use.
8. The word "it" in line 18 refers to_____.
A. fortune B. odor C. camphene D. kerosene
9. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A description of events in chronological order
B. A comparison of two events
C. An analysis of scientific findings
D. The statement of a theory and possible explanations
10. Where in the passage does the author mention the origin of a word?
A. Lines 4-6 B. Lines 7-8 C. Lines 12-13 D. Lines 14-17
 PART E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I: Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
1. It’s not a good idea to travel during the rush hour.
ðIt’s better to avoid ……………………………………………………..
2. People think that the owner of that house is abroad
ðThe owner ……………………………………………………..
3. She didn’t know the way, so she asked a policeman.
ðNot ……………………………………………………..
4. The baby cries because the lion looks fierce.
ðThe baby cries because of ……………………………………………………..
5. I tried as hard as I could, but I just couldn’t get the money.
ðNo matter ……………………………………………………..
Question II: Use the word given to complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to
the first sentence. Do not change the word given. (5 pts)
1. It took two hours to fly from Hanoi to Ho Chi Minh city. (FLIGHT)
→ It. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
2. I haven’t decided whether to move or not yet. (MADE)
→ I haven’t . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
3. At the moment I can’t afford to buy a new car. (QUESTION)
ð At the moment. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
4. You must do exactly what the teacher tells you.( CARRY)
→ You must . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .instructions exactly.
5. When they broke the news, she stayed perfectly calm and controlled. (NOT……HAIR)
ð When they broke the news, . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Question III. Write a paragraph about 120 words to give your opinion on the following topic (10
points).
“Secondary school students shouldn’t use mobile phones”

7
PART A. LISTENING:
I. Listen to the passage about the healthy eating pyramid and decide if these sentences
are true or false (T/F)
1. You mustn’t eat too much sweet and salty food.
2. Dairy products do not contain Calcium.
3. Beans and nuts are not important.
4. Dark bread and brown rice are great sources of whole grains.
5. Fruit and vegetables are low in calories and full of vitamins.
II. You will hear Sally asking a friend about some homework. Listen and complete questions 1 to 5.
You will hear the recording twice.

________HOME WORK_______

Example Answer
 Subject Biology

Name of book: 1. …………………………………………….……

Written by: 2. Martin……………………………………….….
Read: 3. Pages from……………to………………………
Learn about: 4. ………………………………………………….
Finish by: 5. ………..……………………………………..…..

III. Listen to Philip talking to his friend about his photography course. For each question,
choose the correct answer.
1 - Where does Philip do the photography classes?
A. City College B. Music College C. Math College
2 - What time do the photography classes begin?
A. 5.15 pm B. 6.45 pm C. 7.00 pm
3 – How much is the course?
A. 55 pounds B. 95 pounds C. 75 pounds
4 - Philip thinks it's easy to take photographs of
A. trees B. animals C. children
5 - After the course Philip will
A. buy a new camer
B. get a job in photography
C. make photography his hobby
PART B: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others in the same line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. A. ploughed B. laughed C. coughed D. locked
2. A. steady B. ready C. breakfast D. steak
3. A. describe B. celebrate C. plumber D. brother
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in the same
line and write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. A. comment B. provide C. delay D. recently
2. A. vacation B. peaceful C. mountain D. summer
PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the word/ phrase that best fits the gap in each of the following sentences and
write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. “Excuse me, is anyone sitting here?” – “_______.”
A. Yes, I am so glad. B. Sorry, the seat is taken.
C. No, thanks D. Yes, yes. You can sit here.
2. _______breakfast is the first meal of the day.
A- Ø B- A C- An D- The
3. Hoa: “Would you mind if I asked you a question?” ~ Teacher: “_______”
A. No, I don’t B. Good idea! C. Please go ahead D. Ok, Thanks
4. He is the person ______ daughter goes to school with me every day.
A. which B. whose C. who D. that
5. There is a meeting _____ 9 am and 2 pm.
A. between B. on C. from D. At
6. I don’t think Tom can solve this problem, _______?
A. do I B. don’t I C. can he D. can’t he
7. Don’t worry. I have _________ tire at the back of my car.
A. others B. the other C. other D. another
8. She had to hand in her notice ………… advance when she decided to leave the job.
A. in B. from C. with D. to
9. …………………………… my students are familiar with this kind of activities
A. Most B. A few C. Few D. Most of
10. Tell your brother to come _________, because it’s going to rain in a minute or two.
A. indoors B. outdoors C. indoor D. outdoor
II. Supply the correct form of the capital words in brackets. Write the answers on your
answer sheet.
1. That rule is not _____ in this case. APPLY
2. Workers have voted for a two-hour________ in protest over wage cuts STOP
be either black or white
3. The teacher warned the children that if they _______ again, they’d be punished. BEHAVE
4. While girls lack of ________, boys often overestimate their abilities. CONFIDE
5. It is education that helps with the________ of knowledge for the young. RICH
6. Most young Americans want to lead a /an ________ life at the age of twenty. DEPEND
7. ________ , the light came on though no one was near the switch MYSTERY
8. Resident insist on stopping releasing ________ into the atmosphere. POLLUTE
9. They will ________ this road because its width is very small. WIDE
10. I couldn’t help it. The accident was _________. AVOID
III. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on your answer sheet.
1. The money (steal) ________ in the robbery was never found.
2. Jimmy was pleased (admit) ________ to the college.
3. There’s a slight possiblility of her (come) ________ back.
4. There’s a slight possiblility that she (pay) ________ back.
5. It (not be) ________ Anna who cooked that food. She was out all day yesterday.
6. You (give) ________ it on time, you would have got a high mark.
7. I promise to try my best to do what I can ( help) ________ you come over this sorrow.
8. Linda no longer owns a car. She (sell) ________ it.
9;10. There was no sign (indicate) ________ that the cottage (break) ________ into.
PART D: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the text and choose the most suitable word from the ones given below to fill in
each gap. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet.
During the (1) ________ years, many young people can at times be difficult to talk to. They
often seem to dislike being questioned. They may seem (2) _______ to talk about their work at
school. This is a normal (3) _______ of this age. Though it can be very hard for parents to
understand, it is part of becoming (4) ________ of teenagers trying to be adult while they are
still growing up. Young people are usually unwilling to talk if they believe, that questions are
trying to (5) ________ up on them
Parents should do their (6) _______ to talk to their son and daughter about school, work
and future plans but should not (7) ________ them to talk if they don't want to. Parents should
also watch for danger signs. Some young people in trying to be adult may (8) ________ with
sex, drugs, alcohol or smoking. Parents need to watch for any signs of (9) ________ behavior
which may be connected with these and help if (10) ________.
1. A. early B. teenage C. childhood D. recent
2. A. unworried B. unrestrained C. unexpected D. unwilling
3. A. development B. appearance C. circumstance D. achievement
4. A. free B. confident C. dependent D. independent
5. A. catch B. check C. keep D. make
6. A. well B. good C. better D. best
7. A. push B. allow C. put D. expect
8. A. experiment B. approach C. experience D. attach
9. A. unacceptable B. unusual C. normal D. exemplary
10. A. proper B. appropriate C. important D. necessary
II. Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. Write the
answers on your answer sheet.
Robbie Williams and his school day story
On my first day at school I saw all these kids crying as they said ________ (1) to their
mums, but I was more concerned with playing with the boys. I told Mum to go home; she was
________ (2) upset than I was!
After Millhill Primary School I went ________ (3) to St Margaret Ward which was the
local High School. I was there untill sixteen and ________ (4) with eight or nine GCSEs. I
was a good boy at school because I never got caught. I did the normal things that you would
expect from a fourteen-year-old ________ (5). I didn’t smoke, but I went to the smokers’
corners. And you won’t allowed to wear sport shoes, so I’d always ________ (6) them on. I
always used to be the one that would ________ (7)the class laugh. Then as soon as the teacher
turned ________ 8), I’d sit straight and the rest of the class would be ________ 9) and the
teacher would tell ________ (10) off.
III. Read the passage and choose the best option to answer the following question. Write
A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
One of the 7 wonders of the ancient world, the great pyramid of Giza was a monument
of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheop in 1720 BC. Despite its antiquity,
certain aspects of this construction makes it truly one of the truly great wonders of the world.
The thirteen – acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with
limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the pharaoh.
It is the largest single structure in the world. The 4 sides of the pyramid are aligned almost
exactly on true north, south, east and west – an incredible engineering feat. The ancient
Egyptians were sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the great pyramid
were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many
intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent type of timeline of
events – past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to
coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and
currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and this
one is no exception. Some researchers even associate with its extraterrestrial being of the
ancient past.
Was it superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any
known today.
1. What has research of the base reveal?
A. There are racks in the foundation. B. Tomb robbers have stolen pharaoh’s body.
 C. The lines represent important events. D. A superior race of people built it.
2. Extraterrestrial beings are _______.
A. very strong workers. B. living beings from other planets.
C. researchers in Egyptology. D. astronomers in the ancient times
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To enable the pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
4. The word “intersecting” in line 9 is nearest in meaning to _________
A. crossing B. coming C. observing D. cutting
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architect’s plans for the hidden passage.
B. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.
C. Pathways of the great solar body.
D. Astrological computation.
6. The word “prophesied” in line 12 is closest in meaning to __________
A. said B. armed C. terminated D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great pyramid.
B. Problems with the construction of great pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great pyramid of Giza.
D. Exploration of the burial chamber of Cheop.
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians based their calculation?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies. B. Advanced technology.
C. Advanced tools of measurements. D. Knowledge of the earth’s surface.
9. Why was the Great pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple.
C. As a tomb for the pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
10. Why is the Great pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the 4 cardinal points of the compass and contains many
prophecies.
B. It was selected as the tomb of the pharaoh Cheop.
C. It was built a super race.
D. It is very old.
PART E: WRITING
I. Rewrite each sentence, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same.
1.The problem hasn’t been solved satisfactorily.
=> There has_______________________________________________.
2.. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.
=> Sad____________________________________________________.
3.. As she grows older, she becomes increasingly cheerful.
=> The older_______________________________________________.
4.. When the Minister was asked about the strike, he declined to comment.
=> On __________________...________________________________.
5.. He told me that it was wrong of me to leave early.
=> He criticized_______________________________________________.
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences using the given word so that it keeps the same
meaning. Write the answers on your answer sheet.
1. It is believed that his father died in a car accident. HAVE
=>His father is_______________________________________________.
2. In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club. REGRETS
=> In the end, I _______________________________________________.
3. His rude behaviour is too much for me. PUT
=> I can not _________________________________________behaviour.
4. “Don’t forget to phone the office,” she told him. REMINDED
=> She______________________________________________________.
5. Tom is a playwright as well as an actor. NOT ONLY
=> Tom is_____________________________________________an actor.
III. Paragraph writing. (10 points)
Should students go to school by electric bike?
Write a paragraph of about 120-150 words using your own reasons and any relevant examples
from your own knowledge or experience to justify your answer.

THE END
8
SECTION A – LISTENING (15 pts)
I. You will hear a radio interview with a man who works on an international camp.
Circle the correct answer for each question.
1. If you want to apply for the Camp you must:
A. be a student
B. be at least twenty-four years old
C. speak more than one language
2. In a camp tent you can expect to
A. mix with other nationalities
B. share with five other people
C. know the other people
3. What do you have to take to the Camp?
A. a tent B. a map C. pictures
4. As a Camp member you should.
A. be a good singer B. join in performances C. be good at acting
5. The Camp fees must be paid.
A. in dollars B. by cheques C. before the Camp starts
II. You will hear a radio program, decide whether these following statements are
True (T) or (F) False. Write T/F in the space given.
6. When his father left, Matt lived with other members of his family.
7. Matt’s mother encoraged her sons to be creative.
8. As a Child, Matt loved to pretend he was someone else.
9. His first success came when he met Ben Affleck.
10. Matt doesn’t devote all his time and energy to acting
III. You will hear a man giving information about a city bus tour.
SAILING CLUB TRIP
11. Time to arrive back at club: ……………..pm
12. Name of cafe for lunch: ……………………..
13. Bring: …………………………..
14. Number of people: ………………….
15. Secretary’s name: Ms…………………………

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)

I. Find only one word whose underlined part has different pronunciation from that
of the other words. (3pts)
16. A. layer B. frame C. artisan D. place
17. A. museum B. cultural C. drum D. sculpture
18. A. tablecloth B. authenticity C. through D. although
II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others. (2pts)
Exercise 2: Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others.
19. A. conduct B. ancient C. drawback D. feature
20. A. determine B. pagoda C. fabulous D. convenient

SECTION C : VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

QuestionI. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21.They seemed to be …………..to the criticism and just carried on as before
A.indifferent B.disinterested C.sensitive D. uncaring
22. He spoke…………all the families who had lost relatives in the disaster.
A. in aid for B. in respect of C. on behalf of D. except for
23. She turned………..the job in New York, because she didn’t want to move.
A. with B. up C. in D. down
24. He seldom goes to the cinema, …………….?
A. doesn’t he B. is he C. does he D. isn’t he
25. Only a ……………of students attend those classes
A. team B. handful C. group D. band
26. Does the grass need………….?.
A. cutting B. cut C. be cut D. to cut
27. Tom was the only foreigner…………I saw at the party.
A.whom B. which C.who D. what
28. It was in the countryside…………………..
A.where John was brought up B. John was brought up
 C. that John was brought up D. which John was brought up
29. Tom: Which is more important: luck or effort?
Mary: Luck is………………..effort
A.on the same importance B. the same importance as
C. of the same importance D. as the same importance as
30. The jokes Jack tells as old as …………….
A.the earth B. the mountains C.the oceans D. the hills
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (8 pts)
31. Why you always (put) your dirty new clothes on their bed?
32. I can’t find my watch. I’m sure it (steal).
33. It’s very cold, isn’t it? I think it (freeze) outside
34. Phong, together with his classmates, (be) in the voluntary program last year.
35. I hope that I (finish) my report by dinner time.
36. She (suffer) from flu when she was interviewed
37. I’ve got a job in Korea so I (live) there for the next two years.
38. The factory is said (destroy) in a fire two years ago
Question III. Supply the correct form of the wordsgiven. (7 pts)
39. Leisure habits won’t change much in the ________ future. (see)
40. The conditions in the man’s prison were ________. (human)
41. Even if you are good at a game,you shouldn’t be ________. (confident)
42. My teacher is very …………..about the history of Vietnam. (know)
43. Burning coal is an………..…way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. (economy)
44. She never gets anywhere on time. She’s hopelessly………….. (organize)
45. The government has passed the law of……………… (alcohol)
Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text. Identify each mistake, write it
down and give your correction. (5pts)
Imaginative you’re walking across a college campus when an unknown man asks
you about directions. While you’re talking, two men pass between you carrying a door.
After an irritating minute of interruption you carry on describing the route. When
you’ve finished, you are inform that you’ve just taken part in a psychology experiment,
and asked if you noticed any changes after the two men passed with the door. “No,” you
reply uneasy. The unknown man then explains that the man who approached you
initially walked off behind the door, leaving this man in his place. You are stunned; the
two men are dressed differently and have differenty voices and haircuts.
46…………………………………………………………………….
47…………………………………………………………………….
48…………………………………………………………………….
49…………………………………………………………………….
50…………………………………………………………………….
 SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
I. Read the passage and fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
Teenagers today live in a very competitive world.It is (51) ……important than ever to
succeed at school if you hope to (52)……..a chance in the job market afterwards. It’s no
wonder that many young people worry (53)……letting down their parents, their peers
and themselves. To try to please everyone, they take on too (54)……..tasks until it
becomes harder and harder to balance homework assignments, parties, sports activities
and friends. The result is that young people (55)………from stress.There are different
ways of dealing with stress. Everyone knows that caffeine, in the (56)………of coffee
or soft drinks,keeps you awake and alert. But caffeine is a drug which (57)……..become
addictive. In the end, like other drugs, caffeine only leads to more stress. There are
better (58)……..to deal with stress: physical exercise is a good release for stress, (59)
……….it increases certain chemicals in the brain which calm you down. You have to
get enough sleep to (60)………stress and to stay healthy and full of energy.
II. Read and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage. (2.0 pts)
One rather unlikely word that has recently entered the language is “blog”, a shortened
form of “web log”. A blog is a diary posted on the Internet by the person writing it – the
“blogger” – who presumably (61) ___ other people to read it. It is ironical that modern
technology is being used to (62) ___ new life into such an old-fashioned form as the
personal journal. And now, as the technology behind video camera is making them
easier to use, we have the video log, or “vlog”. Vlogging does not require (63) ___
sophisticated equipment: a digital video camera, a high-speed Internet connection and a
host are all that is needed. Vloggers can put anything that (64) ___ their fancy onto their
personal website. Some vloggers have no ambitions (65) ___ than to show films they
have (66) ___ while on holiday in exotic places. However, vlogs can also (67) ___ more
ambitious purposes. For instance, amateur film-makers who want to make a name for
themselves might publish their work on the Internet, eager to receive advice or criticism.
And increasingly, vlogs are being used to (68) ___ political and social issues that are not
newsworthy enough to (69) ___ coverage by the mass media. It is still too early to
predict whether vlogging will ever (70) ___ off in a major way or if it is just a passing
fad, but its potential is only now becoming apparent.
61. A. believes B. expects C. assumes D. supposes
62. A. add B. inhale C. insert D. breathe
63. A. absolutely B. largely C. utterly D. highly
64. A. grasps B. appeals C. takes D. gives
65. A. except B. apart C. rather D. other
66. A. shot B. photographed C. snapped D. captured
67. A. serve B. employ C. function D. play
68. A. emphasize B. publicize C. distribute D. circulate
69. A. earn B. warrant C. excuse D. cause
70. A. fly B. show C. take D. make
III. Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing the best
answer among A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
American Online is one of the big names on the Internet, and unlike many other
digital companies, it actually makes a profit. But the company which its rivals call the
“Cyber –cockroach” was launched only in 1992. Before that, it was a small firm called
control Video Corporation, and it made video games. Then Steve Case, a former Pizza
Hut marketing executive arrived and took the company online, innovative, fast moving,
and user - friendly, American online appeals to people who want to search the Internet,
but who do not have a lot of experience. For the same reason “teachies”, people who
think they are more expert with computers, look down on American Online and its
users. Recently, American Online (or AOL, as it calls itself) joined with Time Warn – a
multi - million dollar movie and magazine company - to create a multi media giant.
Now, AOL has begun to expand abroad. In many European countries, including the
United Kingdom, it is hard to buy a computer magazine that does not have a free AOL
introductory offer. The company also puts advertisements onto the television, and
employs people to hand out its free introductory disks at places like train stations. As
the Internet gets faster, AOL is changing. With many homes getting high - speed
connection through fiber optic cables, or the new ADSL technology, the “Cyber -
cockroach” will have to show that like real cockroaches, it can survive in almost any
environment.
71. What is the passage about?
A. a computer company B. a software company
C. an Internet company D. a video company
72. The word “it” in line 2 refers to:
A. American Online B. Cyber - cockroach
C. Control video corporation D. digital company
73. Who does Steve Case work for?
A. Pizza Hut B. AOL
C. Control video Corporation D. None of these
74. How do “teachies” feel about American Online?
A. They think it is a Cyber - cockroach
B. They think it is for experts
C. They think it is a movie and a magazine company
D. They feel superior to its users
75. American Online has the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. innovative B. experienced C. user - friendly D. fast moving
76. People who use American Online are probably:
A. video game players B. “teachies”
C. movie fans D. people new to the Internet
77. American Online is an unusual digital company because:
A. it used to make video games B. it is innovative
C. it makes money D. is has joined with another company
78. Which marketing idea is NOT mentioned?
A. advertisements on the Internet B. advertisements on TV
C. free disks in journals D. people giving disks away
79. What does the article say about AOL’s future?
A. it will do well B. it will do badly
C. it will face challenges D. The article doesn’t say
80. What is this passage mainly concerned with?
A. technology B. a history of the Internet
C. computer users D. a successful business

SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)

I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (1.0 pt)
81. The world would be much better off if all environmental pollution stopped today.
→ Were ………………………………………………………………………….
82. He suddenly thought that he might have misunderstood her.
→ It crossed …………………………………………………………………….
83. The football match didn’t start until the lights went on.
→ It was …………………………………………………………………….…..
84. You must concentrate on your study more.
→ You must apply ………………………………………………………………
85. If you don’t pay on time, your booking will be cancelled.
→ Failure ………………………………………………………………………
II. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning using the words
in thebrackets. Do not change the words given. (2.0 pts)

86. We were lucky to find somewhere to park so quickly. (stroke)

→ Finding somewhere to park ……………………………….

87. I'm so sorry, I didn't realise it was so late. (track)

→ Sorry,Ididn’t ……………………………………………… time.
88. “I must say goodbye to Peter at the airport” said Helen. (off)
→ Helen insisted……………………………………………
89. Jane said it would be a good idea if I called in the plumber to check the plumbing.
(checked)
→ Jane urged………………………………………..
90. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. (given)
→ On …………………………………………………………………………..
III. Write a paragraph about 150 words about the benefits of knowing how to swim

THE END
9
PART A: LISTENING (15 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
* Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây,
mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
* Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài
trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
* Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part I: Courtney is describing her recent trip. Are these statements true or false? (5 pts)

True False
1. She went to New York by hersefl.
2. She had been to New York before.
3. She thought New York would be dangerous.
4. They ate ethnic food.
5. She thought New York was very expensive.

Part II: You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an
international social club. Listen and complete the form. (5 pts)

International
Social Club
Application form
Name: Jenny Foo
Age: 21
Nationality: (6) _________________.
Address: (7) _________________, Road Bondi
Mobile phone: (8)_________________.
Occupation: (9)__________________.
Free time interests: (10)_______________.

Part III: Listen to a supervisor talking to a group of new nurses at a large hospital and
choose the best answer according to what you hear. (5 pts)
11. According to Debbie, why do some people fail to eat a balanced diet?
A. They don’t know how to cook.
B. They don’t have enough time to cook.
C. They don’t feel hungry enough to cook.
12. Debbie recommends that staff should keep fit by
A. Using a gym. B.Taking up a new sport. C. Changing some daily activities.
13. Which benefit of exercise does Debbie think is most important?
A. It helps you sleep. B. It keeps your heart healthy. C. It improves mental skills.
14. What advice does Debbie give the nurses about health and safety?
A. To avoid drinking coffee. B. To use the canteen at night. C. To take regular breaks.
15. When she talks about hygiene, Debbie asks the nurses to
A. Wash their hands regularly. B. Keep away from germs. C. Help with the cleaning

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 points)

Question I: Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the others in the group. (3 pts)
16. A. housed B. released C. advised D. cleansed
17. A. put B. putt C. puss D. pulpit
18. A. canary B. share C. baron D. pharaoh
Question II: Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions. (2 pts)
19. A. dormitory B. university C. institute D. scholarship
20. A. oceanic B. documentary C. magazine D. encyclopedia

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points)

Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pst)
21. Many road accidents occur because motorists cannot ____the speed of approaching
vehicles.
A. assume B. count C. assess D. value
22. I can’t help ____________what I should do next.
A. but to wonder B. except wonder C. but wonder D. apart wondering
23. Jane was shocked when I disagreed with her . She’s so used to getting her own_______ .
A. mind B. way C. opinion D. views
24. He kept his marriage a secret for years ,but eventually the truth_______ .
A came out B. came through C. went out D turned out
25. The school was closed for a month because of serious _________of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
26. To solve this problem, it is advisable _________________.
A. a drastic measure to be adopted B. that to adopt a drastic measure
C. that a drastic measure be adopted D. that a drastic measure is adopted
27. For months I sat with my binoculars watching birds ____________ its young.
A. rear B. breed C. bring up D. grow
28. It was _____________a victory that even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it.
A. such surprising B. so surprising C. too surprising D. surprising enough
29.D.W. Griffith pioneered many of the stylistic features and filmmaking
techniques________as the Hollywood standard.
A. that establish B. that became established
C. what established D. what became established
30. She is __________.
A. a well-known but not a widely-read poet.
B. a well-known poet but not read widely.
C. a well-known but not a poet which is read widely.
D. a well-known poet but who is not a widely-read.
Question II: Write the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (8 pts)
31. At this time next week, they (sit) ___________in the train on their way to Paris.
32. He got the highest mark in the test yesterday. He (prepare) _____________well for it.
33. I’d sooner they (not deliver)_____________ the new furniture now.
34. At no time he (know)__________________ she was a teacher.

35. The price of gold is said ( go up) ______________ now.

36. Most films are made (show) ______________ in the theatre.

37. He insisted that his method (be) ____________ correct.
38. My plane has been delayed. Daniel and Susana (wait)___________for me at the airport for
hours.
Question III: Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. (7 points)
39. He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later ____when a (QUALIFY)
medical check proved that he had been taking drugs.
40. The inn is _______ situated on the banks of the river. (PICTURE)
41. Turn the knob in a _______ dirrection to open the door. (CLOCK)
42.___________ marriage has been made illegal by most modern societies. (AGE)
43. Her father doesn’t work because he is seriously sick. Her mother is therefore (WIN)
the main _______of the family.
44. He led a simple life, with few ____, and never owned a home in his own. (BELONG
45. The slice of pork was________, so she refused to eat it . She was afraid of having (COOK)
stomachache.
Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text ( from 46 to 50 ). Identify each mistake,
write it down and give your correction. (5pts)
Although a certain percent of graduates will still be unemployed six months Line 1
after leaving university, the majority will have found employment by then. Many Line 2
of these will even have offered a job while at university, as a result of visiting a job Line 3
fair. Job fairs are held at many universities each year. Companies come along to Line 4
advertise jobs, that are usually in management, and the career structures and Line 5
benefit packages, that go with them. Job fairs are an effective way for Line 6
undergraduates to find out what kind of job they might be interested in. Line 7
If you go to a fair, dress professionally. Don’t wear jeans and a T-shirt. Wear a Line 8
suit! You don’t want to look irresponsibly when you have your first meeting with Line 9
your potential employer. If you are interested in a job on offer, you may have to Line 10
fill out an application form, so it’s helpful to take along relevant information with Line 11
you. You’ll also need proof of all your qualifications, so not forget to take Line12
photocopies of all your certificates with you.

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase
for each space. (10 pts)
THE VALUE OF WALKING
New research reveals that walking just 9.5 kilometres (six miles) a week may keep your
brain sharper as you get older. Research published in the October 13 online issue of
Neurology suggests that walking may protect aging brains from growing smaller and, in
(51)____, preserve memory in old age.
“Brain size shrinks in late adulthood, which can cause memory problems”, study author Kirk
Erickson of the University of Pittsburgh said in a news release. “Our findings should encourage
further well-designed scientific (52)______ of physical exercise in older adults as a
very(53)____ approach for preventing dementia and Alzheimer’s disease.” For the study, the
team asked 299 dementia-free seniors to record the (54)_______ they walked each week.
Four years later, the participants were tested to see if they had developed (55)______ of
dementia. Then after nine years had passed, scientists (56)______ the participants’ brains to
measure size. At the four- year test , researchers discovered subjects who walked the most
and had(57)_____ their risk of developing memory problems by 50 per cent. At the nine-year
check point, those who walked at least 9.5 kilometers a week, had brains with a larger
(58)_______ than those who didn’t walk as much.
This is not the first study to(59)______ the benefits of walking in seniors. For example, the
last spring, Harvard University found that women who walked regularly at a (60)_____ pace
had an almost 40 percent lower risk of stroke.
51. A. result B. turn C. sequence D. case
52. A. trials B. attempts C. searches D. courses
53. A. indicative B. promising C. fortunate D. ideal
54. A. distance B. length C. duration D. extent
55. A. signals B. factors C. signs D. features
56. A. skimmed B. scanned C. screened D. sounded
57. A. depressed B. declined C. reduced D. dropped
58. A. volume B. amount C. dimension D. quantity
59. A. advertise B. promote C. respect D. admire
60. A. brisk B. hard C. crisp D. brief
Question II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only
ONE word in each space. (10pts)
NEIL ARMSTRONG
Neil Armstrong was born on 5 August 1930, in Ohio, United States. He was (61) _______
in flying from an early age. When he was only eight years old, he (62) ___________his first
model plane. When he was ten years old, he got a part-time job mowing grass so that he could
have (63)_________money to purchase newer and bigger planes. When Armstrong was a
high school student, he continued to (64) ______up different part-time work. He wanted to
earn more money (65)________was needed to pay for his flying lessons. On his (66)
_______birthday in 1946, Armstrong was very exhilarated on learning that he had gained his
pilot's license.
The following year, 1947, Armstrong finished high school and went to Purdue University
to study
aeronautical engineering. However , before he could finish his university studies, he was called
up by the Navy to fight in the Korean War.
In 1952, Armstrong returned to the USA to (67) ______his studies at Purdue. He graduated
from the
university in 1955 and worked as a research pilot, testing new aircraft.
In 1962, Armstrong was selected by National Aeronautics and (68)_____Administration
(NASA) to
be an astronaut. He and several others had to go (69)________an intensive program of training
to prepare (70)_______for America's first mission to land on the moon. He is still famous for
his saying “It's only a small step of ours, but it is a giant leap of the human”.
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions below.(10 pts)
 American Online is one of the big names on the Internet, and unlike many other digital
companies, it actually makes a profit. But the company which its rivals call the “Cyber –
cockroach” was launched only in 1992. Before that, it was a small firm called control Video
Corporation, and it made video games. Then Steve Case, a former Pizza Hut marketing
executive arrived and took the company online, innovative, fast moving, and user - friendly,
American online appeals to people who want to search the Internet, but who do not have a lot
of experience. For the same reason “teachies”, people who think they are more expert with
computers, look down on American Online and its users. Recently, American Online (or AOL,
as it calls itself) joined with Time Warn – a multi - million dollar movie and magazine
company - to create a multi media giant.
Now, AOL has begun to expand abroad. In many European countries, including the
United Kingdom, it is hard to buy a computer magazine that does not have a free AOL
introductory offer. The company also puts advertisements onto the television, and employs
people to hand out its free introductory disks at places like train stations. As the Internet gets
faster, AOL is changing. With many homes getting high - speed connection through fiber optic
cables, or the new ADSL technology, the “Cyber - cockroach” will have to show that like real
cockroaches, it can survive in almost any environment.
71. What is the passage about?
A. a computer company B. a software company
C. an Internet company D. a video company
72. The word “it” in line……..refers to:
A. American Online B. Cyber - cockroach
C. Control video corporation D. digital company
73. Who does Steve Case work for?
A. Pizza Hut B. AOL
C. Control video Corporation D. None of these
74. How do “teachies” feel about American Online?
A. They think it is a Cyber - cockroach
B. They think it is for experts
C. They think it is a movie and a magazine company
D. They feel superior to its users
75. American Online has the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. innovative B. experienced C. user - friendly D. fast moving
76. People who use American Online are probably:
A. video game players B. “teachies”
C. movie fans D. people new to the Internet
77. American Online is an unusual digital company because:
A. it used to make video games B. it is innovative
C. it makes money D. is has joined with another company
78. Which marketing idea is NOT mentioned?
A. advertisements on the Internet B. advertisements on TV
C. free disks in journals D. people giving disks away
79. What does the article say about AOL’s future?
A. it will do well B. it will do badly
C. it will face challenges D. The article doesn’t say
80. What is this passage mainly concerned with?
A. technology B. a history of the Internet
C. computer users D. a successful business
 SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same
as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
81. His jealousy increases with his love for her.
à The ______________________________________________________________.
82. She discovered a new chemical element in her experiment.
à Her experiment__________________________________________________________
83. It was wrong of you to allow a 4-year-old child to walk home alone.
à You _____ _____________________________________________________________.
84. It’s such a difficult question that I can’t find the answer.
à So ___________________________________________________________________.
85. The truth only came out on the publication of the general’s personal diaries.
à Only when ______________________________________________________________.
Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one,
using the words given. (5 pts)
86. People say that the pyramids are worth visiting. (SUPPOSED)
à ___________________________________________________________________.
87. I was about to go out for dinner when he phoned. (POINT)
à ___________________________________________________________________.
88. You are tired because you stayed up late last night (IF)
à ___________________________________________________________________.
89. I suggested he phone his mother and he did it immediately. (THEN)
à ___________________________________________________________________.
90. She began to suffer from irrational fears. (PREY)
à ___________________________________________________________________.

Question III. Write a paragraph 120 - 150 words ( 10 pts)

"What do you think about the values of libraries?"

Use your experiences and examples to support your ideas

…………….. THE END ……………….

11
SECTION 1 LISTENINg

Part 1. Listen to the recording and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for the following
questions from 1 to 5. You will listen to the recording twice.
1. Where is Arches National Park situated?
A. South of the city of Moab B. Northern desert of Utah
C. Southern desert of Utah D. North of the city of Moab
2. When can people visit Arches National Park?
A. In summer B. In winter C. Any time of year D. On rainy days
3. How can people get to some farther arches?
A. By bike B. By car C. By plane D. By train
4. What is NOT mentioned as necessary things we should bring along with when hiking in
Arches National Park ?
A. hiking shoes B. books C. GPS D. detailed map
5. According to the narrator, why should we bring a detailed map along with a compass and/or
a GPS when hiking in this park?
A. To discover farther places in the park.
B. To let other people know your position.
C. To know where you are and find the way easily.
D. To find out new places in the park.
Part 2. Listen to the recording and fill in each blank with one suitable word or numbers.
You will hear the recording twice. One has been done as an example. (10 pts)
One-Way Ticket to Mars Mission
NASA is looking for people to go to Mars, and never come back. This appealing career is
for people who want a permanent change of scenery and planet. It is part of an (6) …………………..
new project to colonize Mars called the Hundred Years Starship. (7) ………………….. would travel to
the Red Planet and live there forever. NASA says it would be too expensive to bring humans
back to Earth. The space agency can afford, however, to send supplies to the (8) …………………..
pioneers. NASA has started the project with a modest $ (9) ………………….., but hopes to attract
investment from space-loving billionaires. Google (10) ………………….. Larry Page told NASA he’d
be interested if they could get the cost of a one-way ticket down from $10 billion to $2 billion.
The journey to Mars could take just four months. Settling on the planet would be (11)
………………….., hazardous, especially the freezing temperatures and carbon dioxide atmosphere.
Many scientists think (12) ………………….. space is essential. Stephen Hawking believes we must
move to other planets to survive as a (13) …………………... He said: “Once we spread out into space
and establish independent colonies, our future should be safe.” Dirk Schulze-Makuch and Paul
Davies call it a “(14) ………………….. goal” and part of our desire to explore saying: “It would
require not only major international cooperation, but a return to the (15) ………………….. spirit and
risk-taking character of the great period of Earth exploration, from Columbus to Amundsen.”
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)

Part 1: Questions from 16 to 35. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)

Choose the best answer to each question.
16. I’d like to _____ this old car for a new model but I can’t afford it.
A. replace B. interchange C. exchange D. convert
17. By the end of next year, we _____ this advanced training course.
A. will be finished B. will have finished C. are finishing D. have finished
18. Having passed the entrance exam, _____ go away for a holiday.
A. he is allowing to B. his parents allow him to
C. his parents allow him D. he is allowed to
19. Although he claims to have lef t his job voluntarily, he was actually _____ for misconduct.
A. dispelled B. dismissed C. released D. resigned
20. Many minerals near the earth’s surface exist in small _____.
A. amounts B. number C. numbers D. amount
21. The director retired early _____ ill -health.
A. on account of B. ahead of C. on behalf of D. in front of
22. Coffee is the second most valuable ________ after oil
A. ware B. production C. producing D. commodity
23. The government is determined to ________terrorism.
A. put the stop to B. put stop to C. put stops to D. put a stop to
24. Out ________for a walk after she finished doing her homework
A. did Mary go B. Mary went C. Mary did go D. went Mary
25. Lucia was surprised when her guests ________late for the party
A. came up B. turned up C. looked up D. put up
26. He's left his book at home; he's always so________.
A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting
27. We are going to build a fence around the field with________to breeding sheep and cattle
A. a goal B. an outlook C. a reason D. a view
28. When his parents are away, his oldest brother ________.
A. knocks it off B. calls the shots C. draws the line D. is in the same boat
29. If he had been more careful, he ________.
A. won’t fall B. wouldn’t fall C. wouldn’t have fallen D. would haven’t
fallen
30. We should participate in the movements________the natural environment.
A. organizing to conserve B. organized conserving
C. which organize to conserve D. organized to conserve
31. Over 20 years ________but I never forgot the time we first met each other.
A. have gone down B. have gone up C. has gone by D. has gone out
32. The new manager explained to the staff that she hoped to ________new procedures to save time
and money.
A. manufacture B. establish C. control D. restore
33. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ________.
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood
34. The company has just got a big order and the workers are working round the ________.
A. day B. clock C. hour D. night
35. The university is proud of their students, ________earn national recognition.
A. many of who B. many of whom C. many of that D. many of them

Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)

Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence.
36. After the storm life ………………….. got back to normal. (quick)
37. The music show was really …………………... (entertain)
38. We are waiting to have the new ………………….. installed. (equip)
39. He expressed strong ………………….. to the plan. (object)
40. Many young people ………………….. work for charity organization. (volunteer)
41. There are some music ………………….. between the two lectures. (perform)
42. The ………………….. of Vietnamese trademarks has been remarkably increasing. (popular)
43. It is important to create a safe, ………………….. ………environment for children. (threat)
44. He was an ………………….. successful mayor from 1981 to 1984. (stand)
45. They were unprepared to accept all of the conditions of the contract. (prepare)
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50. (1 points - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. Unless we polish metals frequently, they rust or tarnish when exposure to air.
47. Will Linh mind if I took his motorbike without asking him?
48. Julie failed her driving test because she hasn’t practiced enough.
49. Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses to listen.
50. The teacher found a great deal of mistakes in his students’ writing.
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55. (1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition.
51. Going to Australia has always appealed ………………….. me.
52. Jamie insisted ………………….. helping me clean up after the party.
53. The winning numbers for the National Lottery are chosen ………………….. random.
54. I’ve known her ………………….. sight for a long time, but I haven’t been introduced to her yet.
55. Although there isn’t a ban .….. cars, they prefer people to use public transport to get to work.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 POINTS)
Part 1. Questions 56 to 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
Society has changed in many ways since the (56) ________ of computers, and
people’s lives at home and at the office have been (57) ________. Most people are working
for fewer hours per week than they used to, and manufacturers and advertising agencies are
becoming much more interested in how people spend this extra leisure time. One recent
report stated that, (58) ________ the number of hobbies had not increased, each hobby had
become much more specialized.
A second finding is that nowadays, many managers would (59) ________ spend
time with their families than stay late in the office every day. Home life is seen (60)
________ as important as working. Some companies now make managers take their annual
holidays (61) ________ they don’t want to, because this leads to quite an improvement in
their (62) ________ if they have some rest.
(63) ________ these changes, some people are working harder than (64) ________.
The standard of exams is getting higher, and increased competition is making it harder to get
into university than it was 20 years ago. Schoolchildren and students are now having to
work (65) ________ hard that in many cases they work longer hours than their parents.
56. A. existence B. introduction C. recommendation D. manufacture
57. A. damaged B. changed C. transferred D. affected
58. A. since B. if C. although D. because
59. A. like B. rather C. better D. prefer
60. A. be B. being C. to be D. been
61. A. unless B. however C. as D. even if
62. A. performance B. rehearsal C. display D. expression
63. A. In addition to B. Instead of C. In spite of D. In place of
64. A. ever before B. lately C. ever since D. never before
65. A. very B. too C. as D. so
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
It was once believed that being overweight was healthy, but nowadays few people
subscribe to this viewpoint. While many people are fighting the battle to reduce weight,
studies are being conducted concerning the appetitle and how it is controlled by both emotional
and biochemical factors. Some of the conclusions of these studies may give insights into how
to deal with weight prolems. For example, when several hundred people were asked about their
eating habits in times of stress, 44 percent said they reacted to stressful situations by eating.
Further investigations with both humans and animals indicated that it is not food which
relieves tension but rather the act of chewing.
 A test in which subjects were blindfolded showed that obese people have a keener sense of
taste and crave more flavorful food than non-obese people. When deprived of the variety and
intensity of tastes, obese peole are not satisfied and consequently eat more to fulfill this need.
Blood samples taken from people after they were shown a picture of food revealed that
overweight people reacted with an increase in blood insulin, a chemical associated with
appetite. This did not happen to average-weight people.
In another experiment, results showed that certain people have a specific, biologically
induced hunger for carbohydrates. Eating carbohydrates raise the level of serotonin, a
neurotransmitter in the brain. Enough serotonin produces a sense of satiation, and hunger for
carbohydrates subsides.
Exercise has been recommended as an important part of a weight-loss program. However, it
has been found that mild exercise, such as using the stairs instead of the elevator, is better in
the long run than taking on a strenuous program, such as jogging, which many people find
difficult to continue over long periods of time and which also increases appetite.
(Adapted from Cambridge Preparation for the TOEFL Test by Jolene Gear)
66. “Subscribe to” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. disagree with B. agree with C. object to D. like
67. The word” crave” in bold in paragraph 2, can best be replaced with __________.
A. devour B. absorb C. season D. desire
68. It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A. overweight people are tense
B. thin people don’t eat when under stress
C. weight watchers should chew on something inedible when tense
D. 56 percent of the population isn’t overweight
69. It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A. thin people don’t emjoy food
B. a variety of foods and strong flavors satisfy heavy people
C. overweight people have an abnormal sense of taste
D. deprivation of food makes people fat
70. According to the passage, insulin __________.
A. increases in the bloodstream when people eat large amounts of food
B. can be used to lessen the appetite
C. causes a chemical reaction when food is seen
D. levels don’t change in average-weight people who see food
71. It can be inferred that for certain people __________.
A. eating carbohydrates eliminates hunger
B. carbohydrates biologically induce hunger
C. carbohydrates don’t satisfy a hungry person
D. carbohydrates subside when serotonin is produced
72. What can be said about serotonin?
A. It is a chemical that increases the appetite
B. Only certain people produce it in their brains
C. It tells the brain when a person is full
D. It neurotransmits carbohydrates to the brain
73. The word ‘mild’ in the last paragraph can best be replaced with __________.
A. important B. hard C. heavy D. light
74. In order to lose weight, it would be a good idea for heavy people to __________.
 A. jog 3 miles daily and chew on carrot sticks
B. walk up stairs and look at pictures of food
C. eat plenty of chewy carbohydrates
D. avoid stressful situations and eat spicy foods
75. Which one of the following exercises might be best for an overweight person to engage in
daily?
A. 10-mile bicycle rides B. cross- country skiing
C. a long swim D. an evening walk
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85. (2.0 points- 0.2/ each).
Read the text and think of the word which best fits each gap.
There are about 3,000 living languages in the world, but only six of them are the (76)
………………….. important ones. Two-thirds of the world’s population speaks (77) …………………..
languages. More than 400 million people speak English (78) ………………….. their mother tongue.
Another 400 million speak it as a second language. No one knows (79) ………………….. many
people speak it as a foreign language. Chinese is the language with more speakers (80)
………………….. English, but it is only the language for over one billion Chinese people. English is
the (81) ………………….. language on one-fifth of the land area the world over. It is (82) …………………..
in North America, Great Britain, Australia, and New Zealand. In South Africa and India, it is
one of the official languages. In many countries, the textbooks in universities are (83)
………………….. in English. More than three-fifths of the radio stations (84) ………………….. programs in
English. More than half of the scientific and research journals are (85) ………………….. English.
English is the language of international communication.
SECTION IV. WRITITNG (4 POINTS)
Part 1: Questions 86 – 95. (2 point- 0.2/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence
printed before it.
86. He hasn’t written to his parents for two months.
@ The last time......................................................................................................................................................................................................
87. I would like you to help me to put these things away.
@ Would ...................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
77. The boring documentary made her feel asleep.
@ The documentary was so...................................................................................................................................................................................
89. Life is meaningless if we don’t live for others.
@ Unless ...................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
90. People say that Jenny lived in Texas, America for 8 years.
@ Jenny........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
91. They don’t let anyone enter the area.
@ Nobody.................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
92. It rained heavily, so the football match was cancelled.
@ But for....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
93. Kate is the only real friend that Dolly has.
@ Except.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
94. They recommended opening new factories in the depressed area.
@ They.........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
95. She never seems to succeed even though she studies much.
@ Much........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Part 2: Questions 96 – 105. (2 point - 0.2/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given.
96. As a result of the strong wind last night, several tiles came off the roof. (because)
@ Several tiles came off the roof ………………………………………………….. so strong last night.
97. Simona last wrote to me seven months ago. (heard)
@ I ………………………………………………….. Simona for seven months.
98. I don’t recommend hiring skis at this shop. (advisable)
@ It’s ………………………………………………….. skis at this shop.
99. Mike's father started the company that Mike now runs. (set)
@ The company that Mike now runs ………………………………………………….. his father.
100. The number of car owners has risen over the past five years. (rise)
@ Over the past five years, there ………………………………………………….. in the number of car owners.
101. Naomi said that she would never talk to anyone else about the matter. (discuss)
@ Naomi promised never ………………………………………………………….. anyone else.
102. “This is the best hotel I’ve ever stayed in” my colleague said. (never)
@ “I’ve …………………………………………………………….. a good hotel.” my colleague said.
103. There were very few people at the concert last night. (came)
@ Hardly ………………………………………….………………….. the concert last night.
104. Why has he put off all the meetings recently? (been)
@ Why …………………………….……………………………………….. recently?
105. It is advisable to type your application immediately. (be)
@ It is advisable that your ……………………….…………………………………….. immediately.