SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10

NGHỆ AN TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN PHAN BỘI CHÂU

NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019
Đề chính thức

Môn thi chuyên: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo Số phách

Bằng số: Giám khảo 1:

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Bằng chữ: Giám khảo 2:

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SECTION A: LISTENING
PART I: You will hear a talk about the history of fireworks. Decide whether the following statements
are True (T) or False (F).
1. Up to 16th century, fireworks were used for wars and religions.
2. Some scientists were interested in using ideas from fireworks displays to show the formation of rockets.
3. In London in the middle of the 17th century, scientists believed in fireworks at first.
4. Fireworks were seen as a method of education for people in Russia.
5. The Paris Academy of Sciences played a key role in staging fireworks displays.
6. In the 18th century, Italian fireworks specialists became influential.
7. Sevandoni’s fireworks display followed the same pattern as an opera.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

PART II: You will hear five students talking about their first year at university. Choose from the list
(A – F) what each student says about the course they took. Use the letters only once. There is one extra
letter which you do not need to use.
A.  I was able to change an earlier decision about my studies.
B.  I'm happy to have an active social life while at college.
C.  I had to be careful when choosing which college to study at.
D.  I had to give up a good job to concentrate on my studies.  
E.  I had to face some criticism when I chose a subject to study.
F.  I'm pleased that I'm able to combine studying with a job.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. Speaker 1: 2. Speaker 2: 3. Speaker 3: 4. Speaker 4: 5. Speaker 5:

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PART III: You will hear a talk about the history of bikes. For questions 1 – 8, fill in each gap with NO
MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Years/Time Feature Advantage Disadvantage

wooden wheels covered need (1) ______ quite (2) ______

1830s
with metal than walking

Chain and sprocket are easier and (5) ______

(3) ______ harder to balance
(4) ______ ride

The faster you go, the

1880s use (6) ______ more comfortable more you feel every (7)
______

dangerous before
1890s equal-sized wheels safer
(8) ______ appeared

YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
SECTION B: PHONETICS
PART I: Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
1. A. noisy B. zealous C. lazy D. pizza
2. A. decided B. hatred C. sacred D. warned
3. A. timber B. bomber C. climber D. plumber
4. A. archive B. orchid C. orchard D. orchestra
5. A. pirate B. inflate C. private D. considerate
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
PART II: Choose the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in
each of the following questions.
1. A. electronic B. education C. deficiency D. possibility
2. A. companion B. comfortable C. compliment D. competence
3. A. lemonade B. apartment C. mathematics D. understand
4. A. accidental B. electrician C. manufacture D. industrial
5. A. communicate B. acceptable C. passenger D. accomplishment
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

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 SECTION C: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY
PART I: Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences.
1. The evidence suggests that single fathers ______ more likely to work than single mothers.
A. can be B. must be C. be D. are
2. Little Deon: “This herb smells horrible, mommy!”
Mommy: “______, it will do you a power of good.”
A. Come what may B. By the by C. What is more D. Be that as it may
3. Margret’s encouraging words gave me ______ to undertake the demanding task once again.
A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target
4. It is said that a drizzle on the Phap Van - Cau Gie Expressway caused poor ______ and slippery road
surface, leading to the vehicles, traveling at high speed, unable to respond safely.
A. vision B. view C. visibility D. visionary
5. This man is so arrogant that he is completely ______ to all criticism.
A. impervious B. unaware C. attentive D. unconscious
6. It's very late and I have a busy day tomorrow. If you don't mind, I think I'll ______ now.
A. black out B. turn in C. lay off D. sleep on
7. You can ask John anything about history. He actually has quite a good ______ for facts.
A. head B. understanding C. knowledge D. ability
8. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined words in the following question.
The children were full of beans today, looking forward to their field trip.
A. eating a lot B. hyperactive C. melancholy D. lively and in high spirits
9. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined words in the following question.
The minister came under fire for his rash decision to close the factory.
A. was dismissed B. was acclaimed C. was criticized D. was penalized
10. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the
following exchange.
Mary and her friend, Sarah, are in a coffee shop.
Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice–cream or Caramen with jam?”
Sarah: “______”
A. I like eating it. B. Yes, I’d love two.
C. It doesn’t matter. D. Neither is fine. They are good.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART II: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in
the same line.
The Media Commentators
A live broadcast of any public event, such as a space flight or sporting occasion,
is almost (1) ______ accompanied by the thoughts of a commentator. This may VARY
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 be on television, along with the relevant pictures, or (2) ______ on radio. The ALTER
technique (3) ______ differs between the two media, with radio broadcasters INVOLVEMENT
needing to be more explicit and (4) ______. Because of the absence of visual DESCRIBE
information, TV commentators do not need to paint a picture for their audience;
instead their various observations should add to the images that are already
there. There will sometimes be silences and pauses in TV (5) ______ although COMMENT
these are becoming increasingly rare. Both types of commentators should try to
be more informative, but should avoid sounding (6) ______. In sports ones, OPINION
fairness and (7) ______ to both sides is vital, but spontaneity and enthusiasm are PART
(8) ______ by those watching or listening. Sports commentators usually VALUE
broadcast live in an essentially unscripted way although they may refer to
previously prepared materials such as sports statistics. Because of the (9) ______ PREDICT
nature of live events, thorough preparation in advance is vital. The internet has
helped enormously with this aspect of the job. Anyone interested in becoming a
commentator should have excellent (10) ______ skills, the willingness to work ORGANIZE
irregular hours and a strong voice.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART III: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify and correct the mistakes.
The Malaysian Airlines plane MH 370 is not the first disappearance without trace. Even if it is, this is
highly unusual. In 2009, an Air France airbus jet also vanished of radar screen. Wreckage from the lost
aircraft were eventually found in the Atlantic yet the causes of the crash remained mystery until voice and
data recorders were found years later. The final report said human error was partly blamed. “Today aircrafts
are incredibly reliable and you do not get any sudden structure failure in a flight”, Mr. Louis, an aviation
expert in New York said. “It just doesn’t happen. It just won’t happen”, he added. Boeing describes its 777
model a super star. First flown in 1995, more than a thousand planes now rolled up the production line. It can
travel for 16 hours non-stop and experts point to its impressive safe record with one fatal crash in 5 million
flights. It could take investigators months if not years to determine what exactly happened to the Malaysian
aircraft but experts believe what happened was quick and left the pilot no time to put a distress call.
YOUR ANSWERS:
Mistake Line Correction Mistake Line Correction
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
SECTION D: READING
PART I: Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks.

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 CONVERSE
In 1908, Marquis Converse opened the Converse Rubber Shoe Company in Malden, Massachusetts,
USA. To start (1) ______, the company made simple rubber-soled footwear for men, women and children.
By 1910, Converse was producing 4,000 pairs of shoes daily, and in 1915 the company began
manufacturing tennis shoes. The company’s main turning (2) ______ came in 1917 when the Converse All-
Star red-and-white basketball shoe was introduced. This was a real innovation, (3) ______ the sport was
only 25 years old. Then, in 1921, a basketball player named Charles H. ‘Chuck’ Taylor contacted the
company complaining of sore feet. Converse immediately gave him a job as a salesman and ambassador,
and he promoted the shoes around the U.S for the (4) ______ of his career. In 1923, after teaching his first
basketball clinic, Chuck’s signature was added to the All Star patch. In 1941, when the U.S.A became
involved in the Second World War, Converse shifted production to manufacturing shoes, boots, and
protective (5) ______ for pilots and soldiers.
Converses were hugely popular with teenagers during the 1950s, Rock-and-Roll era, and in 1966 the
company added a range of new colors to basic red-and-white Chuck Taylor All-Star basketball shoe. The shoes
continued to be popular (6) ______ the early-1980s, but lost a large proportion of their market (7) ______ during
the mid-1980s and 1990s, with the appearances on the (8) ______ of trainers, made by new competitors such as
Nike and Reebok. Converses were no longer the official shoe of America’s National Basketball Association, a
title they had (9) ______ for many years. In 2001, the company changed (10) ______, the last factory in the U.S
closed and manufacture moved to China, Indonesia and Vietnam. In 2003, the company was bought by Nike.
1. A. from B. it C. with D. up
2. A. point B. place C. pot D. situation
3. A. accounting B. considering C. viewing D. bearing
4. A. remains B. surplus C. rest D. remnants
5. A. clothing B. cloth C. attire D. dress
6. A. by B. before C. until D. while
7. A. part B. portion C. piece D. share
8. A. shelf B. market C. shops D. stores
9. A. competed B. owned C. possessed D. held
10. A. places B. businesses C. hands D. holders
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART II: Read the passage below and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to each question.
The Beatles became the most popular group in rock music history. This quartet of extraordinary
talented musicians generated a phenomenal number of pieces that won gold records. They inspired a frenzy
that transcended countries and economic strata. While all of them sang, John Lennon and Paul
McCartney wrote the majority of their songs. Originally, Lennon and five others formed a group called the
Quarrymen in 1956, with McCartney joining them later that year. George Harrison, John Lennon, and
Paul McCartney, together with Stuart Sutcliffe, who played the bass guitar, and Pete Best on the drums,
performed together in several bands for a few years until they finally settled on the Sliver Beatles in
1960. American rock musicians, such as Chuck Berry and Elvis Presley, influenced Lennon's and
McCartney's music, whose first hits consisted of simple tunes and lyrics about young love, "Love Me
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Do" and "Please, Please Me". The Beatles' US tour propelled them to stardom and led to two movies "A
Hard Day’s Night” and “Help!”, filmed in 1964 and 1965. The so-called British invasion of the United
States was in full swing when they took the top five spots on the singles chat, followed by the release of their
first film.
During the 1960s, their music matured and acquired a sense of melody. The lyrics of their songs
became deeper and gained in both imagination and meaning. Their popularity continued to grow as the
Beatles turned their attention to social problems and political issues in "Nowhere Man" and "Eleanor
Rigby". Loneliness and nostalgia come through in their ballads “Michelle" and "Yesterday", which fully
displayed the group's professional, development and sophistication. Lennon's sardonic music with lyrics
written in the first person, and McCartney's song that created scenarios with off beat individuals,
contributed to the character of the music produced by the group. In addition to their music, the Beatles
social trend that popularized hair, Indian music, and mod dress.
For a variety of reasons, the musicians began to drift apart, and their last concert took place in San
Francisco in 1966. The newspapers and tabloids publicized their quarrels and lawsuits, and the much
idolized group finally disbanded in 1970. However, their albums had outsold those of any other band in
history. Although all of the Beatles continued to perform solo or form new rock groups, alone, none could
achieve the recognition and success that they had been able to win together.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The creation and history of a music group B. The history and music of the Beatles
C. The history and milestones of rock music D. The fashion and music popular in the 1960s
2. According to the passage, which of the Beatles had the greatest musical talent?
A. Stuart Sutcliffe and Pete Best B. John Lennon, Paul McCartney and George Harrison
C. George Harrison and John Lennon D. John Lennon and Paul McCartney
3. According to the passage, how many members were in the band, formed in 1956?
A. five B. four C. seven D. six
4. According to the passage, the Beatles' fame grew as a result of ______.
A. their first two hits B. two movies made in the U.S
C. Chuck Berry's involvement D. their American tour
5. The author of the passage implies that the Beatles ______.
A. became popular relatively quickly B. were active in social movements
C. competed with American musicians D. wrote their music as a group
6. The author of the passage implies that over time, the music and lyrics by the Beatles ______.
A. were dedicated to women named Eleanor and Michelle
B. made them the richest musicians in the world
C. declined in quality and political significance
D. became more complex than at the beginning of their career
7. According to the passage, when did the Beatles experience their greatest success?
A. Throughout their lifetimes B. After their break-up in 1970
C. In the late 1950s D. During the early and mid -1960s
8. The word "scenarios" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. love themes B. sceneries C. situations D. life stories
9. The word "disbanded" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reveled B. separated C. bonded D. slipped
10. According to the passage, how did Lennon and McCartney enhance the music of the group?
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 A. They struggled to reach stardom in the United States.
B. They composed lyrics to scornful songs and ballads.
C. Their music added distinctiveness to the Beatles' repertoire.
D. Their loneliness and sadness made their music popular.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART III: Read the following passage and do the tasks below.

TREES IN TROUBLES
A. Ecologically, big trees are incredibly important. For a start, they sustain countless other species.
They provide shelter for many animals, and their trunks and branches can become gardens, hung with green
ferns, orchids and bromeliads, coated with mosses and draped with vines. With their tall canopies basking in
the sun, they capture vast amounts of energy. This allows them to produce crops of fruit, flowers and foliage
that sustain much of the animal life in the forest.
B. Only a small number of tree species have the genetic capacity to grow really big. The mightiest are
native to North American, but big trees grow all over the globe, from the tropics to the boreal forests of the
high latitudes. To achieve giant stature, a tree needs three things: the right place to establish its seedling,
good growing conditions and lots of time with low adult mortality. Disrupt any of these, and you can lose
your biggest trees.
C. In some parts of the world, populations of big trees are dwindling because their seedlings cannot
survive or grow. In southern India, for instance, an aggressive non-native shrub, Lantana camara, is invading
the floor of many forests. Lantana grows so thickly that young trees often fail to take roof. With no young
trees to replace them, it is only a matter of time before most of the big trees disappear. Across much of
northern Australia, gamba grass from Africa is overturning native savannah woodlands. The grass grows up
to four metres tall and burns fiercely, creating super-hot fires that cause catastrophic tree mortality.
D. Without the right growing conditions trees cannot get really big, and there is some evidence to
suggest tree growth could slow in a warmer world, particularly in environments that are already warm.
Having worked for decades at La Selva Biological Station in Puerto Viejo de Sarapiqui, Costa Rica, David
and Deborah Clark and colleagues have shown that tree growth there declines markedly in warmer years.
“During the day, their photosynthesis shuts down when it gets too warm, and at night they consume more
energy because their metabolic rate increases, much as a reptile’s would when it gets warmer,” explains
David Clark. With less energy produced in warmer years and more being consumed just to survive, there is
even less energy available for growth.
E. The Clarks’ hypothesis is correct, which means tropical forests would shrink over time. The largest,
oldest trees would progressively die off and tend not to be replaced. According to the Clarks, this might
trigger a destabilization of the climate; as older trees die, forests would release some of their stored carbon
into the atmosphere, prompting a vicious cycle of further warming, forest shrinkage and carbon emissions.
F. Big trees face threats from elsewhere. The most serious is increasing mortality, especially of mature
trees. Across much of the planet, forests of slow-growing ancient trees have been cleared for human use. In
western North America, most have been replaced by monocultures of fast-growing conifers. Siberia’s forests
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are being logged at an incredible rate. Logging in tropical forests is selective but the timber cutters usually
prioritize the biggest and oldest trees. In the Amazon, my colleagues and I found the mortality rate for the
biggest trees had tripled in small patches of rainforest surrounded by pasture land. This happens for two
reasons. First, as they grow taller, big trees become less flexible; when winds blow across the surrounding
cleared land, there is nothing to stop their acceleration. When they hit the trees, the impact can snap them in
half. Second, rainforest fragments dry out when surrounded by dry, hot pastures and resulting drought can
have devastating consequences: one-four year study has shown that death rates will double for smaller trees
but will increase 4.5 times for bigger trees.
G. Particular enemies to large trees are insects and disease. Across vast areas of western North America,
increasingly mild winters are causing massive outbreaks of bark beetle. These tiny creatures can kill entire
forests as they tunnel their way through the inside of trees. In both North America and Europe, fungus-
causing diseases such as Dutch elm disease have killed off millions of stately trees that once gave beauty to
forests and cities. As a result of human activity, such enemies reach even the remotest corners of the world,
threatening to make the ancient giants a thing of the past.

Task 1. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the
appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-5. Paragraphs C and G have been done for you.
List of headings
i. How deforestation harms isolated trees
ii. How other plants can cause harm
iii. Which big trees support the most diverse species
iv. Impact of big tree loss on the wider environment
v. Measures to prevent further decline in big tree populations.
vi. How wildlife benefits from big trees
vii. Risk from pests and infection
viii. Ways in which industry uses big tree products
ix. How higher temperatures slow the rate of tree growth
x. Factors that enable trees to grow to significant heights.
1. Paragraph A ...........................
2. Paragraph B ...........................
Paragraph C .......ii..................
3. Paragraph D ...........................
4. Paragraph E ...........................
5. Paragraph F ...........................
Paragraph G ........vii...............

Task 2. Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for
each answer. Write your answers in Boxes 6-10.
6. The biggest trees in the world can be found in ______.
7. Some trees in northern Australia die because of ______ made worse by gamba grass.
8. The Clarks believe that the release of ______ from dead trees could lead to the death of more trees.

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9. Strong ______ are capable of damaging tall trees in the Amazon.
10. In western Northern America, a species of ______ has destroyed many trees.

YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART IV: Fill in each numbered space with ONE suitable word.
Among all the abilities with (1) ______ an individual may be endowed, musical talent appears (2) ______ in
life. Very young children can exhibit musical precocity (3) ______ different reasons. Some develop
exceptional (4) ______ as a result of a well-designed instructional regime, such as the Suzuki method for the
violin. Some have the good fortune to be born into a musical (5) ______ in a household filled with music. In
a number of interesting cases, musical talent is part of an otherwise disabling condition such as autism or
mental retardation. A musically gifted child has an inborn talent; (6) ______, the extent to which the talent is
expressed (7) ______ will depend upon the environment in which the child lives.
Musically gifted children master (8) ______ an early age the principal elements of music, including
pitch and rhythm. Pitch – or melody – is more central in certain cultures, for example, in Eastern
societies that (9) ______ use of tiny quarter – tone intervals. Rhythm, sounds produced at certain auditory
frequencies and grouped according to a prescribed system is emphasized in sub-Saharan Africa, (10) ______
the rhythmic ratios can be very complex.

YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION E: WRITING

PART I: For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence, using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.
1. Kate didn’t get the job because she wasn’t experienced enough. (DOWN)

Kate’s failure……………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. It’s possible that the burglars got into the building by forcing a fire exit open. (GAINED)

The burglars ………………………………………………………………………….…………………………

3. Nobody can predict the real consequences of global warming. (SAYING)

There …………………………………………………………………………………………………..……..…

4. Thomas said that the situation at work was like a family argument. (LIKENED)

Thomas …………………………………………………………………………………..…………..…………

5. He answered the judge’s question as accurately as he could. (ACCURATE)

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He gave…………………………………………………………..…………………………………………..…

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PART II: You have recently received an email from your English penfriend, Elizabeth, who you're
going to visit soon. Read Elizabeth's email and the notes you have made. Then write an email (about 80-
100 words) to Elizabeth, using all your notes.

Email
From: Anna Jones
Sent: 5th June 2018
Subject: Visit

Tell Anna
I'm so glad you're coming to visit.

Can you tell me exactly what time you're arriving on the 15th?
Ask about
weather,
Since you're planning to stay for two weeks, I'll organise a trip to
clothes
London.

Birthday Also, it will be my brother's 18th birthday, and we'll be having a

present- big party at our house. There'll be lots of people and even a band!
what
about
If you can stay longer, I hope we will visit my cousins in No, because...
Scotland. Can you change your plans? Let me know!

Write soon!
Anna

From: Nam
Sent: 9th June 2018
Subject: Visit

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Love,
Nam

PART III: Write an essay (at least 250 words) on the following topic:

In this academic year, to get admitted to high school in Nghe An province, a 9th grader must handle not
only Mathematics and Literature but also a set of three subjects including Biology, Civic Education and a
Foreign Language. What is your opinion on this change?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.

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- The end –
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 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
NGHỆ AN TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN PHAN BỘI CHÂU
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019
Đề chính thức

Môn thi chuyên: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo Số phách

Bằng số: Giám khảo 1:

………….......................................................... ...................................................................................
Bằng chữ: Giám khảo 2:

……………........................................................ ...................................................................................

SECTION A: LISTENING
PART I: You will hear a talk about the history of fireworks. Decide whether the following statements
are True (T) or False (F).
1. Up to 16th century, fireworks were used for wars and religions.
2. Some scientists were interested in using ideas from fireworks displays to show the formation of rockets.
3. In London in the middle of the 17th century, scientists believed in fireworks at first.
4. Fireworks were seen as a method of education for people in Russia.
5. The Paris Academy of Sciences played a key role in staging fireworks displays.
6. In the 18th century, Italian fireworks specialists became influential.
7. Sevandoni’s fireworks display followed the same pattern as an opera.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. T 2. F
3. F 4. T 5.f 6.T 7. T
SECTION A: LISTENING (40 points)
PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE. (7 x 2 = 14 points)
1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. T 7. T

PART II:
PART III: SENTENCE COMPLETION. (8 x 2 = 16 points)

1. less effort 2. uncomfortable 3. 1860s 4. connected

5. smoother 6. rubber wheels 7. bump 8. brakes

PART II: You will hear five students talking about their first year at university. Choose from the list
(A – F) what each student says about the course they took. Use the letters only once. There is one extra
letter which you do not need to use.
A.  I was able to change an earlier decision about my studies.

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 B.  I'm happy to have an active social life while at college.
C.  I had to be careful when choosing which college to study at.
D.  I had to give up a good job to concentrate on my studies.  
E.  I had to face some criticism when I chose a subject to study.
F.  I'm pleased that I'm able to combine studying with a job.
(5 x 2 = 10 points)
1. Speaker 1: C 2. Speaker 2: A 3. Speaker 3: F 4. Speaker 4: E 5. Speaker 5: B

PART III: You will hear a talk about the history of bikes. For questions 1 – 8, fill in each gap with NO
MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Years/Time Feature Advantage Disadvantage

need (1) _LESS quite (2)

wooden wheels covered EFFORT_____ ____UNCOMFFORTAB;E__
1830s
with metal
than walking

Chain and sprocket are easier and (5)

(3) _1860_____ (4) _SMOOTHER_____ harder to balance
___CONNECTED___ ride

The faster you go, the more

use (6) _RUBBER
1880s more comfortable you feel every (7)
WHEEL_____
_____BUMP_

dangerous before
1890s equal-sized wheels safer (8) ___BRAKES___
appeared

YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
SECTION B: PHONETICS
PART I: Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
1. A. noisy B. zealous C. lazy D. pizza
2. A. decided B. hatred C. sacred D. warned
3. A. timber B. bomber C. climber D. plumber
4. A. archive B. orchid C. orchard D. orchestra
5. A. pirate B. inflate C. private D. considerate
SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points)
15
PART I: (5 x 1 = 5 points)
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B

PART II: Choose the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in
each of the following questions.
1. A. electronic B. education C. deficiency D. possibility
2. A. companion B. comfortable C. compliment D. competence
3. A. lemonade B. apartment C. mathematics D. understand
4. A. accidental B. electrician C. manufacture D. industrial
5. A. communicate B. acceptable C. passenger D. accomplishment
PART II: (5 x 1 = 5 points)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C

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 SECTION C: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY
PART I: Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences.
1. The evidence suggests that single fathers ______ more likely to work than single mothers.
A. can be B. must be C. be D. are
2. Little Deon: “This herb smells horrible, mommy!”
Mommy: “______, it will do you a power of good.”
A. Come what may B. By the by C. What is more D. Be that as it may
3. Margret’s encouraging words gave me ______ to undertake the demanding task once again.
A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target
4. It is said that a drizzle on the Phap Van - Cau Gie Expressway caused poor ______ and slippery road
surface, leading to the vehicles, traveling at high speed, unable to respond safely.
A. vision B. view C. visibility D. visionary
5. This man is so arrogant that he is completely ______ to all criticism.
A. impervious B. unaware C. attentive D. unconscious
6. It's very late and I have a busy day tomorrow. If you don't mind, I think I'll ______ now.
A. black out B. turn in C. lay off D. sleep on
7. You can ask John anything about history. He actually has quite a good ______ for facts.
A. head B. understanding C. knowledge D. ability
8. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined words in the following question.
The children were full of beans today, looking forward to their field trip.
A. eating a lot B. hyperactive C. melancholy D. lively and in high spirits
9. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined words in the following question.
The minister came under fire for his rash decision to close the factory.
A. was dismissed B. was acclaimed C. was criticized D. was penalized
10. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the
following exchange.
Mary and her friend, Sarah, are in a coffee shop.
Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice–cream or Caramen with jam?”
Sarah: “______”
A. I like eating it. B. Yes, I’d love two.
C. It doesn’t matter. D. Neither is fine. They are good.

SECTION D: READING (60 points)

SECTION E: WRITING (60 points)
PART I: (5 x 2 = 10 points)

1. Kate’s failure to get the job was down to lack of experience.

2. The burglars may/ might have gained access/entry to the building by forcing a fire exit open.
3. There is no saying what the real consequences of global warming are.

17
4. Thomas likened the situation at work to a family argument.
5. He gave as accurate an answer to the judge’s question as he could.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART II: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the
same line.
The Media Commentators
A live broadcast of any public event, such as a space flight or sporting occasion,
is almost (1) ______ accompanied by the thoughts of a commentator. This may VARY
be on television, along with the relevant pictures, or (2) ______ on radio. The ALTER
technique (3) ______ differs between the two media, with radio broadcasters INVOLVEMENT
needing to be more explicit and (4) ______. Because of the absence of visual DESCRIBE
information, TV commentators do not need to paint a picture for their audience;
instead their various observations should add to the images that are already
there. There will sometimes be silences and pauses in TV (5) ______ although COMMENT
these are becoming increasingly rare. Both types of commentators should try to
be more informative, but should avoid sounding (6) ______. In sports ones, OPINION
fairness and (7) ______ to both sides is vital, but spontaneity and enthusiasm are PART
(8) ______ by those watching or listening. Sports commentators usually VALUE
broadcast live in an essentially unscripted way although they may refer to
previously prepared materials such as sports statistics. Because of the (9) ______ PREDICT
nature of live events, thorough preparation in advance is vital. The internet has
helped enormously with this aspect of the job. Anyone interested in becoming a
commentator should have excellent (10) ______ skills, the willingness to work ORGANIZE
irregular hours and a strong voice.
PART II: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

1. invariably 2. alternatively 3. involved 4. descriptive 5. commentary/

commentaries
6. opinionated 7. impartiality 8. valued 9. unpredictable 10. organizational
PART III: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify and correct the mistakes.
The Malaysian Airlines plane MH 370 is not the first disappearance without trace. Even if it is, this is
highly unusual. In 2009, an Air France airbus jet also vanished of radar screen. Wreckage from the lost
aircraft were eventually found in the Atlantic yet the causes of the crash remained mystery until voice and
data recorders were found years later. The final report said human error was partly blamed. “Today aircrafts
are incredibly reliable and you do not get any sudden structure failure in a flight”, Mr. Louis, an aviation

18
expert in New York said. “It just doesn’t happen. It just won’t happen”, he added. Boeing describes its 777
model a super star. First flown in 1995, more than a thousand planes now rolled up the production line. It can
travel for 16 hours non-stop and experts point to its impressive safe record with one fatal crash in 5 million
flights. It could take investigators months if not years to determine what exactly happened to the Malaysian
aircraft but experts believe what happened was quick and left the pilot no time to put a distress call.
PART III: (10 x 1 = 10 points)
Mistake Line Correction Mistake Line Correction
1. disappearance 1 to disappear 6. aircrafts 4 aircraft
2. of 2 from 7. a 6 as a
3. were 3 was 8. rolled 7 have rolled
4. mystery 3 a mystery/ mysterious 9. safe 8 safety
5. blamed 4 to blame 10. put 10 make
SECTION D: READING
PART I: Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks.
CONVERSE
In 1908, Marquis Converse opened the Converse Rubber Shoe Company in Malden, Massachusetts,
USA. To start (1) ______, the company made simple rubber-soled footwear for men, women and children.
By 1910, Converse was producing 4,000 pairs of shoes daily, and in 1915 the company began
manufacturing tennis shoes. The company’s main turning (2) ______ came in 1917 when the Converse All-
Star red-and-white basketball shoe was introduced. This was a real innovation, (3) ______ the sport was
only 25 years old. Then, in 1921, a basketball player named Charles H. ‘Chuck’ Taylor contacted the
company complaining of sore feet. Converse immediately gave him a job as a salesman and ambassador,
and he promoted the shoes around the U.S for the (4) ______ of his career. In 1923, after teaching his first
basketball clinic, Chuck’s signature was added to the All Star patch. In 1941, when the U.S.A became
involved in the Second World War, Converse shifted production to manufacturing shoes, boots, and
protective (5) ______ for pilots and soldiers.
Converses were hugely popular with teenagers during the 1950s, Rock-and-Roll era, and in 1966 the
company added a range of new colors to basic red-and-white Chuck Taylor All-Star basketball shoe. The shoes
continued to be popular (6) ______ the early-1980s, but lost a large proportion of their market (7) ______ during
the mid-1980s and 1990s, with the appearances on the (8) ______ of trainers, made by new competitors such as
Nike and Reebok. Converses were no longer the official shoe of America’s National Basketball Association, a
title they had (9) ______ for many years. In 2001, the company changed (10) ______, the last factory in the U.S
closed and manufacture moved to China, Indonesia and Vietnam. In 2003, the company was bought by Nike.
11. A. from B. it C. with D. up
12. A. point B. place C. pot D. situation
13. A. accounting B. considering C. viewing D. bearing
14. A. remains B. surplus C. rest D. remnants
15. A. clothing B. cloth C. attire D. dress
16. A. by B. before C. until D. while
17. A. part B. portion C. piece D. share
18. A. shelf B. market C. shops D. stores
19
 19. A. competed B. owned C. possessed D. held
20. A. places B. businesses C. hands D. holders
21. PART I: (10 x 1 = 10 points)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. C 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. C
22.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
PART II: Read the passage below and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to each question.
The Beatles became the most popular group in rock music history. This quartet of extraordinary
talented musicians generated a phenomenal number of pieces that won gold records. They inspired a frenzy
that transcended countries and economic strata. While all of them sang, John Lennon and Paul
McCartney wrote the majority of their songs. Originally, Lennon and five others formed a group called the
Quarrymen in 1956, with McCartney joining them later that year. George Harrison, John Lennon, and
Paul McCartney, together with Stuart Sutcliffe, who played the bass guitar, and Pete Best on the drums,
performed together in several bands for a few years until they finally settled on the Sliver Beatles in
1960. American rock musicians, such as Chuck Berry and Elvis Presley, influenced Lennon's and
McCartney's music, whose first hits consisted of simple tunes and lyrics about young love, "Love Me
Do" and "Please, Please Me". The Beatles' US tour propelled them to stardom and led to two movies "A
Hard Day’s Night” and “Help!”, filmed in 1964 and 1965. The so-called British invasion of the United
States was in full swing when they took the top five spots on the singles chat, followed by the release of their
first film.
During the 1960s, their music matured and acquired a sense of melody. The lyrics of their songs
became deeper and gained in both imagination and meaning. Their popularity continued to grow as the
Beatles turned their attention to social problems and political issues in "Nowhere Man" and "Eleanor
Rigby". Loneliness and nostalgia come through in their ballads “Michelle" and "Yesterday", which fully
displayed the group's professional, development and sophistication. Lennon's sardonic music with lyrics
written in the first person, and McCartney's song that created scenarios with off beat individuals,
contributed to the character of the music produced by the group. In addition to their music, the Beatles
social trend that popularized hair, Indian music, and mod dress.
For a variety of reasons, the musicians began to drift apart, and their last concert took place in San
Francisco in 1966. The newspapers and tabloids publicized their quarrels and lawsuits, and the much
idolized group finally disbanded in 1970. However, their albums had outsold those of any other band in
history. Although all of the Beatles continued to perform solo or form new rock groups, alone, none could
achieve the recognition and success that they had been able to win together.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The creation and history of a music group B. The history and music of the Beatles
C. The history and milestones of rock music D. The fashion and music popular in the 1960s
2. According to the passage, which of the Beatles had the greatest musical talent?
A. Stuart Sutcliffe and Pete Best B. John Lennon, Paul McCartney and George Harrison
C. George Harrison and John Lennon D. John Lennon and Paul McCartney
3. According to the passage, how many members were in the band, formed in 1956?
A. five B. four C. seven D. six

20
4. According to the passage, the Beatles' fame grew as a result of ______.
A. their first two hits B. two movies made in the U.S
C. Chuck Berry's involvement D. their American tour
5. The author of the passage implies that the Beatles ______.
A. became popular relatively quickly B. were active in social movements
C. competed with American musicians D. wrote their music as a group
6. The author of the passage implies that over time, the music and lyrics by the Beatles ______.
A. were dedicated to women named Eleanor and Michelle
B. made them the richest musicians in the world
C. declined in quality and political significance
D. became more complex than at the beginning of their career
7. According to the passage, when did the Beatles experience their greatest success?
A. Throughout their lifetimes B. After their break-up in 1970
C. In the late 1950s D. During the early and mid -1960s
8. The word "scenarios" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. love themes B. sceneries C. situations D. life stories
9. The word "disbanded" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reveled B. separated C. bonded D. slipped
10. According to the passage, how did Lennon and McCartney enhance the music of the group?
A. They struggled to reach stardom in the United States.
B. They composed lyrics to scornful songs and ballads.
C. Their music added distinctiveness to the Beatles' repertoire.
D. Their loneliness and sadness made their music popular.
23.
PART III: Read the following passage and do the tasks below.

TREES IN TROUBLES
A. Ecologically, big trees are incredibly important. For a start, they sustain countless other species.
They provide shelter for many animals, and their trunks and branches can become gardens, hung with green
ferns, orchids and bromeliads, coated with mosses and draped with vines. With their tall canopies basking in
the sun, they capture vast amounts of energy. This allows them to produce crops of fruit, flowers and foliage
that sustain much of the animal life in the forest.
B. Only a small number of tree species have the genetic capacity to grow really big. The mightiest are
native to North American, but big trees grow all over the globe, from the tropics to the boreal forests of the
high latitudes. To achieve giant stature, a tree needs three things: the right place to establish its seedling,
good growing conditions and lots of time with low adult mortality. Disrupt any of these, and you can lose
your biggest trees.
C. In some parts of the world, populations of big trees are dwindling because their seedlings cannot
survive or grow. In southern India, for instance, an aggressive non-native shrub, Lantana camara, is invading
the floor of many forests. Lantana grows so thickly that young trees often fail to take roof. With no young
trees to replace them, it is only a matter of time before most of the big trees disappear. Across much of

21
northern Australia, gamba grass from Africa is overturning native savannah woodlands. The grass grows up
to four metres tall and burns fiercely, creating super-hot fires that cause catastrophic tree mortality.
D. Without the right growing conditions trees cannot get really big, and there is some evidence to
suggest tree growth could slow in a warmer world, particularly in environments that are already warm.
Having worked for decades at La Selva Biological Station in Puerto Viejo de Sarapiqui, Costa Rica, David
and Deborah Clark and colleagues have shown that tree growth there declines markedly in warmer years.
“During the day, their photosynthesis shuts down when it gets too warm, and at night they consume more
energy because their metabolic rate increases, much as a reptile’s would when it gets warmer,” explains
David Clark. With less energy produced in warmer years and more being consumed just to survive, there is
even less energy available for growth.
E. The Clarks’ hypothesis is correct, which means tropical forests would shrink over time. The largest,
oldest trees would progressively die off and tend not to be replaced. According to the Clarks, this might
trigger a destabilization of the climate; as older trees die, forests would release some of their stored carbon
into the atmosphere, prompting a vicious cycle of further warming, forest shrinkage and carbon emissions.
F. Big trees face threats from elsewhere. The most serious is increasing mortality, especially of mature
trees. Across much of the planet, forests of slow-growing ancient trees have been cleared for human use. In
western North America, most have been replaced by monocultures of fast-growing conifers. Siberia’s forests
are being logged at an incredible rate. Logging in tropical forests is selective but the timber cutters usually
prioritize the biggest and oldest trees. In the Amazon, my colleagues and I found the mortality rate for the
biggest trees had tripled in small patches of rainforest surrounded by pasture land. This happens for two
reasons. First, as they grow taller, big trees become less flexible; when winds blow across the surrounding
cleared land, there is nothing to stop their acceleration. When they hit the trees, the impact can snap them in
half. Second, rainforest fragments dry out when surrounded by dry, hot pastures and resulting drought can
have devastating consequences: one-four year study has shown that death rates will double for smaller trees
but will increase 4.5 times for bigger trees.
G. Particular enemies to large trees are insects and disease. Across vast areas of western North America,
increasingly mild winters are causing massive outbreaks of bark beetle. These tiny creatures can kill entire
forests as they tunnel their way through the inside of trees. In both North America and Europe, fungus-
causing diseases such as Dutch elm disease have killed off millions of stately trees that once gave beauty to
forests and cities. As a result of human activity, such enemies reach even the remotest corners of the world,
threatening to make the ancient giants a thing of the past.

Task 1. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the
appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-5. Paragraphs C and G have been done for you.
List of headings
i. How deforestation harms isolated trees
ii. How other plants can cause harm
iii. Which big trees support the most diverse species
iv. Impact of big tree loss on the wider environment
v. Measures to prevent further decline in big tree populations.
vi. How wildlife benefits from big trees
22
 vii. Risk from pests and infection
viii. Ways in which industry uses big tree products
ix. How higher temperatures slow the rate of tree growth
x. Factors that enable trees to grow to significant heights.
1. Paragraph A ...........................
2. Paragraph B ...........................
Paragraph C .......ii..................
3. Paragraph D ...........................
4. Paragraph E ...........................
5. Paragraph F ...........................
Paragraph G ........vii...............

Task 2. Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for
each answer. Write your answers in Boxes 6-10.
6. The biggest trees in the world can be found in ______.
7. Some trees in northern Australia die because of ______ made worse by gamba grass.
8. The Clarks believe that the release of ______ from dead trees could lead to the death of more trees.
9. Strong ______ are capable of damaging tall trees in the Amazon.
10. In western Northern America, a species of ______ has destroyed many trees.
1. PART III: (10 X 2 = 20 points)
1. vi 2. x 3. ix 4. iv 5. i
6. North America 7. (super-hot) fires 8. (stored) carbon 9. winds 10. beetle
2.
3. PART IV: (10 x 1 = 10 points)
1. which 2. earliest 3. for 4. skill(s) 5. family
6. however 7. publicly 8. at 9. make 10. where

PART IV: Fill in each numbered space with ONE suitable word.
Among all the abilities with (1) ______ an individual may be endowed, musical talent appears (2) ______ in
life. Very young children can exhibit musical precocity (3) ______ different reasons. Some develop
exceptional (4) ______ as a result of a well-designed instructional regime, such as the Suzuki method for the
violin. Some have the good fortune to be born into a musical (5) ______ in a household filled with music. In
a number of interesting cases, musical talent is part of an otherwise disabling condition such as autism or
mental retardation. A musically gifted child has an inborn talent; (6) ______, the extent to which the talent is
expressed (7) ______ will depend upon the environment in which the child lives.
Musically gifted children master (8) ______ an early age the principal elements of music, including
pitch and rhythm. Pitch – or melody – is more central in certain cultures, for example, in Eastern
societies that (9) ______ use of tiny quarter – tone intervals. Rhythm, sounds produced at certain auditory
frequencies and grouped according to a prescribed system is emphasized in sub-Saharan Africa, (10) ______
the rhythmic ratios can be very complex.

YOUR ANSWERS:
23
 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION E: WRITING

PART I: For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence, using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way.
1. Kate didn’t get the job because she wasn’t experienced enough. (DOWN)

Kate’s failure……………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. It’s possible that the burglars got into the building by forcing a fire exit open. (GAINED)

The burglars ………………………………………………………………………….…………………………

3. Nobody can predict the real consequences of global warming. (SAYING)

There …………………………………………………………………………………………………..……..…

4. Thomas said that the situation at work was like a family argument. (LIKENED)

Thomas …………………………………………………………………………………..…………..…………

5. He answered the judge’s question as accurately as he could. (ACCURATE)

He gave…………………………………………………………..…………………………………………..…

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PART II: You have recently received an email from your English penfriend, Elizabeth, who you're
going to visit soon. Read Elizabeth's email and the notes you have made. Then write an email (about 80-
100 words) to Elizabeth, using all your notes.

Email
From: Anna Jones
Sent: 5th June 2018
Subject: Visit

Tell Anna
I'm so glad you're coming to visit.

Can you tell me exactly what time you're arriving on the 15th?
Ask about
weather,
Since you're planning to stay for two weeks, I'll organise a trip to
clothes
London.

Birthday Also, it will be my brother's 18th birthday, and we'll be having a

present- big party at our house. There'll be lots of people and even a band!
what
about
If you can stay longer, I hope we will visit my cousins in No, because...
Scotland. Can you change your plans? Let me know!

Write soon!
Anna

From: Nam
Sent: 9th June 2018
Subject: Visit

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Love,
Nam

PART III: Write an essay (at least 250 words) on the following topic:

In this academic year, to get admitted to high school in Nghe An province, a 9th grader must handle not
only Mathematics and Literature but also a set of three subjects including Biology, Civic Education and a
Foreign Language. What is your opinion on this change?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.

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- The end –
27
 SECTION A: LISTENING (40 points)
PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE. (7 x 2 = 14 points)
1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. T 7. T

PART II: (5 x 2 = 10 points)

1. Speaker 1: C 2. Speaker 2: A 3. Speaker 3: F 4. Speaker 4: E 5. Speaker 5: B

PART III: SENTENCE COMPLETION. (8 x 2 = 16 points)

1. less effort 2. uncomfortable 3. 1860s 4. connected

5. smoother 6. rubber wheels 7. bump 8. brakes

SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points)

PART I: (5 x 1 = 5 points)
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B

PART II: (5 x 1 = 5 points)

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C

SECTION C: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (30 points)

PART I: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C

PART II: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

1. invariably 2. alternatively 3. involved 4. descriptive 5. commentary/

commentaries
6. opinionated 7. impartiality 8. valued 9. unpredictable 10. organizational

PART III: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

Mistake Line Correction Mistake Line Correction
1. disappearance 1 to disappear 6. aircrafts 4 aircraft
2. of 2 from 7. a 6 as a
3. were 3 was 8. rolled 7 have rolled
4. mystery 3 a mystery/ mysterious 9. safe 8 safety
5. blamed 4 to blame 10. put 10 make

SECTION D: READING (60 points)

PART I: (10 x 1 = 10 points)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A

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6. C 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. C

PART II: (10 X 2 = 20 points)

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A
6. D 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. C

PART III: (10 X 2 = 20 points)

1. vi 2. x 3. ix 4. iv 5. i
6. North America 7. (super-hot) fires 8. (stored) carbon 9. winds 10. beetle

PART IV: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

1. which 2. earliest 3. for 4. skill(s) 5. family
6. however 7. publicly 8. at 9. make 10. where

SECTION E: WRITING (60 points)

PART I: (5 x 2 = 10 points)

1. Kate’s failure to get the job was down to lack of experience.

2. The burglars may/ might have gained access/entry to the building by forcing a fire exit open.
3. There is no saying what the real consequences of global warming are.
4. Thomas likened the situation at work to a family argument.
5. He gave as accurate an answer to the judge’s question as he could.

PART II: (20 points)

- Style and organization: 25% = 5 points
- Grammar and vocabulary: 25% = 5 points
- Length: 25% = 5 points
- Ideas: 25% = 5 points

PART III: (30 points)

- Style and organization: 25% = 7,5 points
- Grammar and vocabulary: 25% = 7,5 points
- Length: 25% = 7,5 points
- Ideas: 25% = 7,5 points

TOTAL: 200/10 = 20 points

- The end -

29
 SECTION A: LISTENING (40 points)
PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE. (7 x 2 = 14 points)
1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. T 7. T

PART II: (5 x 2 = 10 points)

1. Speaker 1: C 2. Speaker 2: A 3. Speaker 3: F 4. Speaker 4: E 5. Speaker 5: B

PART III: SENTENCE COMPLETION. (8 x 2 = 16 points)

1. less effort 2. uncomfortable 3. 1860s 4. connected

5. smoother 6. rubber wheels 7. bump 8. brakes

SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points)

PART I: (5 x 1 = 5 points)
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B

PART II: (5 x 1 = 5 points)

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C

SECTION C: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (30 points)

PART I: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C

PART II: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

1. invariably 2. alternatively 3. involved 4. descriptive 5. commentary/

commentaries
6. opinionated 7. impartiality 8. valued 9. unpredictable 10. organizational

PART III: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

Mistake Line Correction Mistake Line Correction
1. disappearance 1 to disappear 6. aircrafts 4 aircraft
2. of 2 from 7. a 6 as a
3. were 3 was 8. rolled 7 have rolled
4. mystery 3 a mystery/ mysterious 9. safe 8 safety
5. blamed 4 to blame 10. put 10 make

SECTION D: READING (60 points)

PART I: (10 x 1 = 10 points)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. C 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. C

30
PART II: (10 X 2 = 20 points)
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A
6. D 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. C

PART III: (10 X 2 = 20 points)

1. vi 2. x 3. ix 4. iv 5. i
6. North America 7. (super-hot) fires 8. (stored) carbon 9. winds 10. beetle

PART IV: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

1. which 2. earliest 3. for 4. skill(s) 5. family
6. however 7. publicly 8. at 9. make 10. where

SECTION E: WRITING (60 points)

PART I: (5 x 2 = 10 points)

1. Kate’s failure to get the job was down to lack of experience.

2. The burglars may/ might have gained access/entry to the building by forcing a fire exit open.
3. There is no saying what the real consequences of global warming are.
4. Thomas likened the situation at work to a family argument.
5. He gave as accurate an answer to the judge’s question as he could.

PART II: (20 points)

- Style and organization: 25% = 5 points
- Grammar and vocabulary: 25% = 5 points
- Length: 25% = 5 points
- Ideas: 25% = 5 points

PART III: (30 points)

- Style and organization: 25% = 7,5 points
- Grammar and vocabulary: 25% = 7,5 points
- Length: 25% = 7,5 points
- Ideas: 25% = 7,5 points

TOTAL: 200/10 = 20 points

- The end -

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