11th Physics NEET 1 Mark Vol-2 EM

Namma Kalvi
www.nammakalvi.org
11th Physics Gravitation Way to success
UNIT – VI
GRAVITATION
TRY AND TEST YOURSELF

LEVEL – I (1 - 50 Questions)
1. The linear momentum and position vector of the planet is perpendicular to each other at
(a) Perihelion and aphelion (b) at all points (c) Only at perihelion (d) no point
2. If the masses of the Earth and Sun suddenly double, the gravitational force between them will
(a) Remain the same (b) increase 2 time (c) Increase 4 times (d) decrease 2 times
3. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the Sun at distance r 1 and farthest away at a
distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are linear speeds at these points respectively, then the ratio v1 /v2 is (NEET
2016)
𝑟 𝑟 2 𝑟 𝑟 2
(a) 𝑟2 (b) (𝑟2 ) (c) 𝑟1 (d) (𝑟1 )
1 1 2 2
4. The time period of a satellite orbiting Earth in a circular orbit is independent of
(a) Radius of the orbit (b) The mass of the satellite
(c) Both the mass and radius of the orbit (d) Neither the mass nor the radius of its orbit
5. If the distance between the Earth and Sun were to be doubled from its present value, the number of
days in a year would be
(a) 64.5 (b) 1032 (c) 182.5 (d) 730
6. By the Kepler’s second law, the radial vector to a planet from the Sun sweeps out equal areas in
equal intervals of time. This law is a consequence of
(a) conservation of linear momentum (b) conservation of angular momentum
(c) conservation of energy (d) conservation of kinetic energy
7. The gravitational potential energy of the Moon with respect to Earth is
(a) Always positive (b) always negative (c) Can be positive or negative (d) always zero
8. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and
KC respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown
in the figure. Then (NEET 2018)
(a) KA > KB >KC (b) KB < KA <KC
(c) KA < KB <KC (d) KB > KA >KC
9. The work done by the Sun’s gravitational force on the Earth is
(a) always zero (b) always positive (c) Can be positive or negative (d) always negative
10. If the mass and radius of the Earth are both doubled, then the acceleration due to gravity g'
(a) Remains same (b) g/2 (c) 2 g (d) 4 g
11. The magnitude of the Sun’s gravitational field as experienced by Earth is
(a) Same over the year
(b) Decreases in the month of January and increases in the month of July
(c) Decreases in the month of July and increases in the month of January
(d) Increases during day time and decreases during night time.
12. If a person moves from Chennai to Trichy, his weight
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) increases and then decreases
13. An object of mass 10 kg is hanging on a spring scale which is attached to the roof of a lift. If the lift
is in free fall, the reading in the spring scale is
(a) 98 N (b) zero (c) 49 N (d) 9.8 N
[email protected] -1- www.waytosuccess.org
www.nammakalvi.org
th
11 Physics Gravitation Way to success
14. If the acceleration due to gravity becomes 4 times its original value, then escape speed
(a) remains same (b) 2 times of original value (c) becomes halved (d) 4 times of original value
15. The kinetic energy of the satellite orbiting around the Earth is
(a) Equal to potential energy (b) less than potential energy
(c) Greater than kinetic energy (d) zero
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:
16. The Earth’s revolution around the sun is faster during the period of
(a) June to July
(b) August to September
(c) December to January
(d) April to May
17. The following table gives the Time period (T) taken and area swept by different planets during revolution.
Only one data is right and the others are wrong. Pick out the correct data.
Options Planets a T
(a) A 3 9
(b) B 4 8
(c) C 2 4
(d) D 5 6
18. The minimum and maximum distance of a satellite from the center of the earth are 2R and 4R
respectively, where R is the radius of earth and M is the mass of the earth. What is its maximum
speed
2𝐺𝑀 𝐺𝑀 6𝐺𝑀 3𝐺𝑀
(a) v = √ (b) v = √ 6𝑅 (c) v = √ (d) v = √
3𝑅 6 2𝑅
19. If the distance between the earth and the sun were half its present value, the number of day in a year
would have been
a) 64.5 (b) 129 (c) 182.5 (d) 730
20. At what altitude will the acceleration due to gravity be 25% of that at the earth’s surface (given
radius of earth is R)?
(a) R/4 (b) R (c) 3R/8 (d) R/2
21. Let ω be the angular velocity of the earth’s rotation about its axis. Assume that the acceleration due to
gravity on the earth’s surface has the same value at the equator and the poles. An object weighed at the
equator gives the same reading as a reading taken at a depth d below earth’s surface at a pole (d<<R).
The value of d is
ω2 𝑅2 ω2 𝑅2 2ω2 𝑅2
(a) 𝑔 (b) 2𝑔 (c) 𝑔 (d) √𝑅𝑔/g
22. If the radius of the earth be increased by a factor of 5, by what factor its density be changed to keep
the value of g the same?
(a) 1/25 (b) 1/5 (c) 1/√5 (d) 5
23. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of earth. What will be the period of oscillation of a
pendulum on this planet if it is a second’s pendulum on earth?
(a) √2 second (b) 2 √2 second (c) 1/√2 second 2 (d) 1/2√2 second

24. A particle of mass M is at a distance a form surface of a thin spherical shell of equal mass and having
radius a.
(a) Gravitational field and potential both are
zero at centre of the shell.
(b) Gravitational field is zero not only inside the shell but at a point outside the shell also.
(c) Inside the shell, gravitational field alone is zero.
(d) Neither gravitational field nor gravitational potential is zero inside the shell
25. A spherical uniform planet is rotating about its axis. The velocity of a point on its equator is v. Due
to the rotation of the planet about its axis the acceleration due to gravity g at the equator is 1/ 2 of g
at poles. The escape velocity of a particle on the pole of the planet in terms of v.
(a) ve = 2v (b) ve = v (c) ve = v √2 (d) ve = √3 v
26. Two planets A and B have the same material density. If the radius of A is twice that of B, then the
ratio of the escape velocity vA/vB is.
(a) 2 (b) √2 (c) 1/√2 (d) ½
27. The escape velocity for a planet is ve. A tunnel is dug along a diameter of the planet and a small body
is dropped into it at the surface. When the body reaches the center of the planet, its speed will be
(a)ve (b) ve /√2 (c) ve/2 (d) Zero
28. A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of a uniform sphere of mass 100 kg and radius 10 cm.Find
the work to be done against the gravitational force between them to take the particle far away from the
surface. (G = 6.67 x 10 -11 Nm2/ Kg2) [AIEEE 2005]
(a) 3.33 x 10-10 J (b) 13.34 x 10-10 J (c) 6.67x 10-10 J (d) 6.67x 10-9 J
29. A hollow spherical shell is compressed to half its radius. The gravitational potential at the centre
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains same (d) During the compression increases then returns at the previous value.
30. A (nonrotating) star collapses onto itself from an initial radius i R with its mass remaining unchanged. Which
curve in the following figure best gives the gravitational acceleration g a on the surface of the star as function
of the radius of the star during the collapse?
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d
31. A satellite of the earth is revolving in circular orbit with a uniform velocity v. If the gravitational
force suddenly disappears, the satellite will
(a) Continue to move with the same velocity in the same orbit.
(b) Move tangentially to the original orbit with velocity v.
(c) Fall down with increasing velocity.
(d) Come to a stop somewhere in its original Orbit.
32. A satellite revolves in the geostationary orbit but in a direction east to west. The time interval
between its successive passing about a point on the equator is:
a) 48 hrs (b) 24 hrs (c) 12 hrs (d) Never
33. Select the correct choice(s)
(a) The gravitational field inside a spherical cavity, within a spherical planet must be non-zero and
uniform.
(b) When a body is projected horizontally at an appreciable large height above the earth, with a velocity
less than for a circular orbit, it will fall to the earth along a parabolic path
(c) A body of zero total mechanical energy placed in a gravitational field if it is travelling away
from source of field will escape the field.
(d) Earth’s satellite must be in equatorial plane.

34. A satellite of mass m, initially at rest on the earth, is launched into a circular orbit at a height equal
to the radius of the earth. The minimum energy required is.
√3
(a) 4 mgR (b) ½ mgR (c) ¼ mgR (d) ¾ mgR
35. When a satellite moves around the earth in a certain orbit, the quantity which remains constant is:
(a) Angular velocity (b) Kinetic energy (c) Aerial velocity (d) Potential energy
36. A satellite of mass 5 M orbits the earth in a circular orbit. At one point in its orbit, the satellite
explodes into two pieces, one of mass M and the other of mass 4M. After the explosion the mass M
ends up travelling in the same circular orbit, but in opposite direction. After explosion the mass 4M
is.
(a) In a circular orbit (b) Unbound
(c) Elliptical orbit (d) Data is insufficient to determine the nature of the orbit
37. A satellite can be in a geostationary orbit around earth at a distance r from the center. If the angular
velocity of earth about its axis doubles, a satellite can now be in a geostationary orbit around earth
if its distance from the centre is
𝑟 𝑟 𝑟
(a) r/ 2 (b) 2√2 (c) 1 (d) 1
43 23
38. A planet of mass m is in an elliptical orbit around the sun (m << M sun) with an orbital period T. If
A be the area of orbit, then its angular momentum would be:
(a) 2mA /T (b) mAT (c) mA /2T (d) 2mAT
39. Satellite A and B are orbiting around a planet in orbits of ratio R and 4R respectively. The ratio of their
aerial velocities is:
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:4 (c) 1:8 (d) 1:16
40. In older times, people used to think that the Earth was flat. Imagine that the earth is indeed not a
sphere of radius R, but an infinite plate of thickness H. What value of H is needed to allow the same
gravitational acceleration to be experienced as on the surface of the actual Earth? (Assume that the
Earth’s density is uniform and equal in the two models.)
(a) 2R/ 3 (b) 4R/ 3 (c) 8R/ 3 (d) R/ 3
41. A planet revolves about the sun in elliptical orbit. The aerial velocity dA/ dt of the planet is 4.0 x 10 16 m/s.
The least distance between planet and the sun is 2 x 1012 m. Then the maximum speed of the planet in km/s
is:
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) None of these
42. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the surface of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’
below the surface of the earth. When both‘d’ and ‘h’ are much smaller than the radius of the earth, then
which one of the following is correct? [AIEEE 2005, 2003]
(a) d= 3h/2 (b) d = h/2 (c) d = h (d) d = 2h
43. Average density of the earth [AIEEE 2005,
2003]
(a) is a complex function of ‘g’ (b) does not end on g
(c) is inversely proportional to g (d) is directly proportional to ‘g’
44. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R at a height x from its surface. If g is the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is [AIEEE 2004]
1⁄
gR g𝑅 2 g𝑅2 2
(a) gx (b) (R−x) (c) (R−x) (d) [(R+x)]

www.nammakalvi.org
th
45. If ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity of the earth’s surface, the gain in the potential energy of an
orbit of mass m raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is
[AIEEE 2004, IIT 1983]
1 1
(a) 2 mgR (b) (2) mgR (c) (4) mgR (d) mgR
46. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the n th power of the distance, then the time period
of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to [AIEEE 2004]
(a) R (n+1)/2 (b) R (n-1)/2 (c) Rn (d) R (n-2)/2
47. The time-period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite
is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time-period will become [AIEEE 2003]
(a) 10 hrs (b) 20 hrs (c) 40 hrs (d) 80 hrs
48. The escape velocity for a body projected upwards from the surface of the earth is 11 km/s. if the
body is projected at an angle of 450 with the vertical, the escape velocity will be [AIEEE 2003]
11
(a) 𝑘𝑚/𝑠 (b) 11√2 𝑘𝑚/𝑠 (c) 2 km/s (d) 11 km/s
√2
49. A body weighs 500 N on the surface of the earth. How much would it weigh half way below the surface of
the earth? [AIEEE 2002]
(a) 1000 N (b) 500 N (c) 250 N (d) 125 N
50. The time-period of revolution of planet A around the sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from the
sun is how many times greater than that of B from the Sun? [AIEEE 2002]
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
LEVEL – II (51 - 100 Questions)
51. The angular velocity of rotation of a star (of mass M and radius R) at which the matter will start
escaping from its equator is [AIEEE 2002 ]
2𝐺𝑅 2𝑔𝑀 2𝐺𝑀 2𝐺𝑀3
(a) √ (b) √ (c) √ (d) √
𝑀 𝑅3 𝑅 𝑅
52. Energy required to move a body of mass m from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R is [AIEEE
2002]
GMm GMm GMm GMm
(a) 12𝑅2 (b) 3𝑅2 (c) 8R (d) 6R
53. A geostationary satellite orbits around the earth in a circular orbit of radius 36000 km. Then,
the time period of a spy satellite orbiting a few hundred km above the earth’s surface ( R earth
= 6400 km) T approximately be
(a) ½ hr (b) 1 hr (c) 2 hr (d) 4 hr
54. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small
compared to the mass of the earth. [IIT 1998]
(a) The acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth.
(b) The angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in direction, but its magnitude
remains constant.
(c) The total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time.
(d) The linear momentum of S remains constant in magnitude.
55. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the acceleration
due to gravity on the earth’s surface would
(a) decrease (b) remain unchanged (c) increase (d) none of the above

56. The magnitude of the gravitational field at a distance r1 and r2 from the centre of uniform sphere of
radius R and mass M are F1 and F2 respectively. Then,
𝐹 𝑟
(a) 𝐹1 = 𝑟1 if r1 < R and r2 < R
2 2
𝐹1 𝑟2 2
(b) =𝑟 2
if r1 > R and r2 > R
𝐹2 1
𝐹1 𝑟1
(c) =𝑟 if r1 > R and r2 > R
𝐹2 2
𝐹1 𝑟 2
(d) = 𝑟2 2 if r1 < R and r2 < R
𝐹2 1
57. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a
period of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between the planet and the star is
proportional to R -5/2, then [IIT 1989]
2 2 ( 2 7/2
(a) T is proportional to R b) T is proportional to R
(c) T2 is proportional to R3/2 (d) T2 is proportional to R3.75
58. 𝑉𝑒 and 𝑉𝑝 denote escape velocities from the earth and another planet having twice the radius and the
same mean density as the earth, then [NCERT 1974]
(a) ve = vp (b) ve = 0.5 vp (c) ve = 2 vp (d) ve = 2.5 vp
59. The ratio of the kinetic energy required to raise a satellite upto a height ‘h’ to the kinetic energy of
the satellite at that height ( R- radius of the earth)
(a) 2h:R (b) h:R (c) R:2h (d) R:h
60. If ve and v0 represent the escape velocity and orbital velocity of a satellite corresponding to a circular
orbit of radius R, then [CPMT 1982; MP PMT 1997; KCET (ENGG./med.) 1999; AIIMS 2002]
(a) ve=v0 (b) 2√𝑣0 = Ve (c) Ve = √2 𝑉0 (d) ve and v0 are not related
61. The ratio of the kinetic energy required to be given to the satellite to escape earth’s gravitational
field to the kinetic energy required to be given so that the satellite moves in a circular orbit just above
earth’s atmosphere is
(a) one (b) two (c) half (d) infinity
62. ge and gp denote the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth and another planet whose mass
and radius are twice that of the earth, then [NCERT 1973]
(a) gp = ge b) gp = 0.5 ge c) gp =2 ge d) gp= ge/√2
63. The weight of an object in the coal mine, sea level and at the top of the mountain are
respectively W 1 ,W2 and W 3 ,then [EAMCET 1990]
a) W1 < W2 > W3 b) W1 = W2 > W3 c) W1 < W2 < W3 d) W1 >W2 > W3
64. The radius of the Earth is reduced by 4%. The mass of the Earth remains unchanged. What will be
the change in escape velocity?
(a) 1% (b) 2% (c)0.5% (d) 1.5%
65. The mass of the moon is about 1.2% of the mass of the earth. Compared to the gravitational force
the earth exerts on the moon, the gravitational force the moon exerts on earth.
(a) Is the same (b) Is smaller (c) Is greater (d)Varies with its phase Correct
66. A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of the earth with a velocity equal to ¾ th
the escape velocity of the earth. If 'R' is the radius of earth, the maximum height attained by the body
is:
a) 9/7 R (b) 10/3 R (c) 9/8 R (d) 10/9 R
67. A body is projected vertically from the surface of the earth of radius R with velocity equal to half of the
escape velocity. The maximum height reached by the body is
(a) R (b) R/2 (c) R/3 (d) R/4

68. The escape velocity from the earth’s surface is 11 km/s. A planet has a radius twice that of the earth
but its mean density is the same as that of the earth. The value of the escape velocity from this planet
would be [CPMT 1990]
a) 22 km/s (b) 11 km/s (c) 5.5 km/s (d) 16.5 km /s
69. If R is the radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, the
mean density of the earth is [CPMT 1990]
(a) (4πG) / (3gR) (b) (3 πR)/ (4gG) (c) (3g)/ (4πRG) (d) (πRg)/(12G)
70. The radius of the earth is 6400 km and g = 10m/s2. In order that a body of 5 kg weighs zero at the
equator, the angular speed of the earth is [MP, PMT 1985]
(a) 1/80 rad/s (b) 1/400 rad/s (c) 1/800 rad/s (d) 1/1600 rad/s
71. If the earth were at one-fourth its present distance from the sun, the duration of the year will be
(a) Half the present year (b) One-eighth the present year
(c) One-fourth of present year (d) One-sixth the present year
72. If the distance two masses is doubled, the gravitational attraction between them
(a) Is doubled (b) Becomes four times (c) Is reduced to half (d) Is reduced to a quarter
73. If the radius of the earth were to increase by 1%, its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due
to gravity on the surface of the earth will
(a) Increase by 1 % (b) decrease by 2%
(c) Decrease by 1 % (d) increase by 2 %
74. Two identical point masses, each of mass 1 kg lie in the x-y plane at points (0.2m, 0), (0, 0.2m). The
net gravitational force on the mass at the origin is
(a) 1.67 × 10−9 (𝑖̂+ 𝑗̂)N (b) 3.34× 10−10 (𝑖̂+ 𝑗̂)N
(c) 1.67 × 10−9 (𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂)N (d) 3.34 × 10−10 (𝑖̂+𝑗̂)N
75. Four particles of masses m, 2m, 3m, and 4m are kept in sequence at the corners of a square of side
a. The magnitude of gravitational force acting on a particle of mass m placed at the centre of the
square will be
24𝑚2 G 6𝑚2 G 4 √2G𝑚2
(a) 𝑎2 (b) 𝑎2 (c) 𝑎2 (d) zero
76. The distance of the centres of moon and earth is D. The mass of earth is 81 times the mass of the moon. At
what distance from the centre of the earth, the gravitational force will be zero
(a) D/ 2 (b) 2D/ 3 (c) 4D/ 3 (d) 9D /10
77. Four identical point masses each equal to m are placed at the corners of a square of side a. The force
on a point mass m’ placed at the point of intersection of the two diagonals is:
4Gm𝑚′ 2Gm𝑚′ Gm𝑚′
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero
𝑎2 𝑎2 𝑎2
78. Two planets have the same average density but their radii are 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 . If acceleration due to gravity
on these planets be 𝑔1 and 𝑔2 respectively, then
𝑔 𝑅 𝑔 𝑅 𝑔 R12 𝑔 R12
(a) 𝑔1 = 𝑅1 (b) 𝑔1 = 𝑅2 (c) 𝑔1 = R22 (d) 𝑔1 = R22
2 2 2 1 2 2
79. An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are released form a height ‘h’ in vacuum. The
time taken by both of them to reach the ground is
(a) Unequal (b) Exactly equal (c) Roughly equal (d) Zero
80. A body weighs 700 gm wt on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh on the Surface of a
planet whose mass is 1/ 7 and radius is half that of the earth?
(a) 200 gm wt (b) 400 gm wt (c) 50 gm wt (d) 20 gm wt
81. Assume that the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is 0.2 times the acceleration
due to gravity on the surface of the earth. If Re is the maximum range of a projectile on the earth’s
surface, what is the maximum range on the surface of the moon for the same velocity of projection?
(a) 0.2 Re (b) 2 Re (c) 0.5 Re ` (d) 5 Re
82. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of the earth is 11.2 km
s-1. if the body is projected in a direction making an angle 45o with the vertical, the escape velocity
will be :
11.2
(a) kms-1 (b) 11.2 x √2 kms-1 (c) 11.2 x 2 kms-1 (d) 11.2 kms-1
√2
83. A spring balance is graduated on sea level. If a body is weighed with this balance at consecutively
increasing heights from earth’s surface, the weight indicated by the balance
(a) Will go on increasing continuously (b) Will go on decreasing continuously
(c) Will remain same Option (d) Will first increase and then decrease
𝑅
84. An object weights 72 N on earth. Its weight at a height of 2 from earth is
(a) 32 N (b) 56 N (c ) 72 N (d) Zero
85. The depth d at which the value of acceleration due to gravity becomes 1/ n times the value at the
surface, is [R = radius of the earth]
𝑅 𝑅(n−1) 𝑅 𝑛
(a) (b) (c) 2 (d) R ((n+1))
𝑛 𝑛 𝑛
86. A body of mass m rises to height h = R/5 from the Earth’s surface, where R is earth’s radius. If g is
acceleration due to gravity at earth’s surface, the increase in potential energy is
1 5 3 6
(a) 2 mgh (b) 6 mgh (c) 5 mgh (d) 7 mgh
87. The acceleration due to gravity of that planet whose mass and radius are half those of the earth will
be (g is acceleration due to gravity of earth’s surface)
(a) 2g (b) g (c) ge/2 (d) g/4
88. A simple has a time period T1, when on the earth’s surface and T2 when taken to a height R above
the earth’s surface, where R is the radius of the earth. The value of T2/T1 is
(a) 1 (b)√2 (c) 4 (d) 2
88. The decrease in the value of g on going to a height R/2 above the earth’s surface will be
(a) g/2 (b) 5g/9 (c) 4g/9 (d)g/3
89. Which is easier to lift?
(a) 1 g of iron (b) 1 kg of water. (c) 1 kg of loosely packed feather (d) All are same
90. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion :Smaller the orbit of the planet around the sun, shorter is the time it takes to complete one
revolution.
Reason : According to Kepler’s third law of planetary motion, square of the time period is proportional
to cube of the mean distance from the sun.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Assertion and reason are false
91. Assertion:The universal Gravitational constant is the same as acceleration due to gravity.
Reason:Gravitational constant and acceleration due to gravity have same dimensional formula.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false
(d) Both the assertion and reason are false

92. Assertion:The value of acceleration due to gravity does not depend upon mass of the body on which
the force is applied.
Reason :Acceleration due to gravity is a constant quantity
93. Assertion:If a pendulum is suspended in a lift and the lift is falling freely, then its time period
becomes infinite.
Reason : Free falling body has acceleration due to gravity.
94. Assertion:If the earth suddenly stops rotating about its axis, then the value of acceleration due to
gravity will become same at all places.
Reason : The value of acceleration due to gravity is independent of rotation of the earth
95. Assertion: The difference in the value of acceleration due to gravity at pole and equator is
proportional to square of the angular velocity of earth.
Reason: The value of acceleration due to gravity is minimum are the equator and
maximum at the pole.
96. At what height above the earth’s surface does the acceleration due to gravity fall to1% of its value
at the earth’s surface?
(a) 9 R (b) 10 R (c) 99 R (d) 100 R
97. At what depth below the surface of the earth acceleration due to gravity will be half its value 1600 km
above the surface of the earth?
(a) 4.3 × 106 m (b) 2.4 × 106 m (c) 3.2× 106 m (d) 1.6× 106 m
98. In some region, the gravitational field is zero. The gravitational potential in this region
(a) Must be variable (b) Must be constant (c) Cannot be zero (d) Must be zero
99. The magnitude of gravitational potential energy of a body at a distance r from the centre of earth is
u. Its weight at a distance 2r from the centre of earth is
(a) u/ r (b) u /4r (c) u/ 2r (d) 4r/ u
Assertion Reasoning Type
(a) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true and statement-II is correct explanation for statement-I.
(b) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true and statement-II is NOT the correct the explanation for
statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(d) Statement-I false, statement-II is true.
www.nammakalvi.org
th
100. Statement-I: Moon revolving around earth does not come despite earth’s gravitational attraction.
Statement-II:A radially outward force balances earth’s force of attraction during revolution of
moon.
LEVEL – III (101 - 133 Questions)
101. Statement-I: Time period of simple pendulum in an orbiting geostationary satellite in infinite.
Statement-II: Earth’s gravitational field becomes negligible at large distance from it.
102. Statement-I: Geostationary satellite may be setup in equatorial plane in orbits of any radius more
than earth’s radius.
Statement-II: Geostationary satellite have period of revolution of 24 hrs.
103. Statement-I: For the calculation of gravitational force between any two uniform spherical shells, they can
always be replaced by particles of same mass placed at respective centers.
Statement-II : Gravitational field of a uniform spherical shell out side it is the same as that of
particle of same mass placed at its center of mass.
104. Statement-I: It takes more fuel for a spacecraft to travel from the earth to moon than for the return
trip.
Statement-II: Potential energy of spacecraft at moon’s surface is greater than that at earth
surface.
105. Energy required in moving a body of mass m from a distance 2R to 3R from centre of earth of mass
M is
𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝐺𝑀𝑚
(a) 12𝑅2 (b) 3𝑅2 (c) 8𝑅 (d) 6𝑅
106. If orbital velocity of planet is given by v = Ga Mb Rc, then

1 1 1 1 1 1
a) a = 3, b = 3 , c = 3 b) a =2, b=2 , c= - 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
c) a = , b= - , c= d) a = ,b= - ,c =
2 2 2 2 2 2
107. Two satellite A and B go round a planet P in circular orbits having radii 4R and R respectively. If
the speed of the satellite A is 3v,the speed of the satellite B will be
4𝑣 3𝑣
(a) 12v (b) 6v (c) 3 ( d) 2
108. Three crewmen are having a discussion whether a walnut can be cracked by using a hammer in the
spaceship. Person X disagrees saying that inside the spaceship the hammer is in a state of
weightlessness. Person Y agrees saying that though hammer is in weightlessness condition it has a
fixed mass which can be checked by using an arm balance. Person Z, too agrees but he says that the
mass of the hammer cannot be verified in a spaceship by using an arm balance.
(a) Person X is correct (b) person Y is correct (c) person Z is correct (d) all the three are correct
109. The masses and the radii of the earth and the moon are M1, R1 and M2, R2 respectively. Their centres
are‘d’ distance apart. What is the minimum speed with which the particle of mass ‘m’ should be
protected from a point midway between the two centres so as to escape to infinity?
2𝐺(𝑀1 +𝑀2 ) 𝐺(𝑀1 +𝑀2 ) 𝐺(𝑀1 +𝑀2 ) 𝐺(𝑀1 +𝑀2 )
(a) v = 2√ (b) v = 2√ (c) v = 2√ (d) v = 2√
𝑑 3𝑑 𝑑 2𝑑
110. What will be the percentage change in the acceleration due to gravity, if the earth’s radius shrinks
by 4 %
(a) 1 % (b) 2 % (c) 4 % (d) 8%
[email protected] - 10 - www.waytosuccess.org
111. A rocket is fired vertically from the surface of Mars. If it is fired with a speed of 2 km/s and lost
20% of its initial kinetic energy due to atmospheric resistance, how far will the rocket go from the
surface of Mars before returning back to it?
Mass of Mars = 6.4 x 1023 kg. Radius of mars = 33395 km and G = 6.67 x 10 -11 Nm2 kg -2
(a) 395 km (b) 495 km (c) 500 km (d) 535 km
112. The rotation of the earth about its axis speeds up such that a man on the equator becomes weightless.
In such a situation, what would be the duration of one day?
𝑅 1 𝑅 1
(a) 2𝜋√𝑔 (b) 2𝜋 √𝑔 (c) 2 𝜋√𝑅𝑔 (d) 2𝜋 √𝑅𝑔
113. There are two bodies of masses 103 kg and 105 kg separated by a distance of 1 km. At what distance
from the smaller body, the intensity of gravitational field will be zero
(a) 1/9 km (b) 1/10 km (c)1/11 km (d) 10/11 km
114. At what distance from the centre of the earth, the value of acceleration due to gravity g will be half that on
the surface(R= radius of earth)
(a) 2 R (b) R (c) 1.414 R (d) 1/2 R
115. Kepler’s second law is in accordance with
(a) Force of attraction (b) Gravitation (c) angular momentum (d) repulsive force
116. If we place an object of mass ‘m’ inside a hollow sphere of mass M, the force experienced by the
mass ‘m’ will be
(a) Higher (b) lower (c) zero (d) constant
117. Newton’s law of gravitation states that everybody in this universe attracts every other body with a
gravitational force of attraction. But, in our day to day life, we do not feel the force of attraction
between any objects.Why this is so?
a) The value of acceleration due to gravity plays a vital role in attraction between two objects
b) The value of G is much smaller,so that the product of masses become negligible when multiplied
with the value of G
c) Distance between the objects is much smaller
d) None of the above
118. Mohan and Raja is in an argument.Mohan tells, “1. According to Newton’s law there is a force of
attraction between both of us. 2. It is very meagre that it cannot be felt.” Raja refuses it telling, “1.
Newton’s law of gravitation holds good only for heavenly bodies. 2. There is no force of attraction
between us”. Both of them made two statements each.
a) Raja’s first statement alone is correct. b) Raja’s second statement alone is correct.
c) Mohan’s both statements are correct d) Mohan’s both statements are wrong.
119. An object falls down from a three storey building. The acceleration due to gravity of this object
a) Equal to the acceleration due to gravity of the Moon towards the Earth.
b) less than the acceleration due to gravity of the Moon towards the Earth
c) greater than the acceleration due to gravity of the Moon towards the Earth
d) Cannot be compared with moon’s gravity.
120. Time taken by Neptune to revolve around the Sun is
(a) 84 yrs (b) 165 yrs (c) 160 yrs (d) 30 yrs
121. The unit of gravitational field is similar to that of
(a) Velocity (b) Force (c) Acceleration (d)Energy
122. The amount of work required to bring unit mass from infinity to a particular distance is
(a) Gravitational energy (b) gravitational constant
(c) Gravitational field (d) gravitational potential
123. Which among the following is not true for acceleration experienced by any object on the surface of
the Earth?
(a) Acceleration due to gravity depends on mass of the Earth.
(b) Acceleration due to gravity depends on the radius of the Earth
(c) Acceleration due to gravity depends on the gravitational constant
(d) Acceleration due to gravity depends on the mass of the falling object
124. Pick out the incorrect statement
(a) Acceleration due to gravity increases when we move upward from the Earth’s surface
(b) Acceleration due to gravity decreases when we move upward from the Earth’s surface
(c) Acceleration due to gravity decreases surface
(d) Acceleration due to gravity is the maximum at the surface of the Earth
125. These are the most abundant elements in the universe
(a) Hydrogen and helium (b) nitrogen and phosphorous
(c) Hydrogen and nitrogen (d) Nitrogen and helium
126. Which of the following symptoms may not affect an astronaut in space
(a) Swollen feet (b) swollen face (c) headache (d)orientation problem
127. The planet Mars retrograde during the months of
(a) October, November, December (b) July, August, September
(b) January, February, March (d) April, May, June
128. The natural phenomena used by our astronomers to find the radius of the Moon is
(a) Waxing and waning of moon (b) solar eclipse (c) Lunar eclipse (d) Moons rotation
129. Kepler’s laws are applicable to
(a) Natural satellites only (b) artificial satellites only
(c) Both natural and artificial satellites (d) not at all applicable
130. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R around the Earth. A second satellite is launched
into an orbit of radius (1.01) R. The period of the second satellite is larger than that of the first one
by approximately [IIT 1995]
(a) 05% (b) 1.0% (c) 1.5% (d) 3.0%
131. The tidal waves in the sea are primarily due to
(a) The gravitational effect of the Moon on the Earth
(b) The gravitational effect of Sun on the earth
(c) The gravitational effect of Venus on the Earth
(d) The atmospheric effect of the Earth itself
132. The weight of a body at the centre of the Earth is
(a) Zero (b) Infinite (c) None of the above (d) Same as on the surface of earth
133. A satellite of the Earth is revolving in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. If the gravitational
force suddenly disappears, the satellite will
a) Continue to move with velocity v along the original orbit
b) Move with a velocity v, tangentially to the original orbit
c) Fall down with increasing velocity
d) Ultimately come to rest somewhere on the original orbit
11th Physics Properties of Matter Way to success
UNIT – VII
PROPERTIES OF MATTER

1. Which one of the following substances possesses the highest elasticity?
a) Rubber b) Glass c) steel d) Copper
2. Which is the most Elastic
a) Iron b) copper c) Quartz d) Wood
3. Which of the following has the least elasticity
a) Rubber b) Steel c) Copper d) Iron
4. Write copper, steel, Glass and rubber in order of increasing co-efficient of elasticity
a) Steel, Rubber, copper, Glass. b) Rubber, Copper, Glass, Steel
c) Rubber, Glass, Steel, Copper d) Rubber, Glass, Copper, Steel.
5. After effects of elasticity are maximum for
a) Glass b) quartz c) Rubber d) Steel
6. Which one of the following quantities does not have the unit of force per unit area?
a) Stress b) Strain
c) Young’s Modulus of elasticity d) Pressure.
7. Young’s modulus of substance depends on
a) Its length b) Its length c) Acceleration due to Gravity d) None
8. Which one of the following statement is wrong?
a) Young’s modulus for a perfectly rigid body is zero.
b) Bulk modulus is relevant for solid, liquid and gases.
c) Rubber is less elastic than steel.
d) The young’s modulus and shear modulus are relevant for solid.
9. The young’s modulus of the material of a wire is equal to the
a) Stress required to produce unit strain. b) Strain produced in it.
c) Stress required to increase it length four times. d) Stress acting on it.
10. According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if stress is increased the ratio of stress to strain
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Becomes Zero d) Remains constant.
11. Match the following
a) Young’s modulus of elasticity i) Solid
b) Bulk modulus of elasticity ii) Liquid
c) Modulus of rigidity iii) Gases
d) Poisson’s ratio. iv) Plasma)
a) a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv b) a-i b-i , ii , iii , iv c-i d-i
c) a-iv b-iii c-ii d-I d) a-ii b-iii c-iv d-i
𝑇𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑙𝑒 𝑆𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠
12. A) 𝑇𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑙𝑒 𝑆𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 i. Young’s modulus
𝑁𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑙 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠
B) 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑆𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 ii. Bulk Modulus
𝑆ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑆𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠
C) iii. Rigidity Modulus
𝐴𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑟
𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑙 𝑆𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
D) 𝑙𝑜𝑛𝑔𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑆𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 iv. Poisson’s ratio.
a) A-I B-ii C) iii d) iv b) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
c) A-ii B-iii C) iv d) i d) A-iii B-ii C-iv D-i
13. The effect of temperature on the value of modulus of elasticity for various substances in general
a) It increases with increase in temperature b) Remains constant
c) Decreases with rise in temperature d) None
14. In the given fig (1). If the dimensions of the two wires are the same and materials are different,
young’s modulus is
a) more than A than B b) more for B than A
c) Equal for A and B d) None.
15. The Bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is subjected to uniform pressure ’P’ the fractional
decrease in radius is
𝐵 3𝑃 𝑃 𝑃
a) 3𝑃 b) 𝐵 c) 3𝐵 d) 𝐵
16. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700m.The compressibility of water is 45.4×10-11 pa-1 and density
of water is 103 kg m-3 .What fractional compression of water will be obtained at the bottom of the
ocean?
a) 1.2×10-2 b) 1.4×10-2 c) 0.8×10-2 d) 1.0×10-2
17. A structural steed rod has a radius 10mm.When a force 100 KN is applied then the stress is
a) 31.8×108 NM-2 b) 31.8×108 NM-2 c) 318×108 NM-2 d) None
18. Young’s modulus of the wire depends on
a) Length of the wire b) Diameter of the wire
c) Material of the wire d) Mass hanging from the wire.
19. The breaking stress of a wire depends upon
a) Length of the wire b) Radius of the wire.
c) Material of the wire d) Shape of the cross section.
20. In steel, the young’s modulus and the strain at the breaking points are 2×1011 NM-2 and 0.15
respectively. The stress of the breaking point for steel is
a) 1.33× 1011 NM-2 b) 1.33×1012 NM-2 c) 7.5× 10-13 NM-2 d) 3×1010 NM-2
21. A stress of 3.18×10 NM is applied to a steel rod of length 1m along its length. Its Young’s modulus
8 -2
is 2×1011NM-2 .Then the elongation produced in the rod in mm is

a) 3.18 b) 6.36 c) 5.18 d) 1.59
22. The work done in stretching an elastic wire per unit volume is or strain energy in a stretched string is
1
a) Stress × strain b) 2 × Stress × strain c) 2× strain*strain d) stress/strain
23. The elastic energy stored per unit volume in a stretched wire is
1 1
a) 2 (𝑦𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑔𝑠 𝑚𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑙𝑢𝑠)(𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛)2 b) 2 (stress)(strain) 2
1/2 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠 1
c) d) 2 (𝑦𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑔𝑠 𝑚𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑙𝑢𝑠)(𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠).
𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
24. The elastic energy stored in wire young’s modulus by is
𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 2
a) Y×𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 b) Stress× 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 × 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒
𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠2 ×𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 1
c) d) 2Y× 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠 × 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 × 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒
2𝑌
25. The isothermal elasticity of a gas is equal to
a) Density b) Volume c) Pressure d) specific heat
26. The bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is
a) Zero b) Unity c) Infinity d) Between 0 to 1
27. The stress versus strain graph for wires of two materials A and B are shown in figure. If
YA and YB are the Young’s modulus of the materials then
a) YB=2YA b) YA=YB c) YB=3YA d) YA=3YB
www.nammakalvi.org
28. The value of Poisson's ratio lies between

1 3 1 1
a) -1 to 2 b) -4 to -2 c) -2 𝑡𝑜 1 d) 1 to 2
29. Stress to strain ratio is equivalent to
a) Modulus of elasticity b) Poisson's ratio c) Reynold number d) None
30. If longitudinal strain for a wire is 0.03 and its Poisson's ratio is 0.5, then its lateral strain is
a) 0.003 b) 0.0075 c) 0.015 d) 0.4
31. Which is correct relation
a) Y < σ b) Y > σ c) Y= σ d) σ = +1
32. Shearing stress causes change in
a) Length b) Breadth c) Shape d) Volume.
33. On applying a stress of 20×10 NM the length of a perfect elastic wire is doubled) It’s young’s
8 -2
modulus will be
a) 40×108NM-2 b) 20×108 NM-1 c) 10×108 NM-1 d) 5×108 NM-2
34. Normal Atmospheric pressure is equal to
a) 76 cm of height of mercury in the Barometer b) 1.013×105 Pa (or) NM-2
c) Both a and b d) None
35. Which of the following conversion is correct
a) 1 torn = 1mm of mercury b) 1 Pascal = 1NM-2
6 2
c) 1 bar =10 dyne/cm d) All the above.
36. Why the darn of water reservoir is thick at the bottom
a) Quantity of water increase with depth.
b) Density of water increases with depth
c) Pressure of water increases with depth.
d) Temperature of water increases with depth.
2
37. If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 3 pressure at the bottom of the lake hen what
is the depth of the lake
a) 10m b) 20m c) 60 m d) 30 m
38. By sucking through a straw, a student can reduce the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of Hg (P Hg=13.6
gm/cm3) using the straw, he can drink water from a glass up to a maximum depth of
a) 10 cm b) 75cm c) 13.6 cm d) 1.36cm
39. The pressure on a swimmer 20 m below the surface of water at sea level is
a) 1.0 atm b) 2.0 atm c) 2.5 atm d) 3.0 atm
40. If the atmospheric pressure is Pa, then the pressure P depth below surface of a liquid of density P open
to the atmosphere is
𝑝𝑔ℎ
a) Pa - 2 b) Pa-pgh c) Pa+pgh d) Pa
41. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere is partially filled with water, oil which
is immiscible with water is poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10
mm above the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water rises by65 mm from
its original level. The density of the oil is
a) 650Kg m-3 b) 425 Kg m-3
-3
c) 800 Kg m d) 928 Kg m-3
42. An open glass tube is immersed in mercury in such a way that a length of 8 cm extends above the
mercury level. The open end of the tube is then closed and sealed and the tube is raised vertically up by
additional 46 cm. What will be length of the air column above mercury in the tube now(Atmospheric
pressure=76 cm of Hg)
a) 16cm b) 22 cm c) 38 cm d) 6 cm
43. Torricelli’s barometer used mercury. Pascal duplicated it using French wine of density
884Kgm-3.Determine the height of the wine column for normal atmospheric pressure
a) 10.5 m b) 5.25 m c) 10m d) None.
44. Pressure is a scalar quantity because
a) It is the ratio of force to area and both force and area vectors.
b) It is the ratio of the magnitude of the force to area)
c) It is the ratio of the component of the force normal to the area)
d) It does not depend on the size of the area chosen
e) Both c and d
45. Construction of submarines is based on
a) Archimede’s principle b) Bernoulli’s Theorem
b) Pascal's Law d) Newton’s Law
46. An ice block contains a glass ball when the ice melts with in the water containing vessel, the level of
water
a) Rises b) Falls c) Unchanged d) First rises and then falls
47. Two solid pieces one of steel and the other of aluminum when immersed completely in water have equal
weights when the solid pieces are weighed in air
a) The weight of aluminum is half the weight of steel
b) Steel piece will weigh more.
c) They have same weight
d) Aluminum piece will weigh more.
48. If there were no gravity, which of the following will there for a fluid
a) Viscosity b) surface tension
c) Pressure d) Archimede’s upward thrust
49. Hydraulic brakes are based on
a) Pascal’s lawb) Torricelli’s law c) Newton’s Law d) Boyle’s law
50. The volume of 30g of a solid is 20cm3.If the density of water is 1g cm-3, will the solid float (or) sink
a) float b) sink c) None d) partially float, partially sink
51. There are two liquid drops of different radii. The excess pressure inside over the outside is
a) more in the big drops. b) more in the small drop
c) equal in both drops. d) there is no excess pressure inside the drops.
52. In order that a floating object be in a stable equilibrium its centre of buoyancy should be
a) vertically below its centre of gravity.
b) vertically below its centre of gravity
c) Horizontally in line with its centre of grsvity
d) May be anywhere
53. A block of ice is floating on water contained beaker. When all the ice melts, the level of water
a) Rises b) Falls c) Remains unchanged d) None.
54. Hydrometers are used to determine
a) specific gravity of liquid b) Pressure of liquid
c) surface Tension d) Temperature.
55. Surface tension is due to
a) Nuclear forces b) Gravitational forces
c) Electric force d) Cohesive molecular forces.
56. The liquid meniscus in capillary tube will be convex if the angle of contact is
a) greater than 900 b) less than 900 c) equal to 900 d) equal to 00
57. if a glass rod is dipped in mercury and with drawn out the mercury does not wet the rod because
a) angle of contact is acute. b) cohesive force is more
c) adhesion force is more. d) density of mercury is more.
58. Water neither rises nor falls in a capillary tube. Then the angle of contact must be
a) 00 b) 900 c) Acute d) obtuse
59. The liquid rises in a capillary tube when the angle of contact is
a) An acute angle b) An obtuse angle
π
c) π radian d) 2 radian
60. The molecular range for solids and liquids is of the order
a) 10 -9 cm b) 10 -8 cm c) 10 -7cm d) 10 -2 cm
61. A needle or a pin floats on the surface of water because of
a) surface tension b) surface energy c) Viscosity d) None
62. When a soap bubble is charged
a) It contracts b) It expands c) Not changed d) None
63. With a rise in temperature, the surface tension of a liquid
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Does not change d) None
64. Water rises to a height h in capillary tube. If the length of capillary tube above the surface of water is
made less than h then
a) water rises upto appoint a little below the top and stay there.
b) Water does not rise at all.
c) Water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts overflowing like a fountain
d) Water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing.
65. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from ( 4cm × 2cm) to ( 5cm to 4 cm). If the work done is
3×10-4 J. The value of the surface tension of the liquid is
a) 0.250 Nm-1 b) 0.125 Nm-1 c) 0.2 Nm-1 d) 8.0 Nm-1
66. A rectangular of densities P1,P2 and P3(with P1 > P2 > P3)having the same value of surface tension T,
rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angle of contact Q1 ,Q2 and Q3 obey
π π
a) 2 > Q1 > Q2 > Q3 ≥ 0 b) 0 ≤ Q1 < Q2 < Q3 < 2
π π π
c) 2 < Q1<Q2<Q3<2 d) π > Q1 > Q2 > Q3 > 2
67. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius r and
volume. If Tis the surface Tension of the liquid then
1 1 1 1
a) Energy = 4VT( 𝑟 - 𝑅 )is released b) energy =3 VT ( 𝑟 + 𝑅 ) is absorbed
1 1
c) Energy = 3VT ( 𝑟 - 𝑅 ) is released d) energy is neither released nor absorbed)
68. The surface tension of a soap solution is 2×10 -2 NM-1 .To blow a bubble of radius 1 cm. The work
done is
a) 4 π × 10-6 J b) 8 π × 10 -6 J c) 12 π ×10 -6 J d) 16 π ×10-6 J
69. A liquid wets a solid completely. The meniscus of the liquid in a sufficiently long tube is
a) Flat b) Concave c) Convex d) Cylindrical
70. A body measure 5N in air and 2N when put in water. The buyant force is
a) 7N b) 9N c) 3N d) None of these.
71. On mixing the salt in water, the surface tension of water
a) increase b) decrease c) remain unchanged d) None
72. A liquid rises in a vertical tube. The relation between the weight of the liquid in the tube, surface
tension on of the liquid T and radius of the tube r is given by, if the angle of contact is zero
3
a) W= π r2 T b) W=2 π rT c) W=2 r2 π T d) W= 4 πr3 T
73. Assuming that the atmosphere has the same density any where as at a sea level (P=1.3 Kgm-3) and g to
be constant (g=10 ms-2). What should be the approximate height of atmosphere?
(P=1.01 ×10 5NM-2)
a) 6 Km b) 8 Km c) 12 Km d)18 Km.
74. Water rises in plant fibres due to
a) capillarity b) Viscosity c) Fluid pressure d) Osmosis
75. Water is flowing in a pipe of diameter 4 cm with a velocity 3 ms -1.The water then enters into a tube
of diameter 2 cm .The velocity of water in the other pipe is
a) 3 ms-1 b) 6 ms-1 c) 12 ms-1 d) 8 ms-1
76. A liquid is flowing in a horizontal uniform capillary tube under a constant pressure differences P. The
value of pressure for which the rate of flow of the liquid is doubled) When the radius and length both
are doubled is
3𝑃 𝑃 𝑃
a) P b) 4 c) 2 d) 4
77. Water flows along horizontal pipe of uniform cross section. The pressure is 1 cm of Hg when the
velocity is 35 cm s-1.At a point where the velocityis65 cms-1, the pressure will be
a) 0.89 cm of Hg b) 0.62 cm of Hg c) 0.5 cm of Hg d) 1 cm of Hg
78. A vessel, whose bottom has round holes with diameter of 1.0mm is filled with water. The maximum
height to which the water can be filled without leakage is (T=75
dyne cm-1 g=1000cms-2)
a) 100 cm b) 75 cm c) 50 cm d) 30 cm
79. Air stream flows horizontally past an aeroplane wing of surface area 4 m2 .The speed of air over
-1
the top surface is 60 ms and under the bottom surface is 40 ms-1.The force of lift on the wing is (P=1
kgm-3)
a) 800 N b) 1000 N c) 4000 N d) 3200 N
80. Water from a tap emerges vertically down with an initial speed of 1.0 ms-1.The cross-sectional area of
tap is 10-4 m2.Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of water, and that the constant
throughout the stream of water, and that the flow is steady. The cross-sectional area of the stream 0.15m
below the tap is
a) 5.0×10-4 m2 b) 1.0×10-5 m2 c) 5.0×10 -5 m2 d) 2.0×10-5 m2
81. If T is the surface tension of a liquid, the energy needed to break a liquid drop of radius R into 64 drops
is
a) 6 π R2 T b) 12 πR2T c) πR2T d) 4 πR2T
82. Viscosity is the property of liquids by virtue of which
a) Liquid pushes neighboring molecules b) Liquid attracts other molecules
c) Liquid becomes conducting d) Liquid becomes conducting
83. With the rise in temperature, the co-efficient of viscosity of a gas
a) increases b) decreases c) does not change d) may increase
84. A small drop of water falls from rest through a large height h in air, the final velocity is
a) Proportional to √ℎ b) proportional to h
c) inversely proportional to h d) Almost independent of h
85. Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with
a) High density and low viscosity. b) Low density and high viscosity
c) High density and high viscosity d) Low density and low viscosity
86. With increase in temperature, the viscosity of
a) gases decreases and liquid increases b) gases increases and liquid decreases
c) both gases and liquid increases d) both gases and liquid decreases.
87. The clouds float in the atmosphere because of

a) their low temperature b) their low viscocity
c) their low density d) air current in atmosphere
88. The viscosity of falling raindrop attains limiting value because of
a) upthrust of air b) viscous force exerted by air
c) surface tension effects d) air current in atmosphere.
89. In milikan’s oil drop experiment a small spherical oil drop of radius r is moving in a medium of density
with a instantaneous speed V. The viscous force F is
6π 6 ɳrv
a) 6 π ɳ rv b) ɳrv c) 𝑟𝑣 d) 𝑝
90. The working of automiser depends on
a) Bernoulli’s principle b) Boyles’s law
c) Archimede’s principle d) Newton’s law of motion
91. For Streamline flow of a liquid Bernoulli’s theorem states that following remains constant
1 1 1
a) 2 PV2 b) P+ 2 PV2 c) P + 2 PV2 d) P+PV2+Pg
92. The flow of fluid is laminar or streamline is determined by
a) Rate of flow of fluid b) Density of fluid
c) Radius of tube d) Co-efficient of viscosity of liquid
93. Viscosity in fluid motion is analogous to
a) Friction in the motion of solids. b) Random motion of the gas molecules.
c) Non-uniform motion of solids d) internal motion
94. The viscous force between two liquid layers is
a) Radial b) Normal c) the liquid surface d) Tangential
95. A small spherical liquid drop is moving in a viscous medium. The viscous force does not depend
a) Nature of the medium b) Density of the medium
c) The instantaneous speed of the spherical drop d) The radius of the spherical drop.
96. Venturi meteris used to
a) Measure liquid pressure. b) Measure liquid density
c) Measure rate of flow of liquids d) Measure surface tension.
97. The ratio of inertial force to viscous force represents
a) Magnus effect b) Reynolds number c) Torricelli's law d) Bernoulli’s principle
98. For turbulent flow, the value of Reynolds number is
a) R < 2000 b) R > 2000 c) 1000 < R d) R=1000
99. Reynold’s number is low for
a) Low velocity b) low density c) high viscosity d) All of these.
100. In Bernoulli’s Theorum which of the following is conserved
a) Mass b) Energy c) Linear momemtum d) Angular momentum
101. When a fluid is in stream line flow, then the reason of viscous force acting between its two layer
a) Transport of energy from one layer to another
b) Transport of linear momentum from one layer to another
c) Same velocity of molecules.
d) The variable density along the length of the tube.
102. Maximum possibility of turbulent flow is in a fluid of
a) Low density and low viscosity b) high density and low viscosity
c) Low density and high viscosity d) high density and low viscosity
www.nammakalvi.org
th
11 Physics Properties of Matter Way to success
103. More liquid rises in a thin tube because of

a) Larger value of radius b) smaller value of radius
c) Larger value of radius d) smaller value of radius.
104. The list of an aeroplane is based on
a) Torricelli’s Theorem b) Bernoulli’s Theorem
c) Laws of gravitation d) coulomb’s law
105. A) Hydraulic list i. Archimede’s principle
B) Ship is floating on ocean water ii. Pascal Law
C) Deep water runs slow iii. Equation of continuity
D) Rate of flow of liquid through iv. Bernoulli’s Theorem
a horizontal tube
a) A-ii, B - I, C - iii, D - iv b) A - I, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
c) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i d) A - iv, B-iii, C - ii, D - i
106. If capillary experiment is performed in vacuum then for a liquid there
a) It will rise b) it will remain same c) it will fall d) Rise to top
107. for different capillarities of radi ( r) , the condition of liquid rise (h) due to surface tension is
ℎ
a) rh: constant b) 𝑟 = Constant c) H+r = Constant d) h-r = Constant
108. During capillary rise of a liquid in a capillary tube the surface of contact that remains constant is of
a) Glass and liquid b) Air and glass c) Air and liquid d) None
109. Which graph represents the variation of surface tension with temperature over small temperature
ranges for water
110. A lead shot or 1mm diameter falls through a long column glycerine. The variation of its velocity
(V) with distance (d) covered is represented by
11th Physics Heat and Thermodynamics Way to success
UNIT – VIII
HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS

1. At what temperature the centigrade (Celsius) and Fahrenheit readings are same.
a) -400 b) +400 c) 36.60 d) -370
2. Absolute scale of temperature was given by
a) Carrot b) Otto c) Kelvin d) Dewar
3. The equation of state for 5g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a
volume V will be
5 5 5
a) PV= (32) 𝑅𝑇 b) PV=5RT c) PV= (2) 𝑅𝑇 d) (16) 𝑅𝑇
4. The unit of heat capacity is
a) J kg-1 K-1 b) JK-1 c) J kg-1 d) None.
5. The unit of specific heat capacity is
a) J kg-1 K-1 b) JK-1 c) J kg-1 d) None.
6. The S.I unit for molar specific heat capacity is
a) J kg-1 K-1 b) JK-1 c) J kg-1 d) J mol-1 K-1
7. The coefficient of volume expansion is
a) Equal to the coefficient of linear expansion
b) Thrice the co-efficient of linear expansion
c) Twice the co-efficient of linear expansion
d) None.
8. Which one of the following substances has highest specific heat capacity at room temperature and
atmospheric pressure?
a) Water b) Ice c) Aluminium d) Mercury
9. Heat capacity of a substance is infinite. It means
a) Heat is given out
b) heat is taken in
c) No change in temperature whether heat is taken in or given out
d) All of these
10. For cooking the food, which of the following type of utensil is most suitable.
a) High specific heat and low conductivity
b) High specific heat and high conductivity
c) Low specific heat and low conductivity
d) Low specific heat and high conductivity
11. In order that the heat flows from one part of a solid to another part, what is required?
a) Uniform density b) Density gradient
c) Temperature gradient d) Uniform Temperature
12. Mud houses are cooler in summer and warmer in winter because
a) Mud is super conductor of heat b) Mud is good conductor
c) Mud is bad conductor of heat d) None of these
13. In a closed room, heat transfer takes place by
a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) All of these
14. The freezer in a refrigeration is located at the top section so that

a) The entire of the refrigeration is cooled quickly due to convection.
b) The motor is not heated
c) The heat gained from environment is high
d) The heat gained from the environment is low.
15. The layers of atmosphere are heated through
a) Convection b) conduction c) Radiation d) b & c
16. The thermal conductivity of a rod depends on
a) Length b) mass c) area of cross section d) material of the rod.
17. A compared to a person white skin another person with dark skin, will experience:
a) Less heat and more cold b) More heat and more cold
c) More heat and less cold d) less heat and less cold
18. The speediest mode of heat transfer is
a) Conduction b) convection c) radiation d) combustion
19. While measuring the thermal conductivity of a liquid we keep the upper part hot and lower cool so that
a) Convection may be stopped b) radiation may be stopped
c) Heat conduction is easier downwards d) None
20. If a liquid is heated in space under no gravity, the transfer of heat will take place by process of
a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) None
21. If the pressure of the surrounding is increased is increased, then the latent heat of steam
a) Remains unchanged b) increases c) decreases d) None
22. During melting process the heat given to a body is utilized in
a) Increasing the temperature
b) Increasing the density
c) Increasing the average distance between the molecules.
d) Decreasing the mass of the body.
23. Newton’s law of cooling is used in laboratory for the determination of the
a) Stefan’s law b) Kirchhoff’s law c) Wien’s law d) Planck’s law
24. Newton’s law of cooling is used in laboratory for the determination of the
a) specific heat of gases b) The latent heat of gases
c) Specific heat of liquids d) Latent heat of liquids
25. According to “Newton law of cooling” the rate of cooling of a body is proportional to
a) Temperature of the body b) Temperature of surrounding
c) Fourth power of the temperature of the body.
d) Difference of the temperature of the body and the surrounding.
26. Good absorbers of heat are
a) Poor emitters b) Non-emitters c) Good emitters d) None
27. For a perfect black body, its absorptive power is
a) 1 b) 0.5 c) 0 d) infinity
28. The earth radiates in the infra-red region of the spectrum .The spectrum is correctly given by
a) Wien’s law b) Rayleigh jeans law
c) Planck’s law of radiation d) Stefan’s law of radiation
29. The thermal radiation from a hot body travels with a velocity of
a) 3 × 108 ms-1 b) 330 ms-1 c) 2 × 108 ms-1 d) None
30. According to Wien's law
𝜆m 𝑇
a) 𝜆𝑚 T =constant b) 𝑇 =constant c) 𝜆m =constant d) None
31. Relation between the colour and the temperature of a star is given by
a) Wien’s displacement law b) Planck’s law
c) Hubble’s law d) Fraunhoffer diffraction law
32. If wavelengths of maximum intensity of radiations emitted by the sun and moon are 0.5
−6 −4
× 10 𝑚 and 10 𝑚 respectively, the ratio of their temperature is
1 1
a) 100 b) 200 c) 100 d) 200
4
33. A particular star has a surface temperature of about 5 × 10 𝑘.The wavelength of its Radiation is (b=2.9
× 10−3 𝑚𝑘)
a) 48nm b) 58 nm c) 60 nm d) 70 nm
34. The maximum energy in thermal radiation from a source occurs at the wavelength 4000 A0.The
effective temperature of the source is
a) 7250K b) 80000K c) 104 𝐾 d) 106 𝐾
35. A perfectly black body is that which:
a) Is totally black in colour b) can radiate all its energy
c) Is made of ideal gas d) absorbs all the radiations incident
36. According to Stefan-Boltzmann’s law:
a) E = 𝜎To4 b) E = 𝜎 T2 c) E = 𝜎 (T2 –T02) d) E = 𝜎 (T4 –T04)
37. Plots of intensity verses wavelength for three bodies at temperatures
T1,T2,T3 respectively are shown in fig. Their temperatures are such that
a) T1 > T2 > T3
b) T1 > T3 > T2
c) T2 > T3 > T1
d) T3 > T2 > T1
38. The absolute temperature of a perfectly black is increased to twice its value. The rate of emission of
energy per unit area will be
a) 2 times b) 4 times c) 8 times d) 16 times.
39. Specific heat of water is
a) 4.2 J Kg-1 K-1 b) 420 J Kg-1 K-1 c) 1 cal Kg-1 K-1 d) 4200 J Kg-1 K-1
40. Which law of cooling holds for really large temperature differences?
a) Newton’s law of cooling b) Wien’s law
c) Stefan’s law d) Stefan Boltzmann law
41. Newton’s law of cooling is valid when difference in temperature of liquid and surroundings is the
order of
a) 300C b) 3000C c) 30000C d) 0.30C
42. The variation of temperature of a liquid with time is represented correctly by fig.
Ans: d
43. Electromagnetic radiation is emitted by
a) All bodies at all temperature b) all bodies at 1000C
c) All bodies at absolute zero d) only a few bodies at all temperature
44. Unit of Stefan's constant is
a) Wm-2k-4 b) Wm-1 K-4 c) Wm k-4 d) Wk-4
45. Unit of Wien's constant is

a) K b) m c) mK d) mK-1
46. The value of Wien's constant is
a) 2.898 × 10−3 𝑚𝑘 b) 28.98 × 10−4 𝑚𝑘 c) 0.2898 × 10−2 𝑚𝑘 d) All of these
47. The value of Stefan's constant is
a) 5.67 × 10−8 wm-2 k-4 b) 5.67 × 108 wm-2 k-4
c) 5.67× 10−7 wm k -2 -4
d) 5.67× 10−8 wm-1 k-4
48. Our eye is sensitive to only visible wavelength range is
a) 4 × 10−7 m -7 × 10−7 m b) 400nm-700nm
c) 4 × 10−5 m -7 × 10−6 m d) both a and b
49. Compare the radiant emittance of a black body at 200k and 2000k (𝜎 = 5.672 10−8 )
a) 10-4 b) 10-2 c) 10-8 d) 10-6
50. When the body has same temperature as that as surrounding
a) It does not radiate heat
b) It radiates the same quantity as it receives from surroundings.
c) It radiates more quantity of heat as it receives from surroundings.
d) It radiates more quantity of heat as it receives heat from surroundings.
51. Calculate the radiant emittance of a black body at a temperature of 400k
a) 1452 Watts/m2 b) 1852 watts/m2 c) 1800 watts/m2 d) None
52. Zeroth law of thermodynamics is
a) Kinetic energy of molecule of a gas is zero
b) Ideal gas does not contain molecules
c) If two systems are separated in thermal equilibrium with a third system then they
themselves are in thermal equilibrium with each other.
d) Absolute zero temperature can not be attained.
53. Thermodynamics mostly deals with
a) Measurement of quantity of heat b) Transfer of heat
c) Conversion of heat to other forms of energy d) Change of state
54. Triple point of water is
a) 273.160F b) 273.16 K c) 273.160C d) 273.16R
55. Water has maximum density at
a) 00C b) 320C c) -4 0C d) 4 0C
56. When a bimetallic strip is heated, it
a) Does not bend at all b) Gets twisted in the form of helix
c) Bend in the form of an arc with the more expandable metal outside
d) Bends in the form of an arc with the more expandable metal inside.
57. Water is used to cool radiators of engine, because,
a) Of its lower density b) It is easily available
c) It is cheap d) It has high specific heat.
58. The unit of latent heat capacity is
a) J kg-1 b) J-1 kg c) Jkg d) None
59. At Latent heat
a) Temperature increase b) Temperature decrease c) Temperature is constant d) None
60. At Latent heat
a) Energy is used to raise the temperature. b) Energy is used to change the state.
c) Both a and b d) None
www.nammakalvi.org
61. Concept of temperature is

a) Zeroth law b) First law c) second law d) None
62. The physical quantity that determines whether or not a given system A is ij thermal equilibrium with
another system B is called
a) Pressure b) Volume c) temperature d) none of these
A. Cyclic process i) dq=du
B. Adiabatic process ii) du=mL
C. Melting point iii) du=-dw
D. Isochoric process iv) dq=dw
a. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i b. A.i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
c. A-ii, B-I, C-iv, D-iii d. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
64. Match the following.
A. Isothermal expansion i) Work done=0
B. Isobaric expansion ii) Internal energy decreases
C. Adiabatic expansion iii) Internal energy increases
D. Isochoric process iv) Internal energy=constant
a) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv b) A-I, B-ii, C- iii, D-iv
c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
65. First law of thermodynamics is conservation of
a) Energy b) Work c) heat d) None
66. According to first law of thermodynamics
a) dq=du+dw b) dq=dw-du c) dw=dq+du d) None
67. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2.The amount of work done by the gas is greatest when
the expansion is
a) Adiabatic b) equal in all cases c) isothermal d) Isobaric
68. If Q, E and W denotes respectively the heat added change in internal energy and the work done in a
closed cycle process, then
a) E=0 b) Q=0 c) W=0 d) Q=W=0
69. An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by means of several processes. Which of the process
results in the maximum work done on the gas?
a) Isochoric b) Isothermal c) Adiabatic d) Isobaric
70. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately
through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then
a) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
b) Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process)
requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
c) Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
d) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done
71. Heat added to a system is equal to
a) a change in its internal kinetic energy b) A change in its internal potential energy
c) Work done by it d) Sum of above all the three
72. The internal energy u is a unique function of any state because change in u
a) Does not depend upon path b) depends upon path
c) Corresponds to an adiabatic process. d) Corresponds to an isothermal process.
73. A point on P-V diagram represents
a) The condition of a system b) Work done or by the system
c) Work done in a cyclic process d) A thermodynamics process
74. A curve drawn between two points on P-V diagram represents

a) The state of s system b) Work done on or by the process.
c) Work done in a cyclic process. d) A thermodynamics process.
75. Cp > Cv, as in the case of Cp
a. more heat is required to increase the internal energy.
b. heat is required to do work against external pressure also.
c. more heat is required to do external work.
d. more heat is required to do external work as well as for internal work.
76. A gas has
a. One specific heat only b) two specific heats only
c. infinite number of specific heats. d) No specific heat.
77. 𝛾 for a gas is always
a. negative b) zero
c. between zero and one d) more than one
78. The work done in an adiabatic change in a particular gas depends only upon
a. change in volume b) change in temperature
c. change in pressure d) none.
79. The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related as:
a. isothermal curve slope = adiabatic curve slope
b. isothermal curve slope = 𝛾 ×adiabatic curve slope
c. adiabatic curve slope = 𝛾 ×isothermal curve slope
1
d. adiabatic curve slope = 2 ×isothermal curve slope
80. Work done on or by a gas, in general depends upon the
a. initial state only b) final state only
c. both d) initial state, final state f the path.
81. Specific heat of an ideal gas is
a. Proportional to T b) Proportional to T2
3
c. Proportional to T d) independent of T
82. In all natural processes, the entropy of universe
a. remains constant b) always decreases
c. always increases d) may increase or decrease.
83. For an adiabatic change in a gas
a) TV 𝛾−1 =constant b) TV 𝛾 + 1 = constant
𝛾+1
c) TV = Constant d) TV-1 = constant
84. A cycle tyre bursts suddenly. This represents an
a) Isothermal process b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric process d) Adiabatic process.
Process Constant
A. Isothermal i) Temperature
B. Adiabatic ii) Heat
C. Isobaric iii) Pressure
D. Isochoric iv) volume.
a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
c) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv d) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
86. In an isothermal expansion
a) Internal energy of the gas increases b) Internal energy of the gas decreases.
c) Internal energy remains unchanged. d) Average kinetic energy of gas molecule decreases
𝑃𝑉
87. The gas law 𝑇 =constant is true for
a) Isothermal changes only b) Adiabatic changes only
c) Both a and b d) Neither a and b
88. Work done in an isothermal change of a gas depends
a) Only on temperature b) Only on volume expansion ratio.
c. Both a and b d) only on initial and final pressure.
89. Work done per mol in an isothermal change is
𝑉 𝑉
a) RT log10 𝑉2 b) RT log10 𝑉1
1 2
𝑉2 𝑉1
c) RT loge d) RT loge 𝑉
𝑉1 2
90. A container that suits the occurrence of an isothermal process should be made of
a) Copper b) Glass c) Wood d) cloth
91. During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas
a) Its internal energy decreases b) its internal energy does not change
c) Both a and b correct d) None.
92. If an ideal gas is compressed isothermally then
a) No work is done against gas b) Heat is released by the gas.
c) The internal energy of gas will increase d) Pressure does not change.
93. In an isothermal process the volume of an ideal gas is halved. One can say that
a) Internal energy of the system decreases. b) Work done by the gas is negative.
c) Work done by the gas is negative. d) Internal energy of the system increases.
94. The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal process is
a) Infinite b) Zero c) Negative d) Remains constant
95. If heat is supplied to an ideal gas in an isothermal process
a) The internal energy of the gas will increase b) The gas will do positive work
c) The gas will do negative work d) The said process is not possible.
96. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal process from some initial state I to final state f. Choose the correct
alternatives
a) du=0 b) dq=dw c) dq=0 d) both a and b
97. A latent heat of vaporization of water is 2240 J/g. If the work done in the process of expansion of 1g is
168 J then increase in internal energy is
a) 2408 J b) 2240 J c) 2072 J d) 1904 J
98. Out of the following which quantity does not depend on path?
a) Temperature b) energy c) Work d) None of these
99. During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does -150J of work against it surrounding. This
implies that
a) 150 J of heat has been added to gas
b) 150 J of heat has been removed from the gas
c) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas
d) No heat is transferred because the process is isothermal
5 1
100. A monoatomic gas ( 𝛾 = 3 ) is suddenly compressed to 8 of its original volume adiabatically. Then
the pressure of the gas will change to
24 40
a) 5 b) 8 c) 3 d) 32 times its initial pressure
101. Which of the following is a slow process
a) Isothermal b) Adiabatic c) Isobaric d) None
102. If the temperature of 1 mole of ideal gas is changed from 00C to 1000c at constant pressure, then work
done in the process (R=8.3 J/mol/Kelvin)
a) 8.3 × 10−3J b) 8.3 × 10−2 J c) 8.3 × 102 J d) 8.3 × 103 J
103. Even Carnot engine cannot give 100 % efficiency because we can not
a) Prevent radiation b) Find ideal source
c) Reach absolute zero temperature d) Eliminate friction
104. Initial pressure and volume of a gas are P and V respectively. First it is expanded isothermally to
volume 4V and then compressed adiabatically to volume V. The final pressure of gas will be (𝛾 =
3
)
2
a) 1P b) 2P c) 4P d) 8P
105. Which of these is intensive variable?
a) Area b) entropy c) temperature d) volume
106. Unit of entropy is
a) Joule/kelvin b) cal/kelvin c) both a and b d) None
107. Entropy is a measure of
a) Perfect order b) available energy c) disorder d) None
108. Entropy is maximum in which state
a) Solid b) liquid c) gas d) can be any
109. In a reversible adiabatic process, entropy
a) Increases b) remains unchanged c) decrease d) None
110. Entropy remains constant in
a) Adiabatic b) isothermal c) isochoric d) None
111. In a reversible process, the entropy of the system
a) Increases b) decreases c) remains zero d) remains constant
112. The entropy of a system in an irreversible process
a) Increases b) decreases c) remains constant d) None.
113. Choose the correct statement
a) All quasi-static processes are quasi-static b) All reversible processes are quasi-static
c) Adiabatic process is quasi-static d) None
114. A piece of ice is added to water in a cup-The entropy
a) Is increased b) decreased
c) Undergo no change d) sometimes increases, sometimes not
115. When water vapour condenses into water, its entropy
a) Increases b) decreases
c) Remains unchanged d) first decreases and then increases.
116. Net entropy change of a system in Carnot's cycle
a) Zero b) Positive c) Negative d) More than 1
117. Which of the following represents a reversible process?
a) ds>0 b) ds=0 c) ds>0 d) None of these.
118. In the two gases at the same temperature
a) The average kinetic energy per molecule is equal. b) The internal energy is equal
c) The entropy is equal d) None
119. An ideal Carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40% receives heat at 500K. If its efficiency is 50% then
the intake temperature for the same exhaust temperature is
a) 800k b) 900 k c) 600 k d) 700 k
120. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with reservoir temperature of 1000C and -230C will be
373+250 373−250 100+23 100±23
a) b) c) d)
373 373 100 100
121. The (W/Q) of a Carnot engine is 1⁄6, now the temperature of sink is reduced by 620C.then this ratio
become twice therefore the initial temperature of the sink and source are respectively.
a) 330C, 670C b) 370C, 990C c) 670C, 330C d) 97K, 37 K
122. A scientist says that the efficiency of his heat engine which work at source temperature 1270C and
sink temperature 270C is 26% then
a) It is impossible b) it is possible but less probable
c) It is quite probable. d) Data are incomplete
123. The efficiency of Carnot engine is 50% and temperature of sink is 500k. If temperature of source is
kept constant and its efficiency raised to 60% then the required temperature of sink will be
a) 100K b) 600K c) 400K d) 500K
124. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 2270C and 1270C.It absorbs 6 K cal at
the higher temperature. The amount of heat (in K cal) converted into work is equal to
a) 4.8 b) 3.5 c) 1.6 d) 1.2
125. An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between 227 C and 1270C.It absorbs 6× 104 cal of
0
heat at higher temperature. Amount of het converted to work is

a) 4.8 × 104 cal b) 6× 104 cal c) 2.4× 104 cal d) 1.2× 104 cal
126. A Carnot engine working between 300K and 600K has work output of 800J per cycle. What is amount
of heat energy supplied to the engine from source per cycle?
a) 1800 J/cycle b) 1000 J/cycle c) 2000 J/cycle d) 1600 J/cycle
127. A refrigerator works between 40C and 300C.It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second
in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power is (1 cal=4.2
J)
a) 2.365 W b) 23.65 W c) 236.5 W d) 2365 W
128. Transfer of heat from a body at low temperature to a body at high temperature
a) It is impossible
b) It is possible by keeping /both the bodies in contact
c) is possible by doing some external work
d) None
129. In Carnot cycle, the first step is
a) Isothermal expansion b) Isothermal compression
c) Adiabatic expansion d) adiabatic compression.
130. The efficiency of a reversible Carnot’s engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1
> T2) is 1
𝑇 𝑇 𝑇 𝑇
a) 2 b) 1 c) (1 − 2 ) d) ( 1 - 1)
𝑇1 𝑇2 𝑇1 𝑇2
131. A refrigerator is a:
a) Heat engine b) an electric motor
c) Heat engine working in a backward direction d) air cooler
132. The door of running refrigeration inside a room is left open Mark the correct statement
a) The room temperature will be cooled slightly
b) The room will be warmed up gradually
c) The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.
d) The temperature of the room will remain unaffected.
133. The complete conversion of a given quantity of heat into useful mechanical work occurs
a) Often b) seldom c) never d) depends on the device.
134. In an ideal gas, the energy is
a) Wholly kinetic b) Wholly potential c) sum of the two d) all are true.
www.nammakalvi.org
135. Efficiency of Carnot engine working between ice point and steam point is
a) 73.2% b) 100% c) 26.8% d) None of these.
136. The temperature inside a refrigeration is t2 C and the room temperature is t10C.The amount of heat
0
delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed ideally will be
𝑡 𝑡2 𝑡1 𝑡1+ 273 𝑡2 +273
a) 𝑡 1+ b) c) d)
1 +273 𝑡 −𝑡
1 2 1𝑡 −𝑡
2 1𝑡 −𝑡
2
137. What is the value of sink temperature when efficiency of engine is 100 %?
a) 0 K b) 300 K c) 273 K d) 400 K
11th Physics Kinetic Theory of Gases Way to success
UNIT – IX
KINETIC THEORY OF GASES

1. The molecule of an ideal gas have
a) Only kinetic energy b) only potential energy
c) Both K.E and P.E d) None of them
2. Molecules of a gas behave like
a) In elastic rigid sphere b) Perfectly elastic non-rigid sphere
c) Perfectly elastic rigid sphere d) In elastic non rigid sphere.
3. Which of the following statements about kinetic theory of gases is wron
a) The molecules of a gas are in continuous random motion
b) The molecules continuously undergo inelastic collisions
c) The molecules do not interact with each other except during collisions.
d) The collisions amongst the molecules are of short duration.
4. Which one of the following is not assumption of kinetic theory of gases?
a) The volume occupied by the molecules of the gas is negligible.
b) The force of attraction between the molecules is negligible.
c) The collision between the molecules are elastic
d) All molecules have same speed.
5. According to the kinetic theory of gases, at absolute temperature
a) Water freezes b) Liquid helium freezes
c) Molecular motion stops. d) None of them
6. At 0 k which of the following properties of a gas will be zero
a) Vibrational energy b) density
c) Kinetic energy d) Potential energy.
7. A real gas behave like an ideal gas if its
a) Pressure and temperature are both high.
b) Pressure and temperature are both low.
c) Pressure is high and temperature is low
d) Pressure is low and temperature is high.
8. Molecular motion shows itself as
a) Temperature b) Internal energy c) Friction d) Viscosity
9. Cooking gas containers are kept in a lorry moving with uniform speed. The temperature of the
gas molecules inside will
a) Increase b) decrease c) Remains same d) None of them
10. Volume, pressure and temperature of an ideal gas are V, P and T respectively. If mass of its
molecule is m then its density. (K- Boltzmann’s constant)
𝑃 𝑃 𝑃𝑚
a) mKT b) 𝐾𝑇 c) 𝐾𝑇𝑉 d. 𝐾𝑇
11. S.I.Unit of universal gas constant is
𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝐽 𝐽
a) 𝐶 0 b) 𝑚𝑜𝑙 c) J mol -1 K-1 d) 𝐾𝑔
12. Kinetic energy of gases provide a base for
a) Charle’s law b) Boyles law c) Both a and b d) None
𝑃𝑉
13. In the relation n = 𝑅𝑇 , n is
a) Number of molecules
b) Atomic number
c) Mass number
d) Number of moles.
14. The value of Boltzmann's constant is
a) 1.38 × 10−16 𝐽𝐾 −1 b) 1.38 𝐽𝐾 −1 c) 1.38 × 10−23 𝐽𝐾 −1 d) 8.314 𝐽𝐾 −1
15. Avogadro’s number 𝑁𝐴 is
a) 6.02 × 10−23 b) 6.02 × 1023 c) 8.31 × 1023 d) None of these.
16. The value of universal gas constant is
a) 8.31 J mol -1 K -1 b) 1.38 J mol -1 K -1 c) 6.02 J mol -1 K -1 d) None
17. In an isotropic gas, with no preferred direction of motion of molecules
a) 𝑉𝑥 =𝑉𝑦 =𝑉𝑧 b) 𝑉𝑥 2 = 𝑉𝑦 2 = 𝑉𝑧 2 c) ̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅2 =𝑉
𝑉𝑥 2 = 𝑉𝑦
̅̅̅̅2
𝑧 d) None
18. According to kinetic theory of gases the relation between pressure P density ρ and mean square
velocity is
1 1 1 1
a) P = ̅2
ρ𝑉 b) P = ρ𝑉 ̅2 c) Ρ = ρ𝑉 ̅ d) ρ 𝑉 ̅
2 3 2 3
19. The kinetic energy per unit volume of a perfect gas is equal to (P is pressure)
2 3 𝑃 1
a) 3 P b) 2 P c) 3 d) 2 𝑃
20. The average velocity of the molecules in a gas in equilibrium is proportional to
a) √𝑇 b) 𝑇 2 c) T d) equal to zero
21. Average kinetic energy of translation of a molecule of gas varies with temperature T of gas is
proportional to
a) T b) 𝑇 −1 c) 𝑇 0 d) 𝑇 2
22. At constant volume temperature is increases then
a) Collision on walls will be less.
b) Number of collisions per unit time will increase
c) Collisions will be in straight line
d) Collisions will not change.
23. Pressure of a gas at constant volume is proportional to
a) Total internal energy of the gas. b) Average kinetic energy of the molecules.
c) Average potential energy of the molecules. d) Total energy of the gas.
24. According to the kinetic energy of gases the pressure exerted by a gas on the walls is measured
as.
a) Rate of change of momentum imparted to the walls per second per unit area
b) Momentum imparted to the walls per unit area
c) Change of momentum imparted to the walls per unit area
d) Change in momentum per unit volume.
25. We write the relation for Boyle’s law in the form. PV=constant. When the temperature
remains constant. In this relation, the magnitude of constant depends upon.
a) The nature of the gas used in the experiment b) The atmospheric pressure
c) The quantity of the gas enclosed d) None of these
26. In the equation PV=RT, V stands for the volume of
a) Any amount of gas b) one gram of gas
c) One gram molecule of gas d) one litre of gas.
27. A surface it hit elastically and normally by n balls per unit time. All the balls having the same
mass m and moving with the same velocity V, the force on surface is
1
a) mnV2 b) 2mnV c) 2 mnV2 d) 2mnV2
28. Gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container because
a) Gas has weight
b) gas molecules have momentum
c) Gas molecules collide with each other
d) Gas molecules collide with the walls of the container.
29. The absolute temperature of a gas is determined by
a) The average momentum of the molecule
b) The velocity of sound in the gas.
c) The number of molecules in the gas.
d) The mean square velocity of the molecules.
30. The temperature of a gas is a measure of
a) The average kinetic energy of the gaseous molecules.
b) The average potential energy of the gaseous molecules.
c) The average distance between the molecules of the gas.
d) The size of the molecules of the gas.
31. The kinetic theory of gases breaks down most at
a) Low pressure and high temperature. b) High pressure and low temperature.
c) Low pressure and low temperature. d) High pressure and low temperature.
32. Which of the following provide “direct evidence” in support of the kinetic theory of gases?
a) Conduction and radiation b) Convection and evaporation.
c) Diffusion and Brownian movement d) None.
33. If temperature of gas increases from 270C to 927 0C the kinetic energy will be
a) Double b) Half c) One fourth d) Four times
34. At what temperature is the kinetic energy of a gas molecule double that of its value of 270C
a) 540C b) 300K c) 3270C d) 1080C
35. The mean kinetic energy of a gas at 300K is 100J.The mean energy of the gas at 450 K is equal
to
a) 100J b) 3000J c) 450 J d) 150J
36. On colliding in a closed container the gas molecules
a) Transfer momentum to the walls. b) Momentum become zero
c) Move in opposite directions. d) Perform Brownian motion.
37. Two gases are at 300K and 350K respectively Ratio of average kinetic energy of their
molecule is
a) 7:6 b) 6:7 c) 36:49 d) 49:36
38. In a vessel, the gas is at pressure P. If the mass of all the molecules is halved and their speed
is doubled, then the resultant pressure will be
𝑃
a) 2P b) P c) 2 d) 4P
39. Which of the following parameters is the same for molecules of all gases at a given
temperature?
a) Mass b) Speed c) Momentum d) Kinetic energy
2𝐸
40. The pressure of an ideal gas is written as P = 3 𝑉. Here E refers to
a) Translational kinetic energy b) Rotational kinetic energy
c) Vibrational kinetic energy d) Total kinetic energy
41. The energy of a given sample of an ideal gas depends only on its
a) Volume b) pressure c) density d) temperature.
42. Which of the following quantities is zero on an average for the molecules of an ideal gas in
equilibrium?
a) Kinetic energy b) Momentum c) density d) Speed
43. The average momentum of a molecule in a sample of an ideal gas depends on
a) Temperature b) Number of moles. c) Volume d) None of these
44. Which of the following quantities is the same for all ideal gases at the same temperature?
a) The kinetic energy of 1 mole b) Kinetic energy of 1 g
c) The number of molecules in 1 mole d) The number of molecules in 1 g
e) both a and c
45. Keeping the number of moles, volume and temperature the same, which of the followings are
the same for all ideal gas?
a) RMS speed of a molecule b) Density c) Pressure d) None
46. Which of the following gases has maximum rms speed at a given temperature?
a) Hydrogen b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Carbon dioxide
47. Boyle’s law is applicable for an
a) Adiabatic process b) Isothermal process
c) Isobaric process d) Isochoric process.
48. Which of the following graphs represent the behavior of an ideal gas?
49. If the pressure and the volume of certain quantity of ideal gas are halved, the temperature
a) Is doubled b) becomes one-fourth
c) Remains constant d) become four times
50. For a gas at a temperature T the root-mean. Square velocity Vrms, the most probable speed
Vmp and the average speed Vav obey the relationship
a) Vav > Vrms > Vmp b) Vrms > Vav > Vmp c) Vmp > Vav > Vr ms > d) Vmp > Vrms>Vav
51. Match the following according to Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution
3𝐾𝑇
a) Speed distribution i) √ 𝑚
2𝐾𝑇
b) Mean speed ii) √ 𝑚
3
−𝑚𝑣2
𝑚 2
c) Root mean square speed iii) 4πN (2𝜋𝐾𝑇) V2 𝑒 2𝐾𝑇
8𝐾𝑇
d) Most probable square speed iv) √ 𝜋𝑚
a b c d
A) iii iv I ii
B) iii I ii iv
C) iii ii iv i
D) iii i iv ii
www.nammakalvi.org
th
11 Physics Kinetic Theory of Gases Way to success
52. For a gas at N.T.P which shall be maximum?

a) Vav b) Vrms c) Vmp d) None
53. The ratio of most probable speed and average speed of a gas enclosed in a vessel is
√𝜋 √𝜋 2
a) b) 1 c) d)
4 2 √𝜋
54. The most probable speed of molecules varies with temperature T as Vmp ∝ 𝑇 𝑛
1 1
a) 0 b) 2 c) 2 d) 3
55. The root mean square speed of a gas molecules of mass m at a given temperature T is Proportional to
1
a) m0 b) m c) m -1/2 d) 𝑚 ⁄2
56. RMS speed of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to the square-root of its
a) Mass b) temperature c) None of these d) Both of these
57. Most probable speed Vmp, average speed Vav and root mean square speed Vrms of gas
molecules are related as
8 𝜋 8 8
a) √3 :√2 :√𝜋 b) √2 :√3 :√8 c) √2 :√3 :√𝜋 d) √2 :√𝜋 :√3
58. If mass of He atom is 4 times that of hydrogen atom then mean velocity of He is
1
a) 2 times of H. mean value b) 2 times of H.mean value
c) 4 times of H mean value d) Same as H mean value
59. Four particles have speeds 1, 2, 3 and 4 cm/s respectively. Their rms speed is
√30
a) 2.5 b) 10 c) 2 d) √30
60. The speeds of 10 particles in m/s are 0, 1.0, 2.0, 3.0, 3.0, 4.0, 4.0, 4.0, 5.0 and 6.0.The most
probable speed is
a)3m/s b) 4m/s c) Zero d) None of these
61. Four particles have speeds 2, 3, 6 and 5 cm/s respectively. Their average speed is
a) 4 cm/s b) 2cm/s c) 0.25cm/s d) √2 cm/s
62. The average energy associated with each degree of freedom is
3 1 5
a) 2 KT b) 2 KT c) 2 KT d) KT
63. Average K.E of translation of one mole of the gas is
3 3 1
a) 2 KT b) 2 RT c) 2 KT `d) KT
64. Average K.E of translation of per molecule of the gas is
3 3 1
a) 2 KT b) 2 RT c) 2 KT d) KT
65. A diameter molecule has how many degrees of freedom
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
66. A mono atomic molecule has how many degrees of freedom
a) 3 b) 5 c) 2 d) 7
67. General expression for degree of freedom is
a) N-q b) 3N-q c) 3N d) 2N-q
68. If N number of gas molecule in the container, then total number of degrees of freedom is
a) 2N b) 1N c) 3N d) None
69. Number of constraints in linear-triatomic molecule is (vibration also)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
70. Number of constraints in Non-linear triatomic molecule (vibration also)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
71. Number of constraints in Mono atomic gas is
a) 0 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
72. Number of constraints in di-atomic molecule is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
73. Number of constraints for free particle is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) 3
74. Number of degrees of freedom for linear Triatomic molecule is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) None
75. Number of degrees of freedom for Non-linear Triatomic molecule is
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) None
76. The molecules in an ideal gas at 270C have a certain mean velocity. At what approximate
temperature will the mean velocity be doubled
a) 540C b) 327 0 C c) 12000 C d) 9270C
77. Gas at a pressure P0 in contained is a Vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and
their speeds are doubled. The resulting pressure P will be equal to
P0
a) 4 P0 b) 2 P0 c) P0 d)
2
78. At what temperature is the root mean square velocity of gaseous hydrogen molecules equal to
that of oxygen molecules at 47 0C.
a) 20K b) 80 K c) -73K d) 3K
79. Mean free path of a gas molecule is
a) Inversely proportional to number of molecules per unit volume
b) Inversely proportional to diameter of the molecule
c) Independent of temperature
d) Directly proportional to the molecular mass.
80. Average thermal energy of one mole of helium at this temperature is
(1gram mole = 8.31 J mol-1 K-1)
a) 3.74×103 J b) 3.74 ×10−3 J c) 3.47 ×106 J d) 3.47 ×10−6 J
81. Average thermal energy of a helium atom at book would be
a) 6.21×10−21 J b) 1.24×10−20 J c) 1.24×10−21 J d) 1.24×1021 J
82. Meyer’s relation is
a) CV-CP=R b) Cp - Cv=R c) Cp + Cv=R d) None
83. If the degree of freedom of a gas are f, then the ratio of two specific heats Cp⁄Cvis given by
2 2 1 1
a) 𝑓 +1 b) 1- 𝑓 c) 1+𝑓 d) 1-𝑓
𝐶𝑝
84. The ratio of the specific heats = 𝛾 in terms of degrees of freedom (f) is given by
𝐶𝑣
𝑓 2 𝑓 1
a) (1 + 3) b) (1 + 𝑓) c) (1 + 2) d) (1 + 𝑓)
𝑅
85. For a gas 𝐶 =0.67.This gas is made up of molecules which are
𝑣
a) Diatomic b) Mixture of diatomic and polyatomic molecules.
c) Mono atomic d) Polyatomic
86. For a gas molecule with 6 degrees of freedom the law of equipartition of energy gives the following
relation between the molar specific heat (CV) and gas constant(R).
𝑅
a) CV = 2 b) CV =R c) CV =2R d) CV =3R
7
87. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is 2
R. The ratio of specific heat at
constant pressure to that at constant volume is
5 9 7 8
a) 7 b) 7 c) 5 d) 7
88. For a gas if ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and volume is 𝛾 then value of degree of
freedom is
3𝛾−1 2 9 25
𝑎) 2𝛾−1 b) 𝛾−1 c) 2 (𝛾 − 1) d) 2 (𝛾 − 1)
89. The molar specific heat at constant pressure for a mono atomic gas is
3 5 7
a) 2 R b) 2 R c) 2 R d) 4R
90. Which of the following formula is wrong
𝑅 𝛾𝑅 𝐶
a) CV =𝛾−1 b) CV =𝛾−1 c) 𝐶𝑃 = 𝛾 d) 𝐶𝑃 − CV =2R
𝑉
91. What is the ratio of specific heats of constant pressure and constant volume for NH3
a) 1.33 b) 1.44 c) 1.28 d) 1.67
92. The mean free path of a gas molecule is inversely proportional to
a) Square of the diameter of the molecule
b) Square root of the diameter of the molecule.
c) Molecular diameter
d) Fourth power of the molecular diameter.
93. If the mean free path of atoms is doubled then the Pressure of gas will become
𝑃 𝑃 𝑃
a) 4 b) 2 c) 8 d) P
94. The molecular density in a gas is n and the diameter of its molecule is d, then the mean free
path of molecule is
𝜋 1 1 1
a) 𝑛𝑑2 b) 𝜋𝑛𝑑 c) 2 d) 3√2𝜋𝑛𝑑3
√2𝜋𝑛𝑑
95. Calculate the values of the molar heat capacities 𝐶𝑃 and CV of a gas. If the ratio of heat
capacities is 1.33.
a) 25.18, 33.39 b) 33.49, 25.18 c) 15.18, 33.49 d) None
96. If the ratio of the heat capacities is 1.33.Then the number of degrees of freedom is
a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 2
97. One mole of an ideal gas is taken from A to B, from B to C and then back to A) The
variation of its volume with temperature for that change is as shown. Its pressure at A
is P0, Volume is V0, then the internal energy
a) at A is more than at B b) at C is less than at B
c) at B is more than at A d) at A and B are equal.
98. Which one of the following graph is correct at constant pressure?
99. The curve between absolute temperature and V2rms is
Ans: (b)
100. The adjoining figure sows graph of pressure and volume of a gas at two
temperature T1 and T2. Which of the following inferences is
correct?
a) T1 > T2 b) T1 = T2
c) T1 < T2 d) None
A) Mono atomic i) He, Ne, Ar
B) Di-atomic ii) H2, N2 ,O2
C) Tri-atomic (Linear) iii) CO2, OCS
D) Tri-atomic (Non - Linear) iv) H2O
a) A- i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, d. i
c) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii d) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
11th Physics Oscillations Way to success
UNIT – X
OSCILLATIONS

1. The rotation of earth about its axis is
a) Periodic motion b) Simple harmonic motion.
c) Periodic but not simple harmonic motion. d) Both a and c
2. Motion of a ball bearing inside a smooth curved bowl when released from a point slightly
above the lower point
a) Simple harmonic motion b) Non-periodic motion
c) Periodic motion d) Both a and c
3. Motion of an oscillating liquid column in a u-tube is
a) Periodic but not simple harmonic. b) Non-periodic
c) Simple harmonic and time period is independent of the density of the liquid
d) Simple harmonic and time period is directly proportional to the density of the liquid.
4. Choose he correct option
a) Every simple harmonic motion is periodic.
b) Every periodic motion is not simple harmonic.
c) Every periodic motion is simple harmonic.
d) Both a and b.
5. Which of the following equations does not represent a simple harmonic motion
a) Y=a sinwt b) Y=a coswt c) Y=a sinwt + b coswt d) Y=tanwt
6. Which of the following is a necessary and sufficient condition for simple harmonic
a) Constant period b) Constant acceleration
c) Proportionality between acceleration and velocity.
d) Proportionality between restoring force and displacement
7. A non-harmonic oscillation is expressed by
a) Y=a sinwt b) Y=a coswt c) Y=a sinwt+b coswt d) None
8. The restoring force F acting on the body in SHM at the given instant is
a) F= -Kx b) F=Kx c) F=x d) F=K
9. Differential equation of a SHM is
𝑑2 𝑥 𝑑2 𝑥 𝑑2 𝑥
a) 𝑑𝑡 2 = 𝑤 2 𝑥 b) 𝑑𝑡 2 = 𝑤𝑥 c) 𝑑𝑡 2 = −𝑤 2 𝑥 d) None
10. Unit of force constant is (K)
a) Nm b) N c) Nm-1 d) N-1m
11. The restoring force of SHM is maximum when particle
a) Diplacement is maximum b) is half way between the mean and extreme position
c) Crosses mean position d) is at rest
12. What is constant in SHM?
a) Restoring force b) Kinetic energy
c) Potential energy d) Periodic time
13. The velocity of a particle performing simple harmonic motion, when it passes through its mean
position is
a) Infinity b) Zero c) Minimum d) Maximum
www.nammakalvi.org
th
11 Physics Oscillations Way to success
14. In SHM, the ratio of acceleration of the particle to its displacement at any time is a
measure of
a) Spring constant b) Angular frequency
c) (Angular frequency)2 d) Restoring force.
15. In simple harmonic motion, the particle is
a) Always accelerated b) always retarded
c) Alternately accelerated and retarded d) Neither accelerated nor retarded.
16. If a particle is executing SHM then acceleration of particle
a) is uniform b) varies linearly with time
c) is non-uniform d) Both b and c
17. A particle executes SHM. Then the graph of velocity as a function of displacement is
a) Straight line b) a circle c) an ellipse d) a hyperbola
18. If a graph is drawn for acceleration versus displacement of SHM. It is a
a) Straight line b) circle c) ellipse d) a hyper bola
𝜋
19. a particle performing SHM starts from mean position. The phase of that particle is 2 when it
has
a) Maximum displacement b) Maximum velocity
c) Maximum energy d) Maximum Kinetic energy
20. The amplitude and the time period in a SHM is 0.5 cm and 0.4 s respectively. If the initial
𝜋
phase is 2 rad. Then the equation of SHM will be
a) Y=0.5 sin 5𝜋t b) Y=0.5sin 4𝜋𝑡 c) Y=0.5sin 2.5𝜋𝑡 d) Y=0.5 cos 5𝜋𝑡
21. A body is executing SHM with an amplitude 0.1m. Its velocity while passing through the
mean position in 3ms -1 its frequency in Hz is
a) 15𝜋 b) 15/𝜋 c) 30𝜋 d) 25𝜋
22. The displacement of a simple harmonic motion is x=0.34 cos(3000t+0.74) Where x and t are in
mm and second respectively. The frequency of the motion is
10 𝜋 2𝜋 10
a) 𝜋 b) 10 c) 10 d) 2𝜋
23. The equation of a simple harmonic motion is x=0.34 cos (3000t+0.74). where x and t are
in mm and second respectively. The frequency of the motion is
3000 0.74 3000
a) 3000 b) 2𝜋 c) 2𝜋 d) 𝜋
𝜋
24. The maximum velocity of a simple harmonic motion represented by Y = 3 sin (100t+ 2 ) is
given by
3𝜋 𝜋
a) 300 units b) 6 units c) 100 units d) 6 units
25. Velocity at mean position of a particle executing SHM is V velocity of the particle at a
distance equal to half of the amplitude will be
𝑉 𝑉 √3 √3
a) 2 b) c) V d) V
√2 2 4
𝜋𝑡
26. What is the maximum acceleration of the particle executing the SHM? Y= 2 sin [ 2 + 𝜙] Where
Y is in cm
𝜋 𝜋2 𝜋 𝜋2
a) 2 cms-2 b) 2 cms-2 c) 4 cms-2 d) 2 cms-2
27. The composition of two simple harmonic motions of equal periods at right angle to each other
and with a phase different of 𝜋 results in the displacement of the particle along
a) Circle b) straight line c) Ellipse d) None
28. A body is executing SHM .When the displacement from the mean position of 4 cm and
5 cm, the corresponding velocities of the body is 10 cm/sec and 8cm/sec. Then the time period
of the body is
𝜋 3𝜋
a) 2𝜋 sec b) 2 sec c) 𝜋 sec d) 2 sec
29. If a simple harmonic oscillation has got a displacement of 0.02m and acceleration equal to 0.02
ms-2 at any time the angular frequency of the oscillation is equal to
a) 10 rad/s b) 0.1 rad/s c) 100 rad/s d) 1 rad/s
30. Two SHM's with same Amplitude and time periods, when acting together in perpendicular
𝜋
directions with a phase difference of 2 , give rise to
a) Straight motion b) Elliptical motion c) Circular motion d) None
31. Which one of the following statement is true for the speed 'V' and the acceleration 'a' of a particle
executing simple harmonic motion?
a) V→ maximux, a→maximum b) V→ minimum, a→ minimum
c) V→ zero, a → zero d) V→ maximum.a → zero
32. A system exhibiting SHM must possess
a) Inertia only b) elasticity as well as inertia
c) Elasticity, inertia, and an external force d) Elasticity only
33. The ratio of maximum acceleration to maximum velocity of a particle performing SHM is equal
to
a) Amplitude b) Angular velocity
c) Square of amplitude d) square of angular velocity
34. A spring-mass system oscillates with a frequency f, if it takes in an elevator slowly
accelerating upwards, the frequency will
a) Increase b) decrease c) remain same d) become zero.
35. The total force constant of the springs shown in the figure will be
𝐾1 1 1 −1
a) + 𝐾2 b) (2𝐾 + 𝐾 )
2 1 2
1 1 1
c) 2𝐾 + 𝐾 d) (2𝐾1 + 𝐾 )
1 2 2
36. A spring of force constant K is cut in to 3 equal parts .The force constant of each part will
be
𝐾
a) 3K b) K c) 3 d) None
37. A mass m is suspended by means of two coiled springs which have the same length in
upstretched conditions. Their force constants are K1 and K2 respectively. When set into vertical
vibrations, the period will be
𝑚 𝐾 𝑚 𝑚
a) 2 𝜋√𝐾 b) 2 𝜋√𝑚 (𝐾1 ) c) 2 𝜋 √𝐾 d) 2 𝜋√𝐾
1 𝐾2 2 1 −𝐾2 1 +𝐾2
38. Two springs of spring constant K1 and K2 are joined in parallel. The effective spring
constant of the combination is given by
𝐾 +𝐾 𝐾 𝐾
𝑎) √𝐾1 𝐾2 b) 1 2 2 c) 𝐾1 + 𝐾2 d) 𝐾 1+𝐾2
1 2
39. Two springs of spring constant K1 and K2 are joined in parallel. The effective spring
constant of the combination is given by
𝐾 +𝐾 𝐾 𝐾
𝑎) √𝐾1 𝐾2 b) 1 2 2 c) 𝐾1 + 𝐾2 d) 𝐾 1+𝐾2
1 2
40. A mass m is suspended from the two coupled springs connected in series. The force
constant for springs are K1 and K2 .The time period of the suspended will be
𝑚 𝑚(𝐾1 |𝐾2 ) 𝑚(𝐾1 𝐾2 )
a) T = 2𝜋 √𝐾 −𝐾 b) T = 2𝜋√ 𝐾 +𝐾 c) T = 2𝜋√ 𝐾 +𝐾 d) None
1 2 1 2 1 2
41. A body of mass 5 kg hangs from a spring and oscillates with a time period of 2 𝜋 seconds. If the
ball is removed the length of the spring will decrease by
𝑔 𝑘
a) 𝑘 meters b) 𝑔 meters c) 2𝜋 meters d) g meters
42. To make the frequency double of a spring oscillator, we have to
a) Reduce the mass to one fourth b) Quadruples the mass
c) Double of mass d) Half of mass
5
43. A body of mass 20 g connected to spring of constant K executes SHM with a frequency of 𝜋
Hz. The value of spring constant is
a) 4Nm-1 b) 3 Nm-1 c) 2 Nm-1 d) 5 Nm-1
44. A body of mass 8 kg is suspended through two light springs X and Y connected in series. The
readings in X and Y respectively are
a) 8Kg,Zero b) Zero,8 kg c) 8 kg, 8 kg d) 2 kg, 6 kg
45. As shown in figure, a simple harmonic motion oscillator having identical four
springs has time period
𝑚 𝑚
a) T=2𝜋 √4𝑘 b) T=2𝜋 √2𝑘
𝑚 2𝑚
c) T=2𝜋 √ 𝑘 d) T=2𝜋 √ 𝑘
46. A spring having a spring constant 'K' is loaded with a mass 'm'. The spring is cut into two equal
parts and one of these is loaded again with the same mass. The new spring constant is
𝐾
a) 2 b) K c) 2K d) K2
47. The time period of a simple pendulum for small swings depends on
a) Mass of the body b) Its length
c) The size of its bob d) None
48. If the length of a simple pendulum for small depends on
a) is halved b) is doubled
c) becomes √2 times d) reduces by √2
49. The speed of the bob of an oscillating pendulum is maximum
a) At each of the extreme position b) Between the mean position and the right
c) Between the mean position and the left extreme position
d) At the mean position
50. What is the effect on the period of a simple pendulum if the mass of the bob is doubled?
a) Halved b) Doubled
c) Become 8 times d) No effect
51. To show that a simple pendulum executing a simple harmonic motion it is necessary to assume
that
a) Length of pendulum is smal b) Mass of the pendulum is small
c) Acceleration due to gravity is small d) Amplitude of the oscillation is small.
52. For a simple pendulum l-T graph is
a) Parabola b) Straight line c) Ellipse d) None
53. For a simple pendulum l-T2 graph is

a) Parabola b) Straight linec) Ellipse d) None
54. In a simple pendulum, the period of oscillation (T) is related to length of the pendulum (l)
is
𝑙 𝑙2 𝑙 𝑙2
a) 𝑇 =Constant b) 𝑇 = Constant c) 𝑇 2 =Constant d) 𝑇 2 =Constant
55. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of constant length at earth's surface is T. Its
period inside a mine is
a) Greater than T b) Less than T c) Equal to T d) Cannot be compared
56. The period of a simple pendulum is doubled when
a) Its length is doubled b) The mass of the bob is doubled.
c) Its length is made four times d) None
57. A pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a train has a period T when the train is at rest. When
the train is accelerating with a uniform acceleration a, the period of oscillation will
a) Increase b) Decrease c) remain unaffected d) become infinite
58. The work done by the string of a simple pendulum during one complete oscillation is equal
to
a) Total energy of the pendulum b) Kinetic energy of the pendulum
c) Potential energy of the pendulum d) Zero
59. A simple pendulum is taken from the equation to the pole. Its period
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Remains the same d) Decreases and then increases
60. The time period of a simple pendulum when it is made to oscillate on the surface of moon
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged d) Become infinite
61. The ratio of frequencies of two pendulums are 2:3, then their length are in ratio
2 3 4 9
a) √3 b) √2 c) d) 4
9
62. If the length of a simple pendulum is increased by 2% then the time period
a) Increases by 1% b) decreases by 1%
c) Increases by 2% d) Decreases by 2%
63. Time period of a simple pendulum is 2 sec. If its length is increased by 4 times, then its period
becomes
a) 8 sec b) 12 sec c) 16 sec d) 4 sec
𝐴
64. A body performs SHM with an amplitude A. At a distance from the mean position, the
√2
correct relation between K.E and P.E is
𝑃.𝐸 𝑃.𝐸
a) K.E= b) K.E=√2 P.E c) K.E=P.E d)
2 √2
1
65. When the kinetic energy of a body executing SHM is 3 of the potential energy. The
displacement of the body is x percent of the amplitude, where x is
a) 33 b) 87 c) 67 d) 50
66. The P.E of a particle executing SHM at a distance x from the equilibrium position is
1 1 1
a) 2 m w2x2 b) 2 mw2a2 c) 2 mw2(a2-x2) d) Zero
67. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The potential energy (P.E), the kinetic energy (K.E)
and total energy (T.E) are measured as a function of displacement x. Which of the following
statement is true
a) P.E is maximum when x=0 b) K.E is maximum when x=0
c) T.E is zero when x=o d) K.E is maximum when x is maximum
68. The angular velocity and the amplitude of a simple pendulum is w and a respectively. At a
displacement x from the mean position. If its kinetic energy is T and potential energy is v then
the ratio of T to V is
(𝑎2 −𝑥 2 𝑤 2 ) 𝑥2𝑤2 𝑎2 −𝑥 2 𝑥2
a) b) (𝑎2 −𝑥 2 𝑤2 ) c) d) 𝑎2 −𝑥 2
𝑥2𝑤2 𝑥2
69. The total energy of a simple harmonic oscillator is proportional to
a) Velocity b) Frequency c) Amplitude d) Square of the Amplitude
𝑑2 𝑦
70. The equation of motion of a particle is 2 +Ky =0, where K -is positive constant. The time
𝑑𝑡
period of the motion is given by w =
2𝜋 2𝜋
a) 𝐾 b) 2𝜋 𝐾 c) d) 2𝜋 √𝑘
√𝑘
71. The acceleration of a particle performing S.H.M is 12 cm s-2 at a distance of 3 cm from the
mean position. Its time period is
a) 0.5 s b) 1.0 s c) 2.0 s d) 3.14 s
72. Frequency of variation of kinetic energy of a SHM of frequency f is
𝑓
a) 2f b) f c) 2 d) 3f
73. A particle executing SHM with time period T. The time period with which its kinetic energy
oscillation is
𝑇
a) T b) 2T c) 4T d) 2
74. A particle oscillating under a force 𝐹⃗ = -Kx-b𝑣⃗ is a (K and b are constant)
a) Simple harmonic oscillator b) Linear oscillator
c) Damped oscillator d) Forced oscillator
75. A simple pendulum is set into vibration. The bob of the Pendulum comes to rest after some
time due to
a) Air friction b) Moment of inertia
c) Weight of the bob d) None of these
76. A simple pendulum oscillates in air with time period t and amplitude A.As the time
passes
a) T and A both decrease b) T increases and A is constant.
c) T remains same and A decreases d) T decreases and A is constant
77. Resonance is example of
a) Tuning fork b) Forced vibration
c) Free Vibration d) Damped vibration.
78. In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave becomes very sharp when the
a) Restoring force is small b) Applies periodic force is small
c) Quality factor is small d) Damping force is small
11th Physics Waves Way to success
www.nammakalvi.org
UNIT – XI
WAVES

1. The relation between wave length, frequency and wave velocity is
a) V=λf b) λ=vf c) f=vλ d) none of these
2. The reciprocal of frequency is
a) Amplitude b) wave length c) time-period d) wave velocity
3. The product of time – period and frequency is
a) Zero b) unity c) infinity d) none of these
4. Hz is the unit of
a) Frequency b) period c) amplitude d) none of these
5. The frequency of sound waves can be expressed in
a) Second b) cycle c) cycle per second d) metre per second
6. A medium can carry a longitudinal wave because it has the property of
a) Mass b) density c) compressibility d) elasticity
7. In transverse waves, particles of the medium vibrate about their mean position
a) Along the direction of propagation of wave
b) perpendicular to the direction of propagation wave
c) sometimes, along and sometimes normal to the propagation of wave
d) none of the above
8. It is possible to distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves by studying the property of
a) Interference b) diffraction c) reflection d) polarization
9. The velocity of sound in air is not affected by change in
a) Moisture content of air b) temperature of air
c) Atmospheric pressure d) composition of air
10. Velocity of sound in air
a) Decreases with increase in temperature
b) Increases with decreases in temperature
c) Decreases with decreases in temperature
d) Does not depend on temperature
11. The velocity of sound is generally greater in solid that in gases because
a) The density of solids is high but the elasticity is low
b) Both the density and the elasticity of solids are high
c) Both the density and the elasticity of solids are high
d) The density of solids is low but the elasticity is high
12. Which of the following properties of sound is affected by change in air temperature
a) Amplitude b) frequency c) wave length d) intensity
13. Which of the following is different from others
a) Velocity b) wavelength c) frequency d) amplitude
14. Which of the following do not require medium for transmission
a) Cathode ray b) Electromagnetic wave c) sound wave d) none
15. Velocity of sound is maximum in
a) Air b) water c) vacuum d) steel
16. Sound wave transfer

a) Only energy not momentum b) Energy
c) Momentum d) both energy and momentum
17. The following phenomenon cannot be observed for sound waves
a) Refraction b) Interference c) diffraction d) polarization
18. The nature of sound waves in gases is
a) Transverse b) Longitudinal c) stationary d) electromagnetic
19. Water waves are
a) Longitudinal b) Transverse
c) Both longitudinal and transverse d) Neither longitudinal nor transverse
20. The phenomenon of sound propagation in air is
a) Isothermal b) Isobaric c) Adiabatic d) none
21. Transverse waves can propagate in
a) Liquids b) Solids c) gases d) none
22. Speed of sound at constant temperature depends on
a) Pressure b) density of gas c) above both d) none
23. Which one of the following statement is true
a) Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal
b) Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum
c) Both light and sound waves in air are transverse
d) The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse
24. Consider the following
I. waves created on the surfaces of a water pond by vibrating sources
II. Wave created by an oscillating electric field in air
III. Sound waves travelling under water which of these can be polarized
a) I and II b) II only c) II and III d) I, II and III
25. The Laplace’s correction in the expression for the velocity of sound given by newton is needed
because sound waves
a) Are longitudinal b) propagate isothermally
c) Propagate adiabatically d) are of long wave length
26. As a transverse wave strike against a wall
a) Its phase changes by a180° but velocity does not change
b) Its phase does not change but velocity change
c) Its velocity changes and phase too changes by 180°
d) None
27. The frequency of sound wave is 20Hz then time period is
a) 0.5s b) 0.05s c) 0.005s d) 1s
28. If 20 waves are produced per second, then its frequency is
a) 20Hz b) 2Hz c) 200Hz d) 10Hz
29. A source of wave produces 40 crests and 40 troughs in 0.4 second. Find the frequency of the wave
a) 50Hz b) 100Hz c) 10Hz d) none
30. A human heart, on an average, is found to beat 75 times a minute. Calculate its frequency
a) 1.25Hz b) 45Hz c) 4500Hz d) none
-1
31. A sound wave travels at a speed of 330ms . If its wave length is 1.5cm then the frequency is
a) 22000Hz b) 220Hz c) 2200Hz d) none
32. The propagation constant of wave is also called its
a) Wave length b) frequency c) wave number d) angular wave number
33. A uniform rope of length L and mass M, hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is
attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wave length λ1 is produced at the lower
end of the rope the wave length of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2 the ratio λ2/ λ1
is
m 𝑚1 +𝑚2 m 𝑚1 +𝑚2
a)√m2 b) √ c) √m1 d) √
1 m1 2 m2
34. A 5.5 metre length of string has a mass of 0.035kg if the tension in the string in 77 N the speed of a
wave on the string is
a) 110ms-1 b) 165 ms-1 c) 77 ms-1 d) 102ms-1
35. A string is producing transverse vibration whose equation is y=0.021 sin (x+30t). Where x and y are
in meters and t is in seconds. If the linear density of the string is 1.3x10-4kg/m. then the tension in the
string in N will be
a) 10 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 0.117
36. A 10m long steel wire has mass 5g. if the wire is under a tension of 80N,the speed of transverse
waves on the wire is
a)100ms-1 b)200ms-1 c)400ms-1 d)500ms-1
37. Speed of sound waves in a fluid is
a) Directly proportional to the square root of bulk modulus of the medium
b) Inversely proportional to the bulk modulus of the medium
c) Directly proportional to the density of the medium
d) Inversely proportional to the density of the medium
38. The temperature at which the speed of sound becomes double as was at 27°c is
a) 273°c b) 0°c c) 927°c d) 1027°c
39. Two identical piano wires, kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600Hz.
the fractional increases in the tension of one the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beats/s.
when both the wires oscillate together would be
a) 0.01 b) 0.02 c) 0.03 d)0.04
40. Two stretched strings have length l to 2l while tensions are T and 4T respectively. If they are made
of same material the ratio of their frequency is
a) 2:1 b)1:2 c)1:1 d)1:4
41. A device used for investigating the vibration of a fixed string or wire is
a) Sonometer b) barometer c)hydrometer d) none of the these
42. The sound carried by air from a sitar to a listener is a wave of the following type
a) Longitudinal stationary b) longitudinal progressive
c) transverse stationary d) longitudinal progressive
43. Speed of sound in mercury at a certain temperature is 1450ms-1. Given the density of mercury as
13.6x103kgm-3 the bulk modulus for mercury is
a)2.86x1010NM-3 b) 3.86x1010NM-3 c) 4.86x1010NM-3 d)5.86x1010NM-3
44. A string is vibrating in n loops. The number of nodes and antinodes respectively are
a) n, n b) (n+1),n c) n,(n-1) d) (n-1),n
45. Which of the following equation represent a wave travelling along y-axis
a) y =A sin(kx-wt) b) x=A sin(ky-wt) c) x=Asin kycoscot d) none
46. A progressive wave y=A sin (kx - wt) is reflected by a rigid wall at x=0. Then the reflected wave
can be represented by
a) y =A sin (kx+wt) b) y=A cos(kx+wt) c) y=-A sin (kx-wt) d) y=-A sin (kx+wt)
47. A sound wave y=A0 sin (wt-kx) is reflected from a rigid wall with 64% of its amplitude. The equation
of the reflected wave is
64 64
a) y=100A0 sin (wt+kx) b) y= - 100A0 sin(wt+kx)
64 64
c) y=100A0 sin(wt-kx) d) y= 100A0 cos (wt-kx)
48. Two waves are given by y1=a sin (wt-kx) and y2=a cos (wt-kx). The phase difference between the two
ware is
a) π/4 b) C c) π/8 d) π/2
49. A wave travelling in the +ve x direction having displacement along y direction as 1m, wave length 2π
1
m and frequency of πHz is represented by
a) Y=sin(10πx − 20πt) b) y=sin(2πx + 2πt)
c) y =sin(x-2t) d) y=sin(2πx − 2πt)
π
50. A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is represented by y(x, t) = 8.0sin (0.5πx − 4πt − 4 )
where x is in metres and t in seconds. The speed of the wave is
a) 8ms-1 b) 4π ms-1 c) 0.5 π ms-1 d) π/4 ms-1
51. The equation of a sound wave is y=0.0015 sin (62.4x+316t). The wave length of the wave is
a) 0.3 unit b) 0.2 unit c) 0.1 unit d) cannot be calculated
52. The relation between phase difference Δϕ and path difference Δx is
2π 2πλ 2Δx
a) Δϕ= λ Δx b) Δϕ=2πλΔx c) Δϕ = Δx d) Δϕ = λ
53. The wave length of a wave in a medium is 0.5m. The phase difference between the oscillations at
π
two points in the medium due to this wave is 5 . What is the minimum distance between these
points?
a) 0.05m b) 0.1m c) 0.25m d) 0.15m
-1
54. The speed of sound in air is 332ms . The speed in air in units of km per hour will be
a) 1.1952km/h b) 11.952km/h c) 119.52km/h d) 1195.2km/h
55. Two sound waves having a phase difference of 60° have path difference of
a) 2λ b) λ/2 c) λ/6 d) λ/3
56. What is the phase difference between two successive crests in the ware
a) π b) π/2 c) 2π d) 4π
57. The phase difference between two points separated by 0.8m in a wave of frequency is 120Hz. the
velocity of wave is
a) 720ms-1 b) 384ms-1 c) 250ms-1 d) 1ms-1
58. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x – direction is given by y= 10-4 sin (600t – 2x+π/3)
metres. Where x is expressed in metres and t in seconds the speed of the wave – motion in ms-1 is
a) 200 b) 300 c) 600 d) 1200
59. If the equation of transverse wave is y=2sin(kx-2t) then the maximum particle velocity is
a) 4 units b) 2 units c) 0 d) 6 units
1π
60. A transverse wave is represented by the equation y=y° sin λ (vt-x) for what value of λ is the particle
velocity equal to times the wave velocity
πy πy
a) λ=πy0 b) λ = 2 0 c) λ = 3 0 d) λ =2 piy0
61. If the phase difference between the two ware is 2π during superposition, then the resultant
amplitude is
a) Maximum b) minimum c) maximum on minimum d) none of the above
62. Law of superposition is applicable to only

a) light waves b) sound waves c) transverse waves d) all kinds of wave
63. Coherent sources are characterized by same
a) Phase, phase velocity b) amplitude and frequency
c) wave length, amplitude and frequency d) wave length, phase
64. Two waves of the opposite directions. If superposed give rise to
a) resonance b) beats c) standing wave d) harmonics
65. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we need
a) two sources which emit radiation of nearly the same frequency
b) two sources which emit radiation of exactly the same frequency
c) two sources which emit radiation of exactly the same frequency and have a definite phase
relationship
d) two sources which emit radiation of exactly the same wave length
66. The complete destructive interference of two sound waves takes place when waves are travelling in
the same direction
a) with the same frequency and amplitude and are in phase
b) with the same frequency and amplitude and are in opposite phase
c) with the same frequency and amplitude
d) with the same frequency and opposite phase
67. The phenomenon of beat is
a) A characteristic property of light waves
b) A characteristic property of water waves
c) A characteristic property of sound waves
d) A particular case of the phenomenon of interference
68. In a stationary wave
a) strain is maximum at nodes b) strain is maximum at antimodes
c) strain is minimum at nodes d) amplitude is zero at all points
69. Interference of sound can be demonstrated by
a) stethoscope b) tuning fork c) Quincke’s tube d) organ pipe
70. In stationary wave at nodes
a) energy is maximum b) pressure and density changes
c) change in strain in maximum d) all the above
71. Two waves of amplitude A1, A2 are superimposed, then the common amplitude is
a) A1+A2 b) A1- A2 c) √A1 + A2 2 d) √A + A + 2AAcoso
72. Energy is not carried by
a)transverse progressive waves b) longitudinal progressive waves
c) stationary waves d) electromagnetic wave
73. If the amplitude of sound is doubled and the frequency reduced to one fourth, the intensity of sound
at the same point will be
a) increasing by a factor of 2 b) decreasing by a factor of 2
c) decreasing by a factor of 4 d) unchanged
74. Two identical sinusoidal waves each of amplitude 5mm with phase difference of π/2 are travelling
in the same direction in a string. The amplitude of the resultant wave is
5
a) Zero b) √2 c) 5/√2 d) 2.5
www.nammakalvi.org
th
11 Physics Waves Way to success
75. Beats are the result of

a) diffraction b) destructive interference
c) constructive and destructive interference
d) superposition of two waves of nearly equal of nearly equal frequency
76. When temperature increases, the frequency of a tuning fort
a) increases b) decreases
c) remain same d) increases on decreases depending on the material
77. When a tuning fork produces sound wave in air, which one of the following is same in the material
of tuning fork as well as in the air
a) wave length b) frequency c) velocity d) amplitude
78. When a tuning fork vibrates, the wave produced in the fork are
a) longitudinal b) transverse c) progressive d) stationary
79. Two sound waves of slightly different frequencies propagating in the same direction produce beats
due to
a) interference b) diffraction c) polarization d) refraction
80.Two sources of sound placed close to each other are emitting progressive waves given by y1=4sin
600πt and y2=5sin 608πt. An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear
a) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
b) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
c) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
d) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
81. For production of beats the two sources must have
a) different frequencies and same amplitude
b) different frequencies
c) different frequencies and same amplitude and same phase
d) different frequencies and same phase
82. If the study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends then the following statement is not true
a) all harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
b) pressure change will be maximum at both ends
c) open end will be antinode
d) odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
83. A closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is excited to support the third overtone. It is found that air in
the pipe has
a) three nodes and three antinodes b) three nodes and four antinodes
c) four nodes and three antinodes d) four nodes and antinodes
84. A sono meter wire is generally mounted over a large hollow wooden sound bow. This increases
a) Frequency of sound b) velocity of sound
c) intensity of sound d) wave length of sound
85. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220Hz and 260Hz
what is the fundamental frequency of the system
a) 20Hz b) 30Hz c)40Hz d)10Hz
86. In open organ pipe, If fundamental frequency is f then the other frequencies are
a) f, 2f, 3f, 4f b) f, 3f, 5f c) f, 2f, 4f, 8f d) none
87. In a closed organ pipe the frequency fundamental note is 50Hz the note of which of the following
frequencies will not be emitted by it
a) 50Hz b) 100Hz c) 150Hz d) None
88. If the velocity of sound in air is 336m/s. The maximum length of a closed pipe that would produce a
just audible sound will be
a) 3.2cm b) 4.2cm c) 4.2cm d) 3.2cm
89. An open pipe of length L vibrates in fundamental mode the pressure variation is maximum at
a) ¼ from ends b) the middle of pipe
c) the ends of pipe d) at 1/8 from ends of pipe
90. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length 20cm is equal to the sound overtone of
an organ pipe open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at both the end is
a) 120cm b) 140cm c) 80cm d) 100cm
-2
91. The intensity of sound produced by thunder is 0.1wm . Calculate the intensity level in decibel
a) 110db b) 100db c) 50db d) none
92. A spherical source of power 4w and frequency 800H2 is emitting sound wares. The intensity of ware
at a distance 200m is
a) 8x10-6wm-2 b) 2x10-4wm-2 c) 1x10-4wm-2 d) 4wm-2
93. How many times more intense is a 60db sound than 30db
a) 100 b) 4 c) 1000 d) 2
94.Doppler effect is applicable for
a) Moving bodies b) one is moving and other are stationary
c) for relative motion d) none of these
95. Doppler phenomena is related with
a) Pitch (frequency) b) loudness c) quality d) reflection
96. Doppler shift in frequency does not depend upon
a) The frequency of the wave produced b) the velocity of the source
c) the velocity of the observer d) distance from the source to the listener
97. A source emits a sound of frequency of 400Hz but the listener hears it to be 390Hz then
a) The listener is moving towards the source
b) the source is moving towards the listener
c) the listener is moving away from the source
d) the listener has a defective ear
98. An observer is moving towards the stationary source of sound, then
a) Apparent frequency will be less the real frequency
b) apparent frequency will be greater than the real frequency
c) apparent frequency will be equal to real frequency
d) only the quality of sound will change
99. When a source is going away from a stationary observer with a velocity equal to velocity of sound in
air, then the frequency heard by the observer will be
a) Same b) double c) half d) one third
100. If source and observer both are relatively at rest and if speed of sound is increased then frequency
heard by observer will
a) Increases b) decreases c) cannot be predicted d) will not change
101. The Doppler shift in the frequency received by a stationary receiver when the source is moving
towards. It was measured to be ∆V air when both receiver and source are in air and it was measured
to be ∆Vwater when both are under water,then
a) ∆Vair > ∆Vwater b) ∆Vair < ∆Vwater c) ∆Vair = ∆Vwater d) ∆Vwater =0, ∆Vair< 0
102. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22ms-1 and 16.5ms-1
respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400Hz. The frequency
heard by the driver of the second car is (velocity of second is 340ms-1)
a) 361 Hz b) 411 Hz c) 448 Hz d) 350 Hz
103. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800Hz moves away from an observer towards a (lift at a
speed of 15ms-1 then the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the
(lift is velocity of sound in air =330ms-1)
a) 838Hz b) 885Hz c) 765Hz d) 800Hz
104. A train moving at a speed of 220ms-1 towards a stationary object, emits a sound of frequency
1000Hz some of the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as echo. The
frequency of the echo as detected by the driver of the train is (V= 330ms-1)
a) 3500Hz b) 4000Hz c) 5000Hz d) 3000Hz
105. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of sound.
The wave length and frequency of the source emitted are λ and f respectively. The apparent
frequency and wave length recorded by the observer are respectively
a) 1.2f, 1.2 λ b) 1.2f, λ c) f, 1.2 λ d) 0.8f, 0.8 λ
106. Which of the following has high pitch in their sound
a) Lion b) mosquito c) man d) woman
107. Decibel is unit of
a) Intensity of light b) sound loudness c) energy d) none
108. Quality of a musical note depends on
a) Harmonics presents b) amplitude of the wave c) fundamental frequency
109. When we horn a sound, we can identify its source from
a) Amplitude of sound b) intensity of sound
c) wave length of sound d) overtone present in the sound
110. The loudness and pitch of a sound depends on
a) Intensity and velocity b) frequency and velocity
c) intensity and frequency d) frequency and number of harmonics
111. Quality depends on
a) Intensity b) loudness c) timbre d) frequency
112. If T is the reverberation time of an auditorium of volume V then
1 1
a) Tα V b) Tα V2 c) TαV2 d) TαV
113. Match the following:
A) Transverse wave i) crests and troughs
B) Longitudinal wave ii) compression and rarefaction
C) Progressive wave iii) energy propagated
D) stationary wave iv) energy is not propagated
c) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii d) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
A) Newton i) isothermal
B) Laplace ii) adiabatic
C) Constructive interference iii) I= I1+I2+√I1 I2
D) Destructive interference iv) I= I1+I2-√I1 I2
c) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-I d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
115. A) In a progressive wave i) vibration of particles are along the direction of wave propagation
B) In a transverse wave ii) amplitude of vibration does not vary with time
C) In a stationary wave iii) vibrations of particles are perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation
D) In a longitudinal wave iv) Amplitude of vibration varies with position
a) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, iv D-I, iii b) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
c) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv d) A-I, ii, iii, B-i, ii C-iv, D-I,ii
A) Change in apparent frequency due to relative motion
between source and listener is i) Beats
B) Intensity of sound varies with time in ii) transverse wave
C) Sound waves in air are iii) Doppler's effect
D) Light waves are iv) longitudinal wave
a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, ii b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, iv
c) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-I d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
117. An electric generator operates at a sound intensity level of 80db then intensity is
a) 10-4w/m2 b) 10-8w/m2 c) 10-5w/m2 d) none
118. The maximum intensity with which an ear can tolerate is
a) 0.5 w𝑚−2 b) 1 w𝑚−2 c) 0.2 w𝑚−2 d) None of these
119. The maximum intensity level in dB is
a) 120 dB b) 90 dB c) 40 dB d) None of these
www.nammakalvi.org

11th Physics NEET 1 Mark Vol-2 EM

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

11th Physics NEET 1 Mark Vol-2 EM

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

11th Physics NEET 1 Mark Vol-2 EM

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Namma Kalvi

TRY AND TEST YOURSELF

[email protected] -2- www.waytosuccess.org

[email protected] -3- www.waytosuccess.org

[email protected] -4- www.waytosuccess.org

[email protected] -5- www.waytosuccess.org

[email protected] -6- www.waytosuccess.org

[email protected] -8- www.waytosuccess.org

106. If orbital velocity of planet is given by v = Ga Mb Rc, then

TRY AND TEST YOURSELF

is 2×1011NM-2 .Then the elongation produced in the rod in mm is

28. The value of Poisson's ratio lies between

87. The clouds float in the atmosphere because of

103. More liquid rises in a thin tube because of

TRY AND TEST YOURSELF

14. The freezer in a refrigeration is located at the top section so that

45. Unit of Wien's constant is

61. Concept of temperature is

74. A curve drawn between two points on P-V diagram represents

heat at higher temperature. Amount of het converted to work is

TRY AND TEST YOURSELF

52. For a gas at N.T.P which shall be maximum?

98. Which one of the following graph is correct at constant pressure?

TRY AND TEST YOURSELF

53. For a simple pendulum l-T2 graph is

TRY AND TEST YOURSELF

16. Sound wave transfer

62. Law of superposition is applicable to only

75. Beats are the result of

You might also like