NAVIGATION

1. You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is noted that you will
deviate from the ATS route passing the IFR boundary Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance
reads: clearance to London via flight planned route. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The route according to the flight plan is accepted
b. The filed deviation is not acceptable
c. You will get a separate clearance for the deviation
d. It is not allowed to file such a flight plan

2. During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight plan. The minimum
deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to confirm to PANS-RAC are:
a. TAS 5 kts and time 5 minutes
b. TAS 3% and time 3 minutes
c. TAS 5% and time 3 minutes
d. TAS 10 kts and time 2 minutes

3. On an ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way point ROMEO at 120 kts on flight
level 085, you will write:
a. ROMEO/ K0120 FL085
b. ROMEO/ N0120 F085
c. ROMEO/ FL085 N0120
d. ROMEO/ F085 N0120

4. In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding time of departure, the time indicated
is that at which the aircraft intends to:
a. Start up
b. Take off
c. Go off blocks
d. Pass the departure beacon

5. If it takes 132,4 mins to travel 840 nm, what is your speed in kmh?
a. 290 kmh
b. 966 kmh
c. 705 kmh
d. 120 kmh
6. On a lambert conformal conic chart the quoted scale is correct:
a. Along the parallel of origin
b. Along the prime meridian
c. Along the two standard parallels
d. In the area between the standard parallels
7. On which of the following chart projections is it not possible to represent the north or south
poles?
a. Direct Mercator
b. Lamberts conformal
c. Polar stereographic
d. Transverse Mercator

8. What is the approximate date of perihelion, when the earth is nearest to the sun?
a. End of march
b. Beginning of January
c. Beginning of july
d. End of December

9. The tank capacity of an aircraft is 310 US GAL. fuel specific gravity is 0.78 kg/litre. The tanks are
now 3/4th full. You want to refuel so that total fuel will be 850 kg. how much fuel will you have to
refuel. Answer in pounds.
a. 410 lbs
b. 320 lbs
c. 360 lbs
d. 164 lbs

10. Under colour code rules for EFIS, a selected heading is coloured:
a. Green
b. White
c. Yellow
d. Magenta

11. What is the maximum possible value of dip angle?

a. 180 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 66 degrees

12. Which take off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway?
a. VMCA
b. VMCG
c. V1
d. V2

13. The clearway is defined as:

 a. An area beyond runway, not less than 500 ft wide, centrally located about the extended
centerline of the runway and under the control of the airport authorities
b. An area at the end of the stopway which can only be used in TODA calculations
c. An area which must not exceed TODA by more than 15%
d. A rectangular area 90 ft either side of the centerline on the ground at the end of the runway
and in the direction of take off

14. In which month is the difference between the apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?
a. November and February
b. January and july
c. June and December
d. March and September

15. The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of primary radar is the:
a. Size of the parabolic receiver aerial
b. Height of the transmitter above the ground
c. Pulse recurrence rate
d. Power output

16. In a primary radar, the maximum range requires:

a. Short PRI and high PRF
b. High pulse effect and long PRI
c. High pulse effect and short PRI
d. Long PRI and high PRF

17. Secondary surveillance radar is a form of …… radar with …… type emission operating in the ……
band
a. Secondary, FM, SHF
b. Primary, pulse, SHF
c. Primary, pulse UHF
d. Secondary, pulse, UHF

18. Secondary radars require:

a. A target which will respond to the interrogation and this target will always be ground based
b. A quiescent target
c. A target which will respond to the interrogation and this target may either be an aircraft
or a ground based transponder
d. A target which will respond to the interrogation and this target will always be an aircraft

19. What are the frequencies used for interrogation and response for SSR?
a. 1090 MHz for interrogation from the aircraft 1030 MHz for response from the ground
b. 1090 MHz for interrogation from the ground 1030 MHz for response from the aircraft
 c. 1030 MHz for interrogation from the ground 1090 MHz for the response from the aircraft
d. 1030 MHz for interrogation from the aircraft 1090 MHz for response from the ground

20. Which of the following are errors of a DGI:

1. Earth rate
2. Transport wander
3. Banking when pitched up
4. Annual movement of poles
5. Mechanical problems
a. 1, 2, 3, 5
b. 2, 3, 5
c. All 5
d. 3, 4, 5

21. The term gyro drift applies to movement of the gyro axis in the:
a. Horizontal plane
b. Vertical plane
c. Both vertical and horizontal plane

22. Convergency on a transverse Mercator chart is correct at:

a. The parallel of origin
b. The equator and the poles
c. The datum meridian and the equator
d. The datum meridian only

23. The following figures relate to an aircraft’s performance at various flight levels
FL250 GS 300 kts F/F 607 lbs/hr
FL 270 GS 270 kts F/F 560 lbs/hr
FL 290 GS 250 kts F/F 514 lbs/ hr
The most economical flight level is:
a. FL 250
b. FL 270
c. FL 280

24. What is the LMT at 63o30’N 123o45’W at 2200 UTC on 6th September?
a. 1345 on 6th
b. 0615 on 7th
c. 0222 on 7th
d. 1738 on 6th

25. A is at longitude 01230E and B is at longitude 04315E. LMT in B is 1749. What is the LMT in A?
a. 1546
 b. 1952
c. 1706
d. 1456

26. Four engine performance of an aircraft is 0.078 gnm/kg. Three engine performance 0.063
gnm/kg. Fuel available is 12,300 kg. The distance to the PNR returning on three engines is:
a. 857 nm
b. 1567 nm
c. 425 nm

27. Distance A-B is 3140 nm, track 137 (T), W/V 040/52, full TAS 140 kts, full FF 9750 kg/hr. reduced
TAS 460 kts, reduced FF 8240 kg/hr. if the aircraft experiences one engine failure at the CP and
elects to continue to destination, what will the fuel burn off be on arrival at B?
a. 39,217 kg
b. 28,302 kg
c. 59,520 kg

28. Maximum take off mass: 151,500 kg

Maximum landing mass: 107,000 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass: 96,300 kg
Operational empty mass: 64,250 kg
Distance A-B: 2850 nm
Groundspeed: 490 kts
Fuel flow: 7350 kg
Reserve fuel: 15%
The maximum payload that may be carried from A to B is:
a. 36,337 kg
b. 38,087 kg
c. 32,050 kg

29. Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
a. SHF
b. HF
c. UHF
d. VLF

30. Parallels of latitude, except the equator are:

a. Rhumb lines
b. GC
c. Neither RL or GC
d. Both RL and GC
31. Compass deviation is defined as the angle between:
a. True north and compass north
b. Magnetic north and compass north
c. True north and magnetic north
d. The horizontal and total intensity of the earth’s magnetic field

32. If the CG of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator control will:
a. Become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to maneuver in pitch
b. Become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to maneuver in pitch
c. Become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to maneuver in pitch
d. Become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to maneuver in pitch

33. An aircraft is flying around the earth eastwards along the 60N parallel of latitude at the GS of
240 kts. At what GS would another aircraft have to fly eastwards along the equator to fly once
around the earth in the same journey time:
a. 240 kts
b. 120 kts
c. 600 kts
d. 480 kts

34. How many nm are equivalent to 1o of arc of latitude?

a. 1 nm
b. 60 nm
c. 15 nm
d. 600 nm

35. A GC track joins position A(59oS 141oW) and B(61oS 148oW). What is the difference between the
GC track at A and B?
a. It increases by 3o
b. It increases by 3o
c. It increases by 6o
d. It decreases by 6o

36. Parallels of latitude except the equator are:

a. Both RL and GC
b. RL
c. Neither RL or GC
d. GC

37. The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about:
a. 60 N/S
b. 90 N/S
 c. 45 N/S
d. Equator

38. The limits of the yellow scale of an ASI are:

a. VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
b. VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
c. VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
d. VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

39. When the barometric subscale of the altimeter is adjusted to 1013.2 hPa, what type of altitude is
being measured?
a. Relative height
b. Pressure altitude
c. Indicated altitude
d. True altitude

40. the density altitude is:

a. The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point
b. The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and
the standard temperature
c. The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point
d. The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual
density of the atmosphere

41. The QNH by definition is:

a. Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location
for which it is given
b. Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given
c. Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the
location for which it is provided
d. Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft

42. The primary factor which makes the servo assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple
pressure altimeter is the use of:
a. Combination of counters/ pointers
b. More effective temperature compensating leaf springs
c. An induction pick off device
d. A sub scale logarithmic function

43. If the alternate static source is used, the resulting reading will be:
a. Too low reading of altitude
b. Too high reading of altitude
 c. Too low reading of airspeed
d. No reading of airspeed

44. If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
a. Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred
b. Gradually indicate zero
c. Under read
d. Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

45. The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the:
a. Static pressure
b. Total pressure
c. Total pressure plus static pressure
d. Dynamic pressure

46. The southern vertex of GC passing through 50N20W is:

a. 50S 20W
b. 50S 20E
c. 50S 160E

47. In which two months does the time difference between apparent sun and mean sun is
maximum:

a. February and November

b. June and December
c. March and September

48. The correct statement regarding magnetic variation is:

a. It depends upon AC true heading
b. It depends upon the AC magnetic heading
c. It slowly changes with time

49. FMS database is valid upto:

a. One week
b. 28 days
c. 56 days

50. In a cross country flight, an a/c takes off from airfield A whose QFE is 990hPa with altimeter
reading zero feet at A, while returning from cross country flight from B whose QNH was 993 hPa
with altimeter setting as 993 hPa at B and if pilot forgets to set altimeter setting while landing at A
then altimeter will read:
a. 0 feet
 b. 90 feet
c. 3 feet

51. Radio bearings are:

a. GC
b. RL
c. Straight lines

52. In an INS, GS is calculated:

a. From TAS and W/V from RNAV data
b. By integrating gyro precession in N/s and E/W directions respectively
c. By integrating measured acceleration
d. From TAS and W/V from ADC

53. If pitot tube is blocked then VSI will

a. Underread
b. Overread
c. Normal

54. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplanes as:

a. Take off climb speed or speed at 35 ft
b. Lift off speed
c. Take off decision speed
d. Critical engine failure speed

55. The rotation speed (VR):

a. Must not be less than 1.05 VMCA
b. Must not be more than than 1.05 VMCA
c. Is the airspeed at which the aeroplane lifts off the ground
d. Is always equal to V1 for aeroplanes with 2 engines

56. DOM: 33510 kg

Load: 7600 kg
Final reserve fuel: 983 kg
Alternate fuel: 1100 kg
Contingency fuel: 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be:
a. 42312 kg
b. 42093 kg
c. 42210 kg
d. 42195 kg
57. Using the following data, determine the maximum fuel load:
TOM: 2800 kg
Trip: 300 kg
Payload: 400 kg
MTOM: 4200 kg
MLM: 3700 kg
a. 700 kg
b. 1000 kg
c. 800 kg
d. 500 kg

58. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL075? Given: departure aerodrome elevation = 1500
ft. QNH = 1023 hPa. Temperature = ISA. 1 hPa= 30 ft.
a. 6300 ft
b. 6000 ft
c. 6600 ft
d. 7800 ft

59. Given the following: true course: 315o, W/V: 230/40, TAS: 420 kts. What is the wind correction
angle and the GS?
a. -6o/415
b. -6o/425
c. +6o/425
d. +6o/415

60. The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:
a. 420 MHz to 440 MHz
b. 460 MHz to 480 MHz
c. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz
d. 4.6 MHz to 4.8 MHz

61. Compass heading 270o, deviation 2oW, variation 30oE, relative bearing 316o, what is the QDR?
a. 224o
b. 226o
c. 046o
d. 044o

62. To double the range of an NDB the power must be increased by the factor of:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
63. Aircraft heading 225 (M), ADF RMI reading 090 the quadrental error of the bearing:
a. Maximum
b. Zero
c. Proportional to sine heading times the signal strength
d. Not much

64. The accuracy of ADF within the DOC is:

a. +/- 1 deg
b. +/- 2 deg
c. +/- 5 deg
d. +/- 10 deg

65. The coordinates of the heliport at issy les moulineaux are: N48 o50’ E002o16.5’. The coordinates
of the antipodes are:
a. S 41o10’ W 177o43.5’
b. S 48o50’ E 177o43.5’
c. S 48o50’ W 177o43.5’
d. S 41o10’ E 177o43.5’

66. The highest value of longitude is found:

a. Along the equator
b. Close to the poles
c. Close to the prime meridian
d. At Greenwich anti meridian

67. Radio bearings are:

a. RL
b. Cut all meridians at the same angle
c. Are GC
d. Are lines of fixed direction

68. An aircraft is flying around the earth eastwards along the 60N parallel of latitude at a GS of 240
kts. At what GS would another aircraft have to fly eastwards along the equator to fly once round
the earth in the same journey time?
a. 600 kts
b. 240 kts
c. 480 kts
d. 120 kts

69. An arc of 1 minute of meridian equals:

a. 1 nm
b. 10 km
 c. 1 sm
d. 1 km

70. How many nm are equivalent to 1o of arc of latitude?

a. 1 nm
b. 15 nm
c. 60 nm
d. 600 nm

71. The angle between the plane of the equator and the plane of the ecliptic is:
a. 66.5 deg
b. 23.5 deg
c. 25.3 deg
d. 65.6 deg

72. In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the apparent sun and
mean sun across the Greenwich meridian the greatest?
a. March and September
b. February and November
c. June and December
d. April and august

73. If an aeroplane was to circle around the earth following a parallel of 60N at a GS of 480 kts. In
order to circle around the earth along the equator in the same amount of time, it should fly at a
GS of:
a. 550 kts
b. 240 kts
c. 960 kts
d. 480 kts

74. What is the highest latitude on the earth at which the sun can be vertically overhead?
a. 23 deg
b. 66 deg
c. 45 deg
d. 90 deg

75. The platform of an INS is maintained at right angles to the local vertical by applying corrections
for the effects of:
a. Aircraft maneuvers, earth rotation, transport wander and coriolis
b. Movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and pendulous oscillation
c. Vertical velocities, earth precession, centrifugal forces and transport drift
d. Gyroscopic inertia, earth precession and pendulous oscillation
76. For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular basis on at least:
a. 20 occasions
b. 10 occasions
c. 30 oscillations
d. 50 oscillations

77. Flights certified as complying with MNPS and RVSM should insert, after S in item 10 of their ICAO
flight plan, the letter:
a. W
b. X
c. XR
d. XW

78. The distance from A to B is 2,156 nm. The fuel consumption is 196 imperial gallons per hour and
the burn off is 1,650 imperial gallons. The average GS in km/hr is:
a. 256
b. 474
c. 269

79. An airfield has two runways, 05/23 and 30/12. The surface wind is given is given as 250/30. The
headwind component on 23 and crosswind component on runway 30 will be:
a. 28 kts, 23 kts
b. 28 kts, 19 kts
c. 10 kts, 23 kts
d. 10 kts, 19 kts

80. The nominal scale of a lambert conformal conic chart is the:

a. Mean scale between the parallels of the secant cone
b. Mean scale between pole and equator
c. Scale at the equator
d. Scale at the standard parallel

81. The handling and performance problems encountered with a CG too far aft include:
a. Improvement in nosewheel steering
b. Difficulty or inability in recovering from a spin
c. Higher stick forces per G loading with no risk of over stressing the airframe in maneuvers
d. No likelihood of a nose up overbalance on a nosewheel aircraft on the ground resulting in
tail damage

82. The fuel consumption of an aircraft is 4,810 kg/h. the TAS is 480 kts, SG 0.82. the tailwind
component is 40kts. The performance in US gallons/ gnm is:
 a. 2.48
b. 2.98
c. 2.78

83. An aircraft cruising at a TAS of 192 kts, achieves a performance of 5.9 gnm/US gallon. With a fuel
flow of 140 litres per hour the wind component is:
a. +26 kts
b. +18 kts
c. +20 kts

84. The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engines is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0.80. if the density is
0.75, the fuel burn will be:
a. 235 l/h
b. 206 l/h
c. 220 l/h
d. 176 l/h

85. 265 US Gallons equals: (specific gravity 0.80)

a. 803 kg
b. 940 kg
c. 862 kg
d. 895 kg

86. The heading reference used on the EHSI is:

a. True or magnetic
b. Magnetic
c. True
d. Compass
87. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and other
altimeter which is not and all the other factors being equal:
a. At high speed, the non compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude
b. There will be no difference between them if the ADC is working properly
c. ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR
d. At high speed the non compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude

88. Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by:

a. VR and VMCG
b. V2 and VMCA
c. VR and VMCA
d. V2 and VMCG

89. If not VMBE or VMCG limited, what would V1 be limited by:

 a. V2
b. VMCA
c. VMU
d. VR

90. A frangible obstacle is classed as:

a. An obstruction that must be removed from any part of the maneuvering
b. An obstruction in the take off path that is a minimum hazard to the aircraft
c. An obstruction in the take off path that limits the length of the stopway
d. An obstruction that must be taken into account for performance calculations

91. Stopway is:

a. The distance beyond the runway edge which can carry the weight of the aircraft
b. Under control of the airport authorities
c. A maximum of 50% of runway length, but only 25% in the case of kingair

92. The clearway at an aerodrome is an area beginning:

a. At the end of the runway, clear of obstacles and capable of supporting the weight of the
aircraft during an emergency stop
b. At the end of the runway, with a minimum width of 60m each side of the centerline and
clear of obstacles
c. At the end of the stopway, with the width equal to the runway width and clear of obstacles
d. At the end of the runway having a minimum required width and clear of obstacles
e. At the end of the runway having a minimum required width, disposed equally about the
extended centerline, with no obstacles protruding above a plane sloping upwards with a
slope of 1.25%

93. An NDB aerial is …… so as to ensure the range is …… by minimizing …… due to …… :

a. Vertical, maximum, attenuation, atmospheric refraction
b. Horizontal, maximum, diffraction, the ground wave
c. Vertical, maximum, attenuation, energy losses to the surface
d. Horizontal, maximum, refraction, the D layer

94. Aircraft heading 225 (M), ADF RMI reading 090 the quadrental error of this bearing:
a. Proportional to sine heading times the signal strength
b. Not much
c. Zero
d. Maximum

95. On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly correct along the:
a. Prime meridian and the equator
b. Meridians of tangency
 c. Equator and parallel of origin
d. Meridian of tangency and the parallel of latitude perpendicular to it

96. The angle between the plane of the equator and the plane of the ecliptic is:
a. 65.6 deg
b. 23.5 deg
c. 25.3 deg
d. 66.5 deg

97. An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDB’s and VOR’s to true
bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:
a. NDB: aircraft position, VOR: aircraft position
b. NDB: beacon position, VOR: aircraft position
c. NDB: beacon position, VOR: beacon position
d. NDB: aircraft position, VOR: beacon position

98. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different durations is due to the:
a. Gravitational effect of the sun and the moon on the speed of rotation of the earth
b. Inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
c. Earth’s rotation
d. Relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic

99. Consider the following statements on departure:

a. Departure is independent of dlong
b. As the dlong increases the departure is constant if the latitude is constant
c. As the latitude increases, the departure between the two meridians decreases
d. Departure may be calculated using the equation: departure = sin lat* sin long

100. Which of the following statements concerning the earth’s magnetic field is completely correct?
a. Dip is the angle between total magnetic field and vertical field component
b. The earth’s magnetic field can be classified as transient semi-permanent or permanent
c. At the earth’s magnetic equator the inclination varies depending upon whether the
geographic equator is north or south of the magnetic equator
d. The blue pole of the earth’s magnetic field is situated in north Canada

101. Radio bearings are:

a. Lines of fixed direction
b. RL’s
c. Cut all meridians at the same angle
d. GC

102. On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates:
 a. Needle to the right, ball to the left
b. Needle to the right, ball to right
c. Needle to the middle, ball to right
d. Needle in the middle, ball to left

103. A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with:

a. 1 degree of freedom
b. 0 degree of freedom
c. 2 degree of freedom
d. 3 degree of freedom

104. During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon
results in the horizon bar indicating a:
a. Constant attitude
b. Nose down attitude
c. Nose up attitude
d. Nose down followed by a nose up attitude

105. When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes
the following on a classic artificial horizon:
a. Too much nose up and bank too high
b. Too much nose up and bank too low
c. Attitude and bank correct
d. Too much nose up and bank correct

106. The characteristics of the DGI used in a gyro stabilized compass system are:
a. Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is
maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system
b. Two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained
in this direction by an erecting system
c. One degree of freedom whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system
d. One degree of freedom whose vertical axis aligned with the real vertical to the location is
maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system

107. The DGI keeps its rotating axis aligned toward

a. A point on the earth’s surface
b. A point in space
c. Magnetic north
d. Geographic north

108. The aircraft rate of turn may be increased by:

 a. Increasing angle of bank and increasing TAS
b. Increasing angle of bank and decreasing TAS
c. Decreasing angle of bank and increasing TAS

109. An aircraft flying inbound to a station on radial 330 and wants to intercept radial 350 by 50 deg
with variation of 35E, the aircraft true heading will be:
a. 155
b. 165
c. 145

110. An aircraft going from aerodrome A to B (track between them is 120) on a heading of 120 with
OBS setting 120 with CDI needle showing dots to left when tuned of frequency of A, when its
tuned of a frequency of B with the same OBS setting then CDI will:
a. TO/FROM indication will be TO with CDI needle indicating three dots to right
b. TO/FROM indication will be TO with CDI needle indicating three dots to left
c. TO/FROM indication will be FROM with CDI needle indicating three dots to left

111. When aircraft is accelerating in easterly direction in northern hemisphere compass will show:
a. An increase in heading
b. A decrease in heading
c. A northerly heading

112. When in flight the needle and ball of a needle and ball indicator are on the right, the aircraft is:
a. Turning left with too much bank
b. Turning left with not enough bank
c. Turning right with too much bank
d. Turning right with not enough bank

113. The equivalent of 70 m/s is approximately:

a. 145 kts
b. 136 kts
c. 210 kts
d. 35 kts

114. When in flight, the needle of a needle and ball indicator is on the right and the ball is on the
left, the aircraft is:
a. Turning left with not enough bank
b. Turning left with too much bank
c. Turning right with not enough bank
d. Turning right with to much bank

115. The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in:

 a. The take off run available
b. The take off distance available
c. The landing distance available
d. The accelerate stop distance available

116. ASDA is defined as:

a. Same as TODA
b. TODA plus stopway
c. TORA plus stopway
d. TORA plus clearway

117. 2588 USG of fuel has been loaded into an aircraft, what is the volume in litres?
a. 979.664 l
b. 9979.66 l
c. 9796.65 l
d. 9785.58 l

118. Determine the maximum take off mass given:

MSTOM 43,000 kg
MSLM 35,000 kg
PLLM 33,000 kg
MZFM 31,000 kg
DOM 19,000 kg
Total fuel capacity: 12,500 kg
Trip fuel: 9,000 kg
Contingency fuel: 1000 kg
Alternate fuel: 500 kg
Final reserve fuel: 400 kg
Traffic load: 9000 kg
a. 43,000 kg
b. 42,000 kg
c. 41,000 kg
d. 40,000 kg

119. TAS: 273 kts, distance NGM: 30, time: 6 minutes. Calculate wind component, ground speed and
NAM:
a. +20 kts, 293 kts, 33 NAM
b. -20 kts, 253 kts, 27 NAM
c. +27 kts, 300 kts, 27 NAM
d. -27 kts, 300 kts, 30 NAM
120. ATC requires a descent from FL270 to FL160 to be level 6NM before a VOR. If the ROD is 800
fpm, mean GS is 256 kts, how far out from the VOR must descent be started?
a. 59 nm
b. 65 nm
c. 144 nm
d. 150 nm

121. For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:

Flight time: 2 hours 42 mins
Taxi fuel: 9 kg
Block fuel: 136 kg
The reserve fuel at any time should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. How much
fuel should remain after two hours flight time?
a. 33 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel
b. 33 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel
c. 23 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel
d. 25 kg trip fuel and 8 kg reserve fuel

122. The route fuel is 270lbs, contingency fuel is 7.5% of the route fuel, alternate fuel is 12 lbs, final
reserve fuel is 25 lbs, and taxi fuel is 25 lbs. the take off fuel is:
a. 327.25 lbs
b. 352.25 lbs
c. 312.55 lbs
d. 292 lbs

123. The accuracy of a radio altimeter at 200 feet would be:

a. 2 ft
b. 4 ft
c. 10 ft
d. 20 ft

124. The frequency sweep rate of the radio altimeter is in the order of:
a. 4,850 MHz
b. 4,250 MHz
c. 4,250 KHz
d. 4,850 GHz

125. Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
a. HF
b. VLF
c. SHF
d. UHF
126. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with a 20 deg bank at a latitude of 40 deg
north. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on to an
approximate heading of:
a. 030 deg
b. 350 deg
c. 330 deg
d. 010 deg

127. A DME transponder becomes saturated if interrogated by an excessive number of aircraft. It

will reply to the nearest:
a. 50 a/c
b. 100 a/c
c. 150 a/c
d. 200 a/c

128. DME uses:

a. Primary radar
b. Secondary radar
c. Primary radar from the ground and secondary radar from the aircraft
d. Primary radar from the aircraft and secondary radar from the ground

129. An X channel DME transponder will not reply to a Y channel interrogation because:
a. The interrogation and reply frequencies are 126 MHz apart
b. The Y channel accepts three pulse interrogation only
c. The X channel accepts three pulse interrogation only
d. The spacing between the X and Y interrogation pulses is different

130. In the DME system:

a. The aircraft equipment is called a transponder
b. The receiver and transmitter frequency is always split by 63 MHz
c. The operation is similar to a primary radar system
d. The channels are referred to as ‘X’ channels paired with VOR’s and ‘Y’ channels paired with
ILS localizers

131. On the earth’s surface, points of equal variation are called:

a. Isoclinals
b. Agonic
c. Isogonal
d. Aclinic

132. Magnetic variation:

 a. Is the angle between compass and magnetic north and has a maximum value of 180
b. Is the angle between compass and magnetic north and cannot exceed 90
c. Is the angle between true and magnetic north and is zero at the equator
d. Is the angle between true and magnetic north and has a maximum value of 180

133. What is the variation at the magnetic equator?

a. Zero
b. Less than 90
c. 180 E/W
d. Between 45 and 90

134. Compass deviation is caused by:

a. The difference in the location of the earth’s magnetic and geographic poles
b. The angle of magnetic dip
c. The angle of inclination
d. Aircraft magnetism distorting the earth’s magnetic field

135. Civil twilight is defined by:

a. Sun altitude is 12 deg below the celestial horizon
b. Sun altitude is 18 deg below the celestial horizon
c. Sun upper edge tangential to horizon
d. Sun altitude is 6 deg below the celestial horizon

136. What is the definition of EAT?

a. Estimated on blocks arrival time
b. Estimated time overhead the destination airfield
c. Estimated initial approach fix time
d. Estimated final approach fix time

137. UTC stands for:

a. Universal time coordinated
b. Universal time coefficient
c. Universal time constant
d. Universal time compensated

138. A day by definition is:

a. The period from morning to evening
b. The period from sunrise to sunset
c. The period in which day flying is authorized
d. The time elapsed between two successive transits of a heavenly body

139. What does 5 hours 20 minutes 20 seconds of longitude represent?

 a. 87o 35’
b. 80o 05’
c. 35o 15’
d. 81o 25’

140. What is the value of magnetic dip at the south magnetic pole?
a. 360
b. 180
c. 090
d. 0

141. If variation is west, then:

a. True north is west of magnetic north
b. Compass north is west of magnetic north
c. True north is east of magnetic north
d. Magnetic north is west of compass north

142. When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the compass card of a
direct reading compass will turn:
a. Clockwise, giving an apparent turn to north
b. Clockwise, giving an apparent turn towards south
c. Anti-clockwise, giving an apparent turn towards the north
d. Anti-clockwise, giving an apparent turn towards south

143. The value of magnetic variation on a chart changes with time. This is due to:
a. Movement of the magnetic poles, causing an increase
b. Increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase
c. Reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease
d. Movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease

144. At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation:

a. Depends on the true heading
b. Depends on the type of compass installed
c. Depends on magnetic heading
d. Varies slowly over time

145. On a transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the:

a. Equator, parallel of origin and prime meridian
b. Meridian of tangency
c. Datum meridian and meridian perpendicular to it
d. Prime meridian and equator
146. Scale on lambert’s conformal conical chart is:
a. Constant along a parallel of latitude
b. Constant along a meridian of longitude
c. Constant over the whole chart
d. Varies with latitude and longitude

147. The most likely use for an oblique Mercator chart is:
a. Trans polar navigation
b. Maps of countries with considerable N/S extent but very little E/W extent
c. Charts for intercontinental flights following GC charts
d. Global depiction of magnetic variation

148. On a direct Mercator chart, GC are shown as:

a. Curves convex to the nearer pole
b. Straight lines
c. Rhumb lines
d. Curves concave to the nearer pole

149. On a direct Mercator chart, a GC will be represented by a:

a. Complex curve
b. Curve concave to the equator
c. Curve convex to the equator
d. Straight line

150. Beacon saturation of the DME system:

a. Occurs when the aircraft DME set has been in operation for an extended period of time,
without being put into the standby mode
b. Occurs when many aircrafts being at a long distance from the DME are demanding a reply
c. May occur when more than 100 aircrafts are demanding replies from a single ground
transmitter
d. All the above

151. The frequency difference between the signal transmitted by the DME in an aircraft and the
reply signal which is transmitted by the ground station is …… and this difference ensures that the
aircraft receiver does not lock on to ……
a. 63 GHz, ground reflected signals
b. 63 MHz, interrogation pulses from other aircrafts
c. 63 MHz, ground reflected signals
d. 63 MHz, interrogation pulses from other aircrafts

152. ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by DME should not exceed:
a. +/- 0.5 nm or 3% of the distance measured, whichever is greater
 b. +/- 1.25 nm plus 0.25% of the distance measured
c. +/- 0.25 nm plus 3% of the distance measured upto a maximum of 5 nm
d. +/- 0.25 nm plus 1.25% of the distance measured

153. The ILS localizer gives coverage out to a range of 17 nm on either side of the centerline through
an angle of:
a. 35
b. 25
c. 28
d. 31

154. In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn towards north if:
a. A right turn is entered from an east heading
b. A left turn is entered from a west heading
c. An aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading
d. An aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading

155. In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction,
the magnetic compass will indicate:
a. An apparent turn to south
b. An apparent turn to north
c. A constant heading
d. A heading fluctuation about 090

156. When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the needle of the DIC
will:
a. Turn clockwise, giving an apparent turn towards north
b. Turn anti clockwise, giving an apparent turn towards north
c. Turn clockwise giving an apparent turn towards south
d. Turn anti clockwise giving an apparent turn towards south

157. The following readings were taken off a DRC:

Magnetic Compass
356 002
089 091
181 183
269 271
The values of coefficients A, B and C are:
a. +3, -2, -4
b. +3, +2, +4
c. -3, 0, -2
d. -3, -2, -2
158. Given: IAS 110 kts, temperature deviation -4 oC, cruise altitude FL120, W/C -29 kts, leg distance
164 nm, leg fuel required 102 lbs, the fuel flow for the leg is:
a. 59.8 lbs/h
b. 69.27 lbs/h
c. 64.15 lbs/h
d. 61.3 lbs/h

159. A descent is planned from 7500 to msl so as to arrive 1000 ft amsl 6 nm from a VORTAC. With a
GS of 156 kts and a ROD of 800 fpm, the distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:
a. 15.0 nm
b. 27.1 nm
c. 11.7 nm
d. 30.2 nm

160. Given: W/C +30 kts, distance NGM 153, time 73 minutes. Calculate NAM.
a. 123 NAM
b. 183 NAM
c. 189 NAM
d. 117 NAM

161. A current flight plan is:

a. Flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practiced between aircraft
and ATC
b. Filed flight plan
c. Flight plan with the correct time of departure
d. Filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included

162. Determine the ZFM for the following single engine aircraft. Given:
Standard empty mass: 1764 lbs, optional equipment 35 lbs, pilot+front seat passenger: 300 lbs,
cargo mass: 350 lbs, ramp fuel: 60 gallons, trip fuel: 35 gallons, fuel density: 6 lbs/gallon
a. 2589 lbs
b. 2449 lbs
c. 2659 lbs
d. 2414 lbs

163. Determine the take off mass for the following single engine aircraft. Given:
Standard empty mass: 1764 lbs, optional equipment: 35 lbs, pilot+front seat passenger: 300 lbs,
cargo mass: 350 lbs, ramp fuel: 60 gallons, trip fuel: 35 gallons, fuel density: 6 lbs/gallons
a. 2764 lbs
b. 2809 lbs
c. 2659 lbs
 d. 2799 lbs

164. In case of a low density altitude the correct option is:

a. Climb performance of an aircraft will improve
b. Climb performance of an aircraft will be affected adversely
c. Climb performance of an aircraft will be unaffected

165. SSR working is based upon:

a. Phase differences
b. Frequency differences
c. Amplitude differences
d. Pulses

166. Radio altimeter working is based upon:

a. Phase differences
b. Frequency differences
c. Amplitude differences
d. Pulses

167. The error due to the disturbances in the air near the static port is known as:
a. Instrument error
b. Position error
c. Pressure error

168. What SSR code would you select on mode ‘A’ if you were crossing an FIR and had not been
allocated a specific code?
a. Standby
b. 2000
c. 7600
d. 7500

169. Secondary radar required:

a. A target which responds to interrogations and this target will always be an aircraft
b. A target which responds to interrogations and this target will always be on ground
c. A target which responds to interrogations and this target may be either an aircraft or
ground based transponder

170. The specified maximum fly up indication when using ILS is given as:
a. 2.5 dots fly up
b. Half full scale needle deflection above centerline
c. Just before the full scale deflection
171. During cruising aircraft IAS 140 kts, TAS 150 kts and GS 160. So we will write …… in airspeed
column of flight plan
a. 150
b. 160
c. 140

172. In flight aircraft GS is 150 kts, TAS 160 kts, so in airspeed column we will write as:
a. K0150
b. K0160
c. N0160

173. In the southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, the
magnetic compass will indicate:
a. An apparent turn to the north
b. An apparent turn to the south
c. No apparent turn
d. A heading fluctuation about 270o

174. The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass:
a. On a given heading
b. On any heading
c. At any latitude
d. At a given latitude

175. In the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn towards north if:
a. An aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading
b. An aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading
c. A left turn is entered from a west heading
d. A right turn is entered from an east heading

176. The operating frequency of the radio altimeter is normally:

a. Between 4,250 and 4,350 KHz, FMCW
b. Between 4,250 and 4,350 KHz, FMCW
c. Between 4,250 and 4,350 KHz, CW
d. Between 4,250 and 4,350 MHz, AM

177. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 123.45 MHz is:

a. 2.43 cm
b. 24.3 m
c. 24.3 cm
d. 2.43 m
178. Due to ‘doppler’ effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency which is
proportional to the transmitter’s velocity will occur when:
a. The transmitter and receiver move towards each other
b. There is no relative movement between the transmitter and receiver
c. The transmitter moves towards the receiver
d. The transmitter moves away from the receiver

179. A pilot is informed by the ATC that his QDM is 310 o class B. the bearing accuracy the pilot
should assume is:
a. +/- 10o
b. +/- 5o
c. +/- 2o
d. +/-1o

180. In ISA conditions. What is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can
expect to obtain bearings from a ground based VDF facility sited 325 ft AMSL?
a. 158 nm
b. 134 nm
c. 114 nm
d. 107 nm

181. A is at longitude 01230E and B is at longitude 04315E. LMT in B is 1749. What is the LMT in A?
a. 1706
b. 1546
c. 1952
d. 1456

182. Given: position A 60oN 020oW; position B 60oN 021oW; position C 59oN 020oW. what are
respectively the distances from A to B and from A to C?
a. 30 nm and 60 nm
b. 60 nm and 30 nm
c. 60 nm and 52 nm

183. A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that:

a. True north is east of magnetic north
b. True north is west of magnetic north
c. Compass north is east of magnetic north
d. Compass north is west of magnetic north

184. At the magnetic equator:

a. Deviation is zero
b. Dip is zero
 c. The isogonal is an agonic line
d. Variation

185. What is the maximum possible value of dip angle?

a. 66o
b. 90o
c. 45o
d. 180o

186. Which of the following statements concerning earth magnetism is completely correct?
a. An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation, the agonic line
is the line of zero magnetic dip
b. An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation, the aclinic is
the line of zero magnetic dip
c. An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip; the aclinic is the line of zero
magnetic dip
d. An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation, the aclinic
connects places with the same magnetic field strength

187. The semi width of a stopway is:

a. 60 m
b. 90 m
c. No less than the associated runway
d. 75 m

188. Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?
a. The frequency is too high
b. The PRF is jittered
c. By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns
d. SSR does not use the echo principle

189. When using SSR the ground controller will ask the pilot to cancel mode C if there is a
discrepancy of more than …… feet between the altitude detected by the radar from the reply
pulses and the altitude reported by the pilot read from the altitude with the subscale set to ……
a. 100 feet, regional QNH
b. 200 feet, 1013 mb
c. 300 feet, 1013 mb
d. 400 feet, QNE

190. An aircraft heading 280(M) is on a bearing of 090(M) from a VOR. The OBS setting that should
be selected in order to centralize left/right deviation needle with TO indicated is:
a. 280
 b. 270
c. 100
d. 090

191. The specific range (SR) is:

a. The distance that the aircraft would fly per kg of fuel
b. The distance that the aircraft would fly without using the reserve fuel
c. The distance that the aircraft would fly with full fuel
d. The distance that the aircraft would fly with capacity payload

192. VR for a jet aircraft must be faster than, the greater of:
a. V1 and 1.1 Vmca
b. Vmbe and V1
c. Vmca and 1.1 V1
d. 1.05 Vmca and V1

193. For reliable navigational information the approximate coverage of a 3 o glideslope is:
a. 1.35o to 5.25o from the horizontal and 8o either side of the localizer
b. 0.45o from the horizontal to 1.75o above the glidepath and 8o eithwe side of the localizer
c. 0.7o above and below the glidepath and 8 o either side of the localizer
d. 3o above and below the gldepath and 10 o either side of the localizer

194. What will the altimeter of an aircraft on the aerodrome indicate with QNH set on the subscale?
a. The airfield barometric pressure
b. Airfield elevation
c. The equivalent sea level pressure at the airfield
d. Zero

195. Assume that an aeroplane at 17,000 ft amsl has a cabin pressure equal to an altitude of 7000 ft.
if the pitot static tubes break at a point within the cockpit, the altimeter would read:
a. 10,000 ft (7000 ft + 3000 ft) which is allowance for pressure differential
b. 17,000 ft
c. The cabin pressure altitude, ie, 7000 ft

196. The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a:
a. Map showing the isoclinic lines
b. Map showing the isogonal lines
c. Compass swinging curve
d. Deviation correction curve
197. An aircraft at FL310 under ISA conditions cruises at M 0.66. the trip distance is 1,000 nm in still
air. The fuel flow is 200 g/hr and landing reserves of 50 US gallons are required on landing. The
fuel SG = 0.80. requirement for take off is:
 a. 184 US GAL
b. 727 litres
c. 184 IMP GAL

198. With a relative density of 0.75 an aircraft burns 200 litres/ hour. If the relative density is
changed to 0.85, the new fuel burn would be:
a. 226 litres per hour
b. 385 litres per hour
c. 238 litres per hour
d. 234 litres per hour

199. The still air distance in the climb is 189 NAM (nautical air miles) and time 30 minutes. What
ground distance would be covered in a 30 kts headwind.
a. 188 nm
b. 203 nm
c. 174 nm
d. 193 nm

200. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when rolling into a standard rate one
turn to the right from a south heading in the northern hemisphere?
a. The compass will indicate a turn to the left
b. The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn
is smooth
c. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than what is actually
occurring
d. The compass will remain in south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic
heading of the airplane

201. Which combination of weight and CG position will produce the highest stalling speed?
a. Heavy weight and aft CG
b. Low weight and forward CG
c. Low weight and aft CG
d. Heavy weight and forward CG

202. The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a:
a. Stereographical projection
b. Lambert conformal projection
c. Direct Mercator projection
d. Gnomonic projection

203. On a lambert’s chart, scale is smallest at:

a. The parallel of origin
 b. The standard parallels
c. The poles
d. The equator

204. On an ATC flight plan, the letter Y is used to indicate that the flight is carried out under the
following flight rules:
A. IFR followed by VFR
B. VFR followed by IFR
C. IFR
D. VFR

205. On an ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way point TANGO at 350 kts at FL280,
you write:
a. TANGO/ K0350 FL280
b. TANGO/ N0350 F280
c. TANGO/ FL280 N0350
d. TANGO/ KT350 F280

206. Reference the ICAO flight plan, item 15 refers to:

a. IAS
b. EAS
c. Initial cruising true airspeed

207. A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63cm and represents 150 nm. The chart scale is:
a. 1: 3,000,000
b. 1: 6,000,000
c. 1: 5,000,000
d. 1: 1,000,000

208. On a Mercator chart, the scale:

a. Varies as secant of latitude
b. Varies as the sine of latitude
c. Is constant throughout the chart
d. Varies as ½ cosine of the co latitude

209. At 47o north, the chart distance between meridians 10 o apart is 5 inches. The scale at 47 o north
approximates:
a. 1: 2,500,000
b. 1: 8,000,000
c. 1: 3,000,000
 d. 1: 6,000,000

210. You fly from 49N to 58N along the 180 E/W meridian. What is the distance in km?
a. 540 km
b. 804 km
c. 1222 km
d. 1000 km

211. 5 hrs 20 mins 20 secs corresponds to a longitude difference of:

a. 75o 00’
b. 78o 45’
c. 80o 05’
d. 81o 10’

212. The equivalent of 70m/s is approximately:

a. 145 kts
b. 136 kts
c. 210 kts
d. 35 kts
213. Airfield elevation is 1000 ft. the QNH is 988. What is the pressure altitude?
a. 675 ft
b. 325 ft
c. 1675 ft
d. 825 ft

214. Given: true course 300o, drift 8oR, variation 10oW, deviation -4o. Calculate the compass heading?
a. 306
b. 322
c. 294
d. 278

215. The tank capacity of an aircraft is 310 US GAL. Fuel specific gravity is 0.78 kg/litre. The tanks are
now 3/4th full. You want to refuel so that the total fuel will be 850 kg. how much fuel will you have to
refuel?
a. 164 lbs
b. 360 lbs
c. 320 lbs
d. 410 lbs

216. Given: true heading = 054, TAS 450 kts, track (T) = 059, GS = 416 kts. Calculate the W/V?
a. 010/ 55 kts
b. 005/ 50 kts
 c. 010/ 50 kts
d. 010/ 45 kts

217. The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
a. Pulse recurrence rate
b. Power output
c. Size of parabolic receiver aerial
d. Height of transmitter above the ground

218. The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique is determined by the …… and the
maximum unambiguous range by the ……
a. Transmission frequency, PRF
b. Transmission frequency, transmitter power output
c. Pulse length, length of the time base
d. Pulse length, PRF

219. For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power
output must be increased by the factor of:
a. 2
b. 16
c. 4
d. 8

220. SSR is a form of …… radar with …… type emissions operating in the …… band
a. Primary, pulse, SHF
b. Primary, pulse, UHF
c. Secondary, FM, SHF
d. Secondary, pulse, UHF

221. If a turn and balance indicator overspeed the result will be:
a. Over indication of the turn
b. Under indication of the turn
c. No turn will be indicated
d. Rate of turn will be indicated correctly

222. In a turn indicator, the measurement of rate of turn consists of:

a. Low bank angle, in measuring the roll rate
b. Low bank angle, in measuring yaw rate
c. High bank angle, in measuring yaw rate
d. High bank angle, in measuring roll rate

223. During deceleration following a landing in northerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:
 a. No apparent turn
b. An apparent turn to the east
c. An apparent turn to the west
d. A heading fluctuating about 360 deg

224. During deceleration following a landing in a southerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the
northern hemisphere indicates:
a. An apparent turn to the west
b. No apparent turn in northern hemisphere
c. No apparent turn
d. An apparent turn to the east

225. The navigational plan reads: trip fuel 100 kg, flight time 1 hour 35 min, taxi fuel 3 kg, block fuel 181
kg, the endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
a. 1 hour 35 mins
b. 2 hours 49 mins
c. 2 hours 04 mins
d. 2 hours 52 mins

226. In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the ETD, the time indicated is that at
which the aircraft intends to:
a. Start up
b. Take off
c. Go off blocks
d. Pass the departure beacon

227. In the ATS flight plan item 13, a flight plan submitted before the departure, the departure time
entered is the:
a. Estimated off block time
b. Estimated time over the first point en route
c. Estimated take off time
d. Allocated slot time

228. ICAO flight plan, in item number 15, the symbol C/ indicates
a. Cruise climb
b. Cruise altitude
c. Cruise speed
d. Cruise descent

229. The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: block fuel 40,000 kg,
trip fuel 29,000 kg, taxi fuel 800 kg, maximum take off mass 1,70,000 kg, maximum landing mass 1,
48, 500 kg, MZFM 1,12,500 kg, DOM 80,400 kg. the maximum traffic load for this flight is:
 a. 40,400 kg
b. 32,900 kg
c. 18,900 kg
d. 32,100 kg

230. An aeroplane takes off as normal on a scheduled flight however, shortly after take off the aeroplane
is diverted to another airfield. Max structural TOM 14,000 kg, performance limited TOM 12,690 kg,
max structural LM 9600 kg, trip fuel to original destination 6000 kg, contingency fuel 200 kg,
alternate fuel 200 kg, final reserve fuel 750 kg. Expected landing mass at original destination 4600
kg, actual flight duration 2 hours, fuel consumption 1,500 kg per hour. Performance limited LM at
diversion airfield 9000 kg.
a. The aeroplane can land safely as it is below MSLM
b. The aeroplane can land safely because it is below PLLM
c. The aeroplane cannot land safely because it is above its MSLM
d. The aeroplane cannot land safely because its mass is beyond the limit for the runway limited

231. A clearway:
a. Provides an area over which an aeroplane can safely transit from lift off to the required
height
b. Need not have the same weight bearing qualities as the runway with which it is associated
c. May be water
d. All of the above

232. For a contaminant to be considered significant its depth must exceed:

a. 2 mm of water
b. 3 mm of water
c. 5 mm of wet snow
d. 10 mm of dry snow

233. The angle between plane of ecliptic and plane of equator is:
a. 66.5
b. 0
c. 23.5

234. While going out aircraft is experiencing tailwinds and distance between A and B is 2000 kms, PET is
800 km from A, if the winds are the other way round the PET will be:
a. 1200 km
b. 1100 km
c. Will not change

235. In case of tailwind experienced by an aircraft from A and B 1000 km, PET from A 450 km, if the
strength of winds is increased than PET from A will be:
 a. Less than 450 km
b. More than 450 km
c. Will not change

236. The term QDR means:

a. The magnetic heading to fly to the station assuming zero wind
b. The true bearing from the station
c. The magnetic bearing from the station
d. The true heading to fly to the station assuming zero wind

237. Night effect which causes loss of signal and fading resulting in bearing errors from NDB
transmissions is due to:
a. Interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB
b. Static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band
c. The effect of aurora borealis
d. Skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk

238. An NDB has an operational range of 10 nm. By what factor should the transmitter power be
increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 nm?
a. 8
b. 4
c. 6
d. 2

239. Factors liable to affect most ADF/NDB system performance and reliability include:
a. Static interference – station interference – latitude error
b. Coastal refraction – lane slip – mountain error
c. Height error – station interference – mountain effect
d. Static interference – night effect – absence of failure warning system

240. The greatest range at which NDB/ADF will provide useable information is:
a. Over sea by day
b. Over land by day
c. Over land by night
d. Over sea by night

241. The most significant error of ADF is:

a. Station interference
b. Night effect
c. Coastal refraction
d. Static interference from CB
242. The operating frequencies of NDB’s are:
a. 190 – 450 KHz
b. 190 – 1750 KHz
c. 450 – 1750 KHz
d. 200 – 450 KHz

243. A DVOR reduces the errors caused by the terrain and obstructions close to the VOR. In DVOR the
reference signal is …… the variable phase signal is …… and the rotation is ……
a. AM, FM, clockwise
b. FM, AM, clockwise
c. AM, FM, anti clockwise
d. FM, AM, anti clockwise

244. Given: track is 300 (T), drift 8oL, variation 10W, deviation -4, what is the compass heading?
a. 322
b. 306
c. 294
d. 278

245. Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a DRC?
a. After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to unserviceability
b. After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical storm or has been struck by
lightning
c. Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves large change of magnetic latitude
d. Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content

246. An aircraft is climbing at a constant CAS in ISA conditions. What will be the effect of TAS and Mach
number?
a. Both decrease
b. Both increase
c. TAS increases and mach number decreases
d. TAS decreases and mach number increases

247. Given: pressure altitude 9,000 ft, OAT -25 oC, CAS 200 kts, what is the TAS?
a. 219 kts
b. 211 kts
c. 200 kts
d. 215 kts

248. Given: FL150 overhead an airport, airport elevation 720 ft; QNG 1003, OAT at FL150 is -5 o. what is
the true altitude of the aircraft?
a. 14,720
 b. 15,280
c. 14,160
d. 15,840

249. How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in case of flights into
areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
a. 01:00 hour
b. 03:00 hours
c. 00:30 hours
d. 00:10 hours

250. An INS platform is kept at right angles to local gravity by applying corrections for the effects of:
1. Aircraft maneuvers
2. Earth rotation
3. Transport wander
4. Coriolis
5. Gyroscopic inertia

a. 2, 3, 5
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 4, 5

251. Variation is called westerly when:

a. The magnetic meridian is to the west of compass north
b. Magnetic north is to the west of the true north
c. True north is to the west of magnetic north
d. The magnetic meridian is to the west of 180 paralle

252. The polar stereographic projection is:

a. A conical projection
b. A cylinder projection
c. A plane projection
d. A variable cone projection

253. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210 fails to achieve lock on to a DME at msl ranging 210 nm.
The reason for this is:
a. The aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME
b. The aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a response
c. The aircraft is beyond LOS range
d. The beacon is saturated
254. What is the relationship between alert height and DH for an auto landing?
a. Alert height is greater than DH
b. AH is often much less than DH
c. There is no relationship between AH and DH
d. Alert height is usually less than the DH

255. Height and pressure is measured by:

a. Altimeter
b. ASI
c. VSI

256. 36.25 inches = …… cm

a. 92.075 cm
b. 102.45 cm
c. 87.67 cm

257. When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere the needle of the DIC will:
a. Turn anti clockwise, giving an apparent turn towards north
b. Turn clockwise, giving an apparent turn towards north
c. Turn clockwise, giving an apparent turn towards south
d. Turn anti clockwise, giving an apparent turn towards north

258. With a VOR/DME basic RNAV, the displacement of the CDI represents:
a. Angular displacement from the course line, eg: 5 dots = 10 o off track
b. Distance of track, eg: 5 dots = 5 nm off track
c. Distance of track, eg: 5 dots = 10 nm off track
d. Angular displacement from the course line, eg: 5 dots = 5 o off track

259. The subscale of an altimeter is set to 1030 mb and indicates 4500 ft when the QNH is 996 bm.
Assuming 1 mb = 30 ft, the altitude of the aircraft amsl is:
a. 5520 ft
b. 3990 ft
c. 3180 ft
d. 3480 ft

260. An aircraft is following the ILS glidepath of 3 o at an airfield where the outer marker is 4.2 nm from
ILS touchdown point. The aircraft approach speed is 130 kts. The height of the aircraft at the OM
should be:
a. 1310 ft
b. 960 ft
c. 1200 ft
d. 1150 ft
261. TET for an IFR flight, when filling the ICAO flight plan at box 16, is the time elapsed from:
a. Take off until landing
b. Take off until reaching IAF of destination aerodrome
c. Taxi out prior to take off until taxiing after landing
d. Taxiing until the IAF of destination aerodrome is reached

262. A mode S transponder will:

a. Respond to mode A interrogations but not mode C
b. Not respond to mode A/C as it is on different frequency
c. Respond normally to mode A/C interrogations
d. Not respond to interrogations made on mode A

263. A-B: 475 nm W/C is 35

B-C: 538 nm W/C is 47
C-D 398 nm W/C is 53
D-E 457 nm W/C is 38
TAS A-E is 260 kts, safe endurance excluding reserves is 08:45. If the aircraft departed from A at
0900Z, the ETA for the PNR is:
a. 1405 Z
b. 1417 Z
c. 1429 Z

264. Calculate the distance to the PNR from the following table:
Sector Dist GS
A to B 256 345
B to A 256 310
B to C 380 377
C to B 380 179
C to D 426 179
D to C 426 222
Fuel available is 320 US GAL, fuel flow is 270 lbs/ hour. SG is 0.82
a. 963 nm
b. 327 nm
c. 486 nm

265. ICAO definition of ETA is the:

a. Estimated time en route
b. Actual time of arrival at a point or fix
c. Estimated time of arrival at an an route point or fix
d. Estimated time of arrival at destination
266. Basic index is:
a. The BEM
b. The BEM divided by its arm
c. The BEM moment divided by an RF

267. In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which SID and STAR procedures exist:
a. Both should be entered in the plan where appropriate
b. SIDs should be entered, but not STARs
c. STARs should be entered, but not SIDs
d. Neither SID nor STAR should be entered

268. Calculate the distance to the PET from the following table:
Sector Dist GS
A to B 200 250
B to A 200 204
B to C 800 237
C to B 800 303
C to D 350 287
D to C 350 277
a. 408 nm
b. 681 nm
c. 73 nm

269. Aircraft A: TAS 275 kts, fuel flow 246 lbs per hour, aircraft B: TAS 181, fuel flow 162 lbs per hour,
therefore:
a. A is more economical
b. B is more economical
c. Both are equally economical

270. V1 decision speed:

a. Is lower than Vmcg
b. Is the take off safety speed
c. Is always lower than V2

271. FL 180 – TAS 276 kts – WC (-20) kts – fuel flow 716 lbs/ hour
FL 220 – TAS 271 kts – WC (-15) kts – fuel flow 622 lbs/ hour
FL 260 – TAS 262 kts – WC (-60) kts – fuel flow 534 lbs/ hour
The most economic flight level is:
a. FL 180
b. FL 220
c. FL 260
272. When the ATC transponder IDENT button is pressed by the pilot:
a. Mode A will automatically be selected
b. The controller will be urged to identify this airplane
c. The airplanes echo on the controller’s display will flash or fill in
d. The airplanes identification will be sent to all SSRs within range

273. In special condition signals, to signify radio failure, which of the following will you select on your
transponder?
a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500

274. If the destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in box 16 of your ATS flight plan, you write:
a. ////
b. AAAA
c. XXXX
d. ZZZZ

275. Flights certified as complying with MNPs and RVSM should insert, after S in item 10 of their ICAO
flight plan, the letter:
a. W
b. X
c. XR
d. XW

276. An aircraft leaves A (elevation 540 ft) with QFE 1008 set of the altimeter, en route to B (1000 nm
from A, QNH 1000 hPa). A spot height 232 m amsl, 250 nm from A is cleared by 1500 ft. What was
the altimeter reading over the spot height?
a. 1916 ft
b. 2261 ft
c. 2606 ft

277. Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit
display represent?
a. 1.5 deg
b. 2.5 deg
c. 2.0 deg
d. 0.5 deg

278. When accelerating on an easterly heading in the northern hemisphere, the magnet system of a DRC
will:
a. Turn anti clockwise, indicating an apparent turn towards north
 b. Turn clockwise, indicating an apparent turn towards north
c. Turn clockwise, indicating an apparent turn to south
d. Turn anti clockwise, indicating an apparent turn to south

279. A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 nm. The chart scale is:
a. 1: 6,000,000
b. 1: 5,000,000
c. 1: 1,000,000
d. 1: 3,000,000

280. The transmission frequency of a DME beacon is 63 MHz removed from the aircraft interrogator
frequency to prevent:
a. Interference from other radars
b. Static interference
c. The airborne receiver locking on to primary returns of its own transmissions
d. Receiver accepting replies intended for other interrogations

281. If a flight is subject to ATFM, the flight plan should be filled before:
a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 120 minutes
d. 180 minutes

282. For a flight plan received from an aircraft in flight, the time used in item 13 is:
a. ATD
b. EOBT
c. The estimated or actual time over the first point of the route to which the flight plan
applies
d. The time of requesting the flight plan

283. 500 litres of AVGAS weighing 872 lbs are accidentally mixed with 266 gallons of AVTUR ( SG 0.83).
the SG of the mixture is:
a. 0.745
b. 0.797
c. 0.817

284. How many feet are there in 1 sm?

a. 1000 ft
b. 6080 ft
c. 5280 ft
d. 3280 ft
285. A lambert conformal conic projection with two standard parallels:
a. The scale is only correct along the standard parallels
b. Shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines
c. The scale is only correct at parallel of origin
d. Shows all GCs as straight lines

286. Which map projection is described as follows: meridians are straight lines- the scale vary with
latitude – most RL are curved lines
a. An equatorial Mercator projection
b. A lambert conformal projection
c. A polar stereographic projection
d. A lambert conformal or a polar stereographic projection

287. Isogonals converge at the:

a. North magnetic pole only
b. North and south magnetic poles only
c. Magnetic equator
d. North and south geographic and magnetic poles

288. At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun?

a. Beginning of January
b. End of june
c. Beginning of july
d. End of march

289. The CG position is:

a. Set by the manufacturer
b. Able to exist within a range
c. Fixed
d. Set by the pilot

290. For a large aircraft where the main and nose landing gears retract forward, the effect on the CG on
lowering the gear is:
a. To move forward
b. To move aft
c. To remain static
d. To move forward then aft

291. If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the
CG on the airplane?
a. CG moves aft
b. CG is not affected
 c. CG moves forward
d. The CG location will change, but the direction cannot be told with the info given

292. TAS 230 kts, fuel flow 562 lbs/ hour, head wind component 25 kts, SG of fuel 0.74. The
performance of the aircraft in GNM per US gallon is:
a. 1.87
b. 2.25
c. 2.55

293. The weight of 2,350 US GAL of fuel is 5,879 kgs, The SG is:
a. 0.84
b. 0.66
c. 0.68

294. Aircraft A: TAS 275 kts, fuel flow 246 lbs/ hour. Aircraft B: TAS 181 kts, fuel flow 162 lbs/ hour.
Therefore:
a. Aircraft A is more economical
b. Aircraft B is more economical
c. Both are equally economical

295. It is essential that any chart used for navigation has the following property:
a. Bearings must be correctly represented
b. Shapes must be correctly represented
c. Areas must be correctly represented
d. Scale must be constant and correct

296. An azimuthal projection:

a. Is used for lambert’s chart
b. Is used for polar stereographic charts
c. Is used for oblique Mercator charts
d. Is used for direct Mercator charts

297. Given: course from A-B 090 (T), TAS 460 kts, WV 360/100, average variation 10E, Deviation -2.
What is the heading and distance?
a. 070 – 453 kts
b. 078 – 450 kts
c. 069 – 448 kts
d. 068 – 460 kts

298. Given: TAS 205 kts, heading 180 (T), WV 240/25. What is the drift and GS?
a. 6P – 194 kts
b. 4P – 195 kts
 c. 7P – 192 kts
d. 3P – 190 kts

299. You plan to fly a track of 348(T), drift is 17P, variation 32W, deviation 4E. What compass heading
should you fly?
a. 033
b. 016
c. 359
d. 041

300. An aircraft is at FL 140, IAS 210 kts, OAT -5 oC, WC -35 kts. When the aircraft is at 150 nm from a
reporting point ATC requests the crew to lose 5 minutes by the time they get to beacon. How much
do they need to reduce the IAS?
a. 20 kts
b. 15 kts
c. 25 kts

301. The audio and visual indications of the middle marker are:
a. Medium pitched dots and dashes, amber light
b. Medium pitched dots, white light
c. Low pitched dashes, blue light
d. High pitched dots and dashes. amber light

302. In which frequency band does an ILS glideslope transmit?

a. SHF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. EHF

303. An appropriate frequency for the ILS localizer would be:

a. 113.10 MHz
b. 111.20 MHz
c. 107.95 MHz
d. 109.35 MHz

304. Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

a. Night effect
b. Uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
c. Quadrantal error
d. Static interference

305. The accuracy of VOR beacons are 5o:

 a. At all times
b. At all times except night
c. By day only
d. At all times except dawn and dusk

306. An aircraft at FL 240 is 220 nm from a VOR at 50 ft amsl but the aircraft receiver fails to lock on to
the VOR transmissions. This is because:
a. The aircraft is beyond LOS range
b. The transmitted signal will be too weak to measure at that range
c. The maximum range for VOR is 200 nm
d. Beacon is unserviceable

307. A VOR receiver measures the phase difference between the FM and AM signals as 123 o. the
corresponding QDM is:
a. 237
b. 303
c. 123
d. 057

308. A pilot intends to home to a VOR on 065 radial. The correct OBS setting and CDI indications are:
a. 065 FROM
b. 245 TO
c. 245 FROM
d. 065 TO

309. ILS LLZ coverage:

a. 7 deg, 10 nm
b. 20 deg, 17 nm
c. 35 deg, 17 nm

310. PET 480 nm, tailwind increases from 20 kts to 30 kts, what would happen to PET?
a. < 480 nm
b. > 480 nm
c. Unchanged

311. Aircraft flying at 180 kts TAS, what would be airspeed on flight plan?
a. N0180
b. K0180
c. N0150

312. In flight plan, which airspeed is kept input?

a. TAS
 b. IAS
c. EAS

313. How many times does the sun come overhead delhi during a year?
a. Once
b. Twice
c. Never

314. TAS 485 kts, heading 168, WV 130/75, find track and GS?
a. 174 – 428
b. 172 – 428
c. 170 – 425
d. 179 – 425

315. Heading 035, TAS 245, track 046, GS 220 kts, WV is:
a. 340/ 55
b. 340/ 50
c. 340/ 45
d. 345/ 50

316. Clearway length is limited by:

a. The first obstacle likely to damage the aircraft in the event of an abandoned take off after
engine failure
b. A ditch located at the end of the ASDA
c. A load bearing strength less than that of a runway
d. The first obstacle likely to damage the airplane in the event of a continued take off after
an engine failure

317. Vref is:

a. 1.2 * Vs
b. 1.15 * Vs
c. 1.3 * Vs
d. 1.43 * Vs

318. Prior to departure on MRJT is loaded with maximum fuel of 20,100 lt at an SG of 0.78. Calculate the
maximum allowable traffic load that can be carried given the following data:
Performance limited TOM 67,200 kg, Performance limited LM 54,200 kg, DOM 34,930 kg, taxi
fuel 250 kg, trip fuel 9250 kg. contingency and holding fuel 850 kg. alternate fuel 700 kg.
a. 12,842 kg
b. 12,442 kg
c. 16,370 kg
d. 16,842 kg
319. A revenue flight is planned for the transport airplane. Take off mass is not airfield limited. The
following data applies: DOM 34,930 kg. Performance limited LM 55,000 kg, taxi fuel 350 kg, trip fuel
9,730 kg, contingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kg, alternate fuel 1600 kg, passengers on board
130. Standard mass for each passenger is 84 kg, baggage per passenger 14 kg. Traffic load is
maximum possible. Determine the maximum cargo load that may be carried without exceeding the
limiting aeroplane landing mass.
a. 4530 kg
b. 5400 kg
c. 6350 kg
d. 3185 kg

320. In the ATS flight plan item 15, cruising speed of 450 kts will be entered as:
a. N470
b. KN470
c. 0470K
d. N0470

321. In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed
takes place. For this, change of speed is defined as:
a. 10% TAS or 0.05 mach or more
b. 20 kts or 0.05 mach or more
c. 5% TAS or 0.01 mach or more
d. 20 km/h TAS or 0.1 mach or more

322. An aircraft in the cruise has a CAS of 150 kts, a TAS of 180 kts and an average GS of 210 kts. The
speed box of the flight plan must be filled as follows:
a. K0210
b. N0150
c. N0180
d. K0180

323. An aircraft plans to depart to London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the
ATS flight plan item 16 should be entered with:
a. EDDM 1215
b. EDDM 1415
c. EDDM 0215
d. EDDM 2H15

324. In a turn and slip indicator. The gyro is spinning at a greater speed than normal. What will the effect
be on the indicated ROT?
a. It will over read
 b. It will be more accurate than usual
c. It will cause more precision and rigidity
d. It will under read

325. On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates:
a. Needle in the middle, ball to the left
b. Needle to the left, ball to the left
c. Needle in the middle, ball to the right
d. Needle to the left, ball to the right

326. When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle and ball indicator are on the left, the aircraft is:
a. Turning left with not enough bank
b. Turning left with too much bank
c. Turning right with too much bank
d. Turning right with not enough bank

327. In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the rate or turn is:

a. Independent of weight and proportional to TAS
b. Dependant on weight and inversely proportional to TAS
c. Independent of weight and inversely proportional to TAS
d. Dependant on weight and proportional to TAS

328. In a primary radar the maximum range requires:

a. Long PRI and high PRF
b. Short PRI and high PRF
c. High pulse effect and long PRI
d. High pulse effect and short PRI

329. The heading rose of an HIS is frozen on 200 o. Lined up on ILD of runway 25, the localizer needle will
be:
a. Right of center
b. Left of center
c. Centered
d. Centered with fail flag showing

330. Cat I aircraft ILS equipment is certified to:

a. 100 ft radio height
b. 200 ft radio height
c. 100 ft barometric height
d. 200 ft barometric height

331. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 108.95 MHz is:

 a. 0.275 m
b. 275 m
c. 27.5 m
d. 2.75 m

332. Fuel flow is 22 US gal/ hour. With 83 imperial gal available, what is the endurance of the aircraft?
a. 08:20
b. 04:31
c. 03:46
d. 03:51

333. Given: aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airport. Elevation of airport 720 ft. QNH is 1003 hPa. OAT at FL
150 is -5oC. What is the true altitude of the aircraft?
a. 15, 840 ft
b. 15, 280 ft
c. 14, 160 ft
d. 14, 720 ft

334. An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 nm from the runway, on a flat terrain, its height is
approximately:
a. 680 ft
b. 2,210 ft
c. 1,890 ft
d. 3,640 ft

335. An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322 o); the WV reported by the tower is 350/20 kts.
TAS on approach is 95 kts. In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft heading should be:
a. 322
b. 328
c. 316
d. 326

336. Given: TAS = 485 kts, heading (T) 168o, WV 130/75 kts. Calculate the track and GS.
a. 175 – 432
b. 173 – 424
c. 175 – 420
d. 174 – 428
337. For a given track, WC 45 kts, drift angle 15L, TAS = 240 kts. What is the wind component of the
reverse track?
a. -53 kts
b. -65 kts
c. -45 kts
 d. -37 kts

338. How long will it take to travel 284 nm at a speed of 524 km/h?
a. 1.6 hours
b. 1.9 hours
c. 45 mins
d. 1 hour

339. Given: true heading 035, TAS 245 kts, track (T) 146 o,GS 220 kts, calculate WV?
a. 335/ 55 kts
b. 335/ 45 kts
c. 340/ 50 kts
d. 340/ 45 kts

340. An airplane is flying at TAS 180 kts on a track of 090. The WV is 045/ 50 kts. How far can the
airplane fly out from its base and return in one hour?
a. 56 nm
b. 88 nm
c. 85 nm
d. 176 nm

341. Given: TAS 132 kts, heading (T) 053o, WV 205/15 kts. Calculate the track and GS?
a. 057 – 144
b. 050 – 145
c. 052 – 143
d. 051 – 144

342. From the following three sets of data the highest value of GNM per 1000 kg of fuel is:
TAS WC Fuel consumption
a. 220 mph -30 kts 10,584 lbs/hr
b. 482 km/h -92 km/hr 1,950 imp gal/hr (SG 0.69)
c. 150 kts +20 kts 5,000 kg/hr

343. Aircraft break release weight is 42,620 lbs. operational empty weight is 28,550 lbs. Load is 8020 lbs.
Fuel consumption (specific weight 7.4 lbs/ gallon) 125 gallons/hr. TAS 172 kts. Maximum still air
range is:
a. 1,125 km
b. 1,295 nms
c. 1,125 nm

344. Consider the following statements on SSR mode S.

a. Mode S will be able to address any particular of some 16 million aircraft
 b. Mode S will have the ability to transmit short messages from the ground to a particular
aircraft
c. A mode S interrogator, when installed, will also collect data from old mode A and C
transponders
d. All three statements are correct

345. The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

a. Transponder malfunction
b. Radio communication failure
c. An emergency
d. Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight.

346. A location in the airplane which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is
known as:
a. Index
b. Moment
c. Station
d. MAC

347. In the ATS flight plan item 15, when not expressed as a mach number, cruising speed is expressed
as:
a. IAS
b. TAS
c. CAS
d. GS

348. In an IRS:
a. Accelerometers and platform are both gyro stabilized
b. Accelerometers and platforms are both strapped down
c. The platforms is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro stabilized
d. The accelerometers are strapped down but the platform is gyro stabilized

349. IRS differs from INS in that it:

a. Has a shorter spin up time and suffers from laser lock
b. Does not need to correct for coriolis and central acceleration
c. Has a longer spin up and is not effected by vertical accelerations due to gravity
d. Does not experience schuler errors as accelerometers are strapped down and are not
rotated by a V/R feedback loop

350. An aircraft is flying straight and level, over a warm air mass. The altimeter reading will be:
a. Oscillating around the correct height
b. Greater than the real height
 c. Less than the real height
d. Correct

351. The distance from A to B is 983 nm, track 124 (T), TAS 212 kts, WV 350/40, safe endurance 6 hours
16 minutes. The time and distance to the PNR is:
a. 2 hours 43 mins, 647 nm
b. 2 hours 38 mins, 670 nm
c. 2 hours 28 mins, 667 nm

352. An aircraft leaves Y, airfield pressure 960 hPa, and the altimeter reads airfield elevation of 1860 ft.
the aircraft lands at Z (elevation 1000 ft) where the altimeter reads 1270 ft. what is the QNH at Z?
a. 1013
b. 1022
c. 1030

353. The middle marker of an ILS facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of:
a. Dots and a white light flashing
b. Dashes and an amber light flashing
c. Alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing
d. Two dashes per second and blue light flashing

354. In EFIS, a selected heading is coloured:

a. Green
b. White
c. Yellow
d. Magenta

355. On a direct Mercator chart, a GC will be represented by a:

a. Complex curve
b. Curve concave to the equator
c. Straight line
d. Curve concave to the equator

356. Fuel flow per hour is 22 US gallons, total fuel on board is 83 imperial gallons, what is the
endurance?
a. 02:45
b. 03:53
c. 03:12
d. 04:32

357. Given: TAS = 225 kts, heading (T) 123, WV 090/60 kts. Calculate the track (T) and GS?
a. 123 – 180 kts
 b. 120 – 190 kts
c. 134 – 188 kts
d. 134 – 178 kts

358. The OFF flag on aircraft DME mileage displays indicate:

a. The DME is searching
b. The DME is off
c. DME is tuned to the wrong frequency
d. Any of the above

359. On a direct Mercator chart a RL appears as a:

a. Spiral curve
b. Straight line
c. Small circle concave to the nearer pole
d. Curve convex to the nearer pole

360. How does the scale change on a normal Mercator chart?

a. Expands as the secant2 * (1/2 co- latitude)
b. Expands directly with the secant of latitude
c. Correct on the standard parallels expands outside them and contracts within them
d. Expands as the secant of the E/W GC distance
361. At 60N the scale of a direct mercator chart is 1: 3,000,000. What is the scale at the equator?
a. 1: 3,500,000
b. 1: 1,500,000
c. 1: 6,000,000
d. 1: 3,000,000

362. Approximately how many nm correspond to 12 nm on a map with a scale of 1: 2,000,000?

a. 43 nm
b. 150 nm
c. 329 nm
d. 130 nm

363. A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 nm. The scale of this chart is approximately:
a. 1: 6,000,000
b. 1: 7,000,000
c. 1: 5,000,000
d. 1: 3,500,000

364. The maximum range obtainable from an ATC long range surveillance radar is approximately:
a. 200-300 nm
b. 50-100 nm
 c. 100-200 nm
d. 300-400 nm

365. The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is
pulse:
a. Frequency
b. Amplitude
c. Length

366. The factor that determines the maximum theoretical range of a radar is:
a. Wavelength
b. Pulse width
c. Peak power
d. PRF

367. In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a
factor of:
a. Beam width
b. PRR
c. Aerial rotation rate
d. Pulse length

368. A primary radar operates on the principle of:

a. Echo principle
b. Phase comparison
c. Transponder interrogation
d. Continuous wave transmission

369. A primary radar has a PRF of 625 pps. The maximum detection range is:
a. 78 nm
b. 39 nm
c. 129 nm
d. 259 nm

370. Which of the following is a limitation of ILS?

i. Interference from FM broadcast stations
ii. Unusable in mountainous terrain
iii. Inflexible approach path
a. Statements 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is not
b. Statements 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is not
c. Statements 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is not
d. All the above
371. What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS
approach?
a. 328 MHz, 335 MHz
b. 75 MHz, 135 MHz
c. 90 MHz, 150 MHz
d. 90 Hz, 150 Hz

372. V1 should be more than:

a. VR
b. Vmcg
c. Vmbe

373. Given distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1760 nm. GS ‘out’ 435 kts, GS ‘back’ 385 kts, the time from ‘Q’ to the PET
between ‘Q’ and ‘R’ is:
a. 102 mins
b. 114 mins
c. 110 mins
d. 106 mins

374. What is UTC at 141o 31’ E, if LMT is 1615?

375. ZFM = ?

a. DOM + TL
b. TOM + T/O fuel
c. Both

376. Mode C stops functioning or giving height when change us more than:
a. +/- 50 ft
b. +/- 200 ft
c. +/- 150 ft

377. What is the longitude of a position 6 nm to the east of 58 o 42’ N 094o 00’ W?
a. 093o 53.1’ W
b. 094o 12.0’ W
c. 093o 48.5’ W
d. 093o 54.0’ W

378. The speed V1 is defined as:

a. Take off decision speed
b. Take off climb speed
 c. Speed for best angle of climb
d. Engine failure speed

379. Given: runway 17 touchdown elevation 146 ft, TORA 1400 m, ASDA 1600 m, TODA 1800 m. runway
35 touchdown elevation 34 ft, TORA 1500 m, ASDA 1700 m, TODA 1900 m.
The slope of runway 35 is:
a. 2.28% up
b. 2.28% down
c. 2.44% up
d. 2.44% down
380. An airplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited TOM is 89,200 kg. certified
maximum masses are as follows: ramp mass 89930 kg, maximum take off mass 89,430 kg, maximum
landing mass 71, 520 kg, actual ZFM 62,050 kg, fuel on board at ramp: taxi fuel 600 kg, trip fuel 17,
830 kg, contingency, final reserve and alternate 9,030 kg. if the DOM is 40970 kg, the traffic load
that can be carried on this flight is:
a. 21,500 kg
b. 21,080 kg
c. 21,220 kg
d. 20,870 kg

381. Given: TOM 1,17,000 nm is comprising a traffic load of 18,000 kg and fuel of 46,000 kg. the DOM is:
a. 53,000 kg
b. 64,000 kg
c. 71,000 kg
d. 99, 000 kg

382. You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions:
DOM 2,800 kg, trip fuel 300 kg, payload 400 kg, MTOM 4200 kg, MLM 3,700 kg.
a. 500 kg
b. 800 kg
c. 1000 kg
d. 700 kg

383. In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B, the final
reserve fuel for a turbojet engine airplane corresponds to:
a. 15 mins holding 2,000 ft above aerodrome A
b. 30 mins holding 2,000 ft above aerodrome B
c. 30 mins holding 1,500 ft above aerodrome B
d. 30 mins holding 1,500 ft above aerodrome A

384. During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight plan. The minimum
deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to confirm to PANS-RAC, are:
 a. TAS 5 kts and time 5 mins
b. TAS 3% and time 3 mins
c. TAS 5% and time 3 mins
d. TAS 10 kts and time 2 mins

385. In the ATS flight plan item, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed
takes place. For this purpose, change of speed is defined as:
a. 20 km/h or mach or more
b. 10% TAS or 0.05 mach or more
c. 5% TAS or 0.01 mach or more
d. 20 knots or 0.05 mach or more

386. A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with:

a. 1 degree of freedom
b. 0 degree of freedom
c. 2 degrees of freedom
d. 3 degrees of freedom

387. A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon: 1. Bank
angle 2. Airplane speed 3. Airplane weight. The combination regrouping the correct statement is:
a. 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 3

388. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis
is:
a. Gyromagnetic compass
b. Turn indicator
c. Fluxgate compass
d. Directional gyro

389. An aircraft is flying a rate one turn at 480 kts TAS. What is the diameter of the turn?
a. 3 nm
b. 5 nm
c. 6 nm
d. 2 nm

390. A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 codes. These can be used in:
a. Mode C only
b. Mode A only
c. All modes
 d. Mode S

391. Which one of the following SSR codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area
where SSR operation has not been required?
a. 0000
b. 7700
c. 7500
d. 2000

392. A mode S transponder will:

a. Not respond to interrogations made on mode A
b. Respond normally to mode A/C interrogations
c. Respond to mode A interrogations but not mode C
d. Not respond to mode A/C as it is on a different frequency

393. In special conditions to signify radio failure, which of the following codes should you select on your
transponder?
a. 7700
b. Ident
c. 7500
d. 7600

394. An aircraft was over Q at 1320 hours flying direct to R. given: distance Q to R 3016 nm. TAS 480 kts.
Mean wind component out 90 kts. Mean wind component back 75 kts. Safe endurance 10:00 hours.
The distance from Q to the PSR is:
a. 2370 nm
b. 2290 nm
c. 1310 nm
d. 1510 nm

395. Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate GD gone?

a. GD = (AD*GS) / TAS
b. GD = (AD-TAS) / TAS
c. GD = AD * (GS-TAS)/ GS
d. GD = TAS/ (GS*AD)

396. An aircraft takes off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a track of 090 (T). WV
130/20 kts. TAS 100 kts. In order to return to the point of departure before sunset, the furthest
distance which may be travelled is:
a. 97 nm
b. 115 nm
c. 105 nm
 d. 84 nm

397. An aircraft was over A at 1435 hours flying direct to B. given: distance A to B 2900 nm. TAS 470 kts.
Mean wind component out +55 kts. Mean component back -75 kts. Safe endurance 09:30. The
distance from A to the PSR is:
a. 2844 nm
b. 1611 nm
c. 1753 nm
d. 2141 nm

398. You want to fly 12,000 ft above a frozen lake at elevation 930 ft amsl. You have obtained QNH from
an airfield in the area. Climbing, you observe that the air temperature at FL80 is -20 oC. what should
your indicated altitude be when you are 12,000 ft above the frozen lake?
a. 11,950 ft
b. 12,000 ft
c. 12,560 ft
d. 13,950 ft

399. An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of X (altitude 1,483 ft, QFE 963 hPa, temperature 32 oC).
five minutes later, passing 5000 ft on QFE, the second altimeter set on 1013 hPa will indicate
approximately:
a. 6,800 ft
b. 6,400 ft
c. 6,000 ft
d. 4,000 ft

400. Airport elevation is 1000 ft QNH in 998 hPa. What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
a. 680 ft
b. 320 ft
c. 1680 ft
d. -320 ft

401. What is the distance to touchdown when you are 670 ft QFE on a 3.2 o glideslope approach?
a. 2.06 nm
b. 2.40 nm
c. 1.96 nm
d. 1.63 nm

402. You are on ILS 3o GS which passes over the runway threshold at 50 ft. Your DME range is 25 nm
from the threshold. What is your height above the runway threshold elevation? ( 1 nm = 6000 ft)
a. 8010 ft
b. 7450 ft
 c. 6450 ft
d. 7550 ft

403. Your pressure altitude is FL55, QNH is 998 and SAT is +30 oC. What is the density altitude?
a. 6980 ft
b. 7750 ft
c. 8620 ft
d. 10020 ft

404. From the departure point, the distance to the point of equal time is:
a. Proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back.
b. Inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back.
c. Inversely proportional to the total distance to go.
d. Inversely proportional to ground speed back.

405. You fly from C to D, a distance of 450 NM. The WC C – D is +30, and the WC D – C is
-40. TAS is 160 kts and reduced TAS is 130 kts. The FF is 165 kg/hr, and Safe Endurance when
overhead C is 4 hours. Calculate PET between C and D, based on reduced TAS for the flight from
PET to C/D. What is the flying time from C to PET?
a. 1:04
b. 1:48
c. 1:21
d. 0:51

406. A ground feature appears 30o to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne weather radar.
If the heading of the aircraft is 355 o (M) and the variation is 15o East, the true bearing of the aircraft
from the feature is:
a. 160
b. 220
c. 310
d. 130

407. An island appears 30 degrees to the left of the centre line on an AWR display. What is the true
bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic
heading of 020 degrees with the magnetic variation 25 degrees west?
a. 145
b. 195
c. 205
d. 325
408. An island appears 60 degrees to the left of the centre line on an AWR display. What is the true
bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic
heading of 276 degrees with variation 10 degrees east?
a. 046
b. 086
c. 226
d. 026

409. What do you understand by the term white-out?

a. Flight conditions when you suddenly enter a cloud and all gets white outside the cockpit
windows.
b. When the terrain is covered with snow and the horizon blend with sky, visual
determination of height becoming difficult.
c. Flying in heavy snow.
d. Taking off from a snow-covered lake.

410. During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at the right angles by an aircraft. The time
between these roads can be used to check an aircraft:
a. Groundspeed
b. Position
c. Track
d. Drift

411. Under which circumstances will an aircrafts radius of action be greatest?

a. Direct cross wind outbound
b. Direct tail wind outbound
c. Direct head wind outbound
d. Wind at 45 degrees to track

412. A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing 315 degrees and 3 min later on a relative
bearing 270 degrees. The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kts. What is the minimum distance between
the aircraft and ground feature?
a. 3 nm
b. 12 nm
c. 9 nm
d. 6 nm
413. An aircraft at FL 350 is required to descend to cross DME facility at FL80. Maximum ROD is 1800
ft/min and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent
should start is:
a. 79 nm
b. 69 nm
c. 49 nm
d. 59 nm

414. Secondary radars require:

a. A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an aircraft.
b. A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be ground
based.
c. A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an aircraft
or a ground based transponder.
d. A quiescent target.

415. When an aircraft is operating its SSR in Mode C an air traffic controllers presentation gives
information regarding the aircrafts indicated flight level that is accurate to within:
a. + or – 50 ft
b. + or - 75 ft
c. + or – 100 ft
d. + or – 25 ft

416. Consider the following statements on SSR Mode S:

a. Mode S will have the ability to transmit short messages from the ground to a particular
aircraft.
b. A mode S interrogator, when installed, will also collect data from old mode A and C
transponders.
c. Mode S will be able to address any particular of some 16 million aircraft.
d. All 3 statements are correct.

417. In EFIS, a selected heading is coloured:

a. White
b. Green
c. Magenta
d. Yellow

418. If the static vent becomes blocked during climb:

a. The VSI will stop at the ROC of the aircraft at the time of blockage.
 b. The VSI will indicate a decreasing rate of climb.
c. The VSI will return to zero.
d. The VSI will indicate an increasing rate of climb.

419. A DGI has:

a. One degree of freedom & a horizontal spin axis.
b. Two degrees of freedom & a vertical spin axis.
c. Two degrees of freedom & a horizontal spin axis.
d. One degree of freedom & a vertical spin axis.

420. What indications should you get from the turn and slip indicator during taxi?
a. The ball stays fixed in the centre position during the turn, and the needle deflects in the
direction of turn.
b. The ball stays fixed in the centre position during the turn, and the needle deflects in the
opposite direction of turn.
c. The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the
turn.
d. The ball moves freely in the direction of the turn, and the needle deflects in the opposite
direction of turn.

421. When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the
following on a classic AH:
a. Too much nose up and bank too low
b. Too much nose up and bank correct
c. Too much nose up and back too high
d. Attitude and bank are correct.

422. With a relative high density of 0.75 an aircraft burns 200 litres per hour. If the relative density is
changed to 0.85 the new fuel burn will be:
a. 226 litres per hour
b. 385 litres per hour
c. 238 litres per hour
d. 234 litres per hour

423. The still air distance in the climb is 189 NAM and time 30 mins. What ground distance will be
covered in a 30 kt head wind?
a. 188 nm
b. 203 nm
 c. 174 nm
d. 193 nm

424. A sector distance is 450 nm long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is
the still air distance?
a. 414 NAM
b. 499 NAM
c. 406 NAM
d. 511 NAM

425. A turbine engine aircraft burns fuel at 200 gals per hour with a fuel density of 0.8.
What is the fuel flow if fuel density is 0.75?
a. 213 gph
b. 208 gph
c. 200 gph
d. 188 gph

426. The take-off mass of an airplane is 8600 kg which includes traffic load of 1890 kg and a useable fuel
load of 1230 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 190 kg the DOM is?
a. 5290 kg
b. 5480 kg
c. 8410 kg
d. 6710 kg

427. With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following statements is
always correct?
a. LM = TOM – Trip Fuel
b. MTOM = ZFM + maximum possible fuel mass
c. MZFM = Traffic Load + DOM
d. Reserve Fuel = TOM – Trip Fuel

428. Which conditions are most suited to a selection of low flap for take off?
a. Low airfield elevation, close obstacles, long runway, high temperature
b. Low airfield elevation, no obstacles, short runway, low temperature
c. High elevation, no obstacles, short runway, low temperature
d. High airfield elevations, distant obstacles, long runway, high temperature
429. The most efficient angle of attack is:
a. 4 degrees
b. 8 degrees
c. 12 degrees
d. 15 degrees

430. When does climb up weight expressed?

a. I segment
b. II segment
c. III segment

431. IRS different from INS by.

a. Does not have strapdown system
b. Has strapdown system
c. Accelerometer are strapdown and platform fix

432. ADF errors are maximum when,

a. Intercepted by other A/C during day
b. Intercepted by other A/C during night
c. Intercepted by other interrogator

433. Shortest distance on earth is,

a. Great Circle Track
b. Shorter Arc of great circle
c. R/L Track

434. The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative density is 0.75, the fuel
burn will be:
a. 200 kg/h
b. 213 kg/h
c. 188 kg/h
d. 267 kg/h

435. TOM = ?
a. T/O fuel + DOM + TL
b. ZFM + DOM
c. T/O fuel + TL
436. A frequency of AWR is:
a. 9375 KHz
b. 9375 GHz
c. 9375 MHz
d. 93.75 MHz

437. AWR systems use a wavelength of approx. 3 cm In order to:

a. Transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
b. Detect the larger water droplets
c. Detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large
d. Obtain optimum use of the cosecant squared beam

438. Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by AWR when using the weather
beam?
a. Stratus
b. Altostratus
c. Cumulus
d. Cirrocumulus

439. An advantage of mode S when compared to modes A & C is

i. Data link
ii. Selective Interrogation
iii. Unique code for each aircraft

a. Statements 1 and 3 are advantages of Mode S, 2 is not

b. Statements 2 and 3 are advantages of Mode S, 1 is not
c. Statements 1 and 2 are advantages of Mode S, 3 is not
d. All the above are advantages of Mode S

440. Why is a secondary radar display screen free from storm clutter?
a. A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns.
b. The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
c. The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
d. The principle of ‘echo’ return is not used in secondary radar.
441. A pilot selects a VOR/DME and hears three identifications the same then the fourth identification at
a higher pitch has the last letter changed to a ‘Z’. The significance of this is:
a. The beacons are co-located
b. The VOR and DME are serving different locations
c. The beacons are greater than 30 m apart but less than 600 m
d. The beacons are greater than 600 m apart but less than 6 NM

442. An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground
because:
a. DME uses the UHF band
b. DME transmits twin pulses
c. They are not on the receiver frequency
d. The pulse recurrence rate are varied

443. For a conventional DME facility beacon saturation will occur whenever the number of aircraft
interrogations exceeds:
a. 60
b. 200
c. 80
d. 100

444. On a direct Mercator projection the distance measured between two meridians spaced 5 degrees
apart at the latitude 60 N is 8 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60 degrees N is approx.:
a. 1:6000 000
b. 1:3500 000
c. 1:4750 000
d. 1:7000 000

445. The total length of the 53 degrees N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm. What
is the approx. scale of the chart at latitude 30 degrees S?
a. 1:30000000
b. 1:18000000
c. 1:25000000
d. 1:21000000

446. A Lambert Conformal conic projection with two standard parallels:

a. The scale is only correct along the standard parallels
b. Shows all great circles as straight lines
c. The scale is only correct at parallel of origin
 d. Shows lines of longitude as parallel of straight lines

447. A straight line is drawn on a Lambert Conformal Conic Chart between two positions of different
longitude. The angular difference between the initial true track and the final track of the line is equal
to:
a. Difference in longitude
b. Chart convergency
c. Earth convergency
d. Conversion angle

448. On a Lambert Conformal conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the:
a. Parallel of origin
b. Equator
c. North and South limits of the chart
d. Standard Parallels

449. ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by DME should not exceed:
a. + or – 0.25 NM plus 1.25 % of the distance measured
b. + or – 1.25 NM plus 0.25 % of the distance measured
c. + or – 0.25 NM plus 3 % of the distance measured up to maximum of 5 NM
d. + or – 0.5 NM or 3 % of the distance measured whichever is the greater

450. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because:
a. Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate.
b. DME transmits and receives on different frequencies
c. DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators.
d. It will only accept the unique twin DME pulses.

451. Given: Required course 045 (M); Variation is 15 E; W/V is 190 (T)/ 30 kt; CAS is 120 kt at FL 55 in
standard atmosphere. What are the heading (M) and GS?
a. 052 and 154 kt
b. 036 and 151 kt
c. 056 and 137 kt
d. 055 and 147 kt
452. TAS 330 kts, heading 300 (M), drift 6 Port, groundspeed 270 kts, variation 30 E. The true wind
velocity is:
a. 355 T/70 kts
b. 325 T/65 kts
c. 340 T/90 kts
d. 010 T/80 kts

453. 730 ft/min equals:

a. 5.2 m/s
b. 2.2 m/s
c. 1.6 m/s
d. 3.7 m/s

454. MTOW – 100 000 kg, MLW – 80 000 kg, Crew + Catering – 1000 kg, Total Distance – 2080 NM, TAS –
440 kts, FF – 3600 kg/hr, Reserve Fuel – 4600 kg.
The maximum payload with an average headwind component of 40 kts is:
a. 18 689 kg
b. 18 040 kg
c. 17 400 kg

455. MTOW – 12,500 lbs, MLW – 12,500 lbs, MZFW – 10,400 lbs, AEW – 8000 lbs, Crew + baggage – 380
lbs, Trip Fuel – 1400 lbs, Reserves – 600 lbs.
The maximum payload is:
a. 2020 lbs
b. 2120 lbs
c. 2160 lbs

456. What is a line of equal magnetic variation?

a. An isocline
b. An isovar
c. An isogriv
d. An isogonal

457. An aircraft is on a bearing of 263 (M) from a VOR station. If the OBS is set to 091, the deviation
indicator will show:
a. FROM and fly left 4 dots
b. TO and fly right 4 dots
c. TO and fly left 4 dots
 d. FROM and fly right 4 dots

458. Civil Twilight occurs between:

a. Sunset and 6 deg below horizon
b. 6 deg and 12 deg below the horizon
c. Sunrise and sunset
d. 12 deg and 18 deg below the horizon

459. At 5.25 NM from the threshold an aircraft on an ILS approach has a display showing it to be 4 dots
low on a 3 degree glidepath. Using an angle of 0.15 per dot of glidescope deviation and the 1 in 60
rule calculate the height of the aircraft from touchdown.
a. 1375 ft
b. 1450 ft
c. 1280 ft
d. 1325 ft

460. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis
is a:
a. Fluxgate compass
b. Directional gyro
c. Turn indicator
d. Gyromagnetic compass

461. In ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed
takes place. For this purpose change of speed is defined as:
a. 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more
b. 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more
c. 5 % TAS or 0.01 Mach or more
d. 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more

462. The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

a. Radio communication failure
b. Unlawful interference
c. Transponder malfunction
d. An emergency
463. Aircraft performance may be measured in:
a. GNM/hr
b. US gallons/hr
c. US gallons/km

464. As speed is reduced from Vmd to Vmp:

a. Power required increases, drag decreases
b. Power required decreases, drag increases
c. Power required increases, drag increases
d. Power required decreases, drag decreases

465. When flying at the best angle of climb speed:

a. An aeroplane will be flying at a higher airspeed than when flying at the best rate of climb
speed
b. A specific altitude can be reached in the shortest time
c. A propeller driven aeroplane will be flying at a minimum power speed
d. A specific altitude can be reached in the shortest distance

466. Isogonals converge at the:

a. North magnetic pole only
b. North and South magnetic poles only
c. Magnetic Equator
d. North and South geographic and magnetic poles

467. An aircraft at FL350 is required to commence descent when 85 NM from a VOR and to cross the
VOR at FL80. The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required?
a. 1900 ft/min
b. 1800 ft/min
c. 1600 ft/min
d. 1700 ft/min

468. An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70. Maximum rate of descent
is 2500 ft/min, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What is minimum range from the DME at which
descent should commence?
a. 53 NM
b. 58 NM
c. 63 NM
d. 68 NM
469. IRS differs from INS in that it:
a. Has a longer spin up time and is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity.
b. Has a shorter spin up time and suffer from laser lock.
c. Does not need to correct for Coriolis and central acceleration.
d. Does not experience Schular errors as accelerometers are strapped down and are not
rotated by a V/R feedback loop.

470. What additional information is required to be input to an INS in order to obtain an W/V readout?
a. Mach Number
b. IAS
c. Altitude and OAT
d. TAS

471. An INS, what is the output of the first stage North/South integrator?
a. Groundspeed
b. Latitude
c. Velocity along the local meridian
d. Change of latitude

472. The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:
a. The vertical and horizontal plane
b. The vertical plane
c. The horizontal plane
d. Any plane

473. Some IRS are known as strapdown. This means:

a. The system is mounted on a stabilised platform.
b. The system is mounted and fixed to the aircraft structure
c. The accelerometers are fixed but the gyros are stabilised.
d. The gyros are fixed but the accelerometers are stabilised.

474. In an INS, GS is calculated:

a. From TAS and W/V from RNAV data.
b. From TAS and W/V from ADC.
c. By integrating measured acceleration
d. By integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively.
475. In a ring laser gyro, the purpose of the dither motor is to:
a. Enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates.
b. Overcome laser lock.
c. Compensate for transport wander
d. Stabilise the laser frequencies.

476. The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an INS using gimballed gyros is approx.:
a. 20 min
b. 30 min
c. 10 min
d. 5 min

477. Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV)
fixes?
a. VOR/DME
b. DME/DME
c. NDB/VOR
d. VOR/VOR

478. The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is:

a. Multiplex
b. Multi-channel
c. Sequential
d. Fast multiplex

479. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional
fix?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

480. For RAIM activity there must be:

a. 3 satellites
b. 4 satellites
c. 5 satellites
 d. 6 satellites

481. Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV)
fixes?
a. VOR/DME
b. DME/DME
c. NDB/VOR
d. VOR/VOR

482. EAS is:

a. IAS corrected for compressibility
b. IAS corrected for instrument error only
c. CAS corrected for compressibility
d. CAS corrected for position error

483. For an altimeter, pressure fluctuations at the static vent cause:

a. Barometric error
b. Temperature error
c. Position error
d. Hysteresis error

484. An aircraft is in level flight at FL100 over a mountain range, which extends up to 2,400 m AMSL. If
the regional QNH is 998 hpa (use 30ft/hpa), what is approx. terrain clearance?
a. 2.581 ft
b. 1.681 ft
c. 7.869 ft
d. 450 ft

485. The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is
known as:
a. Instrument error
b. Hysteresis effect
c. Position pressure error
d. Barometric error
486. The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220l/h with a fuel density of 0.80. If the density is 0.75,
the fuel burn will be:
a. 235 l/h
b. 206 l/h
c. 220 l/h
d. 176 l/h

487. The fuel burn off is 200kg/hr with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative fuel density is 0.75,
the fuel burn will be:
a. 267 kg/hr
b. 213 kg/hr
c. 200 kg/hr
d. 188 kg/hr

488. Flying from C to D: Track 215o (T), TAS 245 kts, distance 1547 NM, W/V: 225/45.
If an aircraft departs C at 0915 Z the ETA at the PET is:
a. 1200 Z
b. 1215 Z
c. 1230 Z
d. 1300 Z

489. Total fuel available overhead X (excluding reserves): 24000 kg, Distance X to Y: 850 NM, Mean TAS
(4 engines): 310 kts, Mean TAS (3 engines): 275 kts, Mean F/F (4 engines): 6500 kg/hr, Mean F/F (3
engines): 6350 kg/hr, Mean wind component out: -45 kts, mean wind component home: +35 kts.
The distance to the all engine operating PET between X and Y is:
a. 481 NM
b. 460 NM
c. 509 NM
d. 370 NM

490. Traffic load is the:

a. Zero fuel mass minus DOM
b. DOM minus the disposable load
c. DOM minus the variable load
d. Take off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass

491. The DOM of an aeroplane is:

a. TOM minus Operating Mass
 b. LM plus trip fuel
c. Useful Load minus Operating Mass
d. TOM minus useful Load

492. For a multi-engine aircraft in Performance class B the minimum gross gradient of climb after a
balked landing is:
a. 1.5%
b. 2%
c. 2.5%
d. 3.2%

493. With a TAS of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about:
a. 3 degrees
b. 3 %
c. 5 degrees
d. 8 %

494. Which is the operation frequency for a radio altimeter?

a. 430,000 MHz
b. 4300 MHz
c. 430 MHz

495. RADALT principle is,

a. PM
b. FM
c. AM

496. Doppler waves on Reference Signal are ………., Variable signal are …….. and …………
a. AM, FM, Anticlockwise
b. AM, FM, Clockwise
c. FM, AM, Clockwise

497. QFE gives/indicates,

a. Height AGL
b. Height AMSL
c. Pressure Altitude
498. After V1 is crossed, flight can be aborted,
a. Not safe
b. Not able to fly
c. Both

499. Clearway is,

a. When no stopway after runway
b. When runway end and stopway present
c. None of the above

500. The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
a. DME pulse recurrence rates are varied
b. DME transmits twin pulses
c. Reflections are subject to Doppler frequency shift
d. Aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies.

501. When a DME fails to achieve lock it will reduce the search PRF to 60 pulse pairs per second after:
a. 15000 pulse pairs
b. 100 seconds
c. 150 pulse pairs
d. 10 seconds

502. The inclination and altitude of NAVSTAR/GPS is:

a. 55 degrees and 10898 NM
b. 65 degrees and 10313 NM
c. 55 degrees and 10313 NM
d. 65 degrees and 10898 NM

503. How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received
signals belongs to which satellite?
a. The receiver detects the direction from which the signals received and compares this
information with the calculated positions of the satellites
b. The Doppler Shift is unique to each satellite
c. Each satellite transmits its signal on common frequencies with an individual pseudo
random noise code
d. Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency
504. In a Satellite Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) a fix is obtained by:
a. The aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of
satellites in known positions
b. Measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of satellites
received in a specific sequential order
c. Measuring time taken for a minimum number of satellites transmissions in known
positions to reach the aircraft’s receiver
d. Measuring the time taken for an aircraft’s transmissions to travel to a number of satellites in
known positions and return to the aircraft’s receiver

505. In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver clock error:

a. Can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks
b. Is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites
c. Is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected
d. Is corrected by using signals from four satellites

506. In which frequency band do satellite assisted navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position
information that is available to civil aircraft?
a. EHF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. SHF

507. The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:

a. 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a
geostationary orbital plane
b. 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
c. 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
d. 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane

508. The constant of the cone on a Lambert chart, where the convergence angle between longitude 010
degrees E and 030 degrees W is 30 degrees, will be:
a. 0.75
b. 0.40
c. 0.64
d. 0.40

509. Parallels of latitude on a lambert conformal conic chart are represented by:
 a. Arcs of concentric circles
b. Hyperbolic lines
c. Straight lines
d. Parabolic lines

510. On a polar stereographic chart the scale:

a. Is constant throughout the chart
b. Varies as the sin of the latitude
c. Varies as the square of the secant of half the co lat
d. Varies as the secant of the latitude

511. On a polar stereographic chart great circles which are not meridians are:
a. Complex curves
b. Straight lines
c. Straight lines within the standard paralles
d. Curves concave to the pole of projection

512. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great cirlces with
the exception of meridians on a Polar Stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole?
a. They are curves convex to the pole
b. They are complex curves that can be convex and/or concave to the pole
c. Any straight line is a great circle
d. The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line

513. The DME is saturated when

a. Combined power of all pulses is more than power of DME receiver.
b. More than 100 a/c are interrogating ground station and combined replies by ground station
saturate transmitter.
c. If 100 a/c are interrogating and receiving replies from ground station. If more a/c sends in
the interrogations the closest 100 a/c receive replies.
d. If 100 a/c are interrogating and receiving replies from ground station. If more a/c sends in
the interrogations the strongest 100 signals receive replies.

514. An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator
where 1 dot = 2 deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will
represent limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
a. 1.5
b. 3.0
 c. 4.5
d. 6.0

515. A flight is planned from A to C via B, TAS 188 kts. Total fuel is sufficient for 7 hrs 35 mins (includes
one hour reserves).
A to B track is 060 (T), distance 410 NM, W/V 130/35
B to C track is 150 (T), distance 600 NM, W/V 160/30
The time and distance to the PNR is:
a. 3 hrs 43 mins, 647 NM
b. 3 hrs 28 mins, 627 NM
c. 3 hrs 32 mins, 607 NM

516. An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATS
flight plan item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with:
a. EDDM 1215
b. EDDM 1415
c. EDDM 0215
d. EDDM 2H15

517. A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
a. Mode A only
b. Mode S
c. Mode C only
d. All modes

518. The distance from X to Y is 935 NM. The distance from X to the PET is 540 NM. The groundspeed
out is 170 kts; safe endurance is 6 hrs 52 mins. The time and distance to PNR is:
a. 3 hrs 48 mins, 675 NM
b. 3 hrs 58 mins, 674 NM
c. 3 hrs 43 mins, 608 NM

519. The moment index is:

a. The product of the weight and the distance
b. The product of the arm and the moment
c. The moment divided by a chosen figure
520. The distance to the point of no return is the same as that to the point of equal time when:
a. The time to the PNR is same as the time to the destination from the PNR
b. The time to the PNR is the same as the time to the PET
c. Fuel reserves are carried.

521. Met Info TAS

FL160, W/C +20, 208 kts
FL180, W/C -10 230 kts
FL200, W/C -30 260 kts
The shortest trip will be at:
a. FL160
b. FL180
c. FL200

522. Point of equal time problems are by nature:

a. Range problems
b. Fuel problems
c. Time problems

523. A point of equal time would normally be calculated for:

a. An engine out consideration
b. A passenger medical problem
c. A fuel reserve problem

524. The C of G of an aeroplane is often expressed as:

a. A percentage of the mean lateral axis
b. A ratio of the sum of the stations
c. A percentage of the mean aerodynamic chord

525. Centre of gravity is determined by dividing:

a. Total arm by total weight
b. Total moment by total arm
c. Total moment by total weight

526. Centre of gravity on an aircraft is calculated to determine:

a. Lateral imbalance
 b. Longitudinal imbalance
c. Both (a) and (b)

527. In mass and balance calculations the “index” is:

a. The moment divided by a constant
b. A location in the aeroplane identified by a number
c. An imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken
d. The range of moments the C of G can have without making the aeroplane unsafe to fly.

528. Aircraft position determined by radio navigation in an FMC is derived from:

a. VOR/DME
b. DME ranges and/or VOR/ADF bearings
c. VOR/ADF
d. DME only

529. When is the last point at which an INS or IRS may be selected to NAV mode?
a. After passengers and freight are aboard
b. Immediately prior to pushback or taxi from the gate
c. At the holding point
d. On operation of the TO/GA switch when opening the throttles for takeoff

530. On the IRS, selection of the ATT mode gives:

a. Attitude and heading
b. Altitude, heading and groundspeed
c. Altitude, attitude and heading
d. Attitude information only

531. Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selctions of the mode selector switch of
an IRS mode panel?
a. OFF – ON – ALIGN – NAV
b. OFF – ALIGN – NAV – ATT
c. OFF- STBY – ALIGN – NAV
d. OFF – ALIGN – ATT – NAV

532. The AFCS in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an INS and the aircraft is flying from
waypoint no 1 (60o00S 070o00W) to no 2 (60o00S 080o00W). Comparing the initial track (T) at
070o00W and the final track (T) at 080 o00W, the difference between them is that the initial track is
approximately:
a. 9 deg greater than the final one
b. 5 deg greater than the final one
 c. 9 deg less than the final one
d. 5 deg less than the final one

533. The AFCS in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an INS and the aircraft is flying from
waypoint no 3 (55o00N 020o00W) to no 4 (55o00N 030o00W). With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU,
to the nearest whole degree, the initial track read out from waypoint 3 will be:
a. 278 deg
b. 274 deg
c. 266 deg
d. 270 deg

534. The sensors of an INS measures:

a. Precession
b. Velocity
c. The horizontal component of earth’s rotation
d. Acceleration

535. An aircraft is at FL140 with an IAS of 210 and a true OAT of -5 oC. the wind component is -35 kts.
When the aircraft is at 150 nm from a reporting point, ATC requests the crew to lose 5 minutes by
the time they get to the beacon. How much do they need?
a. 15 kts
b. 25 kts
c. 30 kts
d. 20 kts

536. An INS is used to navigate from wpt 1 (45 oN 030oW) to wpt 2 (45oN 020oW). the distance flown will
be:
a. Approximately 600 nm
b. Less than 424.25 nm
c. More than 424.25 nm
d. 424.25 nm

537. When climbing at a constant mach number below the tropopause through an inversion:
a. The CAS and TAS will both increase
b. The CAS and TAS will both decrease
c. The CAS will decrease and TAS will increase
d. The CAS will increase and the TAS will decrease

538. When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant CAS, the TAS will:
a. Increase at a linear rate
b. Decrease
c. Increase at an exponential rate
 d. Remain constant

539. The errors to which the machmeter is subject to are:

a. Instrument error, position error, compressibility error and maneuver induced error
b. Instrument error, position error
c. Instrument error, position error, barometric error, temperature error and maneuver
induced error
d. Instrument error, position error, density error and maneuver induced error

540. Given M: mach meter, Ts: static temperature, Tt: total temperature. Which of the following
statements is correct?
a. Ts = Tt/ (1+0.2M2)
b. Ts = Tt * (0.2M2)
c. Ts = Tt / (0.2M2)
d. Ts = Tt * (1+ 0.2M2)

541. Total fuel available overhead X (excluding reserve): 24,000 kg, distance X to Y: 850 nm, mean TAS (4
engines) = 310 kts. Mean TAS (3 engines): 275 kts. Mean fuel flow (4 engines): 6500 kg/hr. mean F/F
(3 engines): 6350 kg/hr. Mean wind component( out) -45kts. Mean wind component (home) +35 kts.
What is the most distant point from which the aircraft can return to X if one engine becomes
unserviceable?
a. 532 nm
b. 492 nm
c. 474 nm
d. 512 nm

542. With the CG on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?
a. A decrease of stalling speed
b. A decrease in landing speed
c. A decrease in range
d. A tendency to yaw to the right on take off

543. Given that:

VEF= critical engine failure speed
VMCG= ground minimum control speed
VMCA= air minimum control speed
VMU= minimum unstick speed
V1= takeoff decision speed
VR= rotation speed
V2= minimum take off safety speed
The correct formula is:
a. V2 <= VEF <= VMU
 b. VMCG <= VEF < V1
c. 1.05 VMCA <= VEF <= V1
d. 1.05 VMCG < VEF <= VR

544. Stalling speed in landing configuration is defined as the stalling speed:

a. With flaps in landing configuration and gear down
b. With flaps in landing configuration and gear up
c. With flaps and gear up
d. With flaps up and gear down

545. Which of the following variables does not affect the value of VMC?
a. Altitude
b. Temperature
c. Weight
d. Increased engine power

546. An aircraft is descending in an isothermal layer at a constant mach number, so:

a. TAS of aircraft is increasing
b. TAS of aircraft is decreasing
c. TAS of aircraft is constant

547. EAS of an aircraft is:

a. IAS corrected for pressure error
b. CAS corrected for compressibility error
c. CAS corrected for compressibility error
d. IAS corrected for compressibility error

548. VMCG of an aircraft caters for:

a. Minimum controllability speed at one failed engine
b. Speed below which controls are not possible
c. Speed above which controls are not possible

549. V1 of an aircraft should not be below:

a. VMCG
b. VR
c. V2

550. If the CG of an airplane moves forward during flight, the elevator control will:
a. Become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to maneuver in pitch
b. Become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to maneuver in pitch
c. Become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to maneuver in pitch
d. Become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to maneuver in pitch
551. If the CG of an aircraft is forward of its limits then:
a. Its stalling speed increases
b. Its stalling speed decreases
c. Stalling speed remains constant

552. Which of the following factors favours for good takeoff and climb performance?
a. Less temperature, high pressure, less relative humidity, less density altitude
b. Less temperature, high pressure, high relative humidity, less density altitude
c. Less temperature, low pressure, less relative humidity, high density altitude

553. An aircraft is flying to an isolated aerodrome with fuel burn of 7500 kg/hr and 5000 kg/hr for hold,
will carry a reserve fuel of:
a. 15000 kg
b. 12500 kg
c. 5625 kg

554. With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same:
a. GS
b. CAS
c. TAS
d. EAS

555. The ASI measures:

a. Absolute pressure
b. Total pressure
c. Differential pressure
d. Relative pressure

556. IAS will:

a. Increase in headwind
b. Increase in tailwind
c. Decrease in tailwind
d. Remain unchanged in headwind and tailwind

557. If the OAT at 35000 ft is -40oC, the LSS is:

a. 307 kts
b. 247 kts
c. 596 kts
d. 686 kts

558. The principle of the mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio:
 a. (Pt + Ps) to Ps
b. Pt to Ps
c. (Pt – Ps) to Pt
d. (Pt – Ps) to Ps

559. At a constant mach number the CAS:

a. Remains unchanged when the OAT increases
b. Increases when the altitude increases
c. Decreases when the altitude increases
d. Remains unchanged when the OAT decreases

560. Sound propogates through the air at a speed which only depends on:
a. Temperature and pressure
b. Temperature
c. Pressure
d. Density

561. The purpose of IVSI is to:

a. Automatically initiate climbs and descents through the automatic flight control system
b. Give an instantaneous indication of the aircrafts vertical speed when a climb or descent is
initiated
c. Indicate to the pilot instantaneously when the aircraft pitches in turn, especially steep turns
d. Eliminate lag by passing static pressure directly into the case before entering the metering
unit

562. The rotational speed of an air driven gyro is usually:

a. 400-800 RPM
b. 9000-12000 RPM
c. 24000 RPM
d. 50 RPM

563. The error in a directional indicator caused by the convergence of the meridians in northerly and
southerly latitudes is called:
a. Mechanical error
b. Drift error
c. Transport error
d. Turning error

564. Assuming mid latitudes (40 to 50 N/S), at which time of the year is the relationship between the
length of day and night as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the
greatest rate?
a. Winter solstice and autumn equinox
 b. Spring equinox and autumn equinox
c. Summer solstice and winter solstice
d. Summer solstice and spring equinox

565. An aircraft departing A (N40o00’ E080o00’) flies a constant true track of 270 o at a ground speed of
120 kts. What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6 hours?
a. N40o00’ E070o30’
b. N40o00’ E064o20’
c. N40o00’ E060o00’
d. N40o00’ E068o10’

566. Latitude may be defined as:

a. The angular distance measured along a meridian from the equator to the parallel of
latitude measured in degrees, minutes and seconds and named north or south
b. The distance from equator to a place on the surface of the earth
c. The angle between the plane of the equator and the plane of parallel of latitude
d. The displacement of a plane from equator

567. You are flying from A (50N 10W) to B (58N 02E). what is the convergency between A and B?
a. 9.7 deg
b. 6.8 deg
c. 6.5 deg
d. 10.2 deg

568. ILS glidepath coverage, extends to a range of 10 nm and:

a. 13 deg either side of centerline
b. 18 deg either side of centerline
c. 28 deg either side of centerline
d. 8 deg either side of centerline

569. A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the
ASI to:
a. Read a little low
b. Freeze at zero
c. React like an altimeter
d. Read a little high

570. If the pitot line to an ASI becomes totally blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will:
a. Progressively decrease
b. Progressively increase
c. Drop to zero
d. Remain unchanged
571. The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aeroplane’s tanks is given as 3800 US
gallons. If the fuel density( SG) is given as 0.79, the mass of fuel which may be loaded is:
a. 11364 kg
b. 13647 kg
c. 18206 kg
d. 14383 kg

572. Loads must be adequately secured in order to:

a. Allow steep turns
b. Avoid any CG movement during flight
c. Avoid unplanned CG movement and aircraft damage
d. Prevent excessive g loading during landing flare

573. TET for an IFR flight, when filling the ICAO flight plan at box 16, is the time elapsed from:
a. Takeoff until landing
b. Takeoff until reaching the IAF of destination aerodrome
c. Taxi out prior to take off until taxiing after landing
d. Taxiing until the IAF of destination aerodrome

574. Consider the following statements on magnetic variation:

a. The largest values of variation are found along the anti meridians of magnetic poles
b. Variation will never exceed 90
c. The variation is east when true north seems to be located west of magnetic north
d. Variation will always increase when the total strength of the terrestrial magnetic field
increases

575. Given: TAS = 472kts. True hdg = 005 degrees. W/V = 110 (T)/ 50 kts. Calculate the drift angle and
GS.
a. 6 degrees right drift and 490kts GS.
b. 6 degrees left drift and 402kts GS.
c. 6 degrees right drift and 462kts GS.
d. 6 degrees left drift and 490kts GS.

576. The distance between point of departure and destination is 340nm and W/V is 100/25. TAS = 140
kts. True track = 135 degrees. Safe endurance = 3h 10mins. How long will it take to reach the point
of safe return?
a. 1h 21 mins.
b. 1h 30 mins.
c. 1h 37 mins.
d. 1h 49 mins.
577. How does the scale vary in a direct Mercator chart?
a. Scale increases with increasing distance north and south of the equator.
b. Scale decreases with increasing distance north and south of equator.
c. Scale is constant.
d. Scale increases south of equator and decreases north of equator.

578. The initial GC track from A to B is 080 degrees, and the RL track is 083 degrees. What is the initial
GC track from B to A and in which hemisphere are these two positions?
a. 266 degrees and northern hemisphere.
b. 260 degrees and northern hemisphere.
c. 260 degrees and southern hemisphere.
d. 266 degrees and southern hemisphere.

579. The GC bearing of position of B from A in the northern hemisphere is 040 degrees. If the conversion
angle is 4 degrees, what is the GC bearing of A from B?
a. 228 degrees.
b. 212 degrees.
c. 224 degrees.
d. 220 degrees.

580. The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth’s surface where:
a. A freely suspended magnet will stand vertical
b. A freely suspended magnet will stand horizontal
c. A position where horizontal component of earth’s magnetic is maximum.
d. The value of magnetic variation is 90 degrees.

581. The direction of true north for any observer is?

a. The direction of the observer’s meridian to the north pole.
b. The reading of the observer’s compass corrected for deviation and local variation.
c. The direction of Greenwich meridian to north pole.
d. The direction of observer’s magnetic north corrected for local variation.

582. At what approximate distance from the threshold would an aircraft intercept the glide path if the
aircraft height is 2500 ft, and the ILS glide path angle is 3 degrees?
a. 7.0 nm
b. 7.8 nm
c. 13.0 nm
d. 14.5 nm

583. Convert 70 metres/second into knots.

a. 35kts
b. 55kts
 c. 136kts
d. 146kts
584. If there is a 10 kt increase in headwind, by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in
order to maintain a 3 degree glide slope?
a. Must be increased by 30 ft/min.
b. Must be decreased by 30 ft/min.
c. Must be decreased by 50 ft/min.
d. gMust be increased by 50 ft/min.

585. The distance between A and B is 90nm. At a distance of 75 nm from A, the aircraft is 4nm right of
course. The track angle error is?
a. 3 degrees right.
b. 22 degrees right.
c. 6 degrees right.
d. 19 degrees right.

586. Two places on the parallel of 47 degrees S lie 813km apart. What is the dlong?
a. 4 degrees 51’.
b. 9 degrees 19’.
c. 4 degrees 39’.
d. 10 degrees.

587. What is the distance to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300kts and a safe
endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 50kts headwind?
a. 1458 nm.
b. 1505 nm.
c. 1554 nm.
d. 1625 nm.

588. Distance from A to B is 2346nm, GS out is 365 kts, GS home is 480 kts. The time from A to PET
between A and B is:
a. 167 min.
b. 219 min.
c. 290 min.
d. 197 min.

589. A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator 1: 3,704,000. What is the scale at latitude 60 degrees
south?
a. 1: 1,500,000.
b. 1: 2,000,000.
c. 1: 1,852,000.
d. 1: 7,408,000.
590. On a chart, distance along a meridian between latitudes 45 degrees north and 46 degrees north is 6
cm. What is the chart scale?
a. 1: 1,850,000.
b. 1: 2,000,000.
c. 1: 1,500,000.
d. 1: 1,650,000.

591. What is meant by “Aphelion”?

a. The point of the earth’s orbit furthest away from the sun.
b. The point of the sun’s orbit furthest away from the earth.
c. The point of the earth’s orbit closest to the sun.
d. The point of the sun’s orbit closest to the earth.

592. Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set
everyday?
a. 62 degrees.
b. 66 degrees.
c. 72 degrees.
d. 68 degrees.

593. Given: TAS = 135 kts. Heading( T) = 278. W/V = 140/20. Calculate Track (T) and GS.
a. 283 – 150 kts.
b. 005 – 150 kts.
c. 273 – 150 kts.
d. 280 – 150 kts.

594. On a Mercator chart, rhumb lines appears as a :

a. Small circles concave to the nearer pole.
b. Spiral curve.
c. Curve convex to the nearer pole.
d. Straight line.

595. What will be the ROD when flying down a 8 degree glide slope at a GS of 340 kts?
a. 2577 ft/ min.
b. 2757 ft/ min.
c. 2755 ft/ min.
d. 2775 ft/ min.

596. At the magnetic equator:

a. Variation is zero.
b. Deviation is zero.
 c. Dip is zero.
d. The agonic line is also an isogonal line.

597. An aircraft was over A at 1735 hours flying direct to B. Given: distance A to B is 2750 nm, TAS 470
kts, mean wind component out +55kts, mean wind component back -75 kts. The ETA for reaching
the PET between A and B is:
a. 1944.
b. 1846.
c. 1921.
d. 1950.

598. On a direct Mercator chart at latitude of 40 degrees north, a certain length represents a distance of
90 nm on earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude of 20 degrees
north, a distance of:
a. 100 nm.
b. 110 nm.
c. 120 nm.
d. 125 nm.

599. The main reason for the occurrence of seasons on the earth is:
a. The inclination of the earth axis with regard to the ecliptic plane.
b. The elliptical form of the orbit of the earth around the sun.
c. The length of the day stated by Kepler’s second law.
d. The distance between the sun and the moon.

600. In which statement is the “mean sun” best described?

a. The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at the spring
equinox and travelling along the celestial equator at uniform speed.
b. The mean sun is a fictitious sun coinciding each year with the apparent sun at the spring
equinox and travelling along the ecliptic at uniform speed.
c. The mean sun is a fictitious sun, the orbit of which coincides with that of the apparent sun,
but is corrected for mean astronomical and atmospheric refraction.
d. The mean sun is a fictitious sun whose orbit coincides with that of the apparent sun, but is
corrected for the mean difference in hour angle.

601. When the time is 2000 UTC, it is:

a. 1400 LMT at 90 degrees west.
b. 1200 LMT at 90 degrees east.
c. 2400 LMT at 120 degrees west.
d. 0800 LMT at the prime meridian.
602. An aircraft is following a true track of 048 degrees at a constant TAS of 210 kts. The wind velocity is
350/30. The ground speed and drift angle are:
a. 192 kts, 7 degrees right.
b. 196 kts, 7.5 degrees right.
c. 192 kts, 7 degrees left.
d. 196 kts,7.5 degrees left.

603. Given: TAS = 485 kts, OAT = ISA+10 degree Celsius, FL 410. Calculate mach number.
a. 0.852.
b. 0.833.
c. 0.825.
d. 0.815.

604. 265 US gallons equals: (specific gravity = 0.80)

a. 803 kg.
b. 810 kg.
c. 800 kg.
d. 813 kg.

605. An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its GS?
a. 160 kts.
b. 266 kts.
c. 26.6 kts.
d. 166 kts.

606. What is the ISA temperature at FL330?

a. -56.5 degree Celsius.
b. -53 degree Celsius.
c. -50 degree Celsius.
d. -52 degree Celsius.

607. What is the constant of the cone of a lambert’s conic projection whose standard parallels are at 50
degrees north and 70 degrees north?
a. 0.866.
b. 0.500.
c. 0.941.
d. 0.766.

608. How does the chart convergence change with latitude in a lambert conformal projection?
a. It is constant and does not change with latitude.
b. It changes with cosine of latitude.
c. It increases with increasing latitude.
 d. It changes with sin of latitude.

609. Where on a direct Mercator chart is the chart convergence correct compared to the earth
convergence?
a. At the equator.
b. All over the chart.
c. At the poles.
d. At the parallels of tangency.

610. What is the rhumb line distance, in nm, between two positions on latitude 60 degrees north, that
are separated by 10 degrees longitude?
a. 520 nm.
b. 300 nm.
c. 866 nm.
d. 600 nm.

611. Given: position A 45 degrees north … degrees east, position B 45 degrees north 45 degrees 15 mins
east. Distance A to B is 280 nm. B is to the east of A. What is the longitude of A?
a. 38 degrees 39’ E.
b. 49 degrees 57’ E.
c. 51 degrees 51’ E.
d. 40 degrees 33’ E.

612. True track = 245 degrees. Drift 5 degrees right. Variation 3 degrees east. Compass heading 242.
Calculate deviation.
a. 5 degrees west.
b. 5 degrees east.
c. 1 degree east.
d. 1 degree west.

613. In a remote indicating compass system, the amount of deviation caused by the aircraft magnetism
and electrical circuits may be minimized by:
a. Mounting the detector unit (flux valve) in the wing tip.
b. Mounting the flux valve in the cockpit.
c. Positioning the gyroscope in the centre of the aircraft.
d. Using a vertically mounted gyroscope instead of a horizontally mounted gyroscope.

614. The directive force:

a. Is the component of the earth’s magnetic field which aligns the compass needle.
b. Equals the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field.
c. Is zero at the geographic poles.
d. Is about twice as strong on 60 degrees north/south.
615. A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called
an:
a. Agonic line.
b. Aclinic line.
c. Isogonal line.
d. Isotach.

616. With an increase in magnetic latitude there will be a decrease in the:

a. Angle of dip.
b. Directive force.
c. Total magnetic force of the earth’s magnetic field.
d. Vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field.

617. Assuming zero wind, what distance is covered by an aircraft descending 15000 ft with a TAS of 320
kts and maintaining a ROD of 3000 ft/min.
a. 16.0 nm.
b. 26.7 nm.
c. 19.2 nm.
d. 38.4 nm.

618. Given: distance Q to R 2467 nm, GS out 500 kts, GS back 400 kts. Safe endurance is 9.5 hours. The
distance from Q to the PSR between Q and R is:
a. 2111 nm.
b. 2001 nm.
c. 2175 nm.
d. 2167 nm.

619. Given: distance Q to R 1760 nm. GS out is 450 kts. GS back is 370 kts. The time from Q to the PET
between Q and R is:
a. 121 min.
b. 116 min.
c. 100 min.
d. 106 min.

620. What is the time to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 300 kts and a safe
endurance of 4 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 20 kts headwind?
a. 2.1 hours.
b. 2.6 hours.
c. 2.9 hours.
d. 2.4 hours.
621. Given: chart scale is 1: 1,850,000. The chart distance between two points is 4 cm. What is the earth
distance?
a. 40 nm.
b. 35 nm.
c. 55 nm.
d. 50 nm.

622. When crossing the international date line, which of the following statements can be considered
correct?
a. The date will increase when going on a westerly heading.
b. The date will increase when going on an easterly heading.
c. There will be no change in date.
d. When crossing from west to east longitude then date will stay the same.

623. 1 US gallon equals:

a. 3.5 litres.
b. 4.3 litres.
c. 3.78 litres.
d. 3.65 litres.

624. An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 mins. How long does it take to travel 215 nm?
a. 50 mins.
b. 46 mins.
c. 48 mins.
d. 51 mins.

625. On which of the following chart projections is it not possible to represent the poles?
a. Polar stereographic.
b. Transverse Mercator.
c. Lambert’s conical.
d. Direct Mercator.

626. On a direct Mercator chart, meridians are:

a. Parallel, equally spaced, horizontal straight lines.
b. Converging curved lines.
c. Parallel, equally spaced, vertical straight lines.
d. Diverging curved lines.

627. In which of the following projections will a plane surface touch the reduced earth at one of the
poles?
a. Lambert’s.
b. Direct Mercator.
 c. Transverse Mercator.
d. Stereographic.

628. What is the length of 1 degree longitude at latitude 60 degrees south?

a. 30 nm.
b. 90 nm.
c. 60 nm.
d. 52 nm.

629. An aircraft flies the following RL tracks and distances from position 04 degrees 00’N 030 degrees
00’ W: 600 nm south, then 600 nm east, then 600 nm north and then 600 nm west. The final
position of the aircraft is:
a. 04 degrees 00’N 030 degrees 00’W.
b. 03 degrees 58’N 030 degrees 02’W.
c. 04 degrees 00’N 029 degrees 55’W.
d. 04 degrees 00’N 030 degrees 02’W.

630. Parallels of latitudes, except the equator are:

a. RL.
b. GCs.
c. Both RL and GC.
d. Neither RL or GC.

631. On a direct Mercator, RLs are:

a. Ellipses.
b. Curves convex to the equator.
c. Straight lines.
d. Curves concave to the equator.

632. What is magnetic variation?

a. Angle between magnetic north and true north.
b. Angle between magnetic heading and magnetic north.
c. Angle between the direction indicated by the compass and magnetic north.
d. Angle between true north and compass north.

633. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field:

a. Weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles.
b. Weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole.
c. Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60 degrees.
d. Is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50 degrees north and 50 degrees south.

634. Isogrivs on a chart indicates lines of:

 a. Zero magnetic variation.
b. Equal magnetic dip.
c. Equal horizontal directive force.
d. Equal grivation.

635. An agonic line is the line that connects:

a. Positions that have 0 variation.
b. Positions that have same variation.
c. Points of equal magnetic dip.
d. Points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength.

636. Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:

a. Magnetic track.
b. Compass heading.
c. True heading.
d. Magnetic course.

637. A negative magnetic variation signifies that:

a. Compass north is east of magnetic north.
b. Compass north is west of magnetic north.
c. True north is east of magnetic north.
d. True north is west of magnetic north.

638. Given: glide path angle = 3.5 degrees, GS = 150 kts. Approximate ROD is:
a. 900 ft/min.
b. 1000 ft/min.
c. 700 ft/min.
d. 800 ft/min.

639. An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum ROD is 1800 ft/min and
mean GS for descent is 276 kts. The minimum range from the DME at which the descent should start
is:
a. 69 nm.
b. 79 nm.
c. 49 nm.
d. 59 nm.

640. Convert 95 metres/second into knots.

a. 135 kts.
b. 155 kts.
c. 185 kts.
d. 166 kts.
641. What is the time to the point of safe endurance if an aircraft has a TAS of 350 kts and a safe
endurance of 10 hours, if the wind component on the outbound leg is 50 kts headwind?
a. 1714 nm.
b. 1750 nm.
c. 1754 nm.
d. 1725 nm.

642. An aeroplane is flying at a TAS 380 kts on a track of 090 degrees. The W/V is 045/50. How far can it
fly out from its base and return in one hour?
a. 187 nm.
b. 88 nm.
c. 156 nm.
d. 176 nm.

643. Approximately how many nm corresponds to 20 cm on a map with a scale of 1:2,000,000?

a. 216 nm.
b. 130 nm.
c. 200 nm.
d. 240 nm.

644. Given: chart scale is 1: 2,000,000. The chart distance between two points is 4 cm. earth distance is
approximately?
a. 30 nm.
b. 43 nm.
c. 55 nm.
d. 50 nm.

645. The first law of Kepler states that:

a. Planets move in elliptic orbits with the sun at one of the foci.
b. Planets move around the sun in a circular path.
c. All planets orbit around the sun at the same speed.
d. The angular speed of the planets in the orbit around the sun is constant.

646. Define equator.

a. It’s a GC with its plane parallel to the earth’s rotational axis.
b. It’s a small circle with its plane perpendicular to the earth’s rotational axis.
c. It’s a small circle with its plane parallel to the earth’s rotational axis.
d. It’s a GC with its plane perpendicular to the earth’s rotational axis.
647. A time difference of 5 hours 20 mins 20 seconds is equivalent to which change of longitude?
a. 81 degrees 30’.
b. 78 degrees 15’.
c. 79 degrees 10’.
d. 80 degrees 05’.

648. Civil twilight occurs between:

a. Sunrise and sunset.
b. Sunset and when the sun is 6 degrees below the horizon.
c. The times when the sun is between 6 degrees and 12 degrees below the horizon.
d. The times when the sun is between 12 degrees and 18 degrees below the horizon.

649. The angle between the plane of ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately:
a. 66.5 degrees.
b. 90 degrees.
c. 23.5 degrees.
d. 32.5 degrees.

650. What is the approximate circumference of the earth?

a. 5400 nm.
b. 11800 nm.
c. 21600 nm.
d. 43400 nm.

651. Given: TAS = 465 kts. Track(T) = 007 degrees. W/V is 300/80 kts. Calculate heading (T) and GS.
a. 358 – 428.
b. 356 – 428.
c. 358 – 420.
d. 356 – 424.

652. Given: variation = 6W. Signal lines Jan 2002. Average annual increase is 10 mins. Calculate the
variation in 2005.
a. 6.5 degrees west.
b. 6.3 degrees west.
c. 5.5 degrees west.
d. 5.5 degrees west.

653. What is the dip angle at the south magnetic pole?

a. 00 degrees.
b. 90 degrees.
c. 180 degrees.
d. 64 degrees.
654. If there is a decrease in headwind by 15 kts, by what amount must the rate of descent be changed
in order to maintain 3 degree glide slope?
a. Increased by 50 ft/min.
b. Decreased by 50 ft/min.
c. Decreased by 75 ft/min.
d. Increased by 75 ft/min.

655. When 65 m from a VOR you commence a descent from FL330 with the intention of arriving at the
VOR at FL100. What ROD is required your mean GS is 240 kts?
a. 1259 ft/min.
b. 1420 ft/min.
c. 1650 ft/min.
d. 1800 ft/min.

656. For an aircraft at a height of 2500 ft, interception of a 3 degree ILS glide path will occur at
approximately?
a. 7.0 nm from threshold.
b. 8.0 nm from threshold.
c. 13.1 nm from threshold.
d. 14.5 nm from threshold.

657. Kepler’s second law states that:

a. The length of the radius vector, sun to earth, is proportional to the square root of its
angular speed.
b. The area swept out by the radius vector of each planet, sun to earth, per hour, increasing
with increasing length of radius.
c. Each planet’s radius vector, sun to earth, moves at a constant angular speed.
d. Each planet revolves so that the radius vector, sun to earth, sweeps out equal areas in equal
intervals of time.

658. What is the correct definition of latitude of a position on the earth?

a. It’s the angle between the plane of the equator and the line from the centre of the earth to
the position.
b. It’s the angle between the plane of the prime meridian and the plane of the meridian of the
position.
c. It’s the angle between the earth’s rotational axis and the line from the centre of the earth
to the position.
d. It’s the angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the parallel of the position.

659. The time interval between sunrise and sunset is dependent on:
a. The declination of the sun and the latitude of the observer.
 b. The inclination of the axis of the earth and the longitude of the observer.
c. The date and longitude of the observer.
d. The latitude and longitude of the observer.

660. Which statement is correct?

a. The solar system consists of the sun, planets and stars.
b. The sun moves in an elliptical orbit around the earth.
c. The earth is one of the planets which are all moving in elliptical orbits around the sun.
d. The planets move around the sun like all the stars of the solar system.

661. When the time is 1400 LMT at 90 degrees west, it is:

a. 0600 LMT at prime meridian.
b. 1000 LMT at 60 degrees west.
c. 1400 LMT at 90 degrees east.
d. 1200 LMT at 120 degrees west.

662. At 0000 LMT of an observer:

a. The mean sun is in transit with the observer’s meridian.
b. The apparent sun is in transit with the observer’s anti meridian.
c. The apparent sun is in transit with the observer’s meridian.
d. The mean sun is in transit with the oberver’s anti meridian.

663. When proceeding on a given date, along a parallel towards the east, the moment of sunrise will
occur one hour earlier every 15 degrees of dlong when it is expressed in:
a. UTC.
b. Standard time.
c. LMT.
d. LAT (local apparent time).

664. At what approximate date is the earth farthest away from the sun?
a. Beginning of july.
b. End of September.
c. Beginning of January.
d. End of December.

665. At what times of the year does the length of the daylight change most rapidly?
a. Autumn equinox and winter solstice.
b. Spring equinox and autumn equinox.
c. Summer solstice and winter solstice.
d. Spring equinox and summer solstice.

666. What statements about meridians is correct?

 a. The plane of the meridian is parallel to the equator.
b. All meridians are parallel with the meridian at Greenwich.
c. A meridian and its anti meridian form a complete GC.
d. A meridian forms a complete GC.

667. The departure between positions 60 degrees N 160 degrees E and 60 degrees …… is 900 nm. What
is the longitude of the second point?
a. 170 degrees W.
b. 140 degrees W.
c. 145 degrees E.
d. 175 degrees E.

668. A RL is:
a. A line convex to the nearer pole on a Mercator projection.
b. A line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle.
c. The shortest distance between two points on a polyconic projection.
d. Any straight line on a lambert projection.

669. How do RL other than meridians, appear on a polar stereographic charts?

a. As straight lines.
b. As lines concave to the nearer pole.
c. As lines convex to the nearer pole.
d. As ellipses around the pole.

670. The direction “magnetic north” at a position on earth is:

a. The isogonal to the magnetic north pole.
b. The GC between the position and the magnetic NP.
c. The direction of the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at that position.
d. The compass north at that position, corrected for variation.

671. In case of accidental closing of an aircraft’s left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter?
a. Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information
during symmetric flight.
b. Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations.
c. Under reads the altitude.
d. Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information
during symmetric flight.

672. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another
altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal?
a. At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
 b. There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is functioning normally.
c. ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.
d. At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.

673. An Air Data Computer (ADC)?

a) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to provide
correct altitude reporting.
b) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instruments.
c) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source is
blocked.
d) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct
altitude and speed information.

674. In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from?

a) The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage.
b) Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT).
c) Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back.
d) Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage.

675. In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an
ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake?
a) Breaking the rate-of climb indicator glass window.
b) Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin.
c) Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible.
d) Calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the
instruments

676. The altimeter consist of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in
the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively?
a) (i) Static pressure (ii) Total pressure
b) (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure) (ii) Static pressure
c) (i) Static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t-t
d) (i) Total pressure (ii) Static pressure.

677. From the ISA table at page 35, the atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a “standard + 10” atmosphere
is?
a) 781.85 hPa
b) 942.13 hPa.
c) 1013.25 hPa.
d) 644.41 hPa

678. The QNH is by definition the value of the?

a) Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location
for which it is provided.
 b) Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over flown by the aircraft.
c) Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for
which it is given.
d) Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.

679. During a climb after take-off form a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the
airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot that indicated airspeed?
a) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
b) Increases steadily
c) Increases abruptly towards VNE.
d) Decreases steadily.

680. With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in
descent a?
a) Increasing speed.
b) Fluctuating speed
c) Decreasing speed.
d) Constant speed.

681. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe
inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated
airspeed?
a) Increases steadily.
b) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
c) Decreases steadily
d) Increases abruptly towards VNE.

682. The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially
with the?
a) Static temperature.
b) Mach number of the aircraft.
c) Deformation of the aneroid capsule.
d) Aircraft altitude.

683. The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding?

a) In standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.
b) In ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
c) In standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
d) In ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

684. The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a?
a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
b) Bi-metallic strip.
c) Return spring.
d) Second calibrated port.
685. The density altitude is?
a) The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of
the atmosphere.
b) The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and
standard temperature.
c) The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point.
d) The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point.

686. In case of accidental closing of an aircraft’s left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter?
a) Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information
during symmetric flight.
b) Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations.
c) Under reads the altitude.
d) Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information
during symmetric flight.

687. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another
altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal?
a) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
b) There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is functioning normally.
c) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.
d) At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.

688. An Air Data Computer (ADC)?

a) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to provide
correct altitude reporting.
b) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instruments.
c) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source is
blocked.
d) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct
altitude and speed information.

689. In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from?

a) The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage.
b) Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT).
c) Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back.
d) Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage.

690. In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an
ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake?
a) Breaking the rate-of climb indicator glass window.
b) Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin.
c) Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible.
 d) Calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the
instruments

691. The altimeter consist of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in
the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively?
a) (i) Static pressure (ii) Total pressure
b) (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure) (ii) Static pressure
c) (i) Static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t-t
d) (i) Total pressure (ii) Static pressure.

692. From the ISA table at page 35, the atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a “standard + 10” atmosphere
is?
a) 781.85 hPa
b) 942.13 hPa.
c) 1013.25 hPa.
d) 644.41 hPa

693. The QNH is by definition the value of the?

a) Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location
for which it is provided.
b) Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over flown by the aircraft.
c) Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for
which it is given.
d) Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.

694. During a climb after take-off form a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the
airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot that indicated airspeed?
a) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
b) Increases steadily
c) Increases abruptly towards VNE.
d) Decreases steadily.

695. With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in
descent a?
a) Increasing speed.
b) Fluctuating speed
c) Decreasing speed.
d) Constant speed.

696. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe
inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated
airspeed?
a) Increases steadily.
b) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
 c) Decreases steadily
d) Increases abruptly towards VNE.

697. The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially
with the?
a) Static temperature.
b) Mach number of the aircraft.
c) Deformation of the aneroid capsule.
d) Aircraft altitude.

698. The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding?

a) In standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.
b) In ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
c) In standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
d) In ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

699. The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a?
a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
b) Bi-metallic strip.
c) Return spring.
d) Second calibrated port.

700. The density altitude is?

a) The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of
the atmosphere.
b) The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and
standard temperature.
c) The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point.
d) The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point.

701. In case of accidental closing of an aircraft’s left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter?
a) Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information
during symmetric flight.
b) Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations.
c) Under reads the altitude.
d) Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information
during symmetric flight.

702. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another
altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal?
a) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
b) There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is functioning normally.
c) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.
d) At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.
703. An Air Data Computer (ADC)?
a) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to provide
correct altitude reporting.
b) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instruments.
c) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source is
blocked.
d) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct
altitude and speed information.

704. In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from?

a) The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage.
b) Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT).
c) Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back.
d) Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage.

705. In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an
ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake?
a) Breaking the rate-of climb indicator glass window.
b) Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin.
c) Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible.
d) Calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the
instruments

706. The altimeter consist of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in
the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively?
a) (i) Static pressure (ii) Total pressure
b) (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure) (ii) Static pressure
c) (i) Static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t-t
d) (i) Total pressure (ii) Static pressure.

707. From the ISA table at page 35, the atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a “standard + 10” atmosphere
is?
a) 781.85 hPa
b) 942.13 hPa.
c) 1013.25 hPa.
d) 644.41 hPa

708. The QNH is by definition the value of the?

a) Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location
for which it is provided.
b) Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over flown by the aircraft.
c) Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for
which it is given.
d) Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.
709. During a climb after take-off form a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the
airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot that indicated airspeed?
a) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
b) Increases steadily
c) Increases abruptly towards VNE.
d) Decreases steadily.

710. With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in
descent a?
a) Increasing speed.
b) Fluctuating speed
c) Decreasing speed.
d) Constant speed.

711. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe
inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated
airspeed?
a) Increases steadily.
b) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
c) Decreases steadily
d) Increases abruptly towards VNE.

712. The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially
with the?
a) Static temperature.
b) Mach number of the aircraft.
c) Deformation of the aneroid capsule.
d) Aircraft altitude.

713. The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding?

a) In standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.
b) In ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
c) In standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
d) In ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

714. The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a?
a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
b) Bi-metallic strip.
c) Return spring.
d) Second calibrated port.

715. The density altitude is?

a) The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of
the atmosphere.
 b) The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and
standard temperature.
c) The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point.
d) The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point.

716. The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the?

a) Time passed at a given altitude.
b) Mach number of the aircraft
c) Aircraft altitude.
d) Static temperature.

717. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will?
a) Under read.
b) Be just as correct as before.
c) Show the actual height above ground.
d) Over read.

718. At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed?
a) +/-60 feet.
b) +/-75 feet.
c) +/-30 feet.
d) +/-70 feet.

719. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers
below the aircraft are cold is?
a) Equal to the standard altitude.
b) Lower than the real altitude.
c) The same as the real altitude.
d) Higher than the real altitude.

720. The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to?

a) Allow damping of the measurement in the unit.
b) Reduce the hysteresis effect.
c) Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages.
d) Inform the crew of a failure of the instrument

721. The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a
slope of 3 degrees, indicates?
a) -300 ft/min
b) -150 ft/min.
c) -250 ft/min.
d) -500 ft/min
722. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers
below the aircraft are warm is?
a) Equal to the standard altitude.
b) Higher than the real altitude.
c) The same as the real altitude.
d) Lower than the real altitude.

723. The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate then the simple
pressure altimeter is the use of?
a) A sub-scale logarithmic function.
b) An induction pick-off device.
c) More effective temperature compensating leaf springs.
d) Combination of counters/pointers.

724. What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a static vent at each
side of the fuselage, but the left one is blocked?
a) Over read
b) Under read.
c) No change.
d) Depends on altitude.

725. From what is true altitude derived?

a) Pressure altitude.
b) Density altitude.
c) Temperature altitude.
d) Difference between total pressure and static pressure.

726. What is QNH?

a) Ambient pressure at the airfield.
b) Sea level pressure based on ambient pressure at the airfield.
c) See level pressure.
d) Sea level pressure in the ISA.

727. What is QNH?

a) Ambient pressure at msl.
b) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain an indication of zero on the runway.
c) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain a reading of the pressure altitude of
the runway.
d) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain density altitude when on the runway.

728. What is the true altitude of an aircraft if its altimeter indicated 16000 ft when the ambient
temperature was -30° C?
a) 15200 ft.
b) 15400 ft.
c) 16200 ft.
 d) 16400 ft.

729. What will happen to the indicated altitude if an aircraft in level flight passes into a warmer air
mass?
a) Over indicate.
b) Under indicate.
c) Not change.
d) Remain constant only if above the tropopause.

730. What is density altitude?

a) Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature.
b) True altitude.
c) Pressure altitude corrected for density changes.
d) True altitude corrected for density changes.

731. What will happen if an aircraft has two altimeters, one of which is compensated for position error,
whilst the other is not?
a) One will over read at high airspeeds.
b) One will under read at high airspeeds.
c) One will under read close to the ground.
d) The ADC will compensate automatically, so both with read correctly.

732. Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters?

a) Overcome friction.
b) Overcome inertia.
c) Overcome hysterisis.
d) Reduce lag.

733. What will happen to altimeter indication if an aircraft in level flight enters a cold front?
a) Over indication.
b) Under indication.
c) No change.
d) No change above the tropopause.

734. The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the?

a) Time passed at a given altitude.
b) Mach number of the aircraft
c) Aircraft altitude.
d) Static temperature.

735. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will?
a) Under read.
b) Be just as correct as before.
c) Show the actual height above ground.
d) Over read.
736. At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed?
a) +/-60 feet.
b) +/-75 feet.
c) +/-30 feet.
d) +/-70 feet.

737. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers
below the aircraft are cold is?
a) Equal to the standard altitude.
b) Lower than the real altitude.
c) The same as the real altitude.
d) Higher than the real altitude.

738. The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to?

a) Allow damping of the measurement in the unit.
b) Reduce the hysteresis effect.
c) Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages.
d) Inform the crew of a failure of the instrument

739. The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a
slope of 3 degrees, indicates?
a) -300 ft/min
b) -150 ft/min.
c) -250 ft/min.
d) -500 ft/min

740. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers
below the aircraft are warm is?
a) Equal to the standard altitude.
b) Higher than the real altitude.
c) The same as the real altitude.
d) Lower than the real altitude.

741. The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate then the simple
pressure altimeter is the use of?
a) A sub-scale logarithmic function.
b) An induction pick-off device.
c) More effective temperature compensating leaf springs.
d) Combination of counters/pointers.

742. What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a static vent at each
side of the fuselage, but the left one is blocked?
a) Over read
b) Under read.
 c) No change.
d) Depends on altitude.

743. From what is true altitude derived?

a) Pressure altitude.
b) Density altitude.
c) Temperature altitude.
d) Difference between total pressure and static pressure.

744. What is QNH?

a) Ambient pressure at the airfield.
b) Sea level pressure based on ambient pressure at the airfield.
c) See level pressure.
d) Sea level pressure in the ISA.

745. What is QNH?

a) Ambient pressure at msl.
b) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain an indication of zero on the runway.
c) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain a reading of the pressure altitude of
the runway.
d) The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain density altitude when on the runway.

746. What is the true altitude of an aircraft if its altimeter indicated 16000 ft when the ambient
temperature was -30° C?
a) 15200 ft.
b) 15400 ft.
c) 16200 ft.
d) 16400 ft.

747. What will happen to the indicated altitude if an aircraft in level flight passes into a warmer air
mass?
a) Over indicate.
b) Under indicate.
c) Not change.
d) Remain constant only if above the tropopause.

748. What is density altitude?

a) Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature.
b) True altitude.
c) Pressure altitude corrected for density changes.
d) True altitude corrected for density changes.

749. What will happen if an aircraft has two altimeters, one of which is compensated for position error,
whilst the other is not?
a) One will over read at high airspeeds.
 b) One will under read at high airspeeds.
c) One will under read close to the ground.
d) The ADC will compensate automatically, so both with read correctly.

750. Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters?

a) Overcome friction.
b) Overcome inertia.
c) Overcome hysterisis.
d) Reduce lag.

751. What will happen to altimeter indication if an aircraft in level flight enters a cold front?
a) Over indication.
b) Under indication.
c) No change.
d) No change above the tropopause.

752. During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. this is an indication of
the true.
a) Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
b) Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.
c) Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
d) Altitude of the aircraft.

753. For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the?
a) Height indication is removed.
b) DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds.
c) DH lamp flashes red.
d) Audio warning signal sounds.

754. A radio altimeter can be defined as a?

a) Ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
b) Ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
c) Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
d) Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.

755. The data supplied by a radio altimeter?

a) Indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.
b) Concerns only the decision height.
c) Is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.
d) Is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.

756. the low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:

a) Operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.
b) Are of the pulsed type.
c) Are of the frequency modulation type.
 d) Have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.
e) Have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.

The combination of the correct statements is?

a. 3, 5.
b. 3, 4.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 2, 3, 4.
e. 1, 2, 5.

757. In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on the
ground. For this, it is necessary to?
a) Change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.
b) Compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial cables
length.
c) Account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the readings.
d) Place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.

758. The operating frequency range of a altitude radio altimeter is?

a) 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.
b) 5 GHz
c) 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
d) 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.

759. Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band?
a) HF (High Frequency).
b) UHF (Ultra High frequency).
c) SHF (Super High Frequency).
d) VLF (Very Low Frequency).

760. The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on?
a) Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
b) A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation,
c) Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
d) Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.

761. In low altitude radio altimeters height measurement (above ground) is based upon?
a) A triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted
and received waves after ground reflection is measured.
b) A frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted
wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.
c) A pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a
circular scanning screen.
 d) A wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is
measured.

762. the aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the?
a) Weathe radar.
b) Primary radar.
c) Radio altimeter.
d) High altitude radio altimeter.

763. a radio altimeter is?

a) Aircraft based and indicates true altitude.
b) Aircraft based and indicates pressure altitude.
c) Aircraft based and indicates true height.
d) Ground based and employ microwaves.

764. Radio altimeters are based on the principle of?

a) Frequency modulated carrier wave.
b) Pulse modulated carrier wave.
c) Amplitude modulated carrier wave.
d) Continuous wave.

765. Low altitude radio altimeters operate on the …….. Waveband?

a) HF.
b) VHF.
c) UHF.
d) SHF.

766. If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a) The VSI indication will be too low when climbing.
b) The VSI will be too low when descending.
c) The VSI will not be affected.
d) The VSI will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.

767. If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a) The VSI indication will be too high when descending.
b) The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating.
c) The VSI indication will be too low when climbing or descending.
d) The VSI indication will be unaffected.

768. VSI lag is reduced by?

a) Two dashpots responding to acceleration.
b) Two return springs.
c) Bi-metallic strips.
d) Electronic systems.
769. If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked?
a) The VSI indication will be too high when climbing.
b) The VSI indication will be too low when descending.
c) The VSI indication will be too high at all times.
d) The VSI indication will be too high when climbing or descending.

770. The correct action to be taken when the static vent blocks on an unpressurised aircraft is to?
a) Break the VSI glass.
b) Use the standby static source.
c) Calculate ROC using mathematically.
d) Open a window the equalise pressures.

771. If the casing of a VSI in a pressurised aircraft develops a leak?

a) VSI indications will be too low when climbing or descending.
b) VSI indications will be too high when climbing or descending.
c) VSI indications will be too low when climbing and too high when descending.
d) VSI indications will be too high when climbing and too low when descending.

772. A VSI?
a) Produces an output proportional to ambient pressure.
b) Measures the difference between total pressure and static pressure.
c) Measures the difference between the pressure inside and outside a capsule.
d) Measures only dynamic pressure.

773. A VSI indicates increasing ROD by?

a) VSI needle moving downwards.
b) VSI needle moving upwards.
c) VSI needle stationary.
d) The VSI indicates only vertical speeds, not accelerations.

774. As an aircraft moves close to the ground during a landing the VSI might?
a) Become inaccurate due to ground effect.
b) Become inaccurate due to turbulence.
c) Stick due to loss of pitot source.
d) Become inaccurate due to aircraft attitude changes.

775. What should the VSI indicate when an aircraft on a 3 degree glideslope is flying at 100 Kts TAS?
a) 224 fpm descent.
b) 324 fpm descent.
c) 424 fpm descent.
d) 524 fpm descent.

776. If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a) The VSI indication will be too high with descending.
b) The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating at constant descending.
 c) The VSI indication will be too low at all times.
d) The VSI indication will be too low when descending.

777. If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a) The VSI indication will over read when descending.
b) The VSI will be unaffected.
c) The VSI will over under read at all times.
d) The VSI will read zero at all times.

778. The response rate of a VSI can be improved by fitting a?

a) Accelerometer system.
b) Choke system.
c) Bi-metalic compensator.
d) Return spring.

779. If the port static vent of a large aircraft is blocked, what will happen to the VSI indications when it is
side slipping to the left in a descent?
a) Over indicate.
b) Under indicate.
c) Be unaffected.
d) Fluctuate.

780. Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed
(VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to
meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the
descent. He will be limited?
a) By the MMO.
b) By the VMO in still air.
c) Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.
d) Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level.

781. In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is?
a) Lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
b) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
c) Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
d) Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).

782. With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the
same?
a) Calibrated airspeed.
b) Ground speed.
c) True airspeed.
d) Equivalent airspeed.

783. The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS)?
 a) A compressibility and density correction.
b) An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
c) An antenna and compressibility correction.
d) An instrument and density correction.

784. The velocity maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed in?

a) True airspeed (TAS).
b) Computed airspeed (COAS).
c) Calibrated airspeed (CAS).
d) Equivalent airspeed (EAS).

785. the limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a) VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.
b) VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
c) VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
d) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.

786. The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a) VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
b) VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit.
c) VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.
d) VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.

787. The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a) VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
b) VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
c) VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
d) VNE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.

788. During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)?
a) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
b) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
c) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
d) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.

789. VLE is the maximum?

a) Speed authorized in flight.
b) Flight speed with landing gear down.
c) Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety
d) Speed with flaps extended in a given position.

790. VLO is the maximum?

a) Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
b) Flight speed with landing gear down.
c) Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
 d) Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

791. VNE is the maximum speed?

a) At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
b) With flaps extended in landing position
c) Which must never be exceeded.
d) Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

792. VNO is the maximum speed?

a) Which must never be exceeded.
b) At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
c) With flaps extended in landing position.
d) Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

793. For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result
in a?
a) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
b) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
c) Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
d) Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.

794. When a climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will?
a) Decrease.
b) Increase at a linear rate.
c) Remain constant.
d) Increase at an exponential rate.

795. How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft is flying at constant CAS at FL 270 when it
experiences a reduction in OAT?
a) No change.
b) Increase.
c) Decrease.
d) Increase or decrease depending on TAT.

796. What is the LSS at 30000 ft if ambient temperature is -40° C?

a) 579 Kts.
b) 660 Kts.
c) 584 Kts.
d) 594 Kts.

797. Which of the following best defines Mach number?

 a) The ratio at TAS:LSS.
b) The ratio of LSS:TAS
c) The ratio of CAS:LSS
d) The ratio of ambient density to that at msl in the ISA.

798. A mach meter comprises of?

a) A combination of ASI and altimeter.
b) A combination of VSI and altimeter.
c) An ASI with its scale marked in mach numbers.
d) An altimeter with its scale marked in mach numbers.

799. what us tge KSS at 40000 ft in the ISA?

a) 542 Kts.
b) 660 Kts.
c) 573 Kts.
d) 550 Kts.

800. How ill mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb?
a) Increase.
b) Decrease.
c) Increase then remain constant.
d) Remain constant.

801. what is the LSS at msl ISA?

a) 600 Kts.
b) 550 Kts.
c) 750 Kts.
d) 661 Kts.

802. Mach meter indications?

a) Vary with airspeed and temperature
b) Vary only with airspeed.
c) Vary only with temperature.
d) Vary with density and altitude.

803. How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front when flying at
constant CAS and altitude?
a) increase
b) Decrease.
c) Remain constant.
d) Increase or decrease depending. On altitude.

804. How will the mach meter respond in a constant CAS climb if the static source becomes blocked?
a) increase
b) Decrease.
 c) Remain constant
d) Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.

805. How will the mach meter respond in a constant TAS climb if the static source becomes blocked?
a) Increase.
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant.
d) Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.

806. How will mach meter respond in a constant mach number climb if the static source becomes
blocked?
a) Increase.
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant.
d) Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.

807. The indications on a mach meter are independent of?

a) Dynamic pressure.
b) Ambient temperature.
c) Static pressure.
d) Total pressure.

808. What happens to mach meter indication in a constant RAS climb?

a) Increases.
b) Decreases.
c) Increases then remains constant.
d) Increases unless in an inversion or isothermal layer.

809. What would happen if the static pipe became detached from the back of a mach meter in a
pressurised aircraft at high altitude?
a) Under read.
b) Over read.
c) No effect.
d) Under read or over read depending on temperature.

810. The building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the concentration of
the mass?
a) Close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.
b) On the periphery and with a high rotation speed.
c) Close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.
d) On the periphery and with a low rotation speed.

811. A Standby horizon or emergency attitude indicator?

a) Only works of there is a complete electrical failure.
b) Contains its own separate gyro.
 c) Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails.
d) Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation.

812. The basis properties of a gyroscope are?

1. The gyro’s weight.
2. The rigidity in space.
3. The inertia.
4. The high RPM.
5. The precession

The combination of correct statements is?

a. 3, 4.
b. 2, 5.
c. 2, 3, 5.
d. 1, 3, 5.

813. The indications of the directional gyro when used as an on-board instrument are valid only for a
short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are?
1. The earth’s rotation.
2. The longitudinal acceleration.
3. The aircraft’s motion over the surface of the earth.
4. The mechanical defects of the gyro.
5. The gyro’s weight.
6. The gimbals mount of the gyro rings.

The combination of correct statements is?

a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
c. 2, 5, 6.
d. 1, 3, 4, 6.

814. The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilised compass system are?
a) One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is
maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
b) Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is
maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
c) Two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained in
this direction by an erecting system.
d) One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system.

815. A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on?
a) An artificial horizon
b) A directional gyro unit.
 c) A turn indicator.
d) A gyro-magnetic indicator.

816. When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the
following on a classic artificial horizon?
a) Too much nose-up and bank correct.
b) Too much nose-up and bank too high.
c) Attitude and bank correct.
d) Too much nose-up and bank too low.

817. When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the
following on a classic artificial horizon?
a) Too much nose-up and bank too high.
b) Too much nose-up and bank too low.
c) Attitude and bank correct.
d) Too much nose-up and bank correct.

818. Note: in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the number of gimbal
rings it comprises. Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential
part. It uses a gyroscope with?
a) Two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continuously maintained to local vertical
by an automatic erecting system.
b) Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is
maintained in a horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in a
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
c) One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system.
d) One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction of the real vertical to the
location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.

819. a slaved directional gyro derives it’s directional signal from?

a) a direct reading magnetic compass.
b) The flight director.
c) The flux valve.
d) The air-data-computer.

820. a turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with?

a) 1 degree of freedom.
b) 3 degree of freedom.
c) 2 degree of freedom.
d) 0 degree of freedom.

821. the indication on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to:
1. Rotation of Earth.
2. Aeroplane motion on Earth.
3. Lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
4. North change.
5. Mechanical defects.

Choose the combination with true statements only?

a. 2, 3, 5.
b. 1, 2, 3, 5.
c. 3, 4, 5.
d. 1, 2, 4, 5.

822. At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the?
a) Angular velocity of the aircraft.
b) Yaw rate of the aircraft.
c) Pitch rate of the aircraft.
d) Roll rate of he aircraft.

823. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis
is?
a) An artificial horizon.
b) A turn indicator.
c) A fluxgate compass.
d) A directional gyro.

824. When, in flight, the needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is?
a) Turning left with too much bank
b) Turning right with not enough bank
c) Turning right with too much bank
d) Turning left with not enough bank

825. How many degrees of freedom and what is the spin axis of an attitude indicator?
a) Local earth vertical two degrees of freedom.
b) Aircraft lateral axis two degrees of freedom.
c) Aircraft horizontal axis one degree of freedom.
d) Aircraft longitudinal axis three degrees of freedom.

826. What could be the indication on an attitude indicator in a right turn?

a) Climb due to pendulous vanes.
b) No climb.
c) Descent due to pendulous vanes.
d) Correct pitch and bank at all times.

827. What will a classic artificial horizon indicate when turning through 90 degrees at constant attitude
and bank angle?
a) Correct bank angle and attitude.
 b) Too much bank and too much nose up attitude.
c) Too little bank and too little nose up attitude.
d) Too little bank and too much nose up attitude.

828. An AI has?
a) one degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis.
b) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
c) Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
d) One degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

829. How will a basic AI respond if an aircraft performs a 270 degree turn at constant bank angle and
ROT?
a) Nose up and bank
b) Nose down and bank
c) Nose level and bank
d) Correct bank and pitch.

830. Aircraft attitude is indicated on?

a) EICAS/ECAM primary display.
b) EFIS ND.
c) EFIS PFD.
d) All of the above.

831. when turning through 90° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon
indicate?
a) Too much nose up and too little bank angle.
b) Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
c) Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
d) Too little nose up and too much bank angle.

832. when turning through 270° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon
indicate?
a) Too much nose up and too little bank angle.
b) Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
c) Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
d) Too little nose up and too much bank angle.

833. an artificial horizon has?

a) Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis
b) Two degrees of freedom and a longitudinal spin axis.
c) Two degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis.
d) No degrees of freedom because it is earth tied.

834. The latitude nut …………an artificial horizon?

a) Compensates for transport error.
 b) Is not fitted to.
c) Compensates for latitude error.
d) Compensates for earth rate errors.

835. the gravity sensing unit in an artificial horizon is used to?

a) prevent tilting of the gyro
b) prevent precession of the gyro.
c) Erect the gyro.
d) Provide signals to the autopilot.

836. classic artificial horizon indications turning through 180° at constant AOB?
a) Nose up and AOB too low.
b) Nose up and AOB too high.
c) Nose up and correct AOB.
d) Pitch attitude and AOB correct.

837. An artificial horizon has…. Degrees of freedom in the …… axis?

a) Two vertical.
b) Two horizontal.
c) One vertical.
d) One horizontal.

838. Which or the following properties are possessed by a standby artificial horizon?
1. Independent power supply.
2. Integral gyro.
3. Remote (external) gyro.
4. Used only in emergencies.
5. At least one per pilot in JAR 25 aircraft.

a. 1, 2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 3, 4.
d. 4, 5.

839. If an aircraft turns through 270° at a constant rate of turn and AOB, the indications on its classic
artificial horizon will be?
a) Bank left nose up.
b) Bank right nose up.
c) Wings level nose up.
d) AOB and pitch attitude correct.

840. The ball in a serviceable slip indicator is ……..by ………..and ………….indicate/s the state of slip?
a) Held central Gravity Does not always.
b) Positioned Acceleration Does not always.
c) Held central Gravity Always.
 d) Positioned Acceleration Always.

841. The turn indicator is affected by?

1. AOB.
2. Airspeed.
3. Weight.
4. Altitude.

a. 1, 2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 3, 4.
d. 4, 5.

842. A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator will show?
1. Turn direction.
2. Rate of turn.
3. Angular velocity about the true vertical axis.
4. Angular velocity about the aircraft vertical axis.
5. Angular velocity about the longitudinal axis.

a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 2, 4.
d. 2, 3, 5.

843. ROT indications are?

a) Proportional to TAS.
b) Proportional to CAS.
c) Proportional to mass.
d) Proportional to EAS.

844. A turn indicator has?

1) A horizontal spin axis.
2) A vertical spin axis.
3) One degree of freedom.
4) Two degrees of freedom.
5) A spin axis tied to the yawing plane of the aircraft.
6) A gravity erecting unit.

a. 1, 3.
b. 1, 5.
c. 3, 5.
d. 4, 6.

845. When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the aircraft is?
 a) Turning right with insufficient bank.
b) Turning right with too much bank.
c) Turning left with too much bank.
d) Turning left with insufficient bank.

846. When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the aircraft is?
a) Turning right with too much TAS.
b) Turning right with insufficient TAS.
c) Turning left with too much TAS.
d) Turning left with insufficient TAS.

847. When the needle is displaced right and the ball displaced left, in a turn and slip indicator, the
aircraft is?
a) Turning right with insufficient bank.
b) Turning left with too much bank.
c) Turning left with insufficient TAS.
d) Turning right with too much bank.

848. The turn needle indicates ….. in a slightly banked turn?

a) Angular velocity about the vertical axis.
b) Angular acceleration about the vertical axis.
c) Angular velocity about the lateral axis.
d) Yaw displacement.

849. A rate 1 turn at 120 kts requires?

a) 10° AOB.
b) 20° AOB.
c) 30° AOB.
d) 40° AOB.

850. The correct turn and slip indications when turning right on the ground are?
a) Needle and ball right.
b) Needle and ball left.
c) Needle right and ball left.
d) Needle left and ball right.

851. ROT indications depend on?

1. Airspeed.
2. Mass.
3. AOB.

a) 1, 2.
b) 2, 3.
c) 1, 3.
d) 1, 2, 3.
852. For a rate one turn at 150 Kts the AOB must be?
a) 22°.
b) 33°.
c) 44°.
d) 55°.

853. Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to arrest the yaw,
whilst side slipping down track with the wings held level by the ailerons. What will the turn and slip
indicator show in this condition.
a) Both needle and ball central.
b) Both needle and ball right.
c) Both needle and ball left.
d) Needle left and ball right.

854. Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to oppose yaw and
keep the aircraft on heading, whilst using bank to prevent side slip. What will the turn and slip
indicator show?
a) Both needle and ball central
b) Both needle and ball right.
c) Both needle and ball left.
d) Needle central and ball right.

855. What is the Schuler period?

a) 48 minutes.
b) 84 seconds.
c) 48 seconds.
d) 84 minutes.

856. to obtain heading information from a gryo-stabilised platform, the gyros should be?
a) 1 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis.
b) 1 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis.
c) 2 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis.
d) 2 degree of freedom and a vertical axis.

857. While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with
the following characteristics,. In order to keep the vertical line with the pendulous system?
a) With damping and a period of about 84 minutes
b) With damping and a period of about 84 seconds.
c) Without damping and a period of about 84 minutes.
d) Without damping and a period of about 84 seconds.

858. Heading information given by a gyro platform is given by a gyro with?

a) 3 degrees of freedom in the vertical axis.
b) 3 degrees of freedom in the horizontal axis.
 c) 2 degrees of freedom in the vertical axis.
d) 1 degrees of freedom in the horizontal axis.

859. the ALERT light on an INS control and display unit?

a) illuminates steadily for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint.
b) Flashes for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint.
c) Illuminates if power from the aircraft bus bar has been lost and the system is operating on
standby battery.
d) Illuminates steadily after passing a waypoint in manual mode, until the next leg is programmed
in.

860. At the second state of integration E/W speed is converted into E/W distance gone. To convert this
departure into change of longitude it has to?
a) Be divided by the secant of latitude.
b) Be multiplied by the secant of latitude.
c) Be divided by the tangent of latitude.
d) Be multiplied by the Cosine of latitude.

861. An INS with the accelerometers aligned N/S and E/W is limited to use at latitudes below about 82°.
This is because?
a) It loses horizontal reference as dip becomes large.
b) At high speed on East or West tracks the rate of convergency is faster than the azimuth motor
can correct.
c) The functions of secant latitude and tangent altitude used in certain corrections in the
computer start to approach infinity and the computer cannot handle the rapid changes
involved.
d) The correction for the Coriolis Effect of the earth rotation approaches infinity above 82° latitude.

862. The errors of INS fall into three categories?

a) Bounded, unbounded and velocity.
b) Coriolis, unbounded and inherent.
c) Bounded, unbounded and inherent.
d) Bounded, unbounded and accelerometer.

863. The vertical reference unit of a three axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with?
a) 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
b) 1 degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
c) 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.
d) 2 degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

864. With reference to Inertial Navigation Systems, the functions of the integrator are?
1. At the second stage integration to suppress unbounded errors (when in nav mode).
2. At the first stage of integration to convert accelerations with respect to time, into speed,
(when in nav mode).
 3. at the second stage of integration to convert speed with respect to time, into distance gone,
(when in nav mode).
4. To align the platform (when in level and align modes).

a. All of the above statements are correct.

b. Only statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
c. Only statements 1, 2 and 3, are correct.
d. Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

865. Ring laser gyros use dither motors to?

a) Reduce random wander.
b) Prevent unbounded errors.
c) Level and align the gyros.
d) Prevent lock in of the laser beams.

866. The product of the first integration of the E/W acceleration sensed by an INS system is?
a) Departure.
b) Speed along the local parallel.
c) Speed along the local horizontal.
d) Distance.

867. Why is an INS platform virtually unusable at very high latitudes?

a) The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the
sine lat. At high latitudes this component id nearly zero and makes alignment to true north
virtually impossible.
b) The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the
sine lat. At high altitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to true magnetic
virtually impossible.
c) The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the
cosine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to magnetic
north virtually impossible.
d) The value of the earth rate affecting the E/W accelerometer is a component dependent on the
cosine lat. At high latitudes this component is nearly zero and makes alignment to true north
virtually impossible.

868. A longitude error in an INS will cause:

a) A failure to align.
b) Poor alignment degraded accuracy.
c) Will be corrected for once the E/W accelerometer has aligned to true north.
d) Will cause no problems at all.

869. When using an INS platform coriolis affects?

a) The N/S accelerometer.
b) The E/W accelerometer.
c) Both a, and b.
 d) Neither a, nor b.

870.The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to?

a) Tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required.
b) Help Auto Pilot to compensate for crosswind influence.
c) Trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation.
d) Control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load.

871.the purpose of Auto Throttle is?

a) Automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature.
b) To deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilot.
c) To synchronize engines to avoid “yawing”.
d) To maintain constant engine power or airplane speed.

872.in order to know in which mode the auto-throttles areengaged, the crew will check the?
a) ND (Navigation Display).
b) TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
c) Throttles position.
d) PFD (Primary Flight Display).

873.Mode “Localizer ARM” active on Flight Director means?

a) Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized.
b) Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centerline.
c) Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears.
d) System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing centre line.

874.the altitude select system?

a) Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at Selected altitude.
b) Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching selected altitude.
c) Illuminates a light with selected altitude is attained.
d) Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude.

875.The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot calculator in order to
stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the?
1) Difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.
2) Rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude
is high.
3) Temperature is low.
4) Pressure altitude is high.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?

a) 1, 2.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
c) 1, 2, 3.
 d) 2, 3, 4.

876.the correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot calculator in order to keep a
given altitude will be all the more significant when the?
1) difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference altitude and the
instantaneous attitude is high.
2) Variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary to maintain the altitude and
the instantaneous attitude is high.
3) Difference between the altitude of reference and the instantaneous altitude is high.
4) Variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude
is high.

The combination regrouping the correct statements is?

a) 1, 2, 3, and 4.
b) 1 and 2.
c) 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3.

877.An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot?

a) And the auto-throttle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll.
b) Ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the human pilot controls the
power.
c) And the auto-throttle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out.
d) And the auto-throttle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out while the human
pilot controls the power.

878.A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined aircraft for cargo transport.
The purpose of the automatic pilot is at least to hold the?
a) Heading.
b) Altitude.
c) Heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking function.
d) Heading and to hold the altitude.

879.Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are?
1) Pitch attitude holding.
2) Horizontal wing holding.
3) Indicated airspeed or Mach number holding.
4) Altitude holding.
5) VOR axis holding.
6) Yaw damping.

The combination regrouping all the correct statement is?

a) 1, 3 , 4 and 5.
b) 3, 4 and 5.
 c) 1, 2 and 6.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 6.

880. The essential components of a flight director are:

1). A computer.
2). An automatic pilot.
1) An autothrottle.
2) Command bars.

The combination of correct statements is?

a. 2,4
b. 2,3
c. 1,4
d. 1,2

881. The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot?
a) Allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45° intercept angle.
b) Allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30° intercept angle.
c) Allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way.
d) About his position with regard to a radio-electric axis.

882. Flight Director information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars
on the following instrument?
a) ADI Attitude Display Indicator.
b) BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.
c) RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.
d) HIS Horizontal Situation Indicator.

883. The “heading hold” mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a course to steer of 180°. Your
aircraft holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD?
a) Cannot be centered.
b) Is centered if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading 180°.
c) Is centered if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20°.
d) Is centered if the aircraft has a port drift of 20°.

884. The Flight Director bars are?

a) Always visible in flight.
b) Always visible in automatic flight.
c) Sometimes visible in automatic flight.
d) Never visible in automatic flight.

885. The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an?
a) HIS (Horizontal Situation Indicator).
 b) RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator).
c) ILS (Instrument Landing System).
d) ADI (Attitude Director Indicator).

886. In a basic ECAM system?

a) The left screen show information in checklist and memo form, while the right screen shows
relevant diagrams.
b) The right screen shows information in checklist or memo form, whilst the left screen shows the
relevant diagrams.
c) The left screen is normally blank with the right showing primary engine data.
d) The right screen is normally blank with the left showing primary engine data.

887. The basic ECAM system has?

a) Three automatic modes and one manual mode.
b) Four automatic modes and one manual mode.
c) Three manual modes and one automatic mode.
d) No manual modes.

888. A message enclosed within a box?

a) Is used in EICAS to show a system which is unserviceable.
b) Is used in ECAM to show a system which is unserviceable.
c) Is used in ECAM to show a system which although serviceable, is rendered non-operational due
to the failure of a different system.
d) Is used in ECAM to show a system which although serviceable, is rendered non-operational
due to the failure of a different system.

889. ECAM provides?

a) Information in checklist or memo format on the left or upper display and a synoptic diagram
on the right or lower display.
b) Information in checklist or memo format on the right or lower display and a synoptic diagram on
the left or upper display.
c) No information about the engines.
d) Information about the engines only on the right or lower displays.

890. If a screen fails in a basic (non-EFIS equipped) ECAM system?

a) The information that would normally appear on that screen is displayed in compacted format on
the other screen.
b) The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is provided on conventional
analogue displays.
c) The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is lost.
d) The engine primary data is displayed on the emergency engine data LED display.

891. If a screen fails in an advanced (EFIS equipped) ECAM system?

a) The information that would normally appear on that screen is displayed in compacted format on
the other screen.
 b) The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is provided on conventional
analogue displays.
c) The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is lost.
d) The engine primary data is displayed on the emergency engine data LED display.

892. If a screen fails in a basic (non EFIS equipped) EICAS system?

a) The information that would normally appear on that screen is displayed in compacted format
on the other screen
b) The information that would normally be displayed on the screen is automatically transferred to
one of the EFIS screens.
c) The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is lost.
d) The engine primary data is displayed on the emergency engine data LED display.

893. If a screen fails in an advanced (EFIS equipped) EICAS system?

a) The information that would normally appear on that screen is displayed in compacted format on the
other screen
b) The information that would normally be displayed on the screen is automatically transferred to
one of the EFIS screens.
c) The information that would normally be displayed on that screen is lost.
d) The engine primary data is displayed on the emergency engine data LED display.

894. If an emergency occurs in an aircraft employing advanced ECAM?

a) The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the bottom left of the upper display, together with
corrective instructions in blue.
b) The nature of the problem is indicate in amber at the bottom left of the upper display, together with
corrective instructions in white.
c) The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the top left of the upper display.
d) The nature of the problem is indicated in red on the lower display.

895. If an emergency occurs in an aircraft employing advanced EICAS?

a) The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the bottom left of the upper display, together with
corrective instructions in blue.
b) The nature of the problem is indicate in amber at the bottom left of the upper display, together with
corrective instructions in white.
c) The nature of the problem is indicated in red at the top left of the upper display.
d) The nature o the problem is indicated in red on the lower display.

896. In EICAS?
a) Engine primary data such as N1, EGT and EPR are displayed constantly on the lower screen, the
upper screen remaining blank in normal flight.
b) Engine primary and secondary data plus flap, slat and flying control positions control positions are
displayed constantly on the upper screen, the lower screen remaining blank throughout normal
flight.
c) Engine primary and secondary data plus flap, slat and flying control positions are displayed
constantly on the lower screen, the upper screen remaining blank throughout normal flight.
d) Engine primary data such as N1, EGT and EPR are displayed constantly on the upper screen, the
lower screen remaining blank in normal flight.

897. The EICAS display modes are?

a) Operational, status and maintenance.
b) Normal, failure, status, manual.
c) Operational, status, manual, emergency.
d) Normal, manual, status.

898. A red message on an upper EICAS display?

a) Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is required? It may or may not be
accompanied by an aural warning, depending on the seriousness of the situation.
b) Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is required. It will be
accompanied by an appropriate aural warning.
c) Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective action, but might do so in
the near future. It will always be accompanied. By an aural warning.
d) Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective action, but might do so in
the near future. It may or may not be accompanied by an aural warning, depending upon the
seriousness of the situation.

899. An amber message on an upper EICAS display?

a) a) Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is required? It may or may not
be accompanied by an aural warning, depending on the seriousness of the situation.
b) Is a warning of a situation for which immediate corrective action is required. It will be accompanied
by an appropriate aural warning.
c) Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective action, but might do so in
the near future. It will always be accompanied. By an aural warning.
d) Advises the crew of a situation that does not require immediate corrective action, but might do so
in the near future. It may or may not be accompanied by an aural warning, depending upon the
seriousness of the situation.

900. A green bug on an EICAS EPR guage indicates?

a) The current EPR value.
b) The fact that the current EPR value is the correct one for that stage of flight.
c) The target EPR value.
d) The maximum safe EPR value.

901. The maximum range at which an aircraft at FL250 can receive transmissions from a VHF R/T station
at 300 ft is:
a. 200 nm
b. 219 nm
c. 175 nm
d. 198 nm

902. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 5,045 MHz is:

a. 59.5 cm
 b. 5.95 cm
c. 19.8 cm
d. 1.98 cm

903. The frequency band containing a wavelength of 75 cm is:

a. MF
b. HF
c. VHF
d. UHF

904. The greatest range for a surface wave will be at a frequency of:
a. 198 KHz
b. 121.5 MHz
c. 2,185 KHz
d. 4,300 MHz

905. An aircraft is using a night time HF frequency of 5.5 MHz with ATC. The frequency the pilot would
expect to use by day is:
a. 3 MHz
b. 12 MHz
c. 15 MHz
d. 18 MHz

906. The reduction in the power available in a radio wave as the distance from a transmitter increases is
known as:
a. Dissipation
b. Diffraction
c. Attenuation
d. Refraction

907. The phase of a variable wave is at 240 o as the phase of a reference wave is 090 o . The phase
difference is:
a. 210o
b. 150o
c. 330o
d. 030o

908. The highest levels of ionization will be found at:

a. High latitudes in summer
b. Low latitudes in summer
c. High latitudes in winter
d. Low latitudes in winter

909. Concerning skywave propagation, which of the following is correct?

a. The D layer attenuates LF and MF frequencies by night
 b. The D layer attenuates LF and MF frequencies by day
c. The D layer attenuates HF frequencies by night
d. The D layer attenuates HF frequencies by day

910. Doppler operates on the principle that …… between a transmitter and receiver will cause the
received frequency to …… if the transmitter and receiver are moving …… .
a. Apparent motion decrease together
b. Relative motion decrease apart
c. The distance increase at the same speed
d. Relative motion increase apart

911. An aircraft has to communication with a VHF station at a range of 300 nm, if the ground station is
situated 2500 ft amsl which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be
made?
a. 190 ft
b. 1,378 ft
c. 36,100 ft
d. 84,100 ft

912. Class B VDF bearings are accurate to within:

a. +/- 1o
b. +/- 5o
c. +/- 2o
d. +/- 10o

913. A VDF QDM given without an accuracy classification may be assumed to be accurate to within:
a. 2o
b. 5o
c. 7.5o
d. 10o

914. An aircraft at altitude 9000 ft wishes to communicate with a VDF station that is situated at 400 ft
amsl. What is the maximum range at which contact is likely to be made?
a. 115 nm
b. 400 nm
c. 143 nm
d. 63.5 nm

915. An aircraft is passed a true bearing from a VDF station of 353 o. if the variation is 8oE and the
bearing is classified as B, then the:
a. QDM is 345o +/- 5o
b. QDR is 345o +/- 2o
c. QTE is 353o +/- 5o
d. QUJ is 353o +/- 2o
916. An aircraft at 19,000 ft wishes to communicate with a VDF station at 1,400 ft amsl. What is the
maximum range at which contact is likely?
a. 175 nm
b. 400 nm
c. 62.5 nm
d. 219 nm

917. The phenomenon of coastal refraction which affects the accuracy of ADF bearings:
a. Is most marked at night
b. Can be minimized by using beacons situated well inland
c. Can be minimized by taking beacons where the signal crosses the coastline at right angles
d. Is most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset

918. An aircraft is intending to track from NDB ‘A’ to NDB ‘B’ on a track of 050 o (T), heading 060o (T). If
the RBI shows the relative bearing of ‘A’ to be 180 o and the relative bearing of ‘B’ to be 330 o then
the aircraft is:
a. Port of track and nearer to ‘A’
b. Port of track and nearer to ‘B’
c. Starboard of track and nearer to ‘A’
d. Starboard of track and nearer to ‘B’
919. ADF quadrantal error is caused by:
a. Static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo’s fire
b. The aircraft’s major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re- radiating the incoming
NDB transmissions
c. Station interference and/or night effect
d. NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propogation

920. The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within the DOC is:
a. +/- 3o
b. +/- 5o
c. +/- 6o
d. +/- 10o
921. The magnitude of the error in position lines derived from ADF bearings that are affected by coastal
refraction may be reduced by:
a. Selecting beacons situated well inland.
b. Only using beacons within the DOC
c. Choosing N0N A2A beacons
d. Choosing beacons on or near the coast

922. The BFO facility on ADF equipment should be used as follows when an NDB having N0N A1A type
emission is to be used:
a. BFO on for tuning and identification but may be turned off for monitoring
b. BFO on for tuning but can be turned off for monitoring and identification purpose
c. BFO off during tuning, identification and monitoring because this type of emission is not
modulated
 d. BFO should be switched on for tuning, identification and monitoring

923. In order to resolve the 180o ambiguity of a loop aerial, its polar diagram is combined with that of a
sense aerial …… to produce a …… whose single null ensures the ADF needle moves the shortest
distance to indicate the correct …… .
a. At the aircraft, cardioid, radial
b. At the transmitter, limacon, bearing
c. At the aircraft, limacon, bearing
d. At the aircraft, cardioids, bearing

924. The protection ratio afforded to NDB’s within the DOC applies:
a. By day only
b. By night only
c. Both day and night
d. At dawn and dusk

925. The phenomena of coastal refraction affecting the ADF bearings is caused by the signal …… when it
reaches the coastline and bending …… the normal to the coast:
a. Accelerating towards
b. Decelerating towards
c. Accelerating away from
d. Decelerating away from

926. In an ADF system, night effect is most pronounced:

a. During long winter nights
b. When the aircraft is at low altitude
c. When the aircraft is at high altitude
d. At dusk and dawn

927. When the induced signals from the loop and the sense antenna are combined in an ADF receiver,
the resultant polar diagram is:
a. Limacon
b. Cardioid
c. Figure of eight
d. Circular

928. The principal propogation path employed in an ADF/NDB system is:

a. Skywave
b. Surface wave
c. Direct wave
d. Ducted wave

929. The ADF of an aircraft on a heading of 189 o (T) will experience the greatest effect due to quadrantal
error if the NDB bears:
a. 234o (T)
 b. 279o (T)
c. 225o (T)
d. 145o (T)

930. The DOC quoted for VOR beacons:

a. Is only applicable by day
b. Guarantees a protection ratio of at least 3 to 1 by day and night
c. Defines the airspace within which an aircraft is assured of protection from interference
from other VOR on the same channel
d. Is determined by the type of surface over which the signal will have to travel

931. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at FL360 will obtain from a VOR beacon
situated at 900 ft amsl?
a. 274 nm
b. 255 nm
c. 112 nm
d. 224 nm

932. A conventional VOR:

a. Has an FM reference signal and an AM variable signal
b. Has an 150 Hz reference signal and a 90 HZ variable signal
c. Has an AM reference signal and a 150 HZ variable signal
d. Has an AM reference signal and an FM variable signal

933. The OBS on a deviation indicator is set to 330 o and gives a 3 dot fly right demand with FROM
indicated. What is the QDM of the aircraft to the station?
a. 144
b. 324
c. 336
d. 156

934. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at FL420 will obtain from a VOR beacon
situated at 400 ft amsl?
a. 225 nm
b. 256 nm
c. 281 nm
d. 257 nm

935. Concerning conventional and Doppler VOR, which of the following is correct?
a. There is no way of knowing from the instrumentation display which type is being used
b. The DVOR will always have a ‘D’ in the ident
c. The DVOR has a higher pitch ident than the standard VOR
d. The conventional VOR has less site error
936. In a Doppler VOR the reference signal is ……, the bearing signal is …… and the direction of rotation
of the bearing signal is …… .
a. AM, FM, anti clockwise
b. AM, FM, clockwise
c. FM, AM, anti clockwise
d. FM, AM, clockwise

937. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows a 4 dots fly right with a
TO indication, at the same time the co located DME shows a slant range of 45 nm. Where is the
aircraft in relation to the required track?
a. 6 nm right of track
b. 3 nm right of track
c. 6 nm left of track
d. 3 nm left of track

938. A VOR beacon ceases to transmit its normal identification which is substituted by ‘TST’. This means
that:
a. The beacon may be used providing that extreme caution is used
b. The beacon is undergoing maintenance or calibration and should not be used
c. This is a temporary short range transmission and will have approximately half its normal
range
d. The beacon is under test and pilots using it should report its accuracy to ATC

939. What is the approximate maximum range that an aircraft flying at 25000 ft would expect to obtain
from a VOR beacon situated 900’ amsl?
a. 220 nm
b. 100 nm
c. 235 nm
d. 198 nm

940. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set
to:
a. 064 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication
b. 244 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication
c. 064 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication
d. 244 to get a correct needle sense and a FROM indication

941. The type of emission radiated by VOR beacon is:

a. A double channel VHF carrier with one channel AM and the other being FM
b. A single channel VHF carrier wave AM at 30 Hz with a sub carrier wave FM at 30 Hz
c. A VHF carrier wave with a 90 Hz frequency modulation and a 150 Hz AM
d. A VHF pulse modulated emission with a pulse repetition frequency of 30 pps.

942. An aircraft wishes to track towards a VOR along the 274 radial. If the variation is 10 oW, what should
be set on the OBS?
 a. 274
b. 264
c. 094
d. 084

943. What is the theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a VOR situated 900 ft amsl
in an aircraft flying at 18,000 ft?
a. 168 nm
b. 188 nm
c. 205 nm
d. 250 nm

944. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR beacon. The pilot has set 359 on the OBS of the
deviation indicator. If the aircraft is situated on the 152 radial then the deviation indicator will show:
a. One and a half dots fly right
b. One and a half dots fly left
c. Three dots fly right
d. Three dots fly left

945. The VOR receiver in an aircraft measures the phase difference from a DVOR as 220 o. Which radial is
the aircraft on?
a. 140
b. 040
c. 320
d. 220

946. The normal maximum error which might be expected with a VOR bearing obtained within the DOC
is:
a. +/- 1o
b. +/- 2o
c. +/- 5o
d. +/- 10o
947. The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero:
a. Are magnetic
b. Are compass
c. Are relative
d. Must have deviation applied before being used

948. The coverage of an ILS localizer extends to …… either side of the on course line out to a range of ……
nm.
a. 10o , 35
b. 35o, 10
c. 35o, 17
d. 25o, 25
949. The upper and lower limits of an ILS glidepath transmitter having a 3.5 o glideslope are:
a. 6.125o, 1.575o
b. 7.700o, 1.225o
c. 5.250o, 1.350o
d. 3.850o, 3.150o
950. The visual and aural indications obtained while overflying an ILS middle marker are:
a. Continuous low pitched dashes with synchronous blue light
b. Continuous high pitched dots with synchronized amber light
c. Alternating medium pitched dots and dashes with amber light
d. One letter in morse with synchronous white light

951. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving stronger 150 Hz signals than 90 Hz signals. The
correct actions to be taken to place the aircraft on the centerline and on the glidepath are to fly:
a. Down and left
b. Up and left
c. Up and right
d. Down and right

952. In elevation the upper and lower limits of an ILS glidepath transmitter having a 3 o glideslope are:
a. 0.35o, 0.70o
b. 3.00o, at least 6o
c. 5.25o, 1.35o
d. 10.00o, 35.00o
953. An aircraft tracking to intercept the ILS localizer inbound on the approach side but outside the
published coverage angle:
a. Receive false on course or reverse sense signals
b. Will not normally receive signals
c. Will receive signals without coding
d. Can expect signals to give correct indications

954. The outer marker of an ILS installations has a visual identification of:
a. Alternating dots and dashes on a blue light
b. Continuous dots at a rate of 3o per second, blue light
c. Continuous dashes at a rate of 2o per second, amber light
d. Continuous dashes at a rate of 2o per second, blue light

955. The specified maximum safe fly up indication on a 5 dot CDI is:
a. Half full scale needle deflection above the centerline
b. 2.5 dots fly up
c. Just before full scale deflection
d. 1.3 dots fly up

956. The coverage of the ILS glideslope in azimuth is:

a. +/- 8o out to 10 nm
b. +/- 10o out to 8 nm
 c. +/- 12o out to 17 nm
d. +/- 35o out to 25 nm

957. The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is:
a. Pulse repetition rate
b. Pulse width
c. Power
d. Beamwidth

958. The main advantage of continuous wave radars is:

a. No maximum range limitation
b. Better range resolution
c. No minimum range limitation
d. Better range resolution

959. If the PRF of a primary radar is 550 pps, the maximum range will be:
a. 324 nm
b. 300 nm
c. 162 nm
d. 600 nm

960. To double the range of a primary radar would require the power to be increased by a factor of:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16

961. The time between the transmission of a pulse and the reception of the echo from a target is 1720
microseconds. What is the range of the target?
a. 139 km
b. 258 km
c. 278 km
d. 516 km

962. A radar is required to have a maximum range of 100 nm. What is the maximum PRF that will
achieve this:
a. 1620 pps
b. 1234 pps
c. 617 pps
d. 810 pps

963. If the PRI of a radar is 2100 microseconds, the maximum range of the radar is:
a. 170 nm
b. 315 nm
c. 340 nm
 d. 630 nm

964. To improve the resolution of a radar display requires:

a. A narrow pulse width and a narrow beam width
b. A high frequency and a large reflector
c. A wide beamwidth and a wide pulse width
d. A low frequency and a narrow pulse width

965. An echo is received from a target 900 microseconds after the pulse was transmitted. The range to
the target is:
a. 73 nm
b. 270 nm
c. 135 nm
d. 146 nm

966. The factor which limits the minimum detection range of a radar is:
a. Pulse repetition interval
b. Transmitter power
c. Pulse width
d. PRF

967. The use of Doppler techniques to discriminate between aircraft and fixed objects results in second
trace returns being generated. These are removed by:
a. Using a different frequency for transmission and reception
b. Jittering the PRF
c. Making regular changes in pulsewidth
d. Limiting the power output of the radar

968. A radar is designated to have a maximum range of 12 km. the maximum PRF that would permit this
is:
a. 25,000 pps
b. 6700 pps
c. 12500 pps
d. 13400 pps

969. The bearing of a primary radar is measured by:

a. Phase comparison
b. Searchlight principle
c. Lobe comparison
d. DF techniques

970. When carrying out a precision radar approach talkdown normally ceases at …… nm from
touchdown:
a. 0.5 nm
b. 2 nm
 c. 3 nm
d. 5 nm

971. The special SSR code for emergency is:

a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500
d. 7400

972. The SSR code for radio failure is:

a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500
d. 7400

973. The SSR code for unlawful interference is:

a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500
d. 7400

974. Secondary radar is a form of …… radar with …… type emissions operating in the …… band.
a. Primary, pulse, SHF
b. Primary, pulse, UHF
c. Secondary, FM, SHF
d. Secondary, pulse, UHF

975. If the SSR transponder IDENT button is pressed:

a. It causes a momentary distinctive display to appear on the controller’s screen
b. An identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 secs, 4.35 m sec
before the last framing pulse
c. An identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 10 secs, 4.35 m sec
after the last framing pulse
d. An identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 secs, 4.35 m
sec after the last framing pulse

976. Secondary radars require:

a. A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an aircraft
b. A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be ground based
c. A target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be wither an aircraft
or a ground based transponder
d. A quiescent target

977. Airborne DME equipment is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and pulses
intended for other aircraft because:
 a. Aircraft transmit and receive on different frequencies
b. Aircraft will only accept unique twin pulses
c. Aircraft reject pulses not synchronized with its own random pulse recurrence rate
d. Each aircraft has its own frequency allocation

978. A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receive frequency of:
a. 1030 MHz
b. 902 MHz
c. 1025 MHz
d. 962 MHz

979. A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of theirs respective identifiers; the last identifying
letter of the DME is a Z. This means that:
a. They are co-located
b. They are more than 600m apart but serve the same location
c. They are widely separated and do not serve the same location
d. They are a maximum distance of 30m apart

980. DME is an example of …… radar operating on a frequency of …… in the …… band.

a. Primary, 8800 MHz, SHF
b. Secondary, 1013 MHz, UHF
c. Secondary, 962 MHz, UHF
d. Primary, 9375 MHz, SHF

981. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radar other than DME because:
a. Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate
b. DME transmits and receives on different frequencies
c. It will only accept the unique twin DME pulses
d. DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators

982. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate to within:

a. 3% of range
b. 1.25% of range
c. 0.5 nm
d. +/- 0.25 nm +/- 1.25% of range

983. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogations and replies to other
aircraft because:
a. DME is secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different frequency.
b. DME transponders reply to interrogations with twin pulses and the airborne equipment
ejects all other pulses.
c. Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate and will only accept synchronized replies.
d. When DME is in the search mode it will only accept pulses giving the correct range

984. When a DME transponder becomes saturated:

 a. It reverts to standby
b. It increases the number of pulse pairs to meet the demand
c. It increases the receiver threshold to remove weaker signals
d. It goes into a selective response mode of operation

985. An aircraft flying at FL250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400 ft above msl. What is
the maximum range likely to be achieved?
a. 210 nm
b. 198 nm
c. 175 nm
d. 222 nm

986. For a DME and VOR to be said to be associated it is necessary for:

a. The DME to transmit on the same VHF frequency as the VOR
b. The aerial separation is not to exceed 100 ft in a TMA or 2000 ft outside of TMA
c. The aerial separation not to exceed 100 m in a TMA or 2000 m outside of TMA.
d. Both beacons to have the same first two letters for their ident but the last letter of the DME
to be a ‘Z’

987. The transmission frequency of a DME beacon is 63 MHz removed from the sircraft interrogator
frequency to prevent:
a. Interference from other radars
b. The airborne receiver locking on to primary returns from its own transmissions
c. Static interference
d. Receiver accepting replies intended for other interrogators

988. The accuracy associated with DME is:

a. +/- 3% of range, or 0.5 nm, whichever is greater
b. +/- 1.25% of range
c. +/- 3% of range
d. +/- 0.25 nm +/- 1.25% of range

989. For VOR and DME beacon to be said to be associated the aerial separation must not exceed …… in a
terminal area and …… outside a terminal area
a. 100 m 2000m
b. 50 ft 200 ft
c. 30m 600 m
d. 50 m 200 m

990. DME is a …… radar operating in the ….. band and uses …… in order to obtain range information. The
correct words to complete the above statement are:
a. Primary, SHF, CW signals
b. Secondary, UHF, twin pulses
c. Secondary, SHF, jittered pulses
d. Primary, UHF, pulse pairs
991. DME operates in the …… frequency band, it transmits …… which gives the emission designator of
…… .
a. SHF, double size pulses, P0I
b. UHF, twin pulses, P0N
c. EHF, twin pulses, A9F
d. UHF, double pulses, J3E

992. Referring to DME during the initial stage of the “search” pattern before “lock on”:
a. The airborne receiver checks 150 pps
b. The airborne transmitter transmits 150 pps
c. The ground receiver maintains the ground transmitter pulse transmission rate at no more
than 150 pps
d. The aircraft transmits 24 pps and then the receiver checks a maximum of 150 pps

993. DME and VOR are frequency paired because:

a. The same receiver can be used for both aids.
b. The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME facility
c. Cockpit workload is reduced
d. Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required

994. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogation pulses and those
intended for other aircraft using the same transponder because:
a. DME is a secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different frequency
b. DME transponds reply to interrogations by means of twin pulses and the airborne
equipment rejects all single pulses
c. Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate and will only accept replies that match this
randomization
d. When a DME is in the range search mode it will accept only pulses separated by +/- 63 MHz
from the interrogation frequency

995. GPS operates in the …… band and the receiver determines position by ……
a. UHF, range position lines
b. UHF, secondary radar principles
c. SHF, secondary radar principles
d. SHF, range position lines

996. The minimum number of satellites required for a 3D fix is:

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

997. GPS operational constellation comprises …… satellites

a. 12
 b. 21
c. 24
d. 30

998. The most accurate fixing information will be obtained from:

a. Four satellites spaced 90o apart at 30o above the visual horizon
b. One satellite close to the horizon and 3 equally sat 60 o above the horizon
c. One satellite directly overhead and 3 equally spaced at 60 o above the horizon
d. One satellite directly overhead and 3 spaced 120o apart close to the horizon

999. A GPS reference system is:

a. A geo centred 3D Cartesian co ordinate system fixed with reference to the sun
b. A geo centred 3D Cartesian co ordinate system fixed with reference to the prime meridian,
equator and pole
c. A geo centred 3D Cartesian co ordinate system fixed with reference to space
d. A geo centred 3D system based on latitude, longitude and altitude

1000. Which of the following statements concerning GPS time is correct?

a. Satellite time is same as UTC
b. The satellite runs its own time based on seconds and weeks which is independent of UTC
c. The satellite runs its own time based on seconds and weeks which is correlated with UTC
d. Satellite time is based on sidereal time