Operational Procedures EASA

According to Regulations, what is the planning minima for
a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available?

Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above
MDH).
According to Regulations, what is the planning minima for

a destination alternate with a non-precision approach
available? Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or
above MDH) plus 200 ft/1000 m.
According to Regulations, planning minima for a

destination aerodrome with an applicable precision approach procedure is: RVR / visibility specified in
accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110, Aerodrome Operating Minima.
According to Regulations, what is the planning minima for a destination aerodrome, if it is equipped with a non-
precision approach only? RVR / visibility specified in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110, and the ceiling at or above
MDH.
The appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before
and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or
above the applicable planning minima as follows:
(i) RVR/visibility (VIS) specified in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110; and
(ii) for an NPA or a circling operation, the ceiling at or above MDH;
Type of approach................... Planning minima

CAT II and III ........................... CAT I RVR
CAT I ...................................... NPA RVR/VIS Ceiling shall be at or above MDH
NPA ....................................... NPA RVR/VIS + 1 000 m Ceiling shall be at or above MDH + 200 ft
Circling ................................... Circling
According to Regulations, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach
available? RVR according to Cat I.
When planning an IFR sector with a destination alternate airfield equipped with a CAT II ILS, the required
weather minima at the Alternate airfield are: CAT I RVR
Given a wind of 230/20 and the active runway is 14, compliance with noise abatement procedure is :
Not required because the crosswind component exceeds the maximum allowed for the noise abatement
procedure.
According to Regulations, what minimum navigation equipment is required for operations under IFR, or under
VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks? One VOR receiving system, one ADF system
one DME.
Below which height should all call-outs be referenced from the radio altimeter during CAT II/III approaches? 200
ft above aerodrome threshold elevation
You are commencing a CAT II approach, under EASA Ops, what is the requirement for the height call-outs to be
based on radio altimeter height? below 200 ft above the aerodrome threshold elevation
A pilot flies for an AOC holder. Where will he find information on the AOC holders authorised areas of
operation, aerodromes and route structure? Part C
Where would you find the limitations for operations on a contaminated runway? Operations Manual Part B
Information regarding company specific de-icing and anti-icing procedures would be found in which part of the
operations manual? Part A
Where would you find information regarding flight in icing conditions on a complex motor powered aircraft?
Part B
You are flying a complex motor-powered aircraft for an AOC operator; where do you find information in the
operations manual for the MEL and CDL? Part B
Information, instructions and general guidance on the transport of dangerous goods are included in the: Part A
In which part of the Operations Manual would you find information on performance data? Part B
Where would you find procedures for operations on a contaminated runway? Operations Manual Part B
In which part of the Operations Manual will you find information on TCAS/ACAS II: Part A
Information concerning emergency evacuation procedures shall be found in the: Operations manual Part B
In commercial aeroplane operations, in what part of the operations manual would you find information on
operational policies such as fuel Part A
In which part of the Operations Manual would you find information on general operational policies and
procedures? Part A
Operations Manual – laid out in 4 parts:

Part A: General/Basic, comprising all non-type-related operational policies, instructions and procedures;
Part B: Aircraft operating matters, comprising all type-related instructions and procedures, taking into account
differences between types/classes, variants or individual aircraft used by the operator;
Part C: Commercial air transport operations, comprising route/role/area and aerodrome/operating site instructions and
information;
Part D: Training, comprising all training instructions for personnel required for a safe operation.
NB. Some subjects are covered in 2 parts – eg mass and balance where the general rules/policy are in PART A with
type specific requirements are in PART B.
MEL – type specific requirements are in PART B.
Operations Manual Part B.
PART B, which will have:
• wind limits, including operations on contaminated runways;
• for aeroplanes, limitations on wet or contaminated runways;
• airframe contamination
• for aeroplanes, operations on wet and contaminated runways.
• take-off field length (for dry, wet and contaminated runway conditions);
• landing field length (for dry, wet and contaminated runway conditions)
• speeds applicable for the various flight stages (also considering dry, wet and contaminated runway conditions
The operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme, which shall be
integrated in its management system, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass (MCTOM)
of more than: 27 000 kg
For aeroplanes certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the
conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last: 30 minutes of operation
In accordance with EASA OPS, all turbine-engined aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 5 700 kg must be
equipped with flight data recorders which must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the
preceding : 25 hours of operation.
According to Regulations, for turbine-engined aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700
kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last: 25 hours of
operation
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or
after 1 April 1998, whiaximum certificated take-off masch has a ms over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a
cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:
2 hours of its operation.
The cockpit voice recorder shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last two hours
of its operationexcept that, for those aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5 700 kg or less, this
period may be reduced to 30 minutes
Which aeroplanes must carry a cockpit voice recorder ? Aeroplanes with a MCTOM > 5 700 kg
Which statement best describes the Operations requirement regarding a management system: The
management system shall correspond to the size of the operator and the nature and complexity of its activities,
taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in these activities.
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with: A decision height not lower than 100 ft
DH below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft;
The approach minima for a CAT II ILS or MLS are: DH 100ft, RVR 300m
In accordance with Regulations CAT.OP.MPA.110 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach,
the RVR shall not be less than: 75 m
According to Regulations, a category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried
out with a runway visual range of at least: 200 m DH lower than 100 ft; and RVR not less than 200 m;
Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 is divided into several Annexes, which statement is correct?
Annex III Part ORO Organisation requirements for Air Operations, Annex IV Part CAT Commercial Air Transport
Annex III of EU Regulation 965/2012 is entitled ORO. What do the initials ORO stand for? Organisation
Requirements for Air Operations
An AOC holder wishes to gain authority to carry dangerous goods. The operator will seek approval under
which Annex of EU Regulation 965/2012? Part ORO, Part CAT and Part SPA
The organisation of Commission Regulation (EU) 965/2012 - it is split into 8 Annexes:
• ANNEX I Definitions
• ANNEX II Part ARO – Authority requirements for Air Operations
• ANNEX III (DG) Part ORO – Organisation requirements for Air Operations (Operators)
• ANNEX IV (DG) Part CAT – Commercial Air Transport
• ANNEX V (DG) Part SPA – Specific Approvals (RVSM, ETOPS, LV, DG …. )
• ANNEX VI Part NCC – Non-Commercial Air Operations With Complex Motor-Powered Aircraft
ANNEX VII Part NCO – Non-Commercial Air Operations With Other-Than Complex Motor-Powered Aircraft
• ANNEX VIII Part SPO – Specialised Operations – eternal loads/banner towing, photography …
With regard to EU Regulation 965/2012 where will you find the reference concerning transportation of
dangerous goods? Annex V Part SPA.DG
The minimum flight crew for the transport of passengers under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or at night is: 2
pilots for turbo-propellor aircraft with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration of more than 9 and
all turbojet aircraft
Which aeroplanes must be equipped with ACAS II? turbine-powered aeroplanes with an MCTOM > 5700kg or an
MOPSC >19
In accordance with EASA OPS, who is responsible for establishing an operator’s safety programme?
The Operator The management system of an operator
should encompass safety by including a safety manager and a safety review board in the organisational structure.
The management system of an operator should encompass safety roles and a safety system by nominating: A
Safety Manager and Safety Review Board.
MOCA is 8300 ft, what is maximum obstacle or terrain height? 6280 ft
1000ft for elevation up to and including 6000ft; or 2000ft for elevation exceeding 6000ft rounded up to the next 100ft.
Each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts AND harnesses provided: 2, 3, 4
1. During taxying
2. During take-off
3. During landing
4. Whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety
5. During other phases of the flight
Astronomic precession: Causes an apparent wander on the axis of the directional gyro to the left in the Southern
Hemisphere
What are the regulatory conditions to be met for issue and continued validity of an AOC? The operator
remaining in compliance of all regulations and granting full access to the competent Authority.
In accordance with EASA OPS, who is responsible for approving methods of calculating minimum flight
altitudes? The competent authority
According to Regulations, who is responsible for establishing Aerodrome CAT A Less than 91 kt
Operating Minima for each aerodrome planned to be used for commercial CAT B From 91 to 120 kt
purposes? The Operator CAT C From 121 to 140 kt
CAT D From 141 to 165 kt
The RVR is reported as lower than the minimum required for take-off. Take CAT E From 166 to 210 kt
off: is forbidden
If ONLY visibility is reported - a take-off should only be commenced if the commander can determine that the visibility
along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum. If both MET VIS and RVR are reported, RVR
prevails.
If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if
you cannot establish communication with the air traffic control, you: Take an intermediate flight level
North Atlantic MNPS Operations Manual … … loss of all NAV systems … no instructions from ATC … consider climbing
or descending 500 feet (in otherwords - take an intermediate flight level) ... broadcast actions on 121.5 MHz … lights on
During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew
contains parameters below the crew''s operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not
be continued is: The outer marker (OM).
In accordance with Regulations, where no Outer Marker or equivalent position exists, if the reported
RVR/Visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond: 1000 ft above
the aerodrome / heliport.
An operator shall ensure that information relevant to the flight is preserved on the ground for the duration of
each flight or series of flights. This includes: 2, 3, 4, 5.
2. One copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet
3. Copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft technical log
4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator
5. Notification for special loadings
a) climb or descend 1000 ft if above FL410
The following documents should be kept on the ground: b) climb or descend 500 ft when below FL410
- A copy of the operational flight plan where appropriate; c) climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft if at FL410
- Copies of the relevant part(s) of the aeroplane technical log;
- Route specific NOTAM documentation if specifically edited by
the operator;
- Mass and balance documentation if required; and
- Special loads notification.
The above are covered by the optional answer "2, 3, 4, 5".
An aeroplane command course requires a commander to carry out under supervision: At least 10 sectors.
In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next
position has changed by: 3 minutes or more.
When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to: Maintain the Mach
number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.
The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT
region is: 123.45 MHz. (12345) 12345
According to Annex 6, what is the definition of Required Navigation Performance (RNP)? A statement of the
navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace.
In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro
heading, follow a: Great circle line
Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between the
Geenwich meridian and 70°W, every: 10° of longitude (Note: Above 70? Then every 20!!!)
According to Regulations, an aircraft must be equipped with an audio selector panel accessible to each
required flight crew member: When operating under IFR. Aeroplanes operated under IFR shall
be equipped with an audio selector panel operable from each required flight crew member station.
When establishing an instrument approach procedure, five aeroplane CAT A 400 ft 1500 m
categories are determined according to their speed at the threshold (VAT). CAT B 500 ft 1600 m
This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the CAT C 600 ft 2400 m
maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of: 1.3 CAT D 700 ft 3600 m
A departure aerodrome can also be used as a: En-route alternate and

destination alternate.
According to Regulations, in establishing the aerodrome operating minima which will apply to any particular
operation, an operator must take full account of: 1,2,3,4,5
1. Equipment available on the aircraft
2. Dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. Composition of the flight crew
4. Obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5. Facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions
6. Weather conditions
The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to: The operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial
transport aircraft.
During a Special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by ICAO and EASA is: 1.500 meters or more
Who is responsible for determining the minimum en-route altitude? The Operator.
A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the
direction of the North geographic pole. In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after
leaving the 6 microteslas zone,and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation
system (INS) is 045°. After switching to "magnetic mode", the compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this
moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E. The compass shift on this heading at this
point in time is: -5°

On a Polar Stereographic Chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich Meridian in the direction of the True
North Pole, the True Track of the great circle linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid
route at the starting point of this great circle is: 295°
A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised
Track System) must be done: At or prior to entering the oceanic airspace.
The climb or descent through MNPS airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft: Can be authorised by the
responsible ATC unit to climb or descend through NAT HLA airspace.
1.5.1 Aircraft not approved for operation in NAT HLA airspace may be cleared by the responsible ATC unit to climb or
descend through NAT HLA airspace provided NAT HLA MNPS Approved aircraft operating in that part of the NAT HLA
airspace affected by such climbs or descents are not penalized.
In NAT MNPS airspace 2 LRNS fail, there is no ATC contact (or reply from them) what intentions should be
transmitted by the crew on 121.5 MHz? Make an all stations call advising of intention to climb (or descend 500 ft
from assigned level.
Define Flight crew maximum duty time : 60 duty hours in any 7 consecutive days.
According to Regulations, for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance class B or C without an ETOPS approval,
the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in ....(i)... minutes at the one-engine-
inoperative cruise speed, or ....(ii).... nautical miles, whichever is less. (i) 120 (ii) 300
(3) for performance class B or C aeroplanes:
(i) the distance flown in 120 minutes at the OEI cruise speed determined in accordance with (b); or
(ii) 300 NM, whichever is less.
The MNPS airspace extends vertically between flight levels: 285 and 420.
ICAO Annex 6 Part 1 contains information on? International Commercial Air Transport - Aeroplanes.
According to Regulations, for operations under IFR or at night the minimum flight crew is 2 pilots for: All turbo-
propeller aeroplanes with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration of more than 9 and for all turbo-
jet aeroplanes
Pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight-time training (ZFTT) course shall commence
line flying under supervision not later than: 21 days after the completion of the skill test.
Which Regulation prescribes requirements for approved maintenance organisations? Part - 145
Turbine powered aeroplanes must be fitted with ACAS II when: MCTOM more than 5700kg or MOPSC of more
than 19.
The validity period of the night-time organised track system in MNPS airspace is normally at 30°W, between:
0100 UTC to 0800 UTC
Peak westbound traffic crossing the 30W longitude between 1130 UTC and 1900 UTC and peak eastbound traffic
crossing the 30W longitude between 0100 UTC and 0800 UTC.
If a crew member is on airport standby, his/her hours will count towards: Duty period
ICAO ANNEX 6 defines Commercial air transport as: an aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers,
cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.
ICAO ANNEX 6: an aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.
Regulation 965/2012 defines Commercial air transport as: an aircraft operation to transport passengers, cargo
or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration;
REGULATION 965/2012: ‘an aircraft operation to transport passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable
consideration;
In order to operate an airplane at night, the airplane must be equipped with an airborne weather radar when the
airplane is: 1,2,3
1. Pressurised
2. Non-pressurised, and maximum take-off mass is more than 5,700 kg
3. Non-pressurised, and maximum approved seating configuration is more than 9 seats
4. Non-pressurised, operating for public transportation
Astronomic precession is: Existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified
in the: Operations manual.
GYRO, corrected for astronomical precession (EARTH RATE) … GREAT CIRCLE
Special Categories of Passengers should be allocated seats: That are not next to emergency exits as they could
obstruct access.
The minimum time track is a track defined for: A given travel
A minimum time track is a: Track determined according to wind conditions (in still air this would be a great circle)
Before commencing a Low Visibility approach the commander must ensure that: Low Visibility procedures are
in operation as informed by ATC.
Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at
least: One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).
For unrestricted MNPS operations 2 LRNSs are required
According to Regulations, an operator shall not operate across areas in which search and rescue would be
especially difficult, unless it is equipped with:

1. Signalling equipment
2. At least one ELT (2) at least one BLT
4. Additional survival equipment for the route to be flown.
Which separation will be provided if RVSM is used when operating in MNPS airspace?
60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
In airspace where MNPS is applicable, the minimum vertical separation between FL 290 and FL 410 is: 1 000 ft
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?
Between FL290 and FL410 inclusive
What is the recommended rest period for flight crew on a stop over flight? 10 hrs
An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet, horizontal
visibility = 1 500 metres. Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres. The pilot may start
the final approach: Regardless the ceiling given by ATC.
What is the validity period for flight crew line checks? 12 months
In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when
do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot? Never
Which of the following conditions should the operator comply with for the continued validity of an AOC?
iv. the operator should remaining in compliance with the relevant requirements of Regulations.
v. the competent authority being granted access to the operator to determine continued compliance with the
relevant requirements of Regulations
vi. the certificate remains valid and is not surrendered or revoked
iv, v, vi
An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the directional gyro which is
assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate correction device, indicates 000°. The aircraft
arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass
remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be: 328°.
In accordance with Regulations, the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight
is stored for a minimum period of: 3 months (Most items are 3 months or 3 years)
In accordance with Regulations, in an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available
for use in flight must be at least: 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the
greater
For turbo-jet aircraft, 0.6
(1) for turbo-jet powered aeroplanes, within 60 % of the landing distance available (LDA); and
(2) for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes, within 70 % of the LDA.
During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS airspace, Day-time OTS 1130 UTC to 1900 UTC at 30°W
you expect to cross the 30°W Meridian at 1330 UTC; you Night-time OTS 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC at 30°W
will normally be: In a day-time organised track system
Arriving at the entry point of MNPS airspace (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the
oceanic clearance, the crew: Keep flying in accordance with the current flight plan, but maintain the flight level
cleared by the current control authority
Posit : g, the longitude difference, Lm, the average latitude, Lo, the latitude of the tangent. The correct formula
of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and Polar navigation, is equal to: G/2.sin Lm
Posit : g, the longitude difference; Lm, the average latitude; Lo, the latitude of the tangent. The transport
precession is equal to: G.sin LmTravel precession (wander) = change in longitude x sin Lm
Posit : g, the longitude difference; Lm, the average latitude; Lo, the latitude of the tangent. The correct formula
expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and Polar navigation, is equal to: G.sin Lm
Aircraft certified after 1 April 1995, when must a crew interphone be fitted? MCTOM 15000 kgs or more.
In accordance with Regulations, a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61
seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with at least: 1 megaphone.
61 to 99:… 1 100 or more:…. 2
The number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose

maximum approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is: 2
MAPSC is more than 200 an additional crash axe or crowbar must be carried.
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the

passenger cabin according to Regulations depends on the: Maximum
Operational Passenger Seating Configuration (MOPSC)
In accordance with Regulations, an aeroplane whose maximum

operational passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be
equipped with at least: 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in
the passenger compartment.
The minimum number of hand fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin

of an aeroplane with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of 31 is: 2
According to EASA OPS, the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers to be located in the passenger
compartment of an aircraft with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of 31 is: 2
In accordance with Regulations, an aeroplane whose maximum operational passenger seating configuration is
201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least: 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
passenger compartment.
31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least: 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment.
According to Regulations, an aeroplane whose maximum operational passenger seating configuration is 10

seats must be equipped with: One hand fire-extinguisher on the flight deck and one hand fire-extinguisher in the
passenger compartment.
61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least: 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment.
How many hand fire extinguishers are required in the passenger compartment of an aeroplane with a maximum
operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of 501? 7
greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least: 8 hand fire-extinguishers
According to Regulations, the minimum number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose
maximum operational passenger seating configuration is more than 200, is: 2 (b) In the case of aeroplanes with
an MOPSC of more than 200, an additional crash axe or crowbar shall be installed in or near the rearmost galley area.
In accordance with Regulations, a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is
not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with: Final
reserve fuel remaining. (NOTE: The question doesn’t mention Jet or Props, so look for final reserve)
During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referenced to the runway threshold
altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than: 2 m (7 ft) below the
aerodrome altitude
ICAO definition … MDH referenced to AERODROME altitude unless RUNWAY threshold is more than 2 m (7 ft) below
the aerodrome altitud
Earth Rate Error = 15 x Sine Mean Latitude x Time
Earth Rate Error = 15 x Sine 59°57' x 2.5 hours = 32.5°
In accordance with Regulations, an operator must ensure Facility ............................. Lowest DH/MDH (ft)

that the MDH for an ILS approach without the Glide Path GNSS (LNAV)............................................ 250
(LLZ only) is not lower than: 250 ft GNSS/Baro-VNAV (LNAV/ VNAV).............. 250
LOC with or without DME......................... 250
In accordance with Regulations, an operator must ensure SRA (terminating at ½ NM)....................... 250
that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than: SRA (terminating at 1 NM)........................ 300
250 ft SRA (terminating at 2 NM or more)........... 350
VOR.......................................................... 300
According to EASA OPS, the lowest MDH is: NDB, 350ft VOR/DME................................................. 250
NDB.......................................................... 350
In accordance with EASA OPS an operator must ensure
NDB/DME................................................. 300
that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach is: 350 ft
VDF.......................................................... 350
According to EASA regulation
CAT.OP.MPA.110 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), an
operator must ensure that system minima for "non-precision approach procedures", which are based upon the
use of ILS without Glide Path (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:
NDB facility, lowest MDH=350 ft
In accordance with Regulations, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:
300 ft
According to EASA OPS the lowest DH/MDH is: NDB, 350ft
For an aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information;
assuming an acceptable alternate aerodrome is available, the minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off:
150 m.
Minimum RVR for take-off: the runway has edge lights, centre line lights and multiple RVR information.
Assuming the crew are qualified for low visibility take-off operations, the minimum RVR required for take-off is:
150 m.
Day: runway edge lights and runway centre line markings Night: runway edge lights and runway end lights or runway
centre line lights and runway end lights: 300m
Runway edge lights and runway centre line lights: 200m
Runway edge lights and runway centre line lights TDZ, MID, rollout 150m***
High intensity runway centre line lights spaced 15 m or less and high intensity edge lights spaced 60 m or less are in
operation TDZ, MID, rollout 125m***
Runway protection and facilities equivalent to CAT III landing operations are available and the aircraft is equipped either
with an approved lateral guidance system or an approved HUD / HUDLS for take-off. TDZ, MID, rollout 75m
A category I precision approach aeroplane (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway
visual range of at least: 550 m
According to Regulations, a Category I operation is a precision instrument approach and landing with a
decision height (DH) not lower than ...(i)... and with a runway visual range (RVR) not less than .... (ii)..... (i)
200ft (ii) 550 m
MNPS is the abbreviation for: Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
The MNPS airspace extends from: 27° North to 90° North.
The North Atlantic MNPS Airspace extends from 27°N to 90°N (from the Canary Islands to the North Pole)
After what period do crew members have to be reassessed for line training? 12 calendar months
In accordance with Regulations CAT.OP.MPA.110 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III A approach,
the RVR shall not be less than: 200 m
‘Category IIIA (CAT IIIA) operation’ means a precision instrument approach and landing operation using ILS or MLS
with:
(a) DH lower than 100 ft; and
(b) RVR not less than 200 m;
Who approves the method for establishing minimum flight altitudes? The competent authority
When an accurate time piece is required equipment, does it need an EASA equipment approval? No
Instruments and equipment required by this Subpart shall be approved in accordance with Regulation (EC) No
1702/2003, except for the following items:
(1) Spare fuses;
(2) Independent portable lights;
(3) An accurate time piece; a) climb or descend 1000 ft if above FL410
(4) Chart holder; b) climb or descend 500 ft when below FL410
(5) First-aid kit; c) climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft if at FL410
(6) Megaphones;
(7) Survival and signalling equipment;
(8) Sea anchors and equipment for mooring; and
(9) Child restraint devices.
Do infants require their own seat? No, but they require an approved child restraint device.
The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes: Must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew
members to leave the aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50% of the available emergency exits.
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration of
more than ...(19)...., and when carrying ...(one)... or more passengers, unless at least one cabin crew is
included. at least one cabin crew member shall be assigned for the operation of aircraft with an MOPSC of
more than 19 when carrying one or more passenger(s).
A Polar Stereographic Chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the Meridian 054°W, with Grid North in
the direction of the North geographic pole. An aircraft is following a True Course of 330°. At position 80°N
140°E, what is the grid heading? 136°

The pilot uses a South Polar Stereographic Chart with grid parallel with the zero Meridian and Grid North in the
direction of geographic North along this Meridian. The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the
grid route at this moment is: 240°.
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W Meridian at 0030 UTC; you
will then normally be; Out of the validity period of organised flight track system
An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit
voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last: 30 minutes or 2 hours of its
operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness.
During a transoceanic and Polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North
with respect to the: True North
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the: Mach number.
Transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the true North.
State the requirement for Fasten seat belt and No smoking signs. Aeroplanes in which not all passenger seats are
visible from the flight crew seat(s) shall be equipped with a means of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew
when seat belts shall be fastened and when smoking is not allowed.
According to Regulations, for turbine-engined aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700
kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last: 25 hours of
operation
A minimum time track is a: Track determined according to weather conditions
During a transoceanic and Polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of
the gyro North with respect to the: Grid North for a given chart
Passengers shall have safety belts fastened: Before take-off and landing, and during taxiing, and whenever
deemed necessary in the interest of safety
Astronomic precession: Causes an apparent spin of heading gyro to the left in the Southern Hemisphere
Astronomic precession: Causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern Hemisphere
The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of
more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least: 30 minutes.
The validity period of the day-time OTS in the MNPS airspace is normally, at 30°W, between: 1130 to 1900 UTC
In accordance with Regulations, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a
non-precision approach? 1, 2, 3.
1. The required RVR
2. The ceiling
3. The minimum descent height (MDH)
4. The decision height (DH)
According to Regulations, a public address system is required to operate an aeroplane with a maximum
operational passenger seating configuration of more than: 19
Aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than 19 shall be equipped with a public address system.
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W Meridian at 1100 UTC ; you
will then normally be: Outside of the validity period of the organised track system.
An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a
passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is: Forbidden
How long can crew duty be extended by for an acclimatised crew? 1 hour not more than twice in any 7
consecutive days
According to Regulations, in the case of Commercial Air Transport (CAT) operations, which of the following is
the correct definition of "wet lease"? The aircraft is operated under the AOC of the lessor.
According to Regulations, in the case of Commercial Air Transport (CAT) operations, which of the following is
the correct definition of "Dry lease"? The aircraft is operated under the AOC of the lessee.
The number of first-aid kits required on an aeroplanes depends on the number of passenger seats installed;
Where should these first-aid kits be located? In a location where they are readily accessible for use.
The maximum allowable duty hours for flight crew are: 190 hours in 28 consecutive days
(a) The total duty periods to which a crew member may be assigned shall not exceed:
(1) 60 duty hours in any 7 consecutive days;
(2) 110 duty hours in any 14 consecutive days; and
(3) 190 duty hours in any 28 consecutive days, spread as evenly as practicable throughout
that period.
(1) 100 hours of flight time in any 28 consecutive days;
(2) 900 hours of flight time in any calendar year; and
(3) 1 000 hours of flight time in any 12 consecutive calendar months.
A take-off aerodrome can also be used as: An en-route and landing alternate
According to Regulations, an aeroplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit
that allow passengers and crew to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of
the passenger emergency exit is higher than: 1,83 m. 1,83 m (6 ft)
Minimum time route is a route calculated for: A given flight from departure to destination
Which of the following statements is true? The competent authority can agree operator variations
MNPS airspace in the applicable areas of the North Atlantic is defined between the following flight levels:
FL 285 and FL 420
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks in the MNPS airspace, the
intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by: The abbreviation "NAT" followed by
the code letter assigned to the track.
A Polar track is a part of a track which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth
magnetic field is less than: 6 micro-tesla
The minimum lateral separation to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is: 60 NM.
Within the Operator organisation, who is responsible for (flight) safety? The safety manager and a safety review
board.
Between which time frames is it considered to be a night duty for the flight crew : 0200-0459
Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when: Operating at or above FL 60.
An AOC holder should demonstrate to the competent authority a management system which should
include : i, ii, iii, iv, v vi
i. clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability;
ii. a description of the flight safety philosophies and principles;
iii. the identification of aviation safety hazards entailed by the activities of the operator;
iv. maintaining personnel trained and competent to perform their tasks;
v. documentation of all management system key processes;
vi. a function to monitor compliance of the operator with the relevant requirements.
The planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome with a circling approach available is: Circling
visibility, MDH and ceiling for the period ETA ± 1 hour
All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airwothiness were issued on or after 1 June 1990 must be fitted
with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than: 5 700 kg
Who is responsible for ensuring operations are conducted on appropriate routes and in appropriate airspace?
The Operator.
At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final
reserve) sufficient for flying during: 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500 ft
According to Regulations, during a VOR procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable
minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond: 1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport or into the final
approach segment in the case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1 000 ft above the aerodrome
The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the
same track and with the same Mach number is: 10 minutes.
According to Regulations, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield
during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a: Maximum certificated take-
off mass of more than 5700 kg
If a pilot has coupled the automatic pilot to the directional gyro equipped with a rate correction device set for
astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is: A great circle.
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is: 60 NM between aircraft meeting minimum navigation
performance specifications.
State the requirement for securing the passenger cabin and galleys. The commander shall ensure that before
take-off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary in the interest of safety, all equipment and baggage are
properly secured.
Penetration into the NAT MNPS airspace is: Subject to a mandatory clearance
COMMISSION REGULATION (EU) No 965/2012 of 5 October 2012 applies to: air operations with aeroplanes,
helicopters, balloonsand sailplanes, including ramp inspections of aircraft of operators under the safety oversight
of another State when landed at aerodromes located in the territory subject to the provisions of the Treaty.
(NOT MILITARY, Police etc)
To which of these scenarios does Section CAT apply? Flying passengers from A to B when they are not involved
with the flying operation.
What is the minimum rest period for Flight Crew after returning to base. 12 hrs
The minimum rest period provided before undertaking an FDP starting away from home base shall be at least as long
as the preceding duty period, or 10 hours,
The minimum rest period provided before undertaking an FDP starting at home base shall be at least as long as the
preceding duty period, or 12 hours,
What defines the size and type of Safety Management System for an AOC holder operating under EU
Regulation 965/2012. The management system shall correspond to the size of the operator and the nature and
complexity of its activities, taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in these activities.
In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for
air to air communications is: 123.45 MHz.
A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with: No runway visual range limits
On a flight from LESB to LEKB in Greece Commander checks for noise abatement procedures for their
departure airport in : AIP AD 2 LESB
AIPs
AD 2. AERODROMES
AD 2.21 Noise abatement procedures
For a performance class A turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, on a dry runway, the landing
distance on an alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:
0.7
(1) for turbo-jet powered aeroplanes, within 60 % of the landing distance available (LDA); and
(2) for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes, within 70 % of the LDA.
The North Atlantic airspace is regulated, among other, according to: The ICAO document 7030 (additional
regional procedures)
In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided:
(ii), (iii), (iv)
(i) During taxying
(ii) During take-off
(iii) During landing
(iv) Whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety
(v) During other phases of the flight while at his station
Operators are required by EASA OPS to ensure that pilots and members of the flight crews are familiar with the
laws, regulations and procedures applicable to: The aerodromes and/or airports they are using in the line of
duty.
In accordance with Regulations, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose
maximum operational passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be
equipped with a: Crash axe or a crow-bar on the flight deck.
Following an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original
recordings for a minimum period of: 60 days.
ICAO Annex 6 part I provides: The Standards and Recommended Practices applicable to the operation of
aeroplanes by operators authorized to conduct international commercial air transport operations.
A take-off alternate can be a destination alternate when you can: Land at the take-off alternate should it become
either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
When the MMEL is changed how long before it must be in the MEL? 90 days
What is the minimum RVR for a visual approach? 800m
The abbreviation MNPS means: Minimum Navigation Performance Specification
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification

According to Annex 6, 'RNP type' is defined as a containment value expressed as a distance in ...(i)... from the
intended position within which flights would be for at least ...(ii)... of the total flying time. (i) nautical miles
(ii) 95%
RNP type. A containment value expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended position within which
flights would be for at least 95 per cent of the total flying time. Example: RNP 4 represents a navigation accuracy of
plus or minus 7.4 km (4 NM) on a 95 per cent containment basis.
In accordance with Regulations, the cockpit voice recorder, when required, must start to record automatically:
Prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no
longer capable of moving under its own power.
In accordance with Regulations the operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft
technical log is stored for a minimum period of: 36 months
The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight. In the event of an
aircraft serviceability problem, the commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL: At the parking
area prior to the aircraft taxiing.
EU OPS … prior to taxy, the MEL might be referred to … after taxy … the Operations Manual under the heading
"Abnormal and Emergency Procedures".
A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The
flight can be planned: At FL 280 or less.
An Air Operator Certificate is issued by: The competent authority
(a) The competent authority shall issue the air operator certificate (AOC) when satisfied that the operator has
demonstrated compliance with the elements required in ORO.AOC.100.
What is the meaning of 'Commercial Air Transport' operations?

'Commercial air transport (CAT) operation’ means an aircraft operation to
transport passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable
consideration
The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic

regions. A grid, printed over it, is aligned with meridian 180°, the grid
North is pointing in the direction of the geographic North (non
standard grid). The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280°, the
position is 80°S 100°E. The true course followed at this moment is :
360°
You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E). The North of the directional gyro with no rate
correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when
starting from point A, given that the flight time scheduled is 1h 30 min with a zero wind, is equal to: 076°.
Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 121 kt to 140 kt, the
aeroplane is in: Category C CAT A Less than 91 kt
CAT B From 91 to 120 kt
JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator CAT C From 121 to 140 kt
shall ensure about VFR flights, that: Special VFR flights are not CAT D From 141 to 165 kt
commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
Seats should be allocated for: Each person on board who is aged 24 months or more
(1) a seat or berth for each person on board who is aged 24 months or more;
According to Annex 6, what is the definition of an Air Operator Certificate? A certificate authorising an operator
to carry out specified commercial air transport operations.
According to Regulations, a category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried
out with a runway visual range of at least: 75 m
Special Operational Procedures & Hazards (General Aspects)
In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around.
You: 1,3
1. Maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps)
3. Gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker
Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will: 1,4.
1. Remain on the runway,
4. Turn off all systems.
For each aircraft type AOC holders must establish noise procedures for: Departure, arrival, approach
What language must the dangerous goods documentation be in? English and the language(s) required by the
State of origin
When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be protected again:
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways
and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of
arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by: 15%
In compliance with Regulations, unless otherwise specified, when carrying dangerous goods on board a public
transport aircraft, they must be accompanied by: A dangerous goods transport document
What effect does ice/snow/contaminant have on the lift capability of the aircraft? Decreases lift by upto 30%
can reduce wing lift by as much as 30% and increase drag up to 40%.
The actual protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

1. The type and intensity of the showers
2. The ambient temperature
3. The relative humidity
4. The direction and speed of the wind
5. The temperature of the aircraft skin
6. The type of fluid
According to Regulations, the Minimum Equipment List of an aircraft is found in the: Operations manual
A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1, 2, 3, 4

1. Mist in the cabin
2. Air streaming out of the aircraft
3. Expansion of body gases
4. Blast of air released violently from the lungs
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is:
240 m (800 ft)
ICAO Doc 8168 … Noise abatement procedures shall not be executed below a height of 240 m (800 ft) above
aerodrome elevation (thrust reduction, acceleration … ).
Under Regulations, a runway is considered damp when: Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does
not give it a shiny appearance.
When an operator has a certificate for transportation of dangerous goods the operations manual should
contain: special notification requirements in the event of an accident or occurrence
UN codes for dangerous goods
(c) special notification requirements in the event of an accident or occurrence when dangerous goods are
being carried;
In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the
country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the: State
of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the: Depth of the standing water on the runway
In case of an engine exhaust pipe fire while on the ground, you should abort the starting procedure and: Carry
out a dry cranking.
A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered more than: 25% with compacted snow
‘contaminated runway’ means a runway of which more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the required length
and width being used is covered by the following:
An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are inoperative the: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
1. External door opening mechanism
2. Internal door opening mechanism
3. Door opening aid device
4. Open door locking system
5. Auxiliary means of evacuation
6. Emergency lighting
During a de-icing / anti-icing procedure carried out in two steps, the holdover time starts: At the beginning of
the second step (anti-icing step).
You are flying in MNPS airspace, under EASA Ops, for a flight operating under ETOPs regulations, the
distance from an adequate diversion must be: Within the operator’s approved diversion time, or a diversion time
based on the MEL generated serviceability status of the aeroplane, whichever is shorter.
within either the operator’s approved diversion time, or a diversion time based on the MEL generated
serviceability status of the aeroplane, whichever is shorter.
According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I Flight
Procedures, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the
procedure close to the airport: Is procedure 1
During NADP 1 you suffer an engine failure and have carried out the appropriate drills. Considering adherence
to the procedure you: Have an automatic right to ignore the procedure.
Which parameter will change first, when penetrating a horizontal windshear? Indicated airspeed.
When an aircraft lands it creates vortices that displace laterally and vertically from the aircraft by a distance of:
½ wing span
The information concerning dangerous goods that passengers may carry, are listed in the: ICAO document
titled "Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air"
In accordance with Regulations, an operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to CS25 or equivalent,
across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment
if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more
than: 90 minutes at cruising speed.
The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 and Technical Instructions require that, when delivering
cargo for transport, the responsibility for compliance with the regulations are to: Sender
What might cause a pilot of a light aircraft to make a precautionary landing? Deteriorating weather, loss of
situational awareness, tiredness
A braking coefficient of 0.25 and below reported on Braking Coefficient.Braking Action.SNOWTAM Code
a SNOWTAM is: Poor 0.40 and Higher..................Good.......................5
0.39 - 0.36.....................Medium to Good..........4
A Braking coefficient measured as 0.4 represents a 0.35 - 0.30.........................Medium...................3
braking action of: Good 0.29 - 0.26.....................Medium to Poor...........2
0.25 and below.................Poor.........................1
Under Regulations, a runway is referred to as
contaminated when more than 25% of the required
runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 2, 3, 4
1. A water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.
2. A water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.
3. Compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).
4. Ice, including wet ice.
5. Moist grass.
The type of hydroplaning that is most likely to occur at the touch down area located at both ends of the runway
is called: Viscous
Reference shall be made to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for equipment found unserviceable at any time:
Prior to the flight time stage
What is the definition of damp runway? a runway where the surface is not dry, but when the moisture on it does
not give it a shiny appearance
Prior to conducting an ETOPS flight, the operator shall The security checklist will have as a minimum the
ensure that: An ETOPS en-route alternate aerodrome is following:
available, within either the operator's approved diversion i. Aircraft specific checks
time, or a diversion time based on the MEL generated ii. Actions on bomb discovery.
iii. Sabotage
serviceability status of the aeroplane, whichever is shorter. iv. Suspicious item removal procedures.
Under Regulations, AOC holders shall, for each

aeroplane type, establish noise procedures for each:
Departure and arrival/approach procedure
According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than: 800 ft
above aerodrome elevation
In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects of a J – A380

microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co- H – MCTOM 136 000 kg or more
M – MCTOM less than 136000 kg but
ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to: Increase the
greater than 7000 kg
pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this L – MCTOM 7 000 kg or less
angle
State the reason for fuel jettison during an emergency after take-
off. To reduce the mass to Maximum Landing Mass
The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the: Air operator certificate.
An operator is permitted to use an aircraft with certain items of equipment out of service if this is permitted in:
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
According to ICAO Annex 17, following an unlawful interference, who shall take adequate measures for the
safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft, until their journey can be continued? The contracting State where
the aircraft is located.
ICAO ANNEX 17 … responsibility is with the (contracting) State, or the State where the aircraft is located.
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL), if this exists, is established by: The manufacturer of the aircraft,
and accepted by the authority
A passenger is allowed to carry safety matches: 1

1. On himself/herself
2. In his/her hand luggage
3. In his/her checked luggage
Icing conditions are conditions in which humidity is visible and air temperature is lower than : + 10 °C
When packing dangerous goods the reference document to be used is: ICAO Technical Instructions
The dangerous goods transport document regarding the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is specified
in the: Technical instructions.
An ETOPS sector is planned using an alternate with a circling approach. The required planning minima are:
MDA/H + 400 ft RVR/VIS + 1500 m
Type of approach ..................... Planning minima

Precision approach .................... DA/H + 200 ft RVR/VIS + 800 m
Non-precision approach or........ MDA/H + 400 ft RVR/VIS + 1500 m Circling approach
Your aircraft has ditched. Once all movement has ceased what should the commander initiate? Evacuation
Signal Alarm ON. Abandon aircraft.
The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level of lighting after the main
electric power system has been cut off for at least: 10 minutes
During a manual approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of
a pilot action, the aircraft: 2, 4.
2. Flies below the intended approach path
4. Has a decreasing true airspeed
Wake turbulence should be taken into account when: A much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the
same runway, a light crosswind condition exists and all high-lift devices are being used.
On most of the large modern aeroplanes, an engine fire warning system will switch on the relevant fire shut off-
handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when: The fire is no longer detected.
Which items of dangerous goods are passengers allowed to take on board? i, ii, iii, iv
i. Perfumes and toiletry articles
ii. Alcoholic beverages
iii. Safety matches (one small packet to be be carried on the person)
iv. Portable electronic devices containing lithium batteries for personal use in carry-on-baggage
v. Portable electronic devices containing lithium batteries in check-in baggage
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual
demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be
evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in: 90 seconds Certification requirement - evacuation within 90 seconds
Wind shear is: A large variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance.
You are a co-pilot flying In VMC conditions when a GPWS warning occurs. The actions to be taken are:
Take immediate corrective action to maintain a safe flight path
Who initially is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
The person offering the item of dangerous goods for transport by air when completing the declaration for
dangerous goods.
The commander, always using the list of prohibited items.

The definition of de-icing is: ‘de-icing’, in the case of ground procedures, means a procedure by which frost, ice,
snow or slush is removed from an aircraft in order to provide uncontaminated surfaces;
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bar, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the: Speed is
greater than 129 kt. HYDROPLANE SPEED = 9 x √(14 x 14.5) = 129 KT
Smoke is identified on the flight deck from an unidentified source, what is the action required by the crew?
Divert at maximum speed to nearest suitable airfield
What types of de-icing fluids are available? Types I, II, III and IV
Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and
downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is: Substantial
You are fighting a fire with a hand fire extinguisher, how would you do this? stay as close as possible to the
fire, aim at the base of the fire
When extinguishing a fire with a hand fire extinguisher, how should you do this? stay at least 1.5 - 2.5m away
from the fire
A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in: The Technical Instructions for
the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency
landing are:
1. Legs together and feet flat on the floor,
2. Head resting against the back of the front seat,
3. Forearms on the armrests,
4. Seat belt very tightly fastened,
5. Head resting on the forearms.
When there is a risk of hydroplaning the pilot of an aeroplane: Should make a positive landing and apply
maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander shall submit a report to:
Both the designated local authority and the Authority in the State of the operator
The commander shall submit a report, as soon as practicable to the local Authority and to the Authority in the State of
the operator.
A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at
300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest
departure procedure? Depart runway 09 with a tailwind
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bar, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the: Speed is
greater than 98 kt
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and: Is
very smooth and dirty.
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that: The airline complies with the Technical Instructions
A slow decompression noticed by a CABIN crew member. What action should they take?
Notify captain of decompression.
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the generating aeroplane is: 1, 2, 3
1. Flying slowly
2. Heavy
3. In a clean configuration
4. Flying with high thrust
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum
differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the
oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
20750 ft

differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming
you don't want the cabin altitude being greater than
10000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is
approximately: 15100 ft

differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the
oxygen masks will be deployed at 14 000 ft, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:
24 500 ft
To fight a fire in an air-conditioned class E cargo

hold, the correct initial action is to: Shut off the
ventilating airflow within the affected compartment.
When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for

some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be
seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate: A rate of climb
With a small leak, CABIN ALTITUDE will slowly increase (indicating a rate of climb) towards aeroplane pressure
altitude.
Where in the AIP will you find information on birds. AD 2 for aerodromes and AD 3 for heliports
At a given configuration, the wake turbulence of an aeroplane is greater when the aeroplane is:
Heavy at low airspeed
The type of hydroplaning that is most likely to occur at the touch down area located at both ends of the runway
is called: Viscous
The main cause of wake turbulence is the result of: 1
1. An aerodynamic effect (wing tip vortices).
The time is 0030, noise abatement procedures are in force during the period 2100 – 0600. Is the use of reverse
thrust permitted? Yes, use of reverse thrust is allowed.
The safety precautions to be taken when using 100% medical oxygen are : 1, 2, 4
1. Refrain from smoking
2. Avoid sparks
3. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment
4. Operate oxygen system shut off valves slowly
Ice forming on pitot tubes, static ports and/or AOA vanes can give false readings of: 1,2,3,4,5
1. attitude
2. airspeed
3. AOA
4. Engine power
5. air data systems
Which of the following statements is correct concerning a take off from a contaminated runway? In general the
performance data for take off has been determined by means of calculation and has not been verified by flight tests
Performance data … In general the performance data for take off has been determined by means of calculation and has
not been verified by flight tests.
Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions: The aircraft
shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise: A rapid depressurization.
‘damp runway’ means a runway where the surface is not dry, but when the moisture on it does not give it a
shiny appearance;
‘dry runway’ means a runway which is neither wet nor contaminated, and includes those paved runways which have
been specially prepared with grooves or porous pavement and maintained to retain ‘effectively dry’ braking action even
when moisture is present;
‘wet runway’ means a runway of which the surface is covered with water, or equivalent, less than specified by the
‘contaminated runway’ definition or when there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear
reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.
Which items of dangerous goods are passengers allowed to take on board in small quantities?
Safety matches, Rechargeable fuel cell, Radio isotope pacemaker.
The correct definition of a safe forced landing is: An unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable
expectancy of no injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the surface.
For stable clouds: 1,3,5

1. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -10°C
2. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -15°C
3. Icing becomes rare at t < -18°C
4. Icing becomes rare at t < -30°C
5. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm
6. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mm
Where would you find information on bird migration areas/routes? AIP ENR 5.6
The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called:
IBIS (ICAO Bird Strike Information System).
While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in
the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding
crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. You must: Maintain the aircraft on the glide
path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.
Don’t do anything drastic (power off … ) … maintain aeroplane on the glide path, accept the positive increase in speed,
and monitor what happens carefully …
Following a fire in the passenger cabin, the cabin crew should: Move passengers away from source of fire.
When a commander of an aircraft notices, after take-off, a flock of birds presenting a bird strike hazard, he/she
shall: Immediately inform the local ground station/ATS unit.
You are flying a complex motor-powered aircraft for an AOC operator. Where do you find information in the
operations manual regarding fuel at different stages of flight (fuel policy)? Part A
The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off
and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away: About two seconds beforehand
The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aeroplane on the ground will provide a: Limited time of
protection, dependent on the outside temperature, precipitations and fluid mixture
Malfunctioning of the automatic pressurization system is indicated by: 1, 2, 3.

1. A change in environmental sounds.
2. The cabin altitude gauge indicates an abnormal rate of climb.
3. The differential pressure between the exterior and the interior of the aircraft
Articles and substances are considered to be dangerous goods if defined as such by:
The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air".
When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off: Beyond the point where
the aircraft's wheels have touched down
From the following list which are classed as Dangerous Goods: 1,2 and 3 only
1. Fire extinguishers
2. Portable oxygen supplies
3. First-aid kits
4. Passenger meals
5. Alcoholic beverages
The reference document you shall use when a piece of equipment on your aeroplane fails during taxy is:
The Operations Manual under the heading "Abnormal and Emergency Procedures".
In establishing a noise abatement procedure, an operator should: Ensure that safety has priority over noise
requirements and that the procedure does not significantly increase pilot workload.
During a manual approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of
a pilot action, the aircraft: 1, 3
1. Flies above the intended approach path
3. Has an increasing true airspeed
During a manual approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind. In the absence
of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1, 3.
Increase in HEAD WIND … INCREASE IN IAS (TAS) … and if nothing is done about it … you will go ABOVE the
intended approach path … … 1, 3 (Increase in HEAD WIND same as Decrease in TAIL WIND)
During a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane: 2, 4
After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot
action, the aircraft:
1. Flies above the climb-out path
2. Flies below the climb-out path
In accordance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing
and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as
practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes: No turns should be required coincident with a reduction of
power associated with a noise abatement procedure
In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you: Carry out a dry cranking.
The minimum equipment list (MEL) states the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight
and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list shall be established by:
The operator, and inserted in the operations manual
Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following
circumstances : 1, 2, 3
1. When cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.
2. When the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.
3. When the runway is not clear or dry.
An analysis of bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from: From 0 to 150 m. (Pick
the option from the ground up) so… 0-> 150
The highest risk of bird strikes occurs: Under 2500 ft.
Wake turbulence risk is highest: when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel
runway with a light crosswind.
An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may
expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of: 80 kt.
During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately. Following
this incident the pilot: Must file a Bird Strike report
The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce the holdover time considerably: During strong
winds or as a result of other aircraft engines jet blast / propeller blast.
The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your position to the emergency teams are a
flare: Which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in the daytime.
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure: The anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing
fluid is applied hot.
Where would you find information for a flight into known icing conditions? Operations Manual Part A
Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of: 136 000 Kg or more
In accordance with ICAO and PANS-ATM procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote
an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg: M
HEAVY (H) – MTOM 136 000 kg or more

MEDIUM (M) – MTOM less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg
LIGHT (L) – MTOM 7 000 kg or less
When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends: To descend
From the following list determine which areas are likely to present a bird hazard to aircraft in flight:
1. Built up area
2. Trees and shrubs
3. Coastal area
4. Ploughed field
5. Noisy environment
6. Rubbish tips, short grass
The permanent approval for the transport of dangerous goods is specified in the: Air operator certificate.
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in stormy conditions: 1, 2, 4
1. You increase your approach speed
2. You land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your
nose gear
3. You decrease your approach speed
4. You systematically use lift dumping devices
5. You land as smoothly as possible
6. You brake very hard.
Which of the following weather conditions will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature
and type of anti-icing fluid? Light freezing rain
The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure, for a given ambient temperature, will be longest in weather
conditions of: Frost
Kind of common sense … longest FROST … then freezing fog, then snow, shortest … freezing rain or rain on a cold
soaked wing
For a given ambient temperature and type of anti-icing fluid, in which of the following conditions will the
holdover (protection) time be the shortest? Freezing rain
The commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions: Unless the external surfaces are clear of any
contamination, except as permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual.
Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during
instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the: Operator
After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals presence of frost, ice or snow. The
correct action is to: Carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure
The complete information regarding the types of goods which the passengers are forbidden from transporting
aboard an aircraft is listed in the: ICAO document "Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous
Goods by Air".
Following an engine fire in flight, the first action required is: Shut down engine
Prior to conducting an ETOPS flight, the operator shall ensure that an ETOPS en-route alternate aerodrome is
available: within either the operator's approved diversion time, or a diversion time based on the MEL generated
serviceability status of the aeroplane, whichever is shorter.
The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
12 seconds
According to Regulations, for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance class B or C

without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in ....
(i)... minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, or ....(ii).... nautical miles, whichever is less.
(i) 120 minutes (ii) 300 NM

For performance class B or C aeroplanes:
(i) the distance flown in 120 minutes at the OEI cruise speed; or
(ii) 300 NM, whichever is less.
A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document
you use to decide on the procedure to follow is: The minimum equipment list.
The MINIMUM EQUIPMENT LIST (MEL) is found in PART B of the operations manual.
The minimum equipment list (MEL) of a public transport aircraft is to be found in the: Operations manual Part B
What is the initial effect on the body after a rapid decompression? Ear drum rupture.
When encountering an extreme microburst downdraft, the action taken should be:
1. Set the maximum take-off thrust
2. Increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker
3. Retract gear and flaps, if they are extended
4. Keep gear, flaps and slats in current configuration and retract the speed brakes
5. Try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio
According to CS 25, if a fuel jettisoning system is required, it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within:
15 minutes
A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft
weight in an emergency:
In order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after activation of the jettisoning
system
Unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative
and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative
How is the uncleared part of a contaminated runway reported in a SNOWTAM? In plain language at item T (the
final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM.
ITEM T will tell you in plain language which part of the runway has been cleared
When an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful interference must depart from its assigned track or its
assigned cruising level without being able to make radiotelephony contact with ATS, if no applicable regional
procedures have been established the pilot-in-command should: proceed at a level which differs from the
cruising levels normally used for IFR flight by 150 m (500 ft) in an area where a vertical separation minimum of 300
m (1 000 ft) is applied or 300 m (1 000 ft) in an area where a vertical separation minimum of 600 m (2 000 ft) is
applied.
In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will: 2, 3, 4

1. Evacuate women and children first.
2. Have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts.
3. Prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplane's flotation ability.
4. Ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.
You encounter a large downdraft lasting around 5 minutes whilst crossing an area of roughly 3 kms. The
weather phenomenon is: Microburst
According to regulations, what is the required planning minima for a circling approach at an ETOPS en-route
alternate aerodrome. Authorised MDA/MDH + 400’ and Authorised visibility + 1500m
Type of approach...............................Planning minima

Precision approach...............................DA/H + 200 ft, RVR/VIS + 800 m(1)
Non-precision approach or
Circling approach...............................MDA/H + 400 ft (1) RVR/VIS + 1500 m (1)
Just after take-off an aircraft encounters a "microburst" situated directly ahead. The initial indications will be:
1, 3
1. An increase in head wind
2. An increase in tail wind
3. Better climb performance
4. A decrease in climb gradient
In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at: Low altitude diverge from the centre of the
phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, assuming a rotating tyre, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as: 1 and 2.
1. Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
2. Speed is greater than 137 kt.
3. Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.
4. Speed is greater than 117 kt.
During a noise abatement at night at an airfield are you permitted to use reverse thrust? Reverse thrust may be
used if circumstances demand
Who shall ensure that dangerous goods are not forbidden for transport by air and are properly classified,
packed, marked, labelled and accompanied by a properly executed dangerous goods transport document?
The person who offers the item for transport by air
In regards to ICAO Annex 18, when offering dangerous goods for transportation by air, who initially is
responsible for compliance with the regulations? The person offering the item of dangerous goods for
transport by air.
Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length,
how is this reported : By a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding
any fuel considerations: You descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety
altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
Where will information on flight in icing conditions be promulgated? Operations manual Part A and Part B
Following an accident or incident involving dangerous goods. The initial report must be despatched within? 72
hrs
(d) During the flight tests prescribed in subparagraph (c) of this paragraph, it must be shown that –
(1) The fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard;
(2) The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane;
(3) Fuel or fumes do not enter any parts of the aeroplane;
(4) The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.
The dangerous goods transport document shall be drawn up by: The person who offers the item of dangerous
goods for transport by air.
Who shall ensure that dangerous goods are not forbidden for transport by air and are properly classified,
packed, marked, labelled and accompanied by a properly executed dangerous goods transport document?
The person who offers the item for transport by air
Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft
which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until their journey can be continued? The: Contracting
State in which the unlawful interference occurs
Evacuation slide normal inflation is achieved by: A pressurised gas canister.
A combination of which winds means that wake turbulence effects will be at their greatest? Light cross wind,
light tail wind, light head wind
What might happen as a result of a slow decompression? the first indication may be a depressurisation warning
in the cockpit or deployment of passenger supplemental oxygen masks
According to Regulations, the commander shall not commence take-off: Unless the external surfaces are clear of
any deposit, except as permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual
A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered more than: 25% with compacted snow.
If a packet is marked with the label shown in the Annex it is :

A toxic material or gas
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure: Decreases
If the AFM does not provide a one engine inoperative cruising speed, the speed to
be flown in the event of one engine becoming inoperative is the speed achieved
when the remaining engine(s) are set to: Maximum continuous power
Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a

runway, under the following circumstances: Reported windshear
According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure" NADP2, established in ICAO
Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated: Not below 800 ft above aerodrome elevation
In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when: It has no ILS or
visual approach slope guidance
Runways should not normally he selected for preferential use for landing unless they are equipped with
suitable glide path guidance, e.g. ILS, or a visual approach slope indicator system for operations in visual
meteorological conditions.
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be: Contaminated
contaminated runway’ means a runway of which more than 25 % of the runway surface
Separation:
According to ICAO Doc 4444, a wake turbulence non-
radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied
to: LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum

separation time for a LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a
MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane from an intermediate part
of the same runway? 3 minutes
According to ICAO Doc 4444 , a wake turbulence non-

radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
To LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft
from an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated
by less than 760 m.
According to ICAO Doc 4444, a wake turbulence radar

separation minima of 9.3 km (5.0 NM) shall be applied
when a: LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM
aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m (1 000 ft)
The following wake turbulence radar separation minima

shall be applied to aircraft in the approach and departure
phases of flight:
H - H = 4 NM
H - M = 5 NM
H - L = 6 NM
M - L = 5 NM
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a
HEAVY aeroplane is following directly behind another HEAVY aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
7.4 km (4 NM)
Regarding wake turbulence, what are the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and the minimum non-radar
separation time for a MEDIUM aircraft behind a HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway?
9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum
time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy
aeroplane on the approach to the same runway? 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
According to Regulations, an operator shall not operate an aircraft in expected or actual icing conditions
unless: The aircraft is certificated and equipped to operate in icing conditions
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or
parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a
wake turbulence radar separation minima of: 5 NM
Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time for a LIGHT aircraft behind a
MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway? 3 minutes
According to ICAO Doc 4444, a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.
According to ICAO Doc 4444, the wake turbulence separation minima between a HEAVY making a low or
missed approach on a runway and a light (or medium) taking off (or landing) on the same runway in the
opposite direction is: 2 minutes
When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time
approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be: 3 MIN
In accordance with ICAO Doc 4444, when a MEDIUM aircraft preceeds a LIGHT aircraft using the same runway,
or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, the wake turbulence radar separation minima on the
approach or departure phases of flight shall be: 5 NM
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
3 minutes.
OXYGEN – Pressurised
Regulations:
CAT.IDE.A.235 Supplemental oxygen — pressurised aeroplanes
Oxygen minimum requirements for pressurised aeroplanes
1. Occupants of flight crew compartment seats on flight crew compartment duty:

(a) The entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13 000 ft
(b) The remainder of the flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10 000 ft but does not exceed 13
000 ft, after the initial 30 minutes at these altitudes, but in no case less than:
(1) 30 minutes’ supply for aeroplanes certified to fly at altitudes not exceeding 25 000 ft; and
(2) 2 hours’ supply for aeroplanes certified to fly at altitudes of more than 25 000 ft.
2. Required cabin crew members:

(a) The entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13 000 ft, but not less than 30 minutes’ supply.
(b) The remainder of the flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10 000 ft but does not exceed 13 000 ft,
after the initial 30 minutes at these altitudes.
3. 100 % of passengers(*):
The entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15 000 ft, but in no case less than 10 minutes’ supply.
The entire flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14000 ft but does not exceed 15 000 ft.
The remainder of the flying time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10 000 ft but does not exceed 14000 ft, after
the initial 30 minutes at these altitudes.
(*) Passenger numbers in Table 1 refer to passengers actually carried on board, including persons younger than 24
months.
In accordance with Regulations, for a pressurised aeroplane, during and following an emergency descent, all
occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with a minimum supplemental oxygen
quantity:
1. In order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater
than 13000 ft.
than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.
3. In no case less than 30 minutes for aeroplanes certificated to fly up to 25000 ft.
4. In no case less than 2 hours for aeroplanes certificated to fly over 25000 ft.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4.
An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL370. In accordance with Regulations, the number of cabin oxygen
masks (dispensing units) required is at least: 110% of the seating capacity.
Maximum operational passenger seating configuration = 230; Number of seats on board = 200; Scheduled
number of passengers on board = 180. 220 shall exceed the number of seats by at least 10 %
In accordance with Regulations, for a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25 000 ft,
all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a
period in no case less than: 2 hours
Supplemental oxygen is used to: Provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation
For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is: The oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in case of
cabin pressurisation failure.
For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to: Provide undiluted oxygen for passengers who, for
physiological reasons, might require oxygen following a cabin depressurisation.
In accordance with Regulations, regarding the first aid oxygen, the supply of undiluted oxygen carried on
board a pressurised aeroplane with 8 passengers operated at pressure altitude 27000 ft, shall be sufficient for
at least: 1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds
8000 ft. for at least 2 % of the passengers carried, but in no case for less than one person.
When a supply of first aid oxygen is required, the equipment shall be capable of generating a mass flow to each
user of at least: 4 litres STPD per minute.
According to EASA OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen
needed to supply 100% of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is: The entire flight time
where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft, but in no case less than 10 minutes.
According to Regulations, oxygen masks for use by flight crew members shall be a quick donning type of
mask, in pressurised aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above: 25000 ft.
In accordance with Regulations, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the
total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of: Seats by 10%
In accordance with Regulations, if the flight is to be carried out at FL 290, demonstration concerning oxygen
equipment must be completed before: Take-off.
In order to be operated at night in areas with potentially hazardous weather conditions, an aeroplane must be
equipped with an airborne weather radar when the aeroplane is:

1. Pressurised
2. Non-pressurised with a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700 kg
3. Non-pressurised with a maximum operational seating configuration of more than 9 seats
4. Non-pressurised, operating for public transportation

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3
According to Regulations, for a pressurised aeroplane, during and following an emergency descent, all
occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with a minimum supplemental oxygen
quantity:
than 13000 ft.
than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.
3. In no case less than 30 minutes for aeroplanes certificated to fly up to 25000 ft.
4. In no case less than 2 hours for aeroplanes certificated to fly over 25000 ft.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4.
In accordance with Regulations, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental
oxygen needed to supply 100% of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is: The entire flight
time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft, but in no case less than 10 minutes.
On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen
reserve enabling all the crew members to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization,
throughout the flight period, during which the cabin pressure altitude is greater than: 13 000 ft.
A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passenger are on board and the expected Flight
Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing
supply for at least: 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude of more than 8000
ft.
What is VEF ? VEF means the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during take-off
When can the commander grant access to parts of the aircraft that are unsuitable for the carriage of persons?
For the purpose of taking action necessary for the safety of the aircraft
When animals are on board, when can the captain leave the cockpit to check on them? only in the interests of
safety (a) for the purpose of taking action necessary for the safety of the aircraft or of any person, animal
or goods therein; or
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be
at the very least: Two inertial navigation systems.
A flight via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle with no MNPS certification can be planned: At FL 280 or less.
According to Regulations, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected
weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above: The planning
minima, at the time of arrival.
An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the following characteristics:
Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the certificate of airworthiness = 230; Number of seats
on board = 200; Scheduled number of passengers on board = 180. The minimum number of inhaler systems
provided in the aircraft cabin should be: 220
In accordance with Regulations, for the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are
compulsory on board any pressurised aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above: 25 000 ft
In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to: Give medical assistance to
passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator
controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal" position.
At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only? 32000 ft
Fact – pure O2 at 32 000 ft
As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen, the operations requirements in regard to the supply of
oxygen, for a pressurized aeroplane intended to be operated at FL 260 with 150 passengers on board are that:
1,3
1. Each crew member will have available a quick donning type of mask.
2. The aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 13 000ft.
3. The quantity of oxygen on board shall be sufficient for the supply of 100% of the occupants during the whole
flight time at cabin pressure altitude above 15 000 ft (not less than 10 minutes).
4. The first aid quantity of oxygen shall be sufficient for the supply of two passengers during the whole flight
time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet.
Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew
efficiency is not impaired is: 8 000 ft
For a pressurized aircraft, flying at FL240 with 150 passengers on board, the regulatory oxygen requirements
are: 2, 3
1. Each flight crew member shall be supplied with a quick donning oxygen mask.
2. The aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000m.
3. The quantity of oxygen on board shall be sufficient for the supply of 100% of the occupants during the whole
flight time at cabin pressure altitude above 15 000 ft (not less than 10 minutes).
4. The first aid quantity of oxygen shall be sufficient for the supply of three passengers during the whole flight
time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet.
Pressurised aeroplane operating ABOVE 25000ft require quick donning O2 masks

A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on
reaching the following altitude: 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks for the
passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before the cabin
pressure altitude exceeds: 15000 ft.
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and
following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin
pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is: 13000 ft
Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a
pressurized aircraft? FL 250
For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck
duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than: 2 hours
OXYGEN – NON-Pressurised
Regulations:
CAT.IDE.A.240 Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised aeroplanes
Non-pressurised aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft shall be equipped with supplemental
oxygen equipment capable of storing and dispensing the oxygen supplies in accordance with:
1. Occupants of flight crew compartment seats on flight crew compartment duty and crew members assisting flight crew
in their duties:
The entire flying time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft.
2. Required cabin crew members:

The entire flying time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure
altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft.
3. Additional crew members and 100 % of passengers:

The entire flying time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft.
4. 10 % of passengers:
The entire flying time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft.
According to Regulations, for a non pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is: Required to operate at
pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
According to Regulations, for a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with
supplemental oxygen during: The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft
Crew protective breathing equipment shall provide protection for the eyes, nose and mouth for a period of at
least: 15 minutes
In accordance with Regulations, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be
fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than: 13 000 ft
According to Regulations, for a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied
with supplemental oxygen during: The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period
exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
In accordance with Regulations, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurised
aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
10000 ft.
In accordance with Regulations, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied
with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than: 10 000 ft but
not exceeding 13 000 ft
In NAT airspace, 2 long range navigation systems have failed; there is no answer from ATS after a reasonable
time, you should broadcast on 121.5 and: consider climbing or descending 500 feet.
The EASA OPS is based on: ICAO Appendix 6
The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following operational
minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by
the controller. The pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 metres.
An operator shall ensure that for the

The following items are to be kept on the ground:
duration of each flight or series of flights,

relevant information is preserved on the
1. A copy of the operational flight plan where appropriate;
ground. This includes: Mass and balance
2. Copies of the relevant part(s) of the aeroplane technical log;
documentation, if required.
3. Route specific NOTAM documentation if specifically edited by
In accordance with Regulations, for a non the operator;
pressurised aeroplane, all occupants of 4. Mass and balance documentation if required; and
flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall 5. Special loads notification.
be supplied with supplemental oxygen
during: The entire flight time at pressure
altitudes above 10000 ft
In accordance with Regulations, 10% of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with
supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:
10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.
In accordance with Regulations, 100% of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with
supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above: 13000 ft.
According to Regulations, following a decompression, the maximum pressure altitude at which each member
of the flight crew on flight deck duty are able to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation
is: 10000 ft
For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with
supplemental oxygen during: The entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
You are flying at 11,000ft with a differential pressure of 0. Which of following the statements is correct?
both pilots shall be on supplemental oxygen
Take offs needed:
The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aeroplane by an operator must not
be less than: 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved simulator in the
preceding 90 days
In accordance with Regulations, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot
operation under IFR shall be: 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90
days in a the single-pilot role.
In accordance with Regulations, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as
commander unless: He has carried out at least in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take-offs, approaches and
landings in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class.
According to Regulations, the recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an

aeroplane by an operator must not be less than: 3 take-offs, approaches and landings in an aircraft of the same
type or class or an FFS representing that type or class, in the preceding 90 days
Regulations requires that a co-pilot does not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying
passengers unless: he has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take-offs, approaches and landings in an
aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class.
FUEL:
When planning to an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must ensure the minimum quantity
of fuel loaded includes additional fuel, which should be: fuel to fly for 2 hours at normal cruise consumption
above the destination aerodrome, this should not be less than final reserve fuel;
Final reserve fuel, which should be:

(i) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes; or
(ii) for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome
elevation in standard conditions, calculated with the estimated mass on arrival at the destination alternate aerodrome or
the
destination aerodrome, when no destination alternate aerodrome is required.
CAT.OP.MPA.280 In-flight fuel management — aeroplanes

(b) In-flight fuel management
(1) The flight shall be conducted so that the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome is
not less than:
(i) the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel; or
(ii) the final reserve fuel if no alternate aerodrome is required.
Answer: 2
FIRE:
H2O extinguishers are fit to fight fires on: Carbonaceous materials
A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight: 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

1. Class A fires
2. Class B fires
3. Electrical source fires
4. Special fires: metals, gas, chemicals
You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1, 2, 3, 4

1. A paper fire
2. A plastic fire
3. A hydrocarbon fire
4. An electrical fire
A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1, 3, 5

1. A paper fire
3. A fabric fire
5. A wood fire
A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

1. A paper fire
2. A fabric fire
3. An electric fire
4. A wood fire
You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of:1

1. Solids (fabric, carpet, ...)
2. Liquids (ether, gasoline, ...)
3. Gas
4. Metals (sodium, …)
A class A fire is a fire of: Solid material, generally of organic nature
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1,2,3

1. Solids (fabric, plastic, …)
2. Liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)
3. Gas
4. Metals (aluminium, magnesium, …)
HALON is multi purpose – and is what you will have in the cockpit … but not on METAL FIRES
Which of the following items, required to be on board an aircraft for operating reasons in accordance with the
relevant Regulations, are classified as dangerous goods? 1, 2, 3, 4
1. Fire extinguishers
2. Self-inflating life jackets
3. Portable oxygen supplies
4. First-aid kits
AOC holders for each aircraft type must establish noise procedures for? Departure and arrival
The fire extinguisher types which may be used to fight fire on flammable liquids are: 2, 3, 4
2. CO2
3. Dry-chemical
4. Halon
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
1. H2O
2. CO2
3. Dry-chemical
4. Halon
You could use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1, 2, 3, 4

1. A paper fire
2. A plastic fire
The aircraft brakes have overheated, the tyre fuse plugs have blown and wheels have caught fire. What is the
best course of action? Fight fire with water – lots of it
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate

action is required to extinguish it. The
safest extinguishant to use is:
Dry powder
From an IDENTIFIED source, isolate any

appropriate electrics, and immediately fight
the source of the fire.
From an UNIDENTIFIED source in the

cockpit or passenger cabin, time is critical.
IMMEDIATELY point the aircraft at the
nearest diversion airfield,
The fire extinguisher types which may

be used on class B fires are:
1. H2O
2. CO2
3. Dry-chemical
4. Halon
What MAY BE USED on CLASS B (flammable liquid) fires – definitely NOT H20 –
Following a fire in the cabin which has been extinguished, what action would be the crew’s next priority? Move
passengers away from the initial fire location.
Halon or equivalent fire extinguishers can be used in case of fire fighting in an aeroplane: In the cockpit and
cargo holds.
CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight fire on: 1, 2, 3

1. Carbonaceous materials
2. Flammable liquids
3. Electrical equipment
4. Metals
A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher could be used to fight the fire of:
1, 2, 3, 4
1. Paper, fabric, carpet
3. Electrical equipment
4. Metals, flammable gases, chemicals
Which of the following statements is correct regarding hot brakes and wheel fires? Rapid cooling of a hot
wheel may cause the wheel to explode
In the case of overheating of the brakes following the landing, the appropriate action at the parking position is:
2, 4
1. Set parking brake on
2. Set parking brake off, with chocks in position
3. Spray water on the brakes
4. Ventilate the brakes
A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

1. A paper fire
3. A fabric fire
5. A wood fire
Class A
Fires involving solid materials, usually of an organic nature, in which combustion normally takes place with the formation
of glowing
Class B
Fires involving liquids or liquefiable solids
Class C
Fires involving gases
Class D
Fires involving metals
A hand water fire-extinguisher should be used on a fire of: Paper, fabric, carpet
A halon fire-extinguisher should be used on a fire of: 1, 2, 3

1. Paper, fabric, plastic
3. Flammable gases
4. Metals
Following a wheel fire after the tyre fuse plugs have blown, the fire section will fight the fire with: Water
Before fuse plugs have blown:

Treat as HOT BRAKES - try to cool them - parking brake off, ventilate wheels and/or use a water fog/mist (no thermal
shock)
After fuse plugs have blown:

Treat as BRAKE FIRE - damage has been done, so get in there and hose the wheels down with LOTS of water - be
aggressive, get rid of the heat
A class B fire is a fire of: Liquid or liquefiable solid
CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 2 - 3 - (non UK - might include 1)
1. Class A fires
2. Class B fires
3. Fires with an electrical origin
4. Special fires: metals, gas, chemical products
H2O extinguishers are fit to fight: Class A fires
The fire extinguisher types which may be used to fight fire on carbonaceous materials are: 1, 2, 3, 4
1. H2O
2. CO2
3. Dry-chemical
4. Halon
CO2 not ideal – but the question asked ‘what may be used …’

Operational Procedures EASA

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Operational Procedures EASA

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According to Regulations, what is the planning minima for

a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available?

According to Regulations, what is the planning minima for

According to Regulations, planning minima for a

Type of approach................... Planning minima

Operations Manual – laid out in 4 parts:

DH below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft;

MOCA is 8300 ft, what is maximum obstacle or terrain height? 6280 ft

A departure aerodrome can also be used as a: En-route alternate and

point in time is: -5°

GYRO, corrected for astronomical precession (EARTH RATE) … GREAT CIRCLE

The minimum time track is a track defined for: A given travel

For unrestricted MNPS operations 2 LRNSs are required

For turbo-jet aircraft, 0.6

The number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose

The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the

In accordance with Regulations, an aeroplane whose maximum

The minimum number of hand fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin

According to Regulations, an aeroplane whose maximum operational passenger seating configuration is 10

Earth Rate Error = 15 x Sine Mean Latitude x Time

Earth Rate Error = 15 x Sine 59°57' x 2.5 hours = 32.5°

In accordance with Regulations, an operator must ensure Facility ............................. Lowest DH/MDH (ft)

Runway edge lights and runway centre line lights: 200m

MNPS is the abbreviation for: Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.

The MNPS airspace extends from: 27° North to 90° North.

140°E, what is the grid heading? 136°

A minimum time track is a: Track determined according to weather conditions

What is the minimum RVR for a visual approach? 800m

The abbreviation MNPS means: Minimum Navigation Performance Specification

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification

An Air Operator Certificate is issued by: The competent authority

What is the meaning of 'Commercial Air Transport' operations?

The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic

Special Operational Procedures & Hazards (General Aspects)

The actual protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1, 2, 3, 4

Under Regulations, AOC holders shall, for each

In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects of a J – A380

A passenger is allowed to carry safety matches: 1

Type of approach ..................... Planning minima

The commander, always using the list of prohibited items.

Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum

Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum

To fight a fire in an air-conditioned class E cargo

When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for

For stable clouds: 1,3,5

Malfunctioning of the automatic pressurization system is indicated by: 1, 2, 3.

The highest risk of bird strikes occurs: Under 2500 ft.

HEAVY (H) – MTOM 136 000 kg or more

According to Regulations, for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance class B or C

(i) 120 minutes (ii) 300 NM

In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will: 2, 3, 4

Type of approach...............................Planning minima

Evacuation slide normal inflation is achieved by: A pressurised gas canister.

If a packet is marked with the label shown in the Annex it is :

Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a

A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be: Contaminated

Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum

According to ICAO Doc 4444 , a wake turbulence non-