Que&Ans Neet 2021 (Code p1)
Que&Ans Neet 2021 (Code p1)
P1
GAJAHA
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456
Time : 3 hrs.
Questions & Answers Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2021
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options with a
single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to
attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (Candidates are
advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the
question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions
answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.)
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For every
wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will
be given no marks. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is P1.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
Answer Sheet. Use of whiste fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in
the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
PHYSICS
3. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current (3) (A) and (B) both are incorrect
of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed (4) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular
distance between the electron and the conductor is Answer (4)
20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the 7. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
force experienced by the electron at that instant. fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
5 energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV
Electron v = 10 m/s
while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in
the Binding Energy in the process is
20 cm (1) 216 MeV (2) 0.9 MeV
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
18. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the 21. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane,
starting from rest at time t = 0. Let S n be the
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3. distance travelled by the block in the interval
Sn
t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is
Sn 1
2n 2n 1
(1) (2)
2n 1 2n
60° 2n 1 2n 1
(3) (4)
2n 1 2n 1
(1) 90°
Answer (3)
(2) 60°
22. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave
(3) 30° lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same
(4) 45° axis with a distance 'd' between them. If a parallel
Answer (2) beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a parallel
beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be
19. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In
which direction will it move? (1) 30 (2) 25
(3) 15 (4) 50
Answer (3)
23. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v. The
escape velocity from the surface of another planet
E having a radius, four times that of Earth and same
+q –q
mass density is
(1) 4v (2) v
(3) 2v (4) 3v
Answer (1)
(1) Towards the right as its potential energy will
increase. 24. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are
(2) Towards the left as its potential energy will
increase. connected in series to an ac source of potential
difference 'V' volts as shown in figure.
(3) Towards the right as its potential energy will
decrease. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V
(4) Towards the left as its potential energy will and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current
decrease. flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A . The
Answer (3) impedance of the circuit is
20. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
used to measure the diameter of a wire
Main scale reading : 0 mm
40 V 10 V 40 V
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 ~
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the V
wire from the above data is (1) 5
(1) 0.052 cm (2) 4 2
(2) 0.52 cm
5
(3) 0.026 cm (3)
2
(4) 0.26 cm (4) 4
Answer (1) Answer (1)
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
25. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The 29. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of
time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
suspended by it is frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine?
(1) 0.628 s (2) 0.0628 s
(g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 6.28 s (4) 3.14 s
(1) 7.0 kW
Answer (1)
(2) 10.2 kW
26. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries (3) 8.1 kW
current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-
(4) 12.3 kW
section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the
cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the cable Answer (3)
is represented by 30. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across
an ac source of voltage V, given by
V = V0sint
V0
B B (3) Id cos t
(3) (4) C
r r V0
Answer (4) (4) Id sin t
C
A
27. A radioactive nucleus ZX undergoes spontaneous Answer (2)
decay in the sequence 31. The number of photons per second on an average
A emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
Z X Z 1 B Z 3 C Z 2 D , where Z is the atomic
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
number of element X. The possible decay particles in
3.3 × 10–3 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s)
the sequence are
(1) 1015
(1) –, , + (2) , –, +
(2) 1018
(3) , +, – (4) +, , –
(3) 1017
Answer (4)
28. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, (4) 1016
when dropped in a container filled with glycerine Answer (4)
becomes constant after some time. If the density of
32. The electron concentration in an n-type
d semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the
2 a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is
ball will be
applied across each of them. Compare the currents
(1) 2Mg in them.
Mg (1) No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow
(2)
2 in n-type
(3) Mg (2) Current in n-type = current in p-type
3 (3) Current in p-type > current in n-type
(4) Mg
2 (4) Current in n-type > current in p-type.
Answer (2) Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
33. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
SECTION - B
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of
cross-section and same material is 0.25 . What will
be the effective resistance if they are connected in 36. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc
series? corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
(1) 4 (2) 0.25
about an axis passing through the centre of the ring
(3) 0.5 (4) 1 and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' times
Answer (1) 'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is
34. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the 1
(1)
correct match from the given choices. 8
Column - I Column - II 3
(2)
1 4
2
(A) Root mean square (P) nmv 7
3 (3)
speed of gas 8
molecules
1
3 RT (4)
(B) Pressure exerted (Q) 4
M
Answer (2)
by ideal gas
5 37. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from
(C) Average kinetic (R) RT a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror
2
energy of a were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens
molecule and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image
3 would be formed at a distance of
(D) Total internal (S) kBT
2
energy of 1 mole
of a diatomic gas
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
(3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
60 cm 40 cm
(4) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) (1) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
image
Answer (4)
(2) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
35. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '' is incident
on a photosensitive surface of negligible work (3) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from (4) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
the surface has de-Broglie wavelength d , then image
Answer (1)
2h 2
(1) d 38. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are
mc
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be
the output at the terminal y?
2m 2
(2) d t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
hc 5
A
0
2mc 2
(3) d
h 5
B
0
2mc 2
(4) d
h
5
C
Answer (4) 0
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
41. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are
A
placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding.
If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M between them
will be directly proportional to
B R22
y (1)
R1
R1
C (2) R
2
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
R2
y
(1) (3) R
0V 1
5V
(2) R12
0V
(4)
(3) 5V R2
5V
(4) Answer (1)
0V
42. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are
Answer (3)
i3
39. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio i
t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person 1
sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit
of the ball at t = 6 s? is
(Take g = 10 m/s2) i 2 r2
r1
(1) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2
A i1 B
(2) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
i3 r3
(3) 20 m/s, 0
r2
(1) r r
(4) 20 2 m/s, 0 1 3
Answer (1) r1
40. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is (2) r r
2 3
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass
of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and r2
(3) r r
another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the 2 3
rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the
r1
value of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium.
(4) r r
(g = 10 m/s2) 1 2
Answer (3)
0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm
43. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity
v = kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
(Ve = escape velocity)
The maximum height above the surface reached by
2 kg m the particle is
1 1 Rk 2 2
(1) (2) R k
(1)
12
kg (2)
2
kg 1 k 2 1 k
2
1 1 k R 2k
(3) kg (4) kg (3) R (4)
3 6 1 k 1 k
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
44. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and 48. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m,
resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height.
in the shape of, The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is
(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'. (g = 10 m/s2) nearly
(1) 1.4 kg m/s
(ii) a square of side 'a'.
(2) 0 kg m/s
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
case respectively are (3) 4.2 kg m/s
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
CHEMISTRY
(3) Upto 2200 K (4) Upto 1900 K (3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B1
Answer (3) Answer (2)
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
62. BF 3 is planar and electron deficient compound. 69. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits
Hybridization and number of electrons around the which of the following particles?
central atom, respectively are :
(1) Neutron (n) (2) Beta (–)
(1) sp2 and 8 (2) sp3 and 4
(3) Alpha () (4) Gamma ()
(3) sp3 and 6 (4) sp2 and 6
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
70. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
63. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This
is : product formation is based on?
(1) 0° (2) 120°
(1) Huckel's Rule (2) Saytzeff's Rule
(3) 180° (4) 60°
(3) Hund's Rule (4) Hofmann Rule
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
64. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one
which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents 71. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi
is : broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
(1) Beryllium chloride emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light
(2) Calcium chloride c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
75. The major product of the following chemical reaction 78. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order
is : given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br,
CH3 (C 6 H 5CO) 2O2 I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF,
CH CH CH2 + HBr ?
CH3 HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength
increases.
CH3 In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) CBr CH2 – CH3 correct answer from the options given below.
CH3
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
CH3 (2) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(2) CH CH2 CH2 Br
CH3 (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(3)
Answer (2)
79. Noble gases are named because of their inertness
CH 3 towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement
(4) CH CH CH 3 about them.
CH 3
Br (1) Noble gases have large positive values of
electron gain enthalpy
Answer (2)
(2) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
76. Match List-I with List-II. (3) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
points
List-I List-II
(4) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
Answer (3)
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar 80. The compound which shows metamerism is :
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral (1) C4H10O (2) C5H12
(3) C3H8O (4) C3H6O
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
Answer (1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given 81. Choose the correct option for graphical representation
below. of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) volume of a gas at different temperatures :
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
84. For a reaction A B, enthalpy of reaction is
–4.2 kJ mol –1 and enthalpy of activation is
9.6 kJ mol–1. The correct potential energy profile for
Pressure (P) (200 K, 400 K, 600 K) the reaction is shown in option.
(bar)
(3)
B
PE A
(1)
Volume (V)
3
(dm )
K Reaction Progress
0
K
20
0
40
0K
Pressure (P)
(2) PE B
60 A
(bar)
Volume (V)
3
(dm ) PE A
(3)
B
Answer (1)
Reaction Progress
82. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C—X' bond
is :
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
87. Match List-I with List-II. 90. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20
S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant of
List-I List-II
acetic acid? Choose the correct option.
(a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) (i) Acid rain
2SO3(g) + 350 S cm2 mol1
H
(b) HOCl(g)
h
(ii) Smog 50 S cm 2
mol 1
CH3COO
OH + Cl
(1) 2.50 105 mol L1 (2) 1.75 104 mol L1
(c) CaCO3+ H2SO4 (iii) Ozone
CaSO4 + H2O+CO2 depletion (3) 2.50 104 mol L1 (4) 1.75 105 mol L1
(d) NO2 (g)
h
(iv) Tropospheric Answer (4)
NO(g) + O(g) pollution 91. In which one of the following arrangements the
given sequence is not strictly according to the
Choose the correct answer from the options given properties indicated against it?
below.
(1) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
< HBr < HI strength
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
Answer (4)
< H2Se < H2Te values
88. Match List-I with List-II
(4) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing
List-I List-II
< AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character
CO, HCI
(a) (i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky Answer (3)
Anhyd. AlCl3/
CuCl reaction
O 92. The intermediate compound 'X' in the following
chemical reaction is:
(b) R — C — CH 3 + (ii) Gattermann-Koch
reaction O
NaOX
CH3 C
(c) R — CH2 — OH (iii) Haloform reaction CS2 H 3O
+
H
+ CrO 2Cl2 X
+R COOH
Conc. H2SO 4
Cl
CH
H
(d) R — CH 2COOH (iv) Esterification (1)
(I ) X2/Red P
I
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
94. Match List-I with List-II. O
CH 2 –CH 2–OH
List-I List-II
(3)
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM CH 3
Choose the correct answer from the options given Answer (1)
below. 97. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of
a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ratio 3 : 2 is :
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) [At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg
and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(1) 350 mm of Hg (2) 160 mm of Hg
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) 168 mm of Hg (4) 336 mm of Hg
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
NaOH, +?
95. CH3CH2COO– Na+ Heat
CH3CH3 + Na2CO3. 98. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
isothermal condition, the correct option is:
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing
(1) U 0, Stotal = 0 (2) U = 0, Stotal = 0
reagent/chemical.
(3) U 0, Stotal 0 (4) U = 0, Stotal 0
(1) DIBAL-H
Answer (4)
(2) B2H6
99. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in
(3) Red Phosphorus atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in
a total volume of one litre at 0°C is :
(4) CaO
[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, T = 273 K]
Answer (4)
(1) 26.02 (2) 2.518
96. The product formed in the following chemical
reaction is: (3) 2.602 (4) 25.18
Answer (4)
O O
NaBH4 100. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical
CH2–C–OCH3 C2H5OH
?
reaction is:
–
NH2 N2 Cl –
–
CH3
Br Br Br Br Br Br
NaNO2, HCl R
OH O 0.5°C
CH 2 –C–OCH3 Br Br Br
(1) (1) CuCN/KCN
CH 3
(2) H2O
OH H (3) CH3CH2OH
CH 2 –C–OCH3
(4) HI
(2)
OH
CH 3 Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
BOTANY
105. Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer (3)
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
109. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which 115. Which of the following are not secondary
mechanism the competing species might have metabolites in plants?
evolved for their survival? (1) Rubber, gums (2) Morphine, codeine
(1) Predation (3) Amino acids, glucose (4) Vinblastin, curcumin
(2) Resource partitioning Answer (3)
(3) Competitive release 116. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
(4) Mutualism
Answer (2)
110. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide (1) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication;
when viewed under UV radiation, appear as (d)-Protein
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given 124. Match List-I with List-II.
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Answer (4)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
120. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as below.
reserve food material?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Ulothrix (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Ectocarpus (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) Gracilaria (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Volvox (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal Answer (3)
cells 126. Amensalism can be represented as:
(4) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between (1) Species A (+); Species B (0)
the materials present inside the nucleus and that (2) Species A (–); Species B (0)
of the cytoplasm
(3) Species A (+); Species B (+)
Answer (2)
(4) Species A (–); Species B (–)
122. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
Answer (2)
(1) Zeatin 127. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
(2) Kinetin division of centromere?
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
129. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, 134. Match List-I with List-II
phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
given time, is referred as :
List-I List-II
(1) Standing crop
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
(2) Climax
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
(3) Climax community
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
(4) Standing state
(1) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
is upright.
(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright. (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Pyramid of energy is always upright. (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
137. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene 141. Which of the following statements of incorrect?
causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to
hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, (1) Oxidation-reducation reactions produce proton
followed by its detection using autoradiography gradient in respiration
because :
(2) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
(1) mutated gene does not appear on photographic
limited to the terminal stage
film as the probe has complementarity with it
(2) mutated gene partially appears on a (3) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule
photographic film of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules,
(3) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
a photographic film
(4) ATP is synthesized through complex V
(4) mutated gene does not appear on a
photographic film as the probe has no Answer (3)
complementarity with it
142. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer (4)
138. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the (1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I
process of transcription in eukaryotes? and PS II
(1) Transcribes only snRNAs (2) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized
(2) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S) during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA (3) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP
(4) Transcribes precursor of mRNA reductase
Answer (3)
(4) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
139. Select the correct pair.
Answer (1)
(1) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma 143. Which of the following statements is correct ?
and forming a lens shaped
(1) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
opening in bark
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
(2) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells
cells in the epidermis (2) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
of grass leaves
(3) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on
(3) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
bundles are surrounded tissue
by large thick-walled cells (4) Organisms that depend on living plants are
called saprophytes
(4) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
that form part of cambium Answer (3)
cambial ring
144. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in
Answer (4)
some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
140. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e
represents (1) Polymorphic DNA
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
145. Match List-I with List-II. 148. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site
within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance.
List-I List-II If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for
(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds β-galactoside production and the recombinant
(b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
fatty acid bonds (1) It will be able to produce a novel protein with
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
dual ability
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
(2) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance
Choose the correct answer from the options given to the host cell
below. (3) The transformed cells will have the ability to
resist ampicillin as well as produce
(a) (b) (c) (d) β-galactoside
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) It will lead to lysis of host cell
147. In some members of which of the following pairs of Choose the correct answer from the options given
families, pollen grains retain their viability for months below.
after release? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) Poaceae ; Rosaceae (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) Poaceae ; Leguminosae (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) Poaceae ; Solanaceae (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer (1) Answer (4)
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
ZOOLOGY
(1) siRNA
(2) mRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) rRNA Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
Answer (1)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
152. Succus entericus is referred to as:
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Chyme
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) Pancreatic juice (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Intestinal juice (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction 158. Match List-I with List-II
of midgut and hind gut List-I List-II
(3) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by Aspergillus
(a) niger (i ) Acetic Acid
the mouth parts
(b) Acetobacter (ii) Lactic Acid
aceti
(4) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital
(c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid
pouch butylicum
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
162. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
159. With regard to insulin choose correct options.
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
number of chromosomes after S phase?
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-
peptide. (1) 32 (2) 8
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
167. The organelles that are included in the 171. Match List-I with List-II.
endomembrane system are
List-I List-II
(1) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through
Mitochondria and Lysosomes
Cervix is blocked
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, (b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas
Ribosomes and Lysosomes deferens
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, (c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of
Lysosomes and Vacuoles sperms within the Uterus
(4) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and (d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube
Lysosomes
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (3) below
168. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what (a) (b) (c) (d)
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Cytosine in it?
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25 (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20 (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) Degenerate primer sequence 173. In a cross between a male and female, both
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
(3) Okazaki sequences
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
(4) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences (1) 100% (2) 50%
Answer (4) (3) 75% (4) 25%
Answer (4)
170. Which of the following statements wrongly
represents the nature of smooth muscle? 174. Read the following statements
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(1) These muscles are present in the wall of blood
vessels (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
animals.
(2) These muscle have no striations
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body
(3) They are involuntary muscles organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
(4) Communication among the cells is performed by
digestion.
intercalated discs
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
Answer (4) Echinoderms.
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given 180. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
below. formation is produced by:
(1) (b), (c) and (e) are correct (1) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
(2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct (2) Alpha cells of pancreas
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (3) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
(4) The cells of bone marrow
(4) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
181. Which one of the following belongs to the family
175. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present Muscidae?
on :
(1) House fly (2) Fire fly
(1) Zona pellucida (2) Corona radiata
(3) Grasshopper (4) Cockroach
(3) Vitelline membrane (4) Perivitelline space Answer (1)
Answer (1) 182. Veneral diseases can spread through :
176. Sphincter of oddi is present at: (a) Using sterile needles
(1) Junction of jejunum and duodenum (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(2) Ileo-caecal junction
(d) Kissing
(3) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and
duodenum (e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the option given
(4) Gastro-oesophageal junction
below
Answer (3) (1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
177. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro (3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (c) only
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
Answer (4)
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
183. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and
(1) Gout (2) Arthritis carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion)
(3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Myasthenia gravis are:
(1) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
Answer (4)
(2) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
178. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as
"Universal recipients". This is due to : (3) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
(1) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in (4) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
plasma Answer (2)
(2) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of 184. Which one of the following is an example of
RBCs Hormone releasing IUD?
(3) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma (1) Multiload 375 (2) CuT
(4) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on (3) LNG 20 (4) Cu 7
RBCs
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
185. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
179. The centriole undergoes duplication during: terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
(1) G2 phase (2) S-phase (1) Pachytene (2) Leptotene
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
SECTION - B
below.
186. Which of these is not an important component of (a) (b) (c) (d)
initiation of parturition in humans ? (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(1) Release of Prolactin (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) Synthesis of prostaglandins (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) Release of Oxytocin Answer (2)
Answer (1) 190. Match List-I with List - II
187. Following are the statements about prostomium of
List - I List - II
earthworm.
(a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it
adaptation
can crawl.
(c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish
(c) It is one of the sensory structures.
adaptation at depth
(d) It is the first body segment.
(d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal
Choose the correct answer from the options given adaptation
below.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) (b) and (c) are correct
below.
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer (2)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
188. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
(1) Addison's disease (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at
anthropogenic high altitude, the body does not get sufficient
action oxygen.
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
In the light of the above statements, choose the Choose the correct answer from the options given
correct answer from the options given below below.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true (1) (b) and (e) only
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) (a) and (b) only
explanation of (A)
(3) (c) and (d) only
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(4) (b) and (c) only
correct explanation of (A)
Answer (4)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
196. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
Answer (2) relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
193. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple (1) Uterus (2) Graafian follicle
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
(3) Corpus luteum (4) Foetus
(1) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate
mothers at 8-32 cell stage Answer (3)
(2) Cow is administered hormone having LH like 197. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
activity for super ovulation the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
(3) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
(4) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
Answer (2) (1) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
respectively
194. Match List-I with List-II
(2) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
List -I List -II
respectively
Haemophilus
(a) Filariasis (i) (3) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
influenzae
(b) (ii) (4) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
Amoebiasis Trichophyton
respectively.
Wuchereria
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Answer (3)
bancrofti
Entamoeba 198. Match List-I with List-II
(d) Ringworm (iv)
histolytica
Choose the correct answer from the options given List -I List -II
below Cartilaginous
(a) Scapula (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d) joints
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
199. During muscular contraction which of the following 200. Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for
events occur? methionine and phenylalanine.
(a) 'H' zone disappears
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code
(b) 'A' band widens
for the amino acid lysine.
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and
correct answer from the options given below.
Pi.
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards. (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Choose the correct answer from the options given true
below: (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(1) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) only (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
false
(4) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
Answer (2) Answer (1)
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