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Que&Ans Neet 2021 (Code p1)

This document provides instructions for a test being administered. It states that the test is 3 hours long and contains 200 multiple choice questions across two sections for each subject. Students must attempt all 35 questions in Section A and select 10 out of 15 questions in Section B. Each correct answer receives 4 marks, while incorrect answers lose 1 mark. The maximum score is 720 marks. The document emphasizes following test protocols like using the provided pen, showing their admission card, and not leaving their seat without permission.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
552 views27 pages

Que&Ans Neet 2021 (Code p1)

This document provides instructions for a test being administered. It states that the test is 3 hours long and contains 200 multiple choice questions across two sections for each subject. Students must attempt all 35 questions in Section A and select 10 out of 15 questions in Section B. Each correct answer receives 4 marks, while incorrect answers lose 1 mark. The maximum score is 720 marks. The document emphasizes following test protocols like using the provided pen, showing their admission card, and not leaving their seat without permission.

Uploaded by

Nayanagni
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 27

DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code

P1
GAJAHA

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Questions & Answers Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2021
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options with a
single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to
attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (Candidates are
advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the
question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions
answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.)
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For every
wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will
be given no marks. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is P1.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
Answer Sheet. Use of whiste fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in
the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

PHYSICS

(1) 8 × 10–20 N (2) 4 × 10–20 N


SECTION - A
(3) 8 × 10–20 N (4) 4 × 10–20 N
1. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
Answer (1)
balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell
of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what 4. Polar molecules are the molecules
length of the wire, the balance point occurs? (1) Having a permanent electric dipole moment
(1) 62 cm (2) 60 cm (2) Having zero dipole moment
(3) 21.6 cm (4) 64 cm (3) Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of
electric field due to displacement of charges
Answer (2)
(4) Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field
2. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with
is absent
flow of current through a metallic conductor.
Answer (1)
Column-II gives some mathematical relations
5. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes,
involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and
when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken
Column-II with appropriate relations. by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C
Column-I Column-II at a room temperature same at 20°C is
5 13
m (1) t (2) t
(A) Drift Velocity (P) 13 10
ne 2 
13 10
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd (3) t (4) t
5 13
eE Answer (3)
(C) Relaxation Period (R) 
m 6. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and
identify the correct answer.
E
(D) Current Density (S)
J (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when
used as a voltage regulator.
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q) (B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between
0.1 V to 0.3 V.
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P)
(1) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
Answer (2) (2) (A) and (B) both are correct.

3. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current (3) (A) and (B) both are incorrect
of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed (4) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular
distance between the electron and the conductor is Answer (4)
20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the 7. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
force experienced by the electron at that instant. fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
5 energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV
Electron v = 10 m/s
while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in
the Binding Energy in the process is
20 cm (1) 216 MeV (2) 0.9 MeV

(3) 9.4 MeV (4) 804 MeV


P 5A Q Answer (1)
2
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
8. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and 13. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen
R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the
charge densities of the spheres (1/2) is dimensions of energy.
R12 R1 (1) [F][A–1][T] (2) [F][A][T]
(1) (2) R
R22 2 (3) [F][A][T2] (4) [F][A][T–1]
R2  R1  Answer (3)
(3) R (4) R 
1  2 14. A particle is released from height S from the surface
of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is
Answer (3)
three times its potential energy. The height from the
9. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that
frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is
instant are respectively
(1) 4n (2) n
S 3gS S 3gS
(3) 2n (4) 3n (1) , (2) ,
4 2 4 2
Answer (3)
S 3gS S 3gS
10. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The (3) , (4) ,
4 2 2 2
fraction of original activity that will remain after
150 hours would be Answer (1)

2 15. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown


1
(1) (2) in the figure is
3 2 2
C
1 2
(3) (4)
2 2 3 C
Answer (3)
C
11. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
x-direction, which one of the following combination 3C
(1) (2) 3C
gives the correct possible directions for electric field 2
(E) and magnetic field (B) respectively? C
(3) 2C (4)
2
(1)  j  k,  j  k
Answer (3)

(2) j  k, j  k 16. If E and G respectively denote energy and


E
gravitational constant, then has the dimensions of
(3)  j  k ,  j  k G
(1) [M2] [L–2] [T–1] (2) [M2] [L–1] [T0]
(4) j  k,  j  k
(3) [M] [L–1] [T–1] (4) [M] [L0] [T0]
Answer (3) Answer (2)
12. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field 17. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best
 suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope
' E ' in the space between the plates. If the distance
between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate is since
'A', the energy stored in the capacitor is (1) A large aperture contributes to the quality and
(0 = permittivity of free space) visibility of the images.
(2) A large area of the objective ensures better light
E 2 Ad 1
(1) (2) 0 E 2 gathering power.
0 2
(3) A large aperture provides a better resolution.
1
(3) 0EAd (4) 0 E 2 Ad (4) All of the above
2
Answer (4) Answer (4)

3
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

18. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the 21. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane,
starting from rest at time t = 0. Let S n be the
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3. distance travelled by the block in the interval
Sn
t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is
Sn 1

2n 2n  1
(1) (2)
2n  1 2n

60° 2n  1 2n  1
(3) (4)
2n  1 2n  1
(1) 90°
Answer (3)
(2) 60°
22. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave
(3) 30° lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same
(4) 45° axis with a distance 'd' between them. If a parallel
Answer (2) beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a parallel
beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be
19. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In
which direction will it move? (1) 30 (2) 25
(3) 15 (4) 50
Answer (3)
23. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v. The
escape velocity from the surface of another planet
E having a radius, four times that of Earth and same
+q –q
mass density is
(1) 4v (2) v
(3) 2v (4) 3v
Answer (1)
(1) Towards the right as its potential energy will
increase. 24. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are
(2) Towards the left as its potential energy will
increase. connected in series to an ac source of potential
difference 'V' volts as shown in figure.
(3) Towards the right as its potential energy will
decrease. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V
(4) Towards the left as its potential energy will and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current
decrease. flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A . The
Answer (3) impedance of the circuit is
20. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
used to measure the diameter of a wire
Main scale reading : 0 mm
40 V 10 V 40 V
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 ~
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the V
wire from the above data is (1) 5 
(1) 0.052 cm (2) 4 2 
(2) 0.52 cm
5
(3) 0.026 cm (3) 
2
(4) 0.26 cm (4) 4 
Answer (1) Answer (1)

4
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

25. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The 29. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of
time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
suspended by it is frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine?
(1) 0.628 s (2) 0.0628 s
(g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 6.28 s (4) 3.14 s
(1) 7.0 kW
Answer (1)
(2) 10.2 kW
26. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries (3) 8.1 kW
current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-
(4) 12.3 kW
section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the
cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the cable Answer (3)
is represented by 30. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across
an ac source of voltage V, given by
V = V0sint

B B The displacement current between the plates of the


(1) (2) capacitor, would then be given by
r r (1) Id = V0Csint
(2) Id = V0Ccost

V0
B B (3) Id  cos t
(3) (4) C

r r V0
Answer (4) (4) Id  sin t
C
A
27. A radioactive nucleus ZX undergoes spontaneous Answer (2)
decay in the sequence 31. The number of photons per second on an average
A emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
Z X Z 1 B Z 3 C Z 2 D , where Z is the atomic
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
number of element X. The possible decay particles in
3.3 × 10–3 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s)
the sequence are
(1) 1015
(1) –, , + (2) , –, +
(2) 1018
(3) , +, – (4) +, , –
(3) 1017
Answer (4)
28. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, (4) 1016
when dropped in a container filled with glycerine Answer (4)
becomes constant after some time. If the density of
32. The electron concentration in an n-type
d semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the
2 a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is
ball will be
applied across each of them. Compare the currents
(1) 2Mg in them.
Mg (1) No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow
(2)
2 in n-type
(3) Mg (2) Current in n-type = current in p-type
3 (3) Current in p-type > current in n-type
(4) Mg
2 (4) Current in n-type > current in p-type.
Answer (2) Answer (4)

5
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
33. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
SECTION - B
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of
cross-section and same material is 0.25 . What will
be the effective resistance if they are connected in 36. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc
series? corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
(1) 4  (2) 0.25 
about an axis passing through the centre of the ring
(3) 0.5  (4) 1  and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' times
Answer (1) 'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is
34. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the 1
(1)
correct match from the given choices. 8
Column - I Column - II 3
(2)
1 4
2
(A) Root mean square (P) nmv 7
3 (3)
speed of gas 8
molecules
1
3 RT (4)
(B) Pressure exerted (Q) 4
M
Answer (2)
by ideal gas
5 37. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from
(C) Average kinetic (R) RT a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror
2
energy of a were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens
molecule and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image
3 would be formed at a distance of
(D) Total internal (S) kBT
2
energy of 1 mole
of a diatomic gas
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
(3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
60 cm 40 cm
(4) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) (1) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
image
Answer (4)
(2) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
35. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '' is incident
on a photosensitive surface of negligible work (3) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from (4) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
the surface has de-Broglie wavelength d , then image
Answer (1)
 2h  2
(1)     d 38. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are
 mc 
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be
the output at the terminal y?
 2m  2
(2)     d t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
 hc  5
A
0
 2mc  2
(3) d   
 h  5
B
0
 2mc  2
(4)     d
 h 
5
C
Answer (4) 0
6
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
41. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are
A
placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding.
If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M between them
will be directly proportional to
B R22
y (1)
R1

R1
C (2) R
2

t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
R2
y
(1) (3) R
0V 1
5V
(2) R12
0V
(4)
(3) 5V R2
5V
(4) Answer (1)
0V
42. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are
Answer (3)
i3
39. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio i
t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person 1
sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit
of the ball at t = 6 s? is
(Take g = 10 m/s2) i 2 r2
r1
(1) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2
A i1 B
(2) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
i3 r3
(3) 20 m/s, 0
r2
(1) r  r
(4) 20 2 m/s, 0 1 3
Answer (1) r1
40. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is (2) r  r
2 3
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass
of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and r2
(3) r  r
another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the 2 3
rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the
r1
value of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium.
(4) r  r
(g = 10 m/s2) 1 2
Answer (3)
0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm
43. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity
v = kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
(Ve = escape velocity)
The maximum height above the surface reached by
2 kg m the particle is

1 1 Rk 2 2
(1) (2) R  k 
(1)
12
kg (2)
2
kg 1 k 2  1 k 
 
2
1 1  k  R 2k
(3) kg (4) kg (3) R   (4)
3 6  1 k  1 k

Answer (1) Answer (1)

7
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

44. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and 48. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m,
resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height.
in the shape of, The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is
(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'. (g = 10 m/s2) nearly
(1) 1.4 kg m/s
(ii) a square of side 'a'.
(2) 0 kg m/s
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
case respectively are (3) 4.2 kg m/s

(1) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 (4) 2.1 kg m/s


Answer (3)
(2) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2
49. In the product
(3) 3 Ia2 and Ia2
  
(4) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2 
F  q v B 

Answer (2)

 qv  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ 
45. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains

supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W For q  1 and v  2iˆ  4 ˆj  6kˆ and
lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what 
is the current in the primary circuit? F  4iˆ – 20 ˆj  12kˆ

(1) 4 A What will be the complete expression for B ?
(2) 0.2 A
(1) 6iˆ  6 ˆj  8kˆ
(3) 0.4 A
(4) 2 A (2) –8iˆ – 8 ˆj  6kˆ

Answer (2) (3) –6iˆ – 6 jˆ  8kˆ


46. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 F
capacitor and 40  resistor is connected to 230 V (4) 8iˆ  8 jˆ  6kˆ
variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies Answer (3)
of the source at which power transferred to the circuit
is half the power at the resonant angular frequency 50. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
are likely to be uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
revolution. If this particle were projected with the same
(1) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
speed at an angle '' to the horizontal, the maximum
(2) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of
projection, , is then given by :
(3) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
1
(4) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s 2gT 2 
1 
2
(1)   sin  2 
Answer (4)   R 
1
47. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at gT 2 
1 
2

220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. (2)   cos  2 


 R
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
1
2
1   R 
2
(1) 1980 V
(3)   cos  2 
(2) 660 V  gT 
1
(3) 1320 V 2 R 
1 
2
(4)   sin  2 
(4) 1520 V  gT 
Answer (1) Answer (1)

8
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

CHEMISTRY

56. The correct option for the number of body centred


SECTION - A
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells
51. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa is :
at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and (1) 3 (2) 7
91.0 S cm 2 mol –1 respectively. The molar
(3) 5 (4) 2
conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
Answer (1)
Choose the right option for your answer.
57. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon
(1) 540.48 S cm2 mol–1 and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right
option for the empirical formula of this compound
(2) 201.28 S cm2 mol–1
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
(3) 390.71 S cm2 mol–1 (1) CH4 (2) CH

(4) 698.28 S cm2 mol–1 (3) CH2 (4) CH3


Answer (4)
Answer (3)
58. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and
52. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
ionic radii because of :
formed in the following chemical reaction?
(1) Having similar chemical properties
(i) C2H5MgBr, dry Ether
Acetone 
  Product (2) Belonging to same group
(ii) H2O, H

(3) Diagonal relationship


(1) 2-methylbutan-2-ol
(4) Lanthanoid contraction
(2) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
Answer (4)
(3) pentan-2-ol
59. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
(4) pentan-3-ol
(1) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
Answer (1)
(2) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N"
53. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving donor atoms
10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), (3) Unidentate ligand
10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and
10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). (4) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic Answer (2)
pressure of these solutions is :
60. The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
(1) P3 > P1 > P2 (2) P2 > P1 > P3
(3) P1 > P2 > P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1
Answer (2) (1) (2)

54. The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is


exhibited by", is :
(1) Urea solution (2) NaCl solution
(3) (4)
(3) Glucose solution (4) Starch solution
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
55. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in
61. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
blast furnace is :
(1) Upto 5000 K (2) Upto 1200 K (1) Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B12

(3) Upto 2200 K (4) Upto 1900 K (3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B1
Answer (3) Answer (2)

9
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

62. BF 3 is planar and electron deficient compound. 69. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits
Hybridization and number of electrons around the which of the following particles?
central atom, respectively are :
(1) Neutron (n) (2) Beta (–)
(1) sp2 and 8 (2) sp3 and 4
(3) Alpha () (4) Gamma ()
(3) sp3 and 6 (4) sp2 and 6
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
70. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
63. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This
is : product formation is based on?
(1) 0° (2) 120°
(1) Huckel's Rule (2) Saytzeff's Rule
(3) 180° (4) 60°
(3) Hund's Rule (4) Hofmann Rule
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
64. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one
which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents 71. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi
is : broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
(1) Beryllium chloride emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light
(2) Calcium chloride c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]

(3) Strontium chloride (1) 21.92 cm (2) 219.3 m

(4) Magnesium chloride (3) 219.2 m (4) 2192 m


Answer (2)
Answer (1)
65. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by 72. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and
addition polymerisation? octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
(1) Dacron (2) Teflon (1) 12, 6
(3) Nylon-66 (4) Novolac (2) 8, 4
Answer (2) (3) 6, 12
66. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and (4) 2, 1
vapour phase, are :
Answer (1)
(1) Chain in both
73. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's
(2) Chain and dimer, respectively reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
(3) Linear in both
CH2 CH2
(4) Dimer and Linear, respectively CH3 N CH3 CH 2
(1) (2) CH NO2
Answer (2) CH3 3

67. Which one of the following methods can be used to CH 2 CH2


obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room CH3
(3) CH3 NH (4) CH3 NH2
temperature?
Answer (4)
(1) Zone refining (2) Electrolysis
74. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are
(3) Chromatography (4) Distillation 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
Answer (4) option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
solution is :
68. Which one among the following is the correct option
for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole (1) 6.25
of ideal gas? (2) 8.50
(1) CV = RCP (2) CP + CV = R (3) 5.50
(3) CP – CV = R (4) CP = RCV (4) 7.75
Answer (3) Answer (4)

10
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
75. The major product of the following chemical reaction 78. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order
is : given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br,
CH3 (C 6 H 5CO) 2O2 I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF,
CH CH CH2 + HBr ?
CH3 HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength
increases.
CH3 In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) CBr CH2 – CH3 correct answer from the options given below.
CH3
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
CH3 (2) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(2) CH CH2 CH2 Br
CH3 (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(3)
Answer (2)
79. Noble gases are named because of their inertness
CH 3 towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement
(4) CH CH CH 3 about them.
CH 3
Br (1) Noble gases have large positive values of
electron gain enthalpy
Answer (2)
(2) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
76. Match List-I with List-II. (3) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
points
List-I List-II
(4) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
Answer (3)
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar 80. The compound which shows metamerism is :
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral (1) C4H10O (2) C5H12
(3) C3H8O (4) C3H6O
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
Answer (1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given 81. Choose the correct option for graphical representation
below. of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) volume of a gas at different temperatures :

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)


Pressure (P)

(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)


(bar)

(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)


600 K
(1)
Answer (2) 400 K
200 K
77. The incorrect statement among the following is :
Volume (V)
3
(1) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially (dm )
when finely divided.

(2) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to


Pressure (P)

element than lanthanoid contraction


(bar)

(3) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are (2) 200 K


colorless in the solid state
400 K
600 K
(4) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
electricity
Volume (V)
3
Answer (3) (dm )

11
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
84. For a reaction A  B, enthalpy of reaction is
–4.2 kJ mol –1 and enthalpy of activation is
9.6 kJ mol–1. The correct potential energy profile for
Pressure (P) (200 K, 400 K, 600 K) the reaction is shown in option.
(bar)
(3)
B
PE A
(1)
Volume (V)
3
(dm )
K Reaction Progress
0

K
20

0
40
0K
Pressure (P)

(2) PE B
60 A
(bar)

(4) Reaction Progress

Volume (V)
3
(dm ) PE A
(3)
B
Answer (1)
Reaction Progress
82. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C—X' bond
is :

(1) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 –I


(4)
(2) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl < CH3 – Br < CH3 –I

(3) CH3 – F > CH3 – Cl  CH3 – Br > CH3 – I


Answer (3)
(4) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl  CH3 – Br > CH3 – I 85. Which of the following reactions is the metal
displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
Answer (3)
(1) 2Pb(NO3)2  2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
83. Given below are two statements :

(2) 2KClO3   2KCl + 3O2
Statement I :

(3) Cr2O3 + 2Al   Al2O3 + 2Cr
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
narcotic analgesics. (4) Fe + 2HCl  FeCl2 + H2
Answer (3)
Statement II :
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In SECTION - B
the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.  1
86. The slope of Arrhenius plot  ln k v/s  of first
 T 
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
order reaction is –5 × 103K. The value of Ea of the
true.
reaction is. Choose the correct option for your
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true answer.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false [Given R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1]
(1) –83 kJ mol–1 (2) 41.5 kJ mol–1
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(3) 83.0 kJ mol–1 (4) 166 kJ mol–1
Answer (3) Answer (2)

12
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
87. Match List-I with List-II. 90. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20
S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant of
List-I List-II
acetic acid? Choose the correct option.
(a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  (i) Acid rain
2SO3(g)    +  350 S cm2 mol1 
 H 
(b) HOCl(g) 
h
 (ii) Smog    50 S cm 2
mol 1 

 
 CH3COO 
OH + Cl
(1) 2.50  105 mol L1 (2) 1.75  104 mol L1
(c) CaCO3+ H2SO4  (iii) Ozone
CaSO4 + H2O+CO2 depletion (3) 2.50  104 mol L1 (4) 1.75  105 mol L1
(d) NO2 (g) 
h
 (iv) Tropospheric Answer (4)
NO(g) + O(g) pollution 91. In which one of the following arrangements the
given sequence is not strictly according to the
Choose the correct answer from the options given properties indicated against it?
below.
(1) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
< HBr < HI strength
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
Answer (4)
< H2Se < H2Te values
88. Match List-I with List-II
(4) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing
List-I List-II
< AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character
CO, HCI
(a) (i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky Answer (3)
Anhyd. AlCl3/
CuCl reaction
O 92. The intermediate compound 'X' in the following
chemical reaction is:
(b) R — C — CH 3 + (ii) Gattermann-Koch
reaction O
NaOX
CH3 C
(c) R — CH2 — OH (iii) Haloform reaction CS2 H 3O
+
H
+ CrO 2Cl2 X
+R COOH
Conc. H2SO 4
Cl
CH
H
(d) R — CH 2COOH (iv) Esterification (1)
(I ) X2/Red P
I

(ii) H 2O CH(OCrOHCl 2)2


Choose the correct answer from the options given (2)
below.
CH(OCOCH 3 )2
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) (3)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
Cl
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) CH
Cl
(4)
(4) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
Answer (1) Answer (2)
89. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an 93. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in
iso-electronic pair? nature?
(1) Fe2+, Mn2+ (2) O2–, F– (1) NO2 (2) POCl3
(3) Na+, Mg2+ (4) Mn2+, Fe3+ (3) CH2O (4) SbCl5
Answer (1) Answer (4)

13
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
94. Match List-I with List-II. O
CH 2 –CH 2–OH
List-I List-II
(3)
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM CH 3

(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM OH H


CH 2 –C–CH3
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM
(4) OH
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM CH 3

Choose the correct answer from the options given Answer (1)
below. 97. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of
a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ratio 3 : 2 is :
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) [At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg
and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(1) 350 mm of Hg (2) 160 mm of Hg
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) 168 mm of Hg (4) 336 mm of Hg
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
NaOH, +?
95. CH3CH2COO– Na+ Heat
CH3CH3 + Na2CO3. 98. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
isothermal condition, the correct option is:
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing
(1) U  0, Stotal = 0 (2) U = 0, Stotal = 0
reagent/chemical.
(3) U  0, Stotal  0 (4) U = 0, Stotal  0
(1) DIBAL-H
Answer (4)
(2) B2H6
99. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in
(3) Red Phosphorus atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in
a total volume of one litre at 0°C is :
(4) CaO
[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, T = 273 K]
Answer (4)
(1) 26.02 (2) 2.518
96. The product formed in the following chemical
reaction is: (3) 2.602 (4) 25.18

Answer (4)
O O
NaBH4 100. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical
CH2–C–OCH3 C2H5OH
?
reaction is:

NH2 N2 Cl –

CH3
Br Br Br Br Br Br
NaNO2, HCl R

OH O 0.5°C

CH 2 –C–OCH3 Br Br Br
(1) (1) CuCN/KCN
CH 3
(2) H2O

OH H (3) CH3CH2OH
CH 2 –C–OCH3
(4) HI
(2)
OH
CH 3 Answer (3)

14
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

BOTANY

Select the correct answer from the options given


SECTION - A
below.
101. The production of gametes by the parents, formation (a) (b) (c) (d)
of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
from a diagram called :
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(1) Net square
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Bullet square
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Punch square
Answer (2)
(4) Punnett square
106. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from
Answer (4) anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant
102. Gemmae are present in which, during pollination, brings genetically different
types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
(1) Some Liverworts
(1) Cleistogamy
(2) Mosses
(2) Xenogamy
(3) Pteridophytes
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Some Gymnosperms
(4) Chasmogamy
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
103. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
107. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
population is :
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(1) Genetic drift
(1) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(2) Natural selection
(2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(3) Genetic recombination
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(4) Mutation
(4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
104. Plants follow different pathways in response to
108. Match List-I with List-II.
environment or phases of life to form different kinds
of structures. This ability is called List-I List-II
(1) Maturity (a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
(2) Elasticity
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
(3) Flexibility
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
(4) Plasticity
Answer (4) (d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm

105. Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer (3)

15
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

109. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which 115. Which of the following are not secondary
mechanism the competing species might have metabolites in plants?
evolved for their survival? (1) Rubber, gums (2) Morphine, codeine
(1) Predation (3) Amino acids, glucose (4) Vinblastin, curcumin
(2) Resource partitioning Answer (3)
(3) Competitive release 116. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
(4) Mutualism
Answer (2)
110. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide (1) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication;
when viewed under UV radiation, appear as (d)-Protein

(1) Bright blue bands (2) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;

(2) Yellow bands (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein


(3) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication;
(3) Bright orange bands
(c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction
(4) Dark red bands
(4) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation;
Answer (3)
(d)-Protein
111. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
Answer (4)
(1) Blue-green algae
117. The site of perception of light in plants during
(2) Green algae photoperiodism is
(3) Brown algae (1) Leaf
(4) Red algae (2) Shoot apex
Answer (4) (3) Stem
112. Diadelphous stamens are found in (4) Axillary bud

(1) China rose and citrus Answer (1)

(2) China rose 118. In the equation GPP – R = NPP

(3) Citrus R represents :

(4) Pea (1) Respiration losses


(2) Radiant energy
Answer (4)
(3) Retardation factor
113. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
(4) Environmental factor
(1) IBA
Answer (1)
(2) IAA
119. Match List-I with List-II.
(3) NAA
(4) 2, 4-D
Answer (4)
114. Which of the following plants is monoecious?
(1) Cycas circinalis
(2) Carica papaya
(3) Chara
(4) Marchantia polymorpha
Answer (3)

16
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given 124. Match List-I with List-II.
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Answer (4)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
120. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as below.
reserve food material?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Ulothrix (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Ectocarpus (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) Gracilaria (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Volvox (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Answer (2) Answer (2)


125. During the purification process for recombinant DNA
121. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates
(1) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and out :
RNA molecules in both directions between
(1) Polysaccharides
nucleus and cytoplasm
(2) RNA
(2) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic (3) DNA
organelles (4) Histones

(3) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal Answer (3)
cells 126. Amensalism can be represented as:
(4) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between (1) Species A (+); Species B (0)
the materials present inside the nucleus and that (2) Species A (–); Species B (0)
of the cytoplasm
(3) Species A (+); Species B (+)
Answer (2)
(4) Species A (–); Species B (–)
122. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
Answer (2)
(1) Zeatin 127. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
(2) Kinetin division of centromere?

(3) Infrared rays (1) Telophase II


(2) Metaphase I
(4) Gamma rays
(3) Metaphase II
Answer (4)
(4) Anaphase II
123. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is Answer (4)
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid 128. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is
attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease,
(2) Pyruvic acid
it is known as :
(3) Oxaloacetic acid (1) Safety testing (2) Biopiracy
(4) Succinic acid (3) Gene therapy (4) Molecular diagnosis
Answer (3) Answer (3)

17
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

129. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, 134. Match List-I with List-II
phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
given time, is referred as :
List-I List-II
(1) Standing crop
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
(2) Climax
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
(3) Climax community
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
(4) Standing state

Answer (4) (d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants

130. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
is upright.

(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright. (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) Pyramid of energy is always upright. (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Answer (3) (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)


131. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is: (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
Answer (3)
(2) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
135. Which of the following is not an application of PCR
(3) 7-nucleate and 8-celled (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(4) 7-nucleate and 7-celled (1) Detection of gene mutation
Answer (2)
(2) Molecular diagnosis
132. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two
(3) Gene amplification
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is
referred as : (4) Purification of isolated protein
(1) Acrocentric
Answer (4)
(2) Metacentric

(3) Telocentric SECTION - B


(4) Sub-metacentric 136. Identify the correct statement.

Answer (2) (1) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of


prokaryotes
133. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
kinds of spores. Such plants are known as: (2) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is
added to the 3' end of hnRNA
(1) Heterosporous
(3) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
(2) Homosorus
terminate the process of transcription in bacteria
(3) Heterosorus
(4) The coding strand in a transcription unit is
(4) Homosporous copied to an mRNA
Answer (1) Answer (3)

18
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

137. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene 141. Which of the following statements of incorrect?
causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to
hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, (1) Oxidation-reducation reactions produce proton
followed by its detection using autoradiography gradient in respiration
because :
(2) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
(1) mutated gene does not appear on photographic
limited to the terminal stage
film as the probe has complementarity with it
(2) mutated gene partially appears on a (3) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule
photographic film of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules,
(3) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
a photographic film
(4) ATP is synthesized through complex V
(4) mutated gene does not appear on a
photographic film as the probe has no Answer (3)
complementarity with it
142. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer (4)
138. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the (1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I
process of transcription in eukaryotes? and PS II

(1) Transcribes only snRNAs (2) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized
(2) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S) during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA (3) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP
(4) Transcribes precursor of mRNA reductase
Answer (3)
(4) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
139. Select the correct pair.
Answer (1)
(1) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma 143. Which of the following statements is correct ?
and forming a lens shaped
(1) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
opening in bark
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
(2) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells
cells in the epidermis (2) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
of grass leaves
(3) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on
(3) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
bundles are surrounded tissue
by large thick-walled cells (4) Organisms that depend on living plants are
called saprophytes
(4) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
that form part of cambium Answer (3)
cambial ring
144. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in
Answer (4)
some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
140. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e
represents (1) Polymorphic DNA

(1) The base of geometric logarithms (2) Satellite DNA


(2) The base of number logarithms
(3) Repetitive DNA
(3) The base of exponential logarithms
(4) Single nucleotides
(4) The base of natural logarithms
Answer (4) Answer (3)

19
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

145. Match List-I with List-II. 148. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site
within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance.
List-I List-II If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for
(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds β-galactoside production and the recombinant
(b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
fatty acid bonds (1) It will be able to produce a novel protein with
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
dual ability
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
(2) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance
Choose the correct answer from the options given to the host cell
below. (3) The transformed cells will have the ability to
resist ampicillin as well as produce
(a) (b) (c) (d) β-galactoside
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) It will lead to lysis of host cell

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) Answer (2)


149. Match Column-I with Column-II
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Column-I Column-II
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (a) % K(5) C1 G1 (i) Brassicaceae
+ 2 + (2) A (9) + 1

Answer (2) (b) K (5) C(5)A5 G(2) (ii) Liliaceae


146. Match Column-I with Column-II. P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3)
(c) (iii) Fabaceae

Column-I Column-II (d) K2 + 2 C4 A2 – 4 G (2) (iv) Solanaceae


(a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification Select the correct answer from the options given
below.
(b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia
to nitrite (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate (1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric
nitrogen to ammonia (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Choose the correct answer from options given
Answer (2)
below.
150. Match List-I with List-II.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
List-I List-II
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are
synthesized
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (c) Quiescent (iii) Interval between mitosis
stage and initiation of
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) DNA replication
Answer (2) (d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication

147. In some members of which of the following pairs of Choose the correct answer from the options given
families, pollen grains retain their viability for months below.
after release? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) Poaceae ; Rosaceae (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) Poaceae ; Leguminosae (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) Poaceae ; Solanaceae (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer (1) Answer (4)

20
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

ZOOLOGY

155. Match List - I with List - II


SECTION - A

151. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the


synthesis of protein?

(1) siRNA

(2) mRNA

(3) tRNA

(4) rRNA Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
Answer (1)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
152. Succus entericus is referred to as:
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Chyme
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) Pancreatic juice (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Intestinal juice (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) Gastric juice Answer (4)


156. Which of the following is not an objective of
Answer (3)
Biofortification in crops?
153. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to
(1) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the
process of transcription in prokaryotes? (2) Improve protein content

(1) DNase (3) Improve resistance to diseases


(4) Improve vitamin content
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
Answer (3)
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
157. Identify the incorrect pair
(4) DNA Ligase
(1) Drugs – Ricin
Answer (3)
(2) Alkaloids – Codeine
154. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect
(3) Toxin – Abrin
with respect to cockroach?
(4) Lectins – Concanavalin A
(1) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a
pair of anal cerci Answer (1)

(2) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction 158. Match List-I with List-II
of midgut and hind gut List-I List-II
(3) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by Aspergillus
(a) niger (i ) Acetic Acid
the mouth parts
(b) Acetobacter (ii) Lactic Acid
aceti
(4) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital
(c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid
pouch butylicum

Answer (2) (d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric A cid

21
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

Choose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
162. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
159. With regard to insulin choose correct options.
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
number of chromosomes after S phase?
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-
peptide. (1) 32 (2) 8

(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide (3) 16 (4) 4


Answer (2)
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are
interconnected by disulphide bridges. 163. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
and pneumatic long bones?
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below (1) Ornithorhynchus (2) Neophron
(3) Hemidactylus (4) Macropus
(1) (a) and (d) only
Answer (2)
(2) (b) and (d) only
164. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
(3) (b) and (c) only
(1) Troposphere (2) CFCs
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) Stratosphere (4) Ozone
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
160. Select the favourable conditions required for the
165. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
(1) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature (1) Thrombokinase
(2) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature (2) Thrombin
(3) Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , more H + , higher (3) Renin
temperature
(4) Epinephrine
(4) High pO 2 , high pCO 2 , less H + , higher
Answer (2)
temperature
166. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis
Answer (2)
and understanding its pathophysiology is very
161. Match the following: important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic
techniques is very useful for early detection?
List-I List-II
(1) Hybridization Technique
(a) Physalia (i ) Pearl oyster
(2) Western Blotting Technique
Limulus Portuguese Man of
(b) (ii)
War (3) Southern Blotting Technique
(c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil (4) ELISA Technique
(d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm Answer (3/4*)

22
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

167. The organelles that are included in the 171. Match List-I with List-II.
endomembrane system are
List-I List-II
(1) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through
Mitochondria and Lysosomes
Cervix is blocked
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, (b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas
Ribosomes and Lysosomes deferens
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, (c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of
Lysosomes and Vacuoles sperms within the Uterus

(4) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and (d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube
Lysosomes
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (3) below

168. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what (a) (b) (c) (d)
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Cytosine in it?
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25 (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20 (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(3) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30 Answer (3)

(4) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20 172. During the process of gene amplification using PCR,


if very high temperature is not maintained in the
Answer (4) beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR
will be affected first?
169. A specific recognition sequence identified by
endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions (1) Ligation (2) Annealing
within the DNA is: (3) Extension (4) Denaturation
(1) Poly(A) tail sequences Answer (4)

(2) Degenerate primer sequence 173. In a cross between a male and female, both
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
(3) Okazaki sequences
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
(4) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences (1) 100% (2) 50%
Answer (4) (3) 75% (4) 25%
Answer (4)
170. Which of the following statements wrongly
represents the nature of smooth muscle? 174. Read the following statements
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(1) These muscles are present in the wall of blood
vessels (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
animals.
(2) These muscle have no striations
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body
(3) They are involuntary muscles organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
(4) Communication among the cells is performed by
digestion.
intercalated discs
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
Answer (4) Echinoderms.

23
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)

Choose the correct answer from the options given 180. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
below. formation is produced by:

(1) (b), (c) and (e) are correct (1) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

(2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct (2) Alpha cells of pancreas

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (3) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
(4) The cells of bone marrow
(4) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
181. Which one of the following belongs to the family
175. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present Muscidae?
on :
(1) House fly (2) Fire fly
(1) Zona pellucida (2) Corona radiata
(3) Grasshopper (4) Cockroach
(3) Vitelline membrane (4) Perivitelline space Answer (1)
Answer (1) 182. Veneral diseases can spread through :
176. Sphincter of oddi is present at: (a) Using sterile needles

(1) Junction of jejunum and duodenum (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(2) Ileo-caecal junction
(d) Kissing
(3) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and
duodenum (e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the option given
(4) Gastro-oesophageal junction
below
Answer (3) (1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
177. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro (3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (c) only
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
Answer (4)
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
183. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and
(1) Gout (2) Arthritis carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion)
(3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Myasthenia gravis are:
(1) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
Answer (4)
(2) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
178. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as
"Universal recipients". This is due to : (3) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45

(1) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in (4) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
plasma Answer (2)
(2) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of 184. Which one of the following is an example of
RBCs Hormone releasing IUD?
(3) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma (1) Multiload 375 (2) CuT
(4) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on (3) LNG 20 (4) Cu 7
RBCs
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
185. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
179. The centriole undergoes duplication during: terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
(1) G2 phase (2) S-phase (1) Pachytene (2) Leptotene

(3) Prophase (4) Metaphase (3) Zygotene (4) Diakinesis

Answer (2) Answer (4)

24
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
SECTION - B
below.
186. Which of these is not an important component of (a) (b) (c) (d)
initiation of parturition in humans ? (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(1) Release of Prolactin (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) Synthesis of prostaglandins (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) Release of Oxytocin Answer (2)
Answer (1) 190. Match List-I with List - II
187. Following are the statements about prostomium of
List - I List - II
earthworm.
(a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it
adaptation
can crawl.
(c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish
(c) It is one of the sensory structures.
adaptation at depth
(d) It is the first body segment.
(d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal
Choose the correct answer from the options given adaptation
below.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) (b) and (c) are correct
below.
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer (2)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
188. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
(1) Addison's disease (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) Dysfunction of Immune system Answer (4)


(3) Parkinson's disease 191. Which one of the following statements about
(4) Digestive disorder Histones is wrong?
Answer (2) (1) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
189. Match List - I with List - II
(2) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
List - I List - II molecules

(a) Adaptive (i) Selection of (3) The pH of histones is slightly acidic


radiation resistant varieties
due to excessive (4) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and
use of herbicides Arginine
and pesticides Answer (3)
(b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs
evolution in Man and Whale 192. Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and
experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like
(c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly
evolution and Bird breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.

(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at
anthropogenic high altitude, the body does not get sufficient
action oxygen.

25
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
In the light of the above statements, choose the Choose the correct answer from the options given
correct answer from the options given below below.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true (1) (b) and (e) only
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) (a) and (b) only
explanation of (A)
(3) (c) and (d) only
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(4) (b) and (c) only
correct explanation of (A)
Answer (4)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
196. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
Answer (2) relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
193. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple (1) Uterus (2) Graafian follicle
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
(3) Corpus luteum (4) Foetus
(1) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate
mothers at 8-32 cell stage Answer (3)
(2) Cow is administered hormone having LH like 197. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
activity for super ovulation the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
(3) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
(4) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
Answer (2) (1) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
respectively
194. Match List-I with List-II
(2) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
List -I List -II
respectively
Haemophilus
(a) Filariasis (i) (3) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
influenzae
(b) (ii) (4) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
Amoebiasis Trichophyton
respectively.
Wuchereria
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Answer (3)
bancrofti
Entamoeba 198. Match List-I with List-II
(d) Ringworm (iv)
histolytica
Choose the correct answer from the options given List -I List -II
below Cartilaginous
(a) Scapula (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d) joints
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints

(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) Vertebral Triangular flat


(d) (iv)
Answer (3) column bone
195. Following are the statements with reference to Choose the correct answer from the options given
'lipids'. below
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called (a) (b) (c) (d)
unsaturated fatty acids
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
carboxyl carbon. (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms. Answer (1)

26
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P1)
199. During muscular contraction which of the following 200. Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for
events occur? methionine and phenylalanine.
(a) 'H' zone disappears
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code
(b) 'A' band widens
for the amino acid lysine.
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and
correct answer from the options given below.
Pi.
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards. (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Choose the correct answer from the options given true
below: (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(1) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) only (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
false
(4) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
Answer (2) Answer (1)

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