Solved Paper 1, 2

PEBC Test Exam
"EVALUATING EXAMINATION QUESTIONS"

1. *Acidification of urine may be accomplished by indigestion of:
a. NH4cl (Ammonium Chloride).
b. Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid).
c. Sodium Citrate
d. Acetazolamide.
2. For the excretion of alkaline drug, which of the following can be used?
a. NH4CL.
b. Na-Citrate.
c. Ascorbic acid.
d. NaHCO3.
e. Sodium bi-phosphate.
d
3. Which of the following causes hyperchloremic systemic acidosis?
a. Acetazolamide.
b. Aldactone.
c. Furosemide.
d. Lasix.
4. What is the mechanism of action of Acetazolamide?

a. ??
b. inhibit Na / H pump in the proximal tubule
c. ??
d. ??
5. What happen in metabolic alkalosis?

a.  HCL.
b.  NaOH.
c.  NaHCO3.
d.  NH3.
6. *****HCL + NH3  NH4CL, at equation which we add double amount of NH3 , it will
lead to:
a. Increase the K of reaction.
b. K still constant.
c. Decrease K of reaction.
d. None of the above.
at equilibrium there is no change in rate, as forward reaction is same as backward
reaction, then u shift the equation to the right , the product will form more but the
rate is the same
7. *NH4 + OH-  NH3 + H2O.

According to the Bronsted Lorry theory, the above reaction is:
a. Ionization.
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b. Neutralization.
c. Hydrolysis.
d. Displacement.
8. The reaction R-CONH-R  RCOOH + NH2R is:

a. Deamination.
b. Decarboxylation.
c. Oxidation.
d. Acetylation.
9. Blood and all isotonic solutions freeze at:

a. +1oC.
b. 0oC.
c. –0.52oC
d. -1oC
10. *Which of the following interferes with glucose test in urine?

a. Vitamin C (reducing agent).
b. Cephalosporins.
c. Ampicillin.
d. Methyl Dopa.
e. All of the above.
11. Compared with normal glucose tolerance, the blood glucose versus time curve in a
diabetic patient has a high peak that occurs later and decrease more slowly. Which of
the following parameters is of significance in the glucose tolerance curve?
a. The peak concentration of the glucose in the blood.
b. The time required for this to occur.
c. The rate at which the blood glucose level declines with time.
d. All of the above.
12. Ascites is defined as :

a. Edema (increase of fluids) in the peritoneal cavity (occurs in liver cirrhosis)
b. Increase fluids in Myocardis.
c. Increase fluid in appendix.
d. Increase fluid in nasal cavity.
"Ascites is peritoneal retention (accumulation) of fluid.
It is treated by spironolactone in absence of renal
insufficiency".
13. Nausea caused by narcotics due to:

a. Inhibition of chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in brain.
b. Stimulation of chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in brain.
c. Stimulation of peripheral receptors.
d. Inhibition of peripheral receptors.
14. ****Some of the aqueous anti-oxidants (reducing agents) are:

a. Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid).
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b. EDTA.
c. Sodium Bisulphite.
"Ascorbic acid is added to iron preparations as reducing agent to maintain it
in Ferrous+2 state and form a soluble absorbable chelate with iron in Ferric+3
state.. It is also used in Scurvy".
15. Sodium bisulphate is:

a. Antibacterial.
b. Antioxidant.
c. Chelating agent.
d. Buffering agent.
16. Rx
Ephedrine Hcl.
Nacl.
Na bisulphite.
What is the use of Na bisulphite in this prescription?
a. Antibacterial.
b. Antioxidant.
c. Chelating agent.
d. Buffering agent.
17. *How many moles of Ca++ and Fe+++ respectively could EDTA chelate?
a. 1 mole and 1 mole.
b. 1 mole and 2 moles.
c. 2 moles and 2 moles.
d. 3 moles and 1 mole.
18. ***Which of the following oily liquids is anti-oxidant?

a. Vitamin E (delta tocopherol) (butylhydroxy toluene)
b. Vitamin K.
c. Vitamin A.
d. Vitamin D.
19. Which of *the following vitamins is necessary to maintain the cell integrity?
a. Vitamin B.
b. Vitamin E (Delta Tocopherol).
c. Vitamin K.
d. Vitamin A.
20. Deficiency in which of the following vitamins are dangerous in alcoholic patient?
a. Folic acid & Thiamine.
b. Ascorbic acid.
c. Vitamin B complex.
d. Vitamin K.
21. *The heat labile factor in Vitamin B complex is:

a. Riboflavin.
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b. Biotin.
c. Niacin.
d. Thiamine (B1).
22. Which of the following has a Nicotine ring in its structure?

a. Vitamin A.
b. Vitamin E.
c. Vitamin D.
d. Vitamin B.
23. Which is the most active form of vitamin E?

a.  Tocopherol.
b.  Tocopherol.
c.  Tocopherol.
d.  Tocopherol.
24. **What is the mechanism of action of clofibrate (Atromid)R?

a. It decreases cholesterol synthesis and decreases VLDL and HDL levels.
b. It stops cholesterol synthesis.
c. It decreases cholesterol synthesis and decreases LDL.
d. It decreases cholesterol synthesis and increases HDL synthesis.
25. ***What is the shortest acting benzodiazepine?

a. Diazepam.
b. Flurazepam.
c. Chlordiazepoxide.
d. Triazolam (It has no active metabolite).
Triazolam, midazolam,
26. The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is believed to be:

a.  1 blockade.
b.  Adrenergic blockade.
c. Blockade of reuptake of dopamine.
d. Potentiation of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA.
27. Benzodiazepines appear to act as anxiolytics by:

a. Increasing Sodium ion influx.
b. Potentiating the effect of GABA.
c. Altering Calcium ion influx.
d. Cessation of Sodium ion influx.
28. *Which blood vessels supply the brain?

a. Left internal carotid artery.
b. Right internal carotid artery.
c. Vertebral artery.
29. Which of the following is NOT included in the brain bones?
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a. Maxillary bone.
b. Parietal bone.
c. Occipital bone.
d. Trapezoid bone.
30. Coronary arteries receive blood supply from:

a. Vertebral artery.
b. Aorta.
c. Internal Carotid.
d. External carotid.
31. **What is the drug of choice in status epilepticus?

a. Diazepam.
b. IV diazepam (Valium).
c. Frurazepam.
d. Valproic Acid.
32. Long time therapy of diazepam causes which of the following on withdrawal?
a. Rapid eye movement.
b. Constipation.
c. Reasonable nocturnal sleep.
d. Difficulty of movement.
33. **What is the drug of choice in Petite Mal?

a. Diazepam.
b. IV diazepam.
c. Frurazepam.
d. Valproic Acid and Ethosuximide.
34. *What does surface tension mean?

a. Materials tend to have adjacent surfaces.
b. Materials tend to stay close to each other.
c. Materials tend to have smallest surface area (decrease surface area).
d. Materials tend to have largest surface area (increase surface area)
35. **Why does mercuric Acetate used in non-aqueous titration?

a. To produce the protonation species.
b. To induce ionization.
c. To start dehydration.
d. To induce hydroxylation
36. Which of the following is a differentiating solution in non-aqueous titration?

a. Acetyl Anhydride.
b. Quinine & Quinidine.
c. Glacial Acetic Acid.
d. Acetonitrile.
37. At acid-base titration, which affect the reaction?

a. Addition of specified buffer leads to increase reaction.
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b. Addition of specified buffer leads to decrease reaction.
c. Change the pH of solution.
38. At which state is Boron 1S2 2S1 2P2?

a. Ground state.
b. Excited state.
c. Hybrid state.
d. Normal state.
39. Sulphinpyrazone used as?

a. Analgesic.
b. Antihelminthic.
c. Uricosuric agent.
d. Antidepressant.
40. **What is the mechanism of action of trimethoprim?

a. Inhibits cell growth.
b. Stops cell replication.
c. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor.
d. Inhibits folic acid.
41. Pore size and bacterial filters:

a. 2 nm.
b. 0.2 nm.
c. 22 nm.
d. 0.22 mm.(Micron)
42. Which of these parts can be affected in bacteria?

a. Folic acid synthesis.
b. Cell wall.
c. Cell membrane.
d. Inhibition of PABA synthesis.
43. *Which antibiotic affects plasmid in the micro-organism?

a. Ampicillin.
b. Erythromycin.
c. Norfloxacillin.(CHECK……………….Please)
d. Gentamycin.
44. Gentamycin is used in:

a. UTI.
b. Skin infections.
c. Eye infections.
d. Ear infection.
45. **What is the causative organism of gas gangrene?

a. Clostridium botulinium.
b. Clostridium perfringis
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c. Bacteroids fragilis.
d. Pseudomonas Auroginosa.
46. **Bed sores are caused by:

a. Gas gangrene.
b. Liquefied necrosis.
c. Pressure atrophy.
47. Which organism cannot be found in air?

a. Clostridium botulinium (causes botulism which is food poisoning, "exotoxins").
b. Clostridium difficile (Treated by Vancomycin, Metronidazole, polyvalent antitoxins
"endotoxins").
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Clostridium Perfringis
48. Botulism is caused by:

a. Clostridium botulinium.
b. Clostridium difficile.
c. Clostridium Welchii.
d. Clostridium Perfrngis.
"Caused by foods containing exotoxins, found in soil and intestinal tract of
domestic animals. Cases of human botulism associated with development of
bacteria under anaerobic condition in raw improperly canned preserved
foods, especially meat and non-acid vegetable, destroyed by boiling for 10
minutes. Treated by bivalent antitoxin for type A & B".
49. Among the following bacteria, which organism is anaerobic?

a. Streptococcus Pyogens.
b. H. Influenzae.
c. Enterobacter.
d. Staphylococcus Aurius.
50. Given structures. Which is soluble in aqueous NaHCO3?

a. Carboxylic acid groups.
b. ??
c. ??
d. ??
51. Among the following groups, which is soluble in HCL?

a. Phenol group.
b. Amino group.
c. Hydroxyl group.
d. Carboxylic acid group.
52. *Phenol is a weak acid due to:

a. Stable anion resonance.
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b. Stable cation resonance.
c. Weak dissociation LOOKS UP?????
53. Which vitamin is necessary for collagen synthesis? (In other words: main precursor of
collagen is?)
a. Vitamin A.
b. Vitamin B.
c. Vitamin C.
d. Vitamin E.
54. *In competitive antagonism, what is the effect of increasing the amount of substrate on
the rate of reaction?
a. Increase in the rate of reaction.
b. Decrease in the rate of reaction.
c. No effect.
55. If competitive inhibitor is used for enzyme, the rate of reaction would:
a. Increase by increasing concentration of substrate.
b. Increase if inhibitor was removed.
c. The products obtained are different.
d. The products are formed faster.
56. **In a normal distribution, within how many standard deviation 95% of the observations
lie?
a.  1
b.  2
c.  3
d.  4
57. The error is always:

a. Bigger than standard deviation.
b. Smaller than standard deviation.
c. Equals standard deviation.
58. **PH is equal to pKa at:

a. 2/5 neutralization point (40% ionization).
b. 1/2 neutralization point (50% ionization)
c. 3/5 neutralization point (60% ionization)
d. 3.5/5 neutralization point (70% ionization)
59. If pka of Phenobarbitone is 7.4, what fraction of the drug will be ionized at pH 8.4?
a. 10%.
b. 50%.
c. 90%.
d. 100%. Ionized Unionized
If (pH – pka) = 1  90% ---- 10%
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= 2  99% ---- 1%
= 3  99.9% -- 0.1%
60. **Which clotting factor is found in circulating blood?

a. Prothrombin.
b. Thrombin.
c. Thyamin.
d. Prostegmin.
61. Normal Prothrombin time is:

a. 5 – 10 seconds.
b. 11 – 12 seconds.
c. 13 – 15 seconds.
d. 1 minute.
62. **Which is the quickest acting barbiturate?

a. Phenobarbital.
b. Amobarbital.
c. Secobarbital.
d. Thiopental.
63. Barbiturates have decreased low popularity sleep aid because:

a. They increase abuse.
b. They increase interactions.
c. They have narrow index.
d. Affect REM.
64. *Which barbiturate is redistributed quickly and passes the BBB?

a. Thiopental.
b. Pentobarbital.
c. Phenobarbital.
d. Butabarbital.
65. **Which enzyme protects the cell from damage?

a. Cysteine.
b. Glutathione.
c. Amylase.
66. ***What is the difference between gram –ve and gram +ve organisms?
a. Cell membrane.
b. Cell wall.
c. Mitochondria.
d. Cytoplasm.
67. **Which antihypertensive can be used by a diabetic and/or cardiac failure patient?
a. Prazocin.
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b. Atenolol.
c. Captopril.
d. Isoniazide.
68. Prazocin side effects include:

a. CV effects as sudden syncope, palpitation, and fluid retention.
b. Dry mouth.
c. CNS effects as headache, drowsiness, weakness, dizziness, and vertigo.
d. Anti-muscarenic effects & priapism.
69. Which antihypertensive causes CNS depression?

a. Isopreterenol.
b. Reserpine (Also causes lethargy, sedation, and nightmares).
c. Carbachol.
70. Captopril increases serum urea and causes hypogesia=loss of taste sensation, which of
the following antihypertensive agents does not?
a. Phenylephrine.
b. Isopreterenol.
c. Enalapril.
d. Atenolol.
71. ***Which of the following drugs when given causes blood pressure to fall, but causes
heart rate to increase?
a. Propranolol.
b. Isopreterenol (No effect on  receptors).
c. Ephedrine.
d. Carbachol.
e. Phenylephrine.
72. ***What are the effects of Schistosoma Mansoni?

a. Meningitis.
b. Liver cirrhosis.
c. Chancer sores.
d. Lymphoma.
73. *Which one of the following is a complication of Cirrhosis?

a. Hemorrhage.
b. Ascites.
c. Jaundice.
74. **Which is true about enteric coated tablets?

a. They are protected from moisture.
b. They are protected from gastric juice.
c. (a) & (b).
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75. **Which drug is used in the acute attack of angina?

a. Propranolol.
b. Isosorbide Dinitrate. (Could be used also. It has equal action like nitroglycerin)
c. Nitroglycerine.
d. Inalapril.
i. (a).
ii. (c).
iii. (a) & (c).
iv. (b) & (c).
v. (a) & (d).
76. *Nifidipine (Adalat)R is used in:

a. Angina Pectoris and heart failure.
b. Arrhythmias.
c. Hypertension.
77. For angina pectoris, Propranolol is used as:

a. Prophylaxis.
b. Treatment.
c. Crisis.
d. Chronic treatment.
78. ****What is the end product of protein metabolism (Nitrogenous Compounds)?

a. Amino acids.
b. Urea.
c. Uric Acid.
d. Ammonia.
79. **What is the end product of anaerobic respiration?

a. Uric Acid.
b. Lactic Acid or pyruvic acid
c. Nitrogen Peroxide.
d. Ammonia.
80. Which of the following does not undergo biotransformation?

a. Poly (L-Lactic acid).
b. Poly (D-Lactic acid).
c. (a) & (b).
81. What is true about lithium?

a. Onset of action is from 1 – 2 hours.
b. Onset of action is from 1 – 2 weeks.
c. Onset of action is from 2 – 3 weeks.
d. Onset of action is from 6 – 8 hours.
82. *The side effects of Lithium therapy include:
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a. Hypothyroidism.
b. Slurred speech.
c. Dysrythmia.
d. Polyurea & polydypsia.
83. *What is true about lithium therapy

a. Used for all types of depression.
b. Used for Manic (severe) depressive psychosis, Bi-Polar effective disorders.
c. Stays weeks before the effect takes place.
d. Not used in treating mild biogenic disorders.
e. Has low margin of safety.
84. ****Lithium Carbonate: (Used to treat bipolar affective disorder)

a. Needs one week before action appear?
b. Used as anti-depressant (manic depression & psychosis) in dose 0.8 – 1.5 mg Eq.
c. Contraindicated with diuretics due to retention of it occur. (Renal & cardiovascular
disease)
85. The anti-depressant activity of Paroxitine (Paxil)R is thought to be due:

a. Prevention of reuptake of serotonin.
b. Blockage of reuptake of dopamine.
c. Being a dopamine antagonist.
d. Binding to  adrenergic receptors.
86. The Precursor of Serotonin is:

a. Dopamine.
b. Alanin.
c. Tryptophan.
d. Thiamin.
"Serotonin [5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HT)]; is a bioamine that is synthesized
from the amino acid Tryptophan by a two-step enzymatic process catalyzed
by Tryptophan hydroxylase and L-amino acid decarboxylase"
87. **What is the most recognized side effect of Acetaminophen?

a. Liver cirrhosis.
b. Hepatic Necrosis.
c. Nausea.
d. Vomiting.
88. What is the antidote for Acetaminophen?

a. N-Acetylcysteine.
b. Mercaptopurine.
c. Lead.
d. Zinc.
89. **Acetaminophen could replace ASA in:

a. Anti-thermal effect.
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b. Pain killing effect.
c. Anti-rheumatic effect.
d. Anti-inflammatory effect.
e. Anti-aggregative effect.
90. ASA lowers body temperature by the following mechanism of action:

a. Acts on sub cortical sites of CNS (hypothalamus).
b. Reduce prostaglandin synthesis at central thermoregulatory centers.
c. Reduce prostaglandin synthesis at peripheral thermoregulatory centers.
91. **Which of the following is hydrolyzed in the stomach?

a. Penicillin.
b. Aspirin.
c. Mm
d. Mm
92. The causative microbe for Diphtheria is:

a. S.Aureus.
b. Corynebacterium Diphtheria.
c. ??
d. ??
"Shick test"
93. ***Mitral valve prolapse (Endocarditis) & infections during tooth extractions are caused
by:
a. Streptococcus Viridians.
b. Streptococcus Pyogens.
c. Acne Vulgaris.
d. Staphylococcus Aureus.
* Mitral valve endocarditis pathogenicity is caused by?
94. Which organism is isolated in dental surgery?

a. Streptococcus Viridians.
b. Streptococcus Pyogens.
c. Acne Vulgaris.
d. Staphylococcus Aureus.
95. Which antibiotic can be used before dental work to prevent endocarditis?
a. Ampicillin.
b. Tetracycline.
c. Amoxycillin.
d. Penicillin G.
96. Ticarcillin (Extended Spectrum Penicillin) is preferred than Carbenicillin in CHF patients
because:
a. It is usually given in smaller dose.
b. It is less allergenic.
c. Has more efficacy.
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97. Which of the following does not emptied in the Duodenum?

a. Gall Bladder.
b. Parotid.
c. Adrenal gland.
d. GIT secretions.
"Only bile duct and pancreatic duct open in the
duodenum".
98. Amylase:
a. An enzyme secreted by the pancreas.
b. It breaks down starch.
c. Its level increased in acute pancreatitis.
99. *****Collyrium is:

a. Clear solution.
b. Aqueous suspension.
c. Non-Aqueous suspension.
d. Eye wash.
100. Collinysium is:

a. Nasal wash.
b. Cleansing solution.
c. Eye wash.
d. Aqueous solution.
101. Which of the following is not given in Narrow Angle Glaucoma?

a. Adrenaline.
b. Guanethidine. (Causes mydriasis).
c. Antazoline, Phenylephrine, Homatropine. (Cause mydriasis).
102. 90% of all cases of glaucoma are:

a. Narrow angel Glaucoma. (The IOP  due to narrowing of the filtration angle).
b. Wide (Open) angle Glaucoma. (The IOP  due to closure of canal of schlemm)
103. Which of the following can be used in open angle glaucoma but not in closed angle
glaucoma?
a. Atropine.
b. Timolol.
c. Acetazolamide.
d. Epinephrine.
104. **Pilocarpine is used to reduce the intra-ocular pressure (IOP) in:( induce Miosis)
a. Miosis.
b. Mydriasis.
c. Cycloplagia.
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"Pilocarpine exerts its miotic action after 15-30 minutes and reduces
IOP after 2-4 hours".
105. ***In sulfonamide non-aqueous titration, Dimethyl Formamide ( weak base) is used:
a. Because it donates protons.
b. Because it takes protons (Acts as basic solvent).
c. Because it donates and takes protons.
106. **Which is true about the coated tablets?

a. Prevents from Gastric Hcl and Enzymes.
b. Prolongs the effect.
c. Prevent from moisture.
d. Masks the bitter taste & unpleasant odour.
107. What is the metabolism of Primary Amines?

a. Amine.
b. Ammonia.
c. Urea.
108. Uses of biotechnology include:

a. Production of Vaccines.
b. Modification of proteins and food.
c. Modification of DNA uses.
109. Antacids:
a. Increase iron absorption.
b. Decrease iron absorption.
c. Dos not affect iron absorption.
d. Stops iron absorption.
110. Trivalent Ferric is converted to Divalent ferrous (Ferrous conversion) takes place
through:
a. Sulphoric Acid.
b. Ascorbic Acid.
c. Gastric Acid.
d. Antacid.
111. Heavy mineral oils should not be taken for long time because
a. Decrease the level of cholesterol.
b. They can dissolve fats and decrease level of cholesterol.
c. Over dose will lead to toxic substances in the body.
d. They can dissolve fats and cause high level of cholesterol.
112. Heavy mineral oil is used in Sulphur Ointment as:

a. Lubricant.
b. Laxative.
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c. Cathartic.
d. Suspending & levigating agent.
113. *Mineral oil is not used very often because:

a. It inhibits absorption of vitamins.
b. There is a risk of pneumonitis.
c. It is indigestible.
114. Mineral oils should not used as cathartics (Laxative) because:

a. They interfere with fat soluble vitamins absorption.
b. Leak past anal sphincter.
c. Interfere with healing of wounds in anorectal area.
d. May cause lipid pneumonia when gaining access to lungs.
e. Indigestible.
115. **Pyelonephritis is:

a. Inflammation of liver.
b. Inflammation of Kidney & Pelvis.
c. Inflammation of nephrons.
d. Inflammation of Bile duct.
116. Tardive (slow) Dyskinesia (movement) can arise from: (due to prolonged dopamine
receptor blockade which lead to increase receptor sensitivity, so that dopamine
stimulation leads to produce movement disorders, treated by using cholinergic drugs e.g.
Choline to increase cholinergic activity, and anti-cholinergics are contra-indicated).
a. Chlorpromazine. (Maximum sedative effect & Minimum Parkinson effect)
b. Haloperidol. (Maximum Parkinson effect & Minimum sedative effect)
c. Chloramphenicol.
d. Propranolol.
"Tardive Dyskinesia is a defect in voluntary movement
and active movement, where movement is painful".
117. **The most obvious sign and symptom of Tardive Dyskinesia is:
a. Akinesia (absence of movement).
b. Dyskinesia (impairment of voluntary movement).
c. Coughing
d. Oro-Buccal symptoms
(Detect in voluntary movement & active movement is painful vermicularis movement of
tongue as if the person is chewing gum.
118. Phenothiazine causes Orthostatic Hypotension by:

a. Direct action on arterioles (dilates).
b. Direct action via the CNS.
c. Mono Amine Oxidase (MAO) inhibition (Anti-depressant)
119. What is the mechanism of action of Phenothiazines as anti-psychotic?

a. Blocking Serotonine receptors.
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b. Blocking dopamine receptors.
c. Counteracting acetylcholine.
d. Inhibiting acetyl cholinesterase.
120. An important advantage of using Dopamine in Cardiogenic shock is:

a. Will not cross the BBB and cause CNS effect.
b. Has no effect in  and  receptors.
c. Produce dose dependent increase in cardiac output and renal perfusion.
d. Will not increase blood pressure.
e. Can be given orally.
121. Which one is the side effect of MAO inhibitors?

a. Insomnia.
b. Orthostatic Hypotension & dizziness.
c. Dry mouth & irritability.
122. *Interaction between MAO inhibitors and tyramine may cause:

a. Hypotensive crisis.
b. Hypertensive crisis.
c. Palpitations.
d. Arrhythmias.
123. Which of the following may cause hypertension crisis?

a. Chlorpheneramine.
b. Tyramine.
c. Hydralazine.
d. Diazepam.
124. The Phenothiazine with least side effect is:

a. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)R.
b. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)R.
c. Thioridazine (MellerilR).
d. Trifluoperazone (Stelazine)R.
125. **Which is the least sedating Phenothiazine (Neuroleptic)?

a. Haloperidol.
b. Thioridazine
c. Chlorpromazine.
d. Perphenazine.
126. *Which drug includes Parkinsonism like symptoms?

a. Chlorpromazine.
b. Haloperidol.
c. Benzodiazepine.
d. Thioridazine.
127. **Pre-Anesthetic drugs are given 30 to 60 minutes before surgery

a. To minimize side effects.
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b. To reduce anxiety.
c. For full muscle relaxation.
d. For smooth anesthesia process.
128. Giving a vasoconstrictor one hour before introducing anesthesia for:

a. Decrease blood supply and enhance long action of anesthesia.
b. Decrease side effects.
c. Give smoother and good induction of anesthesia.
129. Pre-anesthetic drugs are given to:

a. Give Narcotic analgesic action (Morphine).
b. Reduce toxicity (Benzodiazepines: Diazepam).
c. Block Vagal reflexes and inhibits salivary and respiratory tract secretions
(Scopolamine).
"They result in dry mouth, so they should be given at
time of induction".
130. In the toxicity of Carbon Monoxide (CO)

a. It forms methoxy haemoglobin (HB)
b. Give CNS effect.
c. Carbon Monoxide poisoning is characterized by lack of oxygen in erythrocytes.
d. Carbon Monoxide combines chemically with hemoglobin and reduces its capacity to
carry oxygen (O2)
131. Co-Toxicity means:

a. Carbon monoxide has higher affinity to bind hemoglobin than oxygen.
b. Formation of Carboxy hemoglobin causing cherry red cyanosis.
c. Treated by 100% oxygen blood and transfusion.
"Carbon monoxide poisoning is characterized by lack of
oxygen in erythrocytes. CO combines chemically with
HB of blood and render it incapable to carry oxygen to
the tissues of the body. HB has a greater affinity for
CO than oxygen".
132. All of the following side effects caused due to prolong use of Hydrocortisone except:
a. Hypoglycemia.
b. Cushing Syndrome.
c. Sodium Retention. (water retention)
d. Peptic Ulceration.
e. Lowered resistance to infection. (Reduced response to infection).
f. Muscle weakening.
133. Long treatment by Glucocoticosteroids may cause:

a. Myasthenia Gravis.
b. Parkinsonism.
c. Cushing Syndrome (excessive secretion of cortisone).
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PEBC Test Exam
134. Side effects of Corticosteroids include all of the following except:

a. Hypokalemia.
b. Diabetes Millatus.
c. Osteoporosis.
d. Decrease glycogenolysis.
e. Decrease ACTH.
135. Sulfisoxazole is similar in structure to:

a. P.A.B.A.
b. Folic Acid.
c. Folinic Acid.
d. G.A.B.A.
(Sulfonamides inhibit the synthesis of folic acid by microbes which
function as a co-enzyme for synthesis of nucleotides).
PABA Sulfa  Folinic Acid  Co-enzyme.
 Folic Acid TMP

Trimethoprim depresses dihydrofolic acid reductase which is
responsible for converting dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid.
136. Which of the following is synergistic with sulfonamides against many bacterial species?
a. Ampicillins.
b. Caphalosporins.
c. Trimethoprim.
d. Tetracyclines.
137. *What type of reaction takes place when there is acetylation of Sulfonamides occurring
on the amino group?
a. Phase I reaction.
b. Phase II reaction.
c. Phase III reaction.
d. Phase IV reaction.
138. The mechanism of action of Sulfisoxazole is:

a. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis (metabolism).
b. Folinic acid.
c. G.A.B.A.
d. P.A.B.A.
139. Anti-Cholinergic drugs used in Parkinson's Disease because

a. They increase Acetyl Choline in the brain.
b. They Decrease Acetyl Choline in the brain.
c. They increase Acetyl Choline in the muscles.
d. They decrease Acetyl Choline in the muscles.
140. Triachomanela Vaginalis is caused by

a. Bacteria.
b. Protozoa.
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PEBC Test Exam
c. Fungi.
d. Virus.
141. Which one of the following is Keratolytic?

a. Retinoic Acid.
b. Retinol.
c. Vitamin C.
142. Vitamin A deficiency may cause:

a. Keratinization.
b. Night blindness.
c. (a) & (b).
143. Which of the following compounds is used for treatment of Acne Vulgaris?
a. Vitamin E.
b. Vitamin A.
c. Retinol.
d. Retinoic Acid. correct
WOULD YOU PLEASE DOUBLE CHECK THIS ONE.
OTHERS SAY VITAMIN A (RETINOL). "Also 13-
trans-Retenoic acid is used topically and 13-Cis-
Retenoic acid is used orally in the treatment of Acne".
144. Carotene is the precursor of:

a. Retinal.
b. Thiamin.
c. Calciferol.
d. Pyridoxine.
(  1) Thiamine is coenzyme in Carbohydrate metabolism.
(  6) Pyridoxine is coenzyme in Amino Acids metabolism.
(  3) Niacin (Nicotinic Acid) coenzyme in Protein metabolism.
145. Conversion of beta-carotene into vitamin A is carries out in:

a. Liver.
b. Pancreas.
c. Spleen.
d. Thymus.
146. Which vitamins are used as Anti- Oxidants?

a. Vitamin E (For non-aqueous vehicles "Oily").
b. Vitamin B.
c. Ascorbic Acid (for aqueous vehicles).
d. E.D.T.A. (Not a vitamin, but it is anti-oxidant for aqueous vehicle).
147. **Which of the following gives positive glucose (Coomb's)test?

a. Ascorbic acid.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Cephalosporins & Penicillins.
c. Methyl Dopa (Aldomet) R.
"Coomb's test is antiglobulin test to check antiglobulin
antibodies reaction"
148. What is specific for fasting glucose test?

a. Glucose level will increase but not more than 200mg/100ml or 11m.mole.
b. There will be ketosis.
c. There will be glycosuria as in diabetics.
149. Neuron blocker Anti-Hypertensive drug

a. Glutathione.
b. Guanethidine (causes postural hypotension).
c. Glutamic Acid.
150. Postural hypotension is caused by:

a. Guanethidine.
b. ??
c. ??
d. ??
"Response to drug is greater in the erect than in the
supine position. It is a characteristic response to drugs
that block sympathetic nervous system".
151. Which of the following is H2 blocker?

a. Allopurinol.
b. Omniprazol.
c. Famotidine.
d. Losec.
152. Edema is:

a. Accumulation of fluids in the extra Cellular Fluid.
b. Excessive accumulation of water in the tissues.
c. Accumulation of fluids in the intra cellular fluid.
d. Excessive accumulation of water in the extra cellular fluid.
153. Which of the following causes peripheral edema?

a. Nifidipine.
b. Diltiazem.
c. Verapamil.
154. Which of the following causes constipation?
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PEBC Test Exam
a. Nifidipine.
b. Diltiazem.
c. Verapamil (Isopten)R
155. What is the difference between Extra cellular & Intra cellular and plasma?
a. Plasma contains more protein.
b. Plasma contains less protein.
c. Plasma contains more lipids.
d. Plasma contains less lipids.
156. After injury or surgery, as blood substitution we give:

a. 0.9% NaCL.
b. 5% Dextrose.
c. Plasma.
d. Distilled water.
157. **50% of the normal blood plasma protein is :

a. Albumin.
b. Alanin.
c. Pyrimidine.
d. Uracil.
158. Which of the following is true about Chronic Hemochromatosis?

a. Excessive deposition of iron in tissues leading to bronze skin.
b. Causes hepatic necrosis.
c. Causes diabetes mellitus.
159. **Which of the following drugs is used in treatment of Tape Worm?

a. Niclosamide.
b. Furosimide.
c. Isoniazide.
d. Aspirin.
160. Parity means …

a. Number of pregnancies.
b. Ability of a woman to carry a pregnancy to post viability.
c. A woman cannot be pregnant.
d. A woman can be pregnant for 3 times.
161. *Gravida is:

a. Number of times someone has become pregnant.
b. Number of times someone has become depressed.
c. Number of times someone has become thirst.
d. Number of times someone has become weak.
162. The concentration of Ether can be determined by:

a. Alvector Concentration.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Blood Concentration.
c. Brain concentration.
d. Brain Blood concentration.
163. **Which hormone acts at the surface receptor?

a. Epinephrine.
b. Testosterone.
c. Estrogen.
d. Insulin.
164. The mechanism of action of Insulin is:

a. Enhance utilization of glucose by peripheral tissues.
b.  Glucose storage as glycogen by enhancing GL-6-Phospho-Dehydrogenase.
c. Anabolic i.e. enhance protein synthesis.
d.  Fat catabolism,  glycogenolysis and  change of amino acids to glucose.
165. Enteric coated tablet can not be made:

a. With short half life.
b. With Biotransformation.
c. (a) and (b).
d. (a) or (b).
166. ****The anti-dot for Phenylephrine ( Epinephrine) over dose is:

a. Adrenaline.
b. Phentolamine.
c. Atropine..
d. Acetyl Choline.
"Phenylephrine is  -receptor agonist, Phentolamine &
Tolazoline are  -receptor antagonists".
167. Which of the following is immunosuppressant?

a. Amphotericin B.
b. Cyclosporine A.
c. Methotrixate.
d. Allopurinol.
168. Varicella is:

a. Chicken Box.
b. Small Box.
c. German measles.
d. Diphtheria.
"Caused by Herps Zoster, and treated as prophylaxis by
(VZIG) Varecilla Zoster Immuno Globulin".
169. ***Rubella is:
a. Chicken Box.
b. Small Box.
c. German measles.
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PEBC Test Exam
d. Diphtheria.
170. Limulus test is for:

a. Rubella pyrogens.
b. Salmonella pyrogens.
c. (a) and (b).
171. Aneurism is: or aneurysm ‫تمدد االوعيه الدمويه‬

a. Tissue necrosis.
b. A weakened and bulging portion of or dilatation of the artery due to the pressure
forming a sac containing blood.
c. Narrowing of veins.
d. Blockage of artery, specially the Aorta.
172. Necrobiosis is:

a. Gradual degradation in depth of tissues.
b. Death of tissues.
c. Inflammation of tissues.
173. Necrosis is:

a. Gradual degradation in depth of tissues.
b. Killing/Death of tissues or bone surrounded by healthy parts (Death in mass).
c. Inflammation of tissues.
"Necrosin is a substance obtained from inflamed tissues which
induce inflammatory changes in normal tissues".
174. Dyspnea is:
a. Difficulty in labored breathing. ‫صعوبه في التنفس‬
b. Difficulty in inhalation.
c. Difficulty in exhalation.
175. *Which of the following is present in all connective tissues?

a. Lipids.
b. Albuminoid.
c. Mucoids.
176. Mycobacterium causes what type of necrosis?

a. Liquefied necrosis.
b. Dry necrosis.
c. Gaseous necrosis.
d. Gangrenous necrosis.168 169 arek
e.
177. Which of the following will reveres the progression of the inflammatory stimulus?
a. Steroids.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Prostaglandins.
c. Anti-Pyretics.
d. Cold water.
178. **Cholysystitis is:

a. Inflammation of appendix.
b. Inflammation of Gall Bladder (Caused by gallstone and treated by Chendiole)).
c. Inflammation kidneys.
d. Inflammation of Nephrons.
179. **Chendiole (Chenodioxycholic acid) dissolves the gallstone by:

a. Increasing bile acid production.
b. Decreasing cholesterol synthesis.
c. Increasing phospholipids.
180. Cholecystectomy is:

a. Removal of appendix.
b. Removal of Kidneys.
c. Removal of gall bladder.
181. Colicystitis is:

a. Inflammation of Gall Bladder.
b. Inflammation of Appendix.
c. Inflammation of Kidneys.
182. Cystitis is:

a. Inflammation of Gall Bladder.
b. Inflammation of Appendix.
c. Inflammation of Kidneys.
d. Inflammation of Bladder.
183. Which organism is responsible for conjunctivitis (inflammation of gland in eyelid)?

a. Streptococcus.
b. Staphylococcus.
c. Haemophylis Influenza.
d. Proteus Mirabilis.
184. Conjunctivitis of the eye is caused by:

a. Virus.
b. Bacteria.
c. Allergy.
d. Exotoxins.
185. **The organism responsible for neonatal meningitis (0-1 month) is:
a. E. coli.
b. Klebseilla.
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PEBC Test Exam
c. Enterobacter Sp.
d. Group B Streptococcus.
186. **The organism responsible for meningitis (1 month – 4 years) is:

a. E. coli.
b. H. Influenza.
c. Enterobacter Sp.
d. Group B Streptococcus
187. Factors that are important for drug to reach CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) in treatment of
meningitis are:
a. O/w partition coefficient. (    ).
b. Pka (dissociation).
c. Dose given (    ).
d. Plasma protein binding (  binding   reach CSF).
188. How are low clearance drugs affected by increased plasma protein binding?
a. Changes mechanism.
b. Enhances renal excretion.
c. Slows processes.
d. Alters protein metabolism.
189. *Which organism can NOT be found in the ear?

a. Staphylococci.
b. H. Influenza.
c. E. coli.
d. Clostridium.
190. *****Neonatal eye infection in Canada is caused by:

a. Proteus Mirabilis.
b. Staphylococcus Aureus.
c. Pseudomonas Airogenosa.
d. Chlamydia trachomatis.
"Chlamydia is gram negative bacilli that may be part of the
normal flora of canal of the nose and throat and less commonly
of the vaginal cervix. Chlamydia trachomatis causes Trachoma
including conjunctivitis, urethritis. Infants may contract eye
infection during birth from maternal cervical infection".
Pseudomonas areginosa doesn’t caused neonatal conjunctivitis, neonatal is due to

chlaymadia (most important) or Trichomonas E>coli for children
191. Propantheline is a synthetic anti-cholinergic anti-muscarenic competitive acetyl Choline

blocker at cholinergic neuro-effector sites. It is also used as antacid. Its side effects
include:
a. Constipation.
b. Dry mouth.
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PEBC Test Exam
c. Dry skin.
d. (b) & (c).
192. Which drug gives the fastest action in General Anesthesia?
a. Thiopental Sodium.
b. Phenobarbital.
c. Halothane.
d. Nitrous Oxide.
193. *Pre-medication of general anesthesia is aimed at:
a. Relieving pain.
b. Relieving anxiety.
c. Muscle relaxation & smooth anesthetic progress.
194. *Side effect of local anesthetic:

a. CNS effects.
b. Convulsion.
c. Malignant Hyperthermia.
195. Convulsion can be caused by:

a. Strychnine.
b. Cephalosporins.
c. Ampicillins.
d. Thiazides.
196. Malignant hyperthermia is caused by:

a. Local anesthetics.
b. Anti-cholinergics.
c. Central anesthetics.
197. Which of the following is inhalant anesthetic?

b. Phenobarbital.
c. Halothane.
d. Nitrous Oxide.
198. *Symptoms of Atropine poisoning include:

a. Dry skin & flushing.
b. Delirium. ‫هديان‬
c. Restlessness.
d. Constipation.
e. Diarrhea.
199. Pre-Anesthetic medications are:

a. Narcotic antagonists (Morphine).
b. Benzodiazepines.
c. Atropine.
d. Aspirin.
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PEBC Test Exam
200. *Inhalation anesthetic action is based upon:

a. Concentration in alveolar sac.
b. Partial pressure in alveolar sac.
c. Concentration in brain.
d. Concentration in lungs.
"Depth of anesthetic effect of inhalation anesthetic is proportional to
partial pressure of the anesthetic agent in the brain tissue".
201. The effect of inhaled anesthetic drug is determined by:
a. The minimum alveolar concentration.
b. The minimum Blood concentration.
c. The partial pressure in alveoli.
202. The concentration of inhalation anesthetic is:

a. NO2 10 – 20%
b. NO2 20 – 30%.
c. NO2 30 – 40%.
d. NO2 40 – 50%.
203. **Which of the following does not drain into the nasal cavity?
a. Sphenoid duct.
b. Maxillary duct.
c. Frontal duct.
d. Septum and/or Cerebrocranial duct
204. Which sinus does not drain into the Nasal Cavity?
a. Stegmoid Sinus Inferior.
b. Sphenoid Sinus posterior.
c. All of the above.
205. *Which blood vessel supplies the nasal cavity?

a. Ethmoidal artery.
b. Sphenopalatine.
c. (a) & (b).
206. **What is true about TC99m?

a. It gets eliminated from the body within 30 hours.
b. Its half life is 6 hours.
c. It decays by  -Rays. (It decays by  -Rays).
d. It is in the form of sodium pertechnitate.
207. TC99 is eliminated from lungs within 12-14 days and used in the scanning the following
organ except:
a. Lungs & brain.
b. Liver.
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PEBC Test Exam
c. Spleen & Thyroid.
d. All of the following.
208. If t1/2 elimination of a drug is 2 hours, what fraction of the original dose of the drug
will remain in the body after 4 hours?
a. 0.5 (50%).
b. 0.25 (25%).
c. 0.125 (12.5%).
209. *The reaction HCL + H2O  H3O+ + CL- is:

a. Protolysis.
b. Neutralization.
c. Hydrolysis.
d. Ionization.
210. The reaction H2O + CH3COOH  CH3COO- + H3O+ is:

a. Protolysis.
b. Neutralization.
c. Hydrolysis.
d. Ionization.
211. The a proteolyses reaction of acetic acid with water H2O + CH3COOH  CH3COO- +
H3O+, the rate of reaction increases as the:
a. Acetic acid is depleted.
b. More hydronium ion is formed.
c. Hydronium ions are depleted.
212. Hydrolysis of fixed oil gives:

a. Glycerol + free fatty acids.
b. Glycerin.
c. Fatty acids.
d. Proteins.
213. Soap contains:

a. Sodium salt of fatty acids.
b. Calcium salt of fatty acids.
c. Potassium salt of fatty acids.
214. **In the parentral preparations, the major contamination could occur due to:
a. Row materials.
b. Persons.
c. Atmosphere.
d. Equipments.
215. The blood supply to brain is by:

a. Internal & External Carotid Artery.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Internal Carotid Artery.
c. Spinal Artery.
d. Vertebral Artery.
"Internal carotid supplies brain, nose, internal ear and
forehead. External carotid supplies front & back of
neck, face, meninges, middle ear, thyroid and tongue".
216. Which gland does not secret in the GIT?

a. Adrenal gland.
b. Thyroid gland.
c. Parotid gland.
d. Pituitary gland.
217. ***In the moderate exercise, the Blood Pressure is normally higher than normal due to:
a. Release of Acetylcholine.
b. Increase in Angiotensin Renin activity and/or (Increased venous return)
c. Dopamine release.
d. Adrenaline release.
218. How does Losartan function?

a. Angiotensin II receptor blocker.
b.  Blocker.
c. Diuretic.
d.  Blocker.
219. **Aldosterone is secreted by:

a. Adrenal Medulla.
b. Adrenal Gland.
c. Adrenal Cortex.
d. Thyroid Gland.
220. An enzyme in a chemical reaction acts as:

a. Catalyst. (Increases the rate of reaction).
b. Reactant.
c. Product.
d. Moderator.
221. *The thin tubular network in the cell that participate in biotransformation of enzymes
is:
a. Endoplasmic reticulum.
b. Golgi bodies.
c. Mitochondria.
d. Cytochromes.
"Drug biotransformation takes place in almost any
tissue in the body. The most important organ is the
liver and the most important site within liver cells is
the smooth endoplasmic reticulum which is broken up
into microsomes when liver is homogenized. The thin
tubular network in the cell that participates in
Page 30 of 117
PEBC Test Exam
biotransformation is the smooth endoplasmic
reticulum".
222. *By addition of Catalyst, the reaction:

a. Will give more products.
b. Will give fewer products.
c. Will not be affected.
d. Will get the product rapidly.
223. All of the following compounds can go through the Blood Brain Barrier (BBB) except:
a. Nicotine.
b. Serotonin.
c. GABA.
d. Pancronium. Muscle relaxation and use with anasthesia
e. Bromocryptine.
224. What crosses the blood brain barrier rapidly?

b. Pentobarbital.
c. Phenobarbital.
225. *Which of the following antibiotics is absorbed/crosses the CSF (BBB)?

a. Erythromycin.
b. Penicillin.
c. Chloramphenicol.
d. Tetracycline.
226. CNS drugs that ionize at pH of plasma (H2O soluble):

a. Can't penetrate BBB.
b. Slowly penetrate BBB.
c. Rapidly penetrate BBB.
d. Massively penetrate BBB.
227. **A graph (log Cp versus time) of Cp = CO e-kt will give: (Cp = concentration of drug,
Dose = e-kt)
a. A straight line with a positive slope.
b. A straight line with a negative slope.
c. Does not exist.
d. A circle.
Kt
228. Log C = Log C0 - See This One
2.203
229. Comparing to interstitial fluid, plasma has higher concentration of:

a. Na.
b. K.
c. Protein.
d. Chloride.
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PEBC Test Exam
230. In suppositories Epinephrine is used as:
a. Vasoconstrictor.
b. Anesthetic.
c. Irritant.
d. Emollient.
e. Astringent.
231. **Which of the following is arterial dilator?

a. Diazoxide.
b. Minoxidil.
c. Hydralazine.
232. Which drug causes venous pooling?

a. Hydralazine (Isosorbide).
b. Captopril.
c. Hydrochlorothiazide.
d. Clonidine.
233. *Anti-Thyroid (CP.T.U.C) is given in (Thyrotoxicosis is over abundance of thyroid

hormone), (Propylthiouracil used in hyperthyroidism with side effects: agranulocytosis,
rash, edema, fever, hepatitis, lymph node swelling) (also Neostigmine used to treat the
disease).
a. Cushing syndrome.
b. Gravis disease.
c. Addison's disease.
d. Parkinson's disease.
"Gravis disease is hyper-secretion of thyroid gland and
is treated by anti-thyroid drugs".
234. *What is the mechanism of action of Propylthiouracil in hyperthyroidism?

a. Inhibition of T4 deiodination.
b. Inhibition of T3 deiodination.
c. Interfere with the concentration of iodide ion by the thyroid gland.
d. Inhibits the synthesis of both iodotyrosine. And iodothyronine.
235. Radioactive iodine (131I) is used in:

a. Hyperthyroidism.
b. Hypothyroidism.
c. Graves' disease.
d. Toxic adenoma.
236. Addison's disease is due to:

a. Adrenocortical insufficiency.
b. Thyrotoxicosis.
c. Excessive release of acetyl Choline.
Page 32 of 117
PEBC Test Exam
237. *What is the Crohn's disease?
a. Regional enteritis.
b. Inflammation of the intestinal tract by infection of the irritating food.
c. (a) & (b).
238. *What is the Bright's disease?

a. Pyelonephtitis.
b. Nephritis.
c. Glumerulonephritis.
d. Endocarditis.
239. *Coronary vasodilatation is caused by release of:

a. Adenosine.
b. Adrenaline.
c. Serotonin.
d. Acetyl Choline.
e. Kinins.
240. *****Lyophelization (freeze drying) is: (used to prevent denaturation of protein or

enzyme and to maintain the stability of a substance)
a. Rapid freezing at low temperature & dehydration from frozen state at high vacuum.
b. Rapid freezing at high temperature & dehydration from frozen state at high
vacuum.
c. Rapid freezing at low temperature & hydration from frozen state at high vacuum.
d. Rapid freezing at high temperature & hydration from frozen state at high vacuum.
241. Physical instability in a solution is detected by:

a. Color change.
b. Odor.
c. Precipitation.
d. Increase in viscosity.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (a) & (c).
iv. All of them.
242. Sterilization of certain hormones is by:

a. Dry heat.
b. Lyophelization.
c. Radiation.
d. Autoclaving.
243. Which of the following is given in dehydration?

a. Sodium chloride.
b. Glucose.
c. Maltose.
d. All of the following.
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PEBC Test Exam
"Lytren is an orally administered electrolyte solution containing dextrose,
Kcl, Na, Ca, and Mg salts. It is used to supply water and electrolyte in a
balanced proportion in order to prevent serious deficits from occurring in
patients suffering from mild to moderate fluid loss".
244. **Suppository base with Poly-Morphic properties

a. Theobroma Oil (Cocoa Butter).
b. Gelatin.
c. Polyethylene Glycol.
245. Which of these suppository bases is used in both the oil and water soluble drugs?
a. Glycerin.
b. Glycerinated gelatin.
c. Cocoa butter.
d. Polyethylene glycol.
246. *Triethanolamine Stearate is: (surface active agent).

a. Lubricant.
b. Surface active agent.
c. Catalyst.
d. Emulsifying agent.
247. **Which of the following alcohols is used in formulation (Internally)?

a. Ethylene glycol.
b. Ethanol.
c. Methanol.
d. Polyethylene glycol.
248. Methanol when metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase gives? (Poisoning)

a. Formaldehyde.
b. Formic acid (causes blindness due to demylenation of optic nerve).
c. Acetaldehyde.
d. Acetic acid.
249. The anti-dote for Methanol & Ethylene Glycol poisoning is:
a. Ethanol.
b. EDTA.
c. Glycerin.
d. Acetaldehyde.
250. *****Methyl stearate used as:

a. Lubricant.
b. Surface active agent.
c. Catalyst.
d. Reagent.
251. *Synthetic emulsifying agents are:

a. Anionic.
Page 34 of 117
PEBC Test Exam
b. Non-Ionic.
c. Cationic.
252. ***A surfactant having Hydrophilic Lipophilic Balance (HLB) value of 14-18 can be used
as:
a. Solubilizing agent.
b. Oil in water emulsifying agent.
c. Wetting agent.
d. Water in oil emulsifying agent.
253. A surfactant with Hydrophilic Lipophilic Balance (HLB) value of 8-18 is used as:
b. Oil in Water emulsifying agent
c. Antifoaming agent
d. Detergent.
Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance (HLB)
HLB value Range Surfactant Application
0 – 3 Anti-foaming agents
4 – 6 Water-in-oil emulsifying
agents
7 – 9 Wetting agents
8 – 18 Oil-in-water emulsifying
agents
13 – 15 Detergents
10 – 18 Solubilizing agents
254. **Methyl & Propyl Parapens are used together (combination) so that:
a. When one does not affect the solubility of other.
b. One gets solubilized in presence of other.
c. They act synergistically together without precipitation.
d. Because of their limited solubility in water.
255. **The only phospholipid with pharmaceutical application is:

a. Cephalin.
b. Lecithin.
c. Sphingomyelin
d. Bile acid.
256. *Which of the following has a phospholipid structure?

a. Bile acid.
b. Protein.
c. Lecithin.
d. Fatty acids.
257. White ointment (white wax or white petrolatum) is:

a. O/W emulsion.
b. W/O emulsion.
Page 35 of 117
PEBC Test Exam
c. Adsorbent base.
d. Oleaginous base. ?????
258. ***The following combination (Atropine Sulfate, Benzyl alcohol (Parapens), Na sulphite,
Benzalkonium Chloride, Sodium Carboxymethyl cellulose, water qs) is: (Benzalkonium
chloride is dangerous in contact lenses and Thiomersal cause irritant in contact lenses).
a. Ophthalmic suspension.
b. Ophthalmic crointment.
c. Ophthalmic cream
d. Ophthalmic solution.
259. **Benzyl alcohol 5% is used as:

a. Preservative.
b. Co-solvent, stabilizer
c. Irritant.
260. **Benzyl alcohol 0.9% is used as:

a. Preservative.
b. Co-solvent.
c. Irritant.
261. Capsicum is:

a. Used as pain inducer.
b. Used as pain reliever.
c. Counterirritant.
i. (a).
ii. (c).
iii. (a) and (b).
iv. (a) and (c).
262. What is the use of phenol in injection?

b. Dispersing agent.
c. Preservative.
d. Anti-oxidant.
263. *Amphiprotic solvent is a solvent that:

a. Donates a proton and accepts a proton.
b. Donates a proton and accepts an electron.
c. Donates an electron.
d. Donates a proton.
264. Which is correct in ophthalmic solution?

a. Parabens (preservative) are not used in ophthalmic solutions. (only oral & topical)
b. Polyvinyl alcohol in ophthalmic preparation increase viscosity.
c. (a) & (b).
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265. Percentage of bio-availability from ophthalmic preparation is:

a. 3%.
b. 4%.
c. 5%.
d. 6%.
266. Sodium Bi-Sulfite is:

a. Chelating agent.
b. Buffering agent.
c. Antioxidant.
267. *Autoclaving is a process of: (steam 15 minutes at temperature 121C)

a. Filtration.
b. Sterilization.
c. Heating.
d. Steaming.
268. Amantadine:
a. Antiviral.
b. Used in Parkinsonism.
c. Used as prophylactic in Influenza.
d. Stimulates the release of Dopamine.
269. **For sustained release formulation (SRF), all of the following is applicable except:
a. Single dose which is convenient dosage form for the patient and the nurse.
b. Increase Patient compliance.
c. Produce prolonged effect (longer therapeutic effect).
d. Lesser side effects.
"The maxima in the drug concentration shown with multiple dose
administration are eliminated with a more economical utilization of
drug and fewer side effects because higher blood levels cause higher
side effects,
Eliminates the fall of drug concentration below MED, so patient is
receiving a therapeutically adequate amount of drug at all times.
The elimination of maxima reduces the total amount of drug needed
to obtain MEL (continuity of desired response)".
270. Two oral formulations of equal doses of drug A will have equal bioavailability only if:
a. They produce the same blood level half an hour after administration.
b. The same total amount of drug A is released or delivered into systemic circulation
from each formulation.
c. They disintegrate in the GIT at the same rate.
d. They are excreted in the urine at the same rate.
e. They are bound to plasma protein to the same degree.
271. *All of the following are characteristics applied for parentral drug except:
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a. Sterile.
b. Pyrogen free.
c. Particles free.
d. Contains preservative.
272. Water for injection is all of the following except:

a. Pyrogen free.
b. Free from particles.
c. Sterile.
d. (a) & (b).
273. **Which of the following oils is used in parentral solution?

a. Olive oil.
b. Sesame oil.
c. Cotton seed oil.
d. Linseed oil.
e. Corn seed oil.
f. Castor oil.
274. Sterilization with Ethylene Oxide needs.

a. Aeration with air.
b. Nitrogen.
c. (a) & (b).
d. (a) or (b)
275. Ethylene Oxide is used :

a. To protect the sealed package.(plastic or PVC tubing)
b. In sterilization.
c. (a) & (b).
276. The process of dispersing oil globule in aqueous vehicle is called:

a. Emulsion.
b. Suspension.
c. Ointment.
d. Cream.
277. Liquid droplets dispersed in another immiscible ‫ غير قابل لالمتزاج‬liquid is called:
a. Suspension.
b. Emulsion.
c. Gel.
d. Elixir
278. In a suspension settling of particles can be overcome by:

a. Adding non-ionic surface active agent.
b. Increasing viscosity by adding shear thickening agent.
c. Reducing the particle size.
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279. *Shear thickening is:

a. Increase in viscosity with increasing rate of shear is DILATENCY.
b. Decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of shear is dilatency.
c. Increase in viscosity with decreasing rate of shear is dilatency.
280. *The following are not emulsion problems:

a. Cracking.
b. Fluctuation. ‫يتارجح زي االمواج‬
c. Creaming.
d. Aggregation.
e. Coalescence.‫التحام‬
281. **Creaming in emulsions is due to:

a. Aggregation.
b. Increased droplet size.
c. Decreased droplet size.
d. Increasing of surface active agent.
282. To increase the creaming of the oily phase of o/w cream, which of the following is
applied?
a. Increase globule of the oil.
b. Increase surfactant.
c. Increase lubricant.
283. **Aggregation of the suspended agent is called: (surfactant forms aggregates called)
a. Coalescence.
b. Micelles.
c. Cracking.
"Micelles also are one of the ultra-microscopic
structures of the protoplasm (colloidal structure)".
284. In the prescription Rx, Na2CO3 + oil + egg yolk. Why egg yolk is used in this
preparation?
a. Suspending agent.
b. Emulsifying agent.
c. Mixing agent.
d. Creaming agent.
285. *What is Bentonite Magma?(Veegum is also clay type suspending agent)

a. Suspending agent.
b. Emulsifying agent.
c. Mixing agent.
d. Creaming agent.
286. Which of the following is used as emulsifying agent for lipids?
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PEBC Test Exam
a. Egg yolk.
b. Phospholipid lecithin.
c. Sodium Lauryl Sulphate.
287. *Which one is used as emulsifying agent?

a. Sorbitol monopalmitate.
b. Acacia.
c. Methyl cellulose.
288. Which is used in o/w ointment?

a. Poly Ethylene Glycol.
b. Acacia.
c. Carboxy Methyl Cellulose.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (b) & (c).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
289. **Epistaxis is:

a. Mouth bleeding.
b. Nose bleeding.
c. Ear bleeding.
d. Eye bleeding.
290. **Stenosis is: (Tricuspid Stenosis)

a. Inflammation of arteries.
b. Narrowing of arteries (vessels).
c. Thinning of arteries.
d. Hardening of arteries.
291. At rest, which organ gets maximum output of blood?

a. Kidney (22%).
b. Lungs (3%).
c. Liver (27%).
d. Heart (4%).
292. Monocytes resemble:

a. Neutrophils.
b. Basophiles.
c. Lymphocytes.
d. Eosinophils.
"Monocytes & Lymphocytes have no granular cytoplasm".
293. **Which of the following is not part of the lymphatic system (lymphocytes)?
a. Gall bladder.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Cisterna chyli.
c. Thyroid gland.
d. Spleen.
e. Thoracic duct.
294. Which of the following is not involved in duct system?

a. Spleen.
b. Thoracic duct.
c. Thyroid gland.
d. Tonsils.
295. *****Which of the following is not included in the Dermis?

a. Melanocytes (Melanin) & smooth muscles.
b. Nerve endings.
c. Hair follicles
d. Sebaceous gland.
296. **Which part of the intestine is the most alkaline (basic) pH?
a. Duodenum.
b. Colon.
c. Ileum.
d. Stomach.
297. In what kind you will find the lowest PH in the body?
a. Nasal fluid.
b. Abdominal fluid.
c. Lacrimal fluid.
d. Cerebrospinal fluid.
298. *Which drug is used as anthelmentic?

a. Pyrivinium Pamoate. (Povan) Also used during pregnancy.
b. Pyrimethamine.
c. Pyridoxine.
d. Streptomycin.
299. *Tinea Pestis is:

a. Bacterial infection.
b. Malarial infection.
c. Mushroom & yeast infection.
d. Fungal infection.
300. ****Drug used in Malaria prophylaxis is:

a. Chloroquine.
b. Fansidar.
c. Pyrimethamine.
301. The drug with cardiac stimulant properties, but causes decrease in blood pressure is:
a. Nor-Adrenaline.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Isopreterenol. (The drug hasn't effect on  -receptor & has  -agonist effect)
c. Propranolol.
d. Ephedrine.
302. *Morphine causes increase in nausea & vomiting by:

a. CNS effect.
b. Anti-Diarrhoeal.
c. Direct stimulating effect on CTZ.
"Morphine has central actions like: 1. inhibition of neuronal electro-activity,
2. Analgesia, 3. Respiratory depression, 4. Change in mood, 5. Sedation, 6.
Miosis, 7. Nausea & vomiting, 8. Antitussive, 9. Endocrine effect (inhibits
LH & FSH release). It has peripheral actions: 1. Histamine release causing
arteriolar & venous dilatation, i.e. hypotension, flushing, increased loss of
hair, 2. Contraction of smooth muscle in biliary and bladder's sphincter,
tone of GIT, biliary tract and ureter is increased so that the intraluminal
pressure in there sphincters increase and there may be spasm, also inhibition
of ACH release from mysentric plexus causes a marked reduction in
propulsive peristaltic movement resulting in constipation. This is the basis of
the anti-diarrheal effect of opoids".
303. *Which of the following you give to a patient who is tolerant to morphine?
a. Heroin.
b. Methadone.
c. Meperidine.
d. Codeine.
304. Opioid receptors are found in:

a. Brain.
b. Spinal cord.
c. CNS.
d. Chest.
305. Difference between human & bacterial cell is:

a. Cell wall.
b. Cell membrane.
c. Peptido glycans.
306. The microorganism with Techoic Acid in its cell wall is:
a. E. coli.
b. Chlamydia.
c. Staphylococcus Aureus.
d. Diplo Streptococcus.
307. Staphylococcus resistance is due to:

a. Alteration in Peptido glycan lipids.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Restructuring of cell wall.
c. Production of B-lactamase enzyme.
d. Changing the permeability.
308. Mycoplasma is resistant to antibiotic Penicillin because:

a. It has no cell wall.
b. It has no cell membrane.
c. It has tiny size.
309. ***In statistic when the mean, median and mode are equal, the distribution is said to
be:
a. Uniform (Normal).(Symmetrical)
b. Bi-normal.
c. Variable.
d. Equal.
310. The vitamin used for collagen synthesis is:

a. Vitamin E.
b. Vitamin A.
c. Vitamin D.
d. Vitamin C.
311. *Cholestyramine resin mode of action is:

a. Binds to bile acids, which reduces absorption of fat soluble vitamins.
b. Causes interface in synthesis of cholesterol
c. Inhibits cholesterol synthesis.
d. Absorbed from GIT.
312. Cholestyramine has the tendency to bind:

a. Weakly basic drugs.
b. Weakly acidic drugs.
c. Polar remedies.
d. Ionic metabolites.
313. Which of the following vitamins can be described as cholesterol?

a. Vitamin V.
b. Vitamin D3.
c. Vitamin E.
d. Vitamin B.
314. **Anti-cholesterol drug for pregnant woman is:

a. Clofibrate.
b. Mevacor. (X Mevacor pregnancy risk category)
c. Cholestyramine.
d. Mycostatin.
315. Cholestyramine decreases:

a. Cholesterol.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Triglycerides.
c. Hyperlipidemia.
316. Onset of parkinsonism is manifested by:

a. Mild tremor.
b. Twisted tongue.
c. (a) & (b).
317. *Parkinsonism is due to the lack of:

a. Acetyl Choline.
b. Dopamine.
c. Serotonin.
d. L-Methyl Dopa.
318. *Drug induced Parkinsonism (Neuroleptic induced Parkinsonism) in 70 – 80% of patients;

neuroleptics cause extrapyramidal signs which mimic Parkinson's disease. It has the
following sings and symptoms:
a. Stiffness.
b. Short steps & akinesia.
c. Ramped handwriting & tremor.
319. Which of the following can cause extrapyramidal manifestations?

a. Haloperidol.
b. Chlorpromazine.
c. Triazolam.
d. Diazepam.
320. Which drug is effective ORALLY in Parkinsonism?

a. Reserpine.
b. Chlorpromazine.
c. Amantadin.
d. Dopamine.
321. Secondary causes of Parkinson's include:

a. Phenothiazines.
b. Diuretics.
c. Oral contraceptives.
d. Antibiotics.
322. Liquid Paraffin is:

a. Cathartic.
b. Laxative.
c. Emollient laxative.
323. Adrenaline is mixed with injectables to:
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PEBC Test Exam
a. Prolong its effect.
b. Work as vasoconstrictor.
c. (a) & (b).
d. (a) or (b).
324. **Which of the following is used in the treatment of Schistosomiasis? Same of bilharzia
a. Praziquantel "Bitricide" (Increase permeability to calcium causing paralysis of
worm, ,musculature dislodgement from mesenteric & pelvic veins)
b. Tazocin.
c. Malarix.
d. Others.
325. Clomifen:
a. Increases secretion of GRH, LH, and FSH.
b. Block estrogen receptor in hypothalamus
c. Decreases secretion of GRH, LH, and FSH.
d. Stimulate estrogen receptor in hypothalamus
326. During ovulation peak plasma concentration of which of the following hormones will be
reached?
a. Leutinizing Hormone (LH).
b. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH).
c. Progesterone.
d. (a) & (b).
327. *Pharmacologically, Vasopressin "Anti-Diuretic Hormone (ADH)" exerts its action by:
a. Salt excretion.
b. Water retention.
c. Water re-absorption.
d. Salt retention.
328. The atrial Dilator that is used in hypertensive emergency is:

a. Non-Diuretic.
b. Diazoxide IV (vasodilator with action mainly on atrial smooth muscle, it is high
protein binder).
c. Propranolol.
d. Chlordiazepoxide.
329. Of the following, which one is not the side effect of Anti-Cholinergic?
a. Constipation.
b. Blurred vision.
c. Diarrhea.
d. Dizziness.
330. Which of the following is used for non-infective diarrhea?

a. Bismuth Sub-Salicylate (Peptobismal) used in traveler's diarrhea.
b. Atropine (Is incorporated in diphenoxylate to discourage abuse).
c. Loperamide (Imodium)R
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PEBC Test Exam
331. Peptobismal (Bismuth Sub-Salicylate) causes:
a. Softening of stool.
b. Constipation.
c. Blackening of stool.
332. *The drug of choice for chronic constipation is:

a. Docusate sodium.
b. High fiber diet.
c. Bulk cathartics.
d. Sugars.
333. Which of the following gives Tuccombs test?

a. Vitamin C.
b. Methyl Dopa.
c. Vitamin B12.
d. Vitamin B6.
334. *When we say Hernia, we mean:

a. Brain Hernia.
b. Abdominal Hernia (hernia is protrusion of the peritoneum).
c. Thoracic Hernia.
335. Hernia can be defined as:

a. Proliferation of viscera from diaphragm.
b. Proliferation of viscera from Peritoneum.
c. Proliferation of viscera from guaincol cocci.
336. Hernias occur through:

a. Superficial inguinal ring.
b. Inguinal canal.
c. Diaphragm.
i. (a) only.
ii. (c) only.
iii. (a) & (b).
iv. (b) & (c).
v. (a), (b), and (c).
337. What is the precursor that by UV of light changes to vitamin D?

a. Dehydrocholesterol.
b. Ergosterol.
c. Cholesterol.
d. Hydrocholesterol.
338. Hypo-Para Thyroidism can be corrected by:

a. Vitamin D.
b. Vitamin E.
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PEBC Test Exam
c. Vitamin K.
d. Vitamin A.
339. Which vitamin acts as hormone?

a. Vitamin C.
b. Vitamin D3.
c. Vitamin E.
d. Vitamin B.
340. Sterilization of certain hormones is by:

a. Dry heat.
b. Lyophelization.
c. Pasteurization.
d. Radiation.
341. What is Vitamin D important for?

a. Regulation of Ca level in the body.
b. Regulation of Phosp level in the body.
c. (a) & (b).
342. Ergosterol is the precursor for:

a. Vitamin A.
b. Vitamin D2 (Calciferol).
c. Vitamin D3.
d. Vitamin E.
343. 7-DehydroErgosterol is the precursor for:

a. Vitamin A.
b. Vitamin D2 (Calciferol).
c. Vitamin D3 (Cholecalciferol).
d. Vitamin E.
344. ***The end product of Glycolysis is:

a. Lactic Acid.
b. Acetic Acid.
c. Pyruvic Acid.
d. Glucose-6-Hydrohen Phosphate (G6HP).
345. Eukaryotes are different from prokaryotes by:

a. Having living in groups.
b. Having separated organ for multiplication.
c. Having attached organ for multiplication.
346. Typhus is transmitted by: (causes Ricketcia)

a. Body lice.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Mites.
c. Mosquito.
d. Fly.
347. The causative agent for Cholera is:

a. N. Gonococci.
b. Vibrio Cholera.
c. Flagellated bacteria.
d. Salmonella Typhi
348. *Scabies is caused by: (treated by EuraxR "crotomitar 10%")

a. Bite sting.
b. Mite.
c. Protozoa.
349. ***Scabies can be eradicated by:

a.  Benzyl Hexa Chloride.
b. Benzyl Benzoate (Lindane)R
c. Benzyl Peroxide.
d. Piperinyl Butoxide.
350. Rabies is acute infectious disease of animals (dogs, fox, cat), characterized by
involvement of CNS resulting in paralysis and finally death. It may be transmitted to
human through:
a. Mite.
b. Lice.
c. Bite of rabid animal.
d. Bite sting.
351. Which is true about Brucellosis?

a. Characterized by fluctuating temperature & undulant fever caused by Brucella.
b. Cause infection in domestic animals incidentally passed to man.
c. Treated by tetracycline with Streptomycin.
352. Which is true about Tularemia?

a. Transmitted by a bite of infected flies, ticks, and their animal reservoir.
b. Transferred by domestic animal & aquatic animals.
c. Treated by tetracycline with Streptomycin.
353. **Which one of the following is an anaerobic bacterium?

a. Clostridium.
b. Enterobacter.
c. Bacteroids fragilis.
d. Streptococcus Viridians.
354. Escherichia Coli may be described as:
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PEBC Test Exam
a. Pneumococci.
b. Fungal organism.
c. Gram positive bacilli.
d. Gram negative bacilli.
355. ***The antidote for Lead (Fe, Zn) poisoning is:

a. GABA.
b. EDTA.
c. BAPA.
d. NADPH.
356. Which one of the following can be given to compensate acid poisoning?
a. Ammonium Chloride.
b. NaHCO3.
c. H2O.
d. H3O+
357. Which of the following can be given in base poisoning?

a. HCL.
b. Vinegar.
c. Lemon juice.
d. Weak acid.
358. The anti-dote for Iron poisoning is:

a. Deferoxamine.
b. Penicillamine.
c. EDTA.
359. *Death due to Cyanide poisoning results from:

a. Cyanide-Hemoglobin complex formation.
b. Cyanide combining with red blood cells.
c. Cyanide inactivating cytochrome oxidase.
d. Coronary vessel occlusion.
"The Cytochrome oxidase is the respiratory enzyme".
360. The anti-dote for Cyanide poisoning could be:

a. Sodium Nitrite and/or Amyl Nitrite.
b. Sodium Thiosulfate and/or Sodium bicarbonate.
c. Oxygen and/or Hyperbaric oxygen.
d. Penicillamine.
361. Cyanide toxicity symptoms include the following:

a. Headache & Dyspnea.
b. Nausea & vomiting.
c. Ataxia, coma, seizure and death.
362. The anti-dote for Copper poisoning is:
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PEBC Test Exam
a. Penicillamine (used also in Rheumatoid Arthritis).
b. EDTA.
c. Sodium bisulphite.
363. Drugs containing hydroxyl or carboxyl groups are detoxified (metabolized) by:
a. Acetylation.
b. Reduction.
c. Glucuronic acid.
d. Hydrolysis.
364. *Among these solvents, which is more Amphoteric?

a. CH3CH2NH.
b. Water & acetic acid.
c. CH3CH2COOH.
d. COOH.
365. In all of the following kinds of poisoning, there should be no emesis (vomiting), because
emesis will lead to Aspiration Pneumonia, except in case of:
a. Bleaches.
b. Gasoline.
c. Iron salts.
d. Organic acids.
366. Which one of the following drugs is eliminated through tubular excretion?
a. Chloramphenicol.
b. Penicillin.
c. Aminoglycosides.
d. Tetracyclines.
367. Calcitonin secreted from:

a. Pituitary gland.
b. Adrenal cortex.
c. Adrenal medulla.
d. Thyroid gland.
368. Tubular re-absorption of Calcium is determined by:

a. ADH.
b. Calcitonin.
c. Parathyroid hormone
d. Vitamin D.
.
369. Where in the kidney is Ca++ reabsorbed?
a. Proximal Convoluted Tubules (PCT). LOOK UP ?????
b. Distal Convoluted Tubules (DCT). THIAZIDE EARLY SEGMENT OF DCT
c. Ascending loop of henle.
d. Descending loop of henle.
370. Why are mycoplasms resistant to Penicillin?
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PEBC Test Exam
a. Because they don't have cell wall.
b. Because they don't have mitochondria.
c. Because they are small in size.
d. Because they have increased mutation rate.
371. Embolism (thrombus) is defined as:

a. Obstruction of artery.
b. Obstruction of vein.
c. Obstruction of vessel.
d. Narrowing of vessel.
372. *****Any substance present normally in the body is called:

a. Metabolite.
b. Substrate.
c. Exogenous substance.
d. Endogenous substance.
373. ****Aromatic amines metabolism takes place by:

a. Hydroxylation followed by conjugation with Glucuronic acid.
b. Acetylation followed by conjugation with Glucuronic acid.
c. Carboxylation followed by conjugation with Glucuronic acid.
d. Conjugation with Glucuronic acid.
374. Carbolic acid reacts with NH3 to form:

a. Amide.
b. Imide.
c. Imidine.
d. Amidine.
375. Ampholytic solvent (contains both H+"cationic" and OH-"Anionic") like:

a. CH3COOH.
b. H2O.
c. CH3CH2COOH
d. H2SO4
376. **The mode of transmission of Hepatitis-A is by:

a. Direct personal contact.
b. Fecal & oral route.
c. Food and water.
d. Skin.
"Hepatitis-B is transmitted by physical contacts and
skin-transmitted in blood/body fluids".
377. ***Syphilis is caused by: (treated by penicillin G and/or Benzathine Penicillin G, if failed
then by tetracycline and Erythromycins).
a. Spirochetes.
b. Flagella.
c. Streptomycin.
d. Treponema Palladium. (CHANCER, Gram –ve)
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PEBC Test Exam
378. Scarlet fever is caused by: (High fever, skin rash, discolored tongue).
a. Staphylococcus species.
b. Streptococcus species.
c. Gram negative bacilli.
379. *****TB is caused by: (Mantoux test for tuberculin treated by isoniazide INH +
ethambutol + streptomycin + refampicin).
a. Treponema Pallidium.
b. V. Cholera.
c. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis.
d. Yersinia Pestis.
380. **Trichomonas Vaginalis is caused by: (treated by Metronidazole. Normal pH of vagina

is acidic 4.5-5 then during menstruation there is increase in pH, so symptoms appear)
a. Virus.
b. S.Typhi
c. Flagellated Protozoa.
d. Staphylococcus Epidermidis.
381. *****Diphtheria is caused by: (Schick's test for diphtheria, Antitoxin+pencillin if not
then erythromycin).
a. Yersinia Pestis.
b. Corynebacterium Diphtheria.
c. Streptococcus pyogens.
d. Treponema Pallidium.
382. Schick's test:

a. Is the test for Diphtheria?
b. Intra-dermal injection of diphtheria toxin (0.1 ml).
c. Into the forearm.
383. *****Plaque is caused by: (Bite of rat of flea, inject diluted solution of toxin intra-
dermaly into forearm, treated by Streptomycin and Tetracycline).
a. Yersinia Pestis.
b. Viruses.
c. Protius Mirabilis.
d. Streptococcus feacalis.
384. Which of the following causes Granulomas?

a. E.Coli.
b. Mycobacterium Tuberculum.
c. Bacteroids Flagilis.
d. Clostridium.
385. Pyrogens are:

a. Metabolic by-products of liver that cause a pyretic response (i.e. fever).
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Metabolic by-products of dead micro-organisms that cause a pyretic response (i.e.
fever).
c. Metabolic by-products of liver and dead micro-organism that cause a pyretic
response (i.e. fever)
d. Metabolic by-products of Kidneys that cause a pyretic response (i.e. fever)
386. **Removal of pyrogens from water is by:

a. Heating.
b. Filtration.
c. Distillation.
d. Autoclaving.
387. Lumulus(LAL) test is used to detect:

a. Pyrogen.
b. Bacterial.
c. Sugar.
d. Virus.
388. Bacteria is characterized by absence of :

a. Mitochondria.
b. Nucleus.
c. Flagella.
d. Nucleotide.
389. The pore size in Bacterial filters is:

a. 500 nm.
b. 50 nm.
c. 3 nm
d. 0.22 nm.
390. **Critical Solution Temperature (CST) is: (It is used to determine Phenol Coefficient).
a. Maximum temperature when homogenous solution is formed for all concentrations of
Phenol.
b. Minimum temperature when homogenous solution is formed for all concentrations of
Phenol.
c. Maximum temperature when non-homogenous solution is formed for all concentrations
of Phenol.
d. Maximum temperature when non-homogenous solution is formed for all concentrations
of Phenol.
"It is the maximum temperature above when 2 immiscible liquids
become miscible (homogenous solution) regardless the
concentration of each. H2O and Phenol is an example".
391. *Eutectic mixture is: (Camphor + Menthol)

a. Two liquids mixed together.
b. Two gases mixed together.
c. Two Solids melt together.
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"Pulverization by intervention is the process of reducing a substance to fine
powder by utilizing a solvent which can be removed easily e.g. camphor +
alcohol. The solvent added, evaporates quickly, leaving behind the finely
subdivided camphor".
392. Freon is:

a. Active gas.
b. Propellant gas.
c. Light gas.
393. *****Eutectic point is defined as:

a. The lowest melting point of any possible mix of solid A & B.
b. The Highest melting point of any possible mix of solid A & B.
c. The lowest melting point of any possible mix of liquid A & B.
d. The lowest melting point of any possible mix of liquid A & B.
"When two or more organic acids, Ketones or alcohols are placed together,
they liquidify at ordinary room temperature because of the lowering of their
melting point. This phenomenon is called Eutaxia".
394. The binary system is defined as:

a. Two solids which are melted in each other in different proportion.
b. A solid and liquid which are soluble in each other.
c. Two gases which are soluble in each other in different proportion.
d. Two liquids which are soluble in each other in different proportion.
395. All of the following are Adrenergic anti-histamines except: (block receptor cite on
which histamine acts "H1", histamine stimulates gastric secretions, capillary dilatation)
a. Diphenhydramine.
b. Promethazine.
c. Antazoline.
d. Cyproheptadine (PeriactinR).
e. Propranolol.
396. **The structure activity relationship of anti-histamines depend on:

a. The side aryl group.
b. Tertiary amine.
c. (a) & (b).
397. *****High dose of Phenylephrine causes: ("VasopressoR"  1 agonist)

a. Severe Hypotension.
b. Severe Hypertension (can be counteracted by Phentolamine which is  blocker).
c. Hyperkalemia.
d. Hypokalemia.
398. *Hyponatremia is:

a. Low blood level of Sodium.(CHF)
b. Low blood level of Calcium.
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c. Low blood level of Potassium.
d. Low blood level of nitrogen.
399. Hypokalemia is:

a. Low blood level of Sodium.
b. Low blood level of Calcium.
c. Low blood level of Potassium.
d. Low blood level of nitrogen.
400. Which of the following regulates the calcium level in the blood?
a. 20-25 vitamin D3.
b. Calciferol.
c. Calcitonin.
d. Vitamin B.
401. *****Sciatic nerve supplies:

a. Hip joint.
b. Knee joint.
c. All foot branches.
d. Thigh muscles.
402. *Which of the following is a sign that a patient's crutches are too long?
a. Wrist drop.
b. Paralysis of the palm.
c. Auxilliary nerve damage.
d. Numbness & tingling.
403. While give IM injection, we usually upper side of lateral part because:
a. Fear to injure sciatic nerve.
b. Fear to injure femoral artery.
c. Fear to injure vagal nerve.
d. Fear to injure femoral vein.
404. *Isotonicity of blood is equal to:

a. 0.9% Nacl.
b. 5% dextrose.
c. (a) or (b).
d. Neither (a) nor (b).
405. Isotonic means:

a. Same concentration with the blood.
b. Same composition with blood.
c. Same osmotic pressure with blood.
d. Same NaCL concentration.
406. Which of the following is the isotonic or iso-osmotic solution of NaCL?

a. 0.09% w/v.
b. 0.9% w/v.
c. 9.0% w/v.
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d. 0.009% w/v.
407. TCm99 (Technitum-99) (radioisotopes) decay by emission of what type of rays?

(isotopes have same number of protons and different number of neutrons),(used in liver,
kidney, lung screening)
a. Gamma rays (  ) (has greater penetrating power)
b. Beta rays (  ).
c. Alpha rays (  )
408. About Technitum-99, all of the following are true except:

a. Short half life.
b. Long half life.
c. Used for scanning of liver, lungs, and kidneys.
d. Include  radiation emission.
*****In case of (Congestive Heart Failure "CHF") left ventricular failure, blood pools in:
e. Liver.
f. Lungs.
g. Aorta.
h. Superior vena cava.
409. *In Congestive Heart Failure (CHF), accumulation of blood occurs in:
a. Lungs and Vena Cava.
b. Liver.
c. Kidneys.
d. Pulmonary Artery.
e. Lower extremities.
410. Venous pooling is caused by which of the following vasodilators?

a. Sodium Nitroprusside.
b. Hydralazine.
c. Isosobide Dinitrate.
d. Nitroglycerine.
411. **During inspiration, in which vessel the least blood pressure found?
a. The vena cava.
b. Arterioles.
c. Coronary arteries.
d. Venules.
"DOUBLE CHECK THIS ONE. SOME OTHER PAPERS
ANSWER IS CAPILLARIES"
412. *****Barbiturates, Anti-depressants, Anti-coagulants, contraceptives are all increase
liver microsomal enzyme (liver biotransformation), which one of the following also does
so?
a. Mitronidazole.
b. Rifampicin.
c. Isoniazide.
d. Ampicillin.
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413. *****Drugs that increase liver microsomal enzymes actually increase their own
metabolism, thus account for:
a. Carcinogenisis.
b. Dependence.
c. Tolerance.
d. Hypersensitivity.
414. Phenobarbitone induces liver microsomal enzyme, when used chronically what should be
done?
a. Dose should be increased.
b. Dose should be decreased.
c. Dose should not be changes.
d. Medication should be stopped.
415. Which is NOT true about Naloxone?

a. It blocks all the pharmacological actions of morphine.
b. It is used in respiratory failure caused by barbiturates.
c. It has analgesic activity.
d. It is a pure antagonist.
416. Opioid tolerance is induced by:

a. Increase metabolic degradation.
b. Decreased response to Opioid receptor.
c. (a) & (b).
417. **In competitive enzymatic reaction, by addition of more substrate:

a. The same rate of reaction E + S  ES  P. ?????????
b. Higher rate of reaction E + S  ES  P.
c. Lower rate of reaction E + S  ES  P.
d. Imbalanced rate of reaction E + S  ES  P.
418. **Surface Active Agent promotes: (wetting agent like Sodium Lauryl Sulphate.
Characterized by having water soluble group and fat soluble group in the same molecule,
in ophthalmology, it is used for hard lenses).
a. Drying of liquid.
b. Wetting of solid.
c. Prevents microbial growth.
419. **Sodium Lauryl Sulfate is used as:

a. Anionic surface active agent.
b. Cationic surface active agent.
c. Drying agent.
d. Non-Ionic.
420. Examples of non-ionic surfactant:

a. Tween.
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b. Sorbital Monopalmitate.
c. Methyl cellulose.
421. Methyl cellulose surfactant is:

a. Non-ionic.
b. Cationic.
c. Anionic.
"Methyl Cellulose is used in ophthalmic solutions to increase the
contact time of the ophthalmic solution in the eye by increasing
viscosity, also it increases infiltration and drop size"
.
422. *****Grey baby syndrome in infants is caused by:
a. Aminoglycosides.
b. Chloramphenicol.
c. Tetracycline.
d. Cephalosporins.
"Is a circulatory collapse due to tissue accumulation of unchanged
Chloramphenicol resulting from deficiency of glucuronyl transferase
enzyme in infants, which is responsible for Chloramphenicol
metabolism, through either reduction or conjugation".
423. What can be used for teething infant?

a. Teething ring.
b. Benzocain 7.5%.
c. Banzocain 20%.
d. (a) & (b).
424. *****All of the following are true about Aminoglycosides antibiotics (e.g. Streptomycin,
Neomycin, Gentamycin, that inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosome unit)
except:
a. Not absorbed from the GIT.
b. Cause dose dependent toxicity.
c. Bacteriostatic.
d. Cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
425. Amphotericin-B is:

a. Aminoglycoside antibiotic.
b. Acts by inhibiting the cell membrane function.
c. Used to treat systemic & deep mycotic infections.
d. All of the above.]
426. *Piroxicam (Feldene)R:

a. Used as antipyretic.
b. Inhibits prostaglandin.
c. Taken once daily.
d. Causes frontal headache.
e. Non Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug.
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427. **Indomethacin (Indocid)R is: (Major side effect on GIT)

a. Analgesic antipyretic.
b. Anti0inflammatory.
c. Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
428. Refecoxib (Vioxx)R can be classified as:

a. Cox1 and cox2 inhibitor.
b. Cox2 inhibitor.
c. Cytoprotectant.
d. Anti-cholinergic.
"Refecoxib is Non Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAID) that is
an inhibitor of Cyclo-OXygenase 2 (COX2). Most other NSAID are
cox1 inhibitors and they are likely to cause GI upset and bleeding".
429. Refecoxib can be used as:

a. Analgesic
b. Anti Rheumatoid Arthritis.
c. Anti Osteoarthritis.
d. Anti pyretic.
430. All of the following are drugs that used in cancer chemotherapy. They act as
antimetabolite except:
a.  -mercaptopurine.
b. Methotrexate.
c. Thiouracil.
d. Methyl dopa.
431. Which of the following give a false positive result in 5-HIAA test for Carcinoma?
a. NaCL.
b. Glyceryl guaiacolate.
c. Tetracycline.
d. Mephenesin.
e. Ampicillin.
432. Sincalide (Kinevac) is used as diagnostic aid to obtain samples of:

a. Albumin.
b. Bile. (Contract gallbladder and devacate bladder)
c. Gastric Juice.
d. Ketones.
433. *Keratin is an/a:

a. Protein.
b. Glutelin.
c. Peptine.
d. Albuminoid.
e. Hetone.
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434. *Which of the following enhances the activity of Azathioprine (Immurane) by inhibiting
enzymatic oxidation?
a. Allopurinol.
b. Elase.
c. Dipyridamol.
d. Trimethoprim.
435. The dose of 6-mercaptopurine should be adjusted with:

a. Elase.
b. Dipyridamol.
c. Allopurinol.
d. Trimethoprim.
436. Which anti-neoplastic (Chemotherapeutic) drug used in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

a. Methotrexate.
b. Cyclophosphamide.
c. Carmustine.
d. Cisplatin.
437. The main mechanism of action of Anti-neoplastic drugs is:

a. Interference with RNA synthesis.
b. Interference with DNA synthesis.
c. Through transcription.
d. Through inhibition of mitosis.
438. *Cell-Cycle specific anti-neoplastic agents act on:

a. DNA synthesis (S-Phase).
b. Mitosis.
c. RNA synthesis.
d. Transcription.
439. In regard to Methotrexate administration and dosage:

a. Initiated at a weekly dose between 5 – 10 mg.
b. Starting dose are either 7.5mg at once or 2.5mg/12 hours for three doses.
c. Dose can be increased slowly at 3-6 week intervals to 15-20mg a week.
440. Rheumatoid Arthritis affects:

a. The extra-articular sites.
b. The synovial joint.
c. The tendons.
d. Some organ structures.
441. Which of the following dos not remove the color of bromine dissolved in CCL 4?
a. Aniline.
b. Acetone.
c. Hexane.
d. Hexene.
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442. ***Ketone bodies (Acetone  -Hydroxy Butyric Acid) caused by all of the following
except: (Aceton occurs in mouth)
a. Diabetes.
b. Hyperglycemia.
c. Hypoglycemia.
d. Starvation.
443. The side effects of Metformin include:

a. Fatal lactic acidosis.
b. Metallic taste.
c. GI effects like epigastric distress, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia.
d. Cholestatic jaundice.
444. All of the following are Oral Hypoglycemic agents except:

a. Tolbutamide.
b. Metformin.
c. Glibenclamide.
d. Insulin.
445. The side effects of prolonged use of Sulphonyl ureas include all of the following except:
a. Hypoglycemic reactions.
b. Photosynthesized reactions.
c. Jaundice.
d. Rash
446. Why insulin is injected subcutaneously?

a. Because this is the only available route of administration.
b. To increase the bioavailability.
c. To avoid degradation.
d. To avoid tissue damage.
447. For how long is an Insulin preparation by used after taking it out of refrigerator?
a. A week.
b. 10 days. "LOOK UP"
c. 20 days.
d. 30 days.
448. Hypoglycemia is caused by:

a. Insulin (Injection).
b. Sulfonyl Urea (Oral).
c. (a) and (b).
449. *Insulin shock in an unconscious patient is treated with:

a. Injection of Glucagon.
b. Glucose.
c. Sugar.
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450. A person with Juvenile diabetes will use:
a. Oral Anti-diabetics.
b. Insulin.
c. Eat more food than normal person but strict diet.
451. In "Juvenile onset" diabetic type I:

a. Patient is advised to eat several times but only eat low calories food.
b. Insulin dependent.
c. Prone to ketosis.
i. (a).
ii. (b).
iii. (a) & (c).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
452. The term (Type 1) Diabetes Mellitus is also referred to as:

a. Diabetes Insipidus.
b. Brittle Diabetes.
c. Insulin resistant diabetes.
d. Insulin dependent diabetes.
453. *Chlorpropamide is not used with ethanol because:

a. It induces antabuse-like reaction.
b. Hypoglycemia may occur.
c. Alcohol intolerance may occur.
i. (a).
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (b) & (c).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
454. Gout is:

a. Inflammation of tendons due to deposition of sodium urate crystals.
b. Inflammation of Joints due to deposition of sodium urate crystals.
c. Inflammation of muscles due to deposition of sodium urate crystals.
d. Inflammation of bones due to deposition of sodium urate crystals.
455. Acute attacks of gout are treated with Colchicine, which reduces inflammatory response
to urate crystals by all the following except: (side effects include agranulocytosis,
aplastic anemia, myopathy, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea).
a. Inhibiting leukocytes, phagosytosis migration.
b. Interferes with kinins formation.
c. Reduce leukocyte lactic acid formation.
d. Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
456. Which drug is not used in acute gout?

a. Phenylbutazone.
b. Ibuprofen.
c. Acetaminophen.
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457. Which is not the side effect of Colchicine?

a. Agranulocytosis.
b. Bloody diarrhea.
c. Hematourea.
d. Shock.
e. Proteinuria
458. *Colchicine can give false +ve test for: LOOK UP ?????
a. Uric acid.
b. Ureates.
c. Ketones.
d. Glucose.
e. RBCs
459. ****Allopurinol is used in treatment of chronic Tophaceous gout by exerting the

following mechanism of action:
a. Reducing serum urate level by blocking uric acid production.
b. Inhibiting xanthine oxidase enzyme which convert xanthine into hypoxanthine leading
to uric acid.
c. (a) and (b).
d. Mono Amine Oxidase inhibitor (MAO inhibitor).
(Facilitate dissolution of toph chalky urate deposits, side effects
include steven-johnson syndrome, skin rash, hepato-toxicity, hair
loss, GIT disturbances)..
460. **The use of Sulfinpyrazone (Uricosuric agent) in Gout treatment is based on:
a. Inhibition of Xanthine Oxidase.
b. Inhibiting migration of leukocytes to urate crystals.
c. Inhibition of the renal tubular re-absorption of uric acid.
d. Blocking synthesis of uric acid.
461. *****Probenecid affects the metabolism of: (it acts by inhibiting the tubular secretion
of penicillins and cephalosporins).
a. Salicylamide.
b. Penicillins.
c. Aminoglycosides.
d. Quinolones.
462. Probenecid is used to prolong the effect of:

a. Penicillins.
b. Tetracyclines.
c. Quinolones.
d. Cephalosporins.
"It prevents rapid excretion of Penicillin in the
proximal tubules by competition. Both Propenecid and
Penicillin are acids and are uricosetic agents. In the
low doses they inhibit urinary excretion of uric acid by
inhibiting its secretion. In higher doses they inhibit
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re-absorption of uric acid therefore it will not be
excreted and that's why it is good in the treatment of
Gout".
463. On which part of the Penicillin molecule the Oxidase acts?

a. The beta lactam ring.
b. The side chain.
c. (a) & (b).
464. On which part of the Penicillin molecule the Beta lactamse acts?
a. The beta lactam ring.
b. The side chain.
c. (a) & (b).
465. Penicillin is metabolized by penicillinase to:

a. Penicillanic acid.
b. Penicilloic acid.
c. (a) & (b).
466. Penicilloyl Polylysin is used as skin test for:

a. Ampicillin.
b. Penicillin.
c. Amoxycillin.
d. Dicloxacillin.
467. All of the following antibiotics are penicillinase resistant except:

a. Oxacillin.
b. Cloxacillin.
c. Dicloxacillin.
d. Methicillin.
e. Penicillin.
468. Which of the following is classified as a broad spectrum antibiotic?

a. Ampicillin.
b. Penicillin G.
c. Methicillin.
d. Cloxacillin.
469. Which antibiotic is penicillinase resistant but not acid resistant?

a. Oxacillin.
b. Cloxacillin.
c. Dicloxacillin.
d. Methicillin.
470. Which antibiotic is not penicillinase resistant but acid resistant?

a. Oxacillin.
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b. Amoxycillin.
c. Dicloxacillin.
d. Methicillin.
471. Which antibiotic is both penicillinase and acid resistant?

a. Amoxycillin
b. Cloxacillin.
c. Penicillin.
d. Methicillin.
472. The side effects of Erythromycin Estolate include:

a. Reversible Cholestatic hepatitis.
b. Fever.
c. Jaundice.
473. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)R is not effective as tetracycline in Urinary Tract Infection

(UTI) because:
a. It has lesser renal clearance.
b. It has greater renal clearance.
c. It has lesser spectrum of activity.
d. It has dose inconvenience.
474. Aminoglycosides:
a. Inhibit protein synthesis.
b. Stops protein synthesis.
c. (a) & (b).
475. Diethyl Stilbesterol is used in treatment of:

a. Cholestitis.
b. Senile Vaginitis.
c. Bronchitis.
d. Pneumonitis.
476. *Psudomemranous Colitis is treated by Macrolide antibiotic group e.g. Vancomycin,

Clindamycin because this group is effective against:
a. Gram –ve bacteria.
b. Gram +ve Staph. Aureus.
c. Gram +ve diplococci.
d. Gram +ve Strep. Faecalis.
477. *Aluminium subacetate ( in Hemorrhoids) used as:

a. Antacid.
b. Astringent.
c. Purgative.
478. Aluminium Hydroxide (Al)-OH3 is used as:
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a. Antacid.
b. Astringent.
c. Purgative.
d. Bulk cathartic.
"Ideal antacid should raise PH of stomach from 1 to 3.5 and this will
neutralize 90% of HCL & reduce proteolytic activity of pepsin".
479. Zymogens are inactive forms of enzymes. They are the precursors of:
a. Acetyl Co-enzyme A.
b. Proteolytic enzyme.
c. Endogenous mediators.
480. Which is true about antacids?

a. Can relief pain.
b. They are more effective if given 2-3 hours after meals.
c. If given hourly, there dose should be small.
481. Which antacid causes acid rebound phenomena?

a. Aluminium hydroxide.
b. Magnesium hydroxide.
c. Calcium carbonate.
482. Antacids usually taken 1 hour or 3 hours after food and repeated:
a. 1 – 2 times daily.
b. 2 – 3 times daily.
c. 3 – 4 times daily.
d. 4 – 5 times daily.
483. Magnesium deficiency is usually associated with:

a. Impaired muscle contraction.
b. Impaired respiration.
c. Impaired movement.
d. Sexual insufficiency.
484. *****Which of the following is laxative non-systemic cathartic (purgative)? (Paraffin oil
used as system cathartic "softener").
a. Al-OH3.
b. MgOH2.
c. Both.
485. **Influenza polyvalent virus vaccine is: (used for elderly patients and patients with
heart problems).
a. A live attenuated virus.
b. A killed virus preparation.
c. A live non attenuated virus.
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d. Toxoid.
486. Which is true about the influenza type A virus?

a. A vaccine is manufactured and given annually for elderly people.
b. Contains RNA.
c. Period of infection is in the winter.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (a) & (c).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
487. *****What is the first line treatment for a patient with mild to moderate hypertension
with history of heart disease CHF (attack)?
a. Propranolol.
b. Methyl dopa.
c. Reserpine.
d. Hydrochlorothiazide (Diuretic) (HCTZ).
488. **Among side effects of Thiazides diuretics is:

a. Hyponatremia & Hyperurecemia.
b. Hypokalemia & Hypertriglycemia.
c. Hypovolimia & hypercalcemia.
489. Which condition is associated in Hypocalcemia:

a. Hypoparathyroidism.
b. Hyperparathyroidism.
c. Decrease in Vitamin D.
d. Cushing syndrome.
e. Hypomagnesemia.
"Hypocalcemia usually implies a deficiency in either the production or
response to parathyroid hormone (PTH) or vitamin D. PTH abnormalities
include hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism, or hypomagnesemia.
Vitamin D abnormalities can be caused by decreased nutritional intake,
decreased absorption of vitamin D, a decrease in production, or an increase
in metabolism. Administration of loop diuretics causing diuresis can also
decrease serum Ca".
490. Prolonged use of diuretics cause all the following except:

a. Hypoglycemia.
b. Hyperurecemia.
c. Alkalosis.
d. Sexual Dysfunction.
491. Triamterene is:

a. Osmotic diuretic.
b. Loop diuretic.
c. Potassium-sparing diuretic.
d. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
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492. The mechanism of action of Triamterene is:

a. By increasing the osmolarity of glomerular filtrate.
b. By inhibiting the enzyme Carbonic anhydrase.
c. By inhibiting the co transport of Na, K, Cl from luminal filtrate.
d. By disrupting Na+ exchange with K+ and H+ by blocking sodium channels.
493. *What is used for erectile dysfunction?

a. Alprostadil.
b. Cocaine.
c. Papverine.
i. (a) only.
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (a) & (c).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
494. Which one of the following causes the depletion of Potassium, Sodium, and Chloride?
a. Furosemide.
b. Amiloride.
c. Chlorothiazide.
d. Isosorbide.
495. Prolonged use of diuretics leads to:

a. Hypoglycemia.
b. Hypouremia.
c. Hyperkalemia.
d. Hypokalemia.
496. *Which drug causes rebound hypertension?

a. Clonidine (  agonist)
b. Guanithidine.
c. Hydralazine.
497. ***In hypertension of renal origin (moderate) and in presence of CHF, which
antihypertensive is used?
a. Clonidine.
b. Hydralazine.
c. Captopril.
d. Hydrochlorothiazide.
498. Thiazide diuretics are used in the treatment of:

a. Hypertension.
b. Gout.
c. Congestive Heart Failure (CHF).
d. Pulmonary edema.
e. Hypercalcemia.
499. In the absence of pulmonary embolism, which is given for thrombosis?
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PEBC Test Exam
a. Warfarin.
b. Coumadin.
c. Streptokinase.
d. ASA.
500. Which of the following drug is Angiotensen Converting Enzyme Inhibitor (ACE)?
a. Mesoprostol.
b. Timolol.
c. Ramipril.
d. Telmisartan.
501. Sodium chromoglycate (Intal)R is used for:

a. Acute asthmatic attack.
b. Anaphylaxis.
c. Bronchodilatation.
d. Prophylaxis of asthma (also allergenic Rhinitis).
502. Coughing and wheezing during breath is termed as:

a. Asthma.
b. Emphysema.
c. Allergic Rhinitis.
d. Common cold.
503. What is the drug of choice in Acute Asthma attacks (Bronchospasm)?

a. Nor-Epinephrin.
b. Nor-Adrenaline.
c. Adrenaline.
d. Salbutamol.
504. What is the drug of choice in allergy induced Bronchospasm?

a. Nor-Epinephrin.
b. Nor-Adrenaline.
c. Adrenaline.
505. What action is selected in treatment of Asthma?

a. B1 receptor stimulation.
b. B2 receptor Stimulation.
c. B1 receptor inhibition.
d. B2 receptor inhibition.
506. The active ingredient of (Servent)R is Salmetrol, this agent can be best described as a:
a. Non-selective  -Adrenergic agonist.
b. Non-selective  -Adrenergic antagonist.
c. Selective  2-Adrenergic receptor antagonist.
d. Selective  2-Receptor agonist.
507. *****In case of severe hypertension with history of heart disease, the patient can use:
a. Propranolol (non selective  blocker).
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Methyl dopa.
c. Reserpine.
d. Hydrochlorothiazode (Diuretic) (HCTZ).
508. Which of the following are Selective Beta blockers? (Selective only blocks B1 receptors
with minor effect on B2 adrenoceptors)
a. Metoprolol.
b. Atenolol.
c. ??
d. ??
509. The following are Non-Selective Beta Blockers: (Non-Selective block both B1 & B2
receptors).
a. Propranolol.
b. Pindolol & Timolol.
c. Sotalol & Alprenolol & Oxprenolol.
510. *****Which of the following stimulate adrenaline from adrenal gland?

a. Caffeine.
b. Nicotine.
c. Atenolol.
d. Reserpin.
"Nicotine also increase secretion of vasopressin and suppresses diuretics".
511. Structure of Nicotine contains

a. Piperazine ring.
b. Piperidine ring.
c. Petridine.
512. ***Which of the following compounds act by competitive inhibition of acetylcholine (as a
neuromuscular blocker)?
a. Endrophonium (anti-chloinestrase, used for diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis, which is
treated by Neostigmine)
b. Pancronium (Nicotinic action).
c. Neostigmine..
d. Succinylcholin (non competitive)..
513. ***Perchloric acid is used with acetic acid in non-aqueous titration (can protonate acetic
acid) because:
a. Acetic acid is more strong acid than perchloric acid.
b. Perchloric acid is more strong acid than acetic acid.
c. More acetate ions are formed.
d. Acetate ion acts as strong base.
514. *Though acetic acid is used for titration of bases, what is the base ion for titration of
perchloric acid?
a. CH3COO-
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PEBC Test Exam
b. CL-
c. SO4-
d. H3O+
515. *****In comparison of standard deviation and standard error, standard error is:
a. Higher than deviation error.
b. Lower than standard deviation.
c. Same as deviation error.
d. Irregular to deviation error.
516. *****Fetus is resistant to teratogenicity:

a. From 1st day to 20th day.
b. From 21st day to 45th day.
c. Second Trimester.
d. Third trimester.
517. *****Teratogenic drugs cause damage during:

a. From 2nd week to 8th week.
b. From 9th week to 15th week.
c. From 16th week to 20th week.
d. From 21st week to 36th week.
518. *****Placenta is fully functioning in:

a. 1st week.
b. 2nd week.
c. 3rd week.
d. 4th week.
"SOME SAY 8-10 WEEKS" ?????
519. Factor responsible for transfer of drug across the placental barrier is:
a. Concentration of drug.
b. Molecular size of the drug NOT the lipid solubility.
c. Drug solubility.
d. Enzymes.
520. *****Umbalical cord is formed in:

a. 1st or 2nd week.
b. 2nd or 3rd week.
c. 3rd or 4th week.
d. 4th or 5th week.
521. *Dissolution rate can be increased by:

a. Decreasing particle size (increasing surface area).
b. Increasing temperature.
c. Increasing of settling rate.
d. Stirring (Trituration).
522. To avoid dissolution of Acetyl Salicylate easily in the body:

a. Increasing the force of compression while tableting.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Use granulation during tableting.
c. Increasing settling rate.
d. Use flavoring agent during tableting.
523. In tablet disintegration, the role of disintegrant is:

a. Drawing water into the tablet leading to swelling.
b. Help tablet bursting.
c. Increase dissolution.
i. (a) only.
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (a) & (c).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
524. Which is true when we increase the binder in tablet manufacturing?

a. Hard granules will be formed causing difficulty in compression.
b. Not easily disintegrated.
c. More prone to friability.
d. (a) & (b).
525. Patterns of drug show better bioavailability based on:

a. Ionization.
b. Pka.
c. Favorable pH.
d. Dissolution.
526. Which route of administration has maximum bioavailability?

a. Intravenous (IV).
b. Intramuscular (IM).
c. Subcutaneous. (SC).
d. Oral.
527. Factors affecting dissolution are:

a. Solubility
b. Particle size.
c. Crystal statue.
528. Factors affecting reaction rate are:

a. Concentration.
b. Solvent.
c. Pressure.
d. Temperature.
e. Catalyst.
f. Removing the product formed.
g. All of the above.
529. A + B  AB
If A is increased, what would happen to the reaction rate?
a. Increased.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Decreased.
c. Does not change.
d. Irregular change.
530. *****The highest physiologic pH in the GIT is in:

a. Stomach.
b. Duodenum.
c. Ileum.
d. Colon.
531. **Alzheimer disease (brain disorder in old people) may be due to deficiency (depletion)
of:
a. Serotonin.
b. Dopamine.
c. Acetylcholine.
d. GABA.
"Alzheimer disease is presenile dementia with hyaline degeneration of
smaller blood vessels of the brain. It is due to deficiency of
acetylcholine".
532. The most common bacteria in Urinary Tract Infections (UTI) is:
a. E. Coli.
b. H.influenzae.
c. Klebsiella.
d. P. Mirabilis.
533. What is true about Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)?

a. Occurs in pregnant women.
b. Mid stream urine is taken.
c. Gram +ve bacteria are involved.
i. (a) only.
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (a) & (c).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
534. In Urinary Tract Infection (UTI), organism is isolated after taking:

a. First stream urine.
b. Mid stream unit.
c. Last stream unit.
535. Drugs of choice in Urinary Tract Infections (UTI) include all of the following except:
a. Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole.
b. Spectinomycin.
c. Ofloxacin.
d. Norfloxacin.
536. The causative pathogen in Otitis Media is:

a. Streptococcus Pneumonia.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Haemophilus Influenza.
c. (a) & (b).
537. Nosocomial infection is:

a. Military acquired infection.
b. Dental clinic acquired infection.
c. Hospital acquired infection.
d. Polyclinic acquired infection.
538. ***Nosocomial infections can be prevented by:

a. Hand washing.
b. Proper use of antibiotics.
c. Isolation of infected person.
d. Using aseptic technique.
539. Nosocomial infection is caused by:

a. E.Coli. (Most common).
b. Pseudomonas.
c. Klebsiella.
d. Staphyloccoci.
540. Methyl & Phenyl parapene are used as:

a. Preservative for eye drops.
b. Preservative for ear creams.
c. (a) and (b).
d. Neither (a) nor (b).
541. Methyl & propyl parapens are used together because:

a. They are preservatives.
b. Being together allow the use of lower concentration of each.
c. Give synergestic effect.
542. Decreasing irritation in nasal solution through adjusting the pH could happen by:
a. Boric acid.
b. Benzalkonium Chloride.
c. Isoniazide.
543. What is true about Nasal?

a. Greater surface area than intestine.
b. Good blood supply.
c. Increase mucocillary clearance.
544. Benzalkonium Chloride which is used as preservative in Nasal solutions has:

a. High buffer capacity.
b. Moderate buffer capacity.
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PEBC Test Exam
c. Mild buffer capacity.
d. Very weak buffer capacity.
"Benzalkonium chloride is also used as preservative in
ophthalmic solutions".
545. *Which of the following is a vehicle for internal use?

a. Ethylene glycol (toxic).
b. Isopropanol (toxic).
c. Glycol.
d. Propylene glycol
546. The capacity of buffer to resist change in pH upon adding strong acid or base is due
to:
a. Common ion effect.
b. K equilibrium remains constant & reaction shifts towards reactants.
c. K equilibrium remains constant & reaction shifts towards products..
547. Mechanism of action of buffer system is:

a. Donates proton and accepts proton.
b. Donates proton and does not accept proton.
c. Does not donate or accept proton.
548. *Equilibrium reaction is:

a. Point at which rate forward  rate backward.
b. Point at which rate forward  rate backward.
c. Point at which rate forward = rate backward (K1 = K2)
d. Point at which rate forward  rate backward.
549. Solubility (in USP) is defined as:

a. Milliliters (mls) of solvent required to dissolve 1 gram of solute.
b. Deciliters of solvent required to dissolve 1 pound of solute.
c. Deciliters of solvent required to dissolve 1 gram of solute.
d. Milliliters of solvent required to dissolve 1 pound of solute.
550. *****Papain is
a. Protolytic enzyme used in contact lens solution to aid removal of protein residues
that slowly build up on soft lenses. (Hydrocar protein removal tablets)
b. Protolytic co-enzyme used in contact lens solution to aid removal of protein residues
that slowly build up on soft lenses.
c. Protolytic catalyst used in contact lens solution to aid removal of protein residues
d. Protolytic substrate used in contact lens solution to aid removal of protein residues
551. *****Drug completely metabolized by liver is given to patient with renal failure, and
then patient found to be sensitive to that drug. The good explanation for that is:
a. Liver hypofunction.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Liver hyperfunction.
c. Accumulation of metabolite (tolerance).
d. Decrease in drug clearance.
552. All of the following are true about drugs that increase liver metabolism except:
a. They increase their own metabolite.
b. Decrease drug clearance.
c. Cause tolerance.
d. Increase blood level of metabolite.
553. Metabolism of a drug which is mainly metabolized in liver depends on:

a. Intrinsic factor.
b. Protein clearance.
c. Blood flow.
554. ***All of the following properties are classified Colligative properties except:
a. Elevation of boiling point.
b. Osmotic pressure.
c. Lowering of freezing point.
d. Increase in conductivity.
e. Lowering of vapor pressure.
f. Solubility of solutes.
555. *****Colligative properties of a solution depend on:

a. Ratio of number of ions to number of molecules.
b. Total number of particles of solute in solution.
c. Size of particles.
d. Number of unionized molecules.
556. ***Colligative properties are useful in determining:

a. Tonicity of solution.
b. The pH of the solution.
c. Solubility of solution.
d. Stability of solution.
e. Sterility of solution.
557. Silica gel used in chromatography depends on:

a. Chemical structure.
b. Partition coefficient.
c. PH.
d. Solubility.
558. *****Polymorphism is: a characteristic of a compound that has:

a. Different melting point.
b. Different solubility.
c. Same metabolism.
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PEBC Test Exam
"Polymorphism is the property of existing in several
crystalline forms, each with a different melting point.
Theobroma oil suppository base is an example".
559. ***Amorphous means:

a. No specific size or shape.
b. Having specific morphology.
c. Crystalline structure.
d. Soluble.
560. **Amorphous solid has:

a. Definite shape.
b. Hexagonal crystal shape.
c. Pentagonal crystal shape.
d. No crystal lattice (no specific crystal shape)
"Amorphous form is more absorbed than crystalline
form which is poorly absorbed".
561. *****Which is true about displacement value in the following compounds? (Soft at 32oC
and melt at 34oC, used widely as suppositories base).
a. Two parts of Zinc Oxide displace two parts of Cocoa Butter.
b. Two parts of Zinc Oxide displace one part of Cocoa Butter.
c. One part of Zinc Oxide displaces two parts of Cocoa Butter.
d. One part of Zinc Oxide displaces one part of Cocoa Butter.
562. Chromoglycote:
a. Only used for prophylaxis of asthmatic Rhinitis.
b. Not used for acute or chronic attacks.
c. Used as adjacent to cortisone in chronic case.
d. Used as stabilizer for sensitized mast cell.
563. *Mast cells can't differentiated from:

a. Leukophiles.
b. Basophiles.
c. RBC's.
d. WBC's
564. *****The metabolism of drugs generally results in:

a. Less water soluble metabolite.
b. More lipids soluble metabolite.
c. Polar and very low o/w partition coefficient metabolite.
d. More acidic metabolite.
565. Count of Red Blood Cells (RBCs) is:

a. 4.3-5.9 million/mm3 (men), 3.5-5.0 million/mm3 (women).
b. 3.5-5.0 million/mm3 (men), 4.3-5.9 million/mm3 (women).
c. 2.3-3.5 million/mm3 (men), 3.5-5.5 million/mm3 (women).
d. 1.5-2.5 million/mm3 (men), 1.5-4.5 million/mm3 (women).
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PEBC Test Exam
566. Average life of Red Blood Cells (RBCs) is about:

a. 7 days.
b. 14 days.
c. 3 weeks.
d. 4 months (120 days)
567. *Metabolic degradation of Hemoglobin takes place principally in:

a. Reticulo endothelial system.
b. RBCs.
c. Liver cells.
d. Kidney tubules.
568. *The non-protein portion of hemoglobin consists of:

a. 3 heme units surrounding an iron atom.
b. 4 heme units surrounding ferric atom.
c. A ferrous complex of protoporphyrin IV.
d. 4 pyrole rings linked through a ferric molecule.
569. *Porphyrins are involved in building of:

a. Muscles.
b. Teeth.
c. Blood.
d. Scar tissue.
570. *The metabolic breakdown of hemoglobin in mammals involves:

a. Formation of bile pigments.
b. Formation of urobilinogen and Bilirubin.
c. No oxidative clearage of porphyrin ring.
d. Formation of Biliverdin.
571. Haematocyte: (% measure relative volume of cells "RBCs" & plasma in a settled volume
in a tube) normal level is:
a. 50 – 60%
b. 40 – 50%.
c. 30 – 40%.
d. 20 – 30%.
572. What is the Creatinine clearance (ClCR) of a 20 year old man weighing 72 kg and has a
Serum Creatinine Concentration (CCR)=1.0 mg/dl?
a. 140 ml/min.
b. 120 ml/min.
c. 100 ml/min.
d. 80 ml/min.
By applying the method of Cockroft and Gault
(140  age, in, years)(body.weight.in.kg )
ClCR =
72(Ccr.in.mg / dl )
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PEBC Test Exam
(140  20)(72)
ClCR = = 120 ml/min
72(1)
573. Creatinine is: (1 mg/dl)
a. Break down of muscle creatin phosphate.
b. Used to measure kidney function.
c. In glucose tolerance test gives  150 mg/dl.
574. *Bilirubin (The breakdown of product of hemoglobin in RBC & excreted in liver by bile
used to measure liver function) level is:
a. 0.1 – 0.9 mg/dl.
b. 0.1 – 0.4 mg/dl.
c. 0.1 – 1.5 mg/dl.
d. 1 – 4 mg/dl.
575. Uric acid level is:

a. 2 – 4 mg/dl.
b. 2 – 8 mg/dl, 2 – 7 mg%.
c. 1 – 2 mg/dl.
d. 5 – 8 mg/dl.
576. BUN is:

a. Blood Urea Nitrogen.
b. Normal level is 9 – 20 mg N2/dl.
c. Used to test kidney function.
577. Creatinine PhosphoKinase (CPK=CK):

a. Enzyme present in muscle tissues.
b. Released into blood in response to muscle injury.
c. Used for diagnosis of myocardial infarction and skeletal muscle injury.
578.  Hemolysis:
a. Cause Scarlet fever by strains of Hemolytic streptococci.
b. Symptoms include rash & strawberry tongue.
c. Treated by Chloramphenicol.
579. In Myocardial infarction, you get:

a. Bradycardia.
b. Tachycardia.
c. Anemia.
d. Stenosis.
580. *The main carbohydrate of blood is:

a. D-fructose.
b. D-glucose.
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PEBC Test Exam
c. Mannitol.
d. L-glucose.
581. If man has hemophilia and woman is carrier, the baby will be:
a. ?? LOOK UP ?????
b. ??
c. ??
d. ??
582. What is the main metal in the body:

a. Zinc. LOOK UP ?????
b. Copper.
c. Iron.
d. ??
583. **The amino acid that is important precursor of hemoglobin is:

a. Alanine.
b. Proline.
c. Glycine.
d. Leucine.
584. Which is essential amino acid:

a. ??
b. Methionine.
c. ??
d. ??
585. Count of hemoglobin:

a. 1 – 6 gm/dl.
b. 6 – 12 gm/dl.
c. 12 – 18 gm/dl.
d. 18 – 24 gm/dl.
586. *Count of WBC is:

a. 3000-5000/mm3.
b. 5000-10000/mm3.
c. 1500-15000/mm3.
d. 4000-11000/mm3.
587. Count of platelets:

a. 50,000 – 100,000/m.m3.
b. 100,000 – 150,000/m.m3.
c. 150,000 – 300,000/m.m3.
d. 300,000 – 500,000/m.m3.
588. Which of the following compounds inhibits platelet aggregation?

a. Aspirin.
b. Ticlopidine.
c. Clopidogrel.
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PEBC Test Exam
d. Folic acid.
589. Aspirin is believed to inhibit clotting by its action on which of the following endogenous
substances?
a. Endorphin A.
b. Xanthane Oxidase.
c. Cyclo Oxygenase.
d. Dopa Decarboxylase.
590. ******Valproic Acid (DepakinR)is used to treat:

a. Petit mal epilepsy (absent of seizure).
b. Grand mal epilepsy (general seizure).
c. Febrile seizures in children.
591. Which drug(s) can be used to treat epilepsy in pregnant?

a. Phenytoin.
b. Carbamazepin (Tegretol)R.
c. Trimethadione.
d. Valproic acid.
592. Which of the following is the most effective in absence seizure?

a. Clonazepam.
b. Phenytoin.
c. Valproic Acid.
d. Ethosuximide.
593. *Phenytoin causes elevated blood glucose levels by:

a. Enhancing Insulin degradation.
b. Increasing glucose absorption.
c. Decrease insulin release.
d. Increase glycogen release.
594. *Which of the following accelerate metabolism of Phenytoin?

a. Folic acid.
b. Co enzyme A.
c. Ampicillin.
d. Cephalosporins.
595. Side effects of Phenytoin include:

a. Gingival Hyperplasia.
b. Steven Johnson's syndrome.
c. Hairsutism & acne.
596. **Epilepsy is resulted from the deficiency of:

a. Acetyl Choline.
b. GABA.
c. Serotonin.
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PEBC Test Exam
d. Dopamine
597. Early symptoms of Epilepsy are:

a. Part of brain is involved.
b. Sensory seizure or focal motor seizure.
c. Patient is conscious.
598. **500,000 unit of penicillin G is equal to: (1 unit = 0.6 mcg)

a. 200 mg.
b. 300 mg.
c. 400 mg.
d. 600 mg.
599. **Which of the following cells secrete the intrinsic factor that helps in absorption of
vitamin B12? (Deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to pernicious anemia)
a. Mast cells.
b. Langerhans Islets.
c. Parietal cells.
d. Epithelial cells.
"Intrinsic factor is present in parietal cells of
stomach. It is responsible for absorption of extrinsic
factor (Vitamin B12)".
600. With regard to which of the following supplementary diet, women are more susceptible
to anemia than men?
a. Phosphate.
b. Iron.
c. Sulpher.
601. *****Pernicious Anemia is treated by:

a. Iron
b. IV Vitamin B12 (not given folic acid due to it mask symptoms "neurological").
c. B complex.
d. Ferrous sulphate.
602. In a patient with Iron deficiency…

a. Care must be taken because a little more dose of iron can cause harm.
b. The therapy should be continued even if the symptoms of anemia disappear.
c. The therapy should be discontinued if the symptoms of anemia disappear.
603. Macrocytic (megaloplastic) anemia is treated by: (Defective GIT absorption of vitamin
B12).
a. Parentral use of vitamin B12.
b. Parentral use of vitamin B6.
c. Iron.
d. Folic acid.
Page 82 of 117
PEBC Test Exam
604. Microcytic Anemia is treated by:

a. Folic Acid.
b. Vitamin B12.
c. Iron.
d. Vitamin B6.
605. *****LD50 (mean Lethal Dose) is:

a. The dose that kills 25% of experimental animals.
b. The dose that kills 50% of experimental animals.
c. The dose that kills 75% of experimental animals.
d. The dose that kills 100% of experimental animals.
606. Of the following, which is true about Dextran:

a. Used as plasma expander to increase plasma volume.
b. Prevents aggregation of erythrocytes in the blood.
c. Not replacement for blood in case of CO2 & Cyanide toxicity.
607. *Which of the following is extra-cellular fluid replacement?

a. NaHCO3.
b. Dextran.
c. Glucose. (Intra-cellular replacement)
d. Maltose.
608. *In titration of Codeine Phosphate and acetic acid, color changes due to:
a. H2PO3.
b. Codeine Hydrogen Phosphate (H3Po4)
c. Codeine Hydroxy Phosphate.
d. HCOO.
609. *Codeine is:

a. Analgesic.
b. Anti-tussive.
c. (a) & (b).
610. Which causes drug induced Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (SLE)?

a. Hydralazine.
b. Procainamide.
c. Lidocain.
d. Quinidine.
611. Which drug acts by blocking Na+ channel outside the cell?
a. Lidocain.
b. Tetra-ammonium.
c. HCL.
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PEBC Test Exam
612. The following are side effects of Quinidine:
a. Cinchonism = Tinnitus = Hear loss.
b. Blurred vision.
c. Confusion, headache and psychosis.
613. *****Which one of the following can cause osteoporosis?

a. Long use of corticosteroids.
b. Menopause.
c. Increase in phosphate level or decrease in Calcium level.
614. Which one is true about IPECA:

a. 15 – 30ml/day (one dose) will give an emetic action.
b. 1ml – 2ml tid (for adults) will work as expectorant.
c. 0.25ml – 0.5ml tid is not recommended for ages less than six.
615. Zeta potential present in:

a. The surface of solid particles.
b. In the inter-mechanism between solids & liquids.
c. Inside the liquid molecules.
616. Rate limiting step in transdermal diffusion is:

a. Liver metabolism.
b. Kidney metabolism.
c. Diffusion through skin.
d. Excretion through kidneys.
617. Transdermal delivery system depends on:

a. Drug partitioning and diffusion.
b. The area of administration.
c. The condition of the drug.
d. Heat.
618. *Transdermal diffusion dosage form is used:

a. In drugs having small t1/2.
b. Mainly for biological potent drugs.
c. When drug has no first-pass effect.
i. (a).
ii. (b) & (c).
iii. (a) & (b).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
619. Which type of the local anesthetic is most effective?

a. The most Lipophilic.
b. The less Lipophilic.
c. The most hydrophilic.
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PEBC Test Exam
d. The less hydrophilic.
620. Metabolism of local anesthetic takes place in:

a. Kidneys.
b. Liver.
c. Skin.
621. *Phase I (Functional) biotransformation involving microsomal enzymes catalyzed by

cytochromes which may:
a. Activate the drug.
b. Inactivate the drug.
c. Leave activity of the drug unchanged.
Reactions include:
1- Aliphatic oxidation.
2- Aromatic hydroxylation.
3- N-Dealkylation.
4- Oxidative dealkylation.
5- S-Demethylation.
6- Oxidative deamination.
7- Sulfoxide formation. (Chlorpomazine)
8- N-Oxidation.
9- N-Dehydroxylation.
622. Phase II biotransformation by enzymes occurs through:

a. Cytoplasmic.
b. Microsomal.
c. Combination of cytoplasmic & microsomal.
Reaction could be:
1- Conjugation.
2- Acetylation.
3- Hydrolysis.
623. A reaction between an activated moiety and transferase enzyme is:

a. Transformation.
b. Biotransformation.
c. (a) & (b).
624. What enzyme or factor is involved in Glycine conjugation?

a. Coenzyme A
b. Aryl transferase.
c. ??
d. ??
625. *Fatty Acids oxidation in human is mediated by:

a. Ozones.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Glucuronidase.
c. Amylases.
d. Coenzyme A.
e. Tryptophan.
626. Which is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?

a. Clofibrate.
b. Gemfibrozil.
c. Prevastatin.
d. Cholestyramine.
627. What is present in the cytoplasm which is involved in biotransformation oxidases, e.g.
alcohol dehydrogenase, sulfatase, acetyl transferase. (Never found in Bacterial cell)
a. Microsomes.
b. Mitochondria.
c. Nucleus
d. Ribosomes.
628. The fastest absorbed dosage form is:

a. Suspension.
b. Topical.
c. Solution.
d. Capsule.
629. *******When slope equals zero, then:

a. Slope is parallel to y-axis.
b. Slope is parallel to x-axis.
c. Slope is perpendicular to x-axis.
d. Slope does not exist.
630. *****Which is true about the end product of fatty acids and carbohydrates in
metabolism:
a. In normal cell, under aerobic oxidation of glucose  Co2 + H2 + energy (in
mitochondria).
b. In normal cell, under anaerobic oxidation of glucose  Pyruvate & lactic acid
(outside mitochondria).
c. In tumor tissue result in lactic acid by aerobic glycolysis.
631. Some tissues form lactic acid under aerobic conditions. This phenomenon, especially
characteristic of tumor tissues, is form:
a. Lactation.
b. Aerobic Glycolysis.
c. Oxidation.
d. Oxidative-Phosphorylation.
632. The end product of carbohydrates hydrolysis is:

a. Lactic acid.
b. Pyruvic acid.
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PEBC Test Exam
c. Peptine.
d. Cellulose.
633. What is the power house of the cell?

a. Mitochondria.
b. Cytoplasm.
c. Nucleus.
d. Ribosomes.
634. *Which of the following increases gastric acid secretion?

a. Carbohydrates.
b. Fat.
c. Protein.
d. Poly saccarides.
635. **Betazole is used for clinical testing of:

a. Glucose tolerance.
b. Gastric secretions.
c. Kidney function.
d. Thyroid function.
636. Which is true about Cimetidine?

a. It is H2 antagonist for duodenal & peptic ulcers.
b. Decreases liver microsomal enzyme (so contra indicated with Propranolol).
c. Decrease gastric secretion.
637. Omeprazole acts by inhibiting:

a. H+/K+ ATPase.
b. Neuro-protective layer.
c. Gastrin.
d. HCL.
638. Omeprazole can best be described as:

a. Prostaglandin.
b. Histamine H2 antagonist.
c. Proton pump inhibitor.
d. Anti-flatulent.
639. Esophagitis reoccurrence can be prevented by:

a. Frequent use of antacids.
b. Omeprazole.
c. Ranitidine.
640. Co-Toxicity means:

a. Carbon monoxide has higher affinity to bind hemoglobin than oxygen.
b. Formation of Carboxy hemoglobin causing cherry red cyanosis.
c. Treated by 100% oxygen blood and transfusion.
Page 87 of 117
PEBC Test Exam
641. Adrenaline (Epinephrine & Norepinephrine) causes vasoconstriction. How could it affect
absorption?
a. Increase absorption.
b. Decrease absorption.
c. Does not affect absorption.
d. Increase & decrease absorption.
642. Why adrenaline is used along with injection?

a. To cause vasoconstriction.
b. To decrease absorption.
c. To prolong the effect of the drug.
643. In a prescription containing adrenaline and suppository base that is used in hemorrhoids.
Adrenaline is used as: (in this prescription the polymorphous base is Theobromo oil).
a. Vasoconstrictor.
b. Vasodilator.
c. Increase bleeding.
d. Demote healing.
644. Which of the following is not antifungal?

a. Ketoconazole.
b. Miconazole.
c. Metronidazole.
d. Nystatin.
645. Metronidazole is not used as:

a. Anti protozoal agent.
b. Anti microbial agent.
c. Anti fungal agent.
646. Metronidazole is used to treat:

a. Amoebiasis.
b. Anaerobic bacteria.
c. Gonorrhea.
d. Otitis media.
647. Metronidazole mechanism of action:

a. Iodide Oxidase.
b. Incorporation of iodine ion into tyrosyl residue (in thyroglobin).
c. (a) & (b).
648. Tolnaftate (TinadermR) is an anti-fungal act against:

a. Tinea corporis.
b. Tinea capitis.
c. Candida albicans.
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PEBC Test Exam
d. (a) & (b).
Ring worm Tinea crusis Tinaderm.
Beef Tinea saginata Noclosamide.
Pork Tinea solium Quinaquine.
649. *****Tolnaftate is:

a. Used as specific anti-fungal in Athlete's Foot.
b. Used as specific anti-fungal used for ringworm.
c. Not effective against Candida albicans, dermatophytes.
650. What causes Athlete's foot disease?

a. Fungus.
b. Bacteria.
c. Virus.
d. Protozoa.
651. Between Particulate & Micellar constituents of the cell, there is an aqueous phase exists
which contains:
a. Soluble proteins.
b. Organic substances as glucose.
c. Cellular active products as creatin.
d. Electrolytes.
652. *In a typical cell, Mitochondria contains:

a. Cytochrome oxidase.
b. Cytochrome C.
c. Succinic acid oxidase.
653. The presence of mitochondria in the living cells can be detected by:
a. Neutral red.
b. Janus green.
c. Methylene blue.
d. Phenolphthalein.
654. *The only disaccharide synthesized in human metabolism is:

a. Maltose.
b. Cellulose.
c. Lactose.
d. Fructose.
655. *****Sodium ducosate (soften stool by lowering surface tension) is the best laxative
used in:
a. Young age people.
b. Old age people.
c. Infants.
d. Babies.
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656. A person comes to the pharmacist complaining hard stool after every 2 or 3 days, what
should be advised for him?
a. Stool softner.
b. Warm water.
c. Dulcolax.
d. Cathartics.
657. Which of the following is true about chronic use of mineral oils:
a. They decrease absorption of fat soluble vitamins (D.E.K.A.).
b. They cause Pruritusani.
c. Induce. Hepatotoxicity..
d. Docusate increases their system absorption.
658. ***Role of mineral oil in sulfur ointment is:

a. Levigation.
b. Naturalization.
c. Polarization.
d. Sterilization.
"Levigation is a process of reducing a powdered drug to
paste with an agent called levigating agent which should
bind with the powdered drug. It is a process of
wetting and smoothing".
659. Levigation depends on:

a. Particle size.
b. Ointment base.
c. (a) & (b).
660. Levigating agent:

a. Should form a smooth paste.
b. Should be compatible with ingredients.
c. Should be washed off easily.
661. Positive Inotropic means:

a. Increased force of contract.
b. Decreased force of contracts.
c. Increase in number of heart beats.
d. Decrease in number of heart beats.
662. Negative Chronotropic means:

a. Increased force of contract.
b. Decreased force of contracts.
c. Increase in number of heart beats.
d. Decrease in number of heart beats.
663. Grignard reagent is:
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PEBC Test Exam
a. R-Mg-X.
b. X-Mg-R.
c. R-Mg-R.
d. X-Mg-X.
664. Which compound does not react with Grignard reagent? LOOK UP ?????
a. R-OH.
b. R-CHO.
c. Cyclohexene.
d. Cyclohexane (Because there is no = bond).
665. Which of the following is the strongest acid?

a. Acetic acid.
b. Chloracetic acid.
c. CH3CH2NH2
d. CH3CH1NH3
666. *Addition of a large amount of salt or electrolyte to a polymer solution to decrease the
solubility of electrolytes lead to a phenomenon called: (by addition of more electrolyte
to the reaction solubility of electrolyte will decrease, this process is called :)
a. Salting in.
b. Salting Off.
c. Salting out.
d. Salting on.
667. **We can separate two miscible liquids by:

a. Fractional distillation.
b. Sublimation.
c. Steam distillation.
d. Filtration.
668. The process of conversion of solid into gas without passing through liquid state is called:
a. Dissolution.
b. Sublimation.
c. Volatilization.
d. Emission.
669. Solution applied subcutaneously (topical medications) must be isotonic to:

a. Increase absorption.
b. Decrease side effects.
c. Prevent irritation at the site of injection. (also to prevent hemolysis)
670. Shingles disease is caused by:

a. H. influenza
b. Bacteroids fragilis.
c. Herps Simplex.
d. Herps zoster.
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PEBC Test Exam
"The virus is transmitted by contact or by droplet infection. The
disease characterized by the formation of very painful vesicular
eruption in the area of the affected nerve".
671. Herps Simplex virus is transmitted by:

a. Mouth.
b. Direct contact. (lesion)
c. Air.
d. Blood.
672. Which of the following are viral infections?

a. Poliomyelitis.
b. Legionnaire's disease.
c. Rabies.
d. Tuberculosis.
673. Acyclovir is used in the following diseases except:

a. Herps Simplex (HSV-1 and 2 : Herpes Simples Virus)
b. Herps zoster.
c. Chicken box (Varicella).
d. AIDS.
"Acyclovir is used to treat initial and recurrent HSV-1 and -2
infections in immunocompromised patients, and acute treatment of
herpes zoster and chicken box".
674. Acyclovir can be used as:

a. Orally.
b. Intra-Venous IV.
c. Intra-Muscular IM.
d. Topically.
675. What is the main action of Digitalis therapy in Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)?
a. Decrease conduction velocity in atrial muscle predominates over its vagotonic effect.
b. Enhancing the availability of calcium to the contractile proteins.
c. (a) & (b).
676. *All of the following are side effects of digitalis except:

a. Constipation.
b. Vomiting.
c. Anorexia.
d. Photophobia and hazy vision.
"Some other side effects are: dysrythmia, diarrhea,
weakness, fatigue, dizziness & headache. Massive
overdose causes delusion, coma".
677. **The following are side effect of Digoxin except:

a. Confusion & anorexia.
b. Constipation.
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PEBC Test Exam
c. Nausea & vomiting.
d. Dysrhythmia.
678. Digoxin toxicity is treated by:

a. Digoxin immune tablets.
b. Potassium Chloride.
c. Amiodarone.
d. Digibind.
679. ****The use Dimercaprol (BAL) in the treatment of mercury poisoning due to:
a. Forming a complex that is easily excreted in urine.
b. Reactivate the enzyme which contains sulphadryl group.
c. (a) & (b).
680. What is the mechanism of action of the mercury antidote?

a. Binds mercury in the GIT to prevent absorption.
b. Reduces mercury to a non toxic form & stored in the liver.
c. Rapidly excreted by kidneys.
681. Which drug is used in organo-phosphate poisoning?

a. Pralidoxime.
b. ??
c. ??
d. ??
682. The organo-phophorous compounds commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by:
a. Competitive displacement.
b. Forming a very stable complex with acetyl cholinesterase.
c. Prevent respiration.
683. Which of the following is true about HPLC "High Performance Liquid Chromatography"?
a. Separation of one analyte from others in substances mixture.
b. Mobile phase is non-polar.
c. Particle size affects resolution.
684. *****In reversed phase of HPLC, all of the following are correct except:
a. Use of mobile phase revered to the normal one.
b. Increase polarity of mobile phase will decrease retention time.
c. Increase surface area by decreasing particle size will not affect resolution.
d. Mobile phase as aqueous solution.
685. *In Thin Layer Chromatography TLC:

a. Mobile phase is organic solvent.
b. Silica gel acts as stationary phase.
c. Organic phase moves by capillary action.
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PEBC Test Exam
686. ***In paper chromatography:

a. Cellulose fibers have greater affinity for water (Retains the water/polar solvent)
b. Moving phase has greater affinity for organic solvent.
c. (a) & (b).
687. In gel chromatography, resolution depends on:

a. Temperature.
b. Particle size.
c. High Pressure.
d. Enzymatic reactions.
688. *In gas chromatography:

a. Use the derivative of substances which are volatile at high temperature.
b. The gases used are not for ionization of the substance. (Inert mobile phase).
c. The effluent gas can pass through flame ionization detector.
689. Flame ionization is used as:

a. Detector in gel chromatography.
b. Detector in liquid chromatography.
c. Detector in gas chromatography.
d. Detector in paper chromatography.
690. *Which refers to Non-Newtonian compound that increases shearing stress (shaking
force) leading to increase difficulty of suspension to flow (decrease rate of flow)?
a. Dilatant flow.
b. Dissolution.
c. Solubility.
d. Viscosity.
691. ***Compared to sublingual tablets, Nitroglycerine ointment does:

a. Provide shortened effect.
b. Provide more prolonged effect.
c. Provide the stable effect.
d. Provide slow effect.
692. Which of the following indicates 4 times daily:

a. TID.
b. BID
c. QID.
d. HS
693. **QID pc & Hs means:

a. Four times after meals & at bed time.
b. Four times before meals & at bed time.
c. Four times after meals & in the morning.
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PEBC Test Exam
d. Four times before meals in the morning..
694. Essential oils are:

a. Volatile oils (used as aroma & perfumes)
b. Mineral oils.
c. Heavy oils.
d. Saturated oils.
695. **Hygroscopic means:

a. Substance which absorb (takes up) moisture turned to wet.
b. Substance which spills moisture turned to dry.
c. (a) & (b).
696. Efflorescence is:

a. Loss of temperature.
b. Absorption of moisture.
c. Loss of moisture.
697. **Accumulation of substance over the surface of another is called:

a. Absorption.
b. Adsorption.
c. Emulsion.
d. Suspension.
698. **Hexyl resorcinol is more better antiseptic (Germicidal activity) than resorcinol
because:
a. It has larger particle size (small SAA) (More o/w Partition coefficient).
b. It is stable compound.
c. It has more resonance.
d. It is easily formed.
"Also Betamethasone valerate is more active than Betametyhasone
due to its high partition coefficient.
699. Why there is greater absorption in small intestine than in large intestine?
a. It has Lower surface area.
b. It has higher surface area.
c. It is longer than large intestine.
d. It is shorter than large intestine.
700. *Co-precipitation is due to:

a. Cooling rapidly (decrease temperature).
b. Rapid addition of precipitant.
c. Slow addition of precipitant.
d. (a) & (b).
701. The role of chemical reactions may be enhanced by:

a. Cooling the reaction mixture.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. Remove the reactant when it is formed.
c. Using stoichiometric quantities of each reactant.
d. Removing the inert solvent.
e. Increasing the rate of stirring.
702. Slow addition of precipitants together with vigorous stirring of the hot solution during
addition will:
a. Induces the formation of fine easy filterable particles.
b. Induces the formation of coarse easy filterable particles.
c. Induces the formation of fine difficult filterable particles.
703. *Powder surface area can be detected by:

a. Sieve method.
b. Adsorption of gas.
c. Absorption of water.
704. Suspension is two phase system where:

a. Internal (dispersed) phase is solid & external (continuous) phase is liquid.
b. Internal (dispersed) phase is liquid & external (continuous) phase is solid.
c. (a) & (b).
705. *Particle size of inhaled aerosol suspension are usually:

a. Less than 0.1 mmicron
b. 0.1 – 1 mmicron.
c. 1 – 2 mmicron.
d. 2 – 5 mmicron.
706. Steady state depends on:

a. Absorption of the drug in the GIT.
b. Drug-receptor interaction.
c. T1/2.
d. Bioavailability.
707. To reach steady state, that means it is the time of:

a. Elimination of drug.
b. Interval between doses.
c. Half of drug has been eliminated.
d. Peak blood concentration.
708. Which dosage form will reach the steady state concentration first?
a. Intra-Muscular IM.
b. Intra-venous IV.
c. Oral.
d. Ointment.
709. Which form presents bioavailability problems?
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PEBC Test Exam
a. Uncoated tablet.
b. Enteric coated tablet.
c. Suspension.
d. Topicals.
710. Which compound reacts to produce Schiff's base, but does not reduce Fehling's
solution.
a. Acetaldehyde.
b. Ketones (Also Butyrophenone).
c. Acetic acid.
d. Ethyl alcohol.
711. *Which is more reactive:

a. CH3CL. (1o halide).
b. CH3CH2CL. (1o halide).
c. (CH2)2CHCL. (2o halide).
d. (CH3)3CCL. (2o halide).
712. *Reaction of phenol + NaOH is:

a. Electrophilic substitution,
b. Lipophilic attachment.
c. Substitution reaction.
713. Dipole bond exist between:

a. Alcohol – alcohol. (Dipole – Dipole).
b. Alcohol - H2O. (Hydrogen bond).
c. H2O – H2O.
714. *Auto-oxidation of drugs is due to:

a. Enzymatic reactions.
b. Free radicals (chain reaction).
c. Metabolism.
d. Elimination.
715. *In electrophoresis, by using different isoelectric points we can differentiate between:
a. Different Amino acids.
b. Protein and protein.
c. Protein and amino acids.
716. *In electrophoretic process at PH below the isoelectric point, a protein will:
a. Migrate to –ve pole.
b. Migrate to +ve pole.
c. Exhibits no migration.
d. Form a Zwitter ion.
717. ***Which of the following is an Azo Dye?
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PEBC Test Exam
a. Pyredoxine.
b. Pyridinium.
c. (a) & (b).
718. Which compound reacts with beta-naphthol in presence of HNO3 to produce azo dye?
a. Acetaldehyde.
b. Acetic acid.
c. Ethyl alcohol.
d. Acetophenone.
719. AB + A   Precipitation is due to:

a. Salting in.
b. Salting out.
c. Complexation.
d. Common ion effect.
720. Lemonin has a specific rotation -90 is:

a. Levorotatory.
b. Dextrorotatory.
c. Enantiomorphous.
d. Mesosubs.
e. Optically inactive.
721. All of the following are true about optical isomers except:
a. Super-imposed.
b. Chiral.
c. Enantiomers.
d. Rotate plane of polarized light.
"Optical isomers are different only in spatial conjugation of groups at
one asymmetric carbon, e.g. Quinine is an optical isomer of
Quinidine".
722. In optical isomers, which of the following statements is NOT true:

a. Have one or more chiral centers.
b. Known as chiral.
c. Has at least one asymmetrical "c" atom.
d. Has "dis" to its mirror image.
e. It rotates around the plane of polarized light.
723. Asymmetric carbon is optically active, so it is:

a. Geometric isomer.
b. Chiral.
c. Mirror image.
d. Enantiomer
724. *Conformational isomerism is the non-identical spatial arrangement of atoms in a

molecule, resulting from rotation about:
a. A double bond.
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PEBC Test Exam
b. One single bond.
c. Geometric isomerism.
d. Conjugated bond.
725. The non-identical spatial arrangement of atoms in a molecule resulting from rotation
about one or more simple bond is the definition of:
a. Enantiomers.
b. Conformational isomer.
c. Bioisoesters.
d. Homologues.
726. Spatial rotation about double bond is:

a. Homologues.
b. Enantiomers.
c. Bio-isoesters.
d. Geometric isomers.
727. *Potassium level in the blood is:

a. 1.5 – 2.5 m.mole/L or mEq/L.
b. 2.5 – 4.0 m.mole/L or mEq/L.
c. 3.5 – 5.0 m.mole/L or mEq/L.
d. 4.5 – 6.0 m.mole/L or mEq/L.
728. Hematocrit value - % RBC/volume of blood is:

a. 40 – 54% in males, 38 – 45% in females.
b. 10 – 14% in males, 28 – 25% in females.
c. 60 – 64% in males, 68 – 65% in females.
d. 50 – 54% in males, 58 – 55% in females.
729. Platelets's precursor is megakaryoblast, their life is:

a. 5 – 7 days.
b. 7 – 10 days.
c. 10 – 13 days.
d. 13 – 15 days.
730. Cholestasis is:

a. Obstruction of Staceous canal.
b. Obstruction of bile canaculi.
c. Obstruction of artery.
d. Obstruction of vein.
"Cholestasis is obstruction of bile flow by precipitation of bile
pigment within the bile canaculi, where there is increased
plasma bile acid".
731. *Ipecac is:

a. An emetic agent (also as expectorant).
b. Astringent.
c. Emulsifying agent.
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PEBC Test Exam
732. In topical preparations, which is the rate limiting factor in drug absorption?
a. Stratum corneum.
b. Dermis.
c. Viable epidermis.
i. (a) only.
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (a) & (c).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
733. The rate of change in the amount of drug in the body is a function of the:
a. Rate of absorption.
b. Rate of elimination.
c. Size of dose administered.
i. (a) Only.
ii. (b) Only.
iii. (a) & (b).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
734. *Which is the drug that potentiates Rey's Syndrome in children?

a. Acetaminophen.
b. Aspirin.
c. Ibuprofen.
d. Phenacetin.
735. Ethylene Oxide is used for sterilization of:

a. Equipments.
b. Vials.
c. Capsules.
d. Suppositories.
736. Protein kinase is:

a. Activated by cyclic AMP.
b. Has a regulatory sub units.
c. Its function is limited by some enzymes.
737. All enzymes are:

a. Polypeptides.
b. Lipids.
c. Proteins.
d. Fatty in nature.
738. ***Pyconometer measures the weight of the same volumes of:

a. Gases.
b. Solids.
c. Liquids.
d. Creams.
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PEBC Test Exam
"Pyconometer is a container used as a specific gravity bottle with a known
capacity (commonly 10, 25 or 100ml) so that the weight of water it will
contain is already known is called the pyconometer weight of liquid/weight or
the water. Specific gravity is also a ratio expressed decimally or the volume
of a substance to the volume of an equal weight of another liquid taken as a
standard, both having same temperature. Water is standard for most
liquids".
739. *The nucleic acids DNA & RNA play important role in biosynthesis of proteins, A sugar
type in their structure is:
a. Sucrose.
b. Fructose.
c. Glucose.
"Ribose for RNA or Deoxy ribose for DNA".
740. *Which nucleotide is not present in DNA and present in RNA?

a. Uracil.
b. Guanine.
c. Thymine.
d. Cytosine.
e. Adenine.
741. The formation of RNA is caused by:

a. Messenger RNA (mRNA).
b. Transfer RNA (tRNA).
c. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA).
d. DNA
742. ***What is DNA ligase used for?

a. The coupling of two molecules.
b. Hydrolyzing their substrate.
c. Catalyzing various isomerizations.
d. Catalyzing the removal of functional group.
743. **Very soluble means: solubility of:

a. One part of substance in one part of solvent.
b. One part of substance in less than one part of solvent.
c. One part of substance in 2 parts of solvent.
d. One part of substance in 3 parts of solvent.
744. The solubility of chemicals is influenced by all of the following except:

a. Dielectric constant.
b. Pka of the chemical.
c. Volume of the chemical.
d. PH of the solution.
e. The valency of chemical.
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PEBC Test Exam
745. The compound which has the following structure ( - ) – 3 (3,4-dihydroxy phenyl) – L –
alanine could be:
a. The compound is epinephrine.
b. It is a precursor of dopamine.
c. It is an essential amino acid.
d. It is a dextro rotatory compound.
e. It is used to treat hypertension.
746. Which of the following is soluble in water?

a. Glucocoticoid.
b. Progesteron.
c. Na salt of glucocorticoids.
747. A person comes to pharmacist complaining of hard stools after 2 or 3 days, what is the
advice?
a. Stool Softener.
b. Warm water enema.
c. Dulcolax.
d. High fiber diet.
e. Cathartic laxative.
748. In general, when a patient over 50 years old comes to your pharmacy complaining of
constipation, what do you suggest to give him?
a. Stool softener.
b. High fiber diet.
c. Cathartic laxative.
d. Saline laxative.
749. The area under the curve (Serum concentration time) represents the:
a. Biological half life of the drug.
b. Amount of the drug that is cleared in the kidneys.
c. Amount of the drug in the original dosage form.
d. Amount of the drug absorbed.
e. Amount of the drug excreted in the urine.
K1 K3
750. ***In the drug-receptor equation, D + R  DR  Response, when there is no
K2
response:
a. K1  K2 and K3 is small.
b. K1  K2 and K3 is larger.
c. K1 is equal to K2.
d. K2  K1 and K3=0
e. No product is formed.
751. How can we differentiate by simple reaction between (CH3)3COH and CH3CH2CHOH?
a. Using Br.
b. Using CRO4/SO4.
c. NAOH/H2O.
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PEBC Test Exam
d. CH3COOH.
752. The press coating of a tablet contains 200 mg of a drug for immediate release. The
amount of the drug will provide an adequate therapeutic level. The drug in the slow
release core must sustain therapeutic level for 12 hours. If the elimination rate
constant of this drug is 0.15 hr-1, the total amount of drug in each tablet is:
a. 360 mg.
b. 460 mg.
c. 560 mg.
d. 660 mg.
753. If the drug is a weak base. To increase its renal excretion, which of the following
agents should be used?
a. NH4Cl.
b. NaHCO3.
c. Ascorbic acid.
"DOUBLE CHECK THIS QUESTION?"
754. During which week(s) of the pregnancy the teratogenic effect of the drug begins?
a. First week.
b. 1 – 12 weeks (1st trimester).
c. 13 – 24 weeks (2nd trimester).
d. 25 – 36 week (3rd trimester).
755. The following factors affect the drug in breast milk except:
a. Pka & partition coefficient.
b. Concentration of drug (dose given).
c. Lipid solubility (drug pound to plasma protein).
d. Time of feeding.
756. **Human body rejects organ transplantation because of:

a. Lymphocytes.
b. Leukocytes.
c. Infiltration of T – Cells (  Globulin)
d. Mast Cells.
757. The electrical changes which are associated with conduction of a nerve impulse or
contraction of a muscle that may be visualized by the use of cathode ray oscillation is :
a. Action potential.
b. ??
c. ??
d. ??
758. Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription
drug sale for a pharmacy during the course of a year?
a. Statement of investment.
b. Balance sheet.
c. Statement of change in finance.
d. Income statement.
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PEBC Test Exam
759. The term prodrug means:

a. Inactive drug.
b. Compound that liberates an active drug in the body.
c. Compound that is eliminated unchanged.
d. Prolonged activity drug.
760. *What should a person know when he approaches a bank for a loan to start a
pharmacy?
a. The layout.
b. The rules of pharmacy act.
c. The financial statement.
d. Expected sales.
761. Patients consuming drugs such as Septra should be advised to:

a. Drink a large amount of fluids. (Prevent precipitation).
b. Protect from light.
c. Shake well.
762. Pharmacokinetic changes in elderly often include increase in:

a. Plasma Albumin level.
b. Proportional amount of body fat. (lean body mass)
c. Renal clearance.
d. Liver functions.
763. The patient should be advised to apply the patch to:

a. Dry site of skin.
b. A hairless site of skin.
c. The same application site each time it is applied.
d. In the hand palm.
764. In computers, what does POS stand for?

a. Pay On Site.
b. Pain On Site.
c. Point Of Sale.
765. During using of eye drops, what will be the pharmacist advice to the patient: LOOK UP
?????
a. Pull the low eye led during instillation.
b. Move the extra drops from around the eye.
c. Pull the upper eye led during instillation.
766. What is Azotemia?

a. Increase in Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN).
b. Increase in creatinine level.
c. Decrease in creatinine level.
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PEBC Test Exam
i. (a) only.
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (a) & (c).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
767. *A number of studies have been done on patient counseling methods. The following have
been suggested, which one is most appropriate?
a. Verbal directions to patient in a private room..
b. Only written directions to the patient.
c. Both verbal and written directions.
768. When should a pharmacist recommend a patient to a doctor?

a. Having red eyes.
b. Having pain in the eye.
c. Having vision change in the eye.
769. The manager of a pharmacy studying the work of a pharmacist for a definite period
against a pre-arranged target is called?
a. Prediction.
b. Job orientation.
c. Probation.
d. Examination.
770. When a pharmacy manager describes the position in a pharmacy. The qualifications
required and the duties required in that position is called:
a. Job finding.
b. Job posting.
c. Position description.
d. Position allocation.
771. As a pharmacist, when you feel that the signature on the prescription is illegal. What
you are going to do is? LOOK UP ?????
a. Prescribe the medicine.
b. Call the physician office for reference.
c. Ask the patient directly.
d. Refuse to prescribe the medicine.
772. The job of pharmacy technician includes:

a. Type–in the prescription into the computer.
b. Print the information sheet.
c. Bring the information sheet to the window.
i. (a) only.
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (b) & (c).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
773. Counseling for smoking cessation involved:
Page 105 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
a. Do not chew more than 20 nicotine gum per day.
b. Limit fluid intake while on smoking cessation.
c. When chewing, place the gum in between the cheek and gum at intervals.
d. (b) & (c).
774. What advice do you give to a patient taking nicotine gum?

a. Do not chew more than 10 gm per day.
b. Take one at a time.
c. Take on 4 times daily.
d. Before meals.
775. The drug used for smoking cessation includes:

a. Revia.
b. Zyban.
c. Nicotine.
d. (b) & (c).
776. What is pharmacoeconomics?

a. Study of prices of drugs used in the pharmacy.
b. Study of prices of new inventory drugs.
c. Study of lowering drug prices.
d. Study of delivering reasonable drug prices to customers.
777. The manager of a pharmacy distributing his work among other pharmacists, technicians,
cashiers, etc is called:
a. Job obligations.
b. Job sharing.
c. Allocating.
778. A director who, puts certain rules and expect his sub-ordinate to apply them without
exception is called?
a. Autocratic.
b. Plutocratic.
c. Democratic.
d. Hypocrite.
779. *An innocent master may be held responsible for the harm caused to the third person
by the torsion acts of his servants while they are acting within the scope of their
employment is:
a. Vicarious liabilities of the pharmacist. Cooperative pharmacist.
b. Good pharmacist.
c. Dictator.
d. Democratic.
780. Inventory benefit percentage allowed is:

a. 3%.
b. 4%.
c. 5%.
Page 106 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
d. 6%.
781. The absence of any change in the composition of a mixture substances when it is boiled
under a given pressure is:
a. Azotropy.
b. Osmotic pressure.
c. Heat stability.
"Azotropic phenomenon is a mixture of two volatile solvents when combined
together has high vapor pressure of the mixture will distillate first in
comparison to individual liquids".
782. If two immiscible liquids are mixed together and form an azotropic mixture, by
increasing the vapor pressure azotrop will volatilize:
a. At the end.
b. At first.
c. In the middle.
d. Will not change.
783. E and Z refers to:

a. R and S.
b. Cis and Trans.
c. Enantiomers.
d. Diasteromers.
784. Which of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans polymer?

a. 1-butene.
b. 2-butene.
c. 1-butyl.
d. 2-butyl.
e. 1,2-methylpentene.
785. In Azeotrope, which will distill first?

a. Mixture that has high vapor pressure.
b. Mixture that has low vapor pressure.
c. Nothing will happen.
d. Both will show the same procedure.
786. *Repeated (with respiration & inspiration) Arrhythmia means:

a. Tachy Arrhythmia.
b. Paroxysmal Arrhythmia.
c. Ventricular Arrhythmia.
787. What type of Arrhythmia a person will have with high fever?
a. Paroxysmal tachycardia.
b. Bradycardia.
c. S-A Arrhythmia.
d. Ventricular Arrhythmia.
Page 107 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
788. ***When the atmospheric pressure is equal to the vapor pressure, that is:
a. Evaporation.
b. Melting point.
c. Boiling point.
d. Sublimation.
789. **The rate equation for first order kinetics is:

dt
a. = Kc.
dx
dt
b. = K.
dx
dt
c. = Kc-2.
dx
790. A drug degrades at the rate of 1mg in 60 day from 100mg, what is the t1/2 of the
drug?
a. 6000 days.
b. 5000 days.
c. 4000 days.
d. 3000 days.
791. Which of the following is a competitive inhibitor of ACH?

a. Carbachol.
b. Edrophonium.
c. Succinylcholine.
d. Pancuronium.
792. **When there is absolute refractory period, if you apply another stimulus, what will be
the effect on muscle?
a. Contraction.
b. Relaxation.
c. Remains in existing state.
793. In post menopausal therapy:

a. Conjugated Estrogen carries the risk of endometrial cancer.
b. Progesterone alone is effective but does not help vaginal itching and dryness.
c. Progesterone combined with Estrogen reduces the chances of cancer.
d. (a) & (c).
794. What is true about leukotrienes?

a. Produced from arachnoids.
b. Induce pain.
c. Exogenous compounds.
i. (a) only.
ii. (a) & (b).
iii. (a) & (c).
Page 108 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
795. *Mast cells contain:

a. Kinins.
b. Histamine.
c. Bradykinins.
d. Leukotreins.
796. **In gravimetric analysis, PH is adjusted:

a. To obtain fine filterable particles.
b. To complete participation.
c. To prevent unwanted precipitate.
d. (a) & (c).
"To check impurities".
797. **In gravimetric analysis, PH is adjusted to:

a. Avoid the precipitation of impurities.
b. Facilitate maximum precipitation.
c. Achieve easily filterable precipitate.
d. Prevent co-precipitate formation.
798. Which of the following is anti-estrogen (also anticancer)?

a. Clomiphene.
b. Tamoxifin.
c. (a) & (b).
799. *Burrow's solution is: (Used as antiseptic mouth wash and astringent).
a. Aluminium Carbonate topical solution.
b. Aluminium Subacetate topical solution.
c. Calcium Carbonate topical solution.
800. Tachycardia means fast heart rate usually faster than 100. It is caused by:
a. Increased temperature.
b. Stimulation of heart by autonomous nerves.
c. Toxic condition.
"The rate of heart increases approximately 10 beats per minute for
each degree Fahrenheit increase in body temperature".
801. Bradycardia means slow heart rate, usually less than 60 beats per minute caused by:
a. Vagal nerve stimulation.
b. ??
c. ??
d. ??
802. Metoclopramide is:

a. Dopamine. Antagonist.
Page 109 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
b. Centrally acting.
c. Anti-emetic.
803. **Which of the following is most amphiprotic:

a. H2O (Water).
b. CH3CN.
c. CH3COOH.
804. *What is IDA?

a. It is reference book for formulations.
b. International Drug Association.
c. ??
805. **Which of the following drug causes neuromuscular blockade?

a. Tubocurarine.
b. Pancuronium.
c. Carbachol
d. Edrophonium
806. *An important enzymatic reaction involved in muscular contraction is:

a. Glucose-6-Phosphatase reaction.
b. Glycogenolysis.
c. ATP-creatin transphosphorylase reaction.
d. Enolase reaction.
807. Who should avoid Celecoxib?

a. Person with Sulfa allergy.
b. Person with Penicillin allergy.
c. Person with Cephalosporins allergy.
d. Person with allergic rhinitis.
808. Which is not the side effect of gold?

a. Angioneurotic edema.
b. Protein urea.
c. Intestinal pneumonitis.
d. Increased level of WBC.
809. Which is modified anti-rheumatic drug?

a. ??
b. Cortisone.
c. ?
d. ?
810. *What is the acceptable turn over rate for prescription?

a. 0.5
b. 1.5
Page 110 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
c. 2.5
d. 5
811. Approximately 50% of the drug is excreted unchanged in the urine. If the normal
dosage scheduled for Dicloxacillin is 125mg every 6 hours. A patient with renal function
20% of the normal should receive?
a. 25mg q6h.
b. 31.25mg q6h.
c. 75mg q6h.
d. 62.5mg q6h.
812. **Which is the side effect of Minoxidil?

a. Increased hair growth (Hairsutism)
b. Weight gain & tachycardia.
c. Fluid retention.
i. (a).
ii. (b).
iii. (a) & (b).
iv. (a), (b), and (c).
813. What true if renal clearance is increased?

a. Glomerular filtration in increased.
b. Excretion is enhanced if Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is increased.
c. (a) & (b).
814. At what % of renal function does uremia occur?

a. When GFR 6ml/min/sq m. or when GFR  10% normal.
b. When GFR 10ml/min/sq m. or when GFR  6% normal.
c. When GFR 30ml/min/sq m. or when GFR  30% normal.
d. When GFR 40ml/min/sq m. or when GFR  50% normal.
815. *What type of degradation process occurs with Desipramine?

a. Demethylation.
b. Alkylation.
c. Hydrolysis.
d. Decarboxylation.
816. *What is true about Hypophyseal Portal System?

a. Begins in an artery and ends in a capillary.
b. Begins in an artery and ends in an artery.
c. Begins in a capillary and ends in a capillary.
817. Which drug is used for prophylaxis of motion sickness?

a. Cyclizine.
b. Drammamine.
c. Diphenhydranate.
Page 111 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
818. *In formulations, Talc is used as:

a. Glidant.
b. Surfactant.
c. Lubricant.
819. What is the effect of beta blocker on the intraocular pressure?

a. Increase it.
b. Decrease it.
c. Does not affect it.
d. Increase and/or decease it.
820. Which of the following regulates the body temperature?

a. Urine.
b. Skin.
c. Sweat glands.
821. When corpus albicans is found in the uterus it can be said that:
a. The woman is of child bearing age.
b. The woman is at puberty.
c. The woman is pregnant.
d. The woman is experiencing menopause.
822. What are chilblains?

a. Frost bite.
b. Gangrene.
c. Hypothermia.
823. *What is the disadvantage of drinking fluorinated water?

a. May cause molting of the teeth.
b. Increase Fluorine concentration.
c. Kills the good bacteria.
824. Which is not involved in tablet manufacturing problems?

a. Capping.
b. Mottling.
c. Sticking.
d. Pressing.
e. Peeling.
f. Picking.
825. What is polycythemia treated with?

a. Sodium P23.
b. ??
Page 112 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
c. ??
d. ??
826. *Select the CNS poison that is selectively toxic to retina?

a. Warfarin.
b. *Methyl Alcohol.
c. Arsenic.
d. Carbon tetrachloride.
827. Pethidine is:

a. Antibacterial.
b. Anti-cholinergic.
c. Anti-depressant.
d. Anesthetic.
828. **Poorly soluble drugs required to be prepared as suspension, their sedimentation rate
may be decreased by the addition of:
a. Non-ionic surface active agent.
b. Thixotropic gel.
c. Agent that increase viscosity.
d. Shear thickening gel.
e. Dilatant colloidal clay.
829. Thixotropy means:

a. As shear stress increases, viscosity decreases (Gel-Sol-Gel)
b. As shear stress Decreases, viscosity decreases.
c. As shear stress stays the same, viscosity decreases.
d. As shear stress increase, viscosity increase.
830. *Which clotting factor is found in circulating blood?

a. Thrombin.
b. Prothrombin.
c. Fibrinogen.
d. Fibrin.
831. Warfarin has the following mechanism of action:

a. Catalyzes the inhibition of thrombin by anti-thrombin III.
b. Interferes with the Vitamin K dependant hepatic synthesis of clotting factors.
c. Inhibition of thromboxane.
d. Inhibits prothrombin modification.
832. **All are true about Heparin (Coumadin)R except? (antidote is Protamine Sulphate)
a. Inhibits coagulant factor spontaneously, in all steps
b. Used in vivo and in vitro.
c. In blood, directly prevent conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
d. Used for arterial embolites.
e. Used orally.
833. Which is true about heparin?
Page 113 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
a. It is quantitatively measured by APTT (Active Partial Thrombin Time.
b. APTT = 45 – 60 seconds.
c. Active coagulation time is 3 – 5 minutes.
834. *Anti-Coagulant drug of choice in pregnant woman is:

a. Heparin (because it doesn't cross the BBB).
b. Caumarin.
c. Warfarin.
d. Aspirin.
835. The antidote used in treating Heparin over dose is:

a. Vitamin K.
b. Warfarin.
c. Protamine Sulphate.
d. EDTA.
836. Comparing to Heparin, Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWHs):

a. Have smaller molecular weight (1/3).
b. Have higher antifactor Xa:antifactor IIa binding affinity ratio (2:1 up to 4:1).
c. Have less inhibitory effects on platelet function and vascular permeability.
d. Have longer plasma half-life and more dose-dependent clearance.
837. *Streptokinase is:

a. Fibrinolytic agent.
b. Activates patient's own plasminogen for systemic thrombolytic effect.
c. Reduces the level of coagulation factors as fibrinogen, factor V and VIII.
838. In an HIV infected person, the blood tests will indicate:

a. High level of CD4 cells.
b. Severe depletion of CD4 cells.
c. Low level of T cells.
d. High level of T cells.
839. Hypodermoclysis:
a. It is the administration of (IV) fluid as SC injection.
b. Occurs mostly in infants & obese female.
c. (a) & (b).
840. Venoclysis is:

a. Rapid IV administration.
b. Slow IV administration.
c. Rapid IM administration.
d. Slow IM administration.
841. *Negligence of a pharmacist is:
Page 114 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
a. Avoiding a patient who makes arguments.
b. Failure to meet the standards of average pharmacist.
c. Reluctance to fill a prescription for narcotic.
d. Refuse to discuss a patient's medication history with an unidentified person.
842. the uneven distribution of color is called:

a. Mottling.
b. ??
c. ??
d. ??
843. Mutogenesis is due to:

a. Genotype.
b. Mostly present in rapidly dividing cells.
c. Genetic change in DNA.
844. Nitrogen Oxide can be obtained in vivo by:

a. L-Arginine.
b. ??
c. ??
d. ??
845. Oral Contraceptives cause the following side effect:

a. Fluid retention & diarrhea & hypertension.
b. Hypertension.
c. Ovarian cancer.
846. Soap is a form of:

a. Sodium salt of fatty acid.
b. Sodium salt of lipid.
c. Lipid fatty acid.
d. Fatty acid compound.
847. *Dipole bond exist in all of the following except:

a. Alcohol – alcohol.
b. Alcohol – water.
c. Ester – ester.
d. Ether – ether.
848. In assay of Amphetamine in plasma, it can be extracted by:

a. Ether.
b. Tetrahydrofurane.
c. Ester.
d. Isopropyl alcohol.
849. *Which of the following compound will dissolve this structure CH3-C(CH3)=CH-
CH(CH2CH3)-CH(CH3)-CH3?
Page 115 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
a. Water.
b. Aq. HCL.
c. Aq. NaOH.
d. Decane & Octane.
850. Which compound can't be the isomer of Hexane?

a. N-Hexane.
b. Iso-Hexane.
c. Nep-Hexane.
d. Cyclohexane.
851. EZ isomers are:

a. Optical isomers.
b. R/S isomers.
c. Geometric isomers.
d. Enentiomers.
852. At which state is Boron 1S, 2S, 2P?

a. Grounded state.
b. Normal state.
c. Excited state.
d. Hybrid state.
853. Which is not the isomer of Hexane?

a. 1 Methyl pentane.
b. 2 Methyl pentane.
c. 2-2 Dimethyl butane.
d. 1 Methyl cyclopentane
854. Which is true about neurotransmitters?

a. Secreted in cell where it is synthesized.
b. Stimulate post synaptic only.
c. Secreted and degraded outside only.
d. Pass CNS easily.
855. To terminate pregnancy, we give prostaglandin plus:

a. Cortisone.
b. Tamoxifen.
c. LH
d. FSH
856. *Which is true in treatment of menopause?

a. Estrogen alone with risk of cancer.
b. Progesterone and estrogen at intervals.
c. Progesterone.
857. Ninhydrine is used to identify:

a. Glucose.
Page 116 of 117

PEBC Test Exam
b. Amino acids.
c. Fats.
d. Lipids.
858. *Intra-articular route means:

a. Injection in the synovial fluid.
b. Injection in the spine.
c. Injection in the joint space.
859. .
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PEBC Test Exam

"EVALUATING EXAMINATION QUESTIONS"

4. What is the mechanism of action of Acetazolamide?

5. What happen in metabolic alkalosis?

7. *NH4 + OH-  NH3 + H2O.

8. The reaction R-CONH-R  RCOOH + NH2R is:

9. Blood and all isotonic solutions freeze at:

10. *Which of the following interferes with glucose test in urine?

12. Ascites is defined as :

13. Nausea caused by narcotics due to:

14. ****Some of the aqueous anti-oxidants (reducing agents) are:

15. Sodium bisulphate is:

18. ***Which of the following oily liquids is anti-oxidant?

21. *The heat labile factor in Vitamin B complex is:

22. Which of the following has a Nicotine ring in its structure?

23. Which is the most active form of vitamin E?

24. **What is the mechanism of action of clofibrate (Atromid)R?

25. ***What is the shortest acting benzodiazepine?

26. The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is believed to be:

27. Benzodiazepines appear to act as anxiolytics by:

28. *Which blood vessels supply the brain?

29. Which of the following is NOT included in the brain bones?

30. Coronary arteries receive blood supply from:

31. **What is the drug of choice in status epilepticus?

33. **What is the drug of choice in Petite Mal?

34. *What does surface tension mean?

35. **Why does mercuric Acetate used in non-aqueous titration?

36. Which of the following is a differentiating solution in non-aqueous titration?

37. At acid-base titration, which affect the reaction?

38. At which state is Boron 1S2 2S1 2P2?

39. Sulphinpyrazone used as?

40. **What is the mechanism of action of trimethoprim?

41. Pore size and bacterial filters:

42. Which of these parts can be affected in bacteria?

43. *Which antibiotic affects plasmid in the micro-organism?

44. Gentamycin is used in:

45. **What is the causative organism of gas gangrene?

46. **Bed sores are caused by:

47. Which organism cannot be found in air?

48. Botulism is caused by:

49. Among the following bacteria, which organism is anaerobic?

50. Given structures. Which is soluble in aqueous NaHCO3?

51. Among the following groups, which is soluble in HCL?

52. *Phenol is a weak acid due to:

57. The error is always:

58. **PH is equal to pKa at:

60. **Which clotting factor is found in circulating blood?

61. Normal Prothrombin time is:

62. **Which is the quickest acting barbiturate?

63. Barbiturates have decreased low popularity sleep aid because:

64. *Which barbiturate is redistributed quickly and passes the BBB?

65. **Which enzyme protects the cell from damage?

68. Prazocin side effects include:

69. Which antihypertensive causes CNS depression?

72. ***What are the effects of Schistosoma Mansoni?

73. *Which one of the following is a complication of Cirrhosis?

74. **Which is true about enteric coated tablets?

75. **Which drug is used in the acute attack of angina?

76. *Nifidipine (Adalat)R is used in:

77. For angina pectoris, Propranolol is used as: