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Brilliant: Repeaters Neet Model Exam - All Unit

The document is a practice test for the NEET exam containing 16 multiple choice questions related to physics concepts. The questions cover topics such as radioactivity, capacitors, electric fields, magnetic fields, circuits, and more. For each question there are 4 possible answer choices labeled 1, 2, 3, or 4.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1K views40 pages

Brilliant: Repeaters Neet Model Exam - All Unit

The document is a practice test for the NEET exam containing 16 multiple choice questions related to physics concepts. The questions cover topics such as radioactivity, capacitors, electric fields, magnetic fields, circuits, and more. For each question there are 4 possible answer choices labeled 1, 2, 3, or 4.

Uploaded by

Google Cloud
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Version

21 - 07- 2020 Batch : MEDICAL 2020


Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAM - ALL UNIT B1
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA TEST ID
Time: 3 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
311
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS 4. A solid metallic sphere has a charge


+3Q. Concentric with this sphere there
1. In a radioactive sample, the fraction of is a conducting spherical shell having
initial number of radioactive nuclei, charge -Q. The radius of the sphere is
which remains undecayed after n a and the that of the spherical shell is
mean lives is b (b > a). What is the electric field at a
distance R (a < R < b) from the centre?
1
1) 2) en Q 3Q
en
1) 2)
2 0 R 2 0 R
n
1  1 
3) 1  4)   3Q 4Q
en  e 1 
3) 4)
4 0 R 2 4 0 R 2
2. If the charge on a capacitor is increased
by 2 coulomb, the energy stored in it 5. Four electric charges +q, +q, -q and -q
increases by 21%. The original charge are placed at the corners of a square
on the capacitor is: of side 2L (see figure). The electric
potential at point A, midway between
1) 10 C the two charges +q and +q, is:
2) 20 C

3) 30 C

4) 40 C

3. A gang capacitor is formed by


interlocking a number of plates as
shown in figure. The distance between
the consecutive plates is 0.885 cm and
the overlapping area of the plates is 5

 
cm2. The capacity of the unit is: 1 2q
1) 1 5
4 0 L

1 2q  1 
2)  1 
4 0 L  5

1) 1.0
1 2q  1 
3)  1 
2) 4 pF 4 0 L  5
3) 6.36 pF
4) Zero
4) 12.72 pF
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
6. A charge of Q is distributed over two 9. Consider a cylindrical element as
concentric hollow spheres of radii r shown in the figure. Current flowing
and R(R>r) such that the surface through element is I and resistivity of
densities are equal. Find the potential material of the cylinder is  . Choose
at the common center. the correct option out the following.

1 QR  r
1)
4 o R 2  r 2

1 QR  r
2) 1) Power loss in second half is four
4o R 2  r 2
times the power loss in first half
2) Voltage drop in first half is twice of
1 QR  r
2
voltage drop in second half
3)
4o R 2  r 2 3) Current density in both halves are
equal
1 QR  r 4) Electric field in both halves is equal
2

4) 10. In the standard Young’s double slit


4 o R 2  2r 2
experiment, the intensity on the
screen at a point P which is a distance
7. Resistance of a wire at 20oC is 20 at
1.25 fringe widths from the central
500oC is 60 . At what temperature maximum is (assuming slits to be
its resistance is 25 ? identical)

1) 160oC 1 1
1) I max 2) I max
2 4
2) 250oC
1
3) 100oC 3) I max 4) Imax
3
4) 80oC 11. A current I is flowing through the loop,
as shown in the figure. The magnetic
8. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long
field at centre O is
and a constant potential difference is
maintained across it. Two cells are
connected in series first to support one
another and then in opposite direction.
The balance points are obtained at 50
cm and 10 cm from the positive end of
the wire in the two cases. The ratio of
emf’s is:

1) 5:1
7 o I 7o I
2) 5:4 1) 16R  2) 16R 
3) 3:4
5o I 5o I
4) 3:2 3) 16R  4) 16R 
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
12. A rectangular loop carrying a current 14. A coil of inductance 5H is joined to a
I1 is situated near a long straight wire cell of emf 6 V through a resistance of
carrying a steady current I2. The wire 10  at t = 0 . The emf across the coil
is parallel to one of the sides of the
loop and is in the plane of the loop as at time t  ln  2  sec is
shown in the figure. The loop will:
1) 3v 2) 1.5 v
3) 0.75 v 4) 4.5 v
15. A wire of length 1m is moving at a
speed of 2 ms -1 perpendicular to its
length in a homogeneous magnetic
field of 0.5T. If the ends of the wire
are joined to a circuit of resistance 6 ,
1) remain stationary
then the rate at which work is being
2) moves towards the wire done to ke ep the wire moving at
constant speed is
3) move away from the wire
1
4) rotate about an axis parallel to the 1) 1 W 2) W
wire 3

13. Circular loop of a wire and a long 1 1


3) W 4) W
straight wire carry current I c and Ie 6 12
respectively as shown in figure.
Assuming that these are placed in the 16. An L-C-R se ries circuit with a
same plane, the magnetic fields will resistance of 100  is connected to an
be zero at the centre of the loop when AC source of 200 V (rms) and angular
separation H is: frequency 300 rad s-1. When only the
capacitor is removed, the current lags
behind the voltage by 60o. When only
the inductor is removed the current
leads the voltage by 60o. The average
power dissipated in original L-C-R
circuit is
1) 50 W 2) 100 W
3) 200 W 4) 400 W
17. An astronomical telescope has an
angular magnification of magnitude 5
for distant objects. The separation
between the objective and the eye-
piece is 36 cm and the final image is
IeR IeR formed at infinity. The focal length f0
1) 2) of the objective and the focal length fe
Ic   of eye-piece are
1) f0 = 45 cm and fe = -9 cm
lc Ie
3) 4) 2) f0 = -7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
IeR IcR
3) f0 = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
4) f0 = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
22. At a metro station, a girl walks up a
18. A prism, having refractive index 2
stationary escalator in time t1. If she
and refracting angle 30o, has one of remains stationary on the escalator,
the refracting surfaces polished. A then the escalator take her up in time
beam of light incident on the other t2. The time taken by her to walk up
refracting surface will retrace its path, on the moving escalator will be
if the angle of incidence is
1) 0o 2) 30o  t1  t 2  t1 t 2
3) 45o 4) 60o
1)
2
2)
 t 2  t1 
19. Consider a particle, moving in a circle t1 t 2
with constant speed. P is a point
outside the circle, in the same plane.
3)
 t 2  t1  4) t1 - t2

Then, the angular momentum of the


particle about the point P is 23. The time taken by a block of wood
(initially at rest) to slide down a smooth
inclined plane 9.8 m long (angle of
inclination is 30o) is (Inclind plane is
at rest)

1) Never zero
2) Zero at exactly two points
3) Zero at exactly three points
4) Zero at exactly four points
20. As per Bohr model, the minimum
1
energy (in eV) required to remove an 1) s 2) 2 s
electron from the ground state of 2
doubly ionised Li atom is
3) 4 s 4) 1 s
1) 1.51 2) 13.6
24. Which of the following represents
3) 40.8 4) 122.4 uniformly accelerated motion? (a and
b are constants)
21. The current in the circuit will be
ta
1) x 
b

ta
2) x 
b

1) 5/40 A xa
3) t 
b
2) 5/50 A
3) 5/10 A 4) x  t  a
4) 5/20 A
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
25. Water drops fall at regular intervals 29. A block of mass m is placed over rough
from a tap which is 5 m above the inclined plane having inclination 300.
ground. The third drop is leaving the The co-efficient of friction between the
tap at the instant the first drop touches block and the inclined plane is 0.75.
the ground. How far above the ground The contact force on the block is
is the second drop at that instant?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
1) 2.50 m
2) 3.75 m
3) 4.00 m
3
4) 1.25 m 1) mg 2) 2 mg
4
26. A particle moves in an XY-plane in such
a way that its x and y-coordinates vary 5
with time according to 3) mg 4) mg
4

x  t   t 3  32t, y  t   5t 2  12 30. A bead of mass 1/2 kg starts from rest


from A to move in a vertical plane along
Find the acceleration of the particle, a smooth fixed quarter ring of radius
if t = 3 s. 5m, under the action of a constant
horizontal force F = 5N as shown in
1) 9iˆ  5jˆ 2) 18 ˆi  10 ˆj figure. The speed of bead as it reaches
the point B is (Take, g = 10 ms-2)
3) 18 ˆi  5 ˆj 4) 18 ˆi  10 ˆj

27. If for the same range, the two heights


attained are 20m and 80 m, then the
range will be
1) 20 m 2) 40 m
3) 120 m 4) 160 m
28. Find the value of friction forces
between the blocks A and B and 1) 14.14 ms-1 2) 7.07 ms-1
between B and ground. (Take,
g = 10 ms-2) 3) 5 ms-1 4) 25 ms-1
31. When a body of mass m1 moving with
uniform velocity 40 ms-1 collides with
another body of mass m2 at rest, then
the two together begin to move with
uniform velocity of 30 ms-1. The ratio
 m1 
1) 90 N, 5 N of the masses  i.e., 
 m 2  of the two
2) 5 N, 90 N bodies will be
3) 5 N, 75 N
1) 1:3 2) 3:1
4) 0 N, 80 N
3) 1:1.33 4) 1:0.75
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
32. If a body of mass M is moved from rest 35. A pendulum consists of a wooden bob
along a straight line by an engine of mass m and length l. A bullet of mass
which is delivering a constant power m1 is fired towards the pendulum with
P, then the velocity of the body after a speed v1 and it emerges from the bob
time t will be
v1
with speed . The bob just completes
3
2 Pt 2Pt
1) 2) motion along a vertical circle. Then, v1
M M is

Pt Pt
3) 4)
2M 2M

33. A small body of mass m slides without


friction from the top of a hemisphere
of radius r. At what height will the body
be detached from the centre of the
hemisphere?

m 3m
1) 5gl 2) 5 gl
m1 2m1

2 m  m
3)   5 gl 4)   gl
3  m1   m1 
r r
1) h  2) h  36. Two uniform rods of equal length but
2 3
different masses are rigidly joined to
2r r form an L-shaped body, which is then
3) h  4) h  pivoted as shown in figure. If in
3 4 equilibrium the body is in the shown
34. A shell in flight explodes into n equal configuration, ratio M/m will be
fragments, K of the fragments reach
the ground earlier than the other
fragments. The acceleration of their
centre of mass subsequently will be
1) g
2) (n-K)g

n  K  g
3)
K
1) 2 2) 3
n  K  g 3) 4)
4) 2 3
n
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
37. Earth is moving around the sun in 40. Coefficient of linear expansion of brass
elliptical orbit as shown. The ratio of
and steel rods are 1 and  2 . Lengths
OB and OA is R. Then the ratio of
earth’s velocities at A and B is of brass and steel rods are l1 and l2
respectively. If (l1 - l2) is maintained
same at all temperatures, which one
of the following relations holds good?

1) 1l22   2l12 2) 12l2   22l1

1) R-1 2) R 3) 1l1   2l2 4) 1l2   2l1


3) R 4) R2/3 41. A particle moves so that its position
38. Three particles each of mass m, are
vector is given by r = cos txˆ  sin t yˆ ,
located at the vertices of an equilateral
triangle of side a. At what speed must where  is a constant. Which of the
they move if they all revolve under the following is true?
influence of their gravitational force of 1) Velocity and acceleration both are
attraction in a circular orbit parallel to r
circumscribing the triangle while still 2) Velocity is perpendicular to r and
preserving the equilateral triangle? acceleration is directed towards to
origin
3) Velocity is perpendicular to r and
acceleration is directed away from the
origin
4) Velocity and acceleration both are
perpendicular to r
42. When 2 moles of O2 and 1 mole of He
are mixed together, then the ratio of
CP/CV for the mixture is
Gm 2 Gm
1) 2) 19 13
a a 1) 2)
13 19
3Gm 4 Gm
3) 4) 13
a a 3) 4) 613
6
39. Two bodies M and N of equal masses
are suspended from two se parate 43. In the given figure, the velocity v3 will
massless springs of spring constants be
k1 and k2 respectively. If the two bodies
oscillate vertically such that their
maximum velocities are equal, the
ratio of the amplitude of vibration of M
to that on N is

k1 k1
1) 2)
k2 k2

k2 k2
3) 4) 1) 2 ms-1 2) 4 ms-1
k1 k1
3) 1 ms-1 4) 3 ms-1
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

44. A simple pendulum has a time period 48. AgCl is dissolved in excess of each of
T in vacuum. Its time period when it is NH3, KCN and Na2S2O3. The complex
completely immersed in a liquid of ions produced in each case are
density one-eight of the density of
2 3 2
material of the bob is 1)  Ag  NH3 2  ,  Ag  CN 2  and  Ag  S2O3 2 

7 5 2)  Ag(NH3 )2  ,  Ag(CN)2 3 and  Ag(S2O3 )2 2


1) T 2) T
9 8
  3
3)  Ag  NH3 2  ,  Ag  CN 2  and  Ag  S2O3 2 
3 8
3) T 4) T
8 7 2 3
4)  Ag  NH3 4  ,  Ag  CN 2  and  Ag 2  S2O3 2 
2

45. A P-N junction diode connected to a


battery of e.m.f 45V and an external 49. The corre ct orde r of incre asing
resistance of 1000  . What is the value hydration e ne rgy of the following
conjugate bases of oxoacids of chlorine
of current, if potential barrier in the
is
diode = 0.5 V
1) ClO4  ClO3  ClO2  ClO

2) ClO  ClO2  ClO3  ClO4

3) ClO3  ClO4  ClO2  ClO

4) ClO4  ClO3  ClO  ClO2


1) 4 A 2) 4 mA
3) 5 A 4) 5 mA 50. First and second ionisation energies
CHEMISTRY of Mg are 740 and 1450 kJ mol–1. The
percentage of Mg2+ produced if 1g of
46. Highest oxidation state of Mn in the Mg(g) absorbs 50kJ of energy is :
fluoride is +4 but in their oxides it is
+7. This is because : 1) 32%
1) fluorine always stabilise lower
2) 40%
oxidation state
2) fluorine possess no d - orbitals 3) 24%
3) fluorine is more electronegative than 4) 68%
oxygen
4) fluorine can form single bond, 51. Analysis shows that a metal oxide has
oxygen can form double bond the empirical formula of M0.96O1. The
percentage of M3+ ions in the crystal
47. Th e r ea c t i o n t h a t d o es n o t d ef i n e
is :
cal ci n at i on i s
 1) 4.3%
1) ZnCO3   ZnO  CO2

2) 8.3%
2) Fe2O3 . XH2O   Fe2O3  XH2O
3) 10.3%

3) CaCO3.MgCO3   CaO  MgO  2CO2
4) 13.6%

4) 2Cu 2S  3O2   2Cu 2 O  2SO2
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
52. A current of dry air was passed 57. Dehydration will readily occur in :
through a solution of 2.5 g of non-
volatile solute in 100g of water and O
then through pure water. The loss of
weight of the former was 1.25 g and OH
that of latter was 0.05g. The mole 1)
fraction of solute in the solution is :

1) 0.315 2) 0.0385
O
3) 0.11 4) 0.073

M 2)
53. Conducti vity of KCl at 25 o C i s
50
0.002768 ohm –1 cm –1 . The cell with OH
M
KCl showed a resistance of 550
50 O
ohm. The cell constant of the cell is :
1) 7.5224 cm–1 2) 2.534 cm–1
3) 6.331 cm–1 4) 1.5224 cm–1 3)
54. For an elementary reaction ,
OH
2A  B  3C, the rate of appearance of
C at a particular time is 1.3 × 10–4 mol
L–1 s–1. The rate of the reaction is : O
1) 1.3 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
2) 6.3 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1 4)
3) 2.7 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 H3C OH
4) 4.3 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1
58. If the half-cell reactions are given as
55. Which of the following electrolytes will
be most effective in the coagulation of 2 
i) Fe  2e  Fes  ;E  0.44V
o
gold sol?
1) NaNO3 2) K4[Fe(CN)6]  
ii) 2H aq   O2 g   2e  H 2Ol 
3) AlCl3 4) Mg3(PO4)2
56. The major product obtained on E0 = +1.23 V. The E0 for the reaction,
treatment of CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 with a
very strong base like Fe(s)  2H  O 2(g)  Fe2 (aq)  H2 O(l)
CH3CH2O–/CH3 - CH2OH is :
1) –0.79V
1) CH3CH2CH(OCH3)CH3
2) –1.67V
2) CH3CH = CHCH3
3) 1.67V
3) CH3CH2CH = CH2
4) CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH2CH3 4) 0.79V
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
59. An ester (A) with molecular formula 62. During the test of sulphur in an organic
C 9 H 10 O 2 was treate d with excess compound, a purple colour is formed
CH3MgBr and the compound so formed on adding sodium nitroprusside to
was treated with conc. H 2SO 4 to get Lassaigne’s extract. This is due to the
an alkene(B). Ozonolysis of B gave formation of :
ketone with formula C 8 H 8 O which
1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO]
answer iodoform test. Structure of A
can be : 2) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
1) C6H5COOC2H5
3) Na3[Fe(CN)5NS]
2) CH3OCH2COC6H5
4) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
3) CH3CO - C6H5 - COCH3
4) C6H5COOC6H5 63. The values of  f H of C2H2 and C6H6
60. Product formed when cyclohexanone are respectively 230 and 85 kJ mol–1.
is heated with conc. NaOH is : The standard enthalpy change for
trimerisation of acetylene to benzene
OH is :
1) 1) 205 kJ mol–1 of benzene

2) 605 kJ mol–1 of benzene


O
3) -205 kJ mol–1 of benzene
2)
4) -605 kJ mol–1 of benzene

64. A2, B2 and AB are diatomic molecules


O if bond energies A - A, B - B and A - B
are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and enthalpy
formation of AB from A2 and B2 is -150
3) units. The bond e ne rgy of A -A
expressed in the same unit is :
O
1) 500 2) 400
O 3) 300 4) 100
4) 65. The longest wavelength in the Balmer
series in the hydrogen spectrum will
have the frequency :
61. The reagents required for the following
conversion is 1) 4.57 × 1014 s–1 2) 3.29 × 1015 s–1
O 3) 8.22 × 1015 s–1 4) 8.05 × 1013 s–1

66. A hydrogen electrode is set up with a


solution of pH = 3. The potential of the
O electrode is very close to

1) OsO4, NaHSO3 2) H2SO4/H2O 1) -0.18V 2) 0.06V


3) HgSO4/H2SO4 4) HIO4 3) 0.18V 4) -0.06V
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

67. Find work done in the irreversible 70. The major product of the following
process C  A reaction is

OH

Br2(excess)

SO3H

OH
Br Br
1) – 4.105 Latm 2) Zero
1)
3) –8.21 L atm 4) –16.42 L atm
68. An optically active halide when allowed Br
to react with CN – gives a recemic
mixture. The halide is most likely to be:
1) 1o 2) 2o OH
3) 3 o
4) None of the above Br
2)
69. Identify the product (E) in the following sequence
of reactions
SO3H
CH3

Br2 OH
A 
Sn/HCl
B
FeBr3

NO2
3)
Br Br

NaNO2 /HCl
273  278K
 C 
H2O/H2PO2
 D 
KMnO4
OH
E
Br
CH3 COOH
1) 2)
OH
O2N Br
Br Br

COOH 4)
CH3
Br
SO3H
3) 4)
Br
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
71. Two glass bulbs A (of 100mL capacity), 74. When a mixture consisting of 10 moles
and B (of 150mL capacity) containing of SO2 and 16 moles of O2 were passed
same gas are connected by a small over a catalyst, 8 mole of SO 3 were
tube of negligible volume. At particular formed at equilibrium. The number of
temperature the pressure in A was moles of SO2 and O2 which did not enter
found to be 20 times more than that in into reaction were respectively
bulb B. The stopcock is opened without
changing the temperature. The 1) 2,12 2) 12,2
pressure in A will
3) 3,10 4) 10,3
1) drop by 75% 2) drop by 57%
3) drop by 25% 75. The number of isomers possible for
4) will remain same complex K 2  Pt Cl Br2  SCN   is
72. The enthalpy of neutralization of 40.0g
of NaOH by 60.0g of CH3COOH will be 1) 4 2) 3
1) 57.1 kJ equiv–1 3) 2 4) 5
2) less than 57.1 kJ equiv–1 76. The solubil ity product of A gCl is
3) more than 57.1kJ equiv–1 1.8×10 –10 . Precipitation of AgCl will
occur only when equal volumes of
4) 13.7kJ equiv–1
solution of
73. The major product obtained in the
following reaction is: 1) 10–4M Ag+ and 10–4 MCl– are mixed
OH 2) 10–7 M Ag+ and 10–7 MCl– are mixed
 CH CO  O/Pyridne
1eqv  3) 10–5 M Ag+ and 10–5 MCl– are mixed

2 2
room temp.

4) 10–10 M Ag+ and 10–10 MCl– are mixed
NH2
77. At a temperature under high pressure
OH Kw(H2O) = 10–10, A solution of pH 5.4
COCH 3 under these conditions is said to be
1) acidic
1) 2) basic
NH 2
3) neutral
OCOCH3
4) amphotoric
78. The bond order of the N-O bonds in
NO3 ion is
2) NH2
1) 1.33 2) 1.50
OH 3) 1.00 4) 0.33

79. Molecular plane of C 2 H 4 does not


contain is
3) NHCOCH3
1) C  C   bond

2) C  H   bond

4) NHCOCH3 3) All the atoms of C2H4


4)   electrons
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
80. Which of the following is not a 84. The de creasing order of electron
consequence of the lanthanide density on the ring is
contraction?
O
1) Almost identical radii of Zr and Hf
C CH3
2) Ionisation energies of most 5d 1) NH
elements is higher than corresponding
4d elements

3) Ionisation energies of Hg>Au


NH C CH3
4) Among the post lanthanides electron
2)
affinity is unusally high O

81. For the reaction AB g   A  g   B g  . AB


O
is 33% dissociated at a total pressure
of P. Therefore, P is related to Kp by
one of the following options H2N CH2 C CH3
3)
1) P=3Kp

2) P=Kp
1) 3 > 2 > 1 2) 2 > 3 > 1
3) P=8Kp
3) 1 > 3 > 2 4) 3 > 1 > 2
4) P=4Kp
85. In the following reaction
82. Water softening by Clarke’s process
uses CH3

1) Calcium bicarbonate

Br
h
. The major product
2) Sodium bicarbonate obtained is
3) Potash alum
CH3 CH2Br
4) Calcium hydroxide Br
1) 2)

83. Salt A+S 
130 140o C
 B 
BaCl2
solution

white ppt
CH3 CH3
A is paramagnetic in nature and Br
contains about 55% potassium. Thus 3) 4)
A is Br
1) K 2O
86. An unknown carboxylic acid salt on
2) K2O2 Kolbe’s electrolysis form cyclo butane;
the carboxylic acid can be
3) KO2
1) Hexanoic acid 2) Adipicacid
4) K2SO4
3) Succinic acid 4) Fumaric acid
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
87. 0.28 g of a Nitrogenous compound was 92. Identify the correct statements from
k jeldah lised t o pr odu ce 0.17g of NH 3. the following
The percentage of nitrogen in the a) One should not be able to
organic compound distinguish two closely related species
based on morphological characters
1) 5 2) 30
b) Vege tative and reproductive
3) 50 4) 80 characters are ne ce ssary for
characterising family
88. In antifluorite structure what % of c) Lower the taxa, more higher is the
tetrahedral voids is occupied by resemblance share d be twee n the
cations: organism
d) The collected actual specimens of
1) 0% 2) 50%
plants and animal specimens are the
3) 100% 4) 25% prime source of taxonamic studies
1) a, c and d are correct
89. A KMnO4 solution can be standardized 2) a, b and c are correct
by titration against As2O3(s). A 0.1156g
3) b, c and d are correct
sample of As2O3 requires 27.08mL of
the KMnO4(aq) for its titration what is 4) All statements are correct
the molarity of the KMnO4(aq) [As=75] 93. In which of the following column I is
incorrectly matched with column II ?
1) 0.0172M 2) 1.0172M
Column I Column II
3) 0.172M 4) 0.9172M (Cell wall of organism) (Cell wall composition)
1) Angiosperms Cellulose + Hemicellulose
90. A raw material used in making nylon 2) Algae Cellulose + Galactans
6, 6 is 3) Bacteria Cellulose + Galactans
4) Fungi Chitin
1) Adipic acid
94. Identify the mismatched pair
2) Butadiene
1) Bacte ri a - Me taboli c di ve rsi ty
3) Ethylene e xte n si ve
2) Di noflage late - Bloom ove r the surface of
4)Methyl methacrylate se a by gi vi n g re d colour
3) sli m e m oulds - Ve ge ta ti ve phase wi th
BIOLOGY ce ll wall and re producti ve
phase wi thout ce ll wall
91. A research student nee d to place 4) Agari cus - Karyoga m y and m e i osi s
Solanaceae under Polymoniales. On ta k e place i n the
which basis he placed it is in that basi di um
order.

1) Vegetative character 95. The net requirement of assimilatory


power for the formation of 6 hexose
2) Seed character only molecules in maize plant is
1) 72 ATP, 48 NADPH
3) Character of ovule only
2) 90 ATP, 60 NADPH
4) Most of floral characters 3) 108 ATP, 72 NADPH
4) 180 ATP, 72 NADPH
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

96. Quantitative or qualitative flowering 101. According to whittaker classification


depends upon low temperature. This chlamydomonas come s unde r the
phenomenon is called kingdom

1) Photoperiodism 2) Vernalisation 1) Monera

3) Dormancy 4) Abscission 2) Protista

97. The variation in potency and 3) Plantae


concentration of reserpine of Rauwolfia 4) Either protista or plantae
is an example of
102. M orphological isogamy but
1) Genetic diversity physiological anisogamay is seen in
2) Species diversity 1) Eudorina 2) Fucus
3) Ecological diversity 3) Spirogyra 4) Volvox
4) Population diversity 103. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous
root is disti ng uished from the
98. What is common about selaginella and dicotyledonous stem by
salvinia
1) Position of protoxylem
1) In both the case gametophyte is the
dominant phase 2) Absence of secondary xylem
2) Both have heterospory 3) Absence of secondary phloem

3) The megaspores and microspores 4) Presence of cortex


germinate and give rise to female and 104. The stem of maize and sugarcane have
male gametophytes supporting roots coming out of the lower
4) Both 2 and 3 nodes of the stem, these are called

99. Which one of the following has 1) Prop root


haplontic life cycle 2) Pneumatophore
1) Funaria 3) Stilt root
2) Chlamydomonas 4) Seminal root
3) Wheat 105. Heart wood of plant is
4) Polytrichum 1) Outer part of secondary xylem
100. Select the correct matching pair 2) Inner part of secondary xylem

I II III
3) Outer part of secondary phloem
A Musca 1 Flage llate d p Oxyge nic
4) Inner part of primary xylem
protozoa photosynthesi s
B Nostoc 2 Di pte ra q Coni di a 106. Which one of the following pair is an
C Trypanosoma 3 Pi nk mould r Proti sta
example for lateral meristem?
D Ne urospora 4 Chlorophyll a s Arthropoda
1) Procambium and phelloderm
1) A-3-p, B-1-s, C-2-r, D-4-q
2) Phellogen and fascicular cambium
2) A-4-p, B-3-q, C-1-s, D-2-r
3) Intrafasci cular cambium and
3) A-2-s, B-4-p, C-1-r, D-3-q phellum
4) A-1-r, B-2-s, C-3-p, D-4-q 4) Phellogen and phelloderm
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
107. Based on the diagram given below, 112. M angane se toxicity cause s the
choose the correct statement from the deficiency of
following
1) K, Mg, Ca 2) Fe, Mg, Ca
3) N, Mg, Ca 4) P, K, Ca
113. A) mostly warm water marine forms
B) Occur both in surface water and
great depths whe re littl e light
1) It is a pyramid of energy depicting available
the ocean ecosystem
C) Sexu al spore non motile and
2) It is a pyramid of biomass which oogamous reproduction
shows a small standing crop of D) Complex post fertilization changes
phytoplankton supporting a larger occurs
standing crop of zooplankton
These are all about red algae. Among
3) It is a pyramid of biomass of a this the wrong statements are
grassland ecosystem with standing
1) A and B 2) C and D
crop of primary consumers supporting
that of primary producers 3) A and D 4) Nil
114. Which of the following is correct for
4) It shows the pyramid of number of
the microbe, producing a molecule the
the phytoplankton population in an
same is the first stable product of
aquatic ecosystem
Kreb’s cycle?
108. Which of the following elements is 1) They belong to the same group in
required in the synthesis of plant which bread mould is placed
growth hormones?
2) They belong to the same group in
1) Mn 2) Cu which the microbe responsible for
producing the first antibiotic is placed
3) Zn 4) Mg
3) They belong to the same group in
109. Balbiani ring are site of which the microbe responsible for
biological control of the plant pathogen
1) RNA synthesis is placed
2) Lipid synthesis 4) They belong to the same group in
which the microbe responsible for
3) Nucleotide synthesis
causing smut and rust is placed
4) Polysaccharide synthesis 115. a)Microsporophyll:Stamens,
110. Identify the odd one out with regards b) Microsporangium: A
to family
c) Integument: Seed coat
1) Indigofera 2) Arachis d) Ovary wall: B
3) Sesbania 4) Asparagus e)Megasprophyll - Carpel
111. Which is incorrect about Go phase f) Megasporangim C

1) Cell metabolism continues in Go In this A, B and C represent


phase 1) Pollengrain, fruit, ovule
2) Cell do not proliforate 2) Pollen sac, fruit wall, ovule
3) Androecim gynecium fruit
3) Cells are in suspended stage
4) Ovule Anther fruit wall
4) It cannot join cell cycle at any time
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
116. Which one of the following cannot be 122. The region of biosphere reserve which
attributed to glycogen is legally protected and where no
human activity is allowed is known as
1) Branched chain molecule
1) Core zone 2) Buffer zone
2) Stored in liver and muscle
3) Ecotone 4) Transition zone
3) Heteropolysaccharide
123. Thalassemia and sickel cell anaemia
4) Homopolysaccharide are caused due to a problem in globin
molecule synthesis. Select the correct
117. The function of peroxisome is
statement
1) Convert H2O2 in to H2O and O2 1) Sickle cell ane mia is due to a
2) Utilization of O2 gas quantitative proble m of glo bin
molecules
3) Break the toxic molecules of the cell
2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis
4) All of the above of globin molecules
118. Zygotic meiosis is a characteristic 3) Both are due to a quantitative defect
feature of in globin chain synthesis
1) Fucus 4) Both are due to a qualitative defect
in globin chain synthesis
2) Marchantia
124. Read the statement A and B and
3) Chlamydomonas choose the correct option
4) Funaria A) Synthesis of mRNA takes place in
119. A disease caused by an autosomal 5  3 direction
primary non-disjunction is
B) Reading of mRNA is always in
1) Turner’s syndrom 3  5 direction
2) Klinefelters syndrome 1) Both the statements are correct
3) Down’s syndrome 2) Both the statements are wrong
4) Sickle cell anemia 3) Statement A correct and B wrong
120. A gene whose expression helps to 4) Statment A wrong and B correct
identify transformed cell is known as 125. The correct matching pair is
1) Plasmid
a) Gyne com asti a - 1) Intron
2) Vector b) T ranscri be d but - 2) Down's syndrom e
not tra nslate d
3) Structural gene
c) T hre e copi e s of - 3) Phe nyl k e tonuri a
4) Selectable marker chrom osom e 21
d) Me nde li an - 4) Kli ne fe lte r's syn drom e
121. Which of the fol lowing in sewage di sorde r
treatment remove suspended solid?
1) Sludge treatement 1) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
2) Primary treatment 2) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

3) Secondary treatment 3) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-1


4) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
4) Tertiary treatment
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 18 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
126. If the sequence of bases in the coding 129. A bingdon tortoise e xtinct from
strand of a double stranded DNA is galapagose islands after goats with
5  GTTCGAGTC  3 . The sequence of great browsing e fficie ncy where
bases in its transcript will be introduced. It is an example of
1) Competitive release
1) 5  GACUCGAAC  3
2) Co-existence

2) 3  CAAGUCCAG  5 3) Competitive exclusion


4) Intraspecific competition
3) 5  GUUCGAGUC  3 130. Match and find the correct combination

4) 5  CUGAGUUG  3 A) Golden Rice i) Cross breed hybrid


B) IR8 Rice ii) Somatic hybrid
127. Read the statements regarding a C) Himgiri wheat iii) Semi-dwarf variety
stable community and choose the D) Pomato iv) Genetically modified crop
correct option
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
a) Must be resistant to occasional 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
disturbances
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
b) Should show much variation in 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
productivity from year to year
131. A cuckoo bird laying eggs in the nest
c) Must be resistant to invasions by of crow. It is an example of
alien species
1) Ectoparasitism
1) a and b are correct 2) Endoparasitism

2) a, b, c and d are correct 3) Proto co-operation


4) Brood parasitism
3) a only correct
132. In a water body phytoplankton grow
4) a and c are only correct in abundance in
1) Littoral zone
128. A Tobacco plant resistant to
Meloidegyne incognitia where developed 2) Profundal zone
using a method of cellular defence
3) Limnetic zone
which relates to
4) Benthic zone
1) Silencing the transcription of
133. Polluting strength of sewage in a water
specific mRNA
body is measured by
2) Silencing the translation of specific 1) Eutrophication
mRNA
2) Biomagnification
3) Activation of specific mRNA 3) Biochemical oxygen demand

4) Activation of specific tRNA 4) Nitrogen content


FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 19 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
137. If a cross between two individuals
134. Which of the following statement
produces offspring with 50% dominant
regarding responses of organism to
character A and 50% re ce ssive
abiotic factor is false
character ‘a’. The genotype of parents
A) All birds and mammals are capable are
of thermoregulation
1) Aa×Aa 2) AA×aa
B) Thermoregulation is energetically
expensive for few organism 3) Aa×aa 4) AA×Aa
C) Heat loss is a function of surface 138. Pick out the correct statements
area and heat gain is a function of body
1) Haemophili a is a sex-linke d
volume
recessive disease
D) Small animals have large surface
2)Down’s syndrome is due to
area as compared with their body
aneuploidy
volume
3) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
E) Diapause is a stage of suspended dominent genetic disorder
development seen in zooplanktons
4)Thalassimia is an autosomal
1) A, B and C false recessive gene disorder
2) A, C and E false
5) Sickle cell anaemia is an x-linked
3) B and C false recessive gene disorder
4) B, D and E false 1) 1, 3 and 5 are correct
135. M atch the columns and find the 2) 1 and 3 are correct
correct options
3) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

1 2 4) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct


a) Emphysema i Increase in concentraton
139. Which one of the following species is
of non biodegradable
on the verge of extinction due to low
substance in food chain
rate of reproduction
b) ADH deficie ncy ii  -1-antitrypsin
c) Eutrophication iii Bone marrow 1) Elephant 2) Deer
transplantation
d) Biomagnification iv Nutrient e nrichment of 3) Giant panda 4) Tiger
water body
140. The stipulated amount of sulphur in
diesel and petrol according to Bharat
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i Stage VI norms is
2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 1) 50 ppm 2) 10 ppm
3) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii 3) 5 ppm 4) 42 ppm
4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii 141. All of the following are viral STI except:-
136. Which of the following brings variations 1) Genital herpes 2) Genital warts
among siblings?
3) Chlamydiasis 4) Hepatitis-B
1) Independent assortment of genes
142. From the following, which is visible
2) Crossing over coloured portion of eye :
3) Linkage
1) Cornea 2) Lens
4) Both 1 and 2
3) Retina 4) Iris
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
143. Which of the following is an important 148. Which statement is correct about
function of cortisol? glomerular filtration?
1) Maintains cardio-vascular system as 1) Glomerular filtrate is blood except
well as the kidney functions plasma protein and urea.
2) GFR in a healthy individual is
2) Absorption of calcium from gut approximately125 ml/day.
3) Absorption of water in PCT 3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
permeable to water and descending
4) Absorption of iron from gut limb of loop of Henle permeable to
electrolyte
144. Reabsorption of H 2 O from filtrate
4) Human kidneys can produce urine
occur at which parts of nephron?
nearly four times concentrated than
1) PCT and descending limb and the initial filtrate formed
ascending limb of loop of Henle 149. Notochord is present only in larval tail
in
2) PCT, DCT and collecting duct.
1) Branchiostoma 2) Petromyzon
3) PCT and DCT only 3) Ascidia 4) Asterias
4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle and 150. Which of the following factors may
DCT. result in introduction of new
variations?
145. Some statements are given about
myosin protein of muscle, select the 1) Gene mutation
incorrect one 2) Genetic recombination
3) Stabilizing natural selection
1) Each myosin molecule is a polymer
composed of mo nomers called 4) Immigration of individuals
meromyosin. 151. Identify the correct sequence of stages
in the evolution of modern humans.
2) Head of Meromyosin has ATP binding
site and actin binding site. I. Neanderthal man
II. Cro-Magnon man
3) Myosin head is called LMM and tail
is called HMM III. Australopithecines
IV. Homo habilis
4) The globular head is an active
V. Homo erectus
ATPase enzyme.
VI. Modern human
146. Which one of the following acts as
1) IV, III, V, II, I, VI
universal tooth brush'?
2) III, V, IV, II, I, VI
1) Uvula 2) Tongue 3) III, IV, V, I, II, VI
3) Teeth 4) Palate 4) III, IV, V, II, I, VI
147. Functional Residual capacity is 152. Identify the mismatch among the
following
1) TV + ERV 1) Reptiles - Cleidoic eggs
2) ERV + IRV 2) Amphibians - Epidermal scales
3) Eutherian mammals - Corpus
3) ERV + RV
callosum
4) TV + ERV + RV 4) Aves - Pneumatic bones
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 21 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
153. Consider the following statements 156. The serum has all of the following
regarding ANF except
a) Secreted by an organ which is not 1) Ions
an endocrine gland
2) Glucose
b) Peptide hormone that utilises cGMP
as secondary messenger 3) Clotting factor

c) Secreted by kidney when Blood 4) Amino acids


Pressure is increased 157. Which of the following are the
d) Causes dilation of blood vessels structural and functional units of liver?
e) Inhibits release of Rennin from JG 1) Hepatic peritoneum
cells
2) Hepatic lobules
Which of the above statements are
correct 3) Ligmentum teris

1) a,b and d 2) b, c and d 4) Falciform ligment


3) a,b and e 4) a, b, d and e 158. Given below is the diagrammatic
representation of a sacromere, mark
154. (i) Mammals have negative pressure
the option with correct description of
breathing
the structures labelled as A, B, C and
(ii) The impulses for voluntary D in the same
breathing are sent by cerebrum
(iii) The trachea, primary, secondary
and tertiary bronchi and initial
bronchioles are supported by
incomplete cartilaginous rings
(iv) Volume of air remaining in the
lungs even after a forcible expiration
is Functional Residual Capacity
How many of the above statements are
correct? 1) A- Elastic fibre that bisects I-band
1) Two 2) Three B- Width of this band reduces during
3) One 4) Four muscle contraction
155. Mark the incorrectly matched pair in 2) B- Consists of myosin filaments
the following :- C- Width of this band remains same
during muscle contraction
List -I List-2 3) C- Light band that contains actin
1) Intracellular Cortisol, Estradiol and
receptors Iodothyronines
filaments
2) Secondary Insulin, TSH, oxytocin D- Don't exist when the sarcomere get
messengers and Epinephrine contracted maximally
3) Hyperglycemic Glucagon, Epinephrine, 4) A- Z-line to which thin filaments are
effect GH, and cortisol
firmly attached
4) Blood pressure Aldosterone, ADH,
increasing effect Norepinephrine and ANF D- H-zone which can be seen in a
maximally contracted muscle fibre
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 22 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
159. Which set of characters belongs to the 163. Which of the following skull bone
same phylum? provide protection to the pituitary
gland?
1) First true coelomates and nephridia
as the excretory structures. 1) Temporal
2) Pseudocoelomates and flame cells 2) Sphenoid
as the excretory structures
3) Ethmoid
3) Acoelomates and metanephridia as
4) Parietal
the excretory structures.
164. Digested food is first absorbed and
4) Eucoelomates and flame cells as the
taken into liver by :
excretory structures.
1) Renal portal vein
160. In this "method" ova from the
wife/donor (female) and sperms from 2) Hypophyseal portal vein
the husband / donor (male) are
3) Common bile duct
collected and are induced to form
zygote under simulated conditions in 4) Hepatic portal vein
the laboratory. This method is
165. Cockroach blood does not contain
1) ZIFT 2) IUCD respiratory pigment, it indicates
3) GIFT 4) Test tube baby 1) It does not respire
161. Consider the following four statements 2) Cockroach respires anaerobically
(a-d) and select the option which
includes all the correct ones only 3) Oxygen passes to all the tissues
through alary muscles
(a) Large intestine is principle organ
for absorption of nutrients. 4) Oxygen reaches tissue through
(b) Reflex action for vomiting is tracheoles
controlled by medulla. 166. During embryonic development of
(c) Irregular bowel movements cause human, limbs and digits are formed
constipation during

(d) Mucosa forms gastric gland in the 1) First month of pregnancy


stomach
2) Second month of pregnancy
1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
3) Third month of pregnancy
2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
4) Seventh month of pregnancy
3) Statements (c), (d)
4) Statements (a), (b), and (d) 167. Select the incorrect statement

162. All of the following are the functions 1) Jawless fishes have 6-15 pairs of
of sympathetic nervous system except gills slits
one?
2) Reptiles have three chambered heart
1) Dilation of pupil except crocodile
2) Enhancement of adrenali ne 3) Chordates have a solid dorsal nerve
secretion cord and notochord
3) Constriction of trachea and bronchi
4) Urochordata and cephalochordata
4) Relaxation of urinary bladder are often referred to as protochrodates.
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 23 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
168. Tubular secretion helps to maintain a 172. During life cycle of malarial parasite
proper acid base balance by removing it reproduces asexually in
which of the following from blood :-
1) Stomach and intestine of mosquito
1) H+ ions and Ammonia
2) Salivary gland in mosquito and RBC
2) Uric Acid and aminoacid of human

3) H+ ions and urea 3) Liver and RBC of human host

4) Ammonia, creatinine and glucose 4) Only in RBC of human host

169. Saheli is a contraceptive drug. Select 173. The HIV spreads by decreasing :
the incorrect statement about it.
1) Killer T cells
1) Oral drug
2) Suppressor T cells
2) Non-steroidal
3) Cytotoxic T cells
3) Once a month pill
4) Helper T cells
4) High contraceptive value
174. The first discovered Hormone in our
170. Which one of the following statement body is :
about human sperm is correct
1) Secretin
1) The sperm lysin in the acrosome
dissolve the egg membrane facilitating 2) Thyroxine
fertilization
3) Growth hormone
2) The middle piece possesses
numerous oval mitochondria, which 4) Insulin
provide energy for the movement of tail
175. A drop of each of the following is placed
3) The sperm head contains an separately on four slides. Which of
elongated diploid nucleus. them will not coagulate?

4) Acro some serves as sensory 1) Blood taken from pulmonary vein


structure leading the sperm towards
2) Blood plasma
to ovum.
3) Blood serum
171. In addition to malpighian tubules which
other structure also help in excretion
4) Blood taken from aorta
in cockroach?
176. Angora wool obtained from :
1) Nephrocytes
1) Rabbit
2) Amoebocytes
2) Murrah
3) Seminal vesicle
3) Jersey
4) Conglobate gland
4) Chiru
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 24 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
177. Read the following statements 178. Cartilaginous joint is found in

(i) Ascending limb of Henle's loop is 1) Between humerus and pectoral


impermeable to water whereas the girdle
descending limb is permeable to water. 2) Between cranial bones

(ii) Protein free fluid is filtered from 3) Between atlas and axis
blood plasma into the Bowman's 4) Between two adjacent vertebrae
capsule.
179. The female mosquito is the vector for
(iii) Aldosterone causes reabsorption of which of the following disease?
K+ and water from the PCT of nephron 1) Typhoid and Polio

(iv) ADH helps in water elimination and 2) Plague and Rabies


making the urine hypotonic.
3) Common cold and Ringworm
Out of these how many statements are 4) Filariasis and Malaria
correct?
180. Partial pressure of oxygen in tissue,
1) One atmospheric air, oxygenated blood,
alveolar air is
2) Two
1) 159, 40, 104, 95
3) Three 2) 159, 40, 95, 104

4) All of these 3) 40, 159, 95, 104


4) 95, 40, 159, 104
Version
21 - 07- 2020 Batch :MEDICAL 2020
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAM - ALL UNIT B1
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA TEST ID
(P + C + B) Key with hints
311
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org

PHYSICS
n
N   1
1. 1  e  t  e       e  n  n
N0 e

2. 2 Since

3. 2 There are 8 capacitors in this gang and all of them are in parallel combination.

=4pF

4. 3 Electric field at a distance R is only due to sphere because electric field due to
shell inside it is always zero.

Hence electric field

5. 3

6. 1
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

7. 4

8. 4 Potentiometer E  l

;
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

9. 1

Now for power loss; ;

yd  1.25 D  d  5
10. 1 Path difference,  x      1.25  
D  d  D  4

Phase difference,

11. 1
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

12. 2

13. 1 Magnetic field due to circular loop at centre of loop

Magnetic field due to a straight conductor at centre of loop.

Both fields are in opposite direction.

or

14. 1

W
15. 3 Rate of doing work  p
t
But, P=Fv

Also,
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
XL XC
16. 4 Phase angle tan   
R R

i.e.,

So, average power,

fo
17. 4 In this case, m  f  5 and length of telescope = fo + fe = 36
e

On solving Eqs(i) and (ii), we get fe = 6 cm, fo = 30 cm


18. 3 Light should fall normally on the silvered face i.e.,
r2 = 0

 r1  A  30o

sin i1
Now, Refractive index,   sin r
1

sin i1
or 2
sin 30o

Angle of incidence, i1 = 45o

19. 2

20. 4 E  Z2

 Energy required = (3)2 (13.6) eV = 122.4 eV


21. 2 D1 is reverse biased. Therefore, no. current will flow through 20 resistance.

 30  and 20 resistance will be in series. Total current will be 5/50 A.


FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
22. 3 In this question, we have to find net velocity with respect to the Earth that will
be equal to velocity of the girl plus velocity of escalator.
Let displacement is L, then

L
velocity of girl vg  t
1

L
velocity of escalator or v e  t
2

L L
Net velocity of the girl = vg  v e  t  t
1 2

If t is total time taken in covering distance L then

; 

23. 2 For the dimensional motion along a plane

1 1
S  ut  at 2  9.8  0  g sin 30o t 2  t  2s
2 2

24. 3

Comparing this equation with general equation of uniformly accelerated mo-


tion.

wee see that s1 = -a, u = 0 and acceleration = 2b.

2h
25. 2 Time taken by first drop to reach the ground t 
g

25
 t  1s
10
As the water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap therefore time differ-
1
ence between any two drops  s . In this given time, distance of second drop
2
2
1  1  10
from the tap  g     1.25m
2 2 8

Its distance from the ground = 5- 1.25 = 3.75 m


FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
26. 2 The coordinates of the particle is given as

x  t   t 3  32t and y  t   y3  32t where, t = time

The velocities at time t

dx  t 
vz  t    3t 2  32
dt

dv x  t 
 ax t   6t  0  6t
dt

dy  t 
At t = 3, ax = 6 × 3 = 18 and v y  t    10t  0  10t
dt
At t = 3, ay = 10

Thus, a  a x ˆi  a y ˆj  18iˆ  10jˆ

27. 4 According to given condition,

So,

 The range,

28. 4 Maximum force of friction between ground and B is

As

Frictional force between B and ground will be 80 N.


FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

mg
29. 4 mg sin   F
2

30. 1 From work-energy theorem

31. 2 Initial momentum of the system  m1  40  m 2  0  40 m1


Final momentum of the system =(m1 + m2) × 30
By the law of conservation of momentum, initial momentum = Final momen-
tum
40 m1 = (m1 + m2) × 30
40 m1 - 30 m1 = 30 m2
10 m1 = 30 m2
m1 3

m2 1
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

 dv  Pdt
32. 2 We have, P - Fv - constant (given)  M   v  P or vdv 
 dt  M

v2 P 2Pt
Integrating both side, we get  t or v 
2 M M
33. 3 When released from top with zero energy leaves contact at h.

mv 2 1
; mv  mg  r  h 
2
mg cos  
r 2
OA h 2r
 AOR cos    cos   ; h  r cos  
AB r 3

34. 4

35. 2 From conservation of linear momentum

36. 4 Net torque about O should be zero


FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
37. 3 In central force motion, the angular momentum of body remains conserved.
i.e., Angular momentum, L = r × p = mvr
(at minor and major axis, v and r are perpendicular)

So if v1 and v2 be the speed of earth at A and B, respectively.

Then, mv1r1  mv 2 r2

v1 r2 OB v
    1 R
v2 r1 OA v2

 GM 2   Gm2 
38. 1 F
From the figure, A  FAB  FAC  2  2  cos30 o
  2 3
 a   a 

a
Also, r 
3

mv 2 mv 2 3 Gm
Now,  F FA or  2 3
r a a

Gm
 v
a

39. 4

40. 3 According to question,

Coefficient of linear expression of brass = 1

Coefficient of linear expression of steel =  2


Length of brass and steel rods are l1 and l2 respectively.

As given difference increase in length  l2  l1  is same for all temperature.

So, l2  l1  l2  l1


FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

41. 2 Position vector of the particle is given by r  cos t x  sin t y


where,  is a constant,

Velocity of the particle is

   sin t  wx   cos t  y

   sin t x  cos t y 

dv d
Acceleration of the particles a     sin t x   cos t y 
dt dt

 2 cos t x  2 sin t y

 a  2 r  2   r 

Therefore, acceleration is directed towards -r that is towards O (origin)

v.r =   sin t x  cos t y  cos t x  sin t y 

= sin t.cos t  0  0  sin t.cos t 

   0   0

Thus, velocity is perpendicular to r.

42. 1

43. 3
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

44. 4 In vacu u m ,

Let V be the volume and T be the density of the mass of the bob. Net downward
force acting on the bob in side the liquid

i.e., effective value of g is ; So, time period of the bob inside the liquid

45. 2

CHEMISTRY
46. 4  - bond formation possible for oxygen

47. 4

48. 3
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

49. 2

Mg 
50KJ
30.83KJ
 Mg  
19.17KJ
Mg 2
50. 1 0.0417 mol 19.17
1450
51. 2 3x + 2(96 - x) = 200
52. 2 po  p  0.05 ; po  1.25  0.05
po  p
 xB
po
53. 4 Cell constant = R. K
1 d[B]
54. 4 r 
3 dt
55. 3 Gold is a negatively charged sol. positive ion having highest valency is Al3+
56. 3  hydrogen on C1 is more acidic. In alkyl fluoride Hofmann elimination prod-
uct dominates over saytzeff product.
57. 2 Aldols are readily dehydrated

58. 3

OH

59. 1 C6 H 5 COOC2 H5 


CH3 MgBr
 C6H5 C CH3

CH3
60. 4 Aldol condensation

61. 3
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

62. 2
63. 4 3C 2 H 2  C6 H 6 ; H  85  3  230  605
1 1 1 1
64. 4 A 2  B2  AB ; 150  E  (2E)  3E
2 2 2 2
 1 1 
65. 1   3.3  1015  2  2  ; n = 2 ; n = 3
 n1 n 2  1 2

66. 1

67. 3

68. 3

69. 3

70. 1

71. 2
72. 2 Since it is neutralisation of a weak acid with strong base

73. 3
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

74. 1

75. 1 Ma2bc is square planar & has 2 G.I. & it has one ambidentate ligand shows
different linkage. So 2 × 2 = 4 total Isomers
76. 1
77. 2
78. 1
79. 4
80. 3

81. 3

82. 4 In Clarke’s process quick line is added to hard water which produces Ca(OH)2
which further converts bicarbonates into insoluble carbonates

83. 3

84. 1
85. 4
FT20G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

86. 2

14 mass of NH3 formed


87. 3 % N = 17  mass taken
100

88. 3

89. 1

90. 1 Nylon -6,6- is a condensation co -polymer of adipic acid and hexamethylene


diamine

BIOLOGY

91. 4 106. 2 121. 2 136. 4 151. 3 166. 2


92. 3 107. 2 122. 1 137. 3 152. 2 167. 3
93. 3 108. 3 123. 2 138. 3 153. 1 168. 1
94. 3 109. 1 124. 3 139. 3 154. 1 169. 3
95. 4 110. 4 125. 2 140. 2 155. 4 170. 1
96. 2 111. 4 126. 3 141. 3 156. 3 171. 1
97. 1 112. 2 127. 4 142. 4 157. 2 172. 3
98. 4 113. 4 128. 2 143. 1 158. 3 173. 4
99. 2 114. 2 129. 3 144. 2 159. 1 174. 1
100. 3 115. 2 130. 1 145. 3 160. 4 175. 3
101. 2 116. 3 131. 4 146. 2 161. 1 176. 1
102. 3 117. 4 132. 3 147. 3 162. 3 177. 2
103. 1 118. 3 133. 3 148. 4 163. 2 178. 4
104. 3 119. 3 134. 3 149. 3 164. 4 179. 4
105. 2 120. 4 135. 1 150. 1 165. 4 180. 3

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