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Assignment No 2 MTH401

1) The document discusses Bessel's function and its properties. It shows that J-m(x) can be written as (-1)mJm(x). 2) It then considers the Bessel equation of the first order x2J1′′(x) + xJ1′(x) + (x2 – 1)J1(x) = 0. 3) It shows that the function y = xJ1(x) satisfies the differential equation xy′′ – y′ – xJ0′(x) = 0, using the property that J0′(x) = -J1(x).

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
35 views4 pages

Assignment No 2 MTH401

1) The document discusses Bessel's function and its properties. It shows that J-m(x) can be written as (-1)mJm(x). 2) It then considers the Bessel equation of the first order x2J1′′(x) + xJ1′(x) + (x2 – 1)J1(x) = 0. 3) It shows that the function y = xJ1(x) satisfies the differential equation xy′′ – y′ – xJ0′(x) = 0, using the property that J0′(x) = -J1(x).

Uploaded by

Fazal Hayat
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Mc200202068

Assignment No.2
MTH 401
Question No.1
Jm (x), being the Bessel’s function defined by

(−1)n x
Jv (x) = ∑ ❑ (n!) Γ (1+ v+ n) ( 2 )2n+v……………………. (1)
n=0


(−1)n x 2n+m
Jm (x) = ∑
n=0

(n!) Γ (1+m+n) 2 )
(
And

(−1) n x 2n-m
J-m (x) = ∑
n=0

(n!) Γ (1−m+ n) 2 )
(
Since Γ (1-m+n) = ∞ when 1-m+n<1
i.e all terms of Jm(x) are zero so Jm (x) will start with non-zero
when 1-m+n ≥1
so
1-m+n ≥1
⇒ -m+n ≥ 0
⇒n≥m
So we have

(−1 ) m+s
J-m (x) = ∑ ❑ (n!) Γ (1−m+ n) ( 2x )2n-m
n=0

Putting n = m + s (where s = 0,1,2,3…………)



(−1 ) m+ s
J-m (x) = ∑ ❑ ((m+ s) !)Γ (1−m+m+ s) ( x2 )2(m+s)-m
n=0


(−1 ) m+s
x 2m+2s-m
J-m (x) = ∑
n=0

((m+ s)!) Γ (1+ s) 2 )
(

(−1 ) m (−1 ) s
J-m (x) = ∑ ❑ ((m+ s)!) Γ (1+ s) ( 2x )m+2s
n=0

Γ ( n+1 ) =n Γ n=n !

(−1 ) s x m+2s
J-m (x) = (−1 ) m ∑ ❑
n=0
()
(S !) Γ (1+m+s) 2

J-m (x) = (-1)m Jm (x)


Mc200202068
Question No.2

Given that J1 is the solution of Bessel’s equation of the first


order, x2y″ + xy′+ (x2 – 1)y = 0, i.e
x2J1″ (x) + xJ1′(x) + (x2 – 1)J1 (x) = 0
Then using property that J0′ (x) = - J1 (x). Show that y = xJ1 (x)
is a solution of xy″ – y′ – xJ0′(x) = 0
Solution
Condition
J0′(x) = - J1 (x)
xy″ – y′ – x2J0′(x) = 0
According to condition
xy″ – y′ – x2(- J1 (x)) = 0
xy″ – y′ + x2J1(x) = 0
xy″ – y′ + x.xJ1(x) = 0
Let y = xJ1(x)
The above equation becomes
xy″ – y′ + xy = 0 (1)
This equation is the type
xy″ + cy′ + k2xry = 0 (2)
Comparing equation (1) and (2) then
c = -1
k2 = 1
⇒k= 1
r=1
We know that
1−c
n= 1+r
1+ 1 2
n= 1+ 1 = 2=1
Because n is an integer
So
General solution of this type of equation is
Y (x) = X m/ n
[(c1Jn (kmxm/n) + c2Jn(kmxm/n)]
Y (x) = x1 (c1J1(1.1x1) c2J1(1.1x1)
Y (x) = x (c1J1x c2J1x)
Y (x) = x J1(x) (c1 + c2)
Here c1 and c2 are the constant
So
Y(x) = xJ1(x)

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