Fortinet - Premium.nse6 .By .VCEplus.23q DEMO Premium

Fortinet.Premium.NSE6.by.VCEplus.
60q
Number: NSE6 VCEplus
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1.0
Exam Code: NSE6

Exam Name: Fortinet Advanced Products Professional
Certification Provider: Fortinet
Corresponding Certification: NSE6
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QUESTION 1
Which of these is an OATH-based standard to generate one-time password tokens?
A. SCEP
B. EAP-TLS
C. TOTP
D. HOTP
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which two types of digital certificates can you create in FortiAuthenticator? (Choose two.)
A. 3rd-party root certificate
B. Local services certificate
C. User certificate
D. CRL
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
You are a FortiAuthenticator administrator for a large organization, and suddenly all of the FortiToken 200 users in the organization are unable to authenticate using
their tokens. What is the most probable reason?
A. The FortiAuthenticator system time is not synchronized using NTP and has drifted.
B. The X.509 certificates on the tokens, or the root CA certificate that signed the certificates, have been revoked.
C. The clocks on all the tokens have drifted and require re-synchronizing.
D. The tokens have all been locked.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which is not a supported captive portal authentication method?
A. SMS self-registration
B. Facebook authentication
C. Apple ID authentication
D. MAC address authentication
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which CLI command on FortiAuthenticator is not used for troubleshooting network connectivity issues?
A. ping
B. tcpdump
C. traceroute
D. NTRADPing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which behavior does not exist for certificate revocation lists (CRLs) on FortiAuthenticator?
A. All local CAs share the same CRLs
B. CRLs can be exported
C. Revoked certificates are automatically placed on the CRL
D. SCEP can be used to distribute CRLs
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
A device that is 802.1X non-compliant must be connected to the network. Which authentication method can you use to authenticate the device with
FortiAuthenticator?
A. EAP-TTLS
B. EAP-TLS
C. PEAP (MSCHAPv2)
D. MAC authentication bypass
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which statements are true for the EAP-TTLS authentication method? (Choose two.)
A. Uses mutual authentication
B. Validates only the server (FortiAuthenticator) identity
C. Requires an EAP server certificate
D. Supports a port access control (wired) solution only
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which statements are true about the FortiAuthenticator CLI? (Choose two.)
A. The CLI is used for initial configuration, factory resets, and debugging only
B. The CLI is accessible through the dashboard of the Web-based manager
C. The CLI is accessible through a terminal emulation application using the SSH protocol
D. The CLI is used to configure DNS server addresses
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
RADIUS authentication with FortiAuthenticator is not working. The traffic sniffer indicates that client traffic is not reaching FortiAuthenticator. Which could be the
cause of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Incorrect RADIUS client IP and pre-shared secret
B. Group filters on the RADIUS client
C. Authentication method on the RADIUS client
D. Firewall policies on FortiGate
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which statements are true about the RADIUS service on FortiAuthenticator? (Choose two.)
A. FortiAuthenticator only answers to RADIUS clients that are registered with FortiAuthenticator
B. Local users can be authenticated through RADIUS
C. Administrator users can be authenticated through RADIUS
D. RADIUS clients must accept the RADIUS challenge response method if using two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
You want to allow guests to authenticate to your network through Facebook. What configuration is required on FortiAuthenticator? (Choose two.)
A. A RADIUS client, in order to enable the social portal
B. A user group
C. An external authentication portal
D. A Facebook key and secret
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which Fortinet Single Sign-on (FSSO) user identity discovery method can FortiAuthenticator use if the device or user identity cannot be established transparently,
such as with non-domain BYOD devices?
A. External Syslog
B. RADIUS accounting
C. Active Directory polling
D. Portal authentication
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
What is one requirement for your network when deploying FortiAuthenticator?
A. FortiAuthenticator must be positioned in an active-active geographic load-balanced high availability (HA) network
B. FortiAuthenticator must have a management computer connected to port 1
C. Policies must have specific ports open between FortiAuthenticator and the authentication clients
D. Multiple FortiAuthenticator are required if more than one FortiGate exists in your network
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
What statement is true for the self-service portal? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator approval is required for all self-registrations
B. Self-registration information can be sent to the user through email and SMS
C. Realms can be used to configure what self-registered users or groups can access the network
D. Users self-register through the social portal splash screen
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which configuration object in FortiMail would be used to attach the string "[SPAM DETECTED]" to the subject header of email messages determined by FortiMail
to be spam? (Choose one.)
A. Content profile
B. Antivirus action profile
C. Antispam profile
D. Antispam action profile
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
If the corporate email policy dictates that SMTP over SSL/TLS is preferred for inbound SMTP connections and required for outbound SMTP connections, which
FortiMail configuration object would be used?
A. Recipient policies
B. IP policies
C. Access control rules
D. Session profiles
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
In a server mode config-only cluster, where is the mail data stored? (Choose one.)
A. Internal FortiMail appliance storage
B. FortiCloud storage
C. External NAS storage
D. Server mode is not supported with config-only clusters
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Once an antispam profile has been configured, how is it put into action?
A. By selecting it in a session profile.
B. By selecting it in an access control receive rule.
C. By selecting it in an IP policy and/or a recipient policy.
D. By selecting it in the protected domain configuration.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Why is it recommended to choose the FortiMail operation mode early in the setup process?
A. If you forget to change the operation mode soon enough, the license becomes invalid.
B. When the operation mode is changed, most settings revert to their factory defaults.
C. If you forget to change the operation mode soon enough, it is locked to its present value.
D. The operation mode can only be set by the Quick Start Wizard.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
If the FortiMail administrator wished to identify emails which were sent to a particular email address so that those emails could be processed differently, which
configuration object would the administrator use?
A. Session profile
B. IP-based policy
C. Access receive rule
D. Recipient-based policy
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
In transparent mode, when choosing between using the built-in MTA or using the transparent proxy, what difference might be encountered regarding mail routing?
A. The transparent proxy can only be enabled on a route mode interface.
B. In split-horizon DNS setups, the transparent proxy will get confused and route mail back to the sender.
C. The built-in MTA may decide to route the message to a different next-hop MTA.
D. The transparent proxy may decide to route the message to a different next-hop MTA.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Access delivery rules provide which two of the following functions? (Choose two.)
A. Enforce specific TLS requirements.
B. Trigger IBE or S/MIME encryption.
C. Block access to specific protected domains.
D. Route the delivery of email messages to alternate mailboxes.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)

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