‫‪January 1‬‬

‫‪Computer MCQ’s‬‬
‫‪Notes‬‬ ‫‪2017‬‬
‫ان ﻧﻮﭨﺲ ﮐﮯ ﮐﻮﺋﯽ ﺑﮭﯽ ﭘﯿﺴﮯ ﻧﮩﯿﮟ ﮨﮯ۔ ﯾہ ﻧﻮﭨﺲ ﻓﯽ ﺳﺒﯿﻞ ﷲ ﮨﮯ۔‬ ‫ﻧﻮٹ !‬
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‫ﮨﻢ ﻧﮯ ﮐﻤﭙﯿﻮﭨﺮ ﮐﮯ ﺑﺎرے ﻣﯿﮟ ﺳﺐ اﻧﻔﺎرﻣﯿﺸﻦ ﻟﮑﮭ دی ﮨﮯ ﺟﻮ ﮐہ ﮔﻮرﻧﻤﻨﭧ ﺟﺎب‬ ‫‪Composed By :‬‬
‫ﮐﮯ ﺳﻠﺴﻠﮯ ﻣﯿﮟ ﺑﮩﺖ اﮨﻢ ﮨﮯ۔ اﻧﺸﺎءﷲ آپ ﻟﻮﮔﻮں ﮐﻮ ان ﻧﻮﭨﺲ ﺳﮯ ﺑﮩﺖ ﻓﺎﺋﺪه ﮨﻮ‬ ‫‪Imran Zafar‬‬
‫ﮔﺎ۔ اﮔﺮ ﭘﮭﺮ ﺑﮭﯽ ﮐﮩﯽ ﮐﻮﺋﯽ ﻏﻠﻄﯽ ﻧﻈﺮ آﺋﮯ ﺗﻮ ﺑﺮاﺋﮯ ﻣﮩﺮﺑﺎﻧﯽ ﻣﺠﮭﮯ اﻧﻔﺎم ﮐﺮﯾﮟ۔‬
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‫‪0304-6106285‬‬
‫ﻋﻤﺮان ظﻔﺮ‬
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‫‪Composed By : Imran Zafar‬‬ ‫‪0304-6106285‬‬ ‫‪Page 2‬‬

 Basic MCQs of Computer Science

1. Mostly which of the following device is used to carry user files?

A. Floppy Disk B. Hard Disk
C.RAM D.CDROM Answer: Option A
2. Which device is used to backup the data?
A. Floppy Disk B. Tape
C. Network Drive D. All of the above Answer: Option D
3. In order to play and hear sound on a computer, one needs:
A. a sound card and speakers B. a microphone
C. all of them required D. none of them required Answer: Option A
4. Which of the following are the cheapest memory devices in terms of Cost/Bit?
A. Semiconductor memories B. Magnetic Disks
C. Compact Disks D. Magnetic Tapes Answer: Option C
5. Which of the following are the best units of data on an external storage device?
A. Bits B. Bytes
C. Hertz D. Clock cycles Answer: Option B
6. Which of the following have the fastest access time?
A. Semiconductor Memories B. Magnetic Disks
C. Magnetic Tapes D. Compact Disks Answer: Option A
7. Which of the following is a read only memory storage device?
A. Floppy Disk B. CDROM
C. Hard Disk D. None of these Answer: Option B
8. Which of the following is a programming language?
A. Lotus B. Pascal
C. MS-Excel D. Netscape Answer: Option B
9. What is a compiler?
A. A compiler does a conversion line by line as the program is run
B. A compiler converts the whole of a higher level program code into machine code in one step
C. A compiler is a general purpose language providing very efficient execution
D. None of the above Answer: Option B
10. What is an interpreter?
A. An interpreter does the conversion line by line as the program is run
B. An interpreter is the representation of the system being designed
C. An interpreter is a general purpose language providing very efficient execution
D. None of the above Answer: Option B
11. When a key is pressed on the keyboard, which standard is used for converting the keystroke into the
corresponding bits?
A. ANSI B. ASCII
C. EBCDIC D. ISO Answer: Option A
13. A Pixel is ………
A. A computer program that draws picture B. A picture stored in secondary memory
C. The smallest resolvable part of a picture D. None of these Answer: Option C

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14. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment?
A. Keyboard B. Mouse
C. Joystick D. Track ball Answer: Option B
15. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
A. 2 B. 10
C. 16 D. 32 Answer: Option A
16. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
A. Binary B. Decimal
C. Hexadecimal D. Octal Answer: Option A
17. Which of the following is not an output device?
A. Scanner B. Printer
C. Flat Screen D. Touch Screen Answer: Option D
18. Which of the following devices have a limitation that we can only store information to it but cannot erase or
modify it?
A. Floppy Disk B. Hard Disk
C. Tape Drive D. CDROM Answer: Option D
19. Which technology is used in Compact disks?
A. Mechanical B. Electrical
C. Electro Magnetic D. Laser Answer: Option D
20. Which of the following storage devices can store maximum amount of data?
A. Floppy Disk B. Hard Disk
C. Compact Disk D. Magneto Optic Disk Answer: Option B
21. Which of the following is the largest manufacturer of Hard Disk Drives?
A. IBM B. Seagate
C. Microsoft D. 3M Answer: Option B
22. The programs which are as permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is known as
A. Hardware B. Software
C. Firmware D. ROM ware Answer: Option C
23. Memory unit is one part of
A. Input device B. Control unit
C. Output device D. Central Processing Unit Answer: Option D
24. Who built the first Mechanical Calculator
A. Joseph Marie Jacquard B. John Mauchly
C. Blaise Pascal D. Howard Aiken Answer: Option C
25. The earliest calculating devices are
A. Abacus B. Clock
C. Difference Engine D. None of these Answer: Option A
26. Punched cards were first introduced by
A. Powers B. Pascal
C. Jacquard D. Herman Hollerith Answer: Option D
27. Word length of a Personal Computer is ___
A. 4 bits B. 8 bits
C. 16 bits D. 64 bits Answer: Option B
28. Cursor is a ____
A. Pixel B. Thin blinking line
C. Pointing device D. None of these Answer: Option B
29. Operating system, editors, and debuggers comes under?
A. System Software B. Application Software
C. Utilities D. None of the above Answer: Option A
30. Which device is required for the Internet connection?
A. Joystick B. Modem
C. CD Drive D. NIC Card Answer: Option B
31. What does DMA stand for?
A. Distinct Memory Access B. Direct Memory Access
C. Direct Module Access D. Direct Memory Allocation Answer: Option B

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32. When did John Napier develop logarithm?
A. 1416 B. 1614
C. 1641 D. 1804 Answer: Option B
33. A normal CD-ROM usually can store up to_________data?
A. 680 KB B. 680 Bytes
C. 680 MB D. 680 GB Answer: Option C
34. ATM stands for?
A. Automatic Talking Machine B. Automatic Teller Machine
C. Analog Teller Machine D. Automatic Ticketing Machine Answer: Option B
35. The Second Generation Computer was based on ………….
A. Vacuum Tube B. Silicon Chips
C. Transistor D. Bio Chips Answer: Option C
36. The Third Generation Computer was made with ………….
A. Vacuum Tube B. Discrete Components
C. IC D. Bio Chips Answer: Option C
37. He BIOS is the abbreviation of ………….
A. Basic Input Output System B. Best Input Output System
C. Basic Input Output Symbol D. Base Input Output System Answer: Option A
38. What do you call a single point on a computer screen
A. Cell B. Element
C. Pixel D. Bit Answer: Option C
39. How was the generation of computer classified?
A. by the device used in memory & processor B. by the speed of computer
C. by the model of the computer D. by the accuracy of computer Answer: Option A
40. Through which device the main components of the computer communicate with each other?
A. Keyboard B. System Bus
C. Monitor D. Memory Answer: Option B
41. Which is a valid program to access the Internet?
A. Access B. Front Page
C. Windows Explorer D. Netscape Answer: Option D
42. Which one is the Low Level Language?
A. Assembly B. Visual Basic
C. Java D. C++ Answer: Option A
43. Which is a volatile memory?
A. ROM B. BIOS
C. PROM D. RAM Answer: Option D
44. The digital signals can be represented by
A. Binary Codes B. 0 and 1
C. High and Low D. all of the above Answer: Option D
45. Which program can be used for email?
A. Internet Explorer B. Outlook Express
C. NetMeeting D. FrontPage Answer: Option B
46. Modulator-demodulator is a device that converts:
A. Digital signal into analog signal B. Analog signal into digital signal
C. Both A and B D. None of the above Answer: Option C
47. _______ is used for scanning the pictures and putting them in digitized form in the computer.
A. CD-ROM B. Plotter
C. Bar-coder D. Scanner Answer: Option D
48. Animator, 3D Studio, Corel Draw and Flash are………….
A. Word processors B. Spreadsheet packages
C. Multimedia S/W D. None of the above Answer: Option C
49. Which statement is valid?
A. 1 KB = 8 bytes B. 1 MB = 8 KB
C. 1 KB = 1024 bytes D. 1 MB = 1024 bytes Answer: Option C

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50. Which device is used to process data?
A. CPU B. RAM
C. DCU D. VDU Answer: Option A
51. Who is known as the father of Computer Science?
A. Charles Babbage B. Howard Aiken
C. Dr. Herman Hollerith D. Blaise Pascal Answer: Option A
52. What is the capacity of a 3.5” Floppy Disk?
A. 360KB B. 720KB
C. 1.2MB D. 1.44MB Answer: Option D

53. A Personal Computer (PC) is a …………….. Computer.

A. Super B. Main Frame
C. Mini D. Micro Answer: Option D
54. What type of printers are Dot Matrix Printers?
A. Laser B. Inkjet
C. Impact D. Drum Answer: Option C
55. What is the full form of RAM?
A. Read Access Memory B. Random Access Memory
C. Rapid access Memory D. none Answer: Option B

Computer Basic Mcqs

Set No 1
1. WWW stands for?
A. World Whole Web
B. Wide World Web
C. Web World Wide
D. World Wide Web Answer: Option D
2. Which of the following are components of Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
A. Arithmetic logic unit, Mouse
B. Arithmetic logic unit, Control unit
C. Arithmetic logic unit, Integrated Circuits .
D. Control Unit, Monitor Answer: Option B
3. Which among following first generation of computers had?
A. Vaccum Tubes and Magnetic Drum
B. Integrated Circuits
C. Magnetic Tape and Transistors
D. All of above Answer: Option A
4. Where is RAM located ?
A. Expansion Board
B. External Drive
C. Mother Board
D. All of above Answer: Option C
5. If a computer has more than one processor then it is known as?
A. Uniprocess
B. Multiprocessor
C. Multithreaded
D. Multiprogramming Answer: Option B
6. If a computer provides database services to other, then it will be known as ?
A. Web server
B. Application server
C. Database server
D. FTP server Answer: Option C

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7. Full form of URL is?
A.Uniform Resource Locator
B.Uniform Resource Link
C.Uniform Registered Link
D.Unified Resource Link Answer: Option A
8. In which of the following form, data is stored in Computer?
A. Decimal
B. Binary
C. Hexa Decimal
D. Octal Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Data in computer is always stored and send in binary form, Binary form means all data is in the form of 1's and 0's.
9. Technology used to provide internet by transmitting data over wires of telephone network is?
A. Transmitter
B. Diodes
C. HHL
D. DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) Answer: Option D
10. Which level language is Assembly Language ?
A. high-level programming language
B. medium-level programming language
C. low-level programming language
D. machine language Answer: Option C
11. Documents, Movies, Images and Photographs etc are stored at a ?
A. Application Sever
B. Web Sever
C. Print Server
D. File Server Answer: Option D
12. Which of following is used in RAM ?
A. Conductor
B. Semi Conductor
C. Vaccum Tubes
D. Transistor Answer: Option B
13. What is full form of GUI in terms of computers ?
A. Graphical user Instrument
B. Graphical unified Interface
C. Graphical unified Instrument
D. Graphical user Interface Answer: Option D
14. What is full form of ALU ?
A. Arithmetic logic unit
B. Allowed logic unit
C. Ascii logic unit
D. Arithmetic least unit Answer: Option A
15. Who was the Founder of Bluetooth ?
A. Ericson
B. Martin Cooper
C. Steve Jobs
D. Apple Answer: Option A
16. Who was the father of Internet?
A. Chares Babbage
B. Vint Cerf
C. Denis Riche
D. Martin Cooper Answer: Option B
17. Verification is process of ?
A. Access
B. Login
C. Logout
D. Authentication Answer: Option D

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18. What is LINUX ?
A. Malware
B. Operating System
C. Application Program
D. Firmware Answer: Option B
19. What is the name of first super computer of India?
A. Saga 220
B. PARAM 8000
C. ENIAC
D. PARAM 6000 Answer: Option B
20. Which is most common language used in web designing?
A. C
B. C++
C. PHP
D. HTML (Hyper text Markup Language) Answer: Option D
21. Who is also known as Father of Computer ?
A. Vint Cerf
B. Tim Berner Lee
C. Charles Babbage
D. Steve Jobs Answer: Option C
22. Which among following is commonly used language in Android applications?
A. C
B. Php
C. C++
D. Java Answer: Option D
23. Where are saved files stored in computer?
A. RAM
B. Hard disk
C. Cache
D. Any of above Answer: Option B
24. Which among following is odd?
A. CD/DVD
B. Floopy Disks
C. SD Disk
D. BIOS Answer: Option D
25. Which operations are performed by RAM?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Read and Write
D. Depends on computer Answer: Option C
26. Which among following is secondary storage device?
A. Hard Disk
B. RAM
C. Diode
D. Semi Conductor Answer: Option A
27. USB is which type of storage device?
A. Primay
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of above Answer: Option C

28. Which program is run by BIOS to check hardware components are working properly while computer is
turned ON?
A. DMOS
B. POST (Power On Self Test)
C. CMOS
D. RIP Answer: Option B

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29. ROM is non volatile.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
ROM is non volatile means data will not be erased when computer is turned off.

30. Random Access Memory (RAM) is which storage of device?

A.
Primay
B.
Secondary
C.
Teriary
D.
Off line Answer: Option A
31. Random Access Memory (RAM) is non volatile in nature.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Random Access Memory (RAM) is volatile in nature.
32. What is full form CMOS?
A. Content Metal Oxide Semiconductor
B. Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
C. Complementary Metal Oxygen Semiconductor
D. Complementary Metal Oscilator Semiconductor Answer: Option B

33. Second generation of computers consist of which of following?

A.
Vaccum Tubes
B.
Diodes
C.
VLSI Microprocessor
D.
Transistors Answer: Option D
34. MPG is an file extension of which type of files?
A. Audio
B. Image
C. Video
D. Flash Answer: Option C
35. What is full form of SMPS?
A. Switch Mode Power Supply
B. Simple Mode Power Supply
C. Storage Mode Power Supply
D. Storage Mode Power Shortage Answer: Option A
36. Which component of computer is also considered as it Heart?
A. Monitor
B. Keyboard
C. Scanner
D. Microprocessor Answer: Option D
37. What is used to make computer chips?
A. Copper
B. Steel
C. Silicon
D. Iron Answer: Option C
38. Where BIOS is stored?
A. Hard Disk
B. RAM
C. Flash Memory Chip
D. Any of above Answer: Option C
Explanation:
BIOS is stored in Flash Memory Chip, which is located on the motherboard.

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39. What is full form of EXIF?
A. Exchangeable Image Fine Finish
B. Exchangeable Image File Format
C. Executable Image File Format
D. Executable Image File Finish Answer: Option B
40. BIOS is used for?
A. Updating system information on network
B. Loading operating system
C. It helps in routing
D. It take inputs from keywords and other devices Answer: Option B
41. 1 Mega Byte is equal to
A. 1024 Bytes
B. 1024 Kilo Bytes
C. 1024 Giga Bits
D. 1024 Bits Answer: Option B
42. An electronic path, that sends signals from one part of computer to another is?
A. Logic Gate
B. Modem
C. Bus
D. Serial Port Answer: Option C
43. Which is odd one?
A. Inkjet Printers
B. CRT
C. Laser Printers
D. Dot Matrix Printers Answer: Option B
44. Which device among following is used for sending digital data over a phone line?
A. USB
B. Scanner
C. Printer
D. Modem Answer: Option D
45. IP address version 4 is in which format?
A. 4 bit
B. 8 bit
C. 16 bit
D. 32 bit Answer: Option D
46. In banking, railways etc which computers are used?
A. Mini Computers
B. Micro Computers
C. Main Frames
D. Super Computers Answer: Option C
47. Which type of software is an operating system?
A. Utility Software
B. System Software
C. Application Software
D. Firmware Software Answer: Option B
48. Which type of switching is used in Internet?
A. Packet
B. Telephone
C. Circuit
D. Telex Answer: Option A
49. Microsoft office is type of?
A. System software
B. Application software
C. Utility Software
D. Firmware Answer: Option B

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50. Intersection of columns and rows is called A?
A.
Data
B.
Table
C.
Cell
D.
Schema Answer: Option C
51. A wireless technology built in electronic gadgets used for exchanging data over short distances is?
A. Bluetooth
B. Wifi
C. Modem
D. USB Answer: Option A
52. ARP stands for ?
A. Address Reverse Protocol
B. Address Resolution Protocol
C. Address Repersentative Protocol
D. Address Recording Protocol Answer: Option B
53. Which is responsible for communication between Memory and ALU ?
A. Keyboard
B. RAM
C. Control nit
D. USB Answer: Option C
54. If CPU executes multiple programs simultaneously, it will be known as ?
A. Multiprocessing
B. Multitasking
C. Timesharing
D. Multiprogramming Answer: Option B
55. Who invented C++ ?
A. Steve Jobs
B. James Gosling
C. Bjarne Stroustrup
D. Dennis Ritchie Answer: Option C
56. One byte is equal to how many bits?
A. 4 bits
B. 8 bits
C. 12 bits
D. 16 bits Answer: Option B
57. What is the meaning of OSI, in terms of Computers ?
A. Open Software Intrerelation
B. Open System Intrerelation
C. Open Software Interconnection
D. Open System Interconnection Answer: Option D
58. One nibble is equal to how many bits ?
A. 4 bits
B. 8 bits
C. 12 bits
D. 16 bits Answer: Option A
59. ULSI microprocessor is used in which generation of computers ?
A. Second generation
B. Third generation
C. Fourth generation
D. Fifth generation Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Full form of ULSI is Ultra Large Scale Integration.
60. Who invented keyboard?
A. James Gosling
B. Steve Jobs
C. Martin cooper
D. Christoper Latham Sholes Answer: Option D

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61. What is meaning of EEPROM ?
A. Electronically Erasable Programmable Read only Memory
B. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read only Memory
C. Electronically Erasable Programmable Reach only Memory
D. Electrically Erasable Pratical Reach only Memory Answer: Option B
62. What is meaning of OMR ?
A. Optical Mark Reader
B. Optical Message Reader
C. Optical Message Render
D. Optical Mark Render Answer: Option A
63. What can be considered as basic building blocks of a digital circuit ?
A. Logic Gate
B. Diode
C. Semi Conductor
D. CMOS Answer: Option A

64. Which function key is used to check spellings ?

A. F2
B. F5
C. F7
D. F11 Answer: Option C
65. Which type of storage device is a BIOS ?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Not a storage devic Answer: Option A
66. Which is a application software among following ?
A. Assembler
B. Complier
C. Operating System
D. Microsoft office Answer: Option D
67. In computer what converts AC to DC?
A. POST
B. Adapter
C. RAM
D. SMPS Answer: Option D

68. Which among following is responsible for specifying address of a memory location ?
A. RAM
B. Address Bus
C. Control Bus
D. Hard Disk Answer: Option B
69. Which among following is responsible for finding and loading operating system into RAM ?
A. Bootstrap Loader
B. CMOS
C. BIOS
D. DMOS Answer: Option A
70. By pressing which key we can move to beginning of a page ?
A. Window Key
B. Shift Key
C. Tab Key
D. Home Key Answer: Option D
71. What is full form of RAM ?
A. Read Access Memory
B. Read Alternative Memory
C. Random Access Memory
D. Random Alternative Memory Answer: Option C

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72. What is full form of TIFF ?
A. The Image File Format
B. Tagged Image File Format
C. Tagged Image File Front
D. The Image Fax Format Answer: Option B
73. Computer resolution measures ?
A. Size of screen
B. Shape of screen
C. Number of pixels
D. Number of colours it support Answer: Option C

74. Which are the main parts of central processing unit ?

A. Control unit and Arithmetic Logic Unit
B. SMTP and BIOS
C. USB ports
D. None of above Answer: Option A
75. From which year 5th generation of computers is considered ?
A. 1970
B. 1980
C. 1990
D. 2000 Answer: Option B
76. What is full form of CAM ?
A. Computer Aided Manufacturing
B. Computer And Manufacturing
C. Computer Aided Manifesto
D. Computer And Manifesto Answer: Option A

77. Which term is related to database ?

A. PHP
B. Java
C. Oracle
D. Assembly Answer: Option C
78. Which among following is engine of computer ?
A. Mouse
B. Scanner
C. Monitor
D. Processor Answer: Option D

79. Which language was used as first generation language ?

A. Machine language
B. Assembly language
C. Java
D. C Answer: Option A
80. Where is cahce memory is located ?
A. CPU
B. Monitor
C. Scanner
D. On file server Answer: Option A

81. Data stored in ROM is not permanent ?

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Data stored in ROM is permanent.
Note: Full form of ROM is Read Only Memory

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82. Which among following is odd one ?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Cache
D. Hard Disk Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Hard disk is secondary storage device, other are primary storage devices.
83. Which operating system is developed by Apple ?
A. Linux
B. Window
C. Mac OS
D. DOS Answer: Option C
84. Who invented Java ?
A. Deniss Ritche
B. James Gosling
C. Bajarnae
D. Linus Torvalds Answer: Option B
85. Who is known as father of Artificial Intelligence ?
A. John McCarthy
B. Vint Cerf
C. Dennis Ritchie
D. James Gosling Answer: Option A
86. What is full form of HTTP ?
A. Hyper Transfer Text Protocol
B. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
C. Hexagonal Text Transfer Protocol
D. Hexagonal Text Transfer Prototype Answer: Option B
87. Which among following is an image name extension ?
A. gif
B. docx
C. ppt
D. lib Answer: Option A
88. An Assembler is used to translate a program written in ?
A. Low-Level Language
B. Machine Language
C. Assembly Language
D. High-Level language Answer: Option C
89. Charles Babbage designed the first mechanical computer named
A. Analytical Engine
B. Processor
C. Comp Engine
D. Abacus Answer: Option A
90. What is the name of a device that converts digital signals to analog signals
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Modem
D. None of above Answer: Option C
91. Which is known as the most powerful type of computer
A. Super Computer
B. Iframes
C. Mega Frame
D. Super Access Answer: Option A
92. From the following which is known as the administrative section of the computer system ?
A. Control Unit
B. Input Unit
C. RAM
D. Central Processing Unit Answer: Option D

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93. What is kind of CD-ROM
A. Optical disk
B. Magnetic disk
C. Magneto-Optical disk
D. None of above Answer: Option B
94. C is what kind of language ?
A. An assembly language
B. A third generation high level language
C. A machine language
D. Future language Answer: Option B
95. Which of the following is a non-volatile memory ?
A. RAM
B. LSI
C. VLSI
D. ROM Answer: Option D
96. Which is following is not an operating System ?
A. Unix
B. Linux
C. Windows
D. Java Answer: Option D
Computer Basic Mcqs
Set No 2
1. Which among following is not an input device ?
A. Mouse
B. Scanner
C. Keyboard
D. Printer Answer: Option D
2. File Transfer Protocol allows us to transfer files from one computer to another on the internet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
3. Binary number system consists of ?
A. 0's and 1's only
B. All alphanumeric characters
C. Depends computer to computer
D. None of above Answer: Option A
4. Disk Operating System (DOS) was designed to work with which of the following input device ?
A. Mouse
B. Keyboard
C. Joy Stick
D. Xbox Answer: Option B
5. Which among following is not a logical gate ?
A. NOR
B. XOR
C. AND
D. NAT Answer: Option D
6. A switch in a network is used to ?
A. It is used to connect systems on network
B. It is used to stop hacking
C. It is used to stop viruses
D. It is used to boot systems remotely Answer: Option A
7. Which among following is odd one ?
A. Spyware
B. Malware
C. Virus
D. Hub Answer: Option D

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8. Word "INTERPRETER" is related to ?
A. Address resolution
B. IP address ranges
C. Programming Languages
D. None of above Answer: Option C
9. DPI means ?
A. Dots processing Inch
B. Dots per Inch
C. Diagram per Inch
D. Diagram processing Inch Answer: Option B
10. Firewall is ?
A. a hardware
B. a software
C. can be a hardware as well as software
D. can neither be a hardware nor a software Answer: Option C
11. Which among following is not necessary for working of a standalone computer ?
A. RAM
B. Hard Drive
C. Operating System
D. LAN card Answer: Option D
12 . What is full form of MBR ?
A. Mini Boot Record
B. Master Break Record
C. Master Boot Race
D. Master Boot Record Answer: Option D

13. Which among following is linux operating system ?

A. Fedora
B. Mint
C. Red Hat
D. All of above Answer: Option D
14. What is algorithm ?
A. Application code
B. Type of programming language
C. Step by step procedure for calculations
D. None of above Answer: Option C
15. Which language is related to database ?
A. Perl
B. Java
C. Php
D. Sql (structured query language) Answer: Option D
16. Which is a type of ROM
A. PROM
B. EPROM
C. EEPROM
D. All of above Answer: Option D

17. Which kind of files have .mpg extension ?

A. Audio
B. Image
C. Video
D. Flash Answer: Option C
18. A computer must have ?
A. Microsoft office
B. Operating System
C. Internet connectivity
D. An antivirus Answer: Option B

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19. Redhat Liux is ?
A.
An operating system
B.
A firewall software
C.
An antivirus
D.
A inventory management software Answer: Option A
20. Which among following is not a programming language ?
A. Php
B. Java
C. IEEE
D. Perl Answer: Option C
21. Compiler is related to ?
A. DOS
B. Programming Language
C. Databse
D. Internet Answer: Option B
22. DNS is the abbreviation of ?
A. Domain Network Service
B. Dynamic Network System
C. Domain Name System
D. Domain Name Service Answer: Option C
23. Who invented Java language ?
A. James Gosling
B. Deniss Ritche
C. Grace Hopper
D. John Backus Answer: Option A
24. What is motherboard ?
A. Scanner and other things are part of motherboard
B. Keyboard otherwise known as motherboard
C. A circuit board which connects all the elements
D. It is a type of file server Answer: Option C
25. Which among following is odd one ?
A. RAM
B. Cache
C. Frisk Drives
D. Hard Disk Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Hard disk is odd one because it stores files permanently, while other store it permanently.

26. Which is not a network topology ?

A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Car
D. Star Answer: Option C
27. Which among following is the lowest form of Computer Language ?
A. Assembly Language
B. Machine Language
C. COBOL
D. Perl Answer: Option B
28. Who is the founder of Apple Computers ?
A. Bill Gates
B. Steve Jobs
C. John McCarthy
D. Stephane Lyndse Answer: Option B
29. Interpreter translate program line by line.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A

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30. Which among following is responsible for "Traffic Directing" ?
A.
Switch
B.
Hub
C.
Router
D.
Bridge Answer: Option C
31. Which among following is not a browser ?
A. Opera
B. Chrome
C. Firefox
D. Casio Answer: Option D
32. Which among following is considered a volatile memory ?
A. ROM
B. RAM
C. Hard Disk
D. CD-ROM Answer: Option B
33. Find odd one ?
A. Virus
B. Bug
C. Worm
D. Trojan Answer: Option B
34. LAN stands for ?
A. Local Area Network
B. Land Area Network
C. Least Area Network
D. Leave All Network Answer: Option A
35. SQL is related with ?
A. Database
B. Photoshop
C. LAN
D. WAN Answer: Option A
36. Who invented Linux operating system ?
A. Deniss Ritche
B. Linus Torvalds
C. Steve Jobs
D. Madam Curie Answer: Option B
37. Which among following is not a type of printer ?
A. Inkjet
B. Dot Matrix
C. Rubber Wheel
D. Laser Answer: Option C
38. What is the smallest addressable element of a display device ?
A. Root
B. Shell
C. Pixel
D. Dot Answer: Option C
39. Which is odd one ?
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Packet Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Except the packet all other are networking devices.
40. What is full form of USB ?
A. Unidirectional Serial Bus
B. Universal Serial Bus
C. Unidirectional Standard Bus
D. Universal Standard Bus Answer: Option B

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41. Which among following organization is concerned with databases ?
A. Oracle
B. Asus
C. Intel
D. Motorola Answer: Option A
42. Mouse is an?
A. Input device
B. Output device
C. A+B
D. None All above Answer: Option A
43. What is full form of ANSI ?
A. American National Standards Institute
B. Asia National Standards Institute
C. American National School Institute
D. Asia National School Institute Answer: Option A
44. LAN card is also known as ?
A. Modem
B. NIC
C. Hub
D. Switch Answer: Option B
45. Firmware is stored in ?
A. RAM
B. Cache
C. ROM
D. Hard Disk Answer: Option C
46. Computer security can be increased by using ?
A. Firewall
B. Antivirus
C. Password
D. All of above Answer: Option D
47. When a document is opened in computer it is temporarily stored in ?
A. Hard Disk
B. RAM
C. ROM
D. All of above Answer: Option B

48. Set of instructions which instructs computer to perform certain task is called ?
A. Debugger
B. Assembler
C. Program
D. Flowchart Answer: Option C
49. What is the meaning of FTP ?
A. File Training Protocol
B. File Transfer Protocol
C. File Transit Protocol
D. File Tracking Protocol Answer: Option B
50. Which among following is considered as fastest memory ?
A. External Hard Disk
B. Cache
C. RAM
D. ROM Answer: Option B

51. Which of following is not malicious ?

A. Worm
B. Trogan Horse
C. Driver
D. Virus Answer: Option C

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52. Which is the extension of a batch file ?
A..bat
B..exe
C..bth
D..batch Answer: Option A
53. By which key you can capture screen of current desktop ?
A. Scrlk
B. PrtScr
C. Break
D. SysRq Answer: Option B
54. Which among following is smallest ?
A. Gigabyte
B. TeraByte
C. Megabyte
D. Kilobyte Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Order of the options given above is. Kilobyte < Megabyte < Gigabyte < Terabyte
55. Which of following alphabet cannot be part of a hexadecimal digit ?
A. A
B. L
C. F
D. E Answer: Option B
Explanation:
In hexadecimal number system we can use alphabets from A to F, i.e. A,B,C,D,E,F
56. Which of following is used to create table ?
A. DML (Data Manipulation Language)
B. DDL (Data Definition Language)
C. DCL (Data Control Language)
D. QCL Answer: Option B
57. What is maximum digit we can use in octal system ?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8 Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Octal system uses 8 digits from 0 to 7.
58. What is access time ?
A. Time required to locate and retrieve stored data
B. Time required to restore data
C. Time required to copy and paste data
D. None of above Answer: Option A
59. In database table, what column represents ?
A. Attributes
B. Index
C. Entity
D. Relation Answer: Option A

60. In which mode of transmission both communicating devices to transmit and receive data simultaneously?
A. Simplex
B. Half Duplex
C. Full Duplex
D. None of above Answer: Option C
61. Directory structure in windows is ?
A. Flat
B. Hierarchical
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option C

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62. Data integrity refers to ?
A. Centralization of Data
B. Security of Data
C. Duplication of Data
D. Accuracy of Data Answer: Option D
63. All memory units are expressed as powers of ?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20 Answer: Option A

64. Which type of software are device drivers

A. Application software
B. System software
C. Utility software
D. These are type of hardware Answer: Option B
65. Which of following allows two or more users to work on same time ?
A. Multiprocessing
B. Multithreading
C. Multiprocessing
D. Multicapable Answer: Option C

66. Which of following is not a valid bus in computer system ?

A. Data Bus
B. Memory Bus
C. Address Bus
D. System Bus Answer: Option B
67. Which is not a function of operating system ?
A. Process management
B. Memory Management
C. Internet Server management
D. File Management Answer: Option C
68. Which gate is also known inverter ?
A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. XOR Answer: Option C
69. Which is not true about Random Access Memory ?
A. Data can be read and written
B. Data can be accessed randomly
C. Data is retained as long as the computer is powered on
D. Data stays permanently written Answer: Option D
70. The set of wires, which carry information in a controlled manner, is known as ?
A. Public bus
B. System Bus
C. Control Bus
D. Private Bus Answer: Option B
71. What is unit of speed of Super Computer ?
A. KFLOPS
B. LFLOPS
C. MFLOPS
D. GFLOPS Answer: Option D
72. Which of the following software is interacts with the hardware ?
A. Application software
B. Utility program
C. System software
D. Interprator Answer: Option C

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73. Secondary memory is also known as ?
A. Second pass memory
B. Dynamic memory
C. Auxiliary memory
D. Temporary memory Answer: Option C
74. Mouse , trackball and joystick are the examples of ?
A. Scanning devices
B. Multimedia devices
C. Pointing devices
D. Storing devices Answer: Option C
75. Modem is used mostly for ?
A. Mostly for file system
B. A modern empty memory modules
C. Connecting to internet
D. None of above Answer: Option C
76. Which of these are internal parts of computer ?
A. Expansion Slots
B. Network card
C. Cooling Fan
D. All of above Answer: Option D
77. Which of following is not an application software ?
A. Photoshop
B. SAGE
C. Dreamwaever
D. Winrar Answer: Option D
78. Which among following is not a low level language ?
A. Machine Level Language
B. Assembly Language
C. COBOL
D. None of above Answer: Option C

79. Resolution of printer is measured in ?

A. Megabits
B. Inches
C. Hertz
D. DPI Answer: Option D
80. What is full form of VDU ?
A. Visible Display Unit
B. Visible Diode Unit
C. Visual Display Unit
D. Visual Diode Unit Answer: Option C
81. What is full form of IP ?
A. Interface Program
B. Internet Program
C. Internet Protocol
D. Interface Protocol Answer: Option C

82. Word length of a home computer is ?

A. 4 bits
B. 8 bits
C. 16 bits
D. 24 bits Answer: Option B
83. In which generation of computers microprocessor was introduced ?
A. First Generation
B. Second Generation
C. Third Generation
D. Fourth Generation Answer: Option D

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84. Which is responsible for performing modulation/demodulation ?
A. Fiber
B. Coaxial Cable
C. Router
D. Modem Answer: Option D
85. Direct Access Storage Device is also referred as ?
A. DAST
B. DISD
C. DASD
D. None of above Answer: Option C
86. What is meaning of LAT ?
A. Local Area Transport
B. Large Area Transport
C. Local Area Transmission
D. Large Area Transmission Answer: Option A
87. One million bytes of information are ?
A. 1 MB
B. 1 GB
C. 1 KB
D. None of above Answer: Option A
88. SNMP full form is ?
A. Single Network Management Protocol
B. Simple Network Mail Protocol
C. Simple Network Management Protocol
D. Simple Network Management Procedure Answer: Option C
89. SLIP stands for ?
A. Serial Line Internet Processing
B. Serial Line Internet Protocol
C. Serial Line Protocol
D. None of above Answer: Option C
90. BIND full form is ?
A. Berkely Internet Name Domain
B. Binary Internet Domain
C. Bonafied Internet Name Domain
D. None of above Answer: Option A
91. In current presentation which short cut key inserts a new slide ?
A. Ctrl+N
B. Ctrl+M
C. Ctrl+V
D. Ctrl+Y Answer: Option B
IMPORTANT ABBREVIATIONS COMPUTER
1. What is full form of BMP?
A. Byte map
B. Bit map
C. Byte map process
D. Bit map process Answer: Option B
2. What is meaning of FORTRAN?
A. Formula train
B. Formula translation
C. Formula train network
D. Formula translation network Answer: Option B
3. What is full form of ISDN ?
A. Integrated Services Digital Network
B. Integrated Services Double Network
C. Inter Services Digital Network
D. Integrated Server Digital Network Answer: Option A
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4. What is full form of PNG ?
A. Portable Natural Graphics
B. Portable Network Graph
C. Pretty Network Graphics
D. Portable Network Graphics Answer: Option D
5. What is full form of ROM ?
A. Read other memcache
B. Read only memory
C. Read other memory
D. Read only memcache Answer: Option B
6. What is full form of USB ?
A. Unicoded Smart Bus
B. Universal Smart Bus
C. Unicoded Serial Bus
D. Universal Serial Bus Answer: Option D
8. What is full form of CSS ?
A. Creative Style Shots
B. Creative Style Sheets
C. Cascading Style Sheets
D. Cascading Style Shots Answer: Option C

9. What is full form of PHP ?

A. Processor Hypertext Program
B. Hypertext Preprocessor
C. Pre Hypertext Processor
D. Pre Processor Hypertext Answer: Option B
10. What is the full form of IC ?
A. Interrelated Circuit
B. Integrated Conductor
C. Integrated Conductor
D. Integrated Circuit Answer: Option D
11. What is full form of PDF ?
A. Printed Document Format
B. Public Document Format
C. Portable Document Format
D. Published Document Format Answer: Option C
12. What is full form of CRT ?
A. Crystal Ray Tube
B. Cathode Ray Tube
C. Cabin Ray Tube
D. Carbon Ray Tube Answer: Option B
13. What is full form of SOAP ?
A. Small Object Access Procedure
B. Simple Object Access Protocol
C. Simple Object Access Procedure
D. Small Object Access Protocol Answer: Option B
14. What is full form of HTTP ?
A. High Text Transfer Protocol
B. Hyper Text Transfer Procedure
C. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
D. Hyper Typo Transfer Protocol Answer: Option C

15. What is full form of ISP ?

A. Internet Service Provider
B. Internet Speed Provider
C. Intranet Service Provider
D. Internet Service Proceeder Answer: Option A

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16. What is full form of HTML ?
A. Hyper Text Magic Line
B. Hyper Text Markup Line
C. Hyper Text Markup Language
D. High Text Markup Language Answer: Option C
17. What is full form of ISO ?
A. International Systems Organization
B. International Standard Ora
C. Indian Standard Organization
D. International Standard Organization Answer: Option D
18. What is full form of CD ?
A. Carried Disk
B. Compact Disk
C. Carried Data
D. Compact Data Answer: Option B
19. What is full form of VLSI ?
A. Very Low Scale Immunity
B. Very Low Scale Integrated
C. Very Large Scale Integrated
D. Very Large Scale Immunity Answer: Option C
20. What is full form of MAC ?
A. Mass Access Control
B. Media Access Control
C. Mass Access Carraige
D. Media Access Carraige Answer: Option B
21. What is full form of WWW ?
A. World Wide Web
B. World Whole Web
C. Web World Wide
D. Web World Whole Answer: Option A

22. What is full form of FTP ?

A. Free Transfer Process
B. File Training Protocol
C. File Transfer Protocol
D. Free Transport Protocol Answer: Option C

23. What is full form of Wi-Fi ?

A. Wireless Fidelity
B. Wired Fidelity
C. Wireless Focus
D. Wired Focus Answer: Option A
24. What is full form of IP ?
A. Intranet Process
B. Internet Process
C. Intranet Protocol
D. Internet Protocol Answer: Option D
25. What is meaning of docx
A. Document copied and xeroxed
B. Document extended
C. Draft extended
D. Draft copied and Xeroxed Answer: Option B
26. What is full form of ASP ?
A. Active Service Process
B. Active Service Pages
C. Active Server Pages
D. None of above Answer: Option C

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27. What is full form of RTC ?
A. Real time clock
B. Real time check
C. Related to check
D. Related to clock Answer: Option A
28. What is full form of UDP ?
A. User Data Process
B. User Data Protocol
C. User Datagram Process
D. User Datagram Protocol Answer: Option D
29. What is full form of TCP ?
A. Transmission Centric Protocol
B. Transfer Control Protocol
C. Transmission Control Protocol
D. Transmission Control Process Answer: Option C
30. What is full form of SQL ?
A. Straight Query Langauge
B. Structured Query Langauge
C. Structured Query Laison
D. Structured Query Linear Answer: Option B
31. What is full form of WMV ?
A. Window Media Video
B. Write Media Video
C. Write Many Video
D. Write Media Visual Answer: Option A
32. What is full form of XML ?
A. Extensible Meria Letters
B. Extensible Media Language
C. Xtensible Markup Language
D. Extensible Markup Language Answer: Option D
33. What is full form ANSI ?
A. American Nation Standard Instruction Codes
B. American National Standards Institute
C. Asian National Standard Instruction Codes
D. Asian Nations Standard Instruction Codes Answer: Option B

34. What is full form of ARP ?

A. Address resolution protocol
B. Allied resolution protocol
C. Address resolution process
D. Address rectification protocol Answer: Option A
35. What is full form of ASCII ?
A. American Standard Code for Inked Information
B. American Standard Code for Information Inked
C. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
D. Asian Standard Code for Information Interchange Answer: Option C

36. What is full form of BASIC ?

A. Basic All Purpose Symbolic Instruction Codes
B. Beginners All Purpose Symbolic Instruction Codes
C. Beginners All Purpose Symbolic Intelligent Codes
D. Beginners Anti Purpose Symbolic Instruction Codes Answer: Option B
37. What is full form of BPS ?
A. Bytes Per Second
B. Bits Per Second
C. Bytes Pro Second
D. Bits Per Secure Answer: Option B

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38. What is full form of COMPUTER ?
A. Competent Operated Machine Particularly Used for Technical Education and Research
B. Commonly Operated Machine Particularly Used for Technical Education and Research
C. Commonly Operated Machine Particularly Used for Trade Education and Research
D. Commonly Operated Machine Particularly Used for Technical Electron and Research
Answer: Option B
39. What is full form of DARPA ?
A. Digital Advance Research Project Agency
B. Digital Arithmetic Research Project Agency
C. Defense Advance Research Project Agent
D. Defense Advance Research Project Agency Answer: Option D
40. What is full form of DRAM ?
A. Duo Random Access Memory
B. Dynamic Random Access Memory
C. Different Random Access Memory
D. Defacto Random Access Memory Answer: Option B
41. What is full form of DSU ?
A. Digital Service Unit
B. Digital Security Unit
C. Digital Service Union
D. Digital Service Uno Answer: Option A
42. What is full form of FM ?
A. Frequent Modulation
B. Frequency Modulation
C. Frequency Method
D. Frequency Molecules Answer: Option B
43. What is full form of FAT ?
A. Frequent Allocation Table
B. File Allocated Table
C. File Allocation Table
D. File Allocation Theory Answer: Option C
44. What is full form of ISDN ?
A. Integrated Service Digital Network
B. Intelligent Service Digital Network
C. Integrated Service Double Network
D. Integrated Secure Digital Network Answer: Option A

45. What is full form of JPEG ?

A. Joint Photo Electronic Group
B. Joint Picture Electronic Group
C. Joint Photo Expert Group
D. Joint Picture Expert Group Answer: Option C
46. What is full form of MODEM ?
A. Modulation And Demodulation
B. Modulator And Demodulator
C. Modulator And Electronic Demodulator
D. Modulator Or Digital Electronic Demodulator Answer: Option B
47. What is full form NOS ?
A. New Operating System
B. Network Operating Source
C. Network Operating System
D. Network Original System Answer: Option C
48. What is full form of OMR ?
A. Optical Mark Registers
B. Optical Mark Recognition
C. Optical Meter Recognition
D. Oral Mark Recognition Answer: Option B

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49. What is full form of PSTN ?
A. Process Switched Telephone Network
B. Public Switched True Network
C. Public Serial Telephone Network
D. Public Switched Telephone Network Answer: Option D
50. What is full form of SMTP ?
A. Simple Mail Transmit Protocol
B. Smart Mail Transfer Protocol
C. Smart Mailbox Transfer Protocol
D. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol Answer: Option D
51. What is full form of STP ?
A. Serial Twisted Pair
B. Shielded Twisted Pair
C. Shielded Three Pair
D. Serail Three Pair Answer: Option B
52. What is full form of URL ?
A. Uniform Resource Location
B. Uniform Resource Locator
C. Universal Resource Locator
D. Uniform Retention Locator Answer: Option B
53. What us full form of GOOGLE ?
A. Global Orient Of Oriented Group Language Of Earth
B. Global Organization Of Oriented Group Language Of Earth
C. Global Orient Of Oriented Group Language Of Earth
D. Global Oriented Of Organization Group Language Of Earth
Answer: Option B
54. What is full form of YAHOO ?
A. Yet Another Hierarchical Officio Oracular
B. Yahoo Another Hierarchical Officious Oracle
C. Yet Another Hierarchical Officious Oracular
D. Yet Another Hierarchical Officious Oracle Answer: Option D
55. What is full form of VIRUS ?
A. Vitalise Information Resources Under Siege
B. Vital Informational Resources Under Siege
C. Vital Information Resources Under Siege
D. Vital Information Resources Undead Siege Answer: Option C
56. What is full form of OLED ?
A. Organic Light Emitted Diode
B. Organic Light Emitting Diode
C. Organ Light Emitting Diode
D. Organicism Light Emitting Diode Answer: Option B
57. What is full form of IMEI ?
A. International Mobile Equipment Information
B. International Mobile Equipment Identity
C. International Mobile Educational Identity
D. International Machine Equipment Identity Answer: Option B

58. What is full form of ESN ?

A. Electronic System Number
B. Electronic Serial Number
C. Electronic Serial Network
D. Equipment Serial Number Answer: Option B
59. What is full form of AMOLED ?
A. Active-maths organization light – emitting diode
B. Active-matrix organic light – emitting dide
C. Active-matrix organization light – emitting diode
D. Active-matrix organic light – emitting diode Answer: Option D

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60. What is full form of WINDOW ?
A. Wide interactive Network Development for Office work solution
B. World interactive Network Development for Office work solution
C. Wide internet Network Development for Office work solution
D. Wide interact Network Development for Office work solution
Answer: Option A

Important File Extensions

1. What is meaning of .mng?
A. Multiple Nano Graphic
B. Multiple Network Graphic
C. Many Network Graphic
D. Multiple New Graphic Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Multiple Network Graphics is a public graphics file format for animated images.

2. What is extension of Microsoft Word Document ?

A. .dcc
B. .doc
C. .xls
D. .ppt Answer: Option B
3. What is meaning of .rtf file ?
A. Red Text Format
B. Rich Text Format
C. Rich Text File
D. Red Text File Answer: Option B
4. What is extension of plain text file ?
A. .text
B. .tt
C. .txt
D. .tx Answer: Option C
5. What is meaning of .wpd file ?
A. Word Perfect Document
B. Word Passage Document
C. Word Perfect Documentary
D. Word Priority Document Answer: Option A
6. .sav extension is of saved games ?
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A
7. What is extension of Yahoo Messenger data file ?
A. .ymd
B. .ypp
C. .yahoo
D. .yps Answer: Option D
8. What is extension of Bit Torrent File ?
A. .bit
B. .torrent
C. .bitorrent
D. .bittorrent Answer: Option B

9. What is extension of Temporary File ?

A. .tpf
B. .tp
C. .tmp
D. .temp Answer: Option C

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10. What is extension of Disc Image File ?
A. .dsk
B. .osdsk
C. .os
D. .iso Answer: Option D
11. What is extension of Toast Disc Image ?
A. .toast
B. .iso
C. .tso
D. .tiso Answer: Option A
12. Which type file is with extension .vb ?
A. Javascript file
B. Php file
C. VBScript File
D. Window Script File Answer: Option C
13. What is the extension of font file ?
A. .fnt
B. .font
C. .fnf
D. .ff Answer: Option A
14. What is extension of OpenType Font file ?
A. .ot
B. .otfl
C. .otf
D. .otfv Answer: Option C

15. What is extension Hypertext Preprocessor File ?

A. .hpf
B. .ppp
C. .pph
D. .php Answer: Option D
16. .jsp is extension of ?
A. java service page
B. java server page
C. java sequal page
D. java social page Answer: Option B
17. What is extension of zipped file ?
A. .zippo
B. .zip
C. .zi
D. .jip Answer: Option B
18. What is file extension of Perl Script ?
A. .perl
B. .ps
C. .pls
D. .pl Answer: Option D

19. What is file extension of C++ source code file ?

A. .cp
B. .cplus
C. .cpp
D. .ccp Answer: Option C
20. What is file extension of Window Installer Package ?
A. .mip
B. .wip
C. .wi
D. .msi Answer: Option D

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21. What is .aif file extension stands for ?
A.
Audio Interchange Filter File
B.
Audio Interchange File Filter
C.
Audio Intra File Format
D.
Audio Interchange File Format Answer: Option D
22. What is full form of PNG file ?
A. Printable Network Graphic File
B. Portable Network Graphic File
C. Pointable Network Graphic File
D. Portable Natural Graphic File Answer: Option B
23. What is extension of database file ?
A. .db
B. .dta
C. .data
D. .dt Answer: Option A
Explanation:
.db extension of database file.

24. What is extension of comma separated value file ?

A. .cf
B. .ccf
C. .csv
D. .cs Answer: Option C
25. .dat is extension of data file.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A
26. What is full form of DLL file ?
A. Dictionary Link Library
B. Dual Link Library
C. Dynamic Load Library
D. Dynamic Link Library Answer: Option D
27. What is extension of powerpoint presentation of file ?
A. .pp
B. .pps
C. .msp
D. .ppt Answer: Option D

28. BMP extension is of which file ?

A. Bitmap Image File
B. Rich text file
C. Data File
D. Master File Answer: Option A
29. What is extension of Java source code file ?
A. .j
B. .jav
C. .java
D. .jvp Answer: Option C
30. .sea is extension of which file ?
A. Self Extracting Automative File
B. Self Extracting Archive
C. Solo Extracting Archive
D. Self Executable Archive Answer: Option B
31. What is extension of Macbinary II Encoded File ?
A. .bin
B. .bn
C. .bun
D. .bbn Answer: Option A

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32. What is extension of Uuencoded File ?
A.
.ue
B.
.u
C.
.ee
D.
.uue Answer: Option D
33. .gho is extension of which type of file ?
A. Perl File
B. Any Antivirus Files
C. Norton Ghost Backup File
D. Avira Backup File Answer: Option C
34. What is extension of Microsoft Access Database ?
A. .mad.
B. .mac
C. .mdb
D. .md Answer: Option C
35. What is extension of PowerPoint Slide Show ?
A. .ppt
B. .pps
C. .pp
D. .ps Answer: Option B
36. What is extension of Microsoft Excel Spreadsheet ?
A. .xls
B. .wks
C. .xl
D. .ls Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Note: .wks is extension Microsoft Works Spreadsheet

37. .pct is extension of ?

A. PostScript File
B. Drawing File
C. XML File
D. Picture File Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Extension of PostScript File is .ps,. Extension of Drawing File is .drw,.. Extension of XML File is .xml
38. What is full form of PDF ?
A. Partial Data File
B. Portable Data Format
C. Portable Document Format
D. Portable Document File Answer: Option C
39. What is extension of Structured Query Language Data File ?
A. .sq
B. .db
C. .dbs
D. .sql Answer: Option D
40. What is full form of "GIF" ?
A. Graphics Interchange Format
B. Graphical Interchange File
C. Graphical Inter Format
D. Graphical Interchange Format Answer: Option D
41. What is full form of PSD ?
A. Parallel Data
B. Photoshop Documentary
C. Photoshop Document
D. Pheno Document Answer: Option C
Explanation:
.psd extension is photoshop document.

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42. What is extension of Gnu zipped file ?
A. .gs
B. .gl
C. .gn
D. .gz Answer: Option D
43. What is extension of Debian Software Package ?
A. .dp
B. .deb
C. .dev
D. .dsp Answer: Option B
44. What is extension of Window script file ?
A. .ws
B. .wt
C. .wsf
D. .wf Answer: Option A
45. What is extension of DOS Command file ?
A. .com
B. .dos
C. .dcm
D. .dds Answer: Option A
46. What is extension of Scalable Vector Graphics File ?
A. .svg
B. .sva
C. .sg
D. .sgf Answer: Option A
47. What is extension of real audio file ?
A. .rf
B. .ra
C. .rt
D. .rtf Answer: Option B

48. .qt is extension of ?

A. Apple Game File
B. Apple Track File
C. Apple QuickTime Movie
D. Apple Backup File Answer: Option C
49. .bat is extension of ?
A. DOS Data File
B. DOS Backup File
C. DOS Command File
D. DOS Batch File Answer: Option D
50. What is extension of Common Gateway Interface Script ?
A. .cg
B. .cgi
C. .cgt
D. .cgl Answer: Option B

51. What is extension of Windows Initialization File ?

A. .inid
B. .ini
C. .init
D. .initial Answer: Option B
52. Which among following is extension of a Configuration File ?
A. .con
B. .cfg
C. .cgi
D. .clt Answer: Option B

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53. What is extension of Window System File ?
A. .sys
B. .system
C. .stm
D. .syt Answer: Option A
54. What is extension of Windows Memory Dump File?
A. .dmf
B. .dmv
C. .dm.
D. .dmp Answer: Option D
55. What is extension of Windows Cabinet File ?
A. .ca
B. .cab
C. .cat
D. .cabi Answer: Option B
56. .xll is extension of ?
A. Excel Backup File
B. Excel CSV File
C. Excel Work File
D. Excel Add-In File Answer: Option D
57. What is extension of Macromedia Flash Movie ?
A. .swt
B. .swf
C. .sw
D. .flash Answer: Option B
58. What is extension of Windows Media Video File ?
A. .video
B. .mv
C. .wmv
D. .wm Answer: Option C
59. .css is extension of ?
A. Crawler Style Sheet
B. Catalouge Style Sheet
C. Cascading Style Sheet
D. Cascading Style Sphere Answer: Option C

60. .8bi is extension of ?

A. Photoshop Plug-in
B. Photoshop Edited Image
C. Photoshop Document
D. Photoshop Layer File Answer: Option A
61. Which of following is corrected extension of a database file ?
A. .dta
B. .data
C. .db
D. .dca Answer: Option C

Computer System Architecture

1. Which among following can be considered as most advanced ROM ?
A. DRAM
B. EEPROM
C. RAM
D. PROM Answer: Option B
Explanation:
EEPROM means Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory.

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2. One byte equals to how many bits ?
A. 4 bits
B. 8 bits
C. 12 bits
D. 16 bits Answer: Option B
3. Which among following is Volatile ?
A. ROM
B. EPROM
C. DROM
D. RAM Answer: Option D
4. Where the result of an arithmetic and logical operation are stored ?
A. In Accumulator
B. In Cache Memory
C. In ROM
D. In Instruction Registry Answer: Option A

5. Why we need to have secondary storage ?

A.
Store large volume of data that exceed the capacity of main memory
B.
Perform arithmatic and logical operations
C.
To give power to the system too
D.
To help processor in processing Answer: Option A
6. Which determines the address of I/O interface ?
A. Register select
B. Chip select
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option C
7. An exception condition in a computer system caused by an event external to the CPU is known as ?
A. Halt
B. Process
C. Interrupt
D. None of above Answer: Option C
Explanation:
In my own experience I found very few questions with answer "None of above", if you do not know the answer then its
always better to guess among other (If there is no negative marking) ;)

8. Whenever CPU detects an interrupt, what it do with current state ?

A. Save it
B. Discard it
C. Depends system to system
D. First finish it Answer: Option A
9. I/O processor has direct access to ?
A. Main Memory
B. Secondary Memory
C. Flash Memory
D. ROM Answer: Option A
10. The address mapping is done, when the program is initially loaded is called ?
A. Relocation
B. Dynamic relocation
C. Static relocation
D. Executable relocation Answer: Option C
11. The unit which decodes and translates each instruction and generates the necessary enable signals for
ALU and other units is called
A. ALU
B. Control Unit
C. CPU
D. Logical Unit Answer: Option B

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12. A microprogram is sequencer perform the operation ?
A.
Read
B.
Write
C.
Read and Write
D.
Read and Execute Answer: Option D
13. Which among following is an important data transfer technique ?
A. CAD
B. CAM
C. DMA
D. MMA Answer: Option C
Explanation:
DMA is Direct Memory Access.
14. RISC stands for ?
A. Risk Instruction Source Computer
B. Reduced Instruction Set Computer
C. Risk Instruction Set Computer
D. Risk Instruction Set Computing Answer: Option B
15. The performance of the cache memory is measured in terms of ?
A. Hit Ratio
B. Chat Ratio
C. Copy Ratio
D. Data Ratio Answer: Option A
16. A set of physical addresses is also known as ?
A. Disk Space
B. Address Space
C. Memory Space
D. Locations Answer: Option C
17. Which devices among following are usually designed on the complex electromechanical principle ?
A. Printing devices
B. Input devices
C. Storage devices
D. Peripheral devices Answer: Option B
18. ______ read the data by reflecting pulses of laser beams on the surface ?
A. Magnetic disk
B. Optical disk
C. Floppy disk
D. ROM Answer: Option B
19. If CPU and I/O interface share a common bus than transfer of data between two units is known as ?
A. Asynchronous
B. Clock dependent
C. Synchronous
D. Decoder independent Answer: Option C
20. All the operations in a digital system are synchronized by a clock that is generated by ?
A. Clock
B. Clock generator
C. Pulse
D. Pulse generator Answer: Option D
21. Asynchronous means ?
A. Not in step with the elapse of time
B. Not in step with the elapse of address
C. Not in step with the elapse of data
D. Not in step with the elapse of control Answer: Option A
22. ________ is a single control line that informs destination unit that a valid is available on the bus ?
A. Ping
B. Token
C. Handshake
D. Strobe Answer: Option D

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23. Which technique has one or more control signal for acknowledgement that is used for intimation ?
A.
Ftp
B.
Ping
C.
Strobe
D.
Handshaking Answer: Option D
24. A keyboard has which type of asynchronous transfer mode ?
A. Serial
B. Parralel
C. Optimal
D. Joint Answer: Option A
Explanation:
In serial transfer each bit is sent one after the another in a sequence of event and requires just one line.

25. Which technique helps processor to run a program concurrently with input output operations ?
A. IOP
B. DMA
C. Interrupt driven I/O
D. DCA Answer: Option C
26. Which exception is also known software interrupt ?
A. Trap
B. Call
C. System Call
D. All of above Answer: Option C

27. User programs interact with I/O devices through ?

A. Operating System
B. Hardware
C. Buses
D. Processor Answer: Option A
28. Which table handle store address of interrupt handling subroutine ?
A. Vector table
B. Symbol link table
C. Interrupt vector table
D. None of aboveq Answer: Option C

29. Which interrupt establishes a priority over the various sources to determine which request should be
entertained first ?
A. Polling
B. Daisy chaining
C. Priority interrupt
D. All of above Answer: Option C
30. Which technique is used that identifies the highest priority resource by means of software ?
A. Daisy chaining
B. Polling
C. Priority
D. Chaining Answer: Option B
31. Which method is used to establish priority by serially connecting all devices that request an interrupt?
A. Interrupt
B. Polling
C. Priority
D. Daisy chaining Answer: Option D

32. What is meaning of "VAD" ?

A. Velocity Address
B. Viscous Address
C. Vector Address
D. Volatile Address Answer: Option C

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33. What is meaning of DMAC ?
A.
Dual memory access controller
B.
Direct memory access controller
C.
Direct memory access computer
D.
Direct memory accumulator controller Answer: Option B
34. What is meaning of IOP ?
A. Input output processor
B. Input output product
C. Input output producer
D. Input output processing Answer: Option A
35. Which refers the execution of various software process concurrently ?
A. IOP
B. DCP
C. Multiprocessor
D. Serial Communication Answer: Option C
36. Which is used for this and known as high speed buffer exist with almost each process ?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Cache
D. RAM Answer: Option C
37. In which condition only one process holds a resource at a given time ?
A. Circular queue
B. Hold and Wait
C. Mutual exclusion
D. Non preemption Answer: Option C
38. In which condition one process holds the allocated resources and other waits for it ?
A. Non preemption
B. Mutual exclusion
C. Hold and wait
D. All of above Answer: Option C
39. What is meaning of PCB ?
A. Process control block
B. Preempitive control block
C. Process close block
D. Process carrying block Answer: Option A
40. Arithmetic instruction are used to perform operation on ?
A. Non Numerical data
B. Numerical data
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option B
41. What Mnemonic represents ?
A. Strings
B. Physical Address
C. Operation Address
D. Operation codes Answer: Option D
42. What is full form of LED ?
A. Low Emitting Diode
B. Light Emitting Diode
C. Light Emitting Data
D. Light Encounter Diode Answer: Option B
Explanation:
In optical mouse we use pair of LED.
43. Multiprocessor uses large caches but limited process that shares ___?
A. Control Bus
B. Memory Bus
C. Multiple memory bus
D. Single memory bus Answer: Option D

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44. Intercrosses arbitration system for multiprocessor shares a __?
A. Control Bus
B. Domain Bus
C. Primary Bus
D. Common Bus Answer: Option D
45. What is full form of LSD ?
A. Less significant data
B. Less significant digit
C. Least significant data
D. Least significant digit Answer: Option D
46. Which system was used extensively by early mini computers ?
A. Binary number
B. Decimal number
C. Hexadecimal number
D. Octal number Answer: Option D
47. Three bit binary numbers can be represented by ?
A. Binary number
B. Decimal number
C. Hexadecimal number
D. Octal number Answer: Option D
48. Which operation with floating point numbers are more complicated then arithmetic operation with fixed point
number?
A. Logical operation
B. Arithmetic operation
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option B
49. In stack organization the insertion operation is known as ?
A. Pop
B. Push
C. Down
D. Upper Answer: Option B
50. EA stands for ?
A. Effective address
B. Effective absolute
C. Effective add
D. End address Answer: Option A
51. The operating mode of I/O devices is __ for different devices ?
A. Same
B. Different
C. Optimum
D. Medium Answer: Option B

52. ____ processor has to check continuously till device becomes ready for transferring the data ?
A. DMA
B. Interrupt-initiated I/O
C. IOP
D. DCP Answer: Option B
53. Instruction that are used for reading from memory by an IOP called ?
A. Commands
B. Pulses
C. Blocks
D. Interrupt Answer: Option A
54. Which memory is assembled between main memory and CPU ?
A. Primary Memory
B. Secondary Memory
C. Registers
D. Cache Memory Answer: Option D

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55. A number system that uses only two digits, 0 and 1 is known as ?
A. Octal number system
B. Hexadecimal system
C. Binary system
D. Decimal system Answer: Option C
56. Which system has a base or radix of 10?
A. Binary
B. Octal
C. Hexadecimal
D. Decimal Answer: Option D
57. An instruction code must specify the address of the ?
A. Operand
B. Opecode
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option A
58. UMA stands for ?
A. Unit memory access
B. Uniform memory access
C. Unit memory array
D. Unit metadata access Answer: Option B
59. Which types of register holds a single vector containing at least two read ports and one write ports ?
A. Data system
B. Vector register
C. Database
D. Memory Answer: Option B
60. Which register is memory pointer ?
A. Source index
B. Instruction register
C. Stack pointer
D. Program counter Answer: Option D
61. In which of the following status flags required for data transfer are present ?
A. Interface Circuit
B. Parallel Line
C. Device Circuit
D. None of Above Answer: Option A

MS OFFICE
1. Which is not a font style ?
A. Bold
B. Superscript
C. Italic
D. Regular Answer: Option B

2. What is gutter margin ?

A. Margin that is added to right margin when printing
B. Margin that is added to the left margin when printing
C. Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing
D. Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing
Answer: Option D
3. Landscape is ?
A. A font style
B. Paper Size
C. Page Layout
D. Page Orientation Answer: Option D

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4. Typeface option will come under which menu ?
A. Edit
B. View
C. Format
D. Tools Answer: Option C
5. Background color on a document is not visible in ?
A. Web layout view
B. Print Preview
C. Reading View
D. Print Layout view Answer: Option B
6. What is a portion of a document in which you set certain page formatting options ?
A. Page Setup
B. Section
C. Page
D. Document Answer: Option B
7. Which of the following is not available on the Ruler of MS Word screen ?
A. Tab stop box
B. Left Indent
C. Right Indent
D. Center Indent Answer: Option D
8. Gutter position can be set in following positions
A. Left & Right
B. Left & Top
C. Left & Bottom
D. Left Only Answer: Option B
9. What is the Short cut key for line break?
A. CTRL + Enter
B. Alt + Enter
C. Shift + Enter
D. Space + Enter Answer: Option C
10. By pressing F12, which of following will happen ?
A. Save As dialog box will open
B. Save dialog box will open
C. Open dialog box will open
D. Close dialog box will open Answer: Option A

11. Which key will open an Open dialogue box ?

A. F12
B. Alt + F12
C. Ctrl + F12
D. Shift + F12 Answer: Option C
12. How will MS Word will respond in repeated word ?
A. A Green wavy line under the repeated word
B. A Red wavy line under the repeated word
C. A Blue wavy line under the repeated word
D. None of above Answer: Option B
13. What is the use of "All Caps" feature in MS-Word ?
A. It changes all selected text into Capital Letter
B. It adds captions for selected Image
C. It shows all the image captions
D. None of above Answer: Option A

14. Which file is responsible to start MS Word ?

A. Winword.exe
B. Win.exe
C. Word.exe
D. Wordwin.exe Answer: Option A

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15. To keep track of different editions of a document which feature we will use ?
A. editions
B. versions
C. tracks
D. traces Answer: Option B
16. Which is not a type of margin ?
A. Top
B. Left
C. Right
D. Center Answer: Option D
17. What will be the use of Ctrl + J ?
A. Insert Image
B. Insert Hyperlink
C. Align Justify
D. Search file Answer: Option C
18. What shortcut will we use to align centre ?
A. Ctrl + A
B. Ctrl + E
C. Ctrl + D
D. Ctrl + B Answer: Option B
19. Which shortcut will we use to make text Italic ?
A. Ctrl + U
B. Ctrl + T
C. Ctrl + I
D. Ctrl + P Answer: Option C
20. How to use Format Painter multiple times ?
A. By Click on Lock Format Painter Icon
B. Format Painter cannot be use multiple times
C. By Double Click on the Format Painter Icon
D. None of above Answer: Option C
21. What is place to the left of horizontal scroll bar ?
A. Indicators
B. Split buttons
C. Tab stop buttons
D. View buttons Answer: Option D
22. Where can you find the horizontal split bar on MS Word screen ?
A. On the top of vertical scroll bar
B. On the bottom of vertical scroll bar
C. On the left of horizontal scroll bar
D. On the right of horizontal scroll bar Answer: Option A

23. Tabs stop position cannot be the following alignment ?

A. Decimal Alignment
B. Center Alignment
C. Bar Alignment
D. Justify Alignment Answer: Option D
24. What is the use of bookmarks ?
A. To correct the spellings.
B. To jump to a specific location in the document
C. To ignore spelling mistakes
D. To save alignments as it is. Answer: Option B

25. Which feature is used to replace straight quotes with smart quotes as you type ?
A. Auto Correct as you type
B. Auto Change as you type
C. Auto Ignore as you type
D. Auto Format as you type Answer: Option D

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26. Ctrl + D is short cut used for ?
A. Open Dialogue Box
B. Font Dialogue Box
C. Save as Dialogue Box
D. Save Dialogue Box Answer: Option B
27. Ctrl + G is shortcut for ?
A. Open Find and Replace Dialog box with activating Goto Tab
B. Open Find and Replace Dialog box with activating Find Tab
C. Open Find and Replace Dialog box with activating Replace Tab
D. Open Go to Dialog box Answer: Option A
28. Ctrl + H is short cut for ?
A. Open Insert Dialog box activating Insert Hyper Link Tab
B. Open Find and Replace Dialog box with activating Go to Tab
C. Open Find and Replace Dialog box with activating Find Tab
D. Open Find and Replace Dialog box with activating Replace Tab
Answer: Option D
29. What can be searched by find ?
A. format
B. characters
C. symbol
D. All of above Answer: Option D
30. on which page the header or the footer is printed by default ?
A. on first page
B. on last page
C. on alternate page
D. every page Answer: Option D
31. Which of these toolbars allows changing of Fonts and their sizes ?
A. Standard
B. Formatting
C. Options
D. None of above Answer: Option B
32. To spell check which function key you will press ?
A. F5
B. F6
C. F7
D. F8 Answer: Option C
33. How to insert a sound file in word document ?
A. From insert -> sound menu option
B. From insert -> object menu option
C. From insert -> subject menu option
D. From insert -> file menu option Answer: Option B
34. How many maximum number of columns can be inserted in the word document ?
A. 45
B. 50
C. 55
D. 65 Answer: Option A
35. What is smallest and largest available font on formatting toolbar ?
A. Smallest 8 and Largest 70
B. Smallest 5 and Largest 72
C. Smallest 8 and Largest 72
D. Smallest 5 and Largest 70 Answer: Option C
36. Why drop cap is used in document ?
A. To get all first character capital
B. To get all first character small
C. To begin a paragraph with a large dropped initial capital letter
D. To begin a paragraph with a large dropped initial small letter
Answer: Option C

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37. What is Macro ?
A.
Small add-on programs that are installed afterwards if you need them
B.
Type of high level programming language
C.
Type of low level programming language
D.
Small programs created in MS-Word to automate repetitive tasks by using VBA
Answer: Option D
38. Which among following can be a vertical separation between columns ?
A. Margin
B. Header
C. Orientation
D. Gutter Answer: Option A
39. MS Office is not an application software ?
A. True
B. False Answer: Option B
Explanation:
MS Office is an application software.
40. To change the typeface of a document, we will choose following menu option >
A. Edit
B. View
C. Tools
D. Format Answer: Option D
41. To autofit the width of column
A. Double click the left border of column
B. Double click the right border of column
C. Double click the column header
D. None of above Answer: Option B
42. A keyboard shortcut can be assigned to a Macro.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A
43. A keyboard shortcut can be assigned to a Macro.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A
44. What is the default font size of a new Word document based on Normal template ?
A. 8 pt
B. 10 pt
C. 12 pt
D. 14 pt Answer: Option C
45. Which of following line spacing is invalid ?
A. Single
B. Double
C. Triple
D. Multiple Answer: Option C
46. Format painter tool can be found in ?
A. Options toolbar
B. Standard toolbar
C. Formatting toolbar
D. Drawing toolbar Answer: Option B
47. Which among following is correct extension of word files ?
A. xls
B. doc
C. ppt
D. dcw Answer: Option B
48. You can jump to the next column by ?
A. Press Alt + Down-arrow
B. Clicking with your mouse on the next column
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option C

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49. Which of the following is not the part of standard office suite ?
A. Database
B. File Manager
C. Image Editor
D. File Presentation Answer: Option B
50. Superscript, subscript, outline, emboss, engrave are known as ?
A. Text effects
B. Font effects
C. Word art
D. Clip art Answer: Option B

51. A screen element of MS Word that is usually located below the title bar that provides categorized options is
known as ?
A. Menu Bar
B. Tool Bar
C. Status Bar
D. Address Bar Answer: Option A
52. Minimum number of rows and columns in MS Word document is
A. 1 and 1
B. 2 and 1
C. 1 and 2
D. 2 and 2 Answer: Option A
53. How many maximum columns can be inserted in MS word document ?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
D. 55 Answer: Option B
54. What we call to that character which is raised and smaller above the base line ?
A. Raised
B. Smaller
C. Quotient
D. Superscript Answer: Option D
55. Ruler in MS Word can help us in
A. to set tabs
B. to set indents
C. to change page margins
D. all of above Answer: Option D
56. What we call to a combination of row and column
A. Line
B. Column
C. Row
D. Cell Answer: Option D
57. What is Gutter Margin ?
A. Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing
B. Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing
C. Margin that is added to right margin when printing
D. Margin that is added to the left margin when printing Answer: Option B
58. Type face option is under which menu ?
A. Format
B. Insert
C. Edit
D. View Answer: Option A
59. In which view background color will not be visible ?
A. Print Layout View
B. Web Layout View
C. Print Preview
D. Reading View Answer: Option C

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60. Spreadsheets are created in ?
A. MS Word
B. MS Powerpoint
C. MS Excel
D. MS Access Answer: Option C

MS EXCEL
1. With which of the following all formulas in excel starts ?
A. /
B. *
C. $
D. = Answer: Option D
2. On an excel sheet the active cell in indicated by ?
A. A dotted border
B. A dark wide border
C. A blinking border
D. By italic text Answer: Option B
3. What term describes explanatory text attached to a cell ?
A. Context
B. Callout
C. Comment
D. Dialog Answer: Option C
4. How we can view a cell comment ?
A. position the mouse pointer over the cell
B. click the comment command on the view menu
C. click the edit comment commands on the Insert menu
D. click the Display comment command on the window menu Answer: Option A
5. Which of these will not select all the cells in a document ?
A. Using the Edit – Select All menu
B. Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard
C. Clicking three times with the right mouse button in the spreadsheet
D. All of This Answer: Option C
6. The default style for new data keyed in a new workbook is ?
A. Comma
B. Normal
C. Currency
D. Percent Answer: Option B
7. If you press ___, the cell accepts your typing as its contents ?
A. Tab
B. Ctrl+Enter
C. Enter
D. Alt+Enter Answer: Option C
8. Which of the following keyboard shortcut can be used for creating a chart from the selected cells ?
A. F11
B. F10
C. F4
D. F2 Answer: Option A
9. Formula palette is used to ?
A. format cells containing numbers
B. create and edit formulas containing functions
C. entered assumptions data
D. copy all cells Answer: Option B
10. A value used in a formula that does not change is called a ?
A. Constant
B. Cell address
C. Varaible
D. Static Answer: Option A

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11. A Spreadsheet contains ?
A. columns
B. rows
C. rows and columns
D. None of above Answer: Option C
12. To open an existing workbook, click the Open button on the ___ toolbar ?
A. Form
B. Standard
C. Drawing
D. Formatting Answer: Option B
13. Which among following is not associated with spelling dialogue box ?
A. Edit
B. Ignore
C. Ignore All
D. Change Answer: Option A
14. what term describes a background that appears as a grainy, non smooth surface ?
A. Pattern
B. Gradient
C. Texture
D. Velvet Answer: Option B
15. Which among following is associated with excel ?
A. Graphic program
B. Word Processor
C. Presentation
D. Spreadsheet Answer: Option D
16. The cell reference for a range of cells that starts in cell C1 and goes over to column H and down to row 10 is ?
A. C1:10H
B. C1:H10
C. C1:H-10
D. C1:H:10 Answer: Option B

17. You can convert existing Excel worksheet data and charts to HTML document by using the ?
A. Internet Assistant Wizard
B. Intranet Wizard
C. Import Wizard
D. Export Wizard Answer: Option A
18. To create an interactive Pivot Table for the web, you use a Microsoft Office Web component called ?
A. HTML
B. Pivot Table Field List
C. Pivot Table Report
D. Pivot Table List Answer: Option C
19. What function displays row data in a column or column data in a row ?
A. Transpose
B. Index
C. Rows
D. Hyperlinks Answer: Option A
20. Except which of the following function, a formula with a logical function shows the word "TRUE" or
"FALSE" as a result ?
A. NOT
B. OR
C. IF
D. AND Answer: Option C
21. Macros can be executed from the which of the following menu ?
A. Format
B. Home
C. Insert
D. Tools Answer: Option D

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22. Protection and the Protect Sheet options can be selected from ?
A. Data
B. Tools
C. Edit
D. Format Answer: Option B
23. Which of the following is not a valid Zoom percentage in Excel ?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 300
D. 500 Answer: Option D
24. You can check the conditions against ____ when applying conditional formatting ?
A. Cell Value
B. Formula
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option C
25. How can we set Page Border in Excel ?
A. From Edit menu
B. From Home
C. You cannot set page border in Excel
D. From Tools menu Answer: Option C
26. Which function calculates your monthly mortage payment ?
A. PV
B. NPER
C. PMT
D. All of above Answer: Option C
27. Which types of charts can excel produce ?
A. Line graphs and pie charts only
B. Bar charts, line graphs and pie charts
C. Bar charts and line graphs only
D. Only line graphs Answer: Option B
28. How is data organized in a spreadsheet ?
A. Rows and columns
B. Layers and planes
C. Lines and spaces
D. Height and width Answer: Option A
29. VLOOKUP function used to ?
A. Finds related records
B. Looks up text that contain "v"
C. Check if two cells are identical
D. None of above Answer: Option A
30. Gridlines may be turned off for display but turned on for printing.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A
31. How do you change column width to fit the contents ?
A. Single-click the boundary to the left to the column heading
B. Double click the boundary to the right of the column heading
C. Press Alt and single click anywhere in the column
D. All of above Answer: Option B
32. To insert three columns between columns A and B you would
A. Select column A
B. Select A and B
C. Select B
D. All of above Answer: Option C
33. To drag a selected range of data to another worksheet in the same workbook, use the ?
A. Ctrl key
B. Shift key
C. Alt key
D. Tab key Answer: Option A

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34. You can activate a cell by ?
A. Pressing the Tab key
B. Clicking the cell
C. Pressing an arrow key
D. All of above Answer: Option D
35. A function inside another function is known as ?
A. Round function
B. Sandwich function
C. Switch function
D. Nested function Answer: Option D
36. What excel feature can you use if you want to work with one record at a time ?
A. Auto Complete
B. Data Form
C. Set Form
D. Auto Text Answer: Option B
37. Which function is used for creating a data table ?
A. Sum
B. Table
C. Add
D. Count Answer: Option B
38. The accounting style shows negative numbers in ?
A. Bold
B. Italics
C. Parentheses
D. Quotes Answer: Option C
39. 3-D reference in a formula ?
A. Spans worksheets
B. Cannot be modified
C. Only appears on summary worksheets
D. Limits the formatting options Answer: Option A
40. Auto calculate feature provides a quick way to view the results of an arithmetic operation on a range of cells.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A
41. Which among following wildcard characters are recognized by excel ?
A. + and -
B. ! and ^
C. *and ?
D. < and > Answer: Option C
42. Which among following is divide symbol in excel ?
A. /
B. D
C. Div
D. \ Answer: Option A
43. Which function in excel counts the numbers of characters in a cell ?
A. LENGHT
B. LGT
C. LT
D. LEN Answer: Option D
44. Which function converts miles to kilometers ?
A. Change
B. Covnert
C. Shift
D. Conv Answer: Option B
45. What is shortcut to enter current date in cell in excel ?
A. Ctrl + ;
B. Alt + ;
C. Shift + &
D. Ctrl + $ Answer: Option A

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46. Shortcut to edit the selected cell ?
A. F3
B. F8
C. F4
D. F2 Answer: Option D
47. Each excel can contain many sheets including worksheets and chart sheets.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A
48. Which shortcut can be used to Switch between open workbooks ?
A. Ctrl + F2
B. Ctrl + F6
C. Ctrl + F8
D. Ctrl + F10 Answer: Option B
49. Shortcut to delete the selected column ?
A. Ctrl + -
B. Alt + -
C. Shift + -
D. Insert + - Answer: Option A
50. Shortcut to enter current date ?
A. Home + ;
B. Shift + ;
C. Alt + ;
D. Ctrl + ; Answer: Option D
51. When the formula bar is activated, you can see
A. The Edit Formula button
B. The Cancel button
C. The Enter button
D. All of above Answer: Option D
52. Style sheet formats can be applied from ?
A. Table >> Autoformat
B. Format >> Autoformat
C. Table >> Cells
D. Fromat >> Cells Answer: Option B
53. Which function will you use to enter current time in a woksheet cell ?
A. =time()
B. =nowtime()
C. =now()
D. =currentTime() Answer: Option C
54. Merge cells option can be applied from ?
A. Formatting toolbar
B. Format Cells dialog box Alignment Tab
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option B
55. How many recent files you can display on File menu at maximum ?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 9
D. 15 Answer: Option C

56. The name box appears at the ?

A.
left of the formula bar
B.
right of the formula bar
C.
below the status bar
D.
below the menu bar Answer: Option A
57. Entire worksheet can not be selected in one time.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option B

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58. Where are the status indicators located ?
A. Horizontal Scroll
B. Vertical Scroll
C. Formula bar
D. Address bar Answer: Option C
59. Insert picture option is in which of the following toolbars ?
A. Standard
B. Formatting
C. Drawing
D. Picture Answer: Option D
60. What term refers to a specific set of values saved with the workbook ?
A. Range
B. File set
C. Data set
D. Scenario Answer: Option D
61. We can cancel marquee by pressing ?
A. Ctrl + Esc
B. Alt + Esc
C. Shift + Esc
D. Esc Answer: Option D
62. Which of the following methods cannot be used to edit the content of cell ?
A. Pressing F2
B. Clicking the formula bar
C. Pressing the Alt key
D. Double clicking the cell Answer: Option C

63. When you use multiplication, division or exponentiation in a formula then there is chance of occurring
rounding errors.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A

64. Which among following can't be considered as worksheet criterion ?

A. Efficiency
B. Auditability
C. Clarity
D. Description Answer: Option D

65. When creating a vertical page break ?

A. The active cell must be in row 1
B. The active cell must be A1
C. The active cell must be in row 10
D. The active cell must be in column A Answer: Option A
66. The intersection of row and column is called a ?
A. dataset
B. cell
C. data
D. set Answer: Option B
67. You will use which feature in excel, if you want to work with one record at a time ?
A. Auto Complete
B. Auto Filter
C. Sub Totals
D. Data Form Answer: Option D
68. Which dialogue box we can use to name a constant ?
A. Create Name
B. Define Name
C. Get Name
D. Create Constant Answer: Option B

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69. One cell format can be copied to another cell by using ?
A. Format Painter
B. Format Setting
C. Format Showing
D. Format Checking Answer: Option A
70. Which among following is types of excel data types ?
A. Numbers, Formulas, Labels
B. Data, Words, Numbers
C. Words, Number, Labels
D. Equations, Data, Numbers Answer: Option A
71. To join some cells and place the content at the middle of joined cell, which tool you will use?
A. From Format Cells dialog box choose Merge and Center check box
B. Click on Merge and Center tool on formatting toolbar
C. From Format Cells dialog box select the Centered alignment
D. From Format Cells dialog box click on Merge Cells check box
Answer: Option B
72. On Excel screen, Tab scroll buttons are
A. towards the top left corner
B. towards the top right corner
C. towards the bottom right corner
D. towards the bottom left corner Answer: Option D

73. Choose from the following, which is not the correct method of editing the cell content ?
A. Press the Alt key
B. Press the F2 key
C. Double click the cell
D. Click the formula bar Answer: Option A

74. In Excel Worksheet how can you show or hide the gridlines ?
A. Click Gridline tool on Forms toolbar
B. Go to Tools -> Options -> View tab and mark or remove the check box named Gridline
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option C

75. When you press Ctrl + X after selecting some cells in Excel, what will happen then
A. The cell content of selected cells disappear from cell and stored in clipboard
B. The selected cells are deleted and cells are shifted up
C. The selected cells are deleted and the cells are shifted left
D. The cells selected are marked for cutting Answer: Option D

76. In Paste Special dialog box, which of the following option is not available ?
A. Divide
B. Add
C. Subtract
D. Square root Answer: Option D

77. To convert a column of data into row, which command will you choose
A. Edit -> Paste Special -> Transpose
B. Cut and Paste
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option A

78. Using Paste Special command which of the following you can paste selectively
A. Formulas
B. Validation
C. Formats
D. All of above Answer: Option D

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 MS Power point
1. Which file format can be added to a PowerPoint show ?
A. .gif
B. .jpg
C. .wav
D. All of above Answer: Option D
2. How to select one hyperlink after another during a slide presentation ?
A. Ctrl + K
B. Ctrl + D
C. Tab
D. Ctrl + H Answer: Option C
3. Special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are known as ?
A. transitions
B. effects
C. custom animations
D. annotations Answer: Option A
4. You can edit an embedded organization chart object by ?
A. Double clicking the organization chart object
B. Clicking edit object
C. Right clicking the chart object, then clicking edit MS-Organizaiton Chart object
D. A and C both Answer: Option D
5. Which of the following is not one of PowerPoint view ?
A. Slide show view
B. Slide view
C. Presentation view
D. Outline view Answer: Option D
6. Which PowerPoint view works best for adding slide transitions ?
A. Slide show view
B. Slide sorter view
C. Slide view
D. Notes view Answer: Option B
7. Which PowerPoint feature allows the user to create a simple presentation quickly ?
A. AutoContent Wizard
B. Transition Wizard
C. Chart Wizard
D. Animations Answer: Option A
8. Slide sorter can be accessed from which menu ?
A. Insert
B. File
C. Edit
D. View Answer: Option D
9. To print powerpoint presentation, press :
A. Ctrl + A
B. Ctrl + Shift + P
C. Ctrl + P
D. CTRL + S Answer: Option C
10. What would I choose to create a pre-formatted style ?
A. Slide sorter view
B. Slide layout
C. Format
D. None of above Answer: Option B
11. To edit a chart, we can
A. Double click the chart object
B. Click and drag the chart object
C. Triple click the chart object
D. Click the chart object Answer: Option A

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12. To preview a motion path effect using the custom animation task pane, we should :
A. double click the motion path
B. click the show effect button
C. click the play button
D. none of above Answer: Option C

13. You can create a new presentation by completing all of the following except
A. Clicking the new button on the standard toolbar
B. Clicking file, new
C. Pressing ctrl + N
D. Clicking file open Answer: Option D
14. What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and more the mouse around the slide ?
A. Moving
B. Monitoring
C. Dragging
D. Highlighting Answer: Option C
15. Which of the following views is the best view to use when setting transition effects for all slides in a presentation ?
A. Slide view
B. Notes page view
C. Slide sorter view
D. Outline view Answer: Option C
16. Which of the following will not advance the slides in a slide show view ?
A. The mouse button
B. The enter key
C. The space bar
D. The esc key Answer: Option D
17. Which option can be used to set custom timings for slides in a presentation ?
A. Slider Timings
B. Rehearsal
C. Slider Timer
D. Slide Show Setup Answer: Option B

18. Which of the following can you use to add times to the slides in a presentation ?
A. Rehearse timing button
B. Slice Show menu
C. Slide transition button
D. All of above Answer: Option A
19. Which key can be used to view Slide show ?
A. F5
B. F2
C. F7
D. F9 Answer: Option A
20. Which type of fonts are best suite for titles and headlines ?
A. Sans Serif Fonts
B. Picture Fonts
C. Text Fonts
D. Serif Fonts Answer: Option A
21. How can we view slide show repeated continuously ?
A. repeat continuously
B. loop continuously until ‘Esc’
C. loop more
D. none Answer: Option B
22. Ellipse Motion is a predefined ___ .
A. Design Template
B. Animation Scheme
C. Color Scheme
D. None of above Answer: Option B

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23. to open the existing presentation, press
A. CTRL + A
B. CTRL + O
C. CTRL + N
D. CTRL + L Answer: Option B
24. PowerPoint slides can have ?
A. title, text, graphs
B. drawn objects, shapes
C. clipart, drawn art, visual
D. any of the above Answer: Option D
25. Which key do you press to check spelling ?
A. F3
B. F5
C. F7
D. F9 Answer: Option C
26. The spelling dialog box can be involved by choosing spelling from ____ menu.
A. insert
B. file
C. view
D. tools Answer: Option D
27. Power Point can display data from which of the following add-in software of MS Office ?
A. Equation Editor
B. Photo Album
C. Organization Chart
D. All of above Answer: Option D
28. How can we stop a slide show ?
A. Press the right arrow
B. Press Escape
C. Press Ctrl + A
D. Press Ctrl + S Answer: Option B

29. A File which contains readymade styles that can be used for a presentation is called __ ?
A. AutoStyle
B. Wizard
C. Template
D. Pre formatting Answer: Option C
30. What is maximum Zoom percentage in Microsoft PowerPoint ?
A. 100%
B. 200%
C. 300%
D. 400% Answer: Option D
31. How we can put a Chart in the presentation using PowerPoint ?
A. Edit -> Chart
B. Insert -> Pictures -> Chart
C. Insert -> Chart
D. View -> Chart Answer: Option B
32. How we can replace a font on all slides with another font in Powerpoint ?
A. Tools -> Fonts
B. Edit -> Fonts
C. Format -> Replace Fonts
D. Tools -> Replace Fonts Answer: Option C

33. Shortcut to insert new slide in the current Presentation is ?

A. CTRL+O
B. CTRL+M
C. CTRL+F
D. CTRL+N Answer: Option B

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34. The boxes that are displayed to indicate that the text, pictures or objects are placed in it is called ?
A. Word Art
B. Placeholder
C. AutoText
D. Text box Answer: Option B
35. How can you see all your slides at once ?
A. Through slide sorter view
B. Through slide view
C. Through normal view
D. Through slide show Answer: Option A
36. Which view in Power Point can be used to enter Speaker Comments ?
A. Slide Show
B. Notes Page view
C. Slide Sorter
D. Normal Answer: Option B
37. Which of the following tool bars provide different options in various master views ?
A. Standard toolbar
B. Formatting toolbar
C. Common tasks toolbar
D. Drawing toolbar Answer: Option C
38. In Microsoft PowerPoint two kind of sound effects files that can be added to the presentation are ?
A. .wav files and .gif files
B. .jpg files and .gif files
C. .wav files and .jpg files
D. .wav files and .mid files Answer: Option D
39. Which pane would be used to enter a speaker's information about what can be said about each slide ?
A. Notes pane
B. Outline pane
C. Slide pane
D. All of this Answer: Option A
40. In Powerpoint the arrangement of elements such as Title and subtitle text, pictures, tables etc. is known as ?
A. Layout
B. Design
C. Presentation
D. Scheme Answer: Option A

41. What is a motion path in Powerpoint ?

A. A type of animation entrance effect
B. A method of moving items on a slide
C. A method of advancing slides
D. All of above Answer: Option B
42. What is a slide-title master pair ?
A. A slide master and title master for a specific design template
B. The title area and text area of a specific slide
C. A slide master and title master merged into a single slide
D. None of above Answer: Option A
43. What is a trigger, in context of animations ?
A. An object to be inserted in the presentation
B. An action button that advances to the next slide
C. The name of a motion path
D. An item on the slide that performs an action when clicked Answer: Option D

44. From where can we set the timing for each object ?
A. slide show, custom animation
B. view, slide sorter
C. slide show, custom transition
D. Slide show, Slide transition Answer: Option A

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45. How we can create a uniform appearance by adding a background image to all slides ?
A. By editing last slide
B. Use the autocorrect wizard
C. Create a template
D. Edit the slide master Answer: Option D
46. When you open a presentation which tab is not available on left panel?
A. Slides
B. Outline
C. Notes
D. All of above are available Answer: Option C
47. Which of the following statements is false ?
A. You can type text directly into a PowerPoint slide but typing in text box is more convenient
B. You can show or hide task pane from View -> Toolbars
C. You can view a PowerPoint presentation in Normal, Slide Sorter or Slide Show view
D. From Insert menu choose Picture and then File to insert your images into slides
Answer: Option A
48. You can start power point application with
A. Goint to Start -> Programs -> All Programs -> Microsoft PowerPoint
B. Going to Start -> Run -> type "powerpnt" and press enter
C. type ppoint.exe in run and press enter
D. All of above Answer: Option B
49. In a slide layout, which of the following section does not exist ?
A. Animation Section
B. Lists Section
C. Titles Section
D. Chart Section Answer: Option A
50. One can change color of different objects without changing content using
A. Font Color
B. Object Color
C. Layout Section
D. Color Scheme Answer: Option D
51. All of above are false statements
A. You can change positioning by selecting fomr one of pre made slide layouts
B. You can't delete objects within layout if you choose to select from pre made slide layouts
C. In the slide layout panel we can find blank slide at the top of Content Layouts
D. All of above are false statements Answer: Option B
52. You can apply motion effects to different objects of a slide using
A. Animation Scheme
B. Slide Transition
C. Color Scheme
D. Font scheme Answer: Option A
53. What is the difference between Slide Design and Auto Content Wizard ?
A. There is no difference
B. AutoContent Wizard is just the wizard version of Slide Design
C. Slide Design asks your choice in steps but Auto Content Wizard does not let you make choices
D. Slide Design does not provide sample content but Auto Content Wizard provides sample content too
Answer: Option D
54. Animation Scheme, custom Animation, Slide Transition…which menu provides these options
A. Slide Show Menu
B. Tools Menu
C. Format Menu
D. Insert Menu Answer: Option A
55. If you select first and second slide and then click on New Slide button on toolbar, what will happen then ?
A. A new slide is inserted as second slide in presentation
B. A new slide is inserted as third slide in presentation
C. A new slide is inserted as first slide in presentation
D. None of above Answer: Option B

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56. To create another copy of a slide, what is the best way…?
A. Click the slide then press Ctrl+A and paste in new slide
B. Redo everything on a new slide that you had done on previous slide
C. From Insert Menu choose Duplicate Slide
D. None of above Answer: Option C
57. To access Picture, Test Box, Chart etc. which menu you have to select ?
A. Insert
B. View
C. File
D. Edit Answer: Option A
58. Name the three options that are available in Insert >> Picture menu?
A. Clipart, Pictures, AutoShapes
B. Clipart, From Files, AutoShapes
C. Clipart, Pictures, Shapes
D. Clipart, From File, Shapes Answer: Option B
59. What are the steps to insert slide numbers?
A. Insert a text box and select Insert >> Page Number
B. Choose Insert >> Slide Number
C. Insert a new text box and select Insert >> slide Number
D. Insert a textbox and select Insert >> Number >> PageNumber Answer: Option C
60. In a slide, what are the steps to insert a hyperlink ?
A. Press Ctrl + K
B. Choose Insert >> Hyperlink
C. Hyperlinks can’t be inserted in slides
D. both a & b Answer: Option D

Data Structure Chapter 1

1. Preorder is
A. depth first order
B. breadth first order
C. topological order
D. linear order Answer: Option A
2. Information about an array used in a program will be stored in
A. symbol table
B. activation record
C. dope vector
D. system table Answer: Option C
3. ++i is equivalent to
A. i=i+2
B. i=i+1
C. i=i+i
D. i=i–1 Answer: Option B
4. Repeated execution of simple computation may cause compounding of
A. round off errors
B. syntax errors
C. run time errors
D. logic errors Answer: Option A
5. Deletion from one end and insertion from other end is
A. stack
B. branch
C. tree
D. queue Answer: Option D
6. Which statement we should ignore in structure programming
A. WHILE-DO
B. GO-TO
C. IT-ELSE
D. SWITCH Answer: Option B

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7. In C how many parameters can passed to a function
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. as many as defined in function definition Answer: Option D
8. Minimum number of stacks of size n required to implement a queue of size n
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four Answer: Option B
9. Which is problem oriented language
A. BASIC
B. PL/I
C. FORTRAN
D. None of above Answer: Option D

10. Sort which compares adjacent elements in a list and switches where necessary is
A. Insertion sort
B. Heap sort
C. Quick sort
D. Bubble sort Answer: Option D
11. Recursive problems are implemented by
A. queues
B. stacks
C. linked lists
D. strings Answer: Option B
12. Recursive problems are implemented by
A. queues
B. stacks
C. linked lists
D. strings Answer: Option B
13. A linear list from which elements can be added or removed from either end is called
A. stack
B. queue
C. deque
D. tree Answer: Option C
14. Which is ALGOL based simulation language
A. FORTRAN
B. SIMSCRIPT
C. GASP IV
D. none of above Answer: Option B

15. How many divisions are there in COBOL language

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five Answer: Option C
16. O log(n) can be conneted with
A. Selection sort
B. Insertion sort
C. Binary sort
D. Merge sort Answer: Option C
17. Which of the languages is often translated to the pseudo code
A. PASCAL
B. FORTRAN
C. PL/I
D. BASIC Answer: Option A

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18. Merge sort uses
A. Divide and conquer strategy
B. Backtracking approach
C. Heuristic search
D. Greedy approach Answer: Option A
19. Which is having highest precedence in C
A. relational operators
B. equality operator
C. logical operator
D. arithmetic operator Answer: Option D
20. Which sorting method is slowest
A. Quick sort
B. Heap sort
C. Shell sort
D. Bubble sort Answer: Option D

21. Which data structure is needed to convert infix notations to postfix notations
A. linear list
B. tree
C. stack
D. queue Answer: Option C
22. A graph with one or more edges is at least
A. 1-chromatic
B. 2-chromatic
C. 3-chromatic
D. 4-chromatic Answer: Option B
23. The memory address of the first element of an array is called
A. floor address
B. first address
C. foundation address
D. base address Answer: Option D
24. Which of the following name does not relate to stacks
A. FIFO lists
B. LIFO list
C. Piles
D. Push-down lists Answer: Option A

25. Which of the following data structure is linear data structure

A. Trees
B. Graphs
C. Array
D. None of above Answer: Option C
26. The complexity of linear search algorithm is
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n2)
D. O(n log n) Answer: Option A
27. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n2)
D. O(n log n) Answer: Option B
28. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is
A. O(n)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n2)
D. O(n log n) Answer: Option C

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29. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is
A.
O(n)
B.
O(log n)
C.
O(n2)
D.
O(n log n) Answer: Option D
30. What are the minimum number of queues needed to implement the priority queue?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four Answer: Option B
Explanation:
One queue is used for the actual storing of data, and the other one is used for storing the priorities.

Database Chapter 1
1. If a relation scheme is in BSNF then it is also in
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
D. Not in any normal form Answer: Option C
2. Attribute of one table matching to the primary key of other table, is called as
A. foreign key
B. secondary key
C. candidate key
D. composite key Answer: Option A
3. Allocation map
A. Used to store program data
B. specifies which blocks are used by which file
C. is updated by application programs
D. allow programs to erase files Answer: Option B
4. The master list of an indexed file
A. is sorted in ascending order
B. contains only a list of keys and record numbers
C. has a number assigned to each record
D. none of above Answer: Option C
5. Database management systems are used to
A. eliminate data redundancy
B. establish relationships among records in different files
C. manage file access
D. none of above Answer: Option A

6. Ascending order of data hierarchy is

A. bit->byte->record->field->file->database
B. bit->byte->field->record->file->database
C. byte->bit->field->record->file->database
D. byte->bit->field->file->record->database Answer: Option B

7. Which is not a logical database structure

A. Chain
B. Tree
C. Relational
D. Network Answer: Option A
8. Embedded pointer provides
A. a secondary access path
B. a physical record key
C. an inverted index
D. all of above Answer: Option A

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9. Network structure
A. is a physical representation of data
B. is conceptually simple
C. allows many to many relationships
D. none of above Answer: Option C
10. File record length
A. should always be fixed
B. should always be variable
C. should be chosen to match the data character
D. depends upon the size of file Answer: Option D
11. Data management system may be implemented as
A. system software
B. application software
C. computer program
D. all of above Answer: Option D
12. RAID configurations of a disk are used to provide
A. fault tolerance
B. high speed
C. high data density
D. none of above Answer: Option A
13. Which among following is an approach for standardizing storing of data
A. MIS
B. Structured programming
C. CODASYL specifications
D. None of above Answer: Option C
14. Which among following contains a complete record of all activity that affected the contents of a database during
a creation period of time
A. report writer
B. query language
C. DML
D. transaction log Answer: Option D
15. The logical structure with one to many relationships is a
A. network
B. tree
C. chain
D. relational Answer: Option B
16. Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational database design
A. 2NF
B. 5NF
C. 3NF
D. 4NF Answer: Option C
17. Transaction processing was made possible by the development of
A. direct access storage
B. magnetic tape
C. cash register input
D. minicomputers Answer: Option A
18. Physical location of a record in database is determined with the help of
A. B tree file
B. Indexed file
C. Hashed file
D. sequential file Answer: Option C

19. Modify operation is likely to be done after

A. Delete
B. Lookup
C. Indexing
D. Insertion Answer: Option B

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20. Which among following is not a relational database
A. dBase IV
B. 4th Dimention
C. FoxPro
D. Reflex Answer: Option D
21. Fragmentation of a file system
A. Can always be prevented
B. occurs only is file is not used properly
C. Can be temporarily removed by compaction
D. None of above Answer: Option C
22. Which is a type of DBMS software
A. utilities
B. query language
C. report writer
D. All of above Answer: Option D
23. Large collection of files are called
A. fields
B. Records
C. Database
D. Sectors Answer: Option C
24. In order to use a DBMS, it is important to understand
A. the physical schema
B. all subschemas
C. one sub schema
D. none of above Answer: Option C
25. Data dictionary is a special file that contains
A. the names of all fields in all files
B. the data types of all fields of all files
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option B

26. Two basic types of record access methods are

A. sequential and random
B. direct and immediate
C. sequential and indexed
D. online and real time Answer: Option A
27. Secondary index can be related with
A. Function dependency
B. B tree
C. Domain calculus
D. Relational algebric operators Answer: Option B
28. Natural join can be related with
A. Function dependency
B. B tree
C. Domain calculus
D. Relational algebric operators Answer: Option D
29. Non procedural query language can be related with
A. Function dependency
B. B tree
C. Domain calculus
D. Relational algebric operators Answer: Option C

30. Administrative supervision of database activities is responsibility of

A. Database administrator
B. DP Manager
C. DB Manager
D. None of above Answer: Option A

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31. The command that adds a new field to an active database is
A. MODIFY LABEL
B. MODIFY COMMAND
C. MODIFY STRUCTURE
D. MODIFY REPORT Answer: Option C
32. Which command is used to set a link between two database files
A. JOIN
B. UPDATE
C. BROWSE
D. SET RELATION Answer: Option D
33. The distinguishable parts of a record are called
A. files
B. data
C. fields
D. formats Answer: Option C
34. Related fields in a data base are grouped to form
A. data file
B. data record
C. menu
D. bank Answer: Option B
35. Data item characteristics that are important in data management include
A. punctuation
B. language
C. spelling
D. width Answer: Option D
36. Data dictionary tell DBMS
A. what files are in the database
B. what attributes are processed by data
C. what these files contain
D. all of above Answer: Option D
37. Which among following SQL commands is used to add a row
A. UPDATE
B. TRUNCATE
C. INSERT
D. ADD Answer: Option C
38. In context of database DML Means
A. Data Multiplication Line
B. Data Manupulation Language
C. Data Method Limit
D. Data Merit Logic Answer: Option B

Internet working
1. LAN traffic congestion generally caused by Low bandwidth, Too many hosts in a broadcast domain,
Multicasting, Broadcast Storms
A. High Bandwidth
B. None of above Answer: Option A
2. Which among following is not a router fuction
A. Packet Switching
B. Packet Filtering
C. Internetwork communication
D. Forwarding broadcasts by default Answer: Option D
Explanation:
It is advantage of router that :
They do not forward broadcasts by default
They can filter the network based on layer 3 information

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3. OSI reference model has how many layers
A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 3 Answer: Option C
4. Framing is done on which layer
A. Datalink Layer
B. Physical Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. Application Layer Answer: Option A
5. Segments are made on which layer
A. Session Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Application Layer
D. Network Layer Answer: Option B
6. Which layer deals with TCP and UDP
A. Transport Layer
B. Physical Layer
C. Network Layer
D. None of above Answer: Option A
7. Which layer deals with Flow control
A. Session Layer
B. Network Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. Application Layer Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Data integrity is ensured at the Transport layer by maintaining flow control and by allowing users to request reliable
data transport between systems.
8. Windows are used to
A. control the amount of unacknowledged data segments
B. creating new frames
C. creating sigments
D. none of above Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Windows are used to control the the amount of outstanding, unacknowledged data segments. This process is also known
as windowing
9. Which layer deals with Packets
A. Physical Layer
B. Network Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. Application Layer Answer: Option B
10. Which layer deals with Network topology
A. Physical Layer
B. Datalink Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Session Layer Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Datalink layer deals with network topology and ensures the data to be delivered on the intended device on the LAN
11. Binary value of 128 is
A. 10000000
B. 10100000
C. 11000000
D. 10100100 Answer: Option A
12. Which layer sends and receives bits
A. Session Layer
B. Physical Layer
C. Datalink Layer
D. None of above Answer: Option B

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13. Which mode has no collisions
A.
Half Duplex
B.
Full Duplex
C.
All of above
D.
None of above Answer: Option B
14. A dedicated switch port is required for each
A. Full duplex node
B. Half duplex node
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option A
15. MAC address is of how many bits
A. 24 bit
B. 32 bit
C. 48 bit
D. 128 bit Answer: Option C
Explanation:
MAC address means Media Access Control Address, which is 48 bit address in hexadecimal format burned on
NETWORK INTERFACE CARD(NIC).

16. MAC address is written in which format

A. Binary format
B. Simple numeric format
C. Hexa decimal format
D. none of above Answer: Option C
17. Which of following is not an ethernet cable type
A. straight-through cable
B. crossover cable
C. rolled cable
D. array cable Answer: Option D

18. Straight cable is used to connect

A. Host to switch or hub
B. Host to Router
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option A
19. Crossover cable is used to connect
A. Swtich to router
B. Host to host
C. Hub to router
D. none of above Answer: Option B
20. Rolled cable is used to
A. Connect switch to switch
B. Connect Hub to Hub
C. Connect Router to Router
D. Connect Host to Router console serial communication port Answer: Option D

21. Which network will not be susceptible to EMI

A. Thicknet coax
B. Thinnet coax
C. Fiber optic cable
D. none of above Answer: Option C
22. Which type of RJ45 UTP calbe is used between switches
A. straight-through cable
B. Crossover cable
C. Both can be used
D. None can be used Answer: Option B

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23. Which of following fields are within an IEEE Ethernet frame header ?
1. Source and destination MAC address
2. Source and destination network address
3. Source and destination MAC address and source and destination network address
4. FCS field
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3 Answer: Option C

IOS
1. Meaning of IOS is
A.
Integrated operating system
B.
Intergrated open system
C.
Internetworking operating system
D.
None of above Answer: Option C
2. First IOS was written in
A. 1984
B. 1985
C. 1986
D. 1987 Answer: Option C
3. Which is not a function of IOS
A. Carrying network protocols and functions
B. Connecting high speed traffic between devices
C. Providing scalability for ease of network growth and redundancy
D. Creating session between hosts in LAN Answer: Option D
4. What happens first after starting a router
A. Load IOS from flash memory
B. Power on self test of router
C. Searching by IOS of a valid configuration
D. None of above Answer: Option B
Explanation:
When you bring up a router, it firstly run a Power on self test(POST), If it passes then it will load IOS from flash
memory then after that IOS looks for a valid configuration.

5. CLI in IOS terminology is short form of

A. Caller line interface
B. Common line interface
C. Command link interface
D. None of above Answer: Option C
6. Subinterfaces allows to you to
A. Create logical interfaces within the router
B. Get into previleged mode
C. Get into user execution mode
D. None of above Answer: Option A
7. Which mode provides interactive configuration dialog
A. User EXEC mode
B. Privileged mode
C. Global configuration mode
D. Setup mode Answer: Option D
8. Which user mode has limited monitoring commands in IOS
A. User EXEC mode
B. Privileged EXEC mode
C. Specific configuration mode
D. Setup mode Answer: Option A

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9. Which mode provide access to all router commands
A.User EXEC mode
B.Privileged mode
C.Global configuration mode
D.Setup mode Answer: Option B
10. Which mode commands affects interfaces/processes only
A. User EXEC mode
B. Privileged mode
C. Specific configuration mode
D. Setup mode Answer: Option C
11. Which command will show all commands available from that particular mode
A. config
B. enable
C. interface
D. ? Answer: Option D
Explanation:
? is called help command. It shows all commands available from mode in which you are login
12. Which command will take cursor to beginning of line
A. Ctrl+A
B. Ctrl+E
C. Ctrl+B
D. Ctrl+F Answer: Option A
13. Which command will take cursor to the end of line
A. Ctrl+A
B. Ctrl+E
C. Ctrl+B
D. Ctrl+F Answer: Option B
14. Which command will take cursor to one word back
A. Ctrl+A
B. Ctrl+B
C. Ctrl+F
D. Ctrl+D Answer: Option B
15. Which command will end configuration mode and returns to EXEC
A. Ctrl+A
B. Ctrl+B
C. Ctrl+F
D. Ctrl+Z Answer: Option D
16. Command to find the broadcast address from router
A. show running-config
B. show startup-config
C. show interfaces
D. show protocols Answer: Option C
17. Command to show if DTE or DCE cable is plugged int o serial 0
A. sh int s0
B. sh int serial 0
C. show serial 0 controllers
D. show controllers s 0 Answer: Option D
18. How many simultaneous sessions a Cisco router support by default
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6 Answer: Option C
19. Command to delete NVRAM on a router
A. delete NVRAM
B. delete running-config
C. erase NVRAM
D. erase start Answer: Option D

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20. Which layer of OSI model will have problem if you get message "Serial1 is down, line protocol is down" after
typing "show interface serial 1"
A. Physical Layer
B. Datalink Layer
C. Network layer
D. It is router problem Answer: Option A
21. If you delete contents of NVRAM and reboot router, in which mode you will enter
A. Privileged mode
B. Global mode
C. Setup mode
D. There will be error Answer: Option C
22. How to display configurable parameters and statistics of all interfaces on router
A. show running-config
B. show startup-config
C. show versions
D. show interfaces Answer: Option D
23. Which command cane be used at User mode to enter Privileged EXEC mode
A. Privilege
B. Admin
C. Enable
D. Disable Answer: Option C

IP Routing
1. Which is not a valid type of routing
A. Static routing
B. Default routing
C. Dynamic routing
D. Custom routing Answer: Option D
2. Where we should use default routing
A. on stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network
B. which have more than one exit path out of the network
C. minimum five exit paths out of the network
D. None of above Answer: Option A

3. Default administrative distance of EIGRP

A. 0
B. 1
C. 110
D. 90 Answer: Option D
4. Default administrative distance of Static Route
A. 0
B. 90
C. 100
D. 1 Answer: Option D

5. Default administrative distance of RIP

A. 0
B. 90
C. 120
D. 130 Answer: Option C

6. Which among following have administrative distance 0

A. Unknown
B. RIP
C. Static route
D. Connected interface Answer: Option D

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7. Which protocol uses an autonomous system number for activation
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option A
8. Which protocol gives a full route table update every 30 seconds
A. IEGRP
B. RIP
C. both of above
D. none of above Answer: Option B
9. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocol
A. The use of discontiguous networks is not allowed
B. Use of variable length subnet masks is premitted
C. RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
D. IGRP supports classes routing within the same autonomous system
Answer: Option B
10. Which command displays RIP routing updates
A. show ip route
B. debug ip rip
C. show protocols
D. debug ip route Answer: Option B
11. Which is true regarding RIPv2
A. It has lower administrative distance than RIPv1
B. It converges faster than RIPv1
C. It is harder to configure than RIPv1
D. It has the same timers as RIPv1 Answer: Option D
12. By using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme which two benefits we get ?
1. Auto-negotiation of media rates
2. Reduces routing table entries
3. Dedicated communications between devices
4. Ease of management and troubleshooting
5. Efficient utilization of MAC addresses
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 5
D. 4 and 5 Answer: Option B

IPV6
1. IPV6 is of how many bits
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits Answer: Option C

2. IPV6 is in which format

A. Hexadecimal format
B. Octal format
C. Alphanumeric format
D. Numeric format Answer: Option A

3. EIGRPv6 use which multicast address?

A. FF02::A
B. FF02::5
C. FF02::6
D. FF02::9 Answer: Option A

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4. What multicast address does RIPng use
A. FF02::A
B. FF02::8
C. FF02::9
D. FF02::5 Answer: Option C
5. When IPV6 launched
A. June 2, 2012
B. June 4, 2012
C. June 5, 2012
D. June 6, 2012 Answer: Option D
6. Which of the following is not a feature of Anycast addressing in IPv6?
A. Same IPv6 address assigned to multiple nodes
B. Routing protocol makes the “nearest” determination
C. Supports many future potential applications
D. Provides an any-to-many communication model Answer: Option D
7. What is Dual Stack
A. Where we put routers
B. Where we put switches
C. An interface supporting both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
D. An algo to connect Routers and Switches Answer: Option C

NAT
1. What is disadvantage of NAT
A. Conserves the legally registered addresses
B. Loss of end to end IP traceability
C. Eliminates address renumbering as network changes
D. None of above Answer: Option B
2. Which term is not related to NAT
A. inside local
B. outside local
C. inside global
D. external global Answer: Option D
3. Meaning of Outside local
A. Name of inside source address before translation
B. Name of destination host before translation
C. Name of inside host after translation
D. Name of outside destination host after translation Answer: Option B
4. Which command will allow you to see real time translation on your router
A. show ip nat translations
B. show ip nat statistics
C. debug ip nat
D. clear ip nat translations Answer: Option C
5. Which command will show you all the translations active on your router
A. show ip nat translations
B. show ip nat statistics
C. debug ip nat
D. clear ip nat translations Answer: Option A
6. Which command will show you the summary of NAT configuration
A. show ip nat translations
B. show ip nat statistics
C. debug ip nat
D. clear ip nat translations Answer: Option B
7. Which command would you place on the interface on a private network
A. ip nat inside
B. ip nat outside
C. ip outside global
D. ip inside local Answer: Option A
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8. Pat address translation is also termed as
A. NAT Fast
B. NAT Static
C. Overloading Static
D. NAT Overload Answer: Option D
9. What is Broadcast MAC Address ?
A. EE-EE-EE-EE-EE-EE
B. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
C. AA-AA-AA-AA-AA-AA
D. None of above Answer: Option B
10. What is Broadcast IP Address ?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 255.0.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255 Answer: Option D

Networking Basics
1. Routing is done on which layer
A. Datalink Layer
B. Network Layer
C. Session
D. Presentation Answer: Option B

2. Which performs modulation and demodulation

A. Modem
B. Fiber optic
C. satellite
D. coaxial cable Answer: Option A
3. Routing is done on which layer
A. Datalink Layer
B. Session Layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport Layer Answer: Option C

4. Dialogue control and token management are responsibilities of

A. Network layer
B. Session Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. None of above Answer: Option B
5. X.25 standard specifies
A. technique for start-stop data
B. technique for dial access
C. DTE/DCE interface
D. data bit rate Answer: Option C

6. First network which was made available

A. IBMm Token Ring 1985
B. Novell Netware
C. IBM PC Network 1984
D. DECNet 1980 Answer: Option D

7. Most commonly used transmission speeds in BPS is

A. 2400
B. 9600
C. 1200
D. 4800 Answer: Option A

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8. A central computer surrounded by one or more computers is called
A. ring network
B. bus network
C. star network
D. all of above Answer: Option C
9. Which among following is correct
A. Protocol converters are the same as multiplexers
B. Protocol converters are the same as TDMs
C. Protocol converters are usually not operated in pairs
D. None of above Answer: Option C
10. A network which need human intervention for routing signal is
A. Bus network
B. ring network
C. star network
D. T switched network Answer: Option D
11. Videotax is combination of
A. communication
B. television
C. computer technology
D. all of above Answer: Option D
12. Name of the topology in which there are bidirectional links between each possible nodes
A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Star
D. Tree Answer: Option B

13. Communication mode which supports data in both directions at the same time is called
A. simplex
B. Full duplex
C. Half duplex
D. Multiplex Answer: Option B
14. Frequency range 300 kHz to 3 MHz is used for
A. AM radio transmission
B. FM radio transmission
C. TV radio transmission
D. None of above Answer: Option A
15. Sink means
A. sending unit
B. receiving unit
C. broadcasting
D. none of above Answer: Option B

16. At data link layer error detection is achieved by

A. Cyclic Redundancy Code
B. Hamming codes
C. Bit stuffing
D. Equalization Answer: Option A
17. Loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called
A. Interruption
B. Propagation
C. Scattering
D. Attenuation Answer: Option D
18. During networking, the process of processor asking each host that if it want to send message is called
A. querying
B. sharing
C. communicating
D. polling Answer: Option D

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19. In data transmission the bit coding scheme used to represent a byte is typically
A. EBCDIC
B. SNA
C. ASCII
D. Hexadecimal Answer: Option C
20. A communication network which is used over regional, national or global area is
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. MAN
D. VAN Answer: Option B
21. Choose odd one
A. bus hubs
B. enterprise hubs
C. low-end standalone hubs
D. stackable hubs Answer: Option A
22. What is public IP address ?
A. Leased from an ISP that allows or enables direct Internet communication
B. Used to coneect with interal LAN infra
C. IP which is used only on server where we host websites
D. None of above Answer: Option A

Sub netting
1. Default network mask for CLASS A is
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255 Answer: Option A
2. Default network mask for CLASS B is
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255 Answer: Option B
3. Default network mask for CLASS C is
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255 Answer: Option C
4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the
255.255.255.224 subnet mask
A. 14
B. 15
C. 30
D. 62 Answer: Option C
5. To test the IP stack on your local host, which IP address will you ping
A. 127.0.0.0
B. 1.0.0.127
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 255.255.255.0 Answer: Option C
6. You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which can be your choise
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248 Answer: Option B
7. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21
A. 172.16.64.0
B. 172.16.48.0
C. 172.16.36.0
D. 172.16.0.0 Answer: Option A
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8. A client workstation is connected to a DHCP server through a switch and a router, The client machine has been
able to access the network resources without any problem. However, after the recent configuration change on the DHCP
server, the client workstation is not able to access any network resources. What is the likely solution?
A. Issue a tracert command to DHCP server
B. Reset switch MAC address table
C. Use ipconfig command with /release and /renew options
D. Clear arp cache on the router Answer: Option C

TCP-IP
1. TCP/IP suite was created by
A.IEEE
B.Department of defence
C.Open source
D.None of above Answer: Option B
2. TCP/IP reference model contains how many layers
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7 Answer: Option B
Explanation:
TCP/IP reference model has four layer
Application Layer
Host to Host
Internet Layer
Network Access

3. Telnet
A. allows user to connect client machine
B. transferring files
C. sharing files
D. none of above Answer: Option A
4. Which protocol deals with emails
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. LPD
D. X window Answer: Option B
5. Which protocol deals with resolving domain names
A. X-Window
B. SMTP
C. DNS
D. FTP Answer: Option C

6. Which protocol ensures reliable delivery

A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Both of above
D. None of above Answer: Option A
7. Which protocol uses window flow system
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. FTP
D. None of above Answer: Option B
8. ICMP works on which layer
A. Physical Layer
B. Datalink Layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport Layer Answer: Option C

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9. Which protocol finds the MAC address from IP address
A. SMTP
B. ICMP
C. ARP
D. RARP Answer: Option C
10. Which IP is reserved for loopback testing
A. 192.168.0.0
B. 10.255.255.255
C. 255.0.0.0
D. None of above Answer: Option D
Explanation:
127.0.0.1 is reserved for loopback testing
11. Which protocol uses both TCP and UDP
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. Telnet
D. DNS Answer: Option D
12. Which layer of TCP/IP stack is equivalent to transport layer of OSI
A. Application layer
B. Host to Host layer
C. Internet
D. Network access Answer: Option B
13. Which layer will be used while transmitting data using FTP or Telnet
A. Presentation
B. Application
C. Session
D. Transport Answer: Option B
14. Which company developed TCP/IP protocol for networking
A. IBM
B. DEC
C. DARPA
D. Xerox Answer: Option C
15. Which class is given wrong here ?
A. CLASS A = 1 to 126
B. CLASS B = 128 to 191
C. CLASS C = 192 to 220
D. CLASS D = 224 to 239 (Multicasting)
E. CLASS E = 240 to 255 (Research) Answer: Option C
Explanation:
CLASS C is from 192 to 223

Operating System Set 1

1. Main function of shared memory is:
A. to use primary memory efficently
B. to do intra process communication
C. to do inter process communication
D. none of above Answer: Option C
2. If the property of locality of reference is well pronounced in a program
A. the number of page faults will be more
B. the number of page faults will be less
C. the number of page faults will same
D. none of above Answer: Option B
3. Which one is true
A. The linkage editor is used to edit programs which have to later link together
B. The linkage editor links object module during compiling
C. The linkage editor links objects modules and resolves external references between them before loading
D. none of above Answer: Option C

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4. Disk scheduling includes deciding
A. which should be accessed next
B. order in which disk access requests must be serviced
C. the physical location of the file
D. the logical location of the file Answer: Option B

5. Belady anamoly occurs in

A. Optimal replacement
B. FIFO
C. LRU
D. both in FIFO and LRU Answer: Option B
6. Which scheduling policy is best suited for time-sharing operating systems
A. Shortest job first
B. Round robin
C. First come first serve
D. Elevator Answer: Option B
7. Memory protection is normally done by
A. the processor and the associated hardware
B. the operating system
C. the compiler
D. the user program Answer: Option A
8. Which among following scheduling algorithms give minimum average waiting time
A. FCFS
B. SJF
C. Round robin
D. On priority Answer: Option B
9. Dirty bit is used to show
A. Page with corrupted data
B. Wrong page in memory
C. Page that is modified after being loaded in the cache memory
D. page that is less frequently accessed Answer: Option C
10. In real time OS, which is most suitable scheduling scheme
A. round robin
B. FCFS
C. pre-emptive scheduling
D. random scheduling Answer: Option C
11. Size of virtual memory depends on
A. size of data bus
B. size of address bus
C. size of main memory
D. none of above Answer: Option B
12. Semophores are used to solve the problem of
A. race condition
B. process synchronization
C. mutual exclusion
D. belady problem Answer: Option C

13. For multiprogramming operating system

A. special support from processor is essential
B. special support from processor is not essential
C. cache memory is essential
D. none of above Answer: Option B
14. In which scheduling policies, context switching never takes place
A. FCFS
B. round robin
C. Shortest job first
D. Pre-empitive Answer: Option A

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15. Which is single user operating system
A. MS-DOS
B. UNIX
C. XENIX
D. LINUX Answer: Option A
16. Reference bit is used for
A. Implementing LRU page replacement algorithm
B. Implementing NRU algorithm
C. To check the page table entry in the cache memory
D. none of above Answer: Option B
17. Which operating system reacts in the actual time
A. Batch system
B. Quick response system
C. Real time system
D. Time sharing system Answer: Option C
18. Macintosh computer uses
A. System 7.0
B. AU/X
C. Xenix
D. none of above Answer: Option B
19. Problem of thrashing is affected significantly by
A. program structure
B. program size
C. primary storage size
D. all of above Answer: Option A
20. Which technique is used by operating systems to execute several programs concurrently by switching
back and forth
A. Partitioning
B. Multitasking
C. Windowing
D. Paging Answer: Option C
21. Dispatcher function is to
A. put tasks in I/O wait
B. schedule tasks in processor
C. change task priorities
D. All of above Answer: Option A
22. The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor what has to be done, is
A. Operation code
B. Address
C. Locator
D. Flip-Flop Answer: Option A
23. What is the name given to the values that are automatically provided by software to reduce keystrokes
and improve a computer user's productivity?
A. Defined values
B. Fixed values
C. Default values
D. None of the above Answer: Option C
24. Multiprogramming systems
A. Are easier to develop than single programming systems
B. Execute each job faster
C. Execute more jobs in the same time
D. Are used only on large main frame computers Answer: Option C
25. A thread is
A. lightweight process where the context switching is low
B. lightweight process where the context swithching is high
C. used to speed up paging
D. used in dead locks Answer: Option A

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26. The LRU algorithm
A. pages out pages that have been used recently
B. pages out pages that have not been used recently
C. pages out pages that have been least used recently
D. pages out the first page in a given area Answer: Option C
27. Shortest Job First executes first the job
A. with the least processor needs
B. that first entered the queue
C. that has been in the queue for the longest
D. that last entered the queue Answer: Option A
28. Operating system is
A. A collection of hardware components
B. A collection of input output devices
C. A collection of software routines
D. All of above Answer: Option C
29. Semaphores function is to
A. synchronize critical resources to prevent deadlock
B. synchronize processes for better CPU utilization
C. used for memory management
D. none of above Answer: Option A

30. Fragmentation of a file system

A. occurs only is file is not used properly
B. can always be prevented
C. happens in all file systems
D. can be removed by compaction Answer: Option B
31. A public key encryption system
A. Allows only the correct sender to decode the data
B. Allows only the correct receiver to decode the data
C. Allows anyone to decode the data
D. none of above Answer: Option B
32. A high paging rate
A. may cause a high I/O rate
B. keeps the system running well
C. is a symptom of too much processor activity
D. always creates a slow system Answer: Option A
33. Creating a job queue is a function of
A. Spooler
B. Interperator
C. Complier
D. Drive Answer: Option A

34. Which operating system use write through catches

A. UNIX
B. XENIX
C. ULTRIX
D. DOS Answer: Option D
35. Which process is known for initializing a microcomputer with its OS
A. cold booting
B. boot recording
C. booting
D. warm booting Answer: Option C
36. Which of the following does not interrupt an running process
A. A device
B. Timer
C. Schedular Process
D. Power failure Answer: Option C

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37. To avoid the race condition, the number of processes that may be simultaneously inside the critical section is
A. 12
B. 3
C. 1
D. 0 Answer: Option C
38. Dynamic allocation of storage areas with VSAM files is accomplished by
A. hashing
B. control splits
C. over flow areas
D. relative recording Answer: Option B
39. Poor response times are caused by
A. Busy processor
B. High I/O rate
C. High paging rates
D. Any of above Answer: Option D
40. Four necessary conditions for deadlock are non pre-emption, circular wait, hold and wait and
A. mutual exclusion
B. race condition
C. buffer overflow
D. None of above Answer: Option A
41. Remote computing services involves the use of timesharing and
A. multiprocessing
B. interactive processing
C. batch processing
D. real time processing Answer: Option C
42. Dijkstra's algorithm deals with
A. mutual exclusion
B. deadlock recovery
C. deadlock avoidance
D. cache coherence Answer: Option C

43. Daisy chain is a device for

A. connecting a number of controllers to a device
B. connecting a number of device to a controller
C. all of above
D. none of above Answer: Option B
44. A series of statements explaining how the data is to be processed is called
A. instruction
B. compiler
C. program
D. interpretor Answer: Option C
45. Banker's algorithm deals with
A. deadlock prevention
B. deadlock avoidance
C. deadlock recovery
D. mutual exclusion Answer: Option B

46. Scissoring enables

A. a part of data to be displayed
B. entire data to be displayed
C. full data display on fulll area of sceen
D. no data display Answer: Option A
47. Which is non pre-emptive
A. Round robin
B. FIFO
C. MQS
D. MQSF Answer: Option B

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48. Root directory of a disk should be placed
A. at the fixed address in the main memory
B. at a fixed location on the disk
C. at the fixed location on system disk
D. anywhere on the disk Answer: Option B
49. A hardware device which is capable of executing a sequence of instructions, is known as
A. CPU
B. ALU
C. CU
D. Processor Answer: Option D
50. Which of following is not a condition of Dead Lock ?
A. Mutual Exclusion
B. No Preemption
C. Hold and Wait
D. Data Transfer Answer: Option D

Operating System Set 2

1. Distributed systems should ?
A. high security
B. have better resource sharing
C. better system utilization
D. low system overhead Answer: Option B
2. Disk scheduling involves deciding ?
A. which disk should be accessed next
B. the order in which disk access request should be made
C. physical location of files
D. type of disks a system should have Answer: Option B
3. If the CPU scheduling policy is FCFS, then what would be average waiting time ?
A. 10 ms
B. 10.8 ms
C. 12 ms
D. 12.8 ms Answer: Option D

4. Memory protection is of no use in single user system.

A. True
B. False Answer: Option A
5. By which of following the problem of thrashing is significantly affected ?
A. program size
B. program structure
C. primary storage
D. secondary storage Answer: Option B
6. Which type of software can be used to merge data of two files in one file ?
A. System software
B. Networking software
C. Documenting software
D. Utility Software Answer: Option D
7. What is the name of values that are automatically provided by software to reduce keystrokes ?
A. Data Values
B. Default Values
C. Defined Values
D. Fixed Values Answer: Option B
8. Which of following need a device driver
A. Cache
B. Disk
C. Main Menory
D. Registers Answer: Option B

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9. Supervisor state is only allowed to ?
A.
Utility Softwares
B.
Application Softwares
C.
Operating System
D.
Guest User Answer: Option C
10. UNIX is a single user operating system.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option B
Explanation:
UNIX is a Multi user operating system.

11. Which of the following is always there in a computer ?

A. Batch system
B. Operating system
C. Time sharing system
D. Controlling system Answer: Option B
12. Which of following is not an advantage of multiprogramming ?
A. increased throughput
B. shorter response time
C. ability to assign priorities of jobs
D. decreased system overload Answer: Option D

13. Seek analysis is for ?

A. Paging issues
B. device busy problems
C. control unit busy problems
D. all of above Answer: Option B
14. Relocation bits used by relocating loader are specified by
A. Relocating loader
B. Assembler
C. Translator
D. Linker Answer: Option D
15. Paging is a method of memory allocation.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A

16. Which of the following memory allocation scheme is subject to external fragmentation ?
A. Segmentation
B. Swapping
C. Demand Paging
D. Multiple Contiguous Fixed Partitions Answer: Option A
17. Spooling is most beneficial where
A. Jobs are I/O bound
B. Jobs are CPU bound
C. Jobs are evenly divided as I/O bound and CPU bound
D. All of above Answer: Option C

18. File record length

A. Should be chosen to match the data characteristics
B. should be fixed
C. should be variable
D. vary system to system Answer: Option A
19. In which of the following usually a front end processor is used ?
A. Virtual storage
B. Timesharing
C. Multiprogamming
D. Multithreading Answer: Option B

Composed By : Imran Zafar 0304-6106285 Page 82

20. Remote computing services involves the use of ?
A. multiprocessing
B. multiprogramming
C. batch processing
D. real time processing Answer: Option C
21. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with ?
A. deadlock prevention
B. deadlock aviodance
C. deadlock recovery
D. circular wait Answer: Option B
22. What is the maximum number of processes that may enter simultaneously inside the critical section to
avoid race condition ?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four Answer: Option A
23. Which scheduling policy is most suitable for time shared operating system ?
A. Shortest job first
B. FCFS
C. LCFS
D. Round robin Answer: Option D
24. What are global locks ?
A. they synchronize access to local resources
B. they synchronize access to global resources
C. they synchronize access to local and global resources
D. none of above Answer: Option B
25. Belady anomaly occurs in ?
A. LIFO
B. FIFO
C. LRU
D. NRU Answer: Option B
26. Files can have ?
A. Read Access
B. Write Access
C. Copy Access
D. All of above Answer: Option D
27. When did IBM released the first version of its disk operating system DOS version 1.0 ?
A. 1981
B. 1982
C. 1983
D. 1984 Answer: Option A
28. What is a page fault ?
A. is an spelling error in a page in memory
B. is a reference to a page which is in another program
C. is an access to a page not currently in memory
D. always occurs whenever a page is accessed Answer: Option C
29. Which is not a function of Kernel ?
A. Process management
B. Memory management
C. File system management
D. Interrupt handling
E. All of Above Answer: Option E

Composed By : Imran Zafar 0304-6106285 Page 83

 Linux
1. Kernel minimizes the frequency of disk access by keeping a pool of internal data buffer which helps to
increase the response time, this is known as ?
A. Buffer cache
B. Spooling
C. Pooling
D. Virtual Memory Answer: Option A
2. How applications communicates with kernel ?
A. Not disclosed by linux team
B. SSL
C. System Calls
D. Shell Answer: Option C
3. Kernel is known as core of operating system.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option A
4. What is meaning of ILP32 ?
A. 32 bit Integrated, Long & Pointer
B. 32 bit Integer, Long & Pointer
C. 32 bit Integer, Long & Point
D. 32 bit Integer, Lost & Pointer Answer: Option B
5. Solaris is product of ?
A. IBP
B. IBM
C. Microsoft
D. Sun Microsystems Answer: Option D
6. The system calls in UNIX is written using which language ?
A. Java
B. C
C. C++
D. Assembly Answer: Option B
7. What is property of UNIX ?
A. Multi User
B. Multi Processes
C. Multi Tasking
D. All of above Answer: Option D
8. Lp0 device file is used to access ?
A. Tape Drive
B. Printer
C. Flopy
D. Mouse Answer: Option B
9. What is the meaning of SVR4 ?
A. System Five Release 4
B. System Version Release 4
C. System Five Relocated 4
D. Storage Files Five Release 4 Answer: Option A
10. Which among following is considered as super daemon ?
A. sysinit
B. grep
C. init
D. locate Answer: Option C

11. Which is most important for Multi-tasking ?

A. Modularity
B. Time Sharing
C. Multi programming
D. Multi User Answer: Option B
Composed By : Imran Zafar 0304-6106285 Page 84
12. Which among the following is used to write small programs to control Linux functionalities ?
A. Shell Commands
B. Shell Script
C. C
D. Java Answer: Option B
13. What control character signals the end of the input file ?
A. ctrl + s
B. ctrl + z
C. ctrl + w
D. ctrl + d Answer: Option D
14. Which command in LINUX is used for description of any command ?
A. help
B. man
C. detail
D. shortdetal Answer: Option B
15. Which command is concerned with LINUX kernel log messages ?
A. dmsg
B. dmesg
C. cmsg
D. cmesg Answer: Option B

16. Which command is used to set terminal input output characteristic ?

A. atty
B. stty
C. dtty
D. ltty Answer: Option B
17. Which command is used to know the LINUX version ?
A. uname
B. lname
C. vname
D. sname Answer: Option A
18. File inode number can be viewed by ?
A. -s
B. -i
C. -a
D. –t Answer: Option B

19. tee command is used in LINUX for ?

A. Read from an input and write to a standard output and file
B. Read from an input
C. Write to an output
D. None of above Answer: Option A
20. Which command is used to extract a column from a text file
A. get
B. tar
C. untar
D. cut Answer: Option D
21. To display disk consumption of a specific directory which command is used ?
A. dd
B. du
C. dt
D. dl Answer: Option B
22. Which command in LINUX is concerned with backup ?
A. tar
B. zip
C. cpio
D. untar Answer: Option C

Composed By : Imran Zafar 0304-6106285 Page 85

23. Which command changes a file's group owner
A. chmod
B. chgrp
C. chown
D. chgrep Answer: Option B
24. Which command is used to determine the path of an executable file ?
A. which
B. whom
C. locate
D. wex Answer: Option A
25. Which command can be used to know the present working directory ?
A. psd
B. pww
C. pwd
D. pdd Answer: Option C
26. By which command content of a file can be searched ?
A. grep
B. search
C. srh
D. show Answer: Option A
27. Default permissions of a file can be changed with ?
A. group
B. chperm
C. chmod
D. chall Answer: Option C
28. Which command output also contains userid ?
A. la
B. al
C. ls -l
D. al –l Answer: Option C
29. Which one shows the name of the operating system ?
A. uname -n
B. uname -l
C. uname -m
D. uname –o Answer: Option D
30. Which command gives the first byte where the difference is in the file1 & file2 ?
A. diff
B. differ
C. cmp
D. compare Answer: Option C
31. What communication command provides communication to another user logged on by writing to the bottom of
their terminal?
A. chat
B. talk
C. write
D. sendmsg Answer: Option B
32. Which command is used to set limits on file size ?
A. ulimit
B. alimit
C. dlimit
D. wlimit Answer: Option A

33. Which command is used to copy files ?

A. cp
B. copy
C. mv
D. move Answer: Option A

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34. How many links are created when we create a directory file ?
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4 Answer: Option B
35. If two files on same partition point to the same inode structure they are called ?
A. Soft links
B. Hard links
C. Copy links
D. Similar links Answer: Option B
36. printer in the file structure can be found in ?
A. /etc
B. /html
C. /www
D. /dev Answer: Option D
37. Which LINUX command is used to update the modification time of a file ?
A. UPDATE
B. MODIFY
C. TOUCH
D. UNTOCUH Answer: Option C
38. Which is not a valid file type in LINUX ?
A. Socket
B. FIFO
C. Softlink
D. Inode Answer: Option D
39. All device files are stored in which directory ?
A. /etc
B. /dev
C. /www
D. /html Answer: Option B
40. What is true about chmod +t ?
A. It will set effective userid for filename
B. It will set effective groupid for filename
C. It will set the sticky bit
D. It is wrong syntax Answer: Option C
41. vi editor commands are not case sensitive.
A. True
B. False Answer: Option B
Explanation:
vi editor commands are case sensitive.

42. In vi editor which command sets the number for all lines ?
A. :set nu
B. :set ni
C. :set sn
D. :set sl Answer: Option A
43. All the abbreviations in vi editor can be shown by ?
A. all
B. ab
C. ashow
D. atat Answer: Option B

44. Which command reads the content of another file in vi editor ?

A. erd
B. ex
C. r
D. read Answer: Option B

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45. Which command in vi editor command is used to copy the current line of the file ?
A. ys
B. yc
C. yy
D. yw Answer: Option C
46. In the shell, by default, all variables are considered and stored as ?
A. integer
B. string
C. float
D. character Answer: Option B
47. Which option of "grep" displays the line number as well ?
A. -n
B. -l
C. -d
D. –al Answer: Option B
48. What is the command that can print lines of first file matching with second file ?
A. printline
B. cmp
C. com
D. comm. Answer: Option D
49. Which command is used to record a user login session in a file ?
A. script
B. session
C. record
D. copy Answer: Option A
50. Which of following command of ls will help to view inode number ?
A. -i
B. -s
C. -j
D. –k Answer: Option A

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