SGD& ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT 04 LỚP 9 NĂM 2018

(Đề thi gồm có 08 trang) MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
Ngày thi: ………………………………..

Họ và tên thí sinh:...................................................Số báo danh: …………………………………..

Giám thị 1: ..............................................................Giám thị 2: ……………………………………

SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. Listen to the recording twice. You will hear part of a radio program
called What's On. For each question, put a tick in the correct box.
1. The competition this year is to find the best _________.
A. actor B. dancer C. singer
2. You can enter the competition if you _________.
A. send your entry by post.
B. live less than five miles from the city centre.
C. phone anytime after Saturday.
3. To find out more about the theatre group, you should phone _________.
A. the theatre. B. Saint Paul's School. C. the secretary
of the group.
4. What is different about the arrangements at the sport shall this week?
A. The closing time is later than usual.
B. It is not possible to hire the football pitch.
C. All activities must be booked in advance.
5. What information are we given about the new swimming pool?
A. It will open next month.
B. It will be free for one week.
C. It is bigger than the old one.
6. What are we told about the rock group Switch?
A. They were all born in Westfield.
B. They all live in Westfield.
 C. They are doing two concerts in Westfield.
Part 2. Listen to the recording twice. Complete the notes below write one
word or a number for each answer.
NOTES OF CUSTOMER INFORMATION
example                                                 answer
information source :                      found in the brochure
Included services                          flights and accommodation
Sydney arrival date:                      15th of (7) ...........................................
Accommodation criteria:            (8) ...........................................
BOOKING INFORMATION
Room type:                         (9) ...........................................
Credit card holder:               (10)  John A. ...........................................
Total cost for one night:       (11) ........................................... dollars
(12) The ........................................... Centre is within walking distance of the
accommodation
(13) Hour customer books ........................................... ride.
(14) Aboriginals stone carvings are in the ...........................................
(15) The Dreamtime can be experienced beneath the ...........................................
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. To a large extent, slavery was ________ during the past century.
A. prevented B. abolished C. uprooted D.
removed
17. Before you start cooking, you should gather together all the necessary
________.
A. ingredients B. factors C. substances D.
elements
18. They asked me a lot of questions, ________ I couldn’t answer.
A. neither of them B. most of them C. neither of which D. most
of which
19. I’m sure that this isn’t a true story. He ________ it up.
A. must have made B. should have made C. would have made D. can
have made
20. I hope you will________ notice of what I am going to tell you.
A. keep B. gain C. take D. get
21. The noise got ________ as the car disappeared into the distance.
A. smaller B. slighter C. weaker D. fainter
22. Hurricanes________ during this time of year.
A. almost occur B. occur almost never C. almost never occur D. never
occur almost
23. Each of us must take________ for our own actions.
A. probability B. ability C. possibility D.
responsibility
24. ________ to the national park before, Sue was amazed to see the geyser.
A. Being not B. Not having been C. Not being D. Having
not been
25. Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He's very ________ boy.
A. strong willed B. mischievous C. obedient D. well
behaved
26. No one enjoys________ in public.
A. being made fun of B. to be made fun of C. making fun of D. to
make fun of
27. - “Your parents must be proud of your results at school”. - “________”
A. Sorry to hear that B. Thanks. It’s certainly
encouraging
C. Of course D. I am glad you like it.
28. John would like to specialize________ computer science.
A. of B. to C. in D. at
29. It was very difficult to________ what he was saying about the noise of the
traffic.
A. pick up B. make up C. turn out D. make
 out
A. Pick up: tăng lên B. Make up: bổ sung
C. Turn out: tụ tập, có mặt D. Make out: hiểu được
30. Having been found guilty of theft, ________ to find work in his chosen field as
an accountant.
A. was difficult for Henry Jones B. Henry Jones found it difficult
C. found Henry Jones difficult D. it was found by Henry Jones
difficult
31. The clown was wearing a ________ wig and a red nose.
A. funny plastic red B. red funny plastic C. red plastic funny D. funny
red plastic
32. That carcinogenic substances________ in many common household items is
well-known.
A. are contained B. contained C. containing D. are
containing
33. The co-pilot had to________ when the pilot suffered chest pains.
A. hand over B. take on C. hand on D. take
over
34. The ________ of houses has increased dramatically in recent years.
A. cost B. pay C. payment D. price
35. Some vegetables are grown without soil and under ________ light.
A. artificial B. false C. fake D. unreal
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
36. I think it’s very ...........................................of him to expect us to work overtime every night REASON
this week.
37. As this problem is ..........................................., you don’t need to pay much attention to it. IMPORTANT
38. ...........................................is often more useful than definition for giving meanings of words. ILLUSTRATE
39. A good dictionary can aid the student by ...........................................his vocabulary. LARGE
40. John turned up on the wrong day because of a ............................................ UNDERSTAND
41. I am alarmed by your ...........................................attitude. RESPONSE
42. The acting world is very ...........................................and they may be out of work most COMPETE
of the time.
43. His ...........................................knowledge is very poor. He thinks Paris is in Italy. GEOGRAPHY
44. We always have a spare room in case visitors arrive ............................................ EXPECT
45. Even if you’re good at a game, you shouldn’t be ............................................ CONFIDENCE
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. Each student have to write a paragraph about the benefits of learning English.
47. His parents don’t allow him staying out late on weekdays.
48. Major advertising companies have traditionally volunteered its time to public
service accounts.
49. Coconut oil produces a soap whom will lather in salt water as well as fresh.
50. Her hair would be long when she was young.
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. She was deeply distressed ................................... the news of his death.
52. Have they any evidence to show that he's been implicated ................................... the
robbery?
53. The legislation must be applied irrespective ................................... someone's ethnic
origins.
54. Any new video system that is compatible .......................existing ones has a little
chance of success.
55. The city council objects ................................... vulgar art displays in public buildings.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
ENVIRONMENTAL CONCERNS
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human
life (56) ______ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the
western world carries on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while
half of the world's population do so (57) ______ to stay alive we are rapidly
destroying the (58) ______ resource we have by which all people can survive and
prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (59) ______ built on or washed into the sea.
Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to
recover (60) ______ We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any
thought of the consequences. As a (61) ______ the planet's ability to support
people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and
consumption are (62) ______increasingly heavy demands on it.
The Earth's (63) ______ resources are there for us to use. We need food,
water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (64) ______ us
fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the
resources they will (65)______ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and
excessively they will soon run out and everyone will suffer.
56. A. still B. despite C. yet D.
although
57. A. for B. just C. already D. entirely
58. A. lone B. Individual C. lonely D. alone
59. A. sooner B. rather C. either D. neither
60. A. completely B. quite C. greatly D. utterly
61. A. result B. product C. development D.
reaction
62. A. having B. doing C. taking D. making
63. A. natural B. real C. living D.
genuine
64. A. stay B. keep C. maintain D. hold
65. A. last B. stand C. remain D. go
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned
about the changes to our climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate
changes have occurred on our planet before. For example, there have been
several ice ages or glacial periods.
These climatic changes, however, were different from the modern ones in
that they occurred gradually and, as far as we know, naturally. The changes
currently being monitored are said to be the result not of natural causes, but of
human activity. Furthermore, the rate of change is becoming alarmingly rapid.
The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to
some experts, this warming process, known as global warming, is occurring at a
rate unprecedented in the last 10,000 years. The implications for the planet are
very serious. Rising global temperatures could give rise to such ecological
disasters as extremely high increases in the incidence of flooding and of droughts.
These in turn could have a harmful effect on agriculture.
It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-
called greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the
atmosphere by car engines and modern industrial processes, for example. Such
gases not only add to the pollution of the atmosphere, but also create a
greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the sun is trapped. This leads to the
warming up of the planet.
Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now
regular summits on the subject, attended by representatives from around 180 of
the world’s industrialized countries. Of these summits, the most important took
place in Kyoto in Japan in 1997. There it was agreed that the most industrialized
countries would try to reduce the volume of greenhouse gas emissions and were
given targets for this reduction of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called
sinks to absorb greenhouse gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate
change has been caused by too drastic deforestation.
Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about
climate changes are often still being regarded as scaremongering.
66. According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages
differ from the modern ones?
A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time
B. They were partly intended.
C. They were wholly the result of human activity.
D. They were fully monitored by humans.
67. The word “alarmingly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. disapprovingly B. disappointingly C. surprisingly D.
worryingly
68. According to the passage, agriculture could ____.
A. make the global warming more serious
B. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
C. give rise to many ecological disasters
D. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
69. Greenhouse gases cause the warming up of the Earth because they ____.
A. are emitted by car engines B. trap heat from the sun
C. do not add to atmosphere pollution D. are unusual gases
70. According to the passage, 1997 witnessed ____.
A. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change
B. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan
C. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialized countries
D. widespread concern about climate change
71. It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly
responsible for global warming are ____.
A. countries with the warmest climate B. developing countries
C. developed countries D. the most industrialized
countries
72. The word “There” in paragraph 5 refers to ____.
A. the world’s industrialized countries B. regular summits on climate
change
C. the most industrialized countries D. the 1997 summit in Kyoto,
Japan
73. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases that may cause the so-called greenhouse
effect.
B. The so-called sinks created by forests can absorb greenhouse gases.
 C. The problem of rapid climate change has been caused mainly by
deforestation.
D. Politicians are among those who are concerned about climate change.
74. The word “drastic” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. hard B. severe C. widespread D.
obvious
75. What is probably the writer’s attitude toward global warning?
A. Optimistic B. Pessimistic C. Neutral D.
Positive
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
SAVING THE TIGER.
In 1973, when the tiger appeared to be facing extinction, the World Wide
Fund for nature and the Indian Government agreed to set (76) ...................................

“Operation Tiger” – a campaign to save this threatened creature. They started by

creating nine special parks (77) ................................... that tigers could live in safety. The
first was at Ramthambhore , a region (78) ................................... was quickly turning into a
desert (79) ................................... too much of the grass was being eaten by the local
people’s cattle. At the time there (80) ................................... just fourteen tigers left there.
The government had to clear twelve small villages, which means moving nearly
1,000 people and 10,000 cattle so the land could be handed back to nature.
Today, Ramthambhore is a very different place, with grass tall (81) ...................................

for tigers to hide in, and There are now at (82) ................................... forty of them in the
park, wandering freely about. Other animals have also benefited. For example,
there are many (83) ................................... deer and monkeys than before. The people (84)
................................... were moved are now living in better conditions. They live in new
villages away (85) ................................... the tiger park, with schools, temples and fresh
water supplies. There are now sixteen such tiger parks in India and the animals’
future looks a little safer.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(1 point- 0.2/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as
the sentence printed before it.
86. The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
@
So....................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................
.....

87. “Please accept my apology for arriving late,” said Janet to her employer.
@ Janet
apologized................................................................................................................................................................................................
88. If you changed your mind, you’d be welcome to join us.
@
Were....................................................................................................... ..............................................................................................................
......

89. The accident took place just after the workers started their work.
@
Hardly....................................................................................................... ...........................................................................................................
.......

90. Nigel should leave soon if he’s catching the 8.30 train.
@ Nigel
had ....................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92. (1 points - 0.2/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given.
91. He didn’t lock the front door when he left the house. without
@ He left ....................................................................................................... the front door.
92. I found it difficult to follow the instructions. trouble
@ I ....................................................................................................... the instructions.
93. The neighbors’ all-night parties were too much for me, so I moved. put
@ I moved because I ....................................................................................................... the neighbors’ all-night
parties.
94. Things are much more expensive here than we thought they would be.
expected
@ We had ....................................................................................................... cheaper here.
95. The news was such a shock to them that they all sat there without saying a
word. silence
@ They all sat there ....................................................................................................... so shocked by the news.
Part 3. Paragraph writing: (2 points)
In about 140 words, write a paragraph to talk about the bad effects of
mobile phones on students’ study.
The following suggestions may help you have better arguments:
- They are time-consuming devices.
- They affect students’ eyes and health.
- They are causes of conflicts and misunderstanding among the friends.

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