Class 9 Science E-Guide

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
VIA: ONLINEFREENOTES.COM
INDEX
1 - Matter in Our Surroundings PAGE 2
2 - Is Matter Around Us Pure PAGE 7
3 - Atoms and Molecules PAGE 12
4 - Structure of The Atom PAGE 18
5 - The Fundamental Unit of Life PAGE 25
6 – Tissues PAGE 29
7 - Diversity in Living Organisms PAGE 33
8 – Motion PAGE 37
9 - Force and Laws of Motion PAGE 44
10 – Gravitation PAGE 51
11 - Work and Energy PAGE 59
12 – Sound PAGE 66
13 - Why Do We Fall ill PAGE 73
14 - Natural Resources PAGE 77
15 - Improvement in Food Resources PAGE 81
1 | Download notes in PDF from instamojo.com/onlinefreenotes

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 1: MATTER IN OUR Answer: Air, Exhaust from chimneys, cotton, water,
honey, chalk, and iron.
SURROUNDINGS
2. (a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of
IN-TEXT / PAGE 3 states of matter.
1. Which of the following are matter? (b) Comment upon the following: rigidity,
compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape,
Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold,
kinetic energy, and density.
cold drink, smell of perfume.
Answer: Solid
Answer: Chair, air, almonds and cold drink
- Definite shape and volume.
2. Give reasons for the following observation:
- Not compressible
The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several - There is little space between the particles of a solid.
metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you - These particles attract each other very strongly.
have to go close. - Particles of solid cannot move freely.
Answer: Solids diffuse at a very slow rate. But, if the Liquid

temperature of the solid is increased, then the rate of
- No definite shape but has a definite volume.
diffusion of the solid particles into air increases. This is
- Compressible to some extent.
due to an increase in the kinetic energy of solid
- These particles have a greater space between them.
particles. Hence, the smell of hot sizzling food reaches
- The force of attraction between liquid particles is less
us even at a distance, but to get the smell from cold
than solid particles.
food we have to go close.
- These particles move freely.
3. A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming
Gaseous
pool. Which property of matter does this observation
show? - Gases neither have a definite shape nor a definite
volume.
Answer: This observation shows that the particles of
- Highly compressible
matter have intermolecular spaces. The intermolecular
- The space between gas particles is the greatest.
spaces in liquids is fair enough to let the diver pass
- The force of attraction is least between gaseous
through it.
particles.
4. What are the characteristics of particles of matter? - Gaseous particles are in a continuous, random motion.
Answer: The characteristics of particles of matter are: 3. Give reasons:
1. Particles of matter have spaces between them. a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
2. Particles of matter are continuously moving. b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
3. Particles of matter attract each other. c) A wooden table should be called a solid.
d) We can easily move our hand in air, but to do the
IN-TEXT / PAGE 6
same through a solid block of wood, we need a karate
1. The mass per unit volume of a substance is called expert.
density (density = mass/volume).
Answer: a) There is little attraction between particles of
Arrange the following in order of increasing density - gas. Thus, gas particles move freely in all directions.
air, exhaust from a chimney, honey, water, chalk, Therefore, gas completely fills the vessel in which it is
cotton, and iron. kept.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
b) Particles of gas move randomly in all directions at attraction between the particles. Therefore, this heat
high speed. As a result, the particles hit each other and does not contribute to increasing the temperature of
also hit the walls of the container with a force. the substance.
Therefore, gas exerts pressure on the walls of the
4. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.
container.
Answer: By applying pressure and reducing the
c) A wooden table has a definite shape and volume. It is
temperature, atmospheric gases can be liquefied.
very rigid and cannot be compressed i.e., it has the
characteristics of a solid. Hence, a wooden table should IN-TEXT / PAGE 10
be called a solid.
1. Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry
d) Particles of air have large spaces between them. On day?
the other hand, wood has little space between its
particles. Also, it is rigid. For this reason, we can easily Answer: When a liquid evaporates, the particles of the
move our hands in air, but to do the same through a liquid absorb energy from the surroundings to
solid block of wood, we need a karate expert. compensate for the loss of energy during evaporation.
This makes the surroundings cool.
4. Liquids generally have lower density as compared to
solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on In a desert cooler, the water inside it is made to
water. Find out why. evaporate. This leads to the absorption of energy from
the surroundings, thereby cooling the surroundings.
Answer: The mass per unit volume of a substance is Again, we know that evaporation depends on the
called density. amount of water vapour present in air (humidity). If the
amount of water vapour present in air is less, then
IN-TEXT / PAGE 9
evaporation is more. On a hot dry day, the amount of
1. Convert the following temperature to Celsius scale: water vapour present in air is less. Thus, water present
inside the desert cooler evaporates more, thereby
a) 300 K
cooling the surroundings more.
b) 573 K
That is why a desert cooler cools better on a hot dry
Answer: a) 300 K = (300 − 273)°C = 27°C
day.
b) 573 K = (573 − 273)°C = 300°C
2. How does water keep in an earthen pot (matka)
2. What is the physical state of water at: become cool during summers?
a) 250°C Answer: When a liquid evaporates, the particles of the

b) 100°C liquid absorb energy from the container to compensate
for the loss of energy during evaporation. This makes
Answer: a) Water at 250°C exists in the gaseous state. the remaining water cool. There are some pores in an
b) At 100°C, water can exist in both liquid and gaseous earthen pot through which the liquid inside the pot
form. At this temperature, after getting the heat equal evaporates. This evaporation makes the water inside
to the latent heat of vaporization, water starts changing the pot cool. In this way, water kept in an earthen pot
from liquid state to gaseous state. becomes cool during summers.
3. For any substance, why does the temperature 3. Why does our palm feel cold when we put some
remain constant during the change of state? acetone or petrol or perfume on it?
Answer: During a change of state, the temperature Answer: When we put some acetone or petrol or
remains constant. This is because all the heat supplied perfume on our palm, it evaporates. During
to increase the temperature is utilised (as latent heat) in evaporation, particles of the liquid absorb energy from
changing the state by overcoming the forces of the surrounding or the surface of the palm to
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
compensate for the loss of energy, making the Answer: (a) Naphthalene balls undergo the process of
surroundings cool. Hence, our palm feels cold when we sublimation easily i.e., the change of state of
put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it. naphthalene from solid to gas takes place easily. Thus,
naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving
4. Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a
any solid.
saucer than a cup?
(b) Gaseous particles possess high speed and large
Answer: A liquid has a larger surface area in a saucer
spaces between them. Particles of perfume diffuse into
than in a cup. Thus, it evaporates faster and cools faster
these gaseous particles at a very fast rate and reach our
in a saucer than in a cup. For this reason, we are able to
nostrils. This enables us to smell the perfume from a
sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer than a cup.
distance.
5. What type of clothes should we wear in summers?
4. Arrange the following substances in increasing order
Answer: We should wear cotton clothes in summers. of forces of attraction between particles− water, sugar,
During summers, we sweat more. On the other hand, oxygen.
cotton is a good absorber of water. Thus, it absorbs
Answer: Sugar is solid; the forces of attraction between
sweat from our body and exposes the liquid to the
the particles of sugar are strong. Water is a liquid; the
atmosphere, making evaporation faster. During this
forces of attraction here are weaker than sugar. Oxygen
evaporation, particles on the surface of the liquid gain
is a gas; the forces of attraction are the weakest in
energy from our body surface, making the body cool.
gases. Thus, the increasing order of forces of attraction
EXERCISE between the particles of water, sugar and oxygen is
Oxygen < Water < Sugar
1. Convert the following temperatures to Celsius scale.
5. What is the physical state of water at −
(a) 293 K
(b) 470 K (a) 25°C
(b) 0°C
Answer: Kelvin is an SI unit of temperature, where 0°C = (c) 100°C
273.16 K (approximately 273 K)
Answer: (a) Water at 25°C is present in the liquid state.
(a) 293 K = (293 − 273) °C = 20 °C
(b) At 0 °C, water can exist as both solid and liquid. At
(b) 470 K = (470 − 273) °C = 197 °C this temperature, after getting the heat equal to the
2. Convert the following temperatures to Kelvin scale. latent heat of fusion, the solid form of water i.e., ice
starts changing into its liquid form i.e., water.
(a) 25°C
(b) 373°C (c) At 100 °C, water can exist as both liquid and gas. At
this temperature, after getting the heat equal to the
Answer: Kelvin is an SI unit of temperature, where 0°C = latent heat of vaporization, water starts changing from
273.16 K (approximately 273 K) its liquid state to its gaseous state, i.e., water vapours.
(a) 25 °C = (25 + 273) K = 298 K 6. Give two reasons to justify−
(b) 373 °C = (373 + 273) K = 646 K (a) water at room temperature is a liquid.
3. Give the reason for the following observations. (b) an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.
(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without Answer: (a) At room temperature (25 °C), water is a
leaving any solid. liquid because it has the following characteristic of
liquid:
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several
metres away.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
(i) At room temperature, water has no shape but has a 11. What characteristic of solids is present in liquids
fixed volume that is, it occupies the shape of the also and which
h makes them resemble liquids?
container in which it is kept.
Answer:: The characteristic of solids present in liquids
(ii) At room temperature, water flows.
also and which makes them resemble liquids is that
(b) An iron almirah is a solid at room temperature (25 both solids and liquids have a definite volume though
°C) because: while solids have definite shapes, liquids don't have
definite shapes.
(i) it has a definite shape and volume like a solid at
room temperature. 12. What are the conditions when there is no change
(ii) it is rigid as solid at room temperature. in the temperature of a substance even when it is
being heated?
7. Whyy evaporation is considered as a surface
phenomenon? Answer:: When a substance is heated, it will not show
any change in temperature, if the heat is absorbed by
Answer:: Evaporation is a surface phenomenon because
the particles of that substance.
subs When this happens, the
it occurs on the surface. For example, when we put wet
kinetic energy of the particles will become more and
clothes for drying we spread them out so that the
they become free from the intermolecular force of
surface area gets increased. When the surface area
attraction. This extra heat absorbed by the substance of
increases the water will get enough space to get into
the particles is called the latent heat. 'Latent' means
the vapour stage and thus evaporation happens easily.
hidden.
8. It is seen that people get comfort when they
13.. Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than
sprinkle water on the roof or open ground after a hot
water at the same temperature?
sunny day. Why?
Answer:: Water at 273k has more energy as compared
Answer: When people sprinkle kle water on the roof or
to ice at 273k, since ice can easily absorb energy from
open ground in hot summers, this water, which requires
surrounding in the from of latent heat to form water
latent heat of vaporization to change from liquid state
whereas water has no such privilege hence ice is more
to vapour state, evaporates or vaporizes by taking a
effective in cooling than water at same temperature.
large amount of latent heat from the roof or ground
and surrounding air. Hence, the roof or ground 14. What produces more severe burns, boiling water
becomes cool after losing its heat to water. or steam?
9. Why does a wet khus-khus

khus screen hang at the door Answer:: Steam has more energy than boiling water. It
keep the room cool? possesses the additional latent heat of vaporization.
vaporiza
Therefore, burns produced by steam are more severe
Answer: A wet khus-khus khus screen hung at the door of a
than those produced by boiling water.
room keeps the room cool. The reason is that water
from the khus-khus
khus when evaporates, latent heat of 15. Name A, B, C, D, E and F in the following diagram
vaporization is taken from the air entering the room, as showing a change in its state.
a result of the air of the room gets cooled.
10. Give reasons to explain, why water is considered a

compound and not a mixture?
Answer: Water is considered

ered a compound and not a
mixture because of the following reasons:
1. water is made up of two elements in a fixed ratio.

2. water has totally different properties from the two
elements.
nstamojo.com/onlinefreenotes
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: A= fusion
B= vapourisation
C= condensation
D= solidification
E= sublimation
F= sublimation
TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
1. In which state of matter, process of diffusion is

fastest:
Answer: (ii) Gases
2. During evaporation process, the heat is:
Answer: (i) Absorbed
3. When water gets solidified into ice, then heat is:
Answer: (ii) Evolved
4. Boiling of a liquid takes place at:
Answer: (ii) a fixed temperature and normal

atmospheric pressure.
*****

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 2: IS MATTER AROUND heterogeneous homogeneous in heterogeneous

in nature. nature. in nature.
US PURE They scatter a They do not They scatter a
beam of light scatter a beam beam of light
IN-TEXT / PAGE 16 and hence show of light and and hence show
1. What is meant by a pure substance? Tyndall effect. hence do not Tyndall effect.
show Tyndall
Answer:: A material that is composed of only one type effect.
of particles is called pure substance. All the constituent They are quite Examples of Examples of
particles of a pure substance have same chemical stable. solution are: salt suspension are:
nature. in water, sugar d sand in water,
in water. dusty air.
2. List the points of differences between homogeneous
and heterogeneous mixtures.
3. To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium
Answer: chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its
concentration at this temperature.
Homogeneous mixtures Heterogeneous mixtures
Homogeneous mixtures Heterogeneous mixtures Answer:: Mass of solute (sodium chloride) = 36 g (Given)
have uniform composition. have non uniform Mass of solvent (water) = 100 g (Given)
composition.
It has no visible It has visible boundaries of Then, mass of solution = Mass of solute + Mass of
boundaries of separation separation between its solvent = (36 + 100) g
between its constituents. constituents. = 136 g
Its concentration at this temperature

IN-TEXT / PAGE 19
1. Differentiate between homogeneous and

heterogeneous mixtures with examples.
Answer:: A homogeneous mixture is a mixture having a

uniform composition throughout the mixture. For
example, mixtures of salt in water, sugar in water, IN-TEXT
TEXT / PAGE 25
copper sulphate in water, iodine in alcohol, alloy, and
air have uniform compositions throughout the mixtures. 1. How will you separate a mixture containing
kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points
On the other hand, a heterogeneous mixture is a is more than 25°C), which are miscible with each
mixture having a non-uniform
uniform composition throughout other?
the mixture.
e. For example, composition of mixtures of
sodium chloride and iron fillings, salt and sulphur, oil Answer:: Kerosene and petrol are miscible liquids also
and water, chalk powder in water, wheat flour in water, the difference between their boiling point is more than
milk and water are not uniform throughout the 25°C so they can be separated by the method of
mixtures. distillation.
2. How are sol, solution and suspension different

diff from In this method, the mixture of kerosene and petrol is
each other? tillation flask with a thermometer fitted in
taken in a distillation
it. We also need a beaker, a water condenser, and a
Answer: Bunsen burner. The apparatus is arranged as shown in
the figure. Then, the mixture is heated slowly. The
Sol Solution Suspension
They are They are They are thermometer should be watched simultaneously.
Kerosene will vaporize and condense in the water
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
condenser. The condensed kerosene is collected from Passing of electric current through water, and water
the condenser outlet, whereas petrol is left behind in breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gas
the distillation flask.
Answer: Chemical change
Dissolving common salt in water
Answer: Physical change
Making a fruit salad with raw fruits
Answer: Physical change
Burning of paper and wood
Answer: Chemical change
EXERCISE
2. Name the technique to separate 1. Which separation techniques will you apply for the
(i) Butter from curd separation of the following?
Answer: By Centrifugation (a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water.
(ii) Salt from sea-water Answer: Evaporation
Answer: By Evaporation (b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing
(iii) Camphor from salt sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.
Answer: By Sublimation Answer: Sublimation
3. What type of mixtures is separated by the technique (c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.
of crystallization? Answer: Filtration or Centrifugation or decantation
Answer: The crystallization method is used to purify (d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
solids.
Answer: Chromatography
IN-TEXT / PAGE 25
(e) Butter from curd.
1. Classify the following as chemical or physical
changes: Answer: Centrifugation
Cutting of trees (f) Oil from water.
Answer: Physical change Answer: Using separating funnel
Melting of butter in a pan (g) Tea leaves from tea.
Answer: Physical change Answer: Filtration
Rusting of almirah (h) Iron pins from sand.
Answer: Chemical change Answer: Magnetic separation
Boiling of water to form steam (i) Wheat grains from husk.
Answer: Physical change Answer: Winnowing
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: Centrifugation liquid or gas. A solvent, on the other hand

ha is defined as
a substance which is present in large proportion in a
2. Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use
solution. It also can be solid, liquid or gas.
the words: solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble,
insoluble, filtrate and residue. 6. What would happen if you were to take a certain
saturated solution at a certain temperature and cool it
Answer:: First, water is taken as a solvent in a saucer
slowly? What is the nature of such
s solutions?
pan. This water (solvent) is allowed to boil. During
Du
heating, milk and tea leaves are added to the solvent as Answer:: When the solution is cooled, the solubility of
solutes. They form a solution. Then, the solution is the solute decreases and this causes the solute to
poured through a strainer. The insoluble part of the precipitate out as crystal in the solutions. The solute will
solution remains on the strainer as residue. Sugar added crystalize until the solubility of the solute reaches the
to the filtrate, which dissolvess in the filtrate. The equilibrium of thehe solvent.
resulting solution is the required tea.
The nature of such solutions are still liquid and the
3. Why crystallisation method is considered better crystals are solids.
than the simple distillation method?
7. Name the following:
Answer:: Crystallisation technique is better than simple
(a) Which can dissolve others?
evaporation technique as:
(b) Which get dissolves in others?
i. Some solids decompose or some, like sugar, may get (c) Which forms a clear liquid formed by the
charred on heating to dryness. combination of two components?
ii. Some impurities may remain dissolved in the solution
Answer: (a) Solvent
even after filtration. On evaporation, these contaminate
the solid. (b) Solute
4. Which of the following solutions will be more stable (c) Homogenous solution
and why?
8. Pragya tested the solubility of three different
(i) Saturated and Unsaturated solution substances at different temperatures and collected the
(i) Aqueous and Non-aqueous solution data as given below (results are given in the following
(iii) True solution and Suspension. table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100
1 grams of
water to form a saturated solution).
Answer: (i) Saturated solution - Saturated solution will
be more stable as solute dissolved is exactly equal to
solubility.
(ii) Non-aqueous solution - Due to lesser degree of

dissociation, non-aqueous
aqueous solution is more stable.
(iii) True solution - Particles in solution dissolve

homogenously, thus it's more stable than suspension in
which less soluble particles precipitate after some time.
(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed
5. What kind of parameters are taken into account to to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in
classify substance into a solute or a solvent? 50 grams of water at 313 K?
Answer:: One of the most basic parameters is that (b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium
usually, solutes are solids, whereas solvents are liquids. chloride in water att 353 K and leaves the solution
However, a solute is defined as a substance which is tocool at room temperature. What would she observe
present in small proportion in a solution. It can be solid, as the solution cools? Explain.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. What salt (d) A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture in which
has the highest solubility at this temperature? solids are dispersed in liquids. The solute particles in
suspension do not dissolve but remain suspended
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the
throughout the medium. For example Paints, Muddy
solubility of a salt?
water chalk water mixtures etc.
Answer: (a) Since 62 g of potassium nitrate is dissolved
10. Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or
in 100g of water to prepare a saturated solution at 313
heterogeneous mixture. Soda water, wood, air, soil,
K, 31 g of potassium nitrate should be dissolved in 50 g
vinegar, filtered tea.
of water to prepare a saturated solution at 313 K.
Answer: Homogeneous mixtures: Soda water, air,
(b) The amount of potassium chloride that should be
vinegar, filtered tea
dissolved in water to make a saturated solution
increases with temperature. Thus, as the solution cools 11. How would you confirm that a colourless liquid
some of the potassium chloride will precipitate out of given to you is pure water?
the solution.
Answer: Take a sample of colourless liquid and put on
(c) The solubility of the salts at 293 K are: stove if it starts boiling exactly at 100 ºC then it is pure
water. Any other colourless liquid such as vinegar
Potassium nitrate – 32 g
always have different boiling point. Also observe
Sodium chloride – 36 g
carefully that after some time whole liquid will convert
Potassium chloride – 35 g
into vapour without leaving any residue.
Ammonium chloride – 37 g
Ammonium chloride has the highest solubility at 293 K. 12. Which of the following materials fall in the
category of a "pure substance"?
(d) The solubility of a salt increases with temperature.
(a) Ice
9. Explain the following giving examples:
(b) Milk
(a) Saturated solution (c) Iron
(b) Pure substance (d) Hydrochloric Acid
(c) Colloid (e) Calcium oxide
(d) Suspension (f) Mercury
(g) Brick
Answer: (a) Solution in which no more solute can be (h) Wood
dissolved at a particular temperature is known as (i) Air
saturated solution. For example in aqueous solution of
sugar no more sugar can be dissolved at room Answer: The following materials fall in the category of a
temperature. "pure substance":
(b) A pure substance is a substance consisting of a single (a) Ice

type of particles i.e., all constituent particles of the (c) Iron
substance have the same chemical properties. For (d) Hydrochloric acid
example water, sugar, salt etc. (e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(c) A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture whose particles
are not as small as solution but they are so small that 13. Identify the solutions among the following
cannot be seen by naked eye. When a beam of light is mixtures:
passed through a colloid then the path of the light
(a) Soil
becomes visible. For example milk, smoke etc.
(b) Sea water
(c) Air

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
(d) Coal (f) Freezing of water

(e) Soda water (g) Burning of candle
Answer: The following mixtures are solutions: Answer: The following changes are chemical changes:
(b) Sea water (a) Growth of a plant

(c) Air (b) Rusting of iron
(e) Soda water (d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
14. Which of the following will show the "Tyndall
(g) Burning of candle
effect"?
TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION:
(a) Salt solution
(b) Milk 1. What happens when a saturated solution is cooled?
(c) Copper sulphate solution
Answer: (iii) It becomes supersaturated
(d) Starch solution
2. Which of the following is an element?
Answer: Tyndall effect is shown by colloidal solution.
Here milk and starch solution are colloids therefore milk Answer: (i) Oxygen gas
and starch solution will show Tyndall effect.
3. Which of the following is an aqueous solution?
15. Classify the following into elements, compounds
and mixtures: Answer: (iii) Sodium chloride in water
(a) Sodium 4. The substances that sublime easily are:

(b) Soil Answer: (iv) Iodine, acetone, camphor, petrol and
(c) Sugar solution naphthalene.
(d) Silver
(e) Calcium carbonate 5. Chromatography is the technique which is used for
(f) Tin separation of those solutes that:
(g) Silicon Answer: (i) Dissolve in the same solvent
(h) Coal
(i) Air *****
(j) Soap
(k) Methane
(l) Carbon dioxide
(m) Blood
Answer: Elements: Sodium, Silver, Tin and Silicon.
Compounds: Calcium carbonate, Methane and carbon

dioxide.
Mixtures: Soil, Sugar, Coal, Air, Soap and Blood.
16. Which of the following are chemical changes?
(a) Growth of a plant

(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Mixing of iron fillings and sand
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 3: ATOMS AND MOLECULES Therefore, the mass of oxygen gas required to react
completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas is 8 × 3g = 24 g.
IN-TEXT / PAGE NO: 34
3. Which postulate of Dalton's atomic theory is the
1. In a reaction, 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted result of the law of conservation of mass?
with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2 g of
Answer: The postulate of Dalton: "Atoms are indivisible
carbon dioxide, 0.9 g water and 8.2 g of sodium
particles, which cannot be created or destroyed in a
ethanoate. Show that these observations are in
chemical reaction" is the result of the law of
agreement with the law of conservation of mass.
conservation of mass.
Sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid → sodium
4. Which postulate of Dalton's atomic theory can
ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water
explain the law of definite proportions?
Answer: In the given reaction, sodium carbonate reacts
Answer: The postulate of Dalton, “The relative number
with ethanoic acid to produce sodium ethanoate,
and kinds of atoms are constant in a given compound”,
carbon dioxide, and water.
can explain the law of definite proportions.
Sodium Carbonate + Ethanoic acid → sodium ethanoate
+ carbon dioxide + water
1. Define atomic mass unit.
Mass of sodium carbonate = 5.3 g (Given)
Mass of ethanoic acid = 6 g (Given) Answer: Mass unit equal to exactly one-twelfth the
Mass of sodium ethanoate = 8.2 g (Given) mass of one atom of carbon-12 is called one atomic
Mass of carbon dioxide = 2.2 g (Given) mass unit. It is written as 'u'.
Mass of water = 0.9 g (Given)
2. Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked
Now, total mass before the reaction = (5.3 + 6) g eyes?
= 11.3 g
Answer: The size of an atom is so small that it is not
And, total mass after the reaction possible to see it with naked eyes. Also, the atom of an
= (8.2 + 2.2 + 0.9) g element does not exist independently.
= 11.3 g
∴ Total mass before the reaction = Total mass after the
reaction 1. Write down the formulae of
Hence, the given observations are in agreement with Answer: (i) Sodium oxide
the law of conservation of mass. ► Na2O
IN-TEXT / PAGE NO: 35 (ii) Aluminum chloride
2. Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by ► AlCl3
mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would
be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen (iii) sodium sulphide
gas? ► Na2S
Answer: It is given that the ratio of hydrogen and (iv) magnesium hydroxide
oxygen by mass to form water is 1:8.
► Mg(OH)2
Then, the mass of oxygen gas required to react
completely with 1 g of hydrogen gas is 8 g. 2. Write down the names of compounds represented
by the following formulae:

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: (i) Al2(SO4)3 = 12 + 2 × 16

= 44 u
► Aluminum sulphate
Molecular mass of CH4= Atomic mass of C + 4 × Atomic
(ii) CaCl2
mass of H
► Calcium chloride = 12 + 4 × 1
= 16 u
(iii) K2SO4
Molecular mass of C2H6= 2× Atomic mass of C + 6×
► Potassium sulphate Atomic mass of H
(iv) KNO3 = 2 × 12 + 6 × 1
= 30 u
► Potassium nitrate
Molecular mass of C2H4= 2 x Atomic mass of C + 4 ×
(v) CaCO3 Atomic mass of H
► Calcium carbonate = 2 × 12 + 4 × 1
= 28 u
3. What is meant by the term chemical formula?
Molecular mass of NH3 = Atomic mass of N + 3 × Atomic
Answer: The chemical formula of a compound is a mass of H
symbolic representation of its composition. = 14 + 3×1
= 17 u
4. How many atoms are present in a
Molecular mass of CH3OH= Atomic mass of C + 3 ×
(i) H2S molecule and
Atomic mass of H + Atomic mass of O + Atomic mass of
(ii) PO43- ion?
H
Answer: (i) In an H2S molecule, three atoms are present; = 12 + 3×1 + 8 + 1
two of hydrogen and one of sulphur. = 24 u
(ii) In a PO43- ion, five atoms are present; one of 2. Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO, Na2O,
phosphorus and four of oxygen. K2CO3, given atomic masses of Zn = 65 u, Na = 23 u, K =
39 u, C = 12 u, and O = 16 u.
Answer: Formula unit mass of ZnO = Atomic mass of Zn
1. Calculate the molecular masses of H2, O2, Cl2, CO2,
+ Atomic mass of O
CH4, C2H6, C2H4, NH3, CH3OH.
= 65 + 16
Answer: Molecular mass of H2= 2 × Atomic mass of H = 81 u
=2×1
Formula unit mass of Na2O = 2 × Atomic mass of Na +
=2u
Atomic mass of O
Molecular mass of O2= 2 × Atomic mass of O = 2 × 23 + 16
= 2 × 16 = 62 u
= 32 u
Formula unit mass of K2CO3= 2 × Atomic mass of K +
Molecular mass of Cl2= 2 × Atomic mass of Cl Atomic mass of C + 3 × Atomic mass of O
= 2 × 35.5 = 2 × 39 + 12 + 3 × 16
= 71 u = 78 + 12 + 48
= 122 u
Molecular mass of CO2= Atomic mass of C + 2 × Atomic
mass of O IN-TEXT / PAGE NO: 44

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
1. If one mole of carbon atoms weighs 12 gram, what Thus, percentage of boron in the compound
is the mass (in gram) of 1 atom of carbon? = 0.096 / 0.24 × 100%
= 40%
Answer: One mole of carbon atoms weighs 12 g (Given)
And, percentage of oxygen by weight in the compound
i.e., mass of 1 mole of carbon atoms
= 0.144 / 0.24 × 100%
= 12 g
= 60%
Then, mass of 6.022 × 1023 number of carbon atoms
2. When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen,
= 12 g
11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced. What mass of
Therefore, mass of 1 atom of carbon carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00 g of carbon is
= 12 ÷ (6.022 × 1023) burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen? Which law of chemical
= 1.9926 x 10-23 g combinations will govern your answer?
2. Which has more number of atoms, 100 grams of Answer: 3.0 g of carbon combines with 8.0 g of oxygen
sodium or 100 grams of iron (given, atomic mass of Na to give 11.00 of carbon dioxide.
= 23 u, Fe = 56 u)?
If 3 g of carbon is burnt in 50 g of oxygen, then 3 g of
Answer: Atomic mass of Na = 23 u (Given) carbon will react with 8 g of oxygen. The remaining 42 g
of oxygen will be left un-reactive.
Then, gram atomic mass of Na = 23 g
In this case also, only 11 g of carbon dioxide will be
Now, 23 g of Na contains formed.
= 6.022 × 1023 g number of atoms
The above answer is governed by the law of constant
Thus, 100 g of Na contains proportions.
= 6.022 × 1023 / 23×100 number of atoms
= 2.6182 × 1024 number of atoms 3. What are polyatomic ions? Give examples?
Again, atomic mass of Fe = 56 u (Given) Answer: A polyatomic ion is a group of atoms carrying a
charge (positive or negative).
Then, gram atomic mass of Fe = 56 g
e.g., Nitrate (NO3-), and hydroxide ion (OH-).
Now, 56 g of Fe contains
= 6.022 × 1023 g number of atoms 4. Write the chemical formulae of the following:
Thus, 100 g of Fe contains Answer: (a) Magnesium chloride

= 6.022 × 1023 / 56 × 100 number of atoms
► MgCl2
= 1.0753 × 1024 number of atoms
(b) Calcium oxide
Therefore, 100 grams of sodium contain more number
of atoms than 100 grams of iron. ► CaO
EXERCISE (c) Copper nitrate
1. A 0.24 g sample of compound of oxygen and boron ► Cu (NO3)2

was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g of boron and
(d) Aluminum chloride
0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage
composition of the compound by weight. ► AlCl3
Answer: Total mass of Compound = 0.24 g (Given) (e) Calcium carbonate
Mass of boron = 0.096 g (Given) ► CaCO3
Mass of oxygen = 0.144 g (Given)
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
5. Give the names of the elements present in the (b) The mass of 4 moles of aluminium atoms is (4 × 27) g
following compounds: = 108 g
Answer: (a) Quick lime (c) The mass of 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2SO3) is
10 × [2×23 + 32 + 3×16] g = 10×126 g
► Calcium and oxygen
= 1260 g
(b) Hydrogen bromide
8. Convert into mole.
► Hydrogen and bromine
(a) 12 g of oxygen gas
(c) Baking powder (b) 20 g of water
(c) 22 g of carbon dioxide
► Sodium, hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen
Answer: (a) 32 g of oxygen gas = 1 mole
(d) Potassium sulphate
Then, 12 g of oxygen gas = 12 / 32 mole = 0.375 mole
► Potassium, sulphur, and oxygen
(b) 18 g of water = 1 mole
6. Calculate the molar mass of the following
substances: Then, 20 g of water = 20 / 18 mole = 1.111 mole
Answer: (a) Ethyne, C2H2 (c) 44 g of carbon dioxide = 1 mole
► Molar mass of ethyne, C2H2 = 2×12 + 2 × 1 Then, 22 g of carbon dioxide = 22 / 44 mole = 0.5 mole
= 26 g
9. What is the mass of:
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?
►Molar mass of sulphur molecule, S8 = 8×32 (b) 0.5 mole of water molecules?
= 256 g
Answer: (a) Mass of one mole of oxygen atoms = 16 g
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4 (atomic mass of
Then, mass of 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms = 0.2 × 16g
phosphorus = 31)
= 3.2 g
► Molar mass of phosphorus molecule, P4 = 4 × 31
(b) Mass of one mole of water molecule = 18 g
= 124 g
Then, mass of 0.5 mole of water molecules
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
= 0.5 × 18 g
► Molar mass of hydrochloric acid, HCl = 1 + 35.5 =9g
= 36.5 g
10. Why initially oxygen was taken as a standard for
(e) Nitric acid, HNO3 defining various atomic mass units?
► Molar mass of nitric acid, HNO3 = 1 + 14 + 3×16 Answer: Initially oxygen was taken as a standard for
= 63 g defining various atomic mass units because:
7. What is the mass of: i) Oxygen reacts with a large number of elements and
forms compounds.
(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms? ii) This atomic number gave masses of most elements as
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of whole numbers.
aluminium = 27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2SO3)? 11. Why was the Dalton's atomic theory modified
when the structure of atom was known properly?
Answer: (a) The mass of 1 mole of nitrogen atoms is 14
g.
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: Dalton's atomic theory was modified when the The atomic weight of oxygen is 16.00 grams.
structure of atom was known properly because:
Therefore, the overall mass of 1 mole of water is
i) The indivisibility of an atom was proved wrong: an = (1.01×2) + 16.00
atom can be further subdivided into protons, neutrons =18.02g
and electrons.
Using Avogadro’s number,
ii) According to Dalton, the atoms of same element are
Mass of 10 molecule of water
similar in all respects. However, atoms of some
= (18.02/6.022×1023) x 10
elements vary in their masses and densities. These
=2.992×10−22 grams
atoms of different masses are called isotopes.
15. What is meant by molecules of a compound? How
12. Atoms are so insignificant in size, but still we are
many different types of molecules are known? Explain.
very much concerned about them. Why is it so?
Answer: Molecule can be defined as the smallest
Answer: Atoms are so small in size but we are very
particle of an element or a compound that is capable of
much concerned about them because all matters are
an independent existence and shows all the properties
made up of atoms and thus are the basis for studying
of that substance.
matter.
The different types of molecules are:
13. What is the term used to indicate the atomic
particle which contains: i) Monoatomic molecule: A molecule consisting only
one atom is called monoatomic molecule.
(i) More electrons than its neutral atom
ii) Diatomic molecule: If a molecule consists of two
(ii) Less electrons than its neutral atom?
atoms, is called diatomic molecule.
Answer: (i) The atomic particle which contains more iii) Triatomic molecule: If it consists of three atoms, it is
electrons than its neutral atom is called anion. called triatomic molecule.
iv) Polyatomic molecule: If a molecule consists of many
(ii) The atomic particle which contains less electrons
atoms, it is called polyatomic molecule.
than its neutral atom is called cation.
v) Homoatomic molecule: A molecule containing same
14. Calculate the mass of: type of atoms, is called homoatomic molecule.
vi) Hetero-atomic molecule: When a molecule consists
(i) 10 atoms of carbon of different kind of atoms, it is called hetero-atomic
(ii) 10 molecules of water molecule.
(iii) 0.5 moles of CO₂
16. Which type of atoms occurs to the form of:
Answer: i. We know,
(i) Neutral atoms (Noble gases)
1 mole of carbon atom = Gram atomic mass of carbon (ii) Neutral aggregates (molecules)
= 12 g (iii) Positively charged aggregates (cations)
Also, (iv) Negatively charged aggregates (anions)
1 mole of carbon atoms = 6.022 x 1023 atoms of carbon. Answer: i. Most stable type of atoms are in noble gas
Therefore, because their outer shell are completely filled.
6.022 x 1023 atoms of carbon weigh = 12 g ii. Same type of atoms occurs to the form of neutral
aggregates (molecules).
So, 1 atom of carbon weigh = (12g / 6.022 × 1023)× 10
atom iii. Positively charged atom or a group of atoms occur to
= 1.99 × 10-22g the form of positively charged aggregates (cations).
ii. The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1.01 grams

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
iv. Negatively charged atom or a group of atoms occur 3. The molecular formula of aluminum sulphate is:
to the form of negatively charged aggregates (anions).
Answer: (i) Al2(SO4)3
4. The symbol of calcium, carbon and copper are:

17. Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur (S8)
Answer: (ii) Ca, C, Cu
present in 16 g of solid sulphur.
******
Answer: 1 mole of solid sulphur (S8) = 8 × 32 g
= 256 g
i.e., 256 g of solid sulphur contains = 6.022 × 1023

molecules
Then, 16 g of solid sulphur contains

= 6.022 × 1023 / 256
= 16 molecules
= 3.76375 × 1022 molecules
18. Calculate the number of aluminum ions present in

0.051 g of aluminum oxide.
(Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an

atom of the same element. Atomic mass of Al = 27 u)
Answer: Mole of aluminum oxide (Al2O3)

= 2×27 + 3×16
= 102 g
i.e., 102 g of Al2O3= 6.022 × 1023 molecules of Al2O3
Then, 0.051 g of Al2O3 contains

= 6.022 × 1023 / 102 × 0.051 molecules
= 3.011×1020 molecules of Al2O3
The number of aluminum ions (Al3+) present in one

molecule of aluminum oxide is 2.
Therefore, the number of aluminum ions (Al3+) present

in 3.011 × 1020 molecules (0.051 g ) of aluminum oxide
(Al2O3)
= 2 × 3.011 × 1020
= 6.022 × 1020
1. In a compound such as water, the ratio of the mass

of hydrogen to the mass of oxygen is always:
Answer: (i) 1:8
2. One mole of H2O means:
Answer: (i) Both (a) and (b) are correct

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 4: STRUCTURE OF ATOMS atomic particles of an atom are:

Answer: The three sub-atomic
(i) Protons (ii) Electrons, and (iii) Neutrons
IN-TEXT / PAGE 50
2. Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4 u and two
1. What are canal rays? protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons does it
have?
Answer: Canal rays are positively charged radiations.
These rays consist of positively charged particles known Answer: We know,
as protons. They were discovered by Gold stein in 1886.
No. of Protons + No. of Neutrons = (No. of electrons) =
2. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, Mass number
will it carry any charge or not?
Mass number of He = 4
Answer:: An electron is a negatively charged particle, No. of Protons in He = 2
whereas a proton is a positively charged particle. The
Using the formula,
magnitude of their charges is equal. Therefore, an atom
o. of Protons + No. of Neutrons = Mass number.
No.
containing one electron and one proton wilwill not carry
No. of Neutrons = Mass number - No. of Protons
any charge. Thus, it will be a neutral atom.
No. of Neutrons = 4-2
3. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with =2
three shells.
Therefore, No. of Neutrons in Helium atom = 2
Answer:
TEXT / PAGE 53
IN-TEXT
1. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and

sodium atoms
Answer: CARBON:
Atomic Number of Carbon = 12

Electronic Distribution: 2, 8, 2
Electrons in K - Shell = 2
Electrons in L - Shell = 8
Electrons in M - Shell = 2
SODIUM:
Atomic Number of Sodium = 11

4. What do you think would be the observation if the Electronic Distribution: 2, 8, 1
α-particle
particle scattering experiment is carried out using a
foil of a metal other than gold? Electrons in K - Shell = 2
Electrons in L - Shell = 8
Answer: If the α-scattering
scattering experiment is carried out Electrons in M - Shell = 1
using a foil of a metal rather than gold, there would be
no change in the observation. In the α-scattering
scattering 2. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would
experiment, a gold foil was taken because gold is be the total number of electrons in the atom?
malleable and a thin foil of gold can be easily made. It is Answer: The maximum numbers of electrons that can
difficult to make such foils from other metals occupy K and L shells of an atom are 2 and 8
IN-TEXT / PAGE 52 respectively.
1. Name the three sub-atomic

atomic particles of an atom. Therefore,
If K and L shells of an atom are full, then the total
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
number of electrons in the atom would be (2 + 8) = 10 Mass number of sulphur = Number of protons +
electrons. Number of neutrons
= 16 +16
IN-TEXT / PAGE 54
= 32
1. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur
IN-TEXT
TEXT / PAGE 56
and magnesium?
1. For the symbol H, D and T tabulate three sub -
Answer: If the number of electrons in the outermost
atomic particles found each of them.
shell of the atom of an element is less than or equal to
4, then the valency of the element is equal to the Answer:
number of electrons in the outermost shell. On the
other hand, if the number of electrons
rons in the outermost
shell of the atom of an element is greater than 4, then
the valency of that element is determined by
subtracting the number of electrons in the outermost 2. Write the electronic configuration
configuratio of any pair of
shell from 8. isotopes and isobars.
The distribution of electrons in Answer: Two isotopes of carbon are 6𝐶12
6 and 6𝐶14.
chlorine: 2, 8, 7
sulphur 2, 8, 6 The electronic configuration of 6
6𝐶12 is 2, 4
magnesium: 2, 8, 2
The electronic configuration of 6
6𝐶 14 is 2, 4
Therefore, the number of electrons in the outer most
29𝐶𝑎40 and 18𝐴𝑟40
40 are a pair of isobars
shell of chlorine, sulphur, and magnesium atoms are 7,
6, and 2 respectively. The electronic configuration of 29𝐶𝑎
29 40 is 2, 8, 8, 2
Thus, The valency of chlorine = 8 −7 = 1 The electronic configuration of 18

18𝐴𝑟 40 is 2, 8, 8
The valency of sulphur = 8 − 6 = 2
EXERCISE
The valency of magnesium = 2
1. Compare the properties of electrons, protons and
IN-TEXT / PAGE 55
neutrons.
1. If number of electrons in an atom is 8 and number
Answer:
of protons is also 8, then (i) what is the atomic number
of the atom and (ii) what is the charge on the atom?
Answer: (i) The atomic number is equal to the number

of protons. Therefore,
efore, the atomic number of the atom is
8.
(ii) Since the number of both electrons and protons is
equal, therefore, the charge on the atom is 0.
0
2. With the help of Table 4.1, find out the mass

number of oxygen and sulphur atom.
Answer: Mass number of oxygen

ygen = Number of protons +
Number of neutrons 2. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of
=8+8 the atom?
= 16
Answer: According to J.J. Thomson’s model of an atom,
an atom consists of a positively charged sphere with

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
electrons embedded in it. However, it was later found in it. The number of electrons is equal to the number of
that the positively charged particles reside at the center protons so the atom is electrically neutral.
of the atom called the nucleus, and the electrons
ele
Rutherford Model: In this model, there is a positively
revolve around the nucleus.
charged centre in an atom called the nucleus. Nearly all
3. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus. The
the atom? electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths.
The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the
Answer: According to Rutherford’s model of an atom,
size of the atom.
electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed orbits.
But, an electron revolving in circular orbits will n
not be Bohr Model:: In this model, only certain special orbits
stable because during revolution, it will experience known as the discrete orbit of electrons, are allowe
allowed
acceleration. Due to acceleration, the electrons will lose inside the atom. While revolving the electrons do not
energy in the form of radiation and fall into the nucleus. radiate energy. These orbits are called energy levels or
In such a case, the atom would be highly unstable and shells.
collapse.
6. Summarize the rules for writing of distribution of
4. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom. electrons in various shells for the first eighteen
elements.
Answer: Bohr’s model of the atom Niels Bohr proposed
the following postulates regarding the model of the Answer: The rules forr writing of the distribution of
atom. electrons in various shells for the first eighteen
elements are given below:
(i) Only certain orbits known as discrete orbits of
electrons are allowed inside the atom. (i) The maximum number of electrons that a shell can
(ii) While revolving in thesee discrete orbits, the accommodate is given by the formula '2n2’, where 'n' is
electrons do not radiate energy. These discrete orbits or the orbit number (n = 1, 2, 3...).
shells are shown in the following diagram.
Maximum number of electrons in different shells are:
K shell (n = 1)
2n2 ⇒ 2(1)2 = 2
L shell (n = 2)
2n2 ⇒ 2(2)2 = 8
M shell (n = 3)
2n2 ⇒ 2(3)2 = 18
N shell (n = 4)
The first orbit (i.e., for n = 1) is represented by letter K.
2n2 ⇒ 2(4)2 = 32
Similarly, for n = 2, it is L − shell, for n = 3, it is
(ii) The maximum number of electrons that can be
M − shell and for n = 4, it is N − shell. These orbits or
accommodated in the outermost orbit is 8.
shells are also called energy levels.
(iii) Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell
5. Compare all the proposed models of an atom given
unless the inner shells are filled (Shells are filled step-
step
in this chapter.
wise).
Answer:
7. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and
Thompson Model: In this model, an atom consists of a oxygen.
positively charged sphere and the electro
electrons embedded

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: The valency of an element is the combining They are atoms of different elements having same mass
capacity of that element. The valency of an element is number but different atomic number.
1determined by the number of valence electrons
For example calcium, atomic number 20 and argon,
present in the atom of that element. If the number of
atomic number 18.
valence electrons of the atom of an element is less than
or equal to four, then the valency of that element is The number of electrons in these atoms is different, but
equal to the number of valence electrons. For example, the mass number of both these elements is 40. That is,
the atom of silicon has four valence electrons. the total number of neutrons is the same in the atoms
of this pair of elements.
Thus, the valency of silicon is four.
Two uses of isotopes are as follows:
On the other hand, if the number of valence electrons
of the atom of an element is greater than four, then the (i) An isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear
valency of that element is obtained by subtracting the reactors.
number of valence electrons from eight. For example, (ii) An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of
the atom of oxygen has six valence electrons. cancer.
Thus, the valency of oxygen is (8 − 6) i.e., two. 9. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.
8. Explain with examples Answer: Na has atomic number 11, so its electronic
configuration is = 2, 8, 1
(i) Atomic number,
(ii) Mass number, When it gives away its outermost shell single electron it
(iii) Isotopes and changes to Na+ =10= 2, 8
(iv) Isobars.
The above configuration indicates completely filled K, L
Give any two uses of isotopes. shells.
Answer: (i) Atomic number 10. If bromine atom is available in the form of, say,
two isotopes Br 3579 (49.7%) and Br 3581 (50.3%),
The atomic number of an element is the total number
calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom.
of protons present in the atom of that element.
Answer: The average atomic mass of bromine
For example, nitrogen has 7 protons in its atom. Thus,
the atomic number of nitrogen is 7. = (79 x 49.7) + (81 x 50.3)/100
= (3926.3 + 4074.3)/100
(ii) Mass number
= 8000.6/100
The mass number of an element is the sum of the = 80 u
number of protons and neutrons present in the atom of
11. The average atomic mass of a sample of an
that element. For example, the atom of boron has 5
element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of
protons and 6 neutrons. So, the mass number of boron
isotopes8X16 and 8X 18 in the sample?
is 5 + 6 = 11.
Answer: In order to solve this problem, we will have to
(iii) Isotopes
suppose that the percentage of one of the isotopes in
They are atoms of the same element and have same the sample is x, so that the percentage of the other
atomic number but different mass number/atomic isotope in the sample will be (100-x)
mass. For example:
Now,
Carbon: 6C12 and 6C14
(i) The mass of X isotope is 16 u. Suppose its percentage
(iv) Isobars in the sample is x %.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
(ii) The mass of X isotope is 18 u. Its percentage in the 15. Which problem of atomic structure was solved by
sample will be (100-x)%. the discovery of neutron?
So, Average atomic mass of X = 16 × x/100 + 18 × (100- Answer: Prior to the discovery of neutron, the atomic
x)/100. mass of many atoms were found to be double or more
than double the mass of total number of mass. The
But the average atomic mass of X has been given to be discovery or neutron solved the problem as the atomic
16 u. Therefore, particle has mass but no charge.
16.2 = 16 × x/100 + 18 × (100-x)/100. 16. Which of the two would be chemically more
16.2 = 16x + 1800 - 18x / 100 reactive:
16.2 × 100 = 1800 - 2x (a) An element X with atomic number 10.
2x = 1800 – 1620 (b) An element Y with atomic number 17.
2x = 180 Give reason also.
x = 180/2
Answer: Element X’s configuration is (2,8) while
x = 90
element Y’s configuration is (2,8,7) so Y will be more
Thus the percentage of X in the sample is 90℅. The reactive.
percentage of the other isotope X in the sample will be
Y will be more reactive as it will try to bond with other
100-90 = 10%.
elements to complete its outermost shell, while with 8
12. If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? electrons in the outmost shell, element X has become
Also, name the element. inert.
Answer: By Z = 3, we mean that the atomic number of

the element is 3. Its electronic configuration is 2, 17. What will be the number of valence electrons in:
(a) Na+ ion (b) Mg2+ ion (c) Cl- ion (d) N3- ton
1.Hence, the valency of the element is 1 (since the
outermost shell has only one electron).Therefore, the Answer: (a) Eight
element with Z = 3 is lithium. (b) Ten
(c) Eight
13. Why atom is called an electrically neutral particle
(d) Eight
of matter?
Answer: Atoms are electrically neutral because they

18. Give reasons for the following:
contain equal quantities of positively charged protons
(i) In potassium and calcium, the filling of electrons in
and negatively charged electrons. Electrons and protons
the N-shell starts after M-shell has acquired 8
have equal but opposite charges, so the result is no net
electrons although M shell can accommodate upto 18
charge. Ions are atoms that have gained or lost
electrons.
electrons. As a result, ions have a net charge.
(ii) Atoms combine with other atoms.
(iii) The atomic masses of elements are in fractions.
14. Why atomic number is considered very important
Answer: (a) When atomic number increases, the
to know about the chemical behavior of an element?
difference of energy between the successive shells
Answer: If we know the atomic number of an element, decreases. As a result of this, the M and N energy shells
then we are able to locate its place in the Periodic come so close together that they overlap. Due to this
Table. This gives us much relative information about fact, the electrons start entering into N-shell when M-
physical and chemical characteristics of that element. shell has acquired 8 electrons.
Also the number of electrons allows us to work out the
But when N-shell acquires 2 electrons, further M-shell
orbital structure and gives us a great deal of
comes to lower energy level and further electrons enter
information about its chemical properties.
into the M-shell.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
(b) Atoms combine together to complete their OCTET 21. For the following statements, write T for ‘True’ and
and become stable. In the outermost shell, the atom F for ‘False’.
should have eight electrons to become stable and in
case of first shell there should be 2 electrons for the (a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom
same. contains only nucleons.
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton
19. An ion Y3- contains 18 electrons and 16 neutrons. combining together. Therefore, it is neutral.
Calculate the atomic number and mass number of the (c) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that
element Y. Name the element Y. of proton.
Answer: Number of electron in Y3- ion = 18 since (d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture
negative charge is formed by gain of electrons by the iodine, which is used as a medicine.
neutral atom and the number of electrons gained is
Answer: (a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of
equal to the number of units of negative charge on the
an atom contains only nucleons. (F)
ion.
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton
Number of electrons in the neutral atom = 18 - 3 = 15.
combining together. Therefore, it is neutral. (F)
Now, for a neutral atom, Atomic number=Number of
protons = Number of electrons. (c) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that
Atomic number of the element Y = 15 of proton. (T)
Mass number of the element
(d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture
=Number of protons + Number of neutrons. iodine, which is used as a medicine. (T)
=15 + 16 = 31
22. Put tick (√ ) against correct choice and cross ( x )
The given element Y with atomic number 15 is against wrong choice in the following question:
phosphorus.
Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was
20. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X responsible for the discovery of
and Y are given as under
(a) Atomic nucleus
XY (b) Electron
(c) Proton
Protons = 6 6 (d) Neutron
Neutrons = 6 8
Answer: Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering
Give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation experiment was responsible for the discovery of
between the two species?
(a) Atomic nucleus (√ )
Answer: Mass number of X = Number of protons + (b) Electron ( x )
Number of neutrons (c) Proton ( x )
=6+6 (d) Neutron ( x )
= 12 23. Put tick ( √ ) against correct choice and cross ( x )
Mass number of Y = Number of protons + Number of against wrong choice in the following question:
neutrons Isotopes of an element have
=6+8 (a) the same physical properties
= 14 (b) different chemical properties
These two atomic species X and Y have the same atomic (c) different number of neutrons
number, but different mass numbers. (d) different atomic numbers
Hence, they are isotopes. Answer: Isotopes of an element have

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
(a) the same physical properties ( x )
(b) different chemical properties ( x )
(c) different number of neutrons (√ )
(d) different atomic numbers ( x )
24. Put tick (√√ ) against correct choice and cross ( x )

against wrong choice in the following
question:Number of valence electrons in Cl−ion
Cl are:
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 17 TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
(d) 18 1. An alpha particle is also known as:
Answer: Number of valence electrons in Cl−ion
Cl are: Answer: (ii) An unionised helium atom.
atom
(a) 16 ( x ) Buqr scheme, the maximum
2. According to Bohr-Buqr
(b) 8 (√ ) number of electrons which can be accomodated in a
given shell is given by the formula.
(c) 17 ( x )
Answer: (i) 2n2
(d) 18 ( x )
3. The charge on an electron is equal to:
25. Which one of the following is a correct electronic
configuration of sodium? Answer: (i) 1.6 x 10-19 C of -ve charge
(a) 2, 8 4. The isotope of uranium used as a fuel in nuclear

(b) 8, 2, 1 reactors and carbon used in radiocarbon dating are:
(c) 2, 1, 8 C-14
Answer: (iv) U-235 and C
(d) 2, 8, 1
5. The
he presence of protons and neutrons at the centre
ce
Answer: (d) The correct electronic configuration of of the atom was suggested by:
sodium is 2, 8, 1.
Answer: (ii) Protons by E. Goldstein and neutrons by J.
26. Complete the following table. Chadwick
*****
Answer:

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 5: THE FUNDAMENTAL

UNIT OF LIFE
IN-TEXT / PAGE 63
1. Who discovered cells, and how?
Answer: Robert Hooke discovered cells in 1665 while

examining a thin slice of cork through a self-designed
self
microscope. He saw that the cork resembled the
structure of a honey comb consisting of many little
compartments. These small boxes are called cells.
2. Why thehe cell is called the structural and Junctional

unit of life? Answer:
Answer:: A cell is capable of independently carrying out
all necessary activities of life. So, they are called basic or
functional unit of life.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 65
1. How do substances like C02 and water move in and

out of the cell? Discuss.
Answer: CO2 moves by diffusion and H2O move by

osmosis through cell membrane.
2. Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively

permeable membrane?
Answer:: It is called selectively permeable membrane

because it allows the entry and exit of some substances,
not all. TEXT / PAGE 69
IN-TEXT
IN-TEXT / PAGE 65 1. Can you name the two organelles we have studied
1. Fill in the gaps in the following table illustrating that contain their own genetic material?
differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Answer:: The two organelles which have their own
genetic material are:
1. Mitochondria 2. Plastids
2. If the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some

physical or chemical influence, what will happen?
Answer:: The cell will not be able to revive and

lysosomes will digest it.
3. Why are lysosomes known as suicide hags?

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: When the cell gets damaged, lysosomes may dispatching of materials synthesised by the cell will be
burst, and the enzymes digest their own cell. Therefore stocked.
lysosomes are known as suicide bags.
5. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the
4. Where are proteins synthesised inside the cell? cell? Why?
Answer: The proteins are synthesised in the ribosomes Answer: Mitochondria is known as powerhouse of the
that are also known as protein factories. cell because it releases the energy required for different
activities of life.
EXERCISE
6. Where do the lipids and proteins constituting the
1. Make a comparison and write down ways in which
cell membrane get synthesised?
plant cells are also different from animal cells.
Answer: Lipids and proteins are synthesised in ER
Answer:
[Endoplasmic Reticulum].
7. How does Amoeba obtain it’s food?
Answer: Amoeba take it’s food by the cell membrane

which forms the food vacuole.
2. How is prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic

cell? 8. What is osmosis?
Answer: Prokaryotic cell is generally smaller in size (1- Answer: Osmosis is the process of movement of water
10 pm), nuclear region is poorly defined, the cell molecule from a region of higher water concentration
organelles are not membrane-bound and has a single through a semi-permeable membrane to a region of
chromosome. lower water concentration.
Eukaryotic cell is generally larger in size (5-100 pm), 9. List various parts of cell which are seen when
nuclear region is well defined with nuclear membrane. studied under electron microscope.
Membrane-bound cell organelles are present and has
Answer: The various parts of the cell which are seen
more than one chromosome. when studied under electronic microscope are:
3. What would happen if the plasma membrane Ribosomes: A minute molecule comprising of RNA and
ruptures or breaks down?
related proteins, found in substantial numbers in the
Answer: If plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down cytoplasm of living cells.
then molecules of some substances will freely move in
Lysosomes: An organelle in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic
and out.
cells containing degradative catalysts encased in a layer.
4. What would happen to the life of a cell if there was Mitochondria: The most noticeable parts of
no Golgi apparatus?
mitochondria are to create the vitality currency of the
Answer: Golgi apparatus has the function of storage, cell, ATP through breath, and to manage cell digestion.
modification and packaging of the products in vesicles.
If there were no Golgi bodies, packaging and

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Golgi Body: A complex of vesicles and collapsed films enzymes. This results in cell death. Hence lysosomes are
inside the cytoplasm of most eukaryotic cells, required called as suicide bags of the cell.
in discharge and intracellular transport.
13. What are the postulates of cell theory?
Centrosomes: An organelle close to the core of a cell
Answer: The postulates of the cell theory are as follows:
that contains the centrioles (in creature cells) and from
which the axle strands create in cell division. i. All living beings are made up of cells.
ii. The cell is the structural and functional unit of a body.
Vacuoles: A space or vesicle inside the cytoplasm of a
iii. All living beings develop from a pre-existing cell.
cell, encased by a membrane and ordinarily containing
liquid. 14. Describe the structure and functions of
mitochondria and chloroplast.
10. “A cell without nucleus is with no future”.
Comment. Answer: Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses
of the cell. The energy required for various chemical
Answer: A nucleus of the cell is preferred to store the
activities needed for life is released by mitochondria in
genetic (DNA) information of the cell. The DNA is found
the form of ATP (Adenosine triphopshate) molecules.
to be quite essential for cell division and protein
ATP is known as the energy currency of the cell.
synthesis. Without the DNA, the cell can neither
Mitochondria have two membrane coverings instead of
generate chemical reactions nor separate to create
just one. The outer membrane is very porous while the
daughter cells. A cell without perfect nucleus cannot
inner membrane is deeply folded. These folds create a
able to perform vital activities so it has no future.
large surface area for ATP-generating chemical
Also, the nucleus controls all the metabolic activities reactions.
directly or indirectly. It controls the formation of various
Plastids containing the pigment chlorophyll are known
cell organelles by controlling the synthesis of proteins. A
as chloroplasts. Chloroplasts are important for
cell without a nucleus cannot perform tha vital
photosynthesis in plants. Chloroplasts also contain
activities.
various yellow or orange pigments in addition to
11. Differentiate between: chlorophyll. They manufacture food material in the
presence of sunlight by the help of Carbon dioxide and
(i) Organ and organelle.
water. The internal organisation of the plastids consists
(ii) Cell membrane and cell wall.
of numerous membrane layers embedded in a material
Answer: An organ is made of many cells arranged to called the stroma. Plastids are similar to mitochondria in
form tissues, which act together to form an organ. external structure. Like the mitochondria, plastids also
Examples of organs include the heart, liver, spleen and have their own DNA and ribosomes.
uterus.
15. Carry out the following osmosis experiment:
An organelle is a tiny specialised structure within a cell.
Take four peeled potato halves and scoop each one
While the name means “tiny organ”, an organelle is not
out to make potato cups, one of these potato cups
an organ. Examples of organelles include nuclei, golgi
should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato
bodies, mitochondria and chloroplasts
cup in a trough containing water.
12. Why are lysosomes known as "suicide bags" of a
Now,
cell?
(a) Keep cup A empty
Answer: Lysosomes are organelles present inside the
(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B
cell. They contain digestive hydrolytic enzymes that
(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C
break down components of the cell such as cellular
(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D
debris and foreign material. They also digest the cells in
which they are present (autolysis) by their own
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four

potato cups and answer the following:
(i) Explain why water gathers in the hollowed portion

of B and C.
(ii) Why is potato A necessary for this experiment?
(iii) Explain why water does not gather in the hollowed
out portions of A and D.
Answer:
(i) Water gathers in B and C because in both the

situations there is difference in the concentration of
water in the trough and water in the cup of Potato.
Hence, osmosis takes place as the potato cells act as a
semi-permeable membrane.
(ii) Potato A is necessary for this experiment for
comparison, it acts as a control.
(iii) Water does not gather in the hollowed out portions
of A and D. As cup of A does not have change in the
concentration for water to flow. For osmosis to occur
one of the concentrations should be higher than the
other.
In cup D, the cells are dead and hence the semi-

permeable membrane does not exist for the flow of
water and no osmosis takes place.
1. Tonoplast is associated with the
Answer: ii. Vacuoles
2. Which of the following cell organelle is covered by

two membranes?
Answer: iv. Both a and b
3. The smallest organelles present in the cells are
Answer: i. Ribosomes
*****

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 6: TISSUE IN-TEXT / PAGE 83
1. Name the tissue responsible for movement in our

IN-TEXT / PAGE 74
body.
1. What is a tissue?
Answer: The muscular tissue is responsible for
Answer: Tissue is a group of cells that are similar in movement in our body.
structure and are organized together to perform a
2: What does a neuron look like?
specific task.
Answer: A neuron consists of a cell body with a nucleus
2. What is the utility of tissues in multi-cellular
and cytoplasm. It has two important extensions known
organisms?
as the axon and dendrites. An axon is a long threadlike
Answer: In unicellular organisms, a single cell performs extension of nerve cells that transmits impulses away
all the basic functions such as respiration, movement, from the cell body. Dendrites, on the other hand, are
excretion, digestion, etc. But in multicellular organisms, thread-like extensions of cell body that receive nerve
cells are grouped to form tissues. These tissues are impulses. Thus, the axon transmits impulses away from
specialised to carry out a particular function at a the cell body, whereas the dendrite receives nerve
definite place in the body. For example, the muscle cells impulses. This coordinated function helps in
form muscular tissues which helps in movement, nerve transmitting impulses very quickly.
cells form the nervous tissue which helps in
3: Give three features of cardiac muscles.
transmission of messages. This is known as division of
labour in multicellular organisms. It is because of this Answer: Three features of cardiac muscles are: (i)
division of labour that multicellular organisms are able Cardiac muscles are involuntary muscles that contract
to perform all functions efficiently. rapidly, but do not get fatigued. (ii) The cells of cardiac
muscles are cylindrical, branched, and uninucleate. (iii)
IN-TEXT / PAGE 79
They control the contraction and relaxation of the
1. Name types of simple tissues. heart.
Answer: Simple permanent tissues are of three types: 4: What are the functions of areolar tissue?
Parenchyma, Collenchyma, and Sclerenchyma.
Answer: Functions of areolar tissue: (i) It helps in
Parenchyma tissue is of further two types - aerenchyma
supporting internal organs. (ii) It helps in repairing the
and chlorenchyma.
tissues of the skin and muscles.
2. Where is apical meristem found?
EXERCISE
Answer: Apical meristem is present at the growing tips
1: Define the term ‘tissue’?
of stems and roots. Their main function is to initiate
growth in new cells of seedlings, at the tip of roots, and Answer: The group of cells similar in structure that work
shoots. together to achieve a particular function forms a tissue.
This group of cells has a common origin.
3. Which tissue makes up the husk of coconut?
2: How many types of elements together make up the
Answer: The husk of a coconut is made up of
xylem tissue? Name them.
sclerenchyma tissue.
Answer: Xylem is a complex tissue. It is made up of
4. What are the constituents of phloem?
following four kinds of cells or elements: (a) Tracheids
Answer: Phloem is the food conducting tissue in plants. (b) Vessels (c) Xylem parenchyma (d) Xylem fibres.
It is made up of four components: (i) Sieve tubes (ii)
3: How are simple tissues different from complex
Companion cells (iii) Phloem parenchyma (iv) Phloem
tissues in plants?
fibres
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: Simple tissues are made up of one type of cells  Cardiac muscles contract and relax rapidly,
which coordinate to perform a common function. rhythmically and tirelessly throughout life. They
Complex tissues are made up of more than one type of contract endlessly from early embryonic stage until
cells. All these coordinate to perform a common death.
function.  The contraction and relaxation of heart muscles help
to pump and distribute blood to various parts of body.
4. Differentiate between parenchyma, collenchyma
and sclerenchyma on the basis of their cell wall. 8: Differentiate between striated, unstriated and
Answer: The differences between cell walls of cardiac muscles on the basis of their structure and site
parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma are given / location in the body.
in the following table:
Answer: Striated, Unstriated and Cardiac muscles are
three types of muscle tissues. Their different
characteristics are as follows
5. What are the functions of Stomata?
Answer: The small pores present in the epidermis of the

leaf are stomata. Stomata are enclosed by two kidney
shaped cells called guard cells. 9. Draw a labelled diagram of neuron
The functions of stomata are: Answer:
i. Exchange of gases, particularly CO2 and O2, with

atmosphere.
ii. Loss of water in the form of vapour during
transpiration.
6: Diagrammatically show the difference between the

three types of muscle fibres.
10. Can you consider a cluster of eggs as a tissue?

Why?
Answer: No, the cluster of eggs cannot be considered as

a tissue because eggs are separate embryonic cells and
cannot get together to perform the same function. An
egg has to undergo the process of mitosis to form a
tissue. Each egg has its own DNA and chromosomes, so
7. What is the specific function of cardiac muscle?
it is unique.
Answer: Cardiac muscles are involuntary muscles which
11. Differentiate between the meristematic and
show characteristics of both smooth and striated
permanent tissues in plants.
muscles. These muscles occur in the walls of the heart.
Answer: The differences between meristematic tissue
Functions of Cardiac Muscles
and permanent tissue are:-

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
i. Meristematic tissues have capacity to divide qhere Answer: Blood is the ‘river of Life’ because it delivers
permanent tissue do not have. necessary substances to the body's cells - such as
ii. Meristematic tissue have thin cellulose wall whereas nutrients and oxygen - and transports waste products
permanent tissue has thick cellulose wall. away from those same cells.
iii. Meristematic tissue does not have intercellular space
whereas permanent tissue has large intercellular space. 16. Describe various types of epithelial tissue on the
iv. Meristematic tissues are responsible for the primary basis of their shape.
and secondary growth of the plants whereas permanent
Answer: The various types of epithelial tissue on the
tissue is responsible for various growths.
basis of their shapes are:
v. Meristematic tissue has dense cytoplasm with
prominent nucleus whereas permanent tissue has thin i. Simple squamous epithelium: Simple squamous
cytoplasm with normal nucleus. epithelial cells are extremely thin and flat and form a
vi. Meristematic tissues have many small vacuoles in delicate lining. The oesophagus and the lining of the
their cytoplasm whereas permanent tissue contains mouth are also covered with squamous epithelium.
only single large vacuole in their cytoplasm. ii. Stratified squamous epithelium: Skin epithelial cells
are arranged in many layers to prevent wear and tear.
12. How do bones differ from cartilages?
Since they are arranged in a pattern of layers, the
Answer: These are some basic differences, but both are epithelium is called stratified squamous epithelium.
classified as a type of connective tissue. iii. Columnar epithelium: Where absorption and
secretion occur tall epithelial cells are present. This
i. Bone is strong and nonflexible- Cartilage is flexible. columnar (meaning 'pillar-like') epithelium facilitates
ii. Bone has a hard matrix, whereas Cartilage has a movement across the epithelial barrier. This type of
softer matrix. epithelium is called columnar epithelium.
iii. Bone has blood vessels, Cartilage does not have iv. Cuboidal epithelium: Cuboidal epithelium (with cube-
blood vessels. shaped cells) forms the lining of kidney tubules and
iv. Bone is made up of Osteocytes- Cartilage is made up ducts of salivary glands, where it provides mechanical
of Chondrocytes. support.
v. Bone forms the skeleton, Cartilage provides support
and flexibility to the body and joints. 17. Name the following:
13. Give a brief account of various types of cells found (a) Tissue that forms inner lining of our mouth.
in connective tissues. (b) Tissue that connects muscle to bone in humans.
(c) Tissue that transports food in plants.
Answer: The common cell types in connective tissue (d) Tissue that stores fat in our body.
include: fibroblasts, mast cells, (e) Connective tissue with a fluid matrix.
plasma cells, macrophages, adipocytes, and leukocytes. (f) Tissue present in brain.
Fibroblasts are the most common cell type of
connective tissue. They produce both fibers and Answer:
amorphous ground substance.
(a)Squamous epithelium
14. Animals of colder region and fishes of cold water (b)Tendon
have thicker layer of subcutaneous fat. Describe why? (c) Phloem
(d)Adipose tissue
Answer: Animals of colder regions and fishes of cold
(e) Blood
water have thicker layer of subcutaneous fat. Fat
(f) Nervous tissue.
present in the subcutaneous layer acts as an insulator to
prevent the loss of heat from internal body 18. Identify the type of tissue in the following:
environment during cold climates. It also helps in
reserving food during the periods of food scarcity. Skin, bark of tree, bone, lining of kidney tubule,
vascular bundle.
15. Blood is the 'River of Life'. Justify the statement.
Answer: Skin - Stratified Squamous epithelium
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Bark of tree - Cork protective tissue
Bone - Connective tissue
Lining of kidney tubule - Cuboidal epithelium (Cuboidal

epithelial tissue)
Vascular bundle - Complex permanent tissue (Xylem

and Phloem)
19. Name the regions in which parenchyma tissue is

present.
Answer: Parenchyma is a simple permanent tissue of

angiospermic plants. It is present in cortex and pith of
stem and roots. It is also present in mesophyll of leaves. TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
When it contains chlorophyll, it is called Chlorenchyma,
found in green leaves. 1. Lenticels help in
20. What is the role of epidermis in plants? Answer:: (i) Photosynthesis
Answer: Epidermis is a protective tissue of 2. The apical meristem of the root is present
angiospermic plants. It provides protections to Answer: (iv) in all the roots
underlying tissues. Epidermis forms outer covering of
various plant organs such as roots, stem, leaves, and 3. Which one of the following tissues does not possess
flowers and remains in direct
ect contact with the living protoplasm?
environment. Any substance whether solid, liquid or gas
renchyma
Answer: (ii) Sclerenchyma
can enter into the plant or move outside only after
passing through this layer. Epidermis helps in 4. The longest cells in the human body are
absorption, secretion, gaseous exchange and
Answer: (i) nerve cells
transpiration. It helps in preventingg the entry of
pathogens. 5. Tendons are made-up
up of
21. How does the cork act as a protective tissue? Answer: (i) Collagen
Answer: The cork cells are dead cells and do not have 6. Intercalated discs are found in
any intercellular spaces. The cell wall of the cork cells
iac muscle fibres
Answer: (ii) Cardiac
are coated with suberin (a waxy substance). Suberin
makes these cellsls impermeable to water and gases. *****
Cork is protective in function; it protects underlying
tissues from desiccation, infection and mechanical
injury.
22.Compare the table.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 7: DIVERSITY IN LIVING Answer: Plants are autotrophs, while animals are
heterotrophs. Cell wall is present in plant cells, while it
ORGANISMS is absent in animal cells. Plants do not need to move
from one place to another, while most of the animals
IN-TEXT / PAGE NO: 86 need to move in search of food.
1. Why do we classify organisms? IN-TEXT / PAGE 89
Answer: There are millions of species on this earth. For 1. Which organisms are called primitive and how are
anybody, it is impossible to study about each of them in they different from the so-called advanced organisms?
his lifetime. Classification makes it easy to study the
organisms; on the basis of certain common characters. Answer: An organism which is simple is called primitive.
On the other hand, an organism with high level of
2. Give three examples of the range of variations that division of labour, by formation of organs and organ
you see in life forms around you. system is called advanced.
Answer: Three examples of the range of variations in 2. Will advanced organisms be the same as complex
life forms: organisms? Why?
i. Ants, cockroaches, spiders, houseflies, etc. live in the Answer: Complexity in body design evolves because of
same building. They look entirely different from each necessity to adapt according to the changing
other yet all of them belong to arthropoda. environment. Hence, a complex organism would be an
ii. Humans, monkeys, cats and dogs live in the same advanced one; in comparison to a simple organism.
neighbourhood. They look entirely different yet all of
them belong to mammalia. IN-TEXT / PAGE 91
iii. A nearby park may show wide variety of plants; right
from small grass to a giant banyan tree. 1. What is the criterion for classification of organisms
as belonging to kingdom Monera or Protista?
IN-TEXT / PAGE 88
Answer: Organisms which are prokaryotes belong to
1. Which do you think is a more basic characteristic for the kingdom Monera. On the other hand, organisms
classifying organisms? which are eukaryotes and unicellular belong to the
kingdom Protista.
(a) The place where they live.
(b) The kind of cells they are made of. Why? 2. In which kingdom will you place an organism which
is single-celled, eukaryotic and photosynthetic?
Answer: The kind of cells an organism is made of is
more basic characteristic of classifying organism Answer: Plant Kingdom
because it gives a scientific angle to classification.
Moreover, a particular dwelling place can be full of 3. In the hierarchy of classification, which grouping will
organisms of a wide variety. have the smallest number of organisms with a
maximum of characteristics in common and which will
2. What is the primary characteristic on which the first have the largest number of organisms?
division of organisms is made?
Answer: Species will have the smallest number of
Answer: Organisation of nucleus is the primary organisms with a maximum of characteristics in
characteristic on which the first division of organisms is common. On the contrary, kingdom will have the largest
made. Based on this, organisms can be either number of organisms.
prokaryotic or eukaryotic.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 94
3. On what bases are plants and animals put into
different categories? 1. Which division among plants has the simplest
organisms?
Answer: Thallophyta
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
2. How are pteridophytes different from the iii. Forelimbs of aves are modified into wings which is
phanerogams? not the case in mammals.
iv. Aves are oviparous, while most of the mammals are
Answer: In pteridophytes, the reproductive organs are viviparous.
hidden and they do not produce seeds. In
phaenrogams, the reproductive organs are conspicuous EXERCISES
and they produce seeds.
1. What are the advantages of classifying organisms?
3. How do gymnosperms and angiosperms differ from
each other? Answer: There are millions of species on this earth. For
anybody, it is impossible to study about each of them in
Answer: Seeds are naked in gymnosperms, while they his lifetime. Classification makes it easy to study the
are covered in angiosperms. Gymnosperms do not bear organisms; on the basis of certain common characters.
flowers, while angiosperms bear flowers.
2. How would you choose between two characteristics
IN-TEXT / PAGE 100 to be used for developing a hierarchy in classification?
1. How do poriferan animals differ from coelenterate Answer: We need to look at the fact if given character is
animals? present in a small number of organisms or a larger
number of organisms. In the first case, the commonality
Answer: In porifera, body has numerous pores, which of characters would represent a species.
are absent in coelenterates. Body has a cavity in
coelenterates, while it is absent in porifera. In the latter case, the commonality of characters would
represent higher taxa like genus, family, order or
2. How do annelid animals differ from arthropods? phylum.
Answer: Segmented body in annelids, while true 3. Explain the basis for grouping organisms into five
segmentation is absent in arthropods. Arthropods have kingdoms.
joined appendages, which are absent in annelids.
Answer: Following points explain the basis of grouping
3. What are the differences between amphibians and organisms into five kingdoms.
reptiles?
Organization of nucleus: Organisms with unorganized
Answer: Three differences between amphibians and nucleus are kept under the kingdom Monera. Those
reptiles are: with organized nucleus are kept in other kingdoms.
i. Amphibians need water to lay eggs and fertilization is Number of cells: Unicellular eukaryotes are kept in the
external. kingdom Protista, while multicellular eukaryotes are
ii. Reptilians do not need water to lay eggs and kept in other kingdoms.
fertilization is internal.
iii. Amphibians use both skin and lungs for breathing. Mode of nutrition and presence of cell wall:
Reptilians breathe through lungs only. Hetereotrophic organisms in which cell wall is present
are taken under the kingdom fungi. Autotrophic
4. What are the differences between animals organisms in which cell wall is present are taken in the
belonging to the Aves group and those in the kingdom Plantae. Organisms in which cell wall is absent
mammalian group? are taken in the kingdom Animalia.
Answer: The differences between animals belonging to 4. What are the major divisions in the Plantae? What is
the Aves group and those in the mammalian group are: the basis for these divisions?
i. In aves, body is covered with feathers; while in Answer: The kingdom Plantae is divided into five main
mammals, body is covered with hairs. divisions: Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta,
ii. Mammary glands are absent in aves while present in Gymnosperms, and Angiosperms.
mammals.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
The classification
on depends on the following criteria: ii. Their leaves have reticulate venation, with a network
of veins.
 Differentiated or Undifferentiated plant body iii. The root system has a prominent tap root.
 Presence /absence of vascular tissues iv. The flowers have five or multiple of five petals.
 With/without seeds v. The vascular bundles are arranged in a ring. They are
 Naked seeds/ seeds inside fruits open (I.e., have cambium) and undergo secondary
growth.
Examples - Pea, potato, sunflower, rose, banyan.
5. Justify the statement that earthworms are good
friends of farmers.
8. Give a graphic representation of classification of
Answer: Earthworms are good friends of farmers for phylum chordata.
the following reasons:
Answer: Chordate
i. They move through the soil, thereby loosening and
aerating it. This allows water to reach the roots quickly.
ii. They help to improve the soil health and
consequently plant health.
iii. The excreta of earthworms add to the fertility of the
soil.
iv. They help to increase the water holding capacity and
moisture in the soil.
v. They also increase the availability of nutrients.
vi. After their death, the earthworms get decomposed
and add humus to the soil.
6. Why is it necessary to classify the living world? 9. Name major phyla of kingdom animalia giving
givin two
features and examples of each phylum.
Answer: A large variety of plants, animals, and microbes
found on earth and they differ in size, shape, colour, Answer: Some of the major phyla of kingdom animalia
habitat, and many other characteristics. So, studying and their features are:
each of them is impossible.
ossible. Therefore, scientists have
devised mechanisms to classify all living organisms on Porifera:
certain rules and principles that allow identification, motile animals attached to some solid
i. These are non-motile
nomenclature, and finally classification of an organism. support.
ii. These animals are covered with a hard outside layer
7. Tabulate differences between monocot and dicot or skeleton.
plants.
Platyhelminthes:
Answer: Monocots: i. The body is bilaterally symmetrical.
i. The seeds of these plants have only one cotyledon. ii. There are three layers of cells from which
ii. Their leaves have parallel venation. differentiated tissues can be made.
iii. The root system consists of similar fibrous roots.
iv. The flowers are trimerous, have three or multiple of Coelenterate:
three petals. i. These are animals living in water.
v. The vascular
ascular bundles are scattered and closed (lack ii. The body is made of two layers of cells.
canbium). Secondary growth does not occur.
Examples - Maize, wheat, rice, onion. Annelid:
i. Annelid animals are also bilaterally symmetrical and
Dicots: triploblastic, but in addition they have a true body
i. The seeds produced by these plants have embryos cavity.
with two fleshy leaves, the cotyledons.
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
ii. These animals are found in a variety of habitats- fresh chambered hearts. They are oviparous and excrete uric
water, marine water as well as land. acid.
Nematode: Aves: Aves include the birds. They are warm-blooded,

i. The nematode body is also bilaterally symmetrical and oviparous vertebrates with a covering of feathers. Their
triploblastic. fore-limbs are modified into wings for flight. Respiration
ii. These are very familiar as parasitic worms causing is through lungs and 4 chambered hearts is present.
diseases.
Mammals: Mammals possess mammary glands for
Arhropoda: feeding the young. They are warm-blooded with 4
i. These animals are bilaterally symmetrical and chambered hearts. They are viviparous. They possess
segmented. external pinna and hair on skin. Parental care is highly
ii. They have jointed legs. developed. They excrete urea.
10. How are the criteria for deciding divisions in plants TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
different from the criteria for deciding the subgroups
among animals? 1. Haemocoel is found in
Answer: In the plant kingdom, morphological characters Answer: (iv) Both a and b
are taken into consideration while deciding about the
divisions. Morphology is the study of shapes and forms 2. In sponges, water is expelled out through
of various parts. In the animal kingdom, anatomical
characters are taken into consideration while deciding Answer: (ii) Osculum
about subgroups. Anatomy is the study of various
organs’ design in animals. 3. Water vascular system is the diagnostic feature of
11. Explain how animals in Vertebrata are classified Answer: (iii) Echinodermata
into further subgroups.
4. Algae differ from Bryophyta in possessing
Answer: Vertebrates are further classified according to
several criteria like exoskeleton, respiratory organs, Answer: (i) Naked sex organs
method of giving birth, number of chambers in heart,
mode of living etc. They are further classified into 5. Mammals are characterized by the presence of
classes Pisces, Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammals.
Answer: (iv) All of these
Pisces: Pisces include the fishes. They are aquatic, cold-
blooded animals having 2 chambers of heart. Their skin 6. The largest living lizard in the world is
is covered with scales/plates. They lay eggs and respire
through gills. They excrete urea. Endoskeleton may be Answer: (i) Varanus
bony or cartilagenous.
*****
Amphibians: Amphibians on the other hand live partly
in water and partly on land. Their skin is smooth
without scales. Respiration is through gills, lungs, skin or
buccal lining. They possess 3 chambered hearts and are
oviparous. They are cold-blooded.
Reptiles: Reptiles are the creeping vertebrates

possessing dry scaly exoskeleton. They are cold-
blooded, breathe through lungs and possess 3

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 8: MOTIONS = 140 m ÷ 40 m

= 3.5 rounds
IN-TEXT / PAGE 107
Thus after 3.5 rounds farmer will at point C (diagonally
1: An object has moved through a distance. Can it have opposite to his initial position) of the field.
zero displacement? If yes, support your answer with
Therefore,
an example.
Displacement AC = √10² + 10²
Answer: Yes, zero displacement is possible if an object = √200
has moved through a distance. Suppose a body is = 10√2 m
moving in a circular path and starts moving from point A
Thus, after 2 minute 20 second the displacement of
and it returns back at same point A after completing
farmer will be equal to 10√2 m north east from initial
one revolution, then the distance will be equal to its
position.
circumference while displacement will be zero.
3: Which of the following is true for displacement?
2: A farmer moves along the boundary of a square
field of side 10 m in 40 s. What will be the magnitude (a) It cannot be zero.
of displacement of the farmer at the end of 2 minutes
20 seconds from his initial position? (b) Its magnitude is greater than the distance travelled
by the object.
Answer: Given, side of the square field = 10 m
Answer: None of (a) and (b) are true.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 109
1: Distinguish between speed and velocity.
Answer: Speed has only magnitude while velocity has

both magnitude and direction. So speed is a scalar
quantity but velocity is a vector quantity.
2: Under what condition(s) is the magnitude of

average velocity of an object equal to its average
speed?
Therefore, perimeter = 10 m × 4 = 40 m Answer: The magnitude of average velocity of an object
will be equal to its average speed in the condition of
Farmer moves along the boundary in 40 s
uniform velocity in a straight line motion.
Time = 2 minutes 20 s
3: What does the odometer of an automobile
= 2 × 60 s + 20 s
measure?
= 140 s
Answer: In automobiles, odometer is used to measure
Since, in 40 s farmer moves 40 m
the distance.
Therefore, in 1s distance covered by farmer = 40 ÷ 40 =
4: What does the path of an object look like when it is
1m.
in uniform motion?
Therefore,
Answer: In the case of uniform motion, the path of an
In 140 s, distance covered by farmer = 1 × 140 m
object will look like a straight line.
= 140 m
5: During an experiment, a signal from a spaceship
Now, number of rotation to cover 140 m along the
reached the ground station in five minutes. What was
boundary = Total distance/Perimeter
the distance of the spaceship from the ground station?
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
The signal travels at the speed of light, that is, 3×108

m/s.
Answer: Here we have, speed = 3×108 m/s
Time = 5 minute
= 5 × 60 s
= 300 s
Using, Distance = Speed × Time

⇒ Distance = 3 ×108 × 300 m
= 900 × 108 m
= 9.0 × 1010 m
IN-TEXT / PAGE 110

IN-TEXT / PAGE 114
1: When will you say a body is in
1: What is the nature of the distance – time graphs for
(i) Uniform acceleration?
uniform and non-uniform motion of an object?
(ii) Non-uniform acceleration?
Answer: The slope of the distance-time graph for an
Answer: (i) A body is said in uniform acceleration when
object in uniform motion is straight line. The slope of
its motion is along a straight line and its velocity
the distance-time graph for an object in non-uniform
changes by equal magnitude in equal interval of time.
motion is not a straight line.
(ii) A body is said in non-uniform acceleration when its
2: What can you say about the motion of an object
motion is along a straight line and its velocity changes
whose distance-time graph is a straight line parallel to
by unequal magnitude in equal interval of time.
the time axis?
2: A bus decreases its speed from 80 km/h to 60 km/h
Answer: When the slope of distance-time graph is a
in 5 s. Find the acceleration of the bus.
straight line parallel to time axis, the object is
Answer: stationary.
3: What can you say about the motion of an object if

its speed-time graph is a straight line parallel to the
time axis?
Answer: When the graph of a speed time graph is a

straight line parallel to the time axis, the object is
moving with constant speed.
4: What is the quantity which is measured by the area

occupied below the velocity- time graph?
Answer: The quantity of distance is measured by the

area occupied below the velocity time graph.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 116

3: A train starting from a railway station and moving
with uniform acceleration attains a speed of 40 km/h 1: A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform
in 10 minutes. Find its acceleration. acceleration of 0.1ms–2 for 2 minutes. Find (a) the
speed acquired, (b) the distance travelled.
Answer:
Answer:

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer:
5: A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction

with a velocity of 5 m/s. If the acceleration of the
stone during its motion is 10 m/s2 in the downward
direction, what will be the height attained by the
2: A train is travelling at a speed of 90 km/h. Brakes
stone and how much time will it take to reach there?
are applied so as to produce a uniform acceleration of
– 0.5 m/s2. Find how far the train will go before it is Answer:
brought to rest.
Answer:
We have,
3: A trolley, while going down an inclined plane, has an

acceleration of 2 cm/s2. What will be its velocity 3 s
after the start? EXERCISE
Answer: 1: An athlete completes one round of circular track of

diameter 200 m in 40 sec. What will be the distance
covered and the displacement at the end of 2 minutes
20 sec?
Answer: Time taken = 2 min 20 sec

= 2 x 60 sec + 20 sec
= 140 sec.
Radius, r = 100 m.
4: A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4 m/s2. In 40 sec the athlete complete one round.
What distance will it cover in 10 s after start?
So, in 140 sec the athlete will complete = 140 ÷ 40
= 3.5 round
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Therefore, 3: Abdul, while driving to school, computes the

Distance covered in 140 sec = 2πr × 3.5 average speed for his trip to be 20 km/h. On his return
= 2 × 22/7 × 100 × 3.5 trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the
= 2200 m. average speed is 30 km/h. What is the average speed
of Abdul’s trip?
At the end of his motion, the athlete will be in the
diametrically opposite position. Answer:
Displacement = diameter = 200 m.
2: Joseph jogs from one end A to another end B of a

straight 300 m road in 2 minutes and 30 sec and then
turns around and jogs 100 m back to point C in another
1 minute. What are Joseph’s average speeds and
velocities in jogging (a) from A to B (b) from A to C?
Answer: (a) For motion from A to B:
Distance covered = 300 m

Displacement = 300 m
Time taken = 150 sec
We know,
Avg speed = Total distance covered ÷ Total time taken
= 300 m ÷ 150 sec
= 2 m/s
Average velocity = Displacement ÷ time

= 300 m ÷ 150 sec
= 2 m/s
(b) For motion from A to C:

4: A motor boat starting from rest on a lake
Distance covered = 300 + 100 accelerates in a straight line at a constant rate of 3.0
= 400 m. ms-2 for 8.0 s. How far does the boat travel during this
Displacement = AB – CB time?
= 300 – 100 Answer: Here, u = 0 m/s
= 200 m. a = 3 ms-2
Time taken = 2.5 min + 1 min t=8s
= 3.5 min
= 210 sec. Using, s = ut + 1⁄2 at2
⁄2 × 3 × 82
s = 0 × 8 + 1⁄2
Therefore, s = 96 m
The boat travels 96 meters.
Avg speed = Total distance ÷ Total time
= 400 ÷ 210 5: A driver of a car travelling at 52 km/h
km applies the
= 1.90 m/s. brakes and accelerates uniformly in the opposite
direction. The car stops after 5 s. Another driver going
Average velocity = Net displacement ÷ time taken
at 34 km/h in another car applies his brakes slowly and
= 200 m ÷ 210 sec
stops in 10 s. On the same graph paper, plot the speed
= 0.952m/s.
t cars. Which of the two cars
versus time graphs for two
travelled farther after the brakes were applied?
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: In the following graph, AB and CD are the time Answer: (a) B is travelling fastest as he is taking less
graphs for the two cars whose initial speeds are 52 time to cover more distance.
km/h (14.4 m/s) and 34 km/h (8.9 m/s), respectively.
(b) All three are never at the same point on the road.
(c) Approximately 6 kms [as 8 – 2 = 6]
(d) Approximately 7 kms. [as 7 – 0 = 7]
7. A ball is gently dropped from a height of 20 m. If its

velocity increases uniformly at the rate of 10ms-2,
with what velocity will it strike the ground? After what
time will it strike the ground?
Distance covered by the first car before coming to rest Answer: Here, u = 0 m/s,
= Area of triangle AOB s = 20 m,
= ½ × AO × BO a = 10 m/s2,
= ½ × 52 km/h × 5 s v = ?,
= ½ x (52 × 1000 × 1/3600) m/s × 5 s t=?
= 36.1 m
Using v2 – u2 = 2as
Distance covered by the second car before coming to
rest = Area of triangle COD We have,
= ½ × CO × DO
= ½ × 34 km/h × 10 s v2 – 0 2 = 2 × 10 × 20
= ½ × (34 × 1000 × 1/3600) m/s×10 s ⇒ v2 = 400
= 47.2 m ⇒ v2 = 202
⇒v = 20 m/s.
Thus, the second car travels farther than the first car
after they applied the brakes. And
6. Fig 8.11 shows the distance-time graph of three t = (v – u) ÷ a

objects A, B and C. Study the graph and answer the = 20 ÷ 10
following questions: = 2 s.
(a) Which of the three is travelling the fastest? 8. The speed – time graph for a car is shown in Figure
8.12:
(a) Find how far does the car travel in the first 4
seconds. Shade the area on the graph that represents
the distance travelled by the car during the period.
(b) Are all three ever at the same point on the road?
(b) Which part of the graph represents uniform motion
(c) How far has C travelled when B passes A?
of the car?
(d) How far has B travelled by the time it passes C?

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: Hence displacement of particle is zero.
Average velocity = Total displacement / Time taken
= 0 / 1 hour
=0
∴ Both displacement and average velocity of particle is

zero.
11. If a sports car can go from rest to 27 m s-1 in 9.0

second, what is the magnitude of its average
acceleration?
Answer: Given,
u= 0m/s (as the object is initially at rest)

t= 9 s
v= 27m/s
As we know,
a (acceleration)=(v-u) / t
a= (27-0) / 9
=27 / 9
=3m/s2
12. In a test of safety restraint, a test car was slowed

from 5O m s-1 to rest in a time of 0.40 s. (a) What
acceleration was this? (b) How far did the car travel in
this time?
Answer: Given,
u = 50
v = 0 (to rest)
t = 0.4
(b) After 6 seconds the car moves in uniform motion (at
a=?
a speed of 6 m/s).
s=?
9. Give an example from your own experience in which
a) We know,
the velocity of an object is zero for an instant of time,
but its acceleration is not zero. v = u + at
v-u = at
Answer: When the object is at maximum height and
(v-u)/t = a
about to fall downwards its velocity becomes zero at
(0-50)/0.4 = a
topmost point and acceleration due to gravity (g) is not
-125ms-2 = a
zero.
b) Here,
10. A particle returns to its starting point after one
hour. What is its (i) displacement and (ii) average v = u2+ 2aS
velocity. 02= 502+ 2 x 125 x S
0 = 2500 + 250 x S
Answer: Displacement = Distance between initial and
-2500 = 250S
final position.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
-2500/250 = S 4. A moving body is covering a distance directly

10 m = S proportional to the square of time. The acceleration of
the body is:
13. State which of the following situations are possible
and give an example of each of the following: (a) an Answer: iv. Constant
object with a constant acceleration but with zero
velocity, (b) an object moving in a certain direction 5. The area under the velocity-time graph gives the
with an acceleration in the perpendicular direction. value of:
Answer: (a) Yes, a body can have acceleration even Answer: iii. Acceleration
when its velocity is zero. When a body is thrown up, at
*****
highest point its velocity is zero but it has acceleration
equal to acceleration due to gravity.
(b) Yes, an acceleration moving horizontally is acted

upon by acceleration due to gravity that acts vertically
downwards.
14. An artificial is moving in a circular orbit of radius

42250 km. Calculate its speed if it takes 24 hrs to
revolve around the earth.
Answer: Here,
r = 42250 km
= 42250000 m
T = 24 h
= 24 × 60 × 60 s
Using Speed,
v = 2πr ÷ T
v = (2 × 3.14 × 42250000) ÷ (24 × 60 × 60) m/s
= 3070.9 m/s
= 3.07 km/s
1. The displacement of a body is proportional to the

cube of the time lapsed. The magnitude of the
acceleration is:
Answer: i. increasing with time
2. A body moves on three quarters of a circle of radius

r. The displacement and distance travelled by it are:
Answer: ii. displacement = √2r, distance =3 πr/2
3. A body moving with uniform acceleration has

velocities 20 m s-1 and 30 m s-1 when passing two
points A and B. Then the velocity midway between A
and B is:
Answer: iii. 25.5 m s+

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 9: FORCE AND LAW OF again. In this case, the goalkeeper applied a force to
change the velocity of the ball.
MOTIONS
3. Explain why some of the leaves may get detached
IN-TEXT / PAGE 126 from a tree if we vigorously shake its branch.
1. Which of the following has more inertia: (a) a rubber Answer: Some leaves of a tree get detached when we
ball and a stone of the same size? (b) a bicycle and a shake its branches vigorously. This is because when the
train? (c) a five-rupees coin and a one-rupee coin? branches of a tree are shaken, it moves to and fro, but
its leaves tend to remain at rest. This is because the
Answer: Inertia is the measure of the mass of the body. inertia of the leaves tend to resist the to and fro
The greater is the mass of the body, the greater is its motion. Due to this reason, the leaves fall down from
inertia and vice-versa. the tree when shaken vigorously.
(a) Mass of a stone is more than the mass of a rubber 4: Why do you fall in the forward direction when a
ball for the same size. Hence, inertia of the stone is moving bus brakes to a stop and fall backwards when
greater than that of a rubber ball. it accelerates from rest?
(b) Mass of a train is more than the mass of a bicycle. Answer: Due to the inertia of the passenger
Hence, inertia of the train is greater than that of the
bicycle. Everybody tries to maintain its state of motion or state
of rest. If a body is at rest, then it tries to remain at rest.
(c) Mass of a five rupee coin is more than that of a one- If a body is moving, then it tries to remain in motion.
rupee coin. Hence, inertia of the five rupee coin is
greater than that of the one-rupee coin. In a moving bus, a passenger moves with the bus. As the
driver applies brakes, the bus comes to rest. But, the
2. In the following example, try to identify the number passenger tries to maintain his state of motion. As a
of times the velocity of the ball changes: result, a forward force is exerted on him.
"A football player kicks a football to another player of Similarly, the passenger tends to fall backwards when
his team who kicks the football towards the goal. The the bus accelerates from rest. This is because when the
goalkeeper of the opposite team collects the football bus accelerates, the inertia of the passenger tends to
and kicks it towards a player of his own team". Also oppose the forward motion of the bus. Hence, the
identify the agent supplying the force in each case. passenger tends to fall backwards when the bus
Answer: The velocity of the ball changes four times. accelerates forward.
As a football player kicks the football, its speed changes IN-TEXT / PAGE 134
from zero to a certain value. As a result, the velocity of 1. If action is always equal to the reaction, explain how
the ball gets changed. In this case, the player applied a a horse can pull a cart.
force to change the velocity of the ball. Another player
kicks the ball towards the goal post. As a result, the Answer: A horse pushes the ground in the backward
direction of the ball gets changed. Therefore, its velocity direction. According to Newton's third law of motion, a
also changes. In this case, the player applied a force to reaction force is exerted by the Earth on the horse in
change the velocity of the ball. The goalkeeper collects the forward direction. As a result, the cart moves
the ball. In other words, the ball comes to rest. Thus, its forward.
speed reduces to zero from a certain value. The velocity
of the ball has changed. In this case, the goalkeeper 2.Explain, why is it difficult for a fireman to hold a
applied an opposite force to stop/change the velocity of hose, which ejects large amounts of water at a high
the ball. The goalkeeper kicks the ball towards his team velocity.
players. Hence, the speed of the ball increases from
Answer: Due to the backward reaction of the water
zero to a certain value. Hence, its velocity changes once
being ejected

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
When a fireman holds a hose, which is ejecting large Mass of the other object, m2 = 200 g = 0.2 kg
amounts of water at a high velocity, then a reaction
force is exerted on him by the ejecting water in the Velocity of m1 before collision, v1 = 2 m/s
backward direction. This is because of Newton's third
Velocity of m2 before collision, v2 = 1 m/s
law of motion. As a result of the backward force, the
stability of the fireman decreases. Velocity of m1 after collision, v3 = 1.67 m/s
Hence, it is difficult for him to remain stable while Velocity of m2 after collision = v4
holding the hose.
According to the law of conservation of momentum:
3. From a rifle of mass 4 kg, a bullet of mass 50 g is
fired with an initial velocity of 35 m s-1. Calculate the Total momentum before collision = Total momentum
initial recoil velocity of the rifle. after collision
Answer: Mass of the rifle, m1 = 4 kg m1v1 + m2v2 = m1v3 + m2v4

⇒ 0.1×2 + 0.2×1 = 0.1×1.67 + 0.2×v4
Mass of the bullet, m2 = 50g ⇒ 0.4 = 0.67 + 0.2×v4
= 0.05 kg ⇒ v4 = 1.165 m/s
Recoil velocity of the rifle = v1 Hence, the velocity of the second object becomes 1.165
m/s after the collision.
Bullet is fired with an initial velocity, v2 = 35 m/s
EXERCISE
Initially, the rifle is at rest.
1. An object experiences a net zero external
Thus, its initial velocity, v = 0
unbalanced force. Is it possible for the object to be
Total initial momentum of the rifle and bullet system = travelling with a non-zero velocity? If yes, state the
(m1 + m2)v = 0 conditions that must be placed on the magnitude and
direction of the velocity. If no, provide a reason.
Total momentum of the rifle and bullet system after
firing: Answer: Yes. Even when an object experiences a net
zero external unbalanced force, it is possible that the
= m1v1 + m2v2 = 4(v1) + 0.05×35 = 4v1 + 1.75 object is travelling with a non-zero velocity. This is
possible only when the object has been moving with a
According to the law of conservation of momentum: constant velocity in a particular direction. Then, there is
no net unbalanced force applied on the body. The
Total momentum after the firing = Total momentum
object will keep moving with a non-zero velocity. To
before the firing
change the state of motion, a net non-zero external
4v1 + 1.75 = 0 unbalanced force must be applied on the object.
⇒ v1 = – 1.75/4
2. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust comes out
= – 0.4375 m/s
of it. Explain.
The negative sign indicates that the rifle recoils
Answer: Inertia of an object tends to resist any change
backwards with a velocity of 0.4375 m/s.
in its state of rest or state of motion. When a carpet is
4. Two objects of masses 100g and 200g are moving beaten with a stick, then the carpet comes to motion.
along the same line and direction with velocities of 2 But, the dust particles try to resist their state of rest.
ms-1 and 1 ms-1, respectively. They collide and after the According to Newton's first law of motion, the dust
collision, the first object moves at a velocity of 1.67 particles stay in a state of rest, while the carpet moves.
ms-1. Determine the velocity of the second object. Hence, the dust particles come out of the carpet.
Answer: Mass of one of the objects, m1 = 100 g = 0.1 kg 3. Why is it advised to tie any luggage kept on the roof
of a bus with a rope?

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: When the bus accelerates and moves forward, Answer: Initial velocity of the stone, u = 20 m/s
it acquires a state of motion. However, the luggage kept Final velocity of the stone, v = 0 m/s
on the roof, owing to its inertia, tends to remain in its Distance covered by the stone, s = 50 m
state of rest. Hence, with the forward movement of the
bus, the luggage tends to remain at its original position According to the third equation of motion:
and ultimately falls from the roof of the bus. To avoid v2 = u2 + 2as
this, it is advised to tie any luggage kept on the roof of a 02= 202 + 2.a.50
bus with a rope. 0 = 400 + 100a
-400 = 100a
4. A batsman hits a cricket ball which then rolls on a -400/100 = a
level ground. After covering a short distance, the ball -4 = a
comes to rest. The ball slows to a stop because (a) the
batsman did not hit the ball hard enough. (b) velocity The negative sign indicates that acceleration is acting
is proportional to the force exerted on the ball. (c) against the motion of the stone (friction).
there is a force on the ball opposing the motion. (d)
Hence, the force of friction between the stone and the
there is no unbalanced force on the ball, so the ball
ice is – 4 N.
would want to come to rest.
7. A 8000 kg engine pulls a train of 5 wagons, each of
Answer: (c) A batsman hits a cricket ball, which then
2000 kg, along a horizontal track. If the engine exerts a
rolls on a level ground. After covering a short distance,
force of 40000 N and the track offers a friction force of
the ball comes to rest because there is frictional force
5000 N, then calculate:
on the ball opposing its motion. Frictional force always
(a) the net accelerating force;
acts in the direction opposite to the direction of motion.
(b) the acceleration of the train; and
Hence, this force is responsible for stopping the cricket
(c) the force of wagon 1 on wagon 2.
ball.
Answer:
5. A truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a
Given:
constant acceleration. It travels a distance of 400 m in
Mass of engine (M) = 8000 kg
20 s. Find its acceleration. Find the force acting on it if
Mass of each wagon (m) =2000 kg
its mass is 7 metric tonnes (Hint: 1 metric tonne = 1000
Frictional force acting in backward direction (f) =5000 N
kg.)
(a) The net force acting on the train (F’) = F−f
Answer: Initial velocity of the truck, u = 0 m/s
= 40000−5000
Time taken, t = 20 s
= 35000 N
Distance covered by the stone, s = 400 m
(b) Let the acceleration of the train be ‘a’
According to the second equation of motion:
𝑠 = 𝑢𝑡 + ½ 𝑎𝑡2 ∴ F′ = (5m+M)a
35000= (5×2000+8000)a
We have,
a = 1.944 ms−2
400 = 0 × 20 + ½ × 𝑎 × (20)2
(c) External force is applied directly to wagon 1 only.
⇒ 400 = 200𝑎
The net force on the last four wagons is equal to the
⇒𝑎 = 2 𝑚/𝑠2
force applied by wagon 2 by wagon 1.
Now, Force = mass × acceleration
Let the acceleration of the wagons be a′
⇒𝐹 = 7000 × 2
= 14000 N ∴ 35000 = (5m)a′
⟹ 35000 = 10000×a′
6. A stone of 1 kg is thrown with a velocity of 20 m s-1
across the frozen surface of a lake and comes to rest Acceleration of the wagons (a′) = 3.5 ms−2
after travelling a distance of 50 m. What is the force of
friction between the stone and the ice? Mass of last 4 wagons (m′) =4×2000 kg
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
∴ Net force on last 4 wagons F1 =8000×3.5 Answer: M1 = m2 = 1.50 kg

=28000 N v1 = 2.50 m/sec
v2 = - 2.50 m/sec (opposite direction)
Thus force on wagon 2 by wagon 1 is 28000 N.
We know,
8. An automobile vehicle has a mass of 1500 kg. What
must be the force between the vehicle and road if the m1 v1 + m2 v2 = (m1 + m2) v
vehicle is to be stopped with a negative acceleration of 1.50 x 2.50 - 1.50 x 2.50 = (1.50 + 1.50) v
1.7 ms-2? 0 = 3v
v=0
Answer : Mass of the automobile vehicle, m = 1500 kg
Final velocity, v = 0 m/s Acceleration of the automobile, So, the combined momentum is zero.
a = –1.7 ms–2 From Newton's second law of motion:
Force = Mass × Acceleration = 1500 × (–1.7) = –2550 N 12. According to the third law of motion when we push
Hence, the force between the automobile and the road on an object, the object pushes back on us with an
is –2550 N, in the direction opposite to the motion of equal and opposite force. If the object is a massive
the automobile. truck parked along the roadside, it will probably not
move. A student justifies this by answering that the
9. What is the momentum of an object of mass m, two opposite and equal forces cancel each other.
moving with a velocity v? Comment on this logic and explain why the truck does
(a) (mv)2 not move.
(b) mv2
(c) ½mv2 Answer: The truck has a large mass. Therefore, the
(d) mv static friction between the truck and the road is also
very high. To move the car, one has to apply a force
Answer: (d) mv more than the static friction. Therefore, when someone
pushes the truck and the truck does not move, then it
Explanation: can be said that the applied force in one direction is
Mass of the object = m cancelled out by the frictional force of equal amount
Velocity = v acting in the opposite direction. Therefore, the student
Momentum = Mass × Velocity Momentum is right in justifying that the two opposite and equal
= mv cancel each other.
10. Using a horizontal force of 200 N, we intend to 13. A hockey ball of mass 200 g travelling at 10 m s-1 is
move a wooden cabinet across a floor at a constant struck by a hockey stick so as to return it along its
velocity. What is the friction force that will be exerted original path with a velocity at 5 m s-1. Calculate the
on the cabinet? change of momentum occurred in the motion of the
hockey ball by the force applied by the hockey stick.
Answer: A force of 200 N is applied in the forward
direction. Thus, from Newton's third law of motion, an Answer: Mass of the hockey ball, m= 200 g = 0.2 kg
equal amount of force will act in the opposite direction. Hockey ball travels with velocity, v1= 10 m/s
This opposite force is the fictional force exerted on the Initial momentum = mv1
cabinet. Hence, a frictional force of 200 N is exerted on
the cabinet. Hockey ball travels in the opposite direction with
velocity, v2= -5 m/s
11. Two objects, each of mass 1.5 kg are moving in the Final momentum = mv2
same straight line but in opposite directions. The
velocity of each object is 2.5 ms-1 before the collision Change in momentum = mv1- mv2
during which they stick together. What will be the = m (v1-v2)
velocity of the combined object after collision? = 0.2 [10 - (-5)]
= 0.2 (15)
= 3 kg m s-1

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Hence, the change in momentum of the hockey ball is 3 ∴ Total momentum before collision = m1 v1 + m2 v2
kg ms-1. = 1 (10) + 5 (0)
= 10 kg m s- 1
14. A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a
velocity of 150 ms-1 strikes a stationary wooden block It is given that after collision, the object and the
and comes to rest in 0.03 s. Calculate the distance of wooden block stick together.
penetration of the bullet into the block. Also calculate
the magnitude of the force exerted by the wooden Total mass of the combined system = m1 + m2
block on the bullet.
Velocity of the combined object = v
Answer: Given,
According to the law of conservation of momentum,
⇒ u = 150 m/s
Total momentum before collision = Total momentum
⇒v=0
after collision
⇒ t = 0.03 sec
= m1 v1+ m2 v2 = (m1+ m2) v1
⇒ m = 10 g
= (10) + 5 (0) = (1 + 5) v
= 0.01 Kg
= 10 + 0 = 6 v
We know that, S = (v² - u²) / 2a ------------( 1 ) =10/6 = v
=5/3 = v
Now,
The total momentum after collision = 10 and velocity of
v = u + at combined object is 5/3 m/s.
a = (v - u ) / t
a = (0 - 150 ) / 0.03 16. An object of mass 100 kg is accelerated uniformly
a = -5000 m/s² ---------------( 2 ) from a velocity of 5 ms-1 to 8 ms-1 in 6 s. Calculate the
initial and final momentum of the object. Also, find the
Substituting equation (2) in (1) gives, magnitude of the force exerted on the object.
S = {02 - (150)²} / (2 x -5000) Answer: Initial velocity of the object, u = 5 m/s

S = -22500 / -10000 Final velocity of the object, v = 8 m/s
S = 2.25 m Mass of the object, m = 100 kg
Time take by the object to accelerate, t = 6s
Therefore, distance penetrated by the bullet is 2.25 m
Initial momentum = mu
Now, Force (F) = m x a = 100 × 5
⇒F = 0.01 x 5000 = 500 kg ms-1
⇒F = 50 N
Final momentum = mv
The force exerted by the wooden block on the bullet is = 100 × 8
50 N = 800 kg ms-1
15. An object of mass 1 kg travelling in a straight line Force exerted on the object, 𝐹 = (𝑚𝑣−𝑚𝑢)/𝑡
with a velocity of 10 ms-1 collides with, and sticks to, a = (800-500)/6
stationary wooden block of mass 5 kg. Then they both = 300/6
move off together in the same straight line. Calculate = 50 N
the total momentum just before the impact and just
after the impact. Also, calculate the velocity of the Initial momentum of the object is 500 kg ms-1.
combined object. Final momentum of the object is 800 kg ms -1.
Force exerted on the object is 50 N.
Answer: Mass of the object, m1 = 1 kg
Velocity of the object before collision, v1 = 10 m/s 17. (a) Why do we jerk wet clothes before spreading
Mass of the stationary wooden block, m2 = 5 kg them on clothes line?
Velocity of the wooden block before collision, v2 = 0 (b) The fruits fall off the branches when a strong wind
m/s
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
blows. Answer: (a) The law of momentum conservation can be

Give reason. stated as follows. For a collision occurring between
object 1 and object 2 in an isolated system, the
Answer: (a) We jerk them because water droplets are at total momentum of the two objects before the collision
rest on the cloth due to inertia. The jerk makes them fall is equal to the total momentum of the two objects after
down and less water remains on the cloth which the collision.
facilitates the clothes to dry faster.
(b) It is difficult for a Fireman to hold a hose which
(b) Fruits fall of branches in strong wind because of the ejects large amount of water at high velocity because of
inability of the fruits to change from rest to motion due the third law of Newton which states, for every action
to the law of inertia while the branches are in motion. there is an equal and opposite reaction. As the hose
which ejects a large amount of water moving forward
8. (a) Why are the wheels of vehicle provided with
has the force which also react the force in the backward
mud guards?
direction that's why fireman holds the host tightly
(b) A cricket player lowers his hand while catching a
ball. Why? (c) This question is based on conservation of
(c) Why a glass pane of a window is shattered when a momentum.
flying pebble hits it? We know, initial momentum = final momentum.
Answer: (a) Due to inertia of direction, wheels rotate at Therefore, common velocity means both trolley and boy
high speed and mud sticking to the wheel flies off moves with same velocity.
tangentially.
Now,
(b) This increases the time of catching, and decreases
the acceleration of the ball. Hence, force exerted on the Initial momentum = 60×3+140×1.5
hand is less. = 180 + 210
= 390 kg m/s
(c) High velocity of pebbles decreases to zero in a very
short interval of time. It remains in contact with the Final momentum = (60+140) v
glass pane for longer duration and shatters the glass = 200 v
pane.
Here,
19. A passenger in a moving car slips to one side of the
seat when the car takes a sharp turn. Give reason for 200V = 390
it. v = 390/200
v = 1.95m/s
Answer: This is due to inertia of motion. When the car is
moving in a straight line, the passenger is also moving 22. Two bodies have masses in the ratio 3:4. When a
along with the car in a straight line. But, when the car force is applied on first body, it moves with an
turns, the passenger tends to stay in the same state of acceleration of 6 m s-2. How much acceleration the
linear motion and resists the change in direction. So, as same force will produce in the other body?
the tendency is to keep moving along the straight line
Answer: Let mass of Body A = 3m and
while the car changes its direction, the passenger tends
mass of body B = 4m
to slip on the seat
Force applied = F
20. (a) State the law of conservation of momentum.
(b) Explain why is it difficult for a fireman to hold a For Body A
hose which ejects large amounts of water at high F = mass × acceleration
velocity. F= 3m×6
(c) A boy of mass 60 kg running at 3 m s-1 Jumps on to = 18N
a trolley of mass 140 kg moving with a velocity of 1.5
m s-1 in the same direction. What is their common For Body B
velocity? F = mass× acceleration
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
a= F/m 24. How much momentum will a dumbbell of mass 10

= 18m N/4m kg transfer to the floor if it falls from a height of 80
= 4.5m/s² cm? Take its downward acceleration to be 10 m s-2.
23.Akhtar, Kiran and Rahul were riding in a motorocar Answer: Mass of the dumbbell, m = 10 kg
that was moving with a high velocity on an expressway Distance covered by the dumbbell, s = 80 cm
when an insect hit the windshield and got stuck on the = 0.8 m
windscreen. Akhtar and Kiran started pondering over
the situation. Kiran suggested that the insect suffered Acceleration in the downward direction, a = 10 m/s2
a greater change in momentum as compared to the Initial velocity of the dumbbell, u = 0
change in momentum of the motorcar (because the Final velocity of the dumbbell (when it was about to hit
change in the velocity of the insect was much more the floor) = v
than that of the motorcar). Akhtar said that since the
According to the third equation of motion:
motorcar was moving with a larger velocity, it exerted
v2 = u2 + 2as
a larger force on the insect. And as a result the insect
v2= 02 + 2(10)0.8
died. Rahul while putting an entirely new explanation
v2= 16
said that both the motorcar and the insect
v= 4 m/s
experienced the same force and a change in their
momentum. Comment on these suggestions. Hence, the momentum with which the dumbbell hits
the floor is = mv
Answer: According to the law of conservation of
= 10 × 4 kg m s-1
momentum: Momentum of the car and insect system
= 40 kg m s-1
before collision = Momentum of the car and insect
system after collision TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
Hence, the change in momentum of the car and insect 1. Which of the following physical quantities is
system is zero. different from others?
The insect gets stuck on the windscreen. This means Answer: iv. Pressure
that the direction of the insect is reversed. As a result,
the velocity of the insect changes to a great amount. 2. Impulse is measured in
On the other hand, the car continues moving with a Answer: iv. Newton Second
constant velocity. Hence, Kiran's suggestion that the
insect suffers a greater change in momentum as 3. Rate of change of momentum is directly
compared to the car is correct. proportional to the applied force and take place
The momentum of the insect after collision becomes Answer: ii. In the direction of the force
very high because the car is moving at a high speed.
4. Inertia is that property of a body by virtue of which
Therefore, the momentum gained by the insect is equal
the body is:
to the momentum lost by the car.
Answer: iv. All of the above
Akhtar made a correct conclusion because the mass of
the car is very large as compared to the mass of the 5. Action - reaction forces act:
insect.
Answer: ii. On different bodies
Rahul gave a correct explanation as both the car and
the insect experienced equal forces caused by the *****
Newton's action-reaction law. But, he made an
incorrect statement as the system suffers a change in
momentum because the momentum before the
collision is equal to the momentum after the collision

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 10: GRAVITATION This acceleration is known as acceleration due to gravity

(g). Its value is given by 9.8 m/s2.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 144
1. State the universal law of gravitation.
1. What are the differences between the mass of an
Answer: The universal law of gravitation states that object and its weight?
every object in the universe attracts every other object
Answer:
with a force called the gravitational force. The force
acting between two objects is directly proportional to S.O. Mass Weight
the product of their masses and inversely proportional I. Mass is the quantity Weight is the force of
to the square of the distance between their centers. of matter contained gravity acting on the
For two objects of masses m1 and m2 and the distance in the body. body.
between them ‘r’, the force (F) of attraction acting II. It is the measure of It is the measure of
between them is given by the universal law of inertia of the body. gravity.
gravitation as:
III. Mass is a constant Weight is not a constant
quantity. quantity. It is different at
different places.
IV. It only has It has magnitude as well
Where, G is the universal gravitation constant and its
magnitude. as direction.
value is 6.67×10-11 Nm2 kg-2.
V. Its SI unit is kilogram Its SI unit is the same as
2. Write the formula to find the magnitude of the (kg). the SI unit of force, i.e.,
gravitational force between the earth and an object on Newton (N).
the surface of the earth.
2. Why is the weight of an object on the moon 1/6th its
Answer: The gravitational force between the earth and weight on the earth?
an object on the surface of the earth is
Answer: Mass of the moon is 1/100 times and radius of
moon is 1/4 times that of the earth.
Where G is the universal gravitational constant Therefore, the gravitational attraction on the moon is
M is the mass of earth about one sixth of that on the earth. Hence, the weight
m is the mass of object on the surface of earth of an object on the moon is 1/6th of the weight on the
d is the distance between the two bodies. earth.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 146 IN-TEXT / PAGE 151
1. Why is it difficult to hold a school bag having a strap

1. What do you mean by free fall?
made of a thin and strong string?
Answer: Gravity of the Earth attracts every object
towards its centre. When an object is released from a Answer: It is difficult to hold a school bag having a thin
height, it falls towards the surface of the Earth under strap because the pressure on the shoulders is quite
the influence of gravitational force. The motion of the large. This is because the pressure is inversely
proportional to the surface area on which the force
object is said to have free fall.
acts. The smaller is the surface area; the larger will be
2. What do you mean by acceleration due to gravity? the pressure on the surface. In the case of a thin strap,
the contact surface area is very small. Hence, the
Answer: When an object falls towards the ground from pressure exerted on the shoulder is very large.
a height, then its velocity changes during the fall. This
changing velocity produces acceleration in the object. 2. What do you mean by buoyancy?

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: The upward force exerted by a liquid on an objects of mass M and m is proportional to the product
object immersed in it is known as buoyancy. When you of their masses and inversely proportional to the square
try to immerse an object in water, then you can feel an of distance r between them
upward force exerted on the object, which increases as
you push the object deeper into water. So, force F is given by
3. Why does an object float or sink when placed on the

surface of water?
Answer: If the density of an object is more than the

density of the liquid, then it sinks in the liquid. This is
because the buoyant force acting on the object is less
than the force of gravity. On the other hand, if the
density of the object is less than the density of the
liquid, then it floats on the surface of the liquid. This is Hence, if the distance is reduced to half, then the
because the buoyant force acting on the object is gravitational force becomes four times larger than the
greater than the force of gravity. previous value.
IN-TEXT / PAGE NO: 152 2. Gravitational force acts on all objects in proportion
to their masses. Why then, a heavy object does not fall
1. You find your mass to be 42 kg on a weighing faster than a light object?
machine. Is your mass more or less than 42 kg?
Answer: All objects fall on ground with constant
Answer: When you weigh your body, an upward force acceleration, called acceleration due to gravity (in the
acts on it. This upward force is the buoyant force. As a absence of air resistances). It is constant and does not
result, the body gets pushed slightly upwards, causing depend upon the mass of an object. Hence, heavy
the weighing machine to show a reading less than the objects do not fall faster than light objects.
actual value.
3. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force
2. You have a bag of cotton and an iron bar, each between the earth and a 1 kg object on its surface?
indicating a mass of 100 kg when measured on a (Mass of the earth is 6 × 1024 kg and radius of the
weighing machine. In reality, one is heavier than other. earth is 6.4 × 106 m).
Can you say which one is heavier and why?
Answer: Given that,
Answer: The bag of cotton is heavier than iron bar. This Mass of the body, m= 1 kg
is because the surface area of the cotton bag is larger Mass of the Earth, M= 6×1024 kg
than the iron bar. Hence, more buoyant force acts on Radius of the earth, R= 6.4×106 m
the bag than that on an iron bar. This makes the cotton
bag lighter than its actual value. Now, magnitude of the gravitational force (F) between
the earth and the body can be calculated.
For this reason, the iron bar and the bag of cotton show
the same mass on the weighing machine, but actually
the mass of the cotton bag is more than that of the iron
bar.
EXERCISE
1. How does the force of gravitation between two 4. The earth and the moon are attracted to each other
objects change when the distance between them is by gravitational force. Does the earth attract the moon
reduced to half? with a force that is greater or smaller or the same as
the force with which the moon attracts the earth?
Answer: According to Universal Law of gravitation, the Why?
gravitational force of attraction between any two

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: According to the universal law of gravitation, Answer: Universal law of Gravitation is important
two objects attract each other with equal force, but in because it it tells us about:
opposite directions. The Earth attracts the moon with
an equal force with which the moon attracts the earth. i. the force that is responsible for binding us to Earth.
ii. the motion of moon around the earth
5. If the moon attracts the earth, why does the earth iii. the motion of planets around the sun
not move towards the moon? iv. the tides formed by rising and falling of water level in
the ocean are due to the gravitational force exerted by
Answer: The Earth and the moon experience equal both sun and moon on the earth.
gravitational forces from each other. However, the
mass of the Earth is much larger than the mass of the 8. What is the acceleration of free fall?
moon. Hence, it accelerates at a rate lesser than the
acceleration rate of the moon towards the Earth. For Answer: Acceleration of free fall is the acceleration
this reason, the Earth does not move towards the produced when a body falls under the influence of the
moon. force of gravitation of the earth alone. It is denoted by g
and its value on the surface of the earth is 9.8 ms-2.
6. What happens to the force between two objects, if
(i) the mass of one object is doubled? 9. What do we call the gravitational force between the
(ii) the distance between the objects is doubled and Earth and an object?
tripled?
Answer: Gravitational force between the earth and an
(iii) the masses of both objects are doubled?
object is known as the weight of the object.
Answer: From Universal law of gravitation, force
10. Amit buys few grams of gold at the poles as per the
exerted on an object of mass m by earth is given by
instruction of one of his friends. He hands over the
same when he meets him at the equator. Will the
friend agree with the weight of gold bought? If not,
why? [Hint: The value of gis greater at the poles than
at the equator].
Answer: Weight of a body on the Earth is given by:

W = mg
Where,
So as the mass of any one of the object is doubled the
force is also doubled. m = Mass of the body
g = Acceleration due to gravity
(ii) The force F is inversely proportional to the distance
between the objects. So if the distance between two The value of gis greater at poles than at the equator.
objects is doubled then the gravitational force of Therefore, gold at the equator weighs less than at the
attraction between them is reduced to one fourth (1/4) poles. Hence, Amit's friend will not agree with the
of its original value. weight of the gold bought.
Similarly, if the distance between two objects is tripled, 11. Why will a sheet of paper fall slower than one that
then the gravitational force of attraction becomes one is crumpled into a ball?
ninth (1/9) of its original value.
Answer: When a sheet of paper is crumbled into a ball,
(iii) Force F is directly proportional to the product of then its density increases. Hence, resistance to its
both the masses. So, if both the masses are doubled motion through the air decreases and it falls faster than
then the gravitational force of attraction becomes four the sheet of paper.
times the original value.
12. Name the instrument with which weight is
7. What is the importance of universal law of measured.
gravitation?
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: Weighing scale or Strain gauge scale is used for Therefore,

measuring weight of a body. g =GM/r2
= (6.673 x 10-11N·m2kg2 x 108)/103
13. When an object falls to the ground, the earth = 6673 x 10-3
moves up to meet it. Why is the earth's motion not = 6.673 x 10 m/s2
noticeable? Explain. = 66.73 m/s2
Answer: As compared to the earth, all the masses will 18. A boy throws a ball upwards from the ground, it
be small or negligible. Therefore the earth motion is reaches back to him after 4 s. (a) With what velocity
also negligible. was it thrown? (b) What was the maximum height
reached?
14. Explain why one can jump higher at the surface of
the moon than on the surface of earth. Take g= 10ms-2
Answer: One can jump higher at the surface of the Answer: Time to reach Maximum height,
Moon than on the surface of the Earth as the t = 4/2
gravitational pull of the moon is 1/6th of the Earth. = 2 s.
15. Where does the centre of gravity of the following v = 0 (at the maximum height)
bodies lie (i) sphere (ii) square (iii) triangle (iv) g = - 10 m s-²
rectangle.
a) Using, v = u + gt, we get
Answer: i. The center of gravity of a sphere is at its
center. 0 = u - 10 × 2
or, u = 20 ms-¹
ii. The center of gravity of a square is at the points
where its diagonals meet each other. Thus, the velocity with which it was thrown up
= 30 ms-¹
iii. The center of gravity of a triangle is at the point
where the medians of the triangle meet. b) Using, 2aS = v² - u², we get
S = v²- u²/2g
iv. The center of gravity of a rectangle is at the points = 0 - 202/- 2× 10
where its diagonals meet each other. = - 400 m / -20
= 20 m
16. Mention some applications of Newton's law of
gravitation. Thus, Maximum height it reaches = 20 m.
Answer: Some application of the universal law of 19. Gravitational force on the surface of the moon is
gravitation are: only 1/6 as strong as gravitational force on the Earth.
What is the weight in newtons of a 10 kg object on the
i. We use this to calculate the force or pull of gravity of
moon and on the Earth?
the planets of the earth, earth included.
Answer: Weight of an object on the moon
ii. This law also comes in handy when calculating the
= 1/6 ×Weight of an object on the Earth
trajectory of astronomical bodies and to predict there
motion. Also,
8 3
17. The mass of a planet is 10 kg and its radius is 10 Weight = Mass × Acceleration
m. Calculate the acceleration due to gravity on its Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2
surface. Use the known value of G.
Therefore, weight of a 10 kg object on the Earth
Answer: Mass = 108 kg = 10 × 9.8 = 98 N
Radius = 103 m
G = 6.673 x 10-11N·m2kg2

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
And, weight of the same object on the moon 21. A stone is released from the top of a tower of
= 1.6 × 9.8 height 19.6 m. Calculate its final velocity just before
= 16.3 N. touching the ground.
20. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity Answer: According to the equation of motion under
of 49 m/s. Calculate gravity:
(i) the maximum height to which it rises. v2 − u2 = 2 gs

(ii) the total time it takes to return to the surface of
the earth. Where,
Answer: According to the equation of motion under u = Initial velocity of the stone = 0
gravity: v = Final velocity of the stone
s = Height of the stone = 19.6 m
v2 - u2 = 2gs g = Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m s-2
Where, ∴ v2 − 02 = 2 × 9.8 × 19.6

v2 = 2 × 9.8 × 19.6 = (19.6)2
u = Initial velocity of the ball v = 19.6 m s-1
v = Final velocity of the ball
s = Height achieved by the ball Hence, the velocity of the stone just before touching
g = Acceleration due to gravity the ground is 19.6 m s-1.
At maximum height, final velocity of the ball is zero, i.e., 22. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial
v= 0 velocity of 40 m/s. Taking g = 10 m/s2, find the
u = 49 m/s maximum height reached by the stone. What is the net
displacement and the total distance covered by the
During upward motion, g = -9.8 m s-2 stone?
Let h be the maximum height attained by the ball. Answer: According to the equation of motion under
gravity:
Hence,
v2 − u2 = 2 gs
0 - 492 = 2×9.8×h
⇒ h = 492/(2×9.8) Where,
⇒ h = 2401/19.6 = 122.5
u = Initial velocity of the stone = 40 m/s
Let t be the time taken by the ball to reach the height v = Final velocity of the stone = 0
122.5 m, then according to the equation of motion: s = Height of the stone
g = Acceleration due to gravity = −10 m s−2
v = u + gt
Let h be the maximum height attained by the stone.
We get,
Therefore,
0 = 49 + t x (- 9.8)
9.8t = 49 0 - (40)2 = 2×h×(-10)
t = 49 / 9.8 = 5s h = (40×40)/20
= 80 m
Also,
Therefore, total distance covered by the stone during its
Time of ascent = Time of descent
upward and downward journey = 80 + 80
Therefore, total time taken by the ball to return = 5 + 5 = 160 m
= 10 s
Net displacement of the stone during its upward and
downward journey
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
= 80 + (−80) Answer:
=0
23. Calculate the force of gravitation between the

earth and the Sun, given that the mass of the earth = 6
× 1024 kg and of the Sun = 2 × 1030 kg. The average
distance between the two is 1.5 × 1011 m.
Answer: According to question,

MS = Mass of the Sun = 2×1030 kg
ME = Mass of the Earth = 6×1024 kg
R = Average distance between the Earth and the Sun
= 1.5×1011 m
From Universal law of gravitation,
24. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower

100 m high and at the same time another stone is
projected vertically upwards from the ground with a
velocity of 25 m/s. Calculate when and where the two Hence the stone meet at a height of 20 m above the
stones will meet. ground after 4 seconds.
25. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower

after 6 s. Find
(a) the velocity with which it was thrown up,
(b) the maximum height it reaches, and
(c) its position after 4 s.
Answer: Time to reach Maximum height,

t = 6/2
= 3 s.
v = 0 (at the maximum height)

g = - 9.8 m s-²
a) Using, v = u + at, we get
0 = u - 9.8 × 3
or, u = 29.4 ms-¹
Thus, the velocity with which it was thrown up

= 29.4ms-¹

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
b) Using, 2aS = v² - u², we get The density of the substance is more than the density of
S = v²- u²/2g water (1 g cm−3). Hence, the substance will sink in
= 0 - 29.4 × 29.4/- 2× 9.8 water.
= 44.1 m
29. The volume of a 500 g sealed packet is 350 cm3.
Thus, Maximum height it reaches = 44.1 m. Will the packet float or sink in water if the density of
water is 1 g cm−3? What will be the mass of the water
c) Here, t = 4s. In 3 s, the ball reaches the maximum displaced by this packet?
height and in 1 s it falls from the top.
Answer: Density of the 500 g sealed packet
Distance covered in 1 s from maximum height, = Mass of the Packet / Volume of the Packet
S = ut + 1/2gt ² = 500 / 350
= 0 + 1/2 × 9.8 × 1 = 1.428 g cm−3
= 4.9 m
The density of the substance is more than the density of
Therefore, the ball will be 4.9 m below the top of the water (1 g cm−3). Hence, it will sink in water.
tower after 4 s.
The mass of water displaced by the packet is equal to
26. In what direction does the buoyant force on an the volume of the packet, i.e., 350 g.
object immersed in a liquid act?
30. If the upthrust is considered as action; what is the
Answer: An object immersed in a liquid experiences reaction? This reaction is exerted on what and by
buoyant force in the upward direction. what?
27. Why does a block of plastic released under water Answer: The reaction of the upthrust is known as
come up to the surface of water? buoyant force.
Answer: For an object immersed in water two force acts It acts on the object as an downward force.
on it
31. Will a body weigh more in air or in vacuum when
i. gravitational force which tends to pull object in weighed with a spring balance? Give a reason for your
downward direction. answer.
ii. buoyant force that pushes the object in upward
direction. Answer: The body will weigh more in a vacuum than in
the air. This happens because of the upward buoyant
Here, in this case buoyant force is greater than the force that the particles in air provide to the body that
gravitational pull on the plastic block. This is the reason reduces the weight of the body.
the plastic block comes up to the surface of the water
as soon as it is released under water. 32. A steel needle sinks in water but a steel ship floats.
Explain how?
28. The volume of 50 g of a substance is 20 cm3. If the
density of water is 1 g cm−3, will the substance float or Answer: An object will float in water if its density is less
sink? than that of water. A steel needle sinks since its density
is more than water. The interior of a ship is hollow.
Answer: If the density of an object is more than the Therefore, its average density is less than that of water,
density of a liquid, then it sinks in the liquid. On the therefore, it floats.
other hand, if the density of an object is less than the
density of a liquid, then it floats on the surface of the 33. A body of mass 4.5 kg displaces 200 cm3 of water
liquid. when fully immersed inside it. Calculate: (a) The
volume of the body (b) upthrust on body (c) Apparent
Here, density of the substance weigh of body in water.
= Mass of the substance / Volume of the substance
= 50/20 Answer: (i) Volume of body is equal to the volume of
= 2.5 g cm-3 water displaced.
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Vb =Vw =200 cm3 5. A balloon filled with hydrogen rises upwards

because:
(ii) Upthrust, B=Vbρw g [ρw is density of water]
3
=200 cm ×1000×10 Answer: iv. the weight of the balloon is less than the
=0.0002 m3 x 1000 x 10 weight of the air displaced by it.
= 2 kgf
6. The unit of relative density is:
(iii) Apparent weight = W−B
= 4.5 − 2 Answer: iv. It doesn’t have a unit
= 2 kgf
7. The stem of a hydrometer is made narrow because
34. A cube of wood of side 10 cm floats in water with it:
4.5 cm of its depth below the surface, and with its
Answer: iii. Increases its sensitivity
sides vertical. What is the density of wood? Density of
water = 1.0 x 103 kg m-3 *****
Answer: Side of cube= 10 cm= 0.1 m
Volume of cube= 0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1
= 0.001 m³
Height of cube under water = 4.5 cm

= 0.045 m
Volume of cube under water = 0.045 x 0.1 x 0.1

= 0.00045 m³
Density of wood = part of volume submerged x density

of water part of volume submerged
= 0.00045/0.001
= 0.45
∴ Density of wood = 0.45 x 1000 [density of water]

=450 kg/m³
1. A stone is dropped from the top of the tower. Its

speed after it has fallen 20m is (Take g=10 ms-1)
Answer: iv. 20 ms-1
2. If the earth stops rotating the value of 'g' at the

equator will:
Answer: i. Increase
3. In vacuum all freely falling objects:
Answer: iii. have the same acceleration
4. A bomb is released from an aircraft. Its trajectory is:
Answer: ii. Parabola

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 11: WORK AND ENERGY Answer: Work done by the bullocks is given by the
expression:
IN-TEXT / PAGE 159 Work done = Force × Displacement
1. A force of 7 N acts on an object. The displacement is, W= F × d
say 8 m, in the direction of the force. Let us take it that Where,
the force acts on the object through the displacement.
What is the work done in this case? Applied force, F = 140 N
Displacement, d = 15 m
Answer: When a force F acts on an object to displace it W = 140 × 15
through a distance S in its direction, then the work done = 2100 J
W on the body by the force is given by:
Hence, 2100 J of work is done in ploughing the length of
Work done = Force × Displacement the field.
W =F×S
IN-TEXT / PAGE 163
Where,
F=7N 1. What is the kinetic energy of an object?
S=8m
Answer: Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a
Therefore, work done, W = 7 × 8 body by the virtue of its motion. Every moving object
= 56 J possesses kinetic energy. A body uses kinetic energy to
do work. Kinetic energy of hammer is used in driving a
IN-TEXT / PAGE 160 nail into a log of wood, kinetic energy of air is used to
1. When do we say that work is done? run wind mills, etc.
Answer: Work is done whenever the given conditions 2. Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an
are satisfied: object.
(i) A force acts on the body. Answer: If a body mass m is moving with a velocity v,
then its kinetic energy Ek is given by the expression,
(ii) There is a displacement of the body caused by the
applied force along the direction of the applied force. Ek= 1⁄2 mv2.
2. Write an expression for the work done when a force Its SI unit is Joule (J).
is acting on an object in the direction of its 3: The kinetic energy of an object of mass, m moving
displacement. with a velocity of 5 m/s is 25 J. What will be its kinetic
Answer: When a force F displaces a body through a energy when its velocity is doubled? What will be its
distance S in the direction of the applied force, then the kinetic energy when its velocity is increased three
work done W on the body is given by the expression: times?
Work done = Force × Displacement Answer: Expression for kinetic energy
W=F×s Ek= 1⁄2 mv2

m = Mass of object
3. Define 1 J of work. v = Velocity of the object in m/s
Answer: 1 J is the amount of work done by a force of 1 Given that kinetic energy, Ek=25J
N on an object that displaces it through a distance of 1
m in the direction of the applied force. (i) If the velocity of an object is doubled,
then v= 5 × 2
4. A pair of bullocks exerts a force of 140 N on a = 10 m/s
plough. The field being ploughed is 15 m long.
Therefore, its kinetic energy becomes 4 times its
How much work is done in ploughing the length of the original value, because it is proportional to the square
field? of the velocity.
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Hence, kinetic energy = 25 × 4 • Suma is swimming in a pond.

= 100 J. • A donkey is carrying a load on its back.
• A wind-mill is lifting water from a well.
(ii) If velocity is increased three times, then its kinetic • A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis.
energy becomes 9 times its original value, because it is • An engine is pulling a train.
proportional to the square of the velocity. Hence, • Food grains are getting dried in the sun.
kinetic energy = 25 × 9 • A sailboat is moving due to wind energy.
= 225 J
Answer: • Suma is swimming in a pond.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 164
Suma is doing work as she is able to move herself by
1. What is power?
applying force with the movement of her arms and legs
Answer: Power is the rate of doing work or the rate of in the water.
transfer of energy. If W is the amount of work done in • A donkey is carrying a load on its back.
time t, then power is given by the expression,
Donkey is not doing any work (in the sense of physics)
Power = Work/Time as the weight he is carrying (the direction of force) and
= Energy/Time displacement are perpendicular to each other.
P = W/T • A wind-mill is lifting water from a well.
It is expressed in watt (W).
Wind mill is lifting water from a well and doing work
2. Define 1 watt of power. against the gravity.
Answer: A body is said to have power of 1 watt if it does • A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis.
work at the rate of 1 joule in 1 s, i.e., 1W=1J/1s No force and displacement are present here, so work
3. A lamp consumes 1000 J of electrical energy in 10 s. done is zero.
What is its power? • An engine is pulling a train.
Answer: Power is given by the expression,
During the pulling a train, engine does the work against
Power=Work done /Time the friction, present between the railway track and
wheels.
Work done = Energy consumed by the lamp = 1000 J
• Food grains are getting dried in the sun.
Power =1000 / 10
= 100 J/s During the drying the grains, there is no force as well as
= 100 W displacement is present. So, no work is done.
4. Define average power. • A sailboat is moving due to wind energy.
Answer: A body can do different amount of work in Work is done by the wind as it moves the sailboat
different time intervals. Hence, it is better to find towards the direction of the force (force of blowing air).
average power. Average power is obtained by dividing 2. An object thrown at a certain angle to the ground
the total amount of work done in the total time taken moves in a curved path and falls back to the ground.
to do this work. The initial and the final points of the path of the object
Average Power =Total work done / Total time taken lie on the same horizontal line. What is the work done
by the force of gravity on the object?
EXERCISES
Answer: When the object moves upwards, the work
1. Look at the activities listed below. Reason out done by gravity is negative (as the direction of
whether or not work is done in the light of your gravitational force is towards the Earth’s center) and
understanding of the term ‘work’. when the object come downwards, there is a positive

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
work done. So, the total work down is zero in 8. Does the transfer of energy take place when you
throughout the motion. push a huge rock with all your might and fail to move
it? Where is the energy you spend going?
3. A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes
involved in the process. Answer: When we push the rock and fail to move it.
Some of our energy is absorbed by the rock in the form
Answer: Battery converts chemical energy into of potential energy and the rest of our energy is goes to
electrical energy. This electrical energy is further environment through our muscles and the surface
converted into light and heat energy. between the rock and out hand.
4. Certain force acting on a 20 kg mass change its
9. A certain household has consumed 250 units of
velocity from 5 m/s to 2 m/s. Calculate the work done
energy during a month. How much energy is this in
by the force. joules?
Answer: Mass of the body = 20 kg Answer: We know that
Initial velocity = 5 m/s
Final velocity = 2 m/s 1 unit = 3,600,000 J
We know that, So,
Work done = change in kinetic energy 250 units = 250 × 3,600,000 J
= 10(25 − 4) = 900,000,000 J
= 210 J = 9 × 108J
5. A mass of 10 kg is at a point A on a table. It is moved Hence, the energy consumed = 9 × 108J
to a point B. If the line joining A and B is horizontal,
what is the work done on the object by the 10. An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m
gravitational force? Explain your answer. above the ground. What is its potential energy? If the
object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it
Answer: The work down by the gravitational force is half-way down.
acting on the body is zero because the direction of force
is vertically downward and the displacement is Answer: We know that, potential energy = mgh
horizontal i.e., force and displacement are Where, m = 40 kg
perpendicular to each other.
g = 9.8 m/s2
6. The potential energy of a freely falling object h=5m
decreases progressively. Does this violate the law of
conservation of energy? Why? So, the potential energy = 40 × 9.8 × 5 J
= 1960 J
Answer: The potential energy of freely falling object
decreases and its kinetic energy increases (as its velocity According to law of conservation of energy, the total
increases) progressively. So, in this way the total mechanical energy (Kinetic and potential energy) of an
mechanical energy (Kinetic energy + potential energy) object remains constant.
remains constant. Thus, the law of conservation of Therefore, when the object is half-way down, its
energy is not violated. potential energy becomes half the original energy and
7. What are the various energy transformations that remaining half converted into kinetic energy.
occur when you are riding a bicycle? Hence, the kinetic energy = 1⁄2 (1960) J
Answer: The muscular energy of the cyclist is converted = 980 J
into kinetic (rotational) energy of wheels of cycle which 11. What is the work done by the force of gravity on a
is further converted into kinetic energy to run the satellite moving round the Earth? Justify your answer.
bicycle.
Answer: When a satellite moves around the Earth, the
displacement in short interval is along the tangential
direction and the force (gravitational force) is towards
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
the centre of the Earth. Since, the force and (b) Both kinetic energy and potential energy
displacement are perpendicular to each other, the work
done by gravitational force is zero. (c) Only kinetic energy
(d) Only potential energy
12. Can there be displacement of an object in the
absence of any force acting on it? Think. Discuss this (e) Only potential energy (rather elastic potential
question with your friends and teacher. energy).
Answer: Yes, it is true. There may be displacement in 16. What is the work done by the force of gravity in
the absence of force. the following cases?
We know that, F = ma, (a) Satellite moving around the earth in a circular orbit
In the absence of force, F = 0, then ma = 0 of radius 35OOO km.
(b) A stone of mass 25O g is thrown up through a
Where a = 0 [as m ≠ 0] height of 2.5 m.
If a = 0, the object is either at rest or in a state of Answer: (a) Work done will be 0, as the displacement
uniform motion in a straight line. In case the object is here is occurring in perpendicular direction to the force
moving in a straight line, there must be displacement. applied i.e., gravity.
So, in the absence of force, there may be displacement (b) Here also as the stone comes back to the earth and
in the object. the displacement is 0. So the net work done is 0. In
moving the stone up the work done will be exactly the
13. The Earth moving round the Sun in a circular orbit same and opposite while the stone is coming down.
is acted upon by a force and hence work must be done
on the Earth by the force. Do you agree with this 17. A light body and a heavy body have the same
statement? momentum. Which of the two bodies will have greater
kinetic energy?
Answer: The earth moves around the sun because of
the gravitational force of the sun on the earth. This Answer: Since both have same momentum the lighter
force acts along the radius of the orbit of the earth one has high velocity according to the equation p= mv,
towards (or focus) its center.
Therefore lighter body has higher kinetic energy
At every point during the motion the direction of because Ek=p²/2m
velocity (or direction of displacement) at that is always
perpendicular to force. 18. (a) Give two conditions for work to be done.
(b) What is the work done by frictional force on an
Therefore the work done is zero. object when dragged along a rough surface?
(c) Relate power and work
14. When an arrow is shot from a bow, it has kinetic
(d) A machine does 1960 Joule of work in 4 minutes.
energy. From where does it get the kinetic energy? What is the power?
Answer: The potential energy which gets build up when Answer: (a) A force should act on the body and it should
the arrow is stretched same energy gets converted to have displacement.
kinetic energy.
(b) Negative.
15. What kind of energy is possessed by the (c) P = work/time
following? (d) Given W = 1960 J,
(i) A man climbing a hill t = 4 min
(ii) Water stored in a dam = 4 x 60
(iii) A compressed spring = 240 s
(iv) Running water
Power (P) =?
(v) A stretched rubber band.
Here,
Answer: (a) Both kinetic energy and potential energy P = W/t
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
= 1960/240 Answer: The person holding a bundle of hay get tired

= 8.2 W because his muscular energy is converting into thermal
energy. There is no displacement at all, so he had no
19. It takes 20 s for A to climb up a stair while B does work. As Work done = Force × displacement.
the same in 15 s. Compare the work done and power
developed by A and B. 23:.An electric heater is rated 1500 W. How much
energy does it use in 10 hours?
Answer: As height is the same for both girls A and B,
work done is same (irrespective of time) Answer: We know that, Energy = Power × time
Here, Power = 1500 W
Time = 10 hours
Now, = 10 × 60 × 60 seconds
A takes 20 s to climb the stairs while B takes 15 s, to do = 36000 seconds
the same. Hence B does work at a much faster rate than Therefore,
A; more power is spent by B.
The energy used by heater = Power × time
= 1500 × 36000 J
= 54000000 J
= 5.4 × 107 J
20. A man climbs a ladder carrying a concrete block of
mass 5 kg. If the ladder makes an angle of 30° to the 24. Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by
vertical, and is 3 m long, how much work the man does discussing the energy changes which occur when we
on the block? draw a pendulum bob to one side and allow it to
oscillate. Why does the bob eventually come to rest?
Answer: As the wall does not move the displacement is What happens to its energy eventually? Is it a violation
zero. of the law of conservation of energy?
We know, W = F.s Answer: In the given pendulum, there are three cases
=F.0 of points to be discussed.
=0
At the points B and C, the pendulum bob is at its
Therefore, work done is zero. maximum height, so its potential energy is maximum
21. How fast a man of mass 60 kg should run so that and kinetic energy is zero. In this way the total
his kinetic energy is 750 J? mechanical energy remains constant. At the point A, the
pendulum bob is at its lowest point, total potential
Answer: Given, energy is converted into kinetic energy. Now the kinetic
energy is maximum and potential energy is zero. Once
Mass = 60 kg
again the total mechanical energy remains constant.
K.E = 750 J
25. An object of mass, m is moving with a constant
v=?
velocity, v. How much work should be done on the
K.E = (1/2) mv2 object in order to bring the object to rest?
750 = (1/2) × 60 × v2
Answer: Mass of Object = m
v2 = 150/6
Velocity of object = v
v = √25
Work done = Force x Displacement
v = 5 m/s
Force = m x a
Hence the man should run with a velocity of 5m/s So, work done = m x a x v
22. A person holds a bundle of hay over his head for 30 Third equation of motion,
minutes and gets tired. Has he done some work or v² = u² + 2as
not? Justify your answer. s = v² - u² / 2a

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Now, We know that, F = ma,

Work done = m x a x (v² - u² / 2a) In the net force is zero, F = 0, then ma = 0
= m x (v² - u² / 2) Where a = 0 [as m ≠ 0]
= mv² / 2 - mu² / 2
29: Find the energy in kW h consumed in 10 hours by
So mv² / 2 - mu² / 2 work should be done to make four devices of power 500 W each.
object at rest.
Answer: Powerer consumed by each device = 500W = 0.5
26. Calculate the work required to be done to stop a kW
car of 1500 kg moving at a velocity of 60 km/h? Energy consumed by each one in 10 hours
Power = Energy / Time
Answer: Mass of the car m = 1500 kg
0.5 = Energy / 10
Velocity of the car v = 60 km/h Energy = 10 × 0.5
=60×1000/60×60 Energy = 5 kWh
=50/3 m/s Therefore, power consumed by 4 such devices
The car is in motion, so its energy = kinetic energy = 4 × 5 kWh
= 208333.3 J = 20 kWh
= 20 units
The kinetic energy of the car, when it comes to rest = 0 J
bject eventually stops on reaching
30. A freely falling object
Work done on object = change in kinetic energy the ground. What happens to its kinetic energy?
= 208333.3 − 0 J
= 208333.3 J Answer: When a freely falling body eventually stops on
reaching the ground, its kinetic energy appears in the
Hence, the work required to stop the car is 208333.3 J. form of:
27. In each of the following a force, F is acting on an (i) Heat (the body and the ground become warmer due
object of mass, m. The direction of displacement is to collision).
from west to east shown by the longer arrow. Observe (ii) Sound (produced due to collision of the body with
the diagrams carefully and state whether the work the ground).
done by the force is negative, positive or zero. (iii) Potential energy of configuration of the body and
the ground (the body may be deformed and the ground
may be depressed at the place of collision).
This process in which the kinetic energy of a freely
falling body is lost in an unproductive chain of energy
changes is called dissipation of energy.
Answer: In the first case, the force and displacement TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
are perpendicular to each other, so work done is zero.
1. Potential energy of a person is minimum when
In the second case, the force and displacement are in
the same direction, so the work done is positive. Answer: iv. person is lying on the ground
In the third case, the force and displacement are in the 2. A 1 kg mass has a kinetic energy of 1 joule when its
opposite direction, so the work done is negative. speed is:
28. Soni says that the acceleration in an object could Answer: iii. 1.4 ms-1
be zero even when several forces are acting on it. Do
3. An object of mass 1 kg has a potential energy of 1
you agree with her? Why?
joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of:
Answer: If the resultant force acting on a body in
Answer: i. 0.102 m
different directions is zero, then the acceleration will be
zero. 4. A boy throws a ball vertically upwards. As the ball
rises its total energy (neglect friction)
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: iii. Remains same

5. The cgs unit of work is:
Answer: ii. Erg
6. The speed of a particle is doubled, its kinetic energy:
Answer: iii. Becomes four times
*****

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 12-SOUND 2: Guess which sound has a higher pitch: guitar or car
horn?
IN-TEXT / PAGE 174
Answer: Guitar
1. How does the sound produced by a vibrating object
IN-TEXT / PAGE 178
in a medium reach your ear?
1. What are wavelength, frequency, time period and
Answer: When a body vibrates the air in its
amplitude of a sound wave?
neighborhood is alternately compressed and rarefied.
The compressed air has higher pressure than Answer: Wavelength: The distances between two
surrounding air. It therefore pushes the air particles consecutive compressions or rarefaction of a wave. Its
near it causing compression to move forward. A S.I unit is meter.
rarefaction or low pressure is created at the original
place. These compressions and rarefaction causes Frequency: One compression and one rarefaction
particles in the air to vibrate about their mean position. constitute one vibration. The number of vibration in a
The energy is carried forward in these vibrations. This is second is called frequency. Its unit is Hertz.
how sound travels.
Amplitude: When waves are produced, the particles
IN-TEXT / PAGE 175 vibrate about their mean position. The maximum
displacement from its mean position of a particle is
1. Explain how sound is produced by your school bell? called its amplitude. It is measured in meters.
Answer: When the gong strikes the bell, vibrations are Time period: The time taken by the wave to complete
produced in the bell which is transmitted through the one oscillation i.e., the time between two consecutive
air to our ears. These vibrations produce sensation of compressions or rarefactions is called time period.
sound in our ears.
2. How are the wavelength and frequency of a sound
2. Why are sound waves called mechanical waves? wave related to its speed?
Answer: Sound waves are called mechanical waves Answer: Speed = Wavelength x frequency
because they need a material medium to travel.
V =λ×ν
3: Suppose you and your friend are on the moon. Will
you be able to hear any sound produced by your 3: Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose
friend? frequency is 220 Hz and speed is 440 m/s in a given
medium.
Answer: On the moon, sound cannot travel as there is
no atmosphere. Sound cannot travel in vacuum so we Answer: We know,
will not be able to hear any sound. Velocity = Wavelength × Frequency
v = λ×n
Where, λ denotes Wavelength and n denotes frequency
1: Which waves property determines
Given,
(a) loudness (b) pitch?
v = 440 m/sec
Answer: a) Loudness is determined by the amplitude of n = 220 Hz
the sound. Greater the amplitude more will be the λ=?
loudness.
v=λ×n
b) Pitch is determined by frequency. Higher is the 440 = λ × 220
frequency, greater will be the pitch. λ = 440 / 220
λ=2

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Therefore, wavelength (λ) = 2 m 1. What is the audible range of the average human
ear?
4. A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting at a
distance of 450 m from the source of the sound. What Answer:: Audible range 20 Hz − 20,000 Hz
is the time interval between successive compressions
from the source? 2. What is the range of frequencies associated with (a)
Infra sound? (b) Ultrasound?
Answer:
Answer: (a) Infra-sound
sound less than 20 Hz
ν = 500 Hz.
(b) Ultra-sound
sound greater than 20, 000 Hz.
Therefore T = 1/500 s
= 0.002 s IN-TEXT
TEXT / PAGE 184
1. Distinguish between loudness and intensity of 1. A submarine emits a sonar pulse, which returns
sound? from an underwater cliff in 1.02 s. If the speed of
sound in salt water is 1531 m/s, how far away is the
Answer: Loudness and intensity both depend upon the cliff?
amplitude of sound. But loudness is the physiological
response of our ears to a particular
icular frequency. Our ears Answer: t = 1.02 s
are more sensitive to some frequencies as compared to v = 1531 m/s
others. Intensity is the amount of sound energy passing d (Distance) = v × t
per second per unit area. It is proportional to square of = 1531×1.022 m
amplitude. = 780.81 m
IN-TEXT / PAGE NO: 179 /BOOK QUESTIONS

EXERCISES/BOOK
1. In which of the three media, air, water or iron, does 1. What is sound and how is it produced?
sound travel the fastest at a particular temperature? Answer: Sound is a form of energy and it is produced
due to vibrations of different types of object. For
Answer: Sound travels faster in iron and slowest in air.
example: A vibrating tuning fork, a bell, wires in a sitar
IN-TEXT / PAGE NO: 180 and a guitar etc.
2: Describe with the help of a diagram, how
1. An echo returned in 3 s. What is the distance of the
compressions and rarefactions are produced in air
reflecting surface from the source,, given that the
near a source of sound.
speed of sound is 342 ms−1?
Answer: If we blow a horn, speak, or produce sound by
Answer: Time for echo = 3 s an object in air we are pushing the air molecules. These
v = 342 m/s molecules, in turn, push the adjacent molecules which
Therefore distance: d = v × t impart their energy to the next ones. After losing
= 342×3 m energy in the interaction, the molecule is back to its
= 513 m. original (mean) position. This results in formation of
compressions and rarefac
rarefactions.
1. Why are the ceilings of concert halls curved?
Answer: The ceilings of concert halls are curved so that

after reflections from the surface, sound can reach each
and every part of the hall.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
3: Cite an experiment to show that sound needs a Answer:

material medium for its propagation.
Answer: Take an electric bell and an airtight glass bell
jar. The electric bell is suspended inside the airtight bell
jar. The bell jar is connected to a vacuum pump, as
shown in following figure. Now, if we press the switch,
we will be able to hear the bell.
Now start the vacuum pump. When the air in the jar is
pumped out gradually, the sound becomes fainter, 8. Two children are at opposite ends of an aluminium
although the same current is passing through the bell. rod. One strikes the end of the rod with a stone. Find
the ratio of times taken by the sound wave in air and
After some time when less air is left inside the bell jar
in aluminium to reach the second child.
you will hear a very feeble sound. At the end, when all
the air is removed completely, we will not be able to Answer: Speed of sound in air = 346m/s
hear the sound of bell. This show sound requires Speed of sound in aluminium rod = 6420m/s
material medium.
Let the length of the rod be Y
4. Why sound wave is called a longitudinal wave?
We know,
Answer: A sound wave is called a longitudinal wave time = distance/speed
because it travels in the form of compressions and time taken in air = Y/346
rarefactions in the medium, where the particles of the time taken in aluminium rod = Y/6420
medium vibrate in a direction which is parallel to the
direction of propagation of the sound wave. ratio =(Y/346)/(Y/6420)
= (Y/346) x (6420/Y) [reciprocal]
5. Which characteristic of the sound helps you to
Y would get cancelled
identify your friend by his voice while sitting with
= 6420/346
others in a dark room?
= 18.55
Answer: The timbre of sound is that characteristic
9. The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How
which enables us to distinguish one sound from the
many times does it vibrate in a minute?
other even when these are of the same pitch and
loudness. Each person has its own timbre of sound and Answer: Since the frequency of the source of sound is
this characteristic helps us to identify a person from 100 Hz
others even without looking at him (i.e., in a dark Number of vibrations of the source in 1 second = 100
room). Number of vibrations of the source in 1 minute (i.e., 60
second) =100x60
6. Flash and thunder are produced simultaneously. But
= 6000
thunder is heard a few seconds after the flash is seen,
why? 10. Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as
light does? Explain.
Answer: The flash of light is seen earlier than the
thunder of sound even though both are produced Answer: Yes, sound follow the same laws of reflection
simultaneously because the speed of light (c) is greater as light does. The laws of reflection of sound are as
than speed of sound (v) by 10° as follows:
i. The incident sound wave, the reflected sound wave,
and the normal at the point of incident all lie in the
plane.
7. A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
ii. The angle of incidence of sound wave and angle of
What are the typical wavelengths of sound waves in
reflection of sound wave to the normal are equal.
air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the
speed of sound in air as 344 ms-1.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
11. When a sound is reflected from a distant object, an Here, Speed = 339 m s-1
echo is produced. Let the distance between the Wavelength = 1.5 cm = 0.015 m
reflecting surface and the source of sound production
remains the same. Do you hear echo sound on a hotter Therefore,
day? Frequency = 339/0.013 = 22600 Hz
Answer: In any medium as we increase the temperature It is not audible (as the audible frequency is 20 Hz to
the speed of sound increases. For example, the speed of 20000 Hz).
sound in air is 331 m s-1 at 0 °C and 344 m s-1 at 22 °C. 15. Explain how a transverse wave can be generated in
So, on a hotter day, we cannot here the echo between a slinky.
the same distances.
Answer: A slinky produce transverse, longitudinal and
12: Give two practical applications of reflection of standing waves. The first coil transfers its energy to the
sound waves. second coil and so on. In this manner, energy is
Answer: The practical applications of sound are as transported from one end of the slinky to the other,
follows: from its source to another location.
i. Megaphones or loudhailers are based on multiple 16. Give two points of distinction between transverse
reflections of sound. ii. Stethoscope is a medical and longitudinal waves.
instrument used for listening to sounds produced within Answer:
the body is also based on multiple reflection of sound.
Transverse waves Longitudinal waves
13. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m
high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. The particles of medium Particles of medium
When is the splash heard at the top? Given, g = 10 m s oscillate perpendicular to oscillate along the direction
2 and speed of sound = 340 ms-1 the direction of of the propagation of the
propagation of wave. waves.
Answer: Given,
Height, s = 500m They propagate through They propagate through
g=10 crests and troughs. compression and
Speed of sound = 340 ms-1 rarefactions.
u=0
Now, 17. What is a speaking tube? What is its use?
s = ut+1/2at2
Answer: A speaking tube is a device based on two cones
500 = 0xt + ½ x 10 x t2
connected by an air pipe through which speech can be
500= 0 + 5 x t2
transmitted over an extended distance.
500/5 = t2
100 = t It is used in two-way radio.
t=10 sec
18. Name a few applications of ultrasound in medicine.
Now, the time for the resound=500/340
=1.47 sec Answer: A few applications of ultrasound in medicine
are:
Therefore, total time = 10+1.47
=11.47 sec i. Ultrasound is generally used to clean parts located in
hard-to-reach places, for example, spiral tube, odd
14. A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 m s. If its shaped parts, electronic components etc.
wavelength is 1.5 cm, what is the frequency of the
wave? Will it be audible? ii. Ultrasounds can be used to detect cracks and flaws in
metal blocks.
Answer: We know that, Frequency =
Speed/Wavelength

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
19. What is an echo? Explain the following uses of

multiple reflection of sound (i) Sound boards (ii) Ear
trumpet (iii) Speaking tube.
Answer: If we shout or clap near a suitable reflecting
object such as a tall building or a mountain, we will hear
the same sound again a little later. This sound which we
hear is called an echo. 21. Longitudinal waves travel at the speed of 10 m s-1
(i) Sound boards: Sound boards in large halls or in a coiled spring. If the distance between two
auditorium, large concave wooden boards are placed successive rarefactions is 1.0 cm, find the frequency of
behind the speaker. The speaker stands at the focus of the wave.
this concave reflecting surface. After reflection the Answer: The distance between two successive
sound is spread evenly towards the audience. This rarefraction is nothing but the wavelength of the wave.
makes the sound readily available even at a distance.
Hence,
(ii) Ear trumpet: Ear trumpet or hearing aid is used by
the persons who are hard of hearing. The sound waves λ = 1 cm
received by the wide end of the trumpet are reflected = 0.01 m
into a much narrower area, leading it to the ear. This
Given speed of the wave = 10 m/s
increases amplitude of the vibrating air inside the ear
and helps in improving hearing. We know,
The frequency of the wave is the ratio of speed to
(iii) Speaking tube: Speaking tube is a hollow tube– one
wavelength. Hence,
end is the speaker's end, whereas the other one is the
listener's end. In these devices, the sound waves suffer Frequency = speed/wavelength
reflection repeatedly and the energy of the waves = v/λ
remains confined to the tube. The sound waves are = 10/0.01
prevented from spreading out. = 1000 Hz
20. A vibrating body produces a wave of wavelength Hence the frequency of the wave will be 1000 Hz.
2.5 m in a medium where the wave travels with a
velocity of 1250 m s-1. Find the period of vibration of 22. An observer measures the time interval between
the wave? the sighting of lightning and hearing the thunder. He
finds it to be 5.0 s. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m
Answer: s-1, how far is the cloud from the observer?
Answer: The distance between two successive
rarefraction is nothing but the wavelength of the wave.
λ = 1 cm = 0.01 m
Given speed of the wave = 10 m/s
We know that frequency of the wave is the ratio of
speed to wavelength
Hence
For the time period of the wave we know that, Frequency = Speed/Wavelength
= v/λ
= 10/0.01
= 1000 Hz
Hence the frequency of the wave will be 1000 Hz.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
23. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced? The sonar technique is used to determine the depth of
the sea and to locate underwater hills, valleys,
Answer: A sound created in a big hall will persist by submarine, icebergs, sunken ship etc.
repeated reflection from the walls until it is reduced to
a value where it is no longer audible. The repeated 28: A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal
reflection that results in this persistence of sound is and receives an echo 5 s later. Calculate the speed of
called reverberation. To reduce reverberation, the roof sound in water if the distance of the object from the
and walls of the auditorium are generally covered with submarine is 3625 m.
sound-absorbent materials like compressed fiberboard,
rough plaster or draperies. The seat materials are also Answer: Total distance travelled by sound = 2 x 3625
selected on the basis of their sound absorbing = 7250 m
properties. Time taken = 5 seconds
24. What is loudness of sound? What factors does it Therefore, speed = distance / time
depend on? = 7250 / 5 m/s
Answer: The loudness (or softness) of a sound is = 1450 m/s
determined by its amplitude. If amplitude is higher, it is
a louder sound. It depends upon the force with which So, the speed of sound in water is 1450 m/s.
an object is made to vibrate. 29. Explain how defects in a metal block can be
25. Explain how bats use ultrasound to catch a prey. detected using ultrasound.
Answer: Bats can produce and hear sound of frequency Answer: Ultrasounds can be used to detect the defect
up to 100 kHz. The sound produced by flying bat gets in metal blocks. The cracks or holes inside the metal
reflected from its prey in front of it. By hearing this blocks, which are invisible from outside reduces the
reflected sound, it can detect the prey even during strength of the structure. Ultrasonic waves are allowed
nights. to pass through the metal block and detectors are used
to detect the transmitted waves. If there is even a small
26. How is ultrasound used for cleaning? defect, the ultrasound gets reflected back indicating the
Answer: To clean any objects, it is placed in a cleaning presence of the flaw or defect.
solution and ultrasonic waves are sent into the solution. 30. Explain how the human ear works.
Due to the high frequency, the particles of dust, grease
and dirt get detached and drop out. The objects thus Answer: The outer ear is called “pinna’’. It collects the
get thoroughly cleaned. sound from the surroundings. The collected sound
passes through the auditory canal. At the end of the
27. Explain the working and application of a sonar. auditory canal there is a thin membrane called the ear
Answer: Sonar consists of a transmitter and a detector drum or tympanic membrane. When a compression of
and is installed in a boat or a ship. The transmitter the medium reaches the eardrum the pressure on the
produces and transmits ultrasonic waves. These waves outside of the membrane increases and forces the
travel through water and after striking the object on the eardrum inward.
seabed, get reflected back and are sensed by the Similarly, the eardrum moves outward when a
detector. The detector converts the ultrasonic waves rarefaction reaches it. In this way the eardrum vibrates.
into electrical signals which are appropriately The vibrations are amplified several times by three
interpreted. The distance of the object that reflected bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) in the middle ear.
the sound wave can be calculated by knowing the speed The middle ear transmits the amplified pressure
of sound in water and the time interval between variations received from the sound wave to the inner
transmission and reception of the ultrasound. If the ear. In the inner ear, the pressure variations are turned
time interval between transmission and reception of into electrical signals by the cochlea. These electrical
ultrasound signal be t and the speed of sound through signals are sent to the brain via the auditory nerve, and
seawater be v. The total distance, 2d travelled by the the brain interprets them as sound.
ultrasound is then, 2d = v x t.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
1. Which of the following does not require a medium

to propagate?
Answer: i. radio waves
2. The distance between adjacent crests is called:
Answer: iv. wavelength
3. The audible range for a normal human being is:
Answer: ii. 20 Hz to 20 KHz
4. Loudness is a sensation depending upon:
Answer: iii. Frequency
5. An astronaut cannot hear his companion on the
surface of the moon because:
Answer: ii. there is no medium for sound propagation
*****

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 13: WHY DO WE FALL ILL Answer: Jaundice because it is a chronic disease and
takes long time to be cured. Moreover, jaundice affects
IN-TEXT / PAGE 191 the whole body and it takes long time to be healthy.
1. State any two conditions essential for good health. IN-TEXT / PAGE 200
Answer: 'Health' is a state of being well enough to 1. Why are we normally advised to take bland and
function well physically, mentally and socially. nourishing food when we are sick?
Therefore, for good health and one should be disease
Answer: Infectious disease show a lack of success of the
free and there should be social equality and harmony
immune system of the body. For the functioning of
which are essential for individual health particularly for
immune system properly, sufficient nourishment and
social and mental health.
easily digestible food is necessary for a sick person.
2. State any two conditions essential for being free of
2. What are the different means by which infectious
disease.
diseases are spread?
Answer: Two conditions essential for being free of
Answer: Infection causing microbes travel from patient
disease are:
to person through:
(i) Remain away from specific and particular cause for
(i) Air: Sneezing or coughing since little droplets are
discomfort or disease. For which personal and public
thrown which they reach another person through air.
cleanliness and good physical environment are
Eg. common cold, pneumonia etc.
necessary.
(ii) Water: contaminated water carries disease causing
(ii) Proper and sufficient food necessary for functioning
microbes which cause infection on its usage. Eg.
of cells and tissues of the body.
diseases such as cholera.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 193
(iii) Sexual contact: Diseases such as syphilis or AIDS are
1. List any three reasons why you would think that you transmitted by sexual contact from one person to the
are sick and ought to see a doctor. If only one of these other.
symptoms were present would you still go to the
(iv) Animals: These are intermediaries, called vectors,
doctor? Why not?
transmitting diseases from a patient to the host.
Answer: Common symptoms, which indicate sickness, Example, mosquitoes (Female Anopheles mosquito)
are: cause spread of malaria.
(i) Headache 3. What precautions could you take in your school to
(ii) Cough reduce the incidence of infectious diseases?
(iii) Loose motion.
Answer: Precautions we can take in our school to
Even seeing one symptoms, I will go to doctor. A single reduce the incidence of infectious diseases are:
symptom is the sign of a disease. On delaying, it may
(i) Avoiding over-crowded classes
lead to serious illness. For example, headache may
(ii) Providing safe drinking water
mean meningitis.
(iii) Cleanliness in the school premises and also in the
2. In which of the following case do you think the long classroom,
- term effects on your health are likely to be most (iv) Use of handkerchief or towel when an infected
unpleasant? student in sneezing or coughing
(v) Use of clean toilets
(i) If you get jaundice. (vi) Not to allow water to stagnate in school or around
(ii) If you get lice. the school to avoid mosquito breeding
(iii) If you get acne. (vii) To get vaccinated whenever programmers
Why? organized for inoculation against various diseases
(viii) Not eating food exposed to flies, mosquitoes etc.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
4. What is immunization? examination of patients.

(iv) getting themselves vaccinated against various
Answer: Introduction of mild type of infection diseases.
(microbes) or killed infectious microbes into the body
by vaccination / by other means to activate the immune 3. Conduct a survey in your neighbourhood to find out
system against a particular infection / disease is called what the three most common diseases are. Suggest
immunization. three steps at could be taken by your local authorities
to bring down the incidence of these diseases.
5. What is the immunization programme available at
the nearest health center in your locality? Answer: NOT NEEDED
Which of these diseases are the major health problems 4. '’Prevention is better than cure." Elaborate this
in your area? statement keeping in view the communicable diseases.
Answer: Immunization programme available at the Answer: It may not be very easy to treat a
nearest health center in our locality are: communicable disease and so it is always a good idea to
prevent them from happening because
(i) BCG vaccine against tuberculosis.
(ii) Polio drops against polio. (i) A communicable disease can damage the body organ
(iii) Vaccination against chicken pox. functioning,
(iv)Vaccination against Hepatitis. (ii) A treatment will take time, money and other
(v) DPT vaccination against diptheria, pertusis resources. Moreover, the person may be bedridden for
(whooping cough) and tetanus. the period, and
(vi) Immunization against measles. (iii) A communicable disease can spread very fast that
can be contracted by other people.
Major health problems are
(i) Hepatitis Therefore, prevention is always better than cure when
(ii) Chicken pox it comes to communicable diseases.
(iii) Tuberculosis and
(iv) Tetanus. 5. Define the following terms:
EXERCISES a) Disease b) Health c) Hygiene d) Allergy
1. How many times did you fall ill in the last one year? Answer: a) A disease is a particular abnormal condition
What were the illnesses? that negatively affects the structure or function of part
or all of an organism.
(a) Think of one change you could make in your habits
in order to avoid any of/most of the above illnesses. b) Health is a state of physical, mental and social well-
(b) Think of one change you would wish for in your being.
surroundings in order to avoid any of/most of the
above illnesses. c) Hygiene is the practice of keeping ourselves and our
surroundings clean, especially in order to prevent illness
Answer: NOT NEEDED or the spread of diseases.
2. A doctor/nurse/health-worker is exposed to more
sick people than others in the community. Find out d) Allergies are hypersensitive responses from the
how she/he avoids getting sick herself/himself. immune system to substances that either enter or come
into contact with the body.
Answer: A doctor/nurse/health worker is exposed to
more sick people in the community. He/she avoids 6. Differentiate between
getting sick by: a) Congenital and acquired diseases
(i) keeping place of work sterilized by using phenyl etc. b) Degenerative and deficiency disease
(ii) keeping equipments, that are regularly in use, Answer: a) A congenital disorder is a medical condition
sterilized. that is present at birth. A congenital disorder can be
(iii) washing hands with soap thoroughly after serious recognized before birth (prenatally), at birth, or many
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
years later. Congenital disorders can be a result of 9. A baby is not able to tell her/his caretakers that
genetic abnormalities, the intrauterine environment, or she/he is sick. What would help us to find out.
unknown factors.
(a) That the baby is sick?
On the other hand, acquired diseases are acquired (b) What is the sickness?
during the lifetime of an individual and are not present
from birth. They are usually caused by disease causing Answer: (a) Symptoms that help us to find that baby is
agents or due to the lifestyle of an individual. sick, are:
b) Degenerative disease is the result of a continuous (i) Continuous crying and restlessness of the child
process based on degenerative cell changes, affecting (ii) Improper intake of food and body temperature
tissues or organs, which will increasingly deteriorate
over time. (b) Kind of sickness can be known by certain organ-
specific and tissue-specific symptoms e.g., yellowness of
But deficiency diseases are caused by a lack of essential skin and eyes indicate the jaundice and hepatitis.
dietary elements in the diet.
10. Under which of the following conditions is a person
7. What does health mean? Discuss importance of most likely to fall sick?
health.
(a) When she is recovering from malaria.
List various modes of spread of communicable (b) When she has recovered from malaria and is taking
diseases and their preventive measures. care of someone suffering from chicken-pox.
(c) When she is on a four-day fast after recovering
Answer: Health is a state of physical, mental and social
from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering
well-being.
from chicken-pox. Why?
Ill health results in high rate of absenteeism, poor Answer: c. A person is more likely to fall sick when she
performance, low productivity and more accidents. On is on a four-day fast after recovering from malaria and is
the contrary, good health results in reduced rate of the taking care someone suffering from chicken pox.
above. Therefore, health is very important.
This is because since she has suffered from malaria and
The various modes of spread of communicable diseases is in the recovery phase, it means that she is still not
are: completely diseases-free. Fasting affects the immune
Water: Transmitted by ingestion of contaminated system as the body is deprived of essential nutrients
water. This can be prevented by treating the water well required to maintain a healthy body. Chicken pox is a
before consumption. contagious diseases, this also makes her susceptible in
contracting the disease while taking care of a person
Food: Transmitted by the ingestion of contaminated suffering of chicken pox.
food. This can be prevented by not sharing food with a
person with communicable diseases and washing the 11. Under which of the following conditions are you
food well before consumption. most likely to fall sick?
Air: Transmitted through the air. This can be prevented (a) When you are talking examinations.
by keeping a safe distance from a sick person and (b) When you have travelled by bus and train for two
wearing a mask. days.
(c) When your friends suffering from measles.
Vector: Transmitted by vectors, such as mosquitoes and Why?
flies. This can be prevented by using mosquito nets,
repellents and wearing proper clothes. Answer: (c) When your friend is suffering from measles
than you are most likely to fall sick.
Direct contact: There are microbial diseases that are
transmitted by sexual contact from one partner to the This is because measles is a infectious disease which
other or direct contact with a sick person. This can be spread through nasal or throat discharge.
prevented by not indulging in direct contact with an
infected person.
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
1. Physical exercises help us in

Answer: iv. All of these
2. Disease causing organisms are called
Answer: iv. Pathogens
3. Which of the following are transplacental diseases?
Answer: iii. AIDS
4. Prevention of spread of communicable diseases is
called
Answer: Epidemiology
5. Which of the following disease is spread through the
bite of mad dogs?
Answer: Rabies
*****

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 14: NATURAL RESOURCES Answer: The following three human activities would
lead to air pollution:
IN-TEXT / PAGE 207
(i) Burning of fossil fuels such as coal and petroleum
1. How is our atmosphere different from the (ii) Industrialization
atmospheres on Venus and Mars? (iii) Deforestation
Answer: Earth’s atmosphere is different from those of IN-TEXT / PAGE 208

Venus and Mars. This difference lies essentially in their
1. Why do organisms need water?
compositions. Earth’s atmosphere is a mixture of
nitrogen (79%), oxygen (20%), and a small fraction of Answer: Organisms need water for the following
carbon dioxide, water vapours and other gases. This reasons:
makes the existence of life possible on Earth. However,
the atmospheres on Venus and Mars mainly consist of (i) All cellular processes need water as a medium.
carbon dioxide. The amount of carbon dioxide on these Usually, the reactions that take place in our body or
planets can range from 95% to 97%. within the cells occur between substances that are
dissolved in water.
2. How does the atmosphere act as a blanket? (ii) Since most of the substances are transported in a
dissolved form, water is necessary.
Answer: The atmosphere acts as a blanket by
performing the following functions: 2. What is the major source of fresh water in the
city/town/village where you live?
(a) It keeps the average temperature of the Earth fairly
constant during day time and even during the course of Answer: River is the major source of fresh water.
whole year.
(b) It prevents a sudden increase in the temperature 3. Do you know of any activity which may be polluting
during day time. this water source?
(c) It slows down the escape of heat from the surface of Answer: The discharge of waste water from homes,
the Earth into outer space during night time. industries, hospitals, etc. into the river pollutes this
3. What causes winds? fresh water source.
Answer: An uneven heating of the Earth’s surface IN-TEXT / PAGE 210

causes winds. On being heated, air becomes lighter and 1. How is soil formed?
rises up. As a result, a region of low pressure is created.
Then, air from a high pressure region moves to a low Answer: Soil is formed by breaking down of rocks at or
pressure region, causing wind. near the surface of the Earth through various physical,
chemical, and biological processes by various factors
4. How are clouds formed? such as the sun, water, wind and living organisms.
Answer: During day time, on being heated, a large 2. What is soil erosion?
amount of water evaporates from various water bodies
and goes into the air. A part of this water vapour also Answer: The blowing away or washing away of land
reaches the atmosphere through biological activities surface by wind or water is known as soil erosion.
such as transpiration and respiration. This causes the air
3. What are the methods of preventing or reducing soil
in the atmosphere to heat up. When this heated air
erosion?
rises, it expands and cools, which results in the
condensation of water vapour forming water droplets. Answer: The methods of preventing or reducing soil
The presence of dust and other suspended particles in erosion are:
air also facilitates the process of condensation. The
formation of water droplets leads to the formation of (i) Prevention of deforestation
clouds. (ii) Plantation of trees
5. List any three human activities that you think would IN-TEXT / PAGE 215
lead to air pollution.
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
1. What are the different states in which water is (i) Atmosphere keeps the average temperature of the
found during the water cycle? Earth fairly constant during day time.
(ii) It prevents a sudden increase in temperature during
Answer: During the water cycle, water is found in solid day time.
state (snow, ice, etc.), liquid state (ground water, river (iii) It also slows down the escape of heat from the
water, etc.), and gaseous state (water vapours). surface of the Earth into outer space during nighttime.
2. Name two biologically important compounds that 2. Why is water essential for life?
contain both oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer: Water is essential for life because of the
Answer: Two biologically important compounds that
following reasons:
contain both oxygen and nitrogen are:
(i) Most biological reactions occur when substances are
(i) Amino acids dissolved in water. Thus, all cellular processes need
(ii) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and Ribonucleic acid water as a medium to take place.
(RNA) (ii) Transportation of biological substances needs water
3. List any three human activities which would lead to as a medium.
an increase in the carbon dioxide content of air. 3. How are living organisms dependent on the soil? Are
Answer: Three human activities which would lead to an organisms that live in water totally independent of soil
increase in the carbon dioxide content of air are: as a resource?
(i) Burning of fuels in various processes like heating, Answer: Almost all living organisms are dependent on
cooking, transportation, and industry. soil. Some depend directly, while some depend
(ii) Human induced forest fires. indirectly. Plants need soil for getting support as well as
(iii) The process of deforestation includes the cutting nutrients to prepare their food. On the other hand,
down of trees. This decreases the uptake of carbon organisms depend on plants for food and other
dioxide for photosynthesis. Eventually, the content of substances that are essential for life.
carbon dioxide increases. Organisms that live in water are not totally independent
4. What is the greenhouse effect? of soil as a resource. These organisms depend on
aquatic plants for food and other substances. These
Answer: Some gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitro aquatic plants in turn require minerals for their
us oxide prevent the escape of heat from the Earth’s sustenance. These minerals are carried to water bodies
surface by trapping it. This increases the average from soil by rivers, rain water, etc. Without the supply
temperature of the Earth. This is called the greenhouse of minerals from the soil to the water bodies, it is
effect. An increase in the content of such gases would impossible to imagine aquatic life.
lead to a situation of global warming.
4. You have seen weather reports on television and in
5. What are the two forms of oxygen found in the newspapers. How do you think we are able to predict
atmosphere? the weather?
Answer: The two forms of oxygen found in the Answer: The meteorological department of the
atmosphere are: government collects data on the elements of weather
(i) Diatomic molecular form with chemical formula O2. such as maximum and minimum temperatures,
(ii) Triatomic molecular form with chemical formula O3 maximum and minimum humidity, rainfall, wind speed,
known as ozone. etc. They are able to study these elements using various
instruments. The maximum and minimum temperature
EXERCISE of a day is measured by a thermometer known as the
maximum−minimum thermometer. Rain fall is
1. Why is the atmosphere essential for life?
measured by an instrument known as the rain gauge.
Answer: The atmosphere is essential for life because it Wind speed is measured by anemometers. There are
maintains an appropriate climate for the sustenance of various instruments used to measure humidity.
life by carrying out the following activities:
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
5. Name the process which removes carbon dioxide The various pollutants of the air pollution are sulfur
from the atmosphere. dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, carbon monoxide, lead, dust
etc.
Answer: Photosynthesis.
The various methods to conserve atmosphere are:
6. Name two natural sources of air pollution.
i. We should reduce cutting down of trees and practice
Answer: Two natural sources of air pollution are afforestation.
volcanic eruptions and forest fires.
ii. We should focus more on green energy that causes
7. What are the biogeochemical cycles? Explain the minimum to no pollution.
pathways of anyone.
iii. We should minimize use of fossil fuels and invest
Answer: Biogeochemical cycles are a combination of more on developing alternate sources of energy.
biological, geological and chemical pathways. It is also
known as an inorganic-organic pathway. iv. We should reduce waste generation, use of non-
biodegradable products and recycle them as much as
Water evaporates from the water bodies and possible.
subsequent condensation of this water vapour leads to
rain. The whole process in which water evaporates and v. We should segregate wastes and dump them
falls on the land as rain and later flows back into the sea separately and effectively.
via rivers is known as the water-cycle. All of the water
vi. More and more people should opt for public mode of
that falls on the land does not immediately flow back
into the sea. Some of it seeps into the soil and becomes transportations.
part of the underground reservoir of fresh-water. Some 10. Discuss the causes and effects of global warming.
of this underground water finds its way to the surface
through fir springs. Or we bring it to the surface for our Answer: The causes and effects of global warming are:
use through wells or tubewells. Causes:
i. Carbon dioxide emissions from fossil fuel burning
8. Write short note on imbalance in carbon cycle in the power plants.
biosphere. ii. Carbon dioxide emissions from burning gasoline for
Answer: Carbon cycle is a cyclic process of our nature, transportation.
where carbon compounds are interconverted. This cycle iii. Methane emissions from animals, agriculture, and
starts from the incorporation of carbon dioxide by from Arctic seabed.
photosynthesis process in green vegetation and ends by iv. Deforestation, especially tropical forests for wood,
the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere by pulp, and farmland.
the respiratory procedure of any living being. But due to v. Increase in usage of chemical fertilizers on croplands.
industrial revolution we are cutting trees in a huge Effects:
amount, that's why the green vegetation is decreasing
day by day. i. Rise in sea levels worldwide leading to submergence
of lands.
Due to lack of green vegetation the incorporation of ii. More killer storms.
atmospheric carbon dioxide is also decreasing and the iii. Massive crop failures.
carbon cycle is affecting significantly. iv. Widespread extinction of species.
v. Disappearance of coral reefs.
9. What does pollution mean? Describe various 11. We know that many human activities lead to
pollutants of air pollution. Also discuss various increasing levels of pollution of the air, water-bodies
methods to conserve atmosphere. and soil. Do you think that isolating these activities to
Answer: Pollution is the presence in or introduction specific and limited areas would help inreducing
substance which has harmful or poisonous effects into pollution?
the environment of a particulate matter.

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: Yes. Isolating human activities to specific areas

would help in reducing levels of pollution. For example,
setting up of industries in isolated regions will control
pollution to some extent. The pollution caused by these
industries will not contaminate water resources,
agriculture land, fertile land, etc.
12. Write a note on how forests influence the quality
of our air, soil and water resources.
Answer: Forests influence the quality of our air, soil,
and water resources in various ways. Some of them are:
(i) Forests balance the percentages of carbon dioxide
and oxygen in the atmosphere. The increasing amount
of carbon dioxide caused by human activities is
balanced by a larger intake of carbon dioxide by plants
during the process of photosynthesis. Simultaneously, a
large amount of oxygen is released.
(ii) Forests prevent soil erosion. Roots of plants bind the
soil tightly in a way that the surface of the soil cannot
be eroded away by wind, water, etc.
(iii) Forests help in the replenishment of water
resources. During the process of transpiration, a huge
amount of water vapour goes into the air and
condenses to form clouds. These clouds cause rainfall
that recharge water bodies.
1. Cutting of forests results in

2. Greenhouse effect is due to
3. Automobile exhaust gas that causes major
respiratory problem is
Answer: i. CO
4. In big cities air pollution is mainly due to
Answer: i. Burning of fossil fuel
5. Which of the following element is responsible for
Minamata disease?
Answer: i. Hg
*****

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
CHAPTER 15: IMPROVEMENT IN Answer: Macro-nutrients are nutrients required in

relatively large quantities for growth and development
FOOD RESOURCES of plants. They are six in number. Since they are
required in large quantities, they are known as macro-
IN-TEXT / PAGE 218 nutrient. The six macro-nutrients required by plants are
1 What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits and nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, magnesium,
vegetables? and sulphur.
Answer: We get the following from cereals, pulses, 2. How do plants get nutrients?
fruits and vegetables: Answer: Plants require sixteen essential nutrients from
(i) Cereals provide us with carbohydrates. Also, they are nature for their growth and development. All these
a rich source of energy. nutrients are obtained from air, water, and soil. Soil is
(ii) Pulses give us proteins. the major source of nutrients. Thirteen of these
(iii) Fruits and vegetables are a rich source of vitamins nutrients are available from soil. The remaining three
and minerals. A small amount of proteins, nutrients (carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen) are obtained
carbohydrates, and fats are also present in them. from air and water.
IN-TEXT / PAGE NO: 219 IN-TEXT / PAGE 221
1. How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop 1. Compare the use of manure and fertilizers in
production? maintaining soil fertility.
Answer: A variety of biotic factors such as pests, Answer: Manures increase soil fertility by enriching the
nematodes, diseases, etc. can reduce the net crop soil with organic matter and nutrients as it is prepared
production. A pest causes damage to agriculture by by the decomposition of animal excreta and plant
feeding on crops. For example, boll weevil is a pest on wastes. On the other hand, fertilizers are mostly
cotton. It attacks the cotton crop, thereby reducing its inorganic compounds whose excessive use is harmful to
yield. Weeds also reduce crop productivity by the symbiotic micro-organisms living in soil. Their
competing with the main crop for nutrients, light, and excessive use also reduces soil fertility. Hence, fertilizers
space. are considered good for only short term use.
Similarly, abiotic factors such as salinity, temperature, IN-TEXT / PAGE 222

etc. affect the net crop production. Some natural 1. Which of the following conditions will give the most
calamities such as droughts and floods are benefits? Why?
unpredictable. Their occurrence has a great impact on
crops sometimes, destroying the entire crop. (a) Farmers use high-quality seeds, do not adopt
irrigation or use fertilizers.
2. What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for (b) Farmers use ordinary seeds, adopt irrigation and
crop improvements? use fertilizer.
Answer: The desirable agronomic characteristics for (c) Farmers use quality seeds, adopt irrigation, use
crop improvements are: fertilizer and use crop protection measures.
(i) Tallness and profuse branching in any fodder crop. Answer: (c) Farmers using good quality seeds, adopting
(ii) Dwarfism in cereals. irrigation, using fertilizers, and using crop protection
measures will derive most benefits because of the
These desirable agronomic characteristic help in following reasons.
increasing crop productivity.
(i) The use of good quality seeds increases the total crop
IN-TEXT / PAGE 220 production. If a farmer is using good quality seeds, then
a majority of the seeds will germinate properly, and will
1. What are macro-nutrients and why are they called
grow into a healthy plant.
macro-nutrients?

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
(ii) Proper irrigation methods improve the water irrigation, tilling, etc. Cross breeding between two good
availability to crops. varieties of cattle will produce a new improved variety.
For example, the cross between foreign breeds such as
(iii) Fertilizers ensure healthy growth and development Jersey Brown, Swiss (having long lactation periods) and
in plants by providing the essential nutrients such as Indian breeds such as Red Sindhi, Sahiwal (having
nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, etc. excellent resistance power against diseases) produces a
(iv) Crop protection measures include various methods new variety having qualities of both breeds.
to control weeds, pests, and infectious agents. If all IN-TEXT / PAGE 225
these necessary measures are taken by a farmer, then
the overall production of crops will increase. 1. Discuss the implications of the following statement:
“It is interesting to note that poultry is India’s most
IN-TEXT / PAGE 223 efficient converter of low fibre food stuff (which is
1. Why should preventive measures and biological unfit for human consumption) into highly nutritious
control methods be preferred for protecting crops? animal protein food.”
Answer: Preventive measures and biological control Answer: Poultry in India is the most efficient converter
methods should be preferred for protecting crops of low fibre food stuff into highly nutritious animal
because excessive use of chemicals leads to protein food. In poultry farming, domestic fowls are
environmental problems. These chemicals are also raised to produce eggs and chicken. For this, the fowls
poisonous for plants and animals. Preventive measures are given animal feeds in the form of roughage, which
include proper soil and seed preparation, timely sowing mainly consists of fibres. Thus, by feeding animals a
of seeds, inter cropping and mixed cropping, usage of fibre rich diet, the poultry gives highly nutritious food in
resistant varieties of crops, etc. On the other hand, the form of eggs and chicken.
biological control methods include the usage of bio- 1. What management practices are common in dairy
pesticides that are less toxic for the environment. An
and poultry farming?
example of bio-pesticides is Bacillus thuringenes, which
is an insect pathogen that kills a wide range of insect Answer: Common management practices in dairy and
larvae. Therefore, both preventive measures and poultry farming are:
biological control methods are considered eco-friendly
methods of crop protection. (i) Proper shelter facilities and their regular cleaning.
(ii) Some basic hygienic conditions such as clean water,
2. What factors may be responsible for losses of grains nutritious food, etc.
during storage? (iii) Animals are kept in spacious, airy, and ventilated
place.
Answer: During the storage of grains, various biotic (iv) Prevention and cure of diseases at the right time is
factors such as insects, rodents, mites, fungi, bacteria, ensured.
etc. and various abiotic factors such as inappropriate
moisture, temperature, lack of sunlight, etc. are 2. What are the differences between broilers and
responsible for losses of grains. These factors act on layers and in their management?
stored grains and result in degradation, poor
germinability, discolouration, etc. Answer: The differences between broilers and layers
and in their management are:
IN-TEXT / PAGE 224
i. Layers are meant for egg production, whereas broilers
1. Which method is commonly used for improving are meant for poultry meat.
cattle breeds and why? ii. Nutritional, environmental, and housing conditions
required by broilers are different from those required
Answer: Cattle farming is commonly used for improving by egg layers.
cattle breeds. The purpose of cattle farming is to iii. A broiler chicken, for their proper growth, requires
increase the production of milk and draught labour for vitamin rich supplements specially vitamin A and K.
agricultural work. Dairy animals (females) are used for Also, their diet includes protein rich food and enough
obtaining milk and draught animals (males) are engaged
in agricultural fields for labour work such as carting,
SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
fat. They also require extra care and maintenance to particular nutrients in larger quantities from the soil.
increase their survival rate in comparison to egg layers. Then, if the same crop is grown in subsequent seasons
those nutrients will get depleted in the soil. Therefore,
IN-TEXT / PAGE 227 crops having different nutrient requirements are
1. How are fish obtained? rotated. For example, legumes which have nitrogen-
fixing bacteria in their root nodules supply the soil with
Answer: Fish can be obtained by two ways: nitrogen. Therefore, these legumes are rotated with
(i) Capture fishing: It is the process of obtaining fish nitrogen requiring cereals such as wheat and maize.
from natural resources. This method reduces the need of fertilizers, thereby
(ii) Culture fishery: It is the practice of farming fishes. increasing the overall yield of crops.
Farming can be done in both fresh water ecosystem 2. Why are manures and fertilizers used in fields?
(which includes river water, pond water) and marine
ecosystem. Answer: Manures and fertilizers are used in fields to
enrich the soil with the required nutrients. Manure
2. What are the advantages of composite fish culture? helps in enriching the soil with organic matter and
Answer: An advantage of composite fish culture is that nutrients. This improves the fertility and structure of
it increases the yield of fish. In a composite fish culture, the soil. On the other hand, fertilizers ensure a healthy
five or six different species are grown together in a growth and development in plants. They are a good
single fish pond. Fishes with different food habitats are source of nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium. To get
chosen so that they do not compete for food among an optimum yield, it is instructed to use a balanced
themselves. combination of manures and fertilizers in the soil.
Also, this ensures a complete utilization of food 3. What are the advantages of inter-cropping and crop
resources in the pond. As a result, the survival rate of rotation?
fish increases and their yield also increases. Answer: Inter-cropping and crop rotation both play an
1. What are the desirable characters of bee varieties important role in increasing the yield of crops. Inter-
suitable for honey production? cropping helps in preventing pests and diseases to
spread throughout the field. It also increases soil
Answer: Bee varieties having the following desirable fertility, whereas crop rotation prevents soil depletion,
characters are suitable for honey production: increases soil fertility, and reduces soil erosion. Both
these methods reduce the need for fertilizers. It also
(i) They should yield high quantity of honey.
helps in controlling weeds and controls the growth of
(ii) They should not sting much.
pathogens and pests in crops.
(iii) They should stay in the beehive for long durations.
(iv) They should breed very well. 4. What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in
agricultural practices?
2. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey
production? Answer: Genetic manipulation is a process where the
gene for a particular character is introduced inside the
Answer: Pasturage is the availability of Blowers from
chromosome of a cell. When the gene for a particular
which bees collect nectar and pollen. It is related to the
character is introduced in a plant cell, a transgenic plant
production of honey as it determines the taste and
is produced. These transgenic plants exhibit characters
quantity of honey.
governed by the newly introduced gene. For example,
EXERCISES let us assume there is a wild plant that produces small
fruits. If the gene responsible for a larger fruit size is
1. Explain any one method of crop production which introduced in this plant, this plant becomes transgenic,
ensures high yield. and starts producing larger fruits. Similarly, genes for
Answer: Crop rotation is one of the methods of crop higher yield, disease resistance, etc. can be introduced
production that ensures high yield. It is the method of in any desired plant. Therefore, gene manipulation
growing two or more varieties of crops on the same plays an important role in agricultural practices. It helps
land in sequential seasons. A crop utilises some in improving crop variety. It ensures food security and

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
insect resistant crops. It also improves the quality and i. Good quality and quantity of milk can be produced.
yield of crops. ii. Draught labour animals can be produced for
agricultural work.
5. What are the advantages of intercropping and crop iii. New variety that are resistant to diseases can be
rotation? produced by crossing two varieties with the desired
Answer: SAME AS QUESTION 3 traits.
6. How rainwater harvesting can be used in agriculture 12. For increasing production, what is common in
practices? poultry, fisheries and bee-keeping?
Answer: Rainwater harvesting is the storage and Answer: The common factor for increasing production
collection of water. When this water is stored and a in poultry, fisheries, and bee keeping is the proper
reserve is created, in times of less or no rainfall, the management techniques that are to be followed.
stored water can be utilized for agriculture without Regular cleaning of farms is of utmost importance.
relying on rain. Maintenance of temperature and prevention and cure
of diseases is also required to increase the number of
7. List some disadvantages of using manures. animals.
Answer: Some disadvantages of using manures are: 13. How do you differentiate between capture fishing,
i) They lack in minerals such as nitrogen, phosphorus mariculture and aquaculture?
and potassium. Answer:
ii) They are not soluble in water.
Capture Mariculture Aquaculture
8. Give two examples of each type of fertilizer. fishing
Answer: Two examples of each type of fertilizer are: It is the It is the It involves the
method of culture of production of aquatic
i. Biofertilizer. Eg.Cowdung, green leaves. obtaining marine fishes animals that are of high
ii. Chemical fertilizer. Eg. Nitrogen, phosphorus. fishes from for economic value such as
natural commercial prawns, lobsters, fishes,
9. How do storage grain losses occur?
resources. use. crabs, etc.
Answer: Factors responsible for such losses are biotic—
insects, rodents, fungi, mites and bacteria, and abiotic—
inappropriate moisture and temperatures in the place 14. What are draught animals? Give two examples
of storage. These factors cause degradation in quality,
Answer: Draught animals are those animals which are
loss in weight, poor germinability, discolouration of
used to in agricultural field or to draw load like a
produce, all leading to poor marketability. These factors
plough. Examples - horse, cattle etc.
can be controlled by proper treatment and by
systematic management of warehouses. 15. Name two diseases of each of the
10. How do good animal husbandry practices benefit (i) Cattle (ii) Poultry (iii) Fish
farmers?
Answer: Two infectious diseases each of cattle, poultry
Answer: Cattle farming are one of the methods of and fishes are:
animal husbandry that is most beneficial for farmers.
Using this method, better breeds of draught animals Cattle - Anthrax and Foot and mouth disease.
can be produced. Such draught animals are engaged in Poultry - Ranikhet and Salmonellosis.
agricultural fields for labour work such as carting, Fishes- Viral Hemorrhagic Septicemia (VHS) and
irrigation, tilling, etc. Infectious Pancreatic Necrosis (IPN)
11. What are the benefits of cattle farming? 16. Milk is almost a balanced diet. Justify the
statement.
Answer: Benefits of cattle farming:

SCIENCE NOTES
CLASS 9
Answer: Milk is regarded as a complete food because of

its rich content of protein, fat, carbohydrates, all known
vitamins and various minerals essential for sustaining
life and maintaining good health.
17. Explain the role of workers in a bee colony.
Answer: Worker bees are female but are not capable of
reproducing. They do all the work in the hive, and they
control most of what goes on inside. Their jobs include
housekeeping, feeding the queen, drones and larvae,
collecting the pollen and nectar, and making the wax.
1. Which of the following is a micronutrient for plants?

Answer: i. iron
2. Chemical fertilizers
Answer: iv. All of the above
3. High yielding and disease resistant varieties of
plants can be produced by
Answer: ii. Hybridization
4. When a crop is sown before harvesting the
preceding crop it is called
Answer: ii. Relay cropping
5. The fertile female honeybee is called
Answer: i. Queen
6. Which of the following is a high milk yielding cross
breed?
Answer: i. Karan Swiss
7. The shelter provided for livestock depends on
*****
Best PDF Encryption Reviews

Class 9 Science E-Guide

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Class 9 Science E-Guide

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Class 9 Science E-Guide

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SCIENCE NOTES

1 | Download notes in PDF from instamojo.com/onlinefreenotes

Answer: Solids diffuse at a very slow rate. But, if the Liquid

Answer: The characteristics of particles of matter are: 3. Give reasons:

2 | Download notes in PDF from instamojo.com/onlinefreenotes

a) 250°C Answer: When a liquid evaporates, the particles of the

4 | Download notes in PDF from instamojo.com/onlinefreenotes

9. Why does a wet khus-khus

10. Give reasons to explain, why water is considered a

Answer: Water is considered

1. water is made up of two elements in a fixed ratio.

TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION

1. In which state of matter, process of diffusion is

Answer: (ii) Gases

2. During evaporation process, the heat is:

Answer: (i) Absorbed

3. When water gets solidified into ice, then heat is:

Answer: (ii) Evolved

4. Boiling of a liquid takes place at:

Answer: (ii) a fixed temperature and normal

6 | Download notes in PDF from instamojo.com/onlinefreenotes

CHAPTER 2: IS MATTER AROUND heterogeneous homogeneous in heterogeneous

Its concentration at this temperature

1. Differentiate between homogeneous and

Answer:: A homogeneous mixture is a mixture having a

2. How are sol, solution and suspension different

Dissolving common salt in water

Answer: Physical change

Making a fruit salad with raw fruits

Answer: Physical change

Burning of paper and wood

Answer: Chemical change

Answer: By Sublimation Answer: Sublimation

Cutting of trees (f) Oil from water.

Answer: Physical change Answer: Using separating funnel

Melting of butter in a pan (g) Tea leaves from tea.

Answer: Physical change Answer: Filtration

Rusting of almirah (h) Iron pins from sand.

Answer: Chemical change Answer: Magnetic separation

Boiling of water to form steam (i) Wheat grains from husk.

Answer: Physical change Answer: Winnowing

(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.

Answer: Centrifugation liquid or gas. A solvent, on the other hand

(ii) Non-aqueous solution - Due to lesser degree of

(iii) True solution - Particles in solution dissolve

9 | Download notes in PDF from instamojo.com/onlinefreenotes

(b) A pure substance is a substance consisting of a single (a) Ice

10 | Download notes in PDF from instamojo.com/onlinefreenotes

(d) Coal (f) Freezing of water

(b) Sea water (a) Growth of a plant

(a) Sodium 4. The substances that sublime easily are:

Answer: Elements: Sodium, Silver, Tin and Silicon.

Compounds: Calcium carbonate, Methane and carbon

Mixtures: Soil, Sugar, Coal, Air, Soap and Blood.

16. Which of the following are chemical changes?

(a) Growth of a plant

11 | Download notes in PDF from instamojo.com/onlinefreenotes

12 | Download notes in PDF from instamojo.com/onlinefreenotes

Answer: (i) Al2(SO4)3 = 12 + 2 × 16