PRACTICE TEST 15

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
word(s) that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 10
SMART DOG!
Dogs are probably much cleverer than most people think, scientists say. They are convinced that
dogs can count and that the animals try to (1) ______ different messages through the pitch and pace of
their barks. Animal behaviourists used to think their bark was simply a way of attracting attention. Now
a new study suggests that (2) ______ dogs have specific barks with a range of meanings. For example,
dogs usually use high-pitched single barks when they are (3) ______ from their owners and a lower,
harsher superbark when strangers move towards them or the doorbell rings.
Dogs also know when they are receiving (4) ______ treats because they have a basic
mathematical ability that enables them to tell when one pile of objects is bigger than another. But to
count, an animal has to recognise that each object in a set (5) ______ to a single number and that the
last number in a sequence represents the total number of objects.
The theory has been tested on eleven dogs. They were first (6) ______ treats before a screen was
lowered so that the treats were out of sight. The treats were left (7) ______ they were or some were
added or taken away. If a treat was added or taken away, the dogs looked at them much longer than they
did when the treats were not disturbed, (8) ______ because they had done their sums and the numbers
did not meet their expectations.
Dogs are (9) ______ from wolves, which not only have a large neo-cortex - the brain's centre of
reasoning - but live in large social groups. This mathematical ability could have been used to work out
how many enemies and (10) ______ they had in a pack.
Question 1: A. transfer B. bear C. convey D. suggest
Question 2: A. common B. specialised C. individual D. popular
Question 3: A. divided B. separated C. split D. detached
Question 4: A. a lot of B. some C. few D. fewer
Question 5: A. ties B. fits C. complements D. corresponds
Question 6: A. demonstrated B. tempted C. shown D. presented
Question 7: A. while B. till C. when D. as
Question 8: A. predictably B. likely C. presumably D. surely
Question 9: A. related B. connected C. evolved D. descended
Question 10: A. defenders B. partners C. helpers D. allies

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 11 to 12
Question 11: There is a strong smell of gas in the kitchen
A. awkward B. shabby C. weak D. faint
Question 12: In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.
A.  remake B. refill C.  repeat D.  empty

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 13 to 22
Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frames of an object,
each slightly different than the preceding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be
the one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames
and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally
referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an originator.
In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final
sequence of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that define the objects
in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and
intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because

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animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques for three-dimensional
transformation, shading, and curvatures.
High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with
special color terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory
for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.
A camera can be used to film directly from the computer's display screen, but for the highest
quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computes the positions and
colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which captures it on
film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to the
recorder. Once this process is completed, it is repeated for the next frame. When the entire sequence has
been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the entire
sequence does not seem right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded.
This approach can be very expensive and time consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first
do motion tests with simple computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task
of calculating the high-resolution, realistic-looking images.
Question 13: What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The production process B. The role of the artist
C. The high cost D. The equipment needed
Question 14: According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to
draw the _____ .
A. last frame B. entire sequence of frames
C. first frame D. middle frames
Question 15: The word "they" in the second paragraph refers to _____ .
A. objects B. numbers C. databases D. formulas
Question 16: According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used
to _____ .
A. expose several frames at the same time B. store individual images
C. create new frames D. add color to the images
Question 17: According to the passage, the positions and colours of the figures in high-tech animation
are determined by _____ .
A. enlarging one frame at a lime B. using computer calculations
C. drawing several versions D. analyzing the sequence from different angles
Question 18: The word "captures" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _____ .
A. describes B. numbers C. registers D. separates
Question 19: The word "Once" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _____ .
A. while B. since C. before D. after
Question 20: According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion?
A. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.
B. They calculate high-resolution images.
C. They hand-draw successive frames.
D. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings.
Question 21: The word "task" in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to _____ .
A. position B. job C. possibility D. time
Question 22: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.
B. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.
C. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.
D. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 23 to 25

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Question 23: There are a lot of unattended children in the area because their parents are busy
away from home.
A. illiterate B. unsupported C. uneducated D. not taken care of
Question 24: The high mountain climate is cold and inhospitable.
A. uninviting B. rainy C. stormy D. dull
Question 25: We congratulate you and the Soviet scientists and engineers who made
this feat possible.
A. attention B. structure C. power D. accomplishment

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 35

A folk culture is small, isolated, cohesive, conservative, nearly self-sufficient group that is
homogeneous in custom and race, with a strong family or clan structure and highly developed
rituals. Order is maintained through sanctions based in the religion or family, and interpersonal
relationships are strong. Tradition is paramount, and change comes infrequently and slowly. There
is relatively little division of labor into specialized duties. Rather, each person is expected to
perform a great variety of tasks, though duties may differ between the sexes. Most goods are
handmade, and a subsistence economy prevails. Individualism is weakly developed in folk cultures,
as are social classes. Unaltered folk cultures no longer exist in industrialized countries such as the
United States and Canada. Perhaps the nearest modern equivalent in Anglo-America is the Amish, a
German American farming sect that largely renounces the products and labor saving devices of the
industrial age. In Amish areas, horse-drawn buggies till serve as a local transportation device, and
the faithful are not permitted to own automobiles. The Amish's central religious concept of Demut,
"humility", clearly reflects the weakness of individualism and social class so typical of folk
cultures, and there is a corresponding strength of Amish group identity. Rarely do the Amish marry
outside their sect. The religion, a variety of the Mennonite faith, provides the principal mechanism
for maintaining order.

By contrast, a popular culture is a large heterogeneous group, often highly individualistic

and constantly changing. Relationships tend to be impersonal, and a pronounced division of labor
exists, leading to the establishment of many specialized professions. Secular institutions, of control
such as the police and army take the place of religion and family in maintaining order, and a
money-based economy prevails. Because of these contrasts, "popular" may be viewed as clearly
different from "folk".

The popular is replacing the folk in industrialized countries and in many developing nations,
Folk-made objects give way to their popular equivalent, usually because the popular item is more
quickly or cheaply produced, is easier or time saving to use, or lends more prestige to the owner.

Question 26: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Two decades in modern society
B. The influence of industrial technology
C. The characteristics of "folk" and "popular" societies
D. The specialization of labor in Canada and the United States
Question 27: The word "homogeneous" is closest in meaning to _____ .
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 A. uniform B. general C. primitive D. traditional
Question 28: Which of the following is typical of folk cultures?
A. There is a money-based economy.
B. Each person develops one specialized skill.
C. Contact with other cultures is encouraged.
D. Social change occurs slowly.
Question 29: What does the author imply about the United States and Canada?
A. They value folk cultures. C. They have no social classes.
B. They have popular cultures. D. They do not value individualism.
Question 30: The phrase "largely renounces" is closest in meaning to ______.
A. loudly declares B. greatly modifies C. generally rejects D. often criticizes
Question 31: What is the main source of order in Amish society?
A. The government B. The economy C. The religion D. The clan structure
Question 32: Which of the following statements about Amish beliefs does the passage support?
A. A variety of religious practices is tolerated.
B. Individualism and competition are important.
C. People are defined according to their class.
D. Pre-modern technology is preferred.
Question 33: Which of the following would probably NOT be found in a folk culture?
A. A carpenter B. A farmer C. A banker D. A weaver
Question 34: The word "prevails" is closest in meaning to _____ .
A. provides B. dominates C. develops D. invests
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT given as a reason why folk-made objects are replaced by
mass-produced objects?
A. cost B. quality C. prestige D. convenience

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions 36 to 60
Question 36: Written to be performed on ______, Wilder’s play OUR TOWN depicts the life in a New
England community.
A. stage bare of scenery B. scenery bare of stage
C. stage scenery of bare D. bare of stage scenery
Question 37: The use of vitamin _____ and herbs has become increasingly popular among Americans.
A. Materials B. ingredients C. supplements D. components
Question 38: I thought you said she was going away the next weekend, ?
A. wasn’t she B. didn’t I C. didn’t you D. wasn’t it
Question 39: Jack ______ yet, otherwise he would have phoned me.
A. needn’t have arrived B. can’t have arrived
C. mustn’t have arrived D. shouldn’t have arrived
Question 40: No single factor explains ______ vary so greatly among individuals.
A. why aging effects B. what the effects of aging
C. aging has an effect D. the aging effect
Question 41: ______should not open their exam papers until told to do so by the invigilator.
A. Competitors B. Candidates C. Participants D. Takers
Question 42: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been ______ overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetition D. repetitive
Question 43: Complete the form as ______ in the note below.
A. insisted B. implied C. specified D. defined
Question 44: A: I won’t go camping next year. B: I won’t ____ .
A. neither B. either C. also D. too
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Question 45: Mary is being kept isolated because she is highly______.
A. infected B. infection C. infecting D. infectious
Question 46: Kim: “That millions of people attended General Vo Nguyen Giap’s funeral made a
special impression on almost every foreigner.”
Ron: “__________.”
A. Me neither B. I’ll say C. I’m afraid I can’t D. My pleasure
Question 47: My examination results were __________.
A. just as I expected B. just like I expected C. like just I expected D. like as I expected
Question 48: She had just enough time to __________ the report before the meeting.
A. turn round B. go into C. dip into D. get through
Question 49: The gardener told me that everything ______ by the end of this year.
A. have been planted B. will have been planted
C. would have been planted D. had been planted
Question 50: Once the air warms up, the snow should start to ___ .
A. defrost B. thaw C. melt D. dissolve
Question 51: That is a view to which I don’t ______.
A. support B. subscribe C. maintain D. agree
Question 52: Does Mr. Ba bring his farm ______ to the local market every day?
A. product B. production C. productivity D. produce
Question 53: “Don’t forget to drop me a line when you settle down.” “Trust me. ______.”
A. I won’t. I’ll keep you posted B. I drop you a line when I settle down
C. I don’t. I’ll keep you in touch D. I will. I’ll keep you in touch.
Question 54: ______, catfish is prized for its taste.
A. With ugly look B. As ugly looking C. Ugly looking as it is D. As it is ugly looking
Question 55: _____eat rice everyday.
A. Almost of Vietnamese people B. Most of Vietnamese people
C. The most Vietnamese people D. Most Vietnamese people
Question 56: He wondered ______ his sister looked like, because they hadn’t seen each other for a long
time.
A. how B. why C. which D. what
Question 57: “How are you getting on in your new job?” “______________”
A. I’m really enjoying it. B. It offers good salary.
C. I’m very well, thanks. D. I have to travel to work everyday.
Question 58: It was being able to fly _______ space that attracted Sally Ride to the job of an astronaut.
A. on B. into C. to D. towards
Question 59: _____ should a young boy child be allowed to play with fireworks without adult
supervision.
A. Under no circumstances B. Always C. Only when D. No sooner than
Question 60: I can’t possibly make the announcement now. I have got a ______ in my throat!
A. fish B. toad C. bird D. frog

Mark the word (A, B, C, or D) on your answer sheet to indicate that has the underlined part
pronounced differently from the rest in each question from 61 to 63.
Question 61: A. handbook B. handbag C. handkerchief D. handcraft
Question 62: A. agencies B. species C. medicine D. circle
Question 63: A. telemetry B. telescope C. television D. telecast

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 64 to 65
Question 64: A. Christianity B. economical C. transportation D. Catholicism
Question 65: A. recognition B. commercialize C. accelerate D. enthusiast
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Mark the letter (A, B, C, D) on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions from 66 to 75
Question 66: It’s no use talking to her because she’ll do as she pleases whatever we say.
A. Nothing we can say will make her change her ways, so it’s pointless for us to say anything.
B. We’ve told her it’s not important, and we don’t need to say anything more about it.
C. It make no difference who talks to her because she refuses to listen to either of us.
D. She only cares about herself and never talks to either of us.
Question 67: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday
A. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday
B. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation
C. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday
D. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months
Question 68: Apart from being conveniently located near the beach, that hotel has nothing about
it to make me recommend it to you.
A. The only feature of that hotel that I can recommend to you is that it’s close to the beach.
B. As regards a hotel, nothing is more important for me than its being close to the beach.
C. The hotel I’ve recommended to you is very comfortable as it is near the beach.
D. The beach near that hotel doesn’t have anything special that I can recommend to you.
Question 69: Jane wouldn’t have won the competition if she hadn’t practiced on her cello for so
many hours everyday.
A. Only because she had spent a great deal of time each day playing her cello was Jane able to win
the competition.
B. If Jane had spent more time practising her cello, she might have won the competition.
C. Jane practised her cello non-stop each day in order to win the competition.
D. Hoping to be the best cellist in the competition, Jane couldn’t stop herself from practising long
hours everyday.
Question 70: The slippery road conditions are certain to have been the major cause of yesterday’s
chain accident.
A. The accident that happened yesterday due to the slippery road conditions involved many vehicles.
B. The accident that occurred yesterday involved many vehicles because the road was slippery.
C. It is indisputable that yesterday’s accident involving many vehicles was mainly due to the
slippery road.
D. I’m sure the chain accident yesterday wouldn’t have occurred if the road had not been slippery.
Question 71: Before opening the gift from her sister, Maria shook the box to help her guess at
what was inside it.
A. Maria opened her sister’s gift to her only after shaking the box so that she could try to determine
its contents.
B. Maria discovered what the box her sister gave her contained after she had shaken it.
C. Because she was unable to detect the contents of the box from her sister by shaking it, Mari
quickly opened her gift.
D. After Maria had guessed at what her sister had probably given her, she shook the box and opened
it.
Question 72: It is much easier to walk home from here than get on a crowded minibus.
A. If the minibus is full, I’ll probably just choose to walk home from here.
B. It is a lot more difficult to squeeze into a full minibus than to go home from here on foot.
C. People generally walk home from here rather than use the minibus, because they are always full.
D. While it’s not easy to get on a crowded minibus, it’s better than going home on foot.
Question 73: Mary should have done her homework last night instead of watching television.
A. Mary watched television and didn’t do her homework last night
B. Mary didn’t watch television and do her homework last night
C. Mary watched television and did her homework last night
D. Mary did her homework instead of watching television last night.

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Question 74: Having prepared for the worst, they were pleasantly surprised to find themselves
bypassed by the hurricane.
A. While they had made preparations for the hurricane, it was still a relief that they did not suffer
much damage.
B. Even if the hurricane had hit them, they wouldn’t have been affected much.
C. It was such a relief when the hurricane did not strike them, though they had prepared for the
worst.
D. Had they not made such extensive preparations, they would have suffered even worse damage.
Question 75: Although the dog appeared harmless, it was, in fact, quite dangerous.
A. Harmless as it appeared, the dog was quite dangerous.
B. The dog’s harmless appearance prevented people to realize it was quite dangerous.
C. Contrary to its harmless appearance, the dog is hardly dangerous.
D. Because of its harmless appearance, people thought the dog was dangerous.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions from 76 to 80
Question 76: In general, novels are thought of extended works of prose fiction depicting the inner and
outer lives of their characters.
A. depicting B. of extended C. lives D. characters
Question 77: Between five and six thousands year ago, men developed the first writing and began to
work in metal, first in copper, then in bronze.
A. Between B. began to work C. thousands year ago D. metal
Question 78: Mantovani conducted the orchestra gracefully and with style to the delight of his
appreciative audience.
A. conducted B. with style C. to the delight D. appreciative
Question 79: In a survey of suburban homeowners, a lawn-mower was rated one of the most important
and necessary equipments.
A. equipments B. a lawn-mower C. the D. In a survey
Question 80: Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States, and
television viewing is the number one activity leisure.
A. activity leisure B. most households C. television viewing D. an everyday
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