Soal Latihan A1,4 Aircraft Avionic

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Soal latihan A1,4 Aircraft Avionics

1.What does mean of Amplitude Modulation (AM)


A. the signal is proportionately variable to the amplitude of the modulation
signal while the frequency remains
B. the signal is proportionately variable to the amplitude of the modulation
signal while the amplitudo remains
C. the signal is proportionately variable to the amplitude of the modulation
signal while the frequency constant

2.What does mean of Frequency Modulation (FM)


A. the signal is proportionately variable to the amplitude of the modulation signal while
the frequency constant
B. the information signal will change the frequency of the wavelength while the
Amplitudo remains during the modulation process

C. the signal is proportionately variable to the amplitude of the modulation signal while
the amplitudo remains

3. What does mean of Amplitude


A. is the lowest deviation measured from the balance point in a vibration.
B. is the farthest deviation measured from the balance point in a vibration
C. is the highest deviation measured from the balance point in a vibration

4.The skip distance is dependent upon a variety of factors:


A. Frequency
B. Ionospheric conditions
C. Frequency and Ionosphere condition

5.The skip zone or dead zone depends upon a variety of factors:


A. Ground wave coverage, Sky wave minimum skip distance
B. Sky wave minimum skip distance
C. Ground wave coverage

6.What kind types of Modulation


A. Analog signal and Digital signal.
B. Analog signal
C. Digital signal

7. Analog Modulation consist of


A. AM
B. FM
C. AM & FM

8.Where is location Antenna HF


A. As the leading edge of the vertical fin.
B. At upper fuselage
C. Lower fuselage

9.Frequency modulation ussually used for band frequency


A. 30 Khz – 300 Khz
B. 3 Mhz – 30 Mhz
C. 30 Mhz – 300 Mhz

10. A radio wave at 115 khz is most likely to propagate as


A. a ground wave
B. a sky wave
C. a space wave

11. In the HF band radio waves tend to propagate over long distances as
A. Ground waves
B. Sky vawes
C. Space waves

12. The typical output power of an aircraft VHF radio using voice mode is
A. 25 watt
B. 150 watt
C. 300 watt

13. Long distance communication usually used frequency


A. 2 – 30 Mhz
B. 3 - 7 Mhz
C. 7 - 12 Mhz

14. VOR radials are reference to


A. Non directional signal from the navigation aid
B. Magnetic north
C. True north

15.In the HF band radio waves tend to propagate over long distances as
A. Ground waves
B. Sky vawes
C. Space waves

16. ADF receiver will give the information to aircraft relative to NDB station by means
A. Morse code display and distance
B. Morse code and two letter code
C. Morse code tone and bearing pointer

17. ADF antenna are used to receive tones from transmitter on ground station
A. Marconi antenna
B. Loop antenna
C. Sense antenna

18. How many alphabet character for ILS system


A. Two letter
B. Three letter
C. Four letter

19. VOR system on aircraft consist of


A. Antenna – control – receiver – RMI
B. Antenna – receiver – transmitter – HSI
C. Antenna – coupler – receiver – RMI

20. Where is indication deviation if VOR are selected


A. DRMI
B. ADI
C. HSI

21, The DVOR navigation aid has an omnidirectional transmitter located in the
A. Centre
B. Outer antenna array
C. Direction of magnetic north

22, The angle between north and flight of aircraft is the


A. Ground angle
B. Driff angle
D. Heading

23. The standart for HF data link is defined in


A. ARINC 429
B. ARINC 573
C. ARINC 635

24. Radio waves tend to propagate mainly as line of sight signal in


A. MF
B. HF
C. VHF

25. The typical RF output power from an aircraft HF transmitter is


A. 50 w pep
B. 100 w pep
C. 400 w pep

26. Bearing to the tuned ADF station is displayed on the


A. DGI
B. RMI
C. NDB

27. The MF (medium Frquency) range extends from


A. 30 Khz – 300 Khz
B. 300 Khz – 3000 Khz
C. 3 Mhz – 30 Mhz

28. The function of ATC transponder on aircraft is


A. Response of interrogating signal with air data
B. Send the information of aircraft identification and altitude
C. Response interrogate with speed and altitude

29. Audio selector panels are located


A. In the avionic equipment bay
B. In the passenger cabin for use by cabin crew member
C. Close to the pilot and first officer

30. Long distance communication usually used frequency


A. 2 – 30 Mhz
B. 3 - 7 Mhz
C. 7 - 12 Mhz

31. VOR radials are reference to


A. on directional signal from the navigation aid
B. Magnetic north
C. True north

32. ADF antennas are used to determine what aspect of the transmitted signal
A. Wave streng
B. Null signal strength
C. Maximum signal strength

33. ADF operates in the following frequency range


A. MF to HF
B. LF to MF
C. VLF

34. VHF communication system is operate on ferquency range


A. 108 – 117,975 Mhz
B. 118 – 117,975 Mhz
C. 118 – 135,975 Mhz

35. VOR signal are transmitted as what type of wave


A. Ground wave
B. Sky wave
C. Space wave

36. VOR operates in which frequency range


A. HF
B. VHF
C. UHF

37. Who will give the squawk number


A. Air traffic controller of airport which aircraft is departed
B. DGAC
C. AOC (aeronautical operational control)

38. The function of radio magnetic indicator will display the information of
A. Aircraft heading
B. VOR bearing
C. Aircraft heading and VOR bearing

39. On ADF system to verified the correct direction from 180 degree opposite,is the function of
A. Loop antenna
B. Loop and sense antenna
C. Antenna limiter

40. DME is based on what type radar


A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. VHF

41. When a DME indicator is receiving no computed data, it will display


A. Zeros
B. Dashes
C. Eights
42. Frequency bands for ILS are
A. Localizer (UHF) and glide slope (VHF)
B. Localizer (VHF) and glide slope (VHF)
C. Localizer (VHF) and glide slope (UHF)

43.ILS frequency are selected by tuning


A. The glide slope which automatically selects localizer
B. The localizer which automatically selects glide slope
C. The localizer and glide slope frequencies independently

44.ATC identification codes are formatted in which numbering system


A. Decimal
B. Binary
C. Octal

45. ATC interrogation and replies are transmitted on the following frequencies
A. Interrogation on 1030 Mhz, replies on 1090 Mhz
B. Interrogation on 1090 Mhz, replies on 1030 Mhz
C. Interrogation on 1030 Mhz, replies on 1030 Mhz

46.ATC mode C is derived from an


A. ATC transponder
B. ATC control panel
C. Altimeter or air data computer

47.Mode A and C transponder to reply with their


A. Aircraft address code
B. Ident and altitude data
C. Special position ident

48.Morse code tones are used to specify the VOR


A. Frequency
B. Radial
C. Identification

49.Display type of TCAS system are


A. Resolution advisory and traffic advisory
B. Altitude advisory and speed advisory
C. Resolution alert and traffic alert

50. Wave propagation can be classified into


A. Line of sight propagation and reflected propagation
B. Ground wave, sky wave and line of sight propagation
C. Space or tropospheric wave propagation, surface wave propagation

51.An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also
provides.                       
A.  GPWS warnings.       
B.  dedicated status and warnings.         
C.  take-off and landing warnings.

52. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is.               


A.  in view.          
B.  green. 
C  out of view.    

53. MFD is the abbreviation for.             


A. Multi function display.          
B. Mandatory flight display.      
C. Master flight display. 
  
54. A TCAS uses the radar mile definition in its calculations, which is.             
A. 12.36 microsecond.    
B.  6.18 microsecond.      
C.  24.72 microsecond.    

55. GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up of.            


A.  21 active and 3 spare.
B.  28 active and 7 spare.
C.  23 active and 5 spare.

56. An IRS is only certifed for alingment up to.             


A. +88.45 and -88.45 degrees.   
B. +78.25 and -78.25 degrees.   
C. +60 and -60 degrees. 

57.  ECAM has at its heart.                      


A.  a multi function symbol generator.    
B.  a central maintenance computer.        
C.  ACARS.        

58. An FMS databank memory is updated.                     


A.  every 365 days.          
B.  every 28 days.
C.  every 32 days.

59. What does the CADC feed?.            


A. cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.       
B.  Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.   
C. standby altimeter / machmeter.          

60. In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to the computing system
through the.                
A. Data Acquisition Unit.           
B. Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring control panel.    
C. Control and Display Unit.  

61. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites required to achieve a 3
dimensional fix is.                  
A. 2.        
B. 3.        
C. 4.

62. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), each satellite transmission identifies the satellite using
a                      
A. different channel frequency.  
B. pseudo random code. 
C. whisper shout method.  
         
63. In a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites below the Mask Angle are ignored as these
may cause.                    
A.  range errors.   
B.  clock errors.    
C.  ephemeris errors.        

64. Information required by a Flight Management System (FMS) to function correctly is indicated
on the display by.               
A. dashes.           
B. a flashing cursor.        
C. boxes. 

65. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are.                    


A.  pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out.        
B.  pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
C.  pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out.      

66.The rising runway is positioned from information derived from.                  


A. barometric height.      
B. radio altimeter.           
C. vertical speed.

67.FMS failure and warnings are.                       


A. EFIS warnings only.  
B.  displayed on EICAS. 
C.  engine warnings only.

68. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an Inertial Navigation
System ?.              
A. Aircraft present position.       
B. Heading and attitude.
C. Aircraft present position and heading.
          
69. IRS accelerometers are mounted.                  
A. 90° to each other.       
B.  45° to each other.       
C.  60° to each other.  
 
70. An FMS navigation database is updated.                  
A. once a month. 
B. every 28 days.
C. at the operator request.         

71. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also
provides.                       
A. dedicated status warnings.    
B.  take-off and landing warnings.          
C. GPWS warnings.   
    
72. FMS operational program is updated every.              
A. 90 days.          
B. 28 days.          
C.  7 days.

73. The FMS databases consist of.                      


A.  one navigation and one performance database.         
B.  one performance and two navigation databases.       
C.  two performance and one navigation database.        

74. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from either.               
A. VOR and DME only.
B. GPS, DME, LOC and VOR. 
C. DME and GPS only.

75. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence.                       


A.  the current present position must be entered.
B.  either the last or current position must be entered.    
C.  the shutdown present position must be entered.  

76. An IRS has.               


A. two or three accelerometers depending on the system.         
B. three accelerometers.  
C. two accelerometers.  
 
77. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide.                     
A.  rate of movement about an axis.        
B.  displacement about an axis.   
C.  both rate and displacement about an axis.     

78. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC ?.                  


A. TAS, MACH, Altitude and TAT.     
B. TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.        
C. TAS, MACH and Altitude.   

79. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is used to.               


A  down load aircraft status reports.       
B. make telephone calls. 
C. allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base. 
 
80. The basic principle of radar is based upon.                
A.  the amount of power in the signal returned.  
B.  the time delay between outward and returning pulse.           
C.  ultrasonic wave propagation. 

81. The FMS is updated.             


A.  automatically by update data from the ACARS.      
B.  by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy
disc.         
C.  by the aircrew by reference to the Tech Log.

82. A basic IRS platform has.                  


A. 3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros.    
B. 2 Accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.  
C. 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros. 

83. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?.              
A. White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.       
B. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.       
C. White squares, red diamonds and amber circles. 
   
84. ACARS is an acronym for.                
A.  ARINC Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.          
B.  Airborne Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.         
C. Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System. 

85. In which of the following does TCAS II advise the pilot to make a maneouver ?.               
A. RA.    
B. TA.     
C. either RA or TA. 

86. For a 3 dimensional fix in a Global Positioning System.                   


A. Minimum of 3 satellites must be in view.      
B. Minimum of 2 satellites must be in view and altitude used to simulate a 3rd
satellite.        
C. Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view. 

87. In an aircraft equipped with TCAS II and EFIS.                  


A.  RA pitch command is shown on the EHSI and TA/RA traffic on the EADI.         
B.  RA pitch command is shown on the VSI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI. 
C.  RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.         

88. FMS system gives warning indications for.               


A. take off and landings only.    
B. any flight phase.         
C. cruise. 

89. An IRU interface test is carried out.             


A. in the air.        
B. only on the ground.    
C. on the ground or in the air.
    
90. NDBs on navigation charts can be identified by
A. Triangles
B. Circle
C. Two/three letter code

91. The angle between north and flight of aircaft is the


A. Ground angle
B. Driff angle
C. Heading

92. Bearing to the tuned ADF station is displayed on the


A. DGI
B. RMI
C. NDB

93. VOR radials are reference to


A. Non directional signal from the navigation aid
B. Magnetic north
C. True north

94. Where is the deviation from selected VOR radial displayed


A. RMI
B. DRMI
C. HSI
95. An IN system requires data from the
A. Doppler system.         
B. air data computer.       
C. satellites

96. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to.                 


A. provide attitude reference.     
B. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.           
C. stop the gyros from toppling. 

97. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering and
monitoring ground station is.   
          
A. TCAS II.        
B. ACARS.        
C. TAWS.           

98. The LRRA provides


A. Deviation from runway centreline
B. Deviation from glide path angle
C. Altitude in feet above the ground

99. The FMC recognises specific aircraft types by


A. CDU entry
B. Program pin
C. The navigation data base

100. To defined the destination airport on FMC route page requires entry of airfields
A. Latitude and longitude
B. Three character identifier
C. Four character identifier

   
 

          

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