Model Question Paper

Subject: - Data Warehousing & Mining

Branch:- Computer Engineering
Class: - BE
Semester: - VIII

1. An operational system is which of the following?

a. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on historical data.
b. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on current data.
c. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on current data.
d. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on historical data.
2. In which schema normalization is occurs.
a. Star Schema
b. Snowflake Schema
c. Fact constellation Schema
d. None of above
3. Detail data in single fact table is otherwise known as.
a. Monoatomic data.
b. Diatomic data.
c. Atomic data.
d. Multiatomic data.
4. Which schema is a good alternative to the star schema.
a. Star schema.
b. Snowflake schema.
c. Fact constellation.
d. None of above
5. The dimension tables describe the …….
a. Entities.
b. Facts.
c. Keys.
d. Units of measures.
6. The load and index is
a. A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
b. A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse.
c. A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse.
d. A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
7. Data scrubbing is?
a. A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
b. A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
c. A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse.
 d. A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse

8. The data is stored, retrieved & updated in

a. OLAP.
b. OLTP.
c. SMTP.
d. FTP.
9. A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table?
a. Many-to-many
b. One-to-one
c. One-to-many
d. All of above
10. The most common source of change data in refreshing a data warehouse is .
a. Queryable change data.
b. Cooperative change data.
c. Logged change data.
d. Snapshot change data.
11. Converting data from different sources into a common format for processing is called as
a. Selection.
b. Preprocessing.
c. Transformation.
d. Interpretation.
12. A definition of a concept is if it recognizes all the instance of that concept?
a. Consistent
b. Constant
c. Complete
d. None of above
13. Classification rules are extracted from .
a. Root node.
b. Decision tree.
c. Siblings.
d. Branches.
14. Which of the following is not a data mining task?
a. Feature Subset Detection
b. Association Rule Discovery
c. Regression
d. Sequential Pattern Discovery
15. Effect of one attribute value on a given class is independent of values of other attribute is
called
a. Value independence.
b. Class conditional independence.
c. Conditional independence.
d. Unconditional independence.
16. A Data mart is designed to optimize the performance for well defined and predicable uses?
a. True
b. False
 c. Both a&b
d. None of above
17. To explain some observed event or condition is the goal of….?
a. Data Mining.
b. Data Warehouse.
c. OATP.
d. None of above
18. Noise is ….?
a. A component of a network
b. In the context of KDD and data mining, this refers to random errors in a database table.
c. One of the defining aspects of a data warehouse
d. None of these
19. Data that are not of interest to the data mining task is called as?
a. Irrelevant data
b. Missing data.
c. Changing data.
d. Noisy data.
20. Some telecommunication company wants to segment their customers into distinct groups in
order to send appropriate subscription offers, this is an example of?
a. Supervised learning
b. Data extraction
c. Unsupervised Learning
d. Data transformation
21. Data mining system is used to build which models?
a. Retrospective model.
b. Interrogative model.
c. Predictive model.
d. Imperative model.
22. Data transformation includes which of the following?
a. A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level
b. A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level
c. Joining data from one source into various sources of data
d. Separating data from one source into various sources of data
23. Which of the following issue is considered before investing in Data Mining?
a. Functionality
b. Vendor Consideration
c. Compatibility
d. All of the above
24. What do you means by metadata repository?
a. Prism solution directory manager.
b. CORBA.
c. STUNT.
d. COBWEB.
25. Which of the following is a disadvantage of decision trees?
a. Factor analysis
b. Decision trees are prone to be overfit
 c. Decision trees are robust to outliers
d. None of the above
26. Which metadata contains information that gives users an easy-to-understand perspective of
the information stored in the data warehouse.
a. Business metadata.
b. Technical metadata.
c. Operational metadata.
d. Financial metadata.
27. Which of the following algorithm comes under the classification
a. Apriori
b. Brute force
c. DBSCAN
d. K-nearest neighbor
28. KDD represents extraction of
a. Data
b. Knowledge
c. Rules
d. Model
29. Which of the following is a predictive model?
a. Clustering.
b. Regression.
c. Summarization.
d. Association

30. The probability of a hypothesis before the presentation of evidence.

a. Apriori
b. Posterior
c. Conditional
d. Subjective
31. In which algorithm data groups are not predefined?
a. Association rules.
b. Summarization.
c. Clustering.
d. Prediction.
32. Supervised learning and unsupervised clustering both require which is correct according to
the statement?
a. Output attribute.
b. Hidden attribute.
c. Input attribute.
d. Categorical attribute
33. Data used to optimize the parameter setting of a supervised learning model?
a. Training
b. Test
c. Verification
d. Validation
34. The proportion of transaction supporting X in T is called?
 a. Confidence.
b. Support.
c. Support count.
d. All of the above.
35. How do you calculate Confidence(A -> B)?
a. Support(A^B) / Support (A)
b. Support(A^B) / Support (B)
c. Support(AVB) / Support (A)
d. Support(AV B) / Support (B)
36. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of any efficient algorithm?
a. To reduce number of input operations.
b. To reduce number of output operations.
c. To be efficient in computing.
d. To have maximal code length.
37. All set of items whose support is greater than the user-specified minimum support are called
as?
a. Border set.
b. Frequent set.
c. Maximal frequent set.
d. Lattice.
38. The apriori algorithm works in a …….and ….. Approach?
a. top-down and depth-first
b. top-down and breath-first
c. bottom-up and depth-first
d. bottom-up and breath-firs
39. Why is correlation analysis important?
a. To make apriori memory efficient
b. To find large number of interesting itemsets
c. To restrict the number of database iterations
d. To weed out uninteresting frequent itemsets
40. What is the relation between candidate and frequent itemsets?
a. A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset
b. No relation between the two
c. Both are same
d. A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset
41. What is the difference between absolute and relative support?
a. Absolute -Minimum support threshold and Relative-Minimum support count threshold
b. Absolute -Minimum support count threshold and Relative -Minimum support threshold
c. Both mean same
d. None of above
42. . ___________can be thought of as classifying an attribute value into one of a set of possible
classes?
a. Estimation.
b. Identification.
c. Clarification.
 d. Prediction.
43. The number of iterations in a priori algorithm.
a. Increases with the size of the maximum frequent set.
b. Decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set.
c. Increases with the size of the data.
d. Decreases with the increase in size of the data.
44. A frequent pattern tree is a tree structure consisting of ________?
a. An item-prefix-tree.
b. A frequent-item-header table.
c. A frequent-item-node.
d. Both a & b.
45. Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?
a. Social Network Analysis
b. Outlier Detection
c. Intrusion Detection
d. Market Basket Analysis
46. When do you consider an association rule interesting?
a. If it only satisfies min_support
b. If it only satisfies min_confidence
c. There are other measures to check so
d. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence
47. Bayesian classifiers is?
a. A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of
examples using the probabilistic theory.
b. Any mechanism employed by a learning system to constrain the search space of a
hypothesis
c. An approach to the design of learning algorithms that is inspired by the fact that when
people encounter new situations, they often explain them by reference to familiar
experiences, adapting the explanations to fit the new situation.
d. None of these
48. Prediction can be viewed as forecasting a_________value?
a. Non-continuous.
b. Constant.
c. Continuous.
d. Variable.
49. Rule based classification algorithms generate ______ rule to perform the classification.
a. While.
b. Do while.
c. Switch.
d. If-then.
50. What is back propagation?
a. It is another name given to the curvy function in the perceptron
b. It is the transmission of error back through the network to allow weights to be adjusted so
that the network can learn
c. It is the transmission of error back through the network to adjust the inputs
d. None of the above
51. A good clustering method will produce high quality clusters with?
a. high inter class similarity
b. low intra class similarity
c. no inter class similarity
d. high intra class similarity

52. What does K refers in the K-Means algorithm which is a non-hierarchical clustering
approach?
a. Complexity
b. Fixed value
c. No of iterations
d. Number of clusters
53. What is the final resultant cluster size in Divisive algorithm, which is one of the hierarchical
clustering approaches?
a. Zero
b. Two
c. Three
d. Singleton
54. Hierarchical agglomerative clustering is typically visualized as?
a. Dendrogram
b. Binary trees
c. Block diagram
d. Graph
55. Which statement about outliers is true?
a. Outliers should be part of the training dataset but should not be present in the test data.
b. Outliers should be identified and removed from a dataset.
c. The nature of the problem determines how outliers are used
d. Outliers should be part of the test dataset but should not be present in the training data.
56. The concept of core, border and noise points fall into which category?
a. DBSCAN
b. DENCLUE
c. Subspace clustering
d. Grid based
57. Which clustering technique start with as many clusters as there are records, with each cluster
having only one record?
a. Divisive.
b. Agglomerative.
c. Partition.
d. Numeric.
58. In which algorithm each cluster is represented by the center of gravity of the cluster?
a. K-medoid.
b. K-means.
c. Divisive.
d. Agglomerative.
59. The goal of _____ is to discover both the dense and sparse regions of a data set?
a. Association rule.
 b. Classification.
c. Clustering.
d. Genetic Algorithm.
60. Which algorithm is hierarchical clustering algorithm?
a. BIRCH.
b. DBSCAN
c. PAM.
d. CURE.

Question No Ans
1 b
2 b
3 c
4 c
5 d
6 d
7 d
8 b
9 c
10 a
11 c
12 c
13 b
14 a
15 a
16 a
17 a
18 b
19 a
20 c
21 c
22 a
23 d
24 a
25 b
26 a
27 d
28 b
29 b
30 a
31 c
32 b
33 d
34 b
35 a
36 d
37 b
38 d
39 d
40 d
41 b
42 d
43 a
44 d
45 d
46 d
47 a
48 c
49 d
50 b
51 d
52 d
53 d
54 a
55 c
56 a
57 b
58 b
59 c
60 b
 Model Question Paper
Subject : Data warehousing & Mining

Branch : Comp Engineering

Class : BE

Semester : VIII

Total Questions : 60

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1. An .......................... system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge

workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A) OLAP
B) OLTP
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above

Answer- A

2. Which of the following is not a kind of data warehouse application?

A) Information processing
B) Analytical processing
C) Data mining
D) Transaction processing

Answer- D

3. The data is stored, retrieved and updated in ………………..

A) OLAP
B) OLTP
C) SMTP
D) FTP

Answer - B

4. A data warehouse is ………………….

A) updated by end users.
B) contains numerous naming conventions and formats
C) organized around important subject areas
D) contain only current data

Answer - C
5. The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A) Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data warehouse at
periodic times.
B) Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the
Operational databases.
C) The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse.
D) A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size

Answer : A

6. The core of the multidimensional model is the ................................., which consists of a large
set of facts and a number of dimensions.
A) Multidimensional cube
B) Dimensions cube
C) Data cube
D) Data model

Answer- C

7 is the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data

classes or concepts.

A) Data Characterization
B) Data Classification
C) Data discrimination
D) None of above

Answer- B

8 is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a target

class of data.

A) Data Characterization
B) Data Classification
C) Data discrimination
D) Data selection

Answer- A

9. Star schema have what type of relationship between fact table and dimension.
A) Many–to-many
B) One-to-one
C) One-to many
D) All of above

Answer- C
10. Which schema has normalized form to reduce redundancy in data warehouse design
A) Star schema
B) Snowflake schema
C) Fact constellation schema
D) All of above

Answer- B

11. Data warehouse contains data that is never found in the operational
environment.

A) Normalized.
B) Informational.
C) Summary.
D) Denormalized.

Answer : C

12. The data Warehouse is .

A) read only.
B) write only.
C) read write only.
D) none.

Answer: A

13. is the heart of the warehouse.

A. Data mining database servers.
B. Data warehouse database servers.
C. Data mart database servers.
D. Relational data base servers.

ANSWER: B

14. is a good alternative to the star schema.

A. Star schema.
B. Snowflake schema.
C. Fact constellation.
D. Star-snowflake schema.

ANSWER: C

15. Data scrubbing is .

A. a process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
B a process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
C. a process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse.
 D. a process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse

Answer: D

16. Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing .

A. relevant attributes.
B. irrelevant attributes.
C. derived attributes.
D. composite attributes.

Answer: B

17. Removing duplicate records is a process called .

A. recovery.
B. data cleaning.
C. data cleansing.
D. data pruning.

Answer: B

18. maps data into predefined groups.

A. Regression.
B. clustering
C. Prediction.
D. Classification.

Answer: D

19. is a the input to KDD.

A. Data.
B. Information.
C. Query.
D. Process.

Answer: A

20. Treating incorrect or missing data is called as .

A. selection.
B. preprocessing.
C. transformation.
D. interpretation.

Answer: B

21. Converting data from different sources into a common format for processing is called as
.
 A. selection.
B. preprocessing.
C. transformation.
D. interpretation.

Answer: C

22. Incorrect or invalid data is known as .

A. changing data.
B. noisy data.
C. outliers.
D. missing data.

Answer: B

23. predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to make
proactive,
knowledge-driven decisions.
A. Data warehouse.
B. Data mining.
C. Datamarts.
D. Metadata.

Answer: B

24. Which of the following is the other name of Data mining?

A. Exploratory data analysis.
B. Data driven discovery.
C. Deductive learning.
D. All of the above.

Answer: D

25. The absolute number of transactions supporting X in T is called .

A. confidence.
B. support.
C. support count.
D. None of the above.

Answer: C
26. The value that says that transactions in D that support X also support Y is called
.
A. confidence.
B. support.
 C. support count.
D. None of the above.

Answer: A

27. The left hand side of an association rule is called .

A. consequent.
B. onset.
C. antecedent.
D. precedent.

Answer: C

28. A priori algorithm is otherwise called as .

A. width-wise algorithm.
B. level-wise algorithm.
C. pincer-search algorithm.
D. FP growth algorithm.

Answer: B

29. The step eliminates the extensions of (k-1)-item sets which are not found to be
frequent, frombeing considered for counting support.
A. Candidate generation.
B. Pruning.
C. Partitioning.
D. Itemset eliminations.

Answer: B

30. After the pruning of a priori algorithm, will remain.

A. Only candidate set.
B. No candidate set.
C. Only border set.
D. No border set.

Answer: B

31. The goal of is to discover both the dense and sparse regions of a data set.
A. Association rule.
B. Classification.
C. Clustering.
D. Genetic Algorithm.

Answer: C
 32. All set of items whose support is greater than the user-specified minimum support are
called as
.
A. border set.
B. frequent set.
C. maximal frequent set.
D. lattice.

Answer: B

33. .Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?

A) Characterization and Discrimination

B) Classification and regression

C) Selection and interpretation

D) Clustering and Analysis

Answer: C

34................................ is a comparison of the general features of the target class data objects
against the general features of objects from one or multiple contrasting classes.

A) Data Characterization

B) Data Classification

C) Data discrimination

D) Data selection

Answer: C

35. The various aspects of data mining methodologies is/are ...................

i) Mining various and new kinds of knowledge

ii) Mining knowledge in multidimensional space

iii) Pattern evaluation and pattern or constraint-guided mining.

iv) Handling uncertainty, noise, or incompleteness of data

 A) i, ii and iv only

B) ii, iii and iv only

C) i, ii and iii only

D) All i, ii, iii and iv

Answer: D

36. The ............................. exposes the information being captured, stored, and managed by
operational systems.

A) top-down view

B) data warehouse view

C) data source view

D) business query view

Answer: C

37. The ................... allows the selection of the relevant information necessary for the data
warehouse.

A) top-down view

B) data warehouse view

C) data source view

D) business query view

Answer: A

38. describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.

Answer: C
39. Data transformation includes .
A. a process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level.
B. a process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level.
C. joining data from one source into various sources of data.
D. separating data from one source into various sources of data.

Answer: A

40. is a data transformation process.

A. Comparison.
B. Projection.
C. Selection.
D. Filtering.

Answer: D

41. . are designed to overcome any limitations placed on the warehouse by the
nature of the relational data model.
A. Operational database.
B. Relational database.
C. Multidimensional database.
D. Data repository.

Answer: C

42. Which of the following is not a component of a data warehouse?

A. Metadata.
B. Current detail data.
C. Lightly summarized data.
D. Component Key.

Answer: D

43. The dimension tables describe the .

A. entities.
B. facts.
C. keys.
D. units of measures.

Answer: B

44. is used to map a data item to a real valued prediction variable.

A. Regression.
 B. Time series analysis.
C. Prediction.
D. Classification.

Answer: B

45. Which of the following is a predictive model?

A. Clustering.
B. Regression.
C. Summarization.
D. Association rules.

Answer: B

46. A directory to help the DSS analyst locate the contents of the data warehouse is seen in
.
A. Current detail data.
B. Lightly summarized data.
C. Metadata.
D. Older detail data.

Answer: C

47. A model identifies patterns or relationships.

A. Descriptive.
B. Predictive.
C. Regression.
D. Time series analysis.

Answer: A

48. In the groups are not predefined.

A. Association rules.
B. Summarization.
C. Clustering.
D. Prediction.

Answer: C

49. A predictive model makes use of .

A. current data.
B. historical data.
C. both current and historical data.
D. assumptions.
Answer: B

50. Various visualization techniques are used in step of KDD.

A. selection.
B. transformaion.
C. data mining.
D. interpretation.
Answer: D

51. Extreme values that occur infrequently are called as .

A. outliers.
B. rare values.
C. dimensionality reduction.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

52. . Market-basket problem was formulated by .

A. Agrawal et al.
B. Steve et al.
C. Toda et al.
D. Simon et al.
Answer: A

53. Which of the following is not a data mining metric?

A. Space complexity.
B. Time complexity.
C. ROI.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

54. The process of viewing the cross-tab (Single dimensional) with a fixed value of one
attribute is
a) Slicing
b) Dicing
c) Pivoting
d) Both Slicing and Dicing

Answer: A

55. The operation of moving from finer-granularity data to a coarser granularity (by means of
aggregation) is called a _
 a) Rollup
b) Drill down
c) Dicing
d) Pivoting

Answer: A

56. Data that can be modeled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are called
data.
a) Multidimensional
b) Single dimensional
c) Relational
d) Operational

Answer: A

57. is the most well known association rule algorithm and is used in
most commercial products.
A. Apriori algorithm.
B. Partition algorithm.
C. Distributed algorithm.
D. Pincer-search algorithm.
Answer: A

58. The number of iterations in a priori .

A. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set.
B. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set.
C. increases with the size of the data.
D. decreases with the increase in size of the data.

Answer: A

59. If T consist of 500000 transactions, 20000 transaction contain bread, 30000 transaction
contain jam,
10000 transaction contain both bread and jam. Then the support of bread and jam is
.
A. 2%
B. 20%
C. 3%
D. 30%
Answer: A

60. If T consist of 500000 transactions, 20000 transaction contain bread, 30000 transaction contain jam,
10000 transaction contain both bread andjam. Thenthe confidence ofbuying bread with jamis .
A. 33.33%
 B. 66.66%
C. 45%
D. 50%

Answer: D
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Data Warehousing& Mining

Branch: Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology

Class: BE CSE

Semester: VIII
1.Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

A.Data are often deleted

B.Most applications consist of transactions
C.Data are rarely deleted
D.Relatively few records are processed by applications
Ans: C

2.Which of the following statement is true?

A.The data warehouse consists of data marts and operational data

B.The data warehouse is used as a source for the operational data
C.The operational data are used as a source for the data warehouse
D.All of the above
Ans: C

3.The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A.Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data warehouse at
periodic times
B.Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the operational
databases
C.The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse
D.A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size
Ans: A

4.What is true of the multidimensional model?

A.It typically requires less disk storage

B.It typically requires more disk storage
C.Typical business queries requiring aggregate functions take more time
D.Increasing the size of a dimension is difficult
Ans: B

5.The following technology is not well-suited for data mining:

A.Expert system technology
B.Data visualization
C.Technology limited to specific data types such as numeric data types
D.Parallel architecture
Ans: C

6.OLTP means__________

A. Online Transfer Processing

B.Online Transaction Processing

C.Online Transfer Protocol

D.None of the above

Ans-B

7.Data warehouse is which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end users.

B. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.
C. Organized around important subject areas.
D. Contains only current data.
Ans: C

8.The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A.At least one data mart

B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
C. Near real-time updates
D. All of the above.
Ans: B

9.The active data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A. At least one data mart
B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
C. Near real-time updates
D. All of the above.
Ans: D

10.OLAP means__________

A. Online Analytical Processing

B.Online Answer Processing

C.Online Analysis Protocol

D.None of the above

Ans-A

11.A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table?

A. Many-to-many
B. One-to-one
C. One-to-many
D. All of the above.
Ans: C

12.Fact tables are which of the following?

A. Completely demoralized
B. Partially demoralized
C. Completely normalized
D. Partially normalized
Ans: C

13.A snowflake schema is which of the following types of tables?

A. Fact
B. Dimension
C. Helper
D. All of the above
Ans: D

14.A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To create a new data warehouse
Ans: A

15.Which of the following statements does not apply to relational databases?

A. Relational databases are simple to understand
B. Tables are one of the basic components of relational databases
C. Relational databases have a strong procedural orientation
D. Relational databases have a strong mathematical foundation
Ans: C

16.In the relational database terminology, a table is synonymous with:

A. A column
B. A row
C. An attribute
D. A relation
Ans: D

17.A null value indicates:

A. A numeric value with value 0
B. The absence of a value
C. A very small value
D. An erroneous value
Ans: B

18.Data in the data warehouse are loaded and refreshed from operational systems.

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

19.Star schema is suited to online transaction processing, and therefore is generally

used in operational systems, operational data stores.

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

20.OLAP is used by knowledge worker.

A.True
B.False
Ans: A
21.Data that can be modeled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are
called _______ data.

A,Multidimensional
B. Singledimensional
C. Measured
D.Dimensional

Ans:A

22.What do data warehouses support?

A.OLAP
B. OLTP
C. OLAP and OLTP
D.Operational database

Ans:A

23.__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection of

data in support of management decisions.

A. Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining

Ans-B

24.Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

A.Data are often deleted
B.Most applications consist of transactions
C.Data are rarely deleted
D.Relatively few records are processed by applications
Ans: C

25.Data mining is

A..The actual discovery phase of a knowledge discovery process

B. The stage of selecting the right data for a KDD process

 C. A subject-oriented integrated time variant non-volatile collection of data in support of
management

D. None of these

Ans:A

26.Which of the following applied on warehouse?

A.write only
B.read only
C. both a & b
D.none of these
Ans:B

27.Data can be store , retrieve and updated in …

A.SMTP
B. OLTP
C.FTP
D.OLAP
Ans:B
28.Data mining is?
A.time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C.The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans:B

29. ——- is not a data mining functionality?

A.Clustering and Analysis
B.Selection and interpretation
C. Classification and regression
D. Characterization and Discrimination
Ans:B

30.——– is the out put of KDD…

 A.Query
B.Useful Information
C. Data
D. information
Ans:B

31.What is noise?
A. component of a network
B.context of KDD and data mining
C.aspects of a data warehouse
D.None of these
Ans:B

32.Data mining is a tool for allowing users to find the hidden relationships in data.
A.True
B.False
Ans:A

33.Classification and regression are the properties of…

A.data analysis
B.data manipulation’
C. data mining
D.none of these
Ans:C
34.Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects is named as …
A. Classification
B. cluster
C.community
D.none of these
Ans:B

35.What is the strategic value of data mining?

A. design sensitive
B. cost sensitive
C. technical sensitive
D.time sensitive
Ans:D

36.Methods used to handle noisy data ______

A.Binning
B.Regression
C.Clustering
D.All of the above
Ans:D

37.Datawarehouse is______
A.Subject-Oriented
B.Time-varient
C.integrated
D.All of the above
Ans:A

38.Timehorizon of data warehouse is____

A.1-2 years
B.3-4 Years
C..5-6 Years
D.5-10 Years
Ans:D

39.The data is stored ,retrieved & updated in ___________

A.OLAP
B.OLTP
C.SMTP
D.FTP
Ans:B
40.__________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.
A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans:C

41.____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to

make proactive,knowledge-driven decisions.

A. Data warehouse.
B. Data Mining
C. Datmarts
D. Metadata
Ans:B

42._____________databases are owned by particular departments or business

groups.
A. Informational.
B. Operational.
C. Both informational and operational.
D. Flat.
Ans:B

43.What does Apriori algorithm do?

A. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support

B. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support

C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

Ans: A

44.What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm?

A. Hash-based techniques
B. Transaction Reduction

C. Partitioning

D. All of the above

Ans: D

45.What do you mean by support(A)?

A. Total number of transactions containing A

B. Total Number of transactions not containing A

C. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions

D. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions

Ans: C

46.Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

A. Social Network Analysis

B. Market Basket Analysis

C. Outlier Detection

D. Intrusion Detection

Ans: B

47.When do you consider an association rule interesting?

A. If it only satisfies min_support

B. If it only satisfies min_confidence

C. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence

D. There are other measures to check so

Ans: C
48.What is association rule mining?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining

B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets

C. Using association to analyse correlation rules

D. None of the above

Ans: B

49.The number of iterations in apriori ___________

A. increases with the size of the data

B. decreases with the increase in size of the data

C. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set

D. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set

Ans: C

50.Frequent item sets is

A. Superset of only closed frequent item sets

B. Superset of only maximal frequent item sets

C. Subset of maximal frequent item sets

D. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets

And: D

51.Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is

A. Finding frequent itemsets

B. Pruning

C. Candidate generation

D. Number of iterations
Ans: C

52.Which Association Rule would you prefer

A. High support and medium confidenc

B. High support and low confidence

C. Low support and high confidence

D. Low support and low confidence

And: C

53.Which of the following task is market basket analysis?

A. Classification

B. Regression

C. Association analysis

D. Outlier analysis

Ans-C

54.Frequent pattern consist of_____

A. Frequent itemset

B. Subsequences

C. Substructures

D. All of the above

Ans-D

55.Frequent pattern mining is used to find ______between itemsets.

A. Association

B. Correlation

C. Association & correlation

D. Grouping

Ans -C
56.Rule interesting measures______

A. Support

B. Confidence

C. Support and confidence

D. Pattern

Ans-C

57. Apriori algorithm is proposed in ______

A. 1994

B. 1995

C. 1993

D. 1997

Ans-A

58.Apriori algorithm uses ____

A. Join step

B. Prune step

C. Join and prune

D. None of the above

Ans-C

59.Cluster is

A.Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects

B .Operations on a database to transform or simplify data in order to prepare it for a

machine-learning algorithm

C .Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can potentially be

extracted

D .None of these

Ans-A
60. A good clustering method will produce high quality clusters with

A. high inter class similarity

B. low intra class similarity

C.high intra class similarity

D.no inter class similarity

Ans-C
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Data Warehousing& Mining

Branch: Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology

Class: BE CSE& IT

Semester: VIII
1.Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

A.Data are often deleted

B.Most applications consist of transactions
C.Data are rarely deleted
D.Relatively few records are processed by applications
Ans: C

2.Which of the following statement is true?

A.The data warehouse consists of data marts and operational data

B.The data warehouse is used as a source for the operational data
C.The operational data are used as a source for the data warehouse
D.All of the above
Ans: C

3.The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A.Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data warehouse at
periodic times
B.Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the operational
databases
C.The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse
D.A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size
Ans: A

4.What is true of the multidimensional model?

A.It typically requires less disk storage

B.It typically requires more disk storage
C.Typical business queries requiring aggregate functions take more time
D.Increasing the size of a dimension is difficult
Ans: B

5.The following technology is not well-suited for data mining:

A.Expert system technology
B.Data visualization
C.Technology limited to specific data types such as numeric data types
D.Parallel architecture
Ans: C

6.OLTP means__________

A. Online Transfer Processing

B.Online Transaction Processing

C.Online Transfer Protocol

D.None of the above

Ans-B

7.Data warehouse is which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end users.

B. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.
C. Organized around important subject areas.
D. Contains only current data.
Ans: C

8.The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A.At least one data mart

B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
C. Near real-time updates
D. All of the above.
Ans: B

9.The active data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A. At least one data mart
B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
C. Near real-time updates
D. All of the above.
Ans: D

10.OLAP means__________

A. Online Analytical Processing

B.Online Answer Processing

C.Online Analysis Protocol

D.None of the above

Ans-A

11.A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table?

A. Many-to-many
B. One-to-one
C. One-to-many
D. All of the above.
Ans: C

12.Fact tables are which of the following?

A. Completely demoralized
B. Partially demoralized
C. Completely normalized
D. Partially normalized
Ans: C

13.A snowflake schema is which of the following types of tables?

A. Fact
B. Dimension
C. Helper
D. All of the above
Ans: D

14.A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To create a new data warehouse
Ans: A

15.Which of the following statements does not apply to relational databases?

A. Relational databases are simple to understand
B. Tables are one of the basic components of relational databases
C. Relational databases have a strong procedural orientation
D. Relational databases have a strong mathematical foundation
Ans: C

16.In the relational database terminology, a table is synonymous with:

A. A column
B. A row
C. An attribute
D. A relation
Ans: D

17.A null value indicates:

A. A numeric value with value 0
B. The absence of a value
C. A very small value
D. An erroneous value
Ans: B

18.Data in the data warehouse are loaded and refreshed from operational systems.

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

19.Star schema is suited to online transaction processing, and therefore is generally

used in operational systems, operational data stores.

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

20.OLAP is used by knowledge worker.

A.True
B.False
Ans: A
21.Data that can be modeled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are
called _______ data.

A,Multidimensional
B. Singledimensional
C. Measured
D.Dimensional

Ans:A

22.What do data warehouses support?

A.OLAP
B. OLTP
C. OLAP and OLTP
D.Operational database

Ans:A

23.__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection of

data in support of management decisions.

A. Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining

Ans-B

24.Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

A.Data are often deleted
B.Most applications consist of transactions
C.Data are rarely deleted
D.Relatively few records are processed by applications
Ans: C

25.Data mining is

A..The actual discovery phase of a knowledge discovery process

B. The stage of selecting the right data for a KDD process

 C. A subject-oriented integrated time variant non-volatile collection of data in support of
management

D. None of these

Ans:A

26.Which of the following applied on warehouse?

A.write only
B.read only
C. both a & b
D.none of these
Ans:B

27.Data can be store , retrieve and updated in …

A.SMTP
B. OLTP
C.FTP
D.OLAP
Ans:B
28.Data mining is?
A.time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C.The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans:B

29. ——- is not a data mining functionality?

A.Clustering and Analysis
B.Selection and interpretation
C. Classification and regression
D. Characterization and Discrimination
Ans:B

30.——– is the out put of KDD…

 A.Query
B.Useful Information
C. Data
D. information
Ans:B

31.What is noise?
A. component of a network
B.context of KDD and data mining
C.aspects of a data warehouse
D.None of these
Ans:B

32.Data mining is a tool for allowing users to find the hidden relationships in data.
A.True
B.False
Ans:A

33.Classification and regression are the properties of…

A.data analysis
B.data manipulation’
C. data mining
D.none of these
Ans:C
34.Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects is named as …
A. Classification
B. cluster
C.community
D.none of these
Ans:B

35.What is the strategic value of data mining?

A. design sensitive
B. cost sensitive
C. technical sensitive
D.time sensitive
Ans:D

36.Methods used to handle noisy data ______

A.Binning
B.Regression
C.Clustering
D.All of the above
Ans:D

37.Datawarehouse is______
A.Subject-Oriented
B.Time-varient
C.integrated
D.All of the above
Ans:A

38.Timehorizon of data warehouse is____

A.1-2 years
B.3-4 Years
C..5-6 Years
D.5-10 Years
Ans:D

39.The data is stored ,retrieved & updated in ___________

A.OLAP
B.OLTP
C.SMTP
D.FTP
Ans:B
40.__________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.
A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans:C

41.____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to

make proactive,knowledge-driven decisions.

A. Data warehouse.
B. Data Mining
C. Datmarts
D. Metadata
Ans:B

42._____________databases are owned by particular departments or business

groups.
A. Informational.
B. Operational.
C. Both informational and operational.
D. Flat.
Ans:B

43.What does Apriori algorithm do?

A. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support

B. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support

C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

Ans: A

44.What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm?

A. Hash-based techniques
B. Transaction Reduction

C. Partitioning

D. All of the above

Ans: D

45.What do you mean by support(A)?

A. Total number of transactions containing A

B. Total Number of transactions not containing A

C. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions

D. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions

Ans: C

46.Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

A. Social Network Analysis

B. Market Basket Analysis

C. Outlier Detection

D. Intrusion Detection

Ans: B

47.When do you consider an association rule interesting?

A. If it only satisfies min_support

B. If it only satisfies min_confidence

C. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence

D. There are other measures to check so

Ans: C
48.What is association rule mining?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining

B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets

C. Using association to analyse correlation rules

D. None of the above

Ans: B

49.The number of iterations in apriori ___________

A. increases with the size of the data

B. decreases with the increase in size of the data

C. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set

D. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set

Ans: C

50.Frequent item sets is

A. Superset of only closed frequent item sets

B. Superset of only maximal frequent item sets

C. Subset of maximal frequent item sets

D. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets

And: D

51.Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is

A. Finding frequent itemsets

B. Pruning

C. Candidate generation

D. Number of iterations
Ans: C

52.Which Association Rule would you prefer

A. High support and medium confidenc

B. High support and low confidence

C. Low support and high confidence

D. Low support and low confidence

And: C

53.Which of the following task is market basket analysis?

A. Classification

B. Regression

C. Association analysis

D. Outlier analysis

Ans-C

54.Frequent pattern consist of_____

A. Frequent itemset

B. Subsequences

C. Substructures

D. All of the above

Ans-D

55.Frequent pattern mining is used to find ______between itemsets.

A. Association

B. Correlation

C. Association & correlation

D. Grouping

Ans -C
56.Rule interesting measures______

A. Support

B. Confidence

C. Support and confidence

D. Pattern

Ans-C

57. Apriori algorithm is proposed in ______

A. 1994

B. 1995

C. 1993

D. 1997

Ans-A

58.Apriori algorithm uses ____

A. Join step

B. Prune step

C. Join and prune

D. None of the above

Ans-C

59.Cluster is

A.Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects

B .Operations on a database to transform or simplify data in order to prepare it for a

machine-learning algorithm

C .Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can potentially be

extracted

D .None of these

Ans-A
60. A good clustering method will produce high quality clusters with

A. high inter class similarity

B. low intra class similarity

C.high intra class similarity

D.no inter class similarity

Ans-C
 Model Question Paper
Subject SOFTWARE METRICS AND QUALITY ASSURANCE

Branch : Computer Engineering /Information Technology

Class : BE

Semester : VIII

1) Which of the following comes under the Control Structure Testing?

a. Condition testing

b. Loop testing

c. Data Flow Testing

d. All of the above

Answer: d

2) Which of the following is software metric that provides a quantitative measure of the
logical complexity of a program?

a. Cyclomatic Complexity

b. LOC

c. Function Point

d. None of the above.

Answer : a

1 P.T.O.
3) A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are
meaningful is known as

a. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)

b. Function points analysis

c. Control Chart

d. All of the mentioned

Answer :c

4) Cost and schedule are a part of_________________________?

a. Product Metrics

b. Process Metrics

c. Project Metrics

d. All of the mentioned

Answer :c

5) In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the___________.

a. Number of lines of code

b. number of user input

c. number of function

d. None of the above.

Answer :a

2
6) Loop Testing methodology includes which of the following.

a. simple loops

b. Nested loops

c. Concatenated loops.

d. All of the above

Answer :d

7) Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

a. Quality

b. Complexity

c. Reliability

d. All of the mentioned

Answer :d

8) What Direct measures include in the Software product?

a. Line of Code (LOC)

b. Execution Speed

c. Defect reported

d All of these

Answer :a

3 P.T.O.
9) Which of the following is an example of QA

a. validation

b. Software testing

c. verification

d. Documentation

Answer :c

10) What does QA and QC stand for

a. Quality Adjustment and Queuing control

b. Quality Assurance and Quality control

c. Quality Adjustment and Quality completion

d. Quality Assurance and Queuing Control

Answer :b

11) ______ is a white-box testing technique first proposed by Tom McCabe.

a. Equivalence Partitioning

b. Basis Path Testing

c. Boundary Value Analysis

d. None of the above.

Answer :b

12) Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis techniques are used only
during system testing

a. True

b. False

Answer :b

4
13) Which of the followings is/are not a Specification Based Technique?

a. Cause-Effect Table

b. State transition Testing

c. Decision Coverage

d. Use case Testing

Answer :c

14) Abbreviate the term CMMI.

a. Capability Maturity Modification integration

b. Capability Managed Maturity Integration

c. Capability Maturity Model Integrator

d. Capability Maturity Model Integration

Answer :d

15) Which of the following is the Process Improvement Model?

a. CMMI

b. Agile

c. Prototyping

d. V model

Answer :a

5 P.T.O.
16) Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining
function point in FPA?

a) Number of user Input

b) Number of user Inquiries

c) Number of external Interfaces

d) Number of errors

Answer :d

17) Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:

a) E – errors found before software delivery

b) D – defects found after delivery to user

c) Both E and D

d) Varies with project

Answer :c

18) Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

a) testing

b) help line support

c) warranty work

d) complaint resolution

Answer :a

6
19) Which of the following are advantage of using LOC (lines of code) as a size- oriented
metric?

a. LOC is easily computed.

b. LOC is language dependent measure

c. LOC is a language dependent measure

d. LOC can be computed before a design is completed.

Answer :a

20) Advantage of using function point(FP) as measure of the functionality delivered by a

software application?

a. FP is a language dependent measure

b. FP is a language independent measure

c. FP can be computed before a design is completed

d. b and c

Answer :d

21) Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?

a. Word Token

b. Word Count

c. Word Size

d. Word Length

Answer :b

7 P.T.O.
22) Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about________ for a web page that is
to be built.

a. Size

b. Complexity

c. Effort

d. All of the mentioned

Answer :b

23) Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

a. Booch

b. Boehm

c. Albrecht

d. Jacobson

Answer :c

24) How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?

a. three

b. four

c. five

d. six

Answer :c

8
25) Function Point Computation is given by the formula

a. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

b. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]

c. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

d. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

Answer :b

26) SMI stands for

a. Software Mature Indicator

b. Software Maturity Index

c. Software Mature Index

d. Software Maturity Indicator

Answer :b

27) Size and Complexity are a part of

a. Product Metrics
b. Process Metrics
c. Project Metrics
d. None of the above
Answer :a
28) Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s
Software Quality Factors?
a. Flexibility
b. Reliability
c. Usability.
d. Integrity
Answer :a

9 P.T.O.
29) Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?

a. Complexity Metrics
b. Cohesion Metrics
c. Morphology Metrics
d. Coupling Metrics
Answer :c
30) From the following methods which size of the software product can be calculated?

a. Counting the lines of delivered code

b. Counting delivered function points
c. Both a and b above
d. None of the above
Answer :c
31) Direct measure of SE process
a. Efficiency
b. Cost
c. Effort Applied
d. All of the mentioned
Answer :a
32) The environment that supports the software project is called
a. CLSS
b. SEE
c. FAST
d. CBSE
Answer :b
33) Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of hardware reliability?
a. Useful Life
b. Burn-in
c. Wear-out
d. Time
Answer :d

10
34) How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?
a. direct relation
b. inverse relation
c. no relation
d. none of the mentioned
Answer :b
35) How many product quality factors are proposed in McCall quality model?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 11
d. 8
Answer :b
36) Which one of the following is not a software quality model?
a. ISO 9000
b. McCall model
c. Boehm model
d. ISO 9126
Answer :a
37) What is MTTF?
a. Maximum time to failure
b. Mean time to failure
c. Minimum time to failure
d. None of the mentioned
Answer :b
38) The CMM model is a technique to
a. automatically maintain the software reliability
b. Improve the software process.
c. test the software
d. all of the mentioned
Answer :b

11 P.T.O.
39) Which level of CMM is for process management?
a. Initial
b. Repeatable
c. Defined
d. Optimizing
Answer :d
40) SCM stands for
a. Software Control Management
b. Software Configuration Management
c. Software Concept Management
d. None of the mentioned
Answer :b
41) Which of the following is not a main phase in Configuration Management (CM)
Process?
a. CM Planning
b. Executing the CM process
c. CM audits
d. None of the mentioned
Answer :d
42) What are one or more software configuration items that have been formally
reviewed and agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development?
a. Baseline
b. Cumulative changes
c. CM
d. Change Control
Answer :a
43) Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?
a. SCM procedures
b. Source code
c. Software design descriptions
d. All of the mentioned
Answer :b

12
44) Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
a. SQA
b. SQM
c. SQI
d. SQA and SQM
Answer :a
45) Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a. A compliant product
b. Good quality output
c. Delivery within budget and schedule
d. All of the mentioned
Answer :d
46) Non-conformance to software requirements is known as
a. Software availability
b. Software reliability
c. Software failure
d. None of the mentioned
Answer :c
47) What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to
shipment?
a. Prevention
b. Internal Failure
c. External Failure
d. Appraisal
Answer :b
48) According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management
responsibility?
a. Process control
b. Document control
c. Control of nonconforming products
d. Servicing
Answer :a

13 P.T.O.
49) Line of code (LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity measure for
_______.
a. Extended function point metrics
b. Function point metrics.
c. Size oriented metrics.
d. d. None of the above.
Answer :c
50) Measure of reliability is given by ______.
a. Mean Time between successes.
b. Mean reliable
c. Mean Time between failures (MTBF).
d. MTTR
Answer :c
51) A COCOMO model is ________.
a. Common Cost Estimation Model.
b. Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
c. Complete Cost Estimation Model.
d. Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model
Answer :b
52) Cost of Production = Right The First time cost (RTF +-----------).
a. Cost of Deployment
b. Cost of Quality
c. Cost of maintenance
d. Cost of Production
Answer :b
53) Which is the Estimation Software size should be known?
a. Time estimation
b. Effort estimation
c. Cost estimation
d. Software size estimation
Answer :b

14
54) Object inherits a class is known as _____ .
a. Maintenance
b. Operations
c. Transitional
d. Development
Answer :b
55) In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W.
Boehm?
a. Putnam model
b. COCOMO
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
Answer :b
56) What is a special set of ISO guidelines that developed to help the interpret standard
for the use in software process?
a. ISO 9001-2000
b. ISO 9001-2001
c. ISO 9000-3
d. ISO 9000-4
Answer :c
57) What is the correctness, completeness, and consistency of the requirements model
will have a strong influence on the quality of all work products that follow?
a. Requirement quality
b. Design quality
c. Code quality
d. Quality control effectiveness
Answer :a

15 P.T.O.
58) Which quality deals with the maintaining the quality of the software product?
a. Quality assurance
b. Quality control
c. Quality Efficiency
d. None of the above
Answer :b
59) Which is focused towards the goal of the organization?
a. Feasibility study
b. Requirement gathering
c. Software requirement specification
d. Software requirement validation
Answer :a
60) What is the project and process level that provides the Quality Metric benefit?
a. Defect amplification
b. Defect removal efficiency
c. Measuring quality
d. All mentioned above
Answer :b

16
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Elective III: iPhone Programming (178154 & 228154)

Branch: Computer / I.T.

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following framework is not used in iOS ?

AUIKit Framework

B Foundation Framework

CAppKit Framework

D Core Motion Framework

Ans.: C

Q2. Single inheritance, Multiple inheritance, and Aggregation comes under _______

A Hierarchy

B Modularity

C Typing

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q3.Objective-C was created primarily by

A James Gosling

B Brad Cox

C Bjarne Stroustrup

D Dennis Ritchie

Ans.: B
Q4. Meaning of iOS is?

A Integrated operating

B System Integrated open system

C iPhone Operating System

D None of above

Ans.: C

Q5. Abstraction is classified into _______ types

A1

B3

C2

D4

Ans.: D

Q6. Which of the following hierarchy is correct?

(A) UIButton->UIControl->UIView->NSObject->UIResponder

(B) UIButton->UIControl->UIView->UIResponder->NSObject

(C) UIControl->UIButton->UIView->UIResponder->NSObject

(D) None of the Above

Ans.: B

Q7. A file control block contains the information about ____________

A file permissions

B file ownership

C location of file contents

D all of the mentioned

Ans.: D
Q8. The application has not been launched or was running but terminated by the device.
Determine the current state of App.

A Not running state

B Suspended state

C Background state

D Inactive state

Ans.: A

Q9. What is Iphone?

AMobile Operating system

B Mobile phone

C Desktop Operating system

D Music player

Ans.: B

Q10. What is the built-in database used in iOS ?

A MySQL

B Apache

C SQLite

D Oracle

Ans.: C

Q11. What is the object.toString equivalent in objective-c?

A [NSObject description]

B [NSObjecttoString]

C [NSObjectstringWithFormat]

D [NSObjectgetDescription]

Ans.: A
Q12. The __________ is used as an index into the page table.

A frame bit

B frame offset

C page number

D page offset

Ans.: C

Q13. The iphone has a feature that activates when you rotate device from portrait to
landscape

A Accelerometer

B Rotator

C Shadow detector

D Special Sensor

Ans.: A

Q14. What is the programming style of the object oriented conceptual model?

A Goals, often expressed in a predicate calculus.

B Invariant relationships

C Classes and objects

D Algorithms

Ans.:C

Q15. In which of the following mechanisms, types of all variables and expressions are
fixed at compilation time.

A Weak Typing

B Static Binding/ early binding

C Strong Typing

D Dynamic Binding/ late binding

Ans.: B
Q16. The data structure used for file directory is called ____________

A mount table

B process table

C file table

D hash table

Ans.: D

Q17. To create a new file application program calls ____________

Abasic file system

B file-organisation module

C logical file system

D none of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q18. Which of the following iOS frameworks is a commonly used third party Library?

AAVFoundation.framework

B CFNetwork.framework

C Audiotoolbox.framework

D AFNetwork.framework

Ans.: D

Q19. Does Objective-C have constructors and destructors?

A No, you use init and dealloc on Objective-C

B Only NSStrings do

C Yes

D It depends on the object

Ans.: A
Q20. What is that concept in type theory in which a single name may denote objects of
many different classes that are related by some common super class referred to ______

A Polymorphism

B Monomorphism

C Type Checking

D Generalization

Ans.: A

Q21. To create a file ____________

A allocate the space in file system & make an entry for new file in directory

B allocate the space in file system

C make an entry for new file in directory

D none of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q22. @property and @synthesize directive helps in

(A) automatically generating accessor methods for you

(B) protecting private data of class

(C) declaring temporary variables

(D) None of the above

Ans.: A

Q23. To create a new file application program calls

(A) basic file system

(B) file-organisation module

(C) logical file system

(D) none of the mentioned

Ans.: C
Q24. Which data type of objective – C has %i as NSLog conversion characters

(A) Float

(B) Char

(C) Int

(D) Number

Ans.: C

Q25. Objective -C is a_____

A Strict superset of the C programming language,

B Was layered on top of the C language

C General-purpose language

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q26. What is true about Objective-C from following?

A Objective-C keeps all aspects of C

B Objective-C does not support procedural programming

C Objective-C language is not standardized

D All are true.

Ans.: D

Q27. Objective -C source code 'implementation' program files usually have file extension

A .m

B .c

C .objc

D .mm

Ans.: A
Q28. Swift language is

A Low level assembly language

B High level compiled language

C High level interpreted language

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q29. For Boolean Objective – C uses

A bool, true and false

B BOOL, YES and NO

C bool, 0 and 1

D boolean, yes and no

Ans.: B

Q30. Select general syntax for defining Class in objective - C

(A) @interface NewClassName: ParentClassName

property and method declarations;

@end

(B) @Class NewClassName: ParentClassName

property and method declarations;

@endClass

(C) @interface ParentClassName: NewClassName

property and method declarations;

@end

(D) @ NewClassName: ParentClassName

property and method declarations;

@end

Ans.: A
Q31. To install XCode which url is preferred to use?

(A) http://developer.xcode.com/downloads

(B) http://developer.objectivec.com/downloads

(C) http://developer.apple.com/downloads

(D) http://developer.iphoneprogramming.com/downloads

Ans.: C

Q32. Xcode uses LLVM which is

A Low Level Virtual Machine

B Least Level Virtual Machine

C Local Logic Virtual Metadata

D Local Logic Varying Metadata

Ans.: A

Q33. Xcode's Command Line Tools contains

A Command prompt for MAC OS X & iOS

B Manual for commands in Xcode

C Many tools and libraries from Apple

D Backup tool for XCcde installation

Ans.: C

Q34. What is the output of this code?

(A) 2020-09-14 14:30:39.066 prog1[690:23581]

Programming is fun!

Program ended with exit code: 0

(B) Programming is fun!

Program ended with exit code: 0

(C) Programming is fun!

(D) Error at line number 6

Ans.: A

Q35. In Objective-C program , benefit of writing @autoreleasepool is

(A) Compiler will detect and auto correct all errors.

(B) System will efficiently manage memory used by your application.

(C) It keeps track of all pool data

(D) All of the above

Ans.: B

Q36. Name the root class in Objective – C.

(A) NSRoot

(B) NSResponder

(C) NSObject

(D) NSString

Ans.: C

Q37. Select correct way of compiling Objective-C source file named main.m using a
Terminal on Mac OSX

(A) $ objcmain.m -o prog1

(B) $ occ -fobjc-arc main.m -o prog1

(C) $ clang -fobjc-arc main.m -o prog1

(D) $ clang main.m -o prog1

Ans.: C
Q38. Source Editor of XCode is

(A) used for code folding

(B) used for syntax highlighting

(C) writing source code

(D) All

Ans.: D

Q39. Which feature of XCode displays Shortened API documentation while you're
programming?

(A) Static Analysis

(B) Quick Help

(C) XCTest Framework

(D) Asset Catalog

Ans.: B

Q40. Leading minus sign ( - ) tells the Objective-C compiler that the method is

(A) Class method.

(B) Instance method.

(C) Built-in method

(D) Operator Method

Ans.: B

Q41. Select correct way creating instance myFraction of Class named Fraction

(A) Fraction *myFraction;

myFraction = [ [ Fraction alloc ] init ];

(B) Fraction *myFraction = [ [Fraction alloc ] init];

(C) Fraction *myFraction = [ Fraction new ];

(D) All of the above

Ans.: D
Q42. Methods that set the values of instance variables are often collectively referred to as

(A) Reader

(B) Getter

(C) Setter

(D) Writer

Ans.: C

Q43. Does Objective-C have constructors and destructors?

(A) No, you use init and dealloc on Objective-C

(B) Only NSStrings do

(C) Yes

(D) It depends on the object

Ans.: A

Q44. A category provides

(A) easy way for us to modularize the definition of a class into groups

(B) easy way to extend an existing class definition

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) None of the above

Ans.: C

Q45. Which data type is known for generic object type and achieves dynamic binding in
objective-C?

(A) id

(B) String

(C) Array

(D) Dictionary

Ans.: A
Q46. Object-oriented programming groups operations and data into modular units called

(A) Functions

(B) Macros

(C) Objects

(D) Structure

Ans.: C

Q47. Select looping constructs available in Objective-C

(A) for statement

(B) while statement

(C) until statement

(D) Both A & B

Ans.: D

Q48. Foundation framework, UIKit and Core data constitute which layer in Framework
layers?

(A) Application Service Layer

(B) Cocoa Touch

(C) Cocoa

(D)MAC OS X Kernel

Ans.: B

Q49. @interface AddressBook: NSObject<NSCopying>

In above line NSCopying is declared as

(A) Protocol

(B) Parent Class

(C) Category

(D) Header File

Ans.: A
Q50. The object whose contents cannot be changed are called as

(A) Modifiable

(B) Mutable

(C) Variable

(D) Immutable

Ans.: D

Q51. Internal accelerometers can

(A) take input text data

(B) detect swipe, tap, pinch, and reverse pinch gestures

(C) respond to shaking or rotating the device

(D) All of the above

Ans.: C

Q52. The Core Data framework is responsible for

(A) Provides the low-level communication to the hardware in the form

(B) Easily storing and managing data.

(C) Support for printing and graphics rendering,

(D) Performing basic I/O operations.

Ans.: B

Q53. The frameworks that provide the support for our MAC OS X applications is

(A) Cocoa

(B) Cocoa Touch

(C) Dot Net

(D) JRE

Ans.: A
Q54. For OpenGL ES graphics-based applications such as games which iOS template can be
used from new project window?

(A) Master-Detail

(B) OpenGL Game

(C) Utility Application

(D) SpriteKit Game

Ans.: B

Q55. Which of the following is not a part of iOS SDK?

(A) Xcode

(B) iPhone Simulator

(C) Interface Builder

(D) MAC OS X kernel

Ans.: D

Q56. Which of the following is targeted for iOS devices?

(A) Cocoa

(B) Cocoa Touch

(C) Dot Net

(D) JRE

Ans.: B

Q57. In iOS Notification Center is used to

(A) Displays missed notifications

(B) Photo Streaming

(C) Displays Calendar tasks

(D) Both A & C

Ans.: D
Q58. #define FALSE 0

(A) assign symbolic names FALSE to constant 0

(B) pre-processor replaces all occurrences of FALSE with 0

(C) Both (A) & (B) are true

(D) Error in syntax: No equals sign

Ans.: C

Q59. For the code snippet what will be the value stored inside compareResult?

NSString *str1 = @"This is string A";

NSString *str2 = @"This is string B";

NSComparisonResultcompareResult;

compareResult = [str1 compare: str2];

(A) NSOrderedAscending

(B) NSOrderedSame

(C) NSOrderedDescending

(D) Error

Ans.: A

Q60. What is true about XCode from the following statements?

(A) XCode can be installed directly on Microsoft Windows OS using usual windows installer.

(B) Intelligent Code Completion is not supported in XCode.

(C) It provides tools to manage our entire development workflow

(D) All statements are true.

Ans.: C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Compiler Design
Branch: Data Warehousing & Mining
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Q 1. __________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non-volatile collection of

data in support ofmanagement decisions.
A. Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining.
ANS: B

Q 2. The data Warehouse is__________.

A. read only.
B. write only.
C. read write only
D. none.
ANS: A

Q3. Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.
B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System.
ANS: A

Q4. The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within the
data warehouseis___________.
A. subject-oriented.
B. time-variant.
C. integrated.
D. All of the above.
ANS: D

Q5. The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually __________.

A. 1-2 years.
B. 3-4years.
C. 5-6 years.
D. 5-10 years.

ANS: D

Q6. The data is stored, retrieved & updated in ____________.

A. OLAP.
B. OLTP.
C. SMTP.
D. FTP.
ANS: B

Q7. __________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
ANS: C

Q8. The star schema is composed of __________ fact table.

A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
ANS: A

Q9. Data can be updated in _____environment.

A. Data warehouse.
B. Data mining.
C. Operational.
D. Informational.
ANS: C

Q10. Record cannot be updated in _____________.

A. OLTP
B. Files
C. RDBMS
D. Data warehouse

ANS: D

Q11. Bill Inmon has estimated ___________of the time required to build a data warehouse,
is consumed inthe conversion process.
A. 10 percent.
B. 20 percent.
C. 40 percent
D. 80 percent.
ANS: D

Q12. ___________ is a good alternative to the star schema.

A. Star schema.
B. Snowflake schema.
C. Fact constellation.
D. Star-snowflake schema.
ANS: C

Q13. A snowflake schema is which of the following types of tables?

A. Fact
B. Dimension
C. Helper
D. All of the above
ANS: D

Q14. In Binning, we first sort data and partition into (equal-frequency) bins and then which
of the following is not a valid step Select one:
A. smooth by bin boundaries
B. smooth by bin median
C. smooth by bin means
D. smooth by bin values
ANS: D
.
Q15. The core of the multidimensional model is the ....................... , which consists of a
large set of facts and a number of dimensions.

A. Multidimensional cube
B. Dimensions cube
C. Data cube
D. Data model
Ans: C

Q16.Which of the following is not a Data discretization Method?

A. Histogram analysis
B. Cluster Analysis
C. Data compression
D. Binning
ANS: C

Q17. What is the use of data cleaning?

A. to remove the noisy data
B. correct the inconsistencies in data
C. transformations to correct the wrong data.
D. All of the above
ANS: D

Q18. ............................. is a comparison of the general features of the target class data
objects against the general features of objects from one or multiple contrasting classes?
A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection
ANS: A

Q19. Data warehouse architecture is based on …………………..

A. DBMS
B. RDBMS
C.SQL Server
D. None of the above
ANS: D

Q 20. The core of the multidimensional model is the ………………….. , which consists of a large
set of facts and a number of dimensions.
A. Multidimensional cube
B. Dimensions cube
C. Data cube
D. Data model
ANS: C

Q 21. —— is not a data mining functionality?

A. Clustering and Analysis
B. Selection and interpretation
C. Classification and regression
D. Characterization and Discrimination
ANS: B

Q 22. ——– is the output of KDD…

A. Query
B. Useful Information
C. Data
D. information
ANS: B

Q23. Data mining is _______ step of KDD process.

A. fifth
B. third
C. first
D. second
ANS: A

Q24. ...................... is an essential process where intelligent methods are applied to extract
data patterns?
A. Data warehousing
B. Data mining
C. Text mining
D. Data selection
ANS: B

Q25. The full form of KDD is ..................

A. Knowledge Database
B. Knowledge Discovery Data
C. Knowledge Data House
D. Knowledge Data Definition
ANS: B
Q26. …………………… is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a target
class of data.
A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection
ANS: A

Q27. ............................. is a comparison of the general features of the target class data
objects against the general features of objects from one or multiple contrasting classes.
A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection
ANS: C

Q28. The various aspects of data mining methodologies is/are ...................

A. Mining various and new kinds of knowledge
B. Mining knowledge in multidimensional space
C. Pattern evaluation and pattern or constraint-guided mining.
D. All of above
ANS: D

Q 29. Next step after data selection in the process of knowledge discovery is:
A. Data cleaning
B. Data integration
C. Pattern evaluation
D. Data transformation
ANS: D

Q30. Noise is ________________

A. A component of a network

B. In the context of KDD and data mining, this refers to random errors in a database table.
C. One of the defining aspects of a data warehouse

D. None of these

Ans: B

Q 31 Which of the following is not a data pre- processing methods

A. Data Visualization
B. Data Discretization
C. Data Cleaning
D. Data Reduction
ANS: A
Q 32. ............................. is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a
target class of data.
A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection
ANS: A
Q 33. Incorrect or invalid data is known as _________ Select one:
A. Missing data
B. Outlier
C. Changing data
D. Noisy data
ANS: D
Q 34. KDD process has ___________ steps

A. 2
B. 10
C. 4
D. 7
ANS: D

Q 35. State various methods of Integrating Data Mining System with A DB/DW System.
A Loose coupling
B. No coupling
C. Tight coupling
D All of Above
Ans: D
Q 36. In _______scheme, the data mining system does not utilize any of the database or
data warehouse functions.
A Tight coupling
B. No coupling
C. Semi-tight coupling
D Loose coupling
Ans: B

Q 37. Which of the following is not Data Mining Task Primitives

A. Set of task relevant data to be mined.
B. Kind of knowledge to be mined.
C. Data cleaning process
D. Background knowledge to be used in discovery process.
Ans: C

Q 38.In clustering, the objects are grouped on the principle of__________ intraclass
similarity
A. Maximizing
B. Minimizing
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
Ans: A

Q 39. Which of the following is data mining issues?

A. Mining Methodology and User Interaction
B. Performance Issues
C. Diverse Data Types Issues
D. All of above
Ans: D
Q 40. In clustering, __________ is defined as the data objects that do not belong to the
general behaviour or model of the data available.
A. medoid
B. random error
C. Outlier
D. centroid
Ans: C
Q41.What do you mean by support(A)?
A. Total number of transactions containing A
B . Total Number of transactions not containing A
C. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions
D. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions

Q42.Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

A. Social Network Analysis
B. Market Basket Analysis
C. Outlier Detection
D. Intrusion Detection
Ans: B
Q43. How do you calculate Confidence(A -> B)?
A. Support(A B) / Support (A)
B. Support(A B) / Support (B)
C. Support(A B) / Support (A)
D. Support(A B) / Support (B)
Ans: A
Q44. . A priori algorithm is otherwise called as __________.
A. width-wise algorithm.
B. level-wise algorithm.
C. pincer-search algorithm.
D. FP growth algorithm.
Ans: B

Q45. The A Priori algorithm is a ___________.

A. top-down search.
B. breadth first search.
C. depth first search.
D. bottom-up search.
Ans: D

Q46. The first phase of A Priori algorithm is _______.

A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.
Ans: A

Q47. The second phase of A Priori algorithm is ____________.

A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.
Ans: C
Q48. ________is the most well known association rule algorithm and is used in most
commercial products.
A. Apriori algorithm.
B. Partition algorithm.
C. Distributed algorithm.
D. Pincer-search algorithm.
Ans: A
Q49.Multilevel association rules can be mined efficiently using ______ under a support-
confidence framework.
A. concept hierarchies.
B. contact framework.
C. olap operations
D. market basket analysis
Ans: A
Q50. After the pruning of a priori algorithm, _______ will remain.
A. Only candidate set.
B. No candidate set.
C. Only border set.
D. No border set.
Ans: B
Q51. The number of iterations in a priori ___________.
A. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set.
B. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set.
C. increases with the size of the data.
D. decreases with the increase in size of the data.
Ans: A
Q52 If a set is a frequent set and no superset of this set is a frequent set, then it is called
________.
A. maximal frequent set.
B. border set.
C. lattice.
D. infrequent sets.
Ans: A
Q53. Market basket analysis analyzes customer buying habits by finding associations
between the different items that customers place in their _______________
A. catalog
B. no of customer visit
C. shopping baskets
D. stock in shop
Ans: C
Q54.____________ specify the set of task-relevant data.
A. Rule constraints
B. Data constraints
C. Level constraints
D. Dimension constraints
Ans: B

Q55.____________specify thresholds on statistical measures.

A. Rule constraints
B. Data constraints
C. Level constraints
D. Interestingness constraints
Ans: D

Q56.The proportion of transaction supporting X in T is called _________.

A. confidence.
B. support.
C. both.
D. All of the above.
Ans: B

Q57.Market-basket problem was formulated by __________.

A. Agrawal et al.
B. Steve et al.
C. Toda et al.
D. Simon et al.
Ans: A

Q58. Data that are not of interest to the data mining task is called as ______.
A. missing data.
B. changing data.
C. irrelevant data.
D. noisy data.
Ans: C

Q59. All set of items whose support is greater than the user-specified minimum support are
called as _____________.
A. border set.
B. frequent set.
C. maximal frequent set.
D. lattice.
Ans: B

Q60. The _______ step eliminates the extensions of (k-1)-itemsets which are not found to
be frequent, from being considered for counting support.
A. Candidate generation.
B. Pruning.
C. Partitioning.
D. Itemset eliminations.
Ans: B
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Internet Security

Branch : Information Technology

Class : BE

Semester : VIII

Unit- I
Sr.
Questions
No.
1 _______ is the practice and precautions taken to protect valuable information from unauthorized
access, recording, disclosure or destruction.
a) Network Security
b) Database Security
c) Information Security
d) Physical Security
Answer: c
2 Anti-virus software only protects an organization from_________________.
a) Malicious programs
b) An intruder
c) Both a and b
d)None of the above
Answer: a
3 Firewalls are _______________ devices for the network and can assist in protecting an
organization’s internal network from external attacks.
a) Access control
b) Anti-Virus software
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: a
4 Smart cards are considered in which authentication system?
a) Something you know
b) Something you have
c) Something you are
d) None of the above.
Answer: b
5 Biometrics is considered in which authentication system?
a) Something you know
b) Something you have
c) Something you are
d) None of the above.
Answer: c
6 An access attack is an attack against the ___________________ of the information.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Accountability
Answer: a
7 Snooping is a type of _____________ attack.
a) Access attack
b) Modification attack
c) Denial of service attack
d) Repudiation attack
Answer: a
8 When someone listens in on a conversation that they are not a part of, that is __________
a) Snooping
b) Eavesdropping
c) Masquerading
d) Denying an Event
Answer: b
9 A modification attack is an attack against the integrity of the information.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Accountability
Answer: b
10 _________________ is an attempt to act like or impersonate someone else or some other system.
a) Masquerading
b) Denying an Event
c) Snooping
d) Eavesdropping
Answer: a
11 When _________ attack is made, information that did not previously exist is added.
a) Insertion
b) Changes
c) Deletion
d) None of the above
Answer: a
12 ___________________attacks are attacks that deny the use of resources to legitimate users of the
system, information, or capabilities.
a) Access attack
b) Modification attack
c) Denial of service attack
d) Repudiation attack Denial-of-service
Answer: c
13 A DoS attack against information causes that information to be unavailable is
__________________________.
a) Denial of Access to Applications
b) Denial of Access to Systems
c) Denial of Access to Information
d) Denial of Access to Communications
Answer: c
14 Repudiation is an attack against the _________________ of the information.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Availability
d) Accountability

Answer: d
15 The information after it has been obfuscated by the encryption algorithm is known as
______________.
a) Plain Text
b) Clear Text
c) Cipher Text
d) None of the above
Answer: c
16 The process of changing the plaintext into cipher text.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: a
17 The process of changing the cipher text into plaintext.
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: b
18 Private key encryption is also known as _____________________ encryption.
a) Symmetric key
b) Asymmetric key
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: a
19 Public key encryption is also known as _____________________ encryption.
a) Symmetric key
b) Asymmetric key
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: b
20 ____________ is looking through information files in the hopes of finding something
interesting.
a) Snooping
b) Eavesdropping
c) Masquerading
d) Denying an Event
Answer: a
 Unit- II
Sr.
Question
No.
An individual who breaks into computers.
a) Hacker
b) Virus
1
c) Worms
d) None of the above
Answer: a
Hacker are motivated by ____________
a) Challenge
b) Greed
2
c) Malicious Intent
d) All of the above
Answer: d
Which one is the Historical Hacking Techniques?
a) Open Sharing
b) IP Spoofing
3
c) Sniffing switched network
d) None of the above
Answer: a
Social Engineering is a type of ________________ Hacking technique.
a) Historical Hacking Technique
b) Advanced hacking technique
4
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: a
___________________ require quite a bit of expertise to find and exploit.
a) Buffer overflows
b) Social Engineering
5
c) Bad Password
d) None of the above
Answer: a
Sniffing switched network is a type of ______________ hacking technique.
a) Historical Hacking Technique
b) Advanced hacking technique
6
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: b
Policy defines how security should be within an organization.
a) True
7
b) False
Answer: a
____________________ defines what sensitive information is within the organization and how
that information should be protected.
a) Information Policy
b) Security Policy
8
c) Computer use policy
d) Internet use policy
Answer: a

9 _____________ defines the technical requirements for security on computer systems and network
 equipment.
a) Information Policy
b) Security Policy
c) Computer use policy
d) Internet use policy
Answer: b
Which policy defines who may use computer systems and how they may be used?
a) Information Policy
b) Security Policy
10
c) Computer use policy
d) Internet use policy
Answer: c
The _______________ policy defines appropriate uses of the Internet.
a) Information Policy
b) Security Policy
11
c) Computer use policy
d) Internet use policy
Answer: d
If an organization chooses to define a specific mail policy it should take into account internal issues
as well as external issues.
12 a) True
b) False
Answer: a
User Management Procedures includes :
a) New Employee Procedure
b) Transferred Employee Procedure
13
c) Employee Termination Procedure
d) All of the above
Answer: d
The _____________________ procedure defines how Security and System Administration will
work together to secure the organization’s systems.
a) System administration
14 b) User Management Procedures
c) Security Policy
d) Computer use policy
Answer: a
An Incident Response Procedure (IRP) defines how the organization will react when a computer
security incident occurs.
15 a) True
b) False
Answer: a
The __________________ defines the steps that will be taken to modify the state of the
organization’s computer systems.
a) Disaster Recovery Plans
b) configuration management procedure
c) User Management Procedures
16 d) Security Policy
Answer: b

17 Creating Appropriate Policy include :

 a) Defining What Is Important
b) Defining Acceptable Behavior
c) Defining Appropriate Outlines
d) All of the above
Answer: d
A ____________ is an action or event that might violate the security of an information systems
environment.
a) Threat
18 b) Vulnerability
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: a
A _______________ is a potential avenue of attack.
a) Threat
b) Vulnerability
19
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Risk is the combination of threat and vulnerability.
a) True
20
b) False
Answer: a

Unit-III
Sr.
Question
No
1) Information security is a Proactive process to manage risk.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
2) How many key phases in process of information security.
a) Five,
b) Four,
c) Six,
d) Three
Answer: a
3) In message authentication process , the hash function value is called as:
a) Message Field,
b) Message Digest,
c) Message Score,
d) Message Leap
Answer: b

4) A hash function can be called secure if:

 i. The function is one-way. In other words, the function creates a checksum from the
information but you cannot create the information from the checksum.

ii. It is very difficult to construct two pieces of information that provide the same
checksum when run through the function.

a) Only (i),
b) only (ii),
c) both (i) and (ii),
d) none of the above
Answer: c
5) The intrusion detection system’s has major components are ___________.
a) Analysis Engine

b) Event provider

c) Alert Database

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

6) A digital signature needs a ____________________

a) private-key system,
b) shared-key system,
c) public-key system,
d) All of them.

Answer: c

7) What are the characteristics of Host based IDS?

a) The host operating system logs in the audit information
b) Logs includes logins, file opens and program executions
c) Logs are analyzed to detect tails of intrusion
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
8) There are ____________ types of IDS?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
9) Network based IDS has following strength?
a) Cost of ownership reduced
b) Malicious intent detection
c) Real time detection and response
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

10) Services offered by the Hash functions?

 a) Authentication,

b) Non-repudiation,

c) Data Integrity,

d) All of the above

Answer: d

11) What are the different types of IDS?

a) Zone based
b) Host & Network based
c) Network & Zone based
d) Level based
Answer: b
12) A hash function guarantees integrity of a message. Means there is no any _________message.
a) Replaced,
b) Over view,
c) Changed,
d) Left.

Answer: c

13) An IPS responds to network attacks by blocking traffic and resetting connections
a) True

b) False

Answer: a

14) SHA-I has 160 bits message digest.

a) True
b) False

Answer: a

15) IPS employ which detection mechanisms?

a. packet anomaly detection
b. generic pattern matching
c. TCP connection analysis
d. All of the above
Answer: d
16) A digital signature is an authentication of an electronic record by tying it uniquely to a key only
a sender knows.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

17) MD5 hash function produces __________________ checksum.

 a) 160 bits

b) 100bits,

c) 64bits,

d) 128-bit

Answer: d

18) Digital signature provides ____________________

a) authentication
b) non-repudiation
c) both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

Answer: c

19) The audit function ensures that controls are Configured correctly with regard to policy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
20) A digital signature is required______________________.
i. to tie an electronic message to the sender’s identity
ii. for non-repudiation of communication by a sender
iii. to prove that a message was sent by the sender in a court of law
iv. in all e-mail transactions
a) i and ii,
b) i, ii and iii,
c) i, ii, iii, and iv,
d) ii, iii, iv

Answer: b
 Model Question Paper
Computer Engineering
MCQ Bank for I-phone Programming (178154)Semester: VIII

1. Objective C programming is
A. Structural language
B. Object oriented language
C. Procedure language
D. None of the above.
Ans: B

2. Which one is not supported by objective C

A. Polymorphism
B. Data hiding
C. Inheritance
D. Refinement
Ans: D

3. The full form of GCC compiler is

A. Global compiler construction
B. gross compiler General
C. GNU Compiler collection
D. GNU compiler chain
Ans: C

4. Mac OS is developed by
A. IBM
B. Motorola
C. Apple
D. INTEL
Ans: C

5. Xcode is provided by
A. Motorola
B. Apple
C. IMA
D. INTEL
Ans: B

6. Which is not foundation class in objective C language

 A. Loop type and description
B. NS Array
C. NS foundation
D. NS Dictionary
Ans: C

7. Which one is the memory management technique supported by

objective C
A. Virtual memory management
B. Segmentation
C. Paging
D. Automatic reference counting
Ans: D

8. Which is not the pre-processor in objective C

A. #undef
B. #error
C. #endif
D. #type
Ans: D

9. Which is not related to COCOA

A. COCOA is an operating system
B. COCOA is operating system interface
C. COCOA is a UI/UX interface
D. COCOA is a standard library
Ans: A

10. Which is not consist in COCOA touch

A. Foundation
B. U I Kit
C. Safari
D. Core data
Ans: C

11. Which is latest IOS version

A. IOS 6.0
B. IOS 7.0
C. IOS 10.0
D. IOS 14.0
Ans: D
12. Which of the following is a correct way to insert comment in
objective C
 A. This is a comment
B. /* this is a comment
C. /* this is a comment */
D. this is a comment */
Ans: C

13. Does the iphone browser support flash application

A. Yes
B. No
C. Just the Flash application from apple
D. Some of them
Ans: A

14. Which of the following is not a state in the life cycle of a

service
A. Starting
B. Running
C. Destroyed
D. Paused
Ans: D

15. When an activity does not exist in memory it is in

A. Running state
B. Loading State
C. Starting state
D. Inexistent state
Ans: C

16. The iphone camera can

A. ZOOM
B. Auto focus
C. Record videos
D. All of the above
Ans: D

17. To create an emulator we need AVD. What does it stand for

A. Android virtual Display
B. Android virtual Device
C. Active virtual device
D. Application virtual device
Ans: B

18. The _________ file specifies the layout of your screen.

 A. Manifest file
B. Strings XML
C. Layout file
D. R file
Ans: C

19. The iphone has a feature that activates when you rotate the
device from portrait to landscape.
A. Rotator
B. Special sensor
C. Accelerometer
D. Shadow Detector
Ans: C

20. The iphone is a line internet and multimedia enabled

smartphones designed and marked by Intel corporation
A. True.
B. False.
Ans: B

21. IOS Stands for

A. Interwork operating system
B. Iphone operating system
C. Internet operating system
D. None of the above
Ans: B

22. COCOA is a part of

A. Android OS.
B. Apple OS.
C. Mac OS.
D. Unix OS.
Ans: B

23. COCOA touch is a

A. Mac development OS.
B. Iphone development framework.
C. Android development framework.
D. Microcontroller OS.
Ans: B

24. A Framework is
 A. Similar to API.
B. UI Interface.
C. Core Application Kit.
D. SDK.
Ans: A

25. Total number of layers in IOS are

A. 6.
B. 4.
C. 3.
D. 7.
Ans: B

26. In IOS Status bar is used to show the useful information

about device. This statement is True or False?
A. True.
B. False.
Ans: A

27. Which type of inheritance is allowed in Objective C-

A. Single Inheritance.
B. Multiple Inheritance.
C. Multilevel Inheritance.
D. Hierarchical Inheritance.
Ans: B

28. A COCOA framework may include

A. Predefined classes and functions.
B. Predefined processes.
C. Predefined macros.
D. None of these.
Ans: A.

29.Which of the following framework is not used in iOS ?

A. UIKit Framework
B. AppKit Framework
C. Foundation Framework
D. CoreMotion Framework

Ans: B
30.Which of the following iOS frameworks is a commonly used third
party Library?
A. AVFoundation.framework
B. Audiotoolbox.framework
C. AFNetwork.framework
D. CFNetwork.framework
Ans: C
31.The application has not been launched or was running but
terminated by the device. Determine the current state of App.
A. Suspended state
B. Background state
C. Inactive state
D. Not running state
Ans: D

32. Application running in foreground but currently not receiving

any events.What is the current state of Application?
A. Background state
B. Inactive State
C. Suspended state
D. Active State
Ans: B

33.IOS remote push notification is introduced by apple in which

version?

A. iOS 2.0
B. iOS 3.0
C. iOS 4.0
D. iOS 6.0

Ans:B.
34.Multitasking in iOS was introduced in which version?
A. iOS 2.0
B. iOS 4.0;
C. iOS 6.0;
D. iOS 7.0

Ans:B.

35.What is the core functionality of iPhone camera?

A. Record Videos.
B. Zoom
C. Auto Focus
D. Make digital photos

Ans: D

36. What is a pointer?

A. A variable
B. A memory address that points to a specific object
C. An object that calls other objects
D. A class
Ans: B

37. If you do not declare a return type for a method definition,

what is the default return type?
A. *NSString
B. id
C. No return type
Ans: B

38. what does this code produce? [NSString] *myString =

@”Hello World”;
A. An Error during compile
B. makes the pointer to myString equal to the pointer of the new
created object with @”hello world”
C. gets SIGABRT while executing the application
 D. it put the value Hello World into a string named myString
Ans: A

39. Developers are allowed to call [super dealloc] in ARC.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans: B

40. What is KVO?

A. Key Variable Obfuscation
B. Key Value Operations
C. Key Value Observing
Ans: C

41. True or False? You can compare two strings by (string1 ==

string2)
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

42. What does an Objective-C string literal look like?

A. “foo”
B. #”foo”
C. @”foo”
D. $”foo”
Ans: C

43. ARC means?

A. Automatic Reference Counting
B. Angular Reference Courting
C. Access Reference Collation
D. Artificial Reference Counting
Ans: A
44. What is a delegate?
A. A delegate is a UIView
B. A delegate holds the type of data a variable stores
C. A delegateallows one NSObject to send messages to another
NSObject, and listen to those messages
D. A delegate is a variable
Ans: C

45. Which of the following is a Singleton?

A. [NSArry array]
B. [NSFileManagerdefaultManager]
Ans: B

46. Which of the following is an object?

A. double
B. NSNumber
C. int
D. float
Ans: B

47. What is the name of the type of SQL Database that iOS
Supports?
A. SQL
B. NoSql
C. SQLite
D. MySql
Ans: C

48. What happens when you call retain on an object?

A. It is permanently stored in memory
B. It will stay in memory until the app closes
C. You increase it’sretain count by 1
 D. It is released from memory
Ans: C

49. How do you free an object?

A. [obj release]
B. None of the above
C. free(obj)
D. [objdealloc]
Ans: A

50. True or False? Sending a command asynchronously will lock

the main thread and then wait until the command is finished
before moving on to the next part of your code.
A. False
B. True
Ans: A

51. Which of the following accesses a variable in structure b?

A. b.var;
B. b-var;
C. b>var;
D. b->var;
E. b
Ans: A

52. True or False? For an object to use constraints, it must have

at least 3 constraint values.
A. False
B. True
Ans: A

53. True or False? A method and a variable can have the same
name in Objective-C.
A. False
B. True
Ans: B
54. Can you call C++ code from objective C environment?
A. Yes, from any .mm file
B. Yes, from any .m file
C. No, it is not possible
Ans: A

55. let a:int=5 a=10 this code is true of false?

A. false
B. true
Ans: A

56. Does Objective-C have constructors and destructors?

A. Yes
B. It depends on the object
C. No, you use init and dealloc on Objective-C
D. Only NSStrings do
Ans: C

57. Are integers full-fledged objects in Objective-C?

A. Yes, but only if you first cast them as id’s, e.g. (id) 123.
B. No, they are not objects at all.
C. Integers are only partial objects in Objective-C (e.g. do not
support any user defined methods).
D. Yes.
Ans: B

58. What is the ‘print object’ command in the debugger window?

A. print
B. p
C. -l
D. po
Ans: D

59. What is Objective-C’s language design based on?

A. C and C++.
B. C and Cocoa.
C. C and Smalltalk.
 D. C and BCPL.
Ans: C

60. What is (void*)?

A. Representation of void pointer
B. None of above
C. Representation of NULL pointer
D. Error
Ans: C
 Model Question Paper
SUBJECT: Internet Security (IS)

Branch: Information Technology

Class: BE Semester: VIII

___________________________________________________________________________

1) -------------------- is where attacker exploits the good nature of an employee to get the
employee to reveal sensitive information.

A) Masquerading

B) Social Engineering

C) Impersonation

D) Good Samaritan

Ans: B

2) Keyloggers Are A Form Of

A) Spyware

B) Shoulder Surfing

C) Trojan

D) Social Engineering

Ans:A

3)_______ of information means, only authorized users are capable of accessing the information.

A) Confidentiality

B) Integrity
C) Non-repudiation

D) Availability

Ans: D

4) From the options below, which of them is not a threat to information security?

A) Disaster

B) Eavesdropping

C) Information leakage

D) Unchanged default password

Ans:D

5)The process of transforming plain text into unreadable text.

A) Decryption

B) Encryption

C) Network Security

D) Information Hiding

Ans:B

6)DES follows

A) Hash Algorithm

B) Caesars Cipher

C) Feistel Cipher Structure

D) SP Networks

Ans:C
7)Which of the following is not a control category in a physical security program?

A) Deterrence and delaying

B) Response and detection

C) Assessment and detection

D) Delaying and lighting

Ans:D

8)The ________ method provides a one-time session key for two parties.

A)AES

B) RSA

C) DES

D) Diffie-Hellman

Ans:D

9)What is a mantrap?

A) A trusted security domain

B) A mechanism for logical accessing control

C) A double-door room used for physical access control

D) A device for fire suppression

Ans:C

10)In RSA, Ф(n) = _______ in terms of p and q.

A) (p)/(q)

B) (p)(q)
C) (p-1)(q-1)

D) (p+1)(q+1)

Ans:C

11)Which of the following security attacks is not an active attack?

A) Masquerade

B) Modification of message

C) Denial of service

D) Traffic analysis

Ans:D

12)A computer ________ is a malicious code which self-replicates by copying itself to other
programs.

A) program

B) virus

C) application

D) worm

Ans:B

13) ___________ is widely used today for protecting data in transit in a variety of applications
such as data transfer on the Internet, and on cellular phone networks.

A) Encryption

B) Data mining

C) Internet Security

D) Architectural security
Ans:A

14)Which of these is not a proper method of maintaining confidentiality?

A) Biometric verification

B) ID and password based verification

C) 2-factor authentication

D) switching off the phone

Ans:D

15)Stealing pen drives and DVDs after tailgating is an example of lack of _______ security.

A) network security

B) physical security

C) database security

D) wireless security

Ans:B

16)Which of the following is not a type of symmetric-key cryptography technique?

A) Caesar cipher

B) Data Encryption Standard (DES)

C) Diffie Hellman cipher

D) Playfair cipher

Ans:C

17)Which Of The Following Is An Independent Malicious Program That Need Not Any Host
Program?
A) Trap Doors

B) Trojan Horse

C) Virus

D) Worm

Ans:D

18)Which is not an objective of network security?

A) Identification

B) Authentication

C) Access control

D) Lock

Ans:D

19)For p = 11 and q = 19 and choose e=17. Apply RSA algorithm where message=5 and find the
cipher text.

A) C=80

B) C=92

C) C=56

D) C=23

Ans:A

20)The components of good security program are policies and ----------

A) Signage

B)Firewalls
C) Procedures

D) Passwords

Ans:C

21)What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?

A) To think like hackers and know how to defend such attacks

B) To hack a system without the permission

C) To hack a network that is vulnerable

D) To corrupt software or service using malware

Ans:A

22)Short passwords will allow an attacker to use ----------------- to break in.

A) Brute-force

B) Social Engineering

C) Viruses

D) Spoofing

Ans:A

23)_______ is the oldest phone hacking techniques used by hackers to make free calls

A) Phishing

B) Spamming

C) Phreaking

D) Cracking

Ans:C
24)_________ are the special type of programs used for recording and tracking user’s keystroke.

A) Keylogger

B) Trojans

C) Virus

D) Worms

Ans:A

25)___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for unethical
hacking.

A) Automated apps

B) Database software

C) Malware

D) Worms

Ans:C

26)The most commonly used session hijacking attack is the _______________

A) IP hacking

B) IP spooling

C) IP spoofing

D) IP tracking

Ans:C

27)Which is not an objective of network security?

A) Identification
B) Authentication

C) Access Control

D) Lock

Ans:D

28)Which of these is a part of network identification?

A) User ID

B) Password

C) OTP

D) Fingerprint

Ans:A

29)In a _____________ attack, the extra data that holds some specific instructions in the
memory for actions is projected by a cyber-criminal or penetration tester to crack the system.

A) Phishing

B) MiTM

C) Buffer-overflow

D) Clickjacking

Ans:C

30)A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the ___________ & ___________
requirements of a firm while evaluating the security postures.

A) privacy and security

B) rules and regulations

C) hacking techniques
D) ethics to talk to seniors

Ans:A

31)What all has to be identified as per risk identification?

A) Threats

B) Vulnerabilities

C) Consequences

D) All of the mentioned

Ans:D

32)__________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides different
theories and a principle regarding the view-points about what is right and wrong.

A) Social ethics

B) Ethics in cyber-security

C) Corporate ethics

D) Ethics in black hat hacking

Ans:D

33)The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of personal data.

A) Ethical hacking

B) Unethical hacking

C) Fixing bugs

D) Internal data-breach

Ans:A
34)___________ is a special form of attack using which hackers’ exploit – human psychology.

A) Cross Site Scripting

B) Insecure network

C) Social Engineering

D) Reverse Engineering

Ans:C

35)An attacker may use automatic brute forcing tool to compromise your __________

A) username

B) employee ID

C) system / PC name

D) password

Ans:D

36)_____________ will encrypt all your system files and will ask you to pay a ransom in order
to decrypt all the files and unlock the system.

A) Scareware

B) Ransomware

C) Adware

D) Spyware

Ans:B

37)What types of data are stolen by cyber-criminals in most of the cases?

A) Data that will pay once sold

B) Data that has no value

C) Data like username and passwords only

D) Data that is old

Ans:A

38)The most commonly used session hijacking attack is the _______________

A) IP hacking

B) IP spooling

C) IP spoofing

D) IP tracking

Ans:C

39)Which of them is not an objective of sniffing for hackers?

A) Fetching passwords

B) Email texts

C) Types of files transferred

D) Geographic location of a user

Ans:D

40)What all has to be identified as per risk identification?

A) Threats

B) Vulnerabilities

C) Consequences

D) All of the mentioned

Ans:D

41)RSA_____ be used for digital signature.

A) Must not

B) Can

C) Cannot

D) Should not

Ans:B

42)An assessment answers the basic questions_____________________________________

A) “Where are we?”

B) “Where are we going?”

C) both A and B

D) None of the these

Ans:C

43)A hash function can be called secure if:

(i)The function is one-way. In other words, the function creates a checksum from the information
but you cannot create the information from the checksum.

(ii)It is very difficult to construct two pieces of information that provide the same checksum
when run through the function.

A) only (i)

B) only (ii)

C) both (i) and (ii)

D) none of the these

Ans:C

44)What are the different ways to classify an IDS?

A) Zone based

B) Host & Network based

C) Network & Zone based

D) Level based

Ans:B

45)When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash function value is
referred to as

A) Message Field

B) Message Digest

C) Message Score

D) Message Leap

Ans:B

46)Which of the following is /are offered by the Hash functions?

A) Authentication

B) Non-repudiation

C) Data Integrity

D) All of the these

Ans:D

47)What is a Hash Function?

A) It creates a small flexible block of data

B) It creates a small, fixed block of data

C) It creates a encrypted block of data

D) None of the mentioned

Ans:B

48)The process of information security is a continual process comprised of ¬¬-___________ key

phases.

A) Five

B)Four

C) Six

D)Three

Ans:A

49)What are the characteristics of Host based IDS?

A) The host operating system logs in the audit information

B) Logs includes logins, file opens and program executions

C) Logs are analysed to detect tails of intrusion

D) All of the mentioned

Ans:D

50)When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash function value is
called to as:

A) Message Field

B) Message Digest
C) Message Score

D)Message Leap

Ans:B

51)---------------- is the final step in the information security process.

A) audit

B) training

C) policy

D) implementation

Ans:A

52)Digital signature provides ____________________

A) authentication

B) nonrepudiation

C) both A & B

D) Neither A nor B

Ans:C

53)What are the major components of the intrusion detection system?

A) Analysis Engine

B) Event provider

C) Alert Database

D) All of the these

Ans:D
54)Which of the following are the basic types of Host based IDS(HIDS sensors)

A) Log analyzers

B) system call analyzers

C) Signature-based sensors

D) All of above

Ans:D

55)What are the characteristics of Host based IDS?

A) The host operating system logs in the audit information

B) Logs includes logins, file opens and program executions

C) Logs are analysed to detect tails of intrusion

D) All of the these

Ans:D

56)------------- policy identifies the sensitive information and how sensitive information should
be handled, stored, transmitted and destroyed.

A) Information

B) Security

C) Backup

D) none of above

Ans:A

57)How does an IPS differ from IDS?

A) An IPS detects network attacks, but doesn't issue alerts.

B) An IPS detects network attacks and issues alerts.

C) An IPS responds to network attacks by blocking traffic and resetting connections.

D) An IPS sits inline and monitors traffic.

Ans:C

58)The audit function ensures that controls are ¬¬________________correctly with regard to
policy.

A) Configured

B) Trained

C) both A and B

D) none of the these

Ans:A

59)------------ is the final step in the information security process.

A) Assessment

B) Audit

C) Training

D) Policy

Ans:B

60)What are strengths of Network based IDS?

A) Cost of ownership reduced

B) Malicious intent detection

C) Real time detection and response

D) All of the these

Ans:D
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Internet Security

Branch: Information Technology

Class: BE IT

Semester: VIII

1._______ is the practice and precautions taken to protect valuable information from
unauthorised access, recording, disclosure or destruction.
A.Network Security
B. Database Security
C. Information Security
D. Physical Security

Ans:C

2.From the options below, which of them is not a threat to information security?
A.Disaster
B.Eavesdropping
C. Information leakage
D.Unchanged default password
Ans:D

3. Lack of access control policy is a _____________

A.Bug
B. Threat
C.Vulnerability
D.Attack
Ans:C

4. Possible threat to any information cannot be ________________

A. reduced
B. transferred
C.protected
D. ignored
Ans:D

5. Message ________ means that the sender and receiver expect privacy
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C.authentication
D.none of the above
Ans:A

6. Message_____ meansthat the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C.authentication
D.none of the above
Ans:B

7. ________ means that a sender must not be able to deny sending a

message that he sent.
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Authentication
D. Nonrepudiation

Ans:D

8. Firewalls are to protect against

A. Virus Attacks
B. Fire Attacks
C. Data Driven Attacks
D. Unauthorized Attack
Ans:D

9. Why would a hacker use a proxy server?

A.To create a stronger connection with the target.
B. To create a ghost server on the network.
C. To obtain a remote access connection.
D. To hide malicious activity on the network.

Ans:D

10. What is the purpose of a Denial of Service attack?

A. Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
B. To execute a Trojan on a system
C. To overload a system so it is no longer operational
D. To shutdown services by turning them off

Ans:C

11. What is the most important activity in system hacking?

A. Information gathering
B. Cracking passwords
C. Escalating privileges
D. Covering tracks

Ans – B

12.ln physical security information is carved on stones.

A.True
B.False
Ans:A
13.A firewall is a ______security system:
A.Network
B.File

C.Program

D.None of These

Ans-A

14. Firewalls are used to protect:

A. Home Networks
B.Corporate Networks
C. Both of Above
D. None of These
Ans-C

15. The process of transforming plain text into unreadable text.

A. Decryption
B. Encryption
C. Network Security
D. Information Hiding
Ans:B

16. An algorithm used in encryption is referred to as cipher.

A.True
B. False

Ans:A

17. A process of making the encrypted text readable again.

A. Decryption
B. Encryption
C. Network Security
D. Information Hiding

Ans:A
18. A person who enjoys learning details about computers and how to enhance their
capabilities.
A. Cracker
B. Hacker
C. App controller
D. Site controller

Ans:B

19. A small program that changes the way a computer operates.

A. Worm
B. Trojan
C. Bomb
D. Virus

Ans:D

20. . An attack in which the site is not capable of answering valid request.
A. Smurfing
B. Denial of service
C. E-mail bombing
D.Ping storm

Ans:B

21. Plain text is the data after encryption is performed.

A. True
B. False

Ans:B

22.A unique piece of information that is used in encryption.

A. Cipher
B. Plain Text
C. Key
D. Cipher

Ans:C

23. Study of creating and using encryption and decryption techniques.

A. Cipher
B. Cryptography
C. Encryption
D. Decryption

Ans:B

24. Attack in which a user creates a packet that appears to be something else.
A. Smurfing
B. Trojan
C. E-mail bombing
D. Spoofing

Ans:D

25. Encryption is the study of creating and using decryption techniques.

A. True
B. False

Ans:B

26. An encryption technique with 2 keys is ______________

A. Monoalphabetic Cipher
B. Cryptography
C. Private key cryptography
D. Public key cryptography

Ans:D
27. In public key cryptography, a key that decrypts the message.
A.public key
B. unique key
C. private key
D security key

Ans:C

28. DES stands for?

A. Data Encryption Standard
B. Data Encryption Statistics
C. Data Encryption System
D. Data Encryption Sequence

Ans:A

29. Under DES, the data encryption standard took a 64-bit block of data and
subjected it to ______ levels of encryption.
A. 64
B. 8
C. 16
D. 4

Ans:C

30. Triple-DES has ______ keys.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 4

Ans:B

31.One of the most obvious places to put an IDS sensor is near the firewall. Where
exactly in relation to the firewall is the most productive placement?
A. Inside the firewall

B. Outside the firewall

C. Both

D. None of the above

Ans-A

32.What are the different ways to intrude?

A.Buffer overflows

B.Unexpected combinations and unhandled input

C.Race conditions

D. All of the mentioned

Ans-D

33.What are the different ways to classify an IDS?

A. Zone based

B. Host & Network based

C. Network & Zone based

D.Level based

Ans-B

34.Information security process ends with____

A.Assessment

B.Policy

C.Training

D.Audit

Ans-D

35.What are the drawbacks of the host based IDS?

A. Unselective logging of messages may increase the audit burdens

B. Selective logging runs the risk of missed attacks

C. They are very fast to detect

D.They have to be programmed for new patterns

Ans-A

36.Information security process begins with____

A. Assessment

B. Policy

C. Training

D. Audit

Ans-A

37..From the options below, which of them is not a threat to information security?

A.Disaster

B.Eavesdropping

C. Information leakage

D. Unchanged default password

Ans-D

38.From the options below, which of them is not a vulnerability to information

security?

A flood

B.without deleting data, disposal of storage media

C. unchanged default password

D. latest patches and updates not done

Ans-A

39..Which of the following does authentication aim to accomplish?

A.Restrict what operations/data the user can access
B.Determine if the user is an attacker
C.Flag the user if he/she misbehaves
D.Determine who the user is
Ans-D

40.Which of the following is an authentication method?

A. Secret question
B.Biometric
C.Password
D.All of the above
Ans-D
41. Which is the largest disadvantage of the symmetric Encryption?

A. More complex and therefore more time-consuming calculations

B. Problem of the secure transmission of the Secret Key.
C. Less secure encryption function
D. Isn't used any more.
Ans:B

42. For RSA to work, the value of P must be less than the value of____
A.p
B.q
C.n
D.r
Ans:C

43. Data Encryption Standard (DES), was designed by

A.Intel
B.IBM
C.HP
D..Sony
Ans:B
44. The original message, before being transformed, is
A. Cipher text
B. plaintext
C decryption.
D.None
Ans:B
45. In Asymmetric-Key Cryptography, although RSA can be used to encrypt and
decrypt actual messages, it is very slow if the message is___
A.Short
B.Long
C.Flat
D.Thin
Ans:B
46. In symmetric key cryptography, the key used by the sender and the receiver is
A.Shared
B.Different
C.two keys are used
D.None
Ans:A
47.In symmetric-key cryptography, the same key is used by
A. One Party
B.Multi Party
C.Third Party
D.Both Party
Ans:D
48.In the asymmetric key encryption technique ,the no of keys used in the encryption
& decryption process ___
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Ans:A
49. What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?
A. To think like hackers and know how to defend such attacks
B. To hack a system without the permission
C. To hack a network that is vulnerable
D. To corrupt software or service using malware
Ans:A
50. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is
____________ ethical practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
C. very good social engineering practice
D. a bad
Ans:D
51. Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of
senior authority is a crime.
A. True
B. False
Ans:A
52. _____________ is the technique used in business organizations and firms to
protect IT assets.
A. Ethical hacking
B. Unethical hacking
C. Fixing bugs
D. Internal data-breach
Ans:A
53. After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client
information to other parties.
A. hacking
B. cracking
C. penetration testing
D. exploiting
Ans:C
54. What is the one thing that old hackers were fond of or find interests in?
A. Breaking Other’s system
B. Voracious thirst for knowledge
C. Cracking Phone calls
D. Learning new languages
Ans:B
55.What is data encryption standard (DES)?
A. block cipher
B. stream cipher
C. bit cipher
D byte cipher
Ans:A
56.RSA stands for
A. Rivest Shamir and Adleman

B. Rock Shane and Amozen

C. Rivest Shane and Amozen

D. Rock Shamir and Adleman

Ans:A

57.________ is process of identifying an individual, usually based on username and

password.
A. Authentication
B Authorization
C Either Authentication or Authorization
D None of the above

Ans:A

58. One commonly used public-key cryptography method is the ______ algorithm.
A. RSS
B. RAS
C RSA
D. RAA

Ans:C

59.DES uses a key generator to generate sixteen ----- round keys

A. 32 bit
B. 48 bit
C. 54 bit
D. 42 bit

Ans:B

60. ________ is process of identifying an individual, usually based on username and

password.
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. Either Authentication or Authorization
D.None of the above

Ans:A
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Subject : Data Warehousing & Mining [ 178113 ]

Branch : Computer Science & Engineering

Class : BE (Final Year)

Semester : VIII
Total: 60 Questions with answers

1) Which OLAP operation provides axes rotation

(A) Drill down
(B) Roll up
(C) Slice dice
(D) Pivot
Answer: (D)

2) Data is rapidly stored, retrieved, updated in ___________

(A) FTP
(B) SMTP
(C) OLTP
(D) OLAP
Answer: (C)

3) Which kind of data is stored in Data Warehouse?

(A) Only Current Data
(B) Historical Data
(C) Noisy Data
(D) Invalid data
Answer: (C)

4) OLAP (online analytical processing) is for ____________

(A) Data analysis and decision making
(B) Day to Day transaction
(C) Concurrency Control
(D) None of the above
Answer: (a)

5) Unit of work for OLAP is __________

(A) Simple transaction
(B) Single query
(C) Concurrent transactions
(D) Complex query
Answer: (D)

6) Star schema is composed of __________ fact table

(A) FOUR
(B) TWO
(C) THREE
(D) ONE
Answer: (D)
7) Operation of moving from higher level summarized data to lower level detailed data in data
cube is known as ___________
(A) Roll Up
(B) Drill down
(C) Pivot
(D) Dice
Answer: (B)

8) In Which Data Warehouse Schema some dimension tables are normalized?

(A) Star Schema
(B) Snowflake Schema
(C) ER Schema
(D) OLTP Schema
Answer: (B)

9) The full form of KDD is _____________

(A)Knowledge data definition
(B) Knowledge Database
(C) knowledge discovery from data
(D) knowledge data house
Answer: (C)

10) What is Data Cube

(A)Multidimensional Database
(B) Single Dimensional Data Model
(C) Transactional Data model
(D) A type of database
Answer: (A)

11) What are facts?

(A) Numeric Measures
(B) Boolean Values
(C) Categorical Data
(D) Data types
Answer: (A)

12) What does a fact table contains?

(A) Names of facts and keys to dimensions tables
(B) Only keys to dimension tables
(C) Only names of facts
(D) Fact Values
Answer: (A)

13) What is a concept hierarchy?

(A) A set of mappings from lower conceptual level to higher conceptual level
(B) Sorted data in increasing order
(C) Hierarchy of data types
(D) Sorted data in decreasing order
Answer: (A)
14) How does roll-up operation affect the size of data cube?
(A) It increases the size
(B) It decreases the size
(C) Does not affect the size
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

15) What is noise?

(A) Random error or variance in a measured value
(B) Read only data
(C) Sorted values
(D) Missing values
Answer: (A)

16) Correlation analysis is used for _______________

(A) Eliminating noise
(B) find missing values
(C) identifying redundant attributes
(D) data partitioning
Answer: (C)

17) What is use of data normalization?

(A) It is used to scale the data of an attribute so that it falls in a smaller range
(B) It is used to increase size of data.
(C) It is used for predicting unknown values
(D) It is used for data grouping
Answer: (A)

18) What is clustering?

(A) Process of grouping similar objects
(B) Process of classifying new objects
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

19) Data that are not of interest to the data mining task is called as ______.
(A) missing data.
(B) changing data.
(C) irrelevant data.
(D) noisy data.
Answer: (C)

20) Which of the following is not data pre-processing method?

(A) Data Cleaning
(B) Data Normalization
(C) Data Visualization
(D) Data Reduction
Answer: (A)
21) To detect fraudulent usage of credit cards, following data mining task should be used.
(A) Clustering
(B) Outlier Analysis
(C) Association Mining
(D) Regression
Answer: (B)

22) To identify the truly interesting patterns representing knowledge based on some
interestingness measures is........................
(A) Pattern Extraction
(B) Pattern Analysis
(C) Pattern Modification
(D) Pattern Evaluation
Answer: (D)

23) Which of the following is the entity identification problem?

(A) One person with different email address
(B) One person’s name written in different way
(C) One person with multiple phone numbers
(D) One person with multiple phone numbers
Answer: (B)

24) Removing noise and inconsistent data is.........................

(A) Data merging
(B) Data Cleaning
(C) Data migration
(D) Data Replication
Answer: (B)

25) What is ETL stands for

(A) Extraction Transparent Loading
(B) Extraction Transmission Logging
(C) Engineering Transformation Logging
(D) Extraction Transformation Loading
Answer: (D)

26) Combining multiple data sources referred as ........................

(A) Data Migration
(B) Data Extraction
(C) Data Integration
(D) Data Replication
Answer: (C)

27) Attribute subset selection.........

(A) Removes irrelevant, redundant attributes
(A) Removes relevant attributes
(C) Removes entities with less attributes
(D) adds redundancy
Answer: (A)
28) Which of the following data mining task is known as market basket analysis
(A) Clustering
(B) Classification
(C) Association mining
(D) Regression
Answer: (c)

29) What does Apriori algorithm do?

(A) It mines frequent patterns which satisfies minimum threshold
(B) It mines infrequent patterns
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of above
Answer: (A)

30) Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

(A) Social Network Analysis
(B) Market Basket Analysis
(C) Outlier detection
(D) Intrusion detection
Answer: (B)

31) What is association rule mining?

(A) Same as frequent itemset mining
(B) Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets
(C) Using association to analyse correlation rules
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

32) Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing...............

(A) relevant attributes.
(B) constructed attributes
(C) composite attributes
(D) irrelevant attributes.
Answer: (D)

33) _____________ is data about data.

(A) Metadata
(B) Minidata
(C) Microdata
(D) Bigdata
Answer: (A)

34) The first phase of apriori algorithm is _______

(A) Candidate Generation
(B) Itemset generation
(C) Pruning
(D) Partitioning
Answer: (A)
35) Every non empty subset of frequent itemset must also be frequent.
(A) Association Rule
(B) Data mining property
(C) Metadata property
(D) Apriori property
Answer: (D)

36) The second phase of Apriori algorithm is ____________

(A) Candidate generation.
(B) Itemset generation.
(C) Pruning
(D) Partitioning
Answer: (C)

37) ________is the most well-known association rule mining algorithm and is used in most
commercial products.
(A) Apriori algorithm.
(B) Partition algorithm.
(C) Distributed algorithm
(D) Pincer-search algorithm
Answer: (A)

38) Rule based classification algorithms generate _________ rule to perform the classification.
(A) IF-THEN
(B) While
(C) Do While
(D) Switch
Answer: (A)

39) Data Discretization techniques can be used to ____________the range of continuous

attribute into intervals.
(A) Sum
(B) Divide
(C) Characterize
(D) Tabularize
Answer: (B)

40) What do you mean by support(A)?

(A) Total number of transactions containing A
(B) Total Number of transactions not containing A
(C) Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions
(D) Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions
Answer: (C)

41) Data mining is the application of specific________ for extracting ________ from data.
(A) Data warehouse, transactions
(B) Data mart , valuable
(C) Algorithms, Patterns
(D) Database , Knowledge
Answer: (C)
42) Multiple fact tables share dimension tables is____________
(A) STAR Schema
(B) Snowflake Schema
(C) Flat Relational Schema
(D) Fact Constellation Schema
Answer: (D)

43) Street --> City --> State--> Country This exhibits OLAP operation
_____________________
(A) Roll UP
(B) Drill Down
(C) Dice
(D) Slice
Answer: (A)

44) Gathering data from multiple, heterogeneous, and external sources

(A) Data Extraction
(B) Data Modification
(C) Data Restoration
(D) Data Migration
Answer: (A)

45) The number of iterations in apriori ___________

(A) increases with the size of the data
(B) decreases with the increase in size of the data
(C) increases with the size of the maximum frequent set
(D) decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set
Answer: (C)

46) Reducing the number of transactions scanned in future iterations

(A) Transaction reduction
(B) Attribute Reduction
(C) Data Reduction
(D) None of the Above
Answer: (A)

47) where data relevant to the analysis task are retrieved from the database
(A) Data replication
(B) Data Manipulation
(C) Data Selection
(D) Data Extraction
Answer: (C)

48) A data warehouse is which of the following?

(A) Can be updated by end users.
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.
(C) Organized around important subject areas.
(D) Contains only current data.
Answer: (C)
49) ............................. is the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data
classes or concepts.
(A) Data Reduction
(B) Data Classification
(C) Data Association
(D) Data selection
Answer: (B)

50) Which of the following is data mining tool ?

(A) Borland C
(B) Weka
(C) Auto CAD
(D) Visual C
Answer: (B)

51) Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?

(A) Characterization and Discrimination
(B) Classification and regression
(C) Selection and interpretation
(D) Clustering and Analysis
Answer: (C)

52) Which of the following is not a kind of data warehouse application?

(A) Information processing
(B) Analytical processing
(C) Data mining
(D) Transaction processing
Answer: (D)

53) Hidden knowledge can be found by using _____________

(A) Indexing algorithm
(B) Data mining algorithm
(C) Sorting algorithm
(D) Clues
Answer: (B)

54) The algorithms that are controlled by human during their execution is _______ algorithm.
(A) unsupervised
(B) incremental
(C) batch learning
(D) supervised
Answer: (D)

55) What is true about next two statements 1)-HOLAP contains ROLAP Technology 2)-
HOLAP contains MOLAP technology
(A) only 1 is true
(B) only 2 is true
(C) both are true
(D) both are flase
Answer: (C)
56) Which of the following does not supports multidimensional data view
(A) Star Schema
(B) Snowflake Schema
(C) Fact Constellation Schema
(D) Flat Relational Schema
Answer: (D)

57) MOLAP stands for_____________________

(A) Manual Online Analytical Processing
(B) Modified Online Analytical Processing
(C) Multiple Online Analytical Processing
(D) Multidimensional Online Analytical Processing
Answer: (D)

58) Itemset which passes minimum threshold is called as _____________________

(A)Frequent Itemset
(B) Repetitive Itemset
(C) Redundant Itemset
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

59) Three tier architecture of data warehouse middle tier contains......

(A) Database Tools
(B) Data warehouse servers
(C) Front end tools
(D) OLAP servers
Answer: (D)

60) What is true about next a&b statements a) drill across is not OLAP operation b) drill across
involves multiple fact tables
(A) a is true b is false
(B) a is false b is true
(C) both a and b are true
(D) both a and b are false
Answer: (B)
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Subject:-Software Metrics & Quality Assurance (178141)

Branch: - Computer Science and Engineering

Class: B.E

Semester-VIII

Q1. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?
A) Market
B) Product
C) Technology
D) People

Ans:- A

Q2. The intent of project metrics is:

A) Minimization of Development Schedule
B) For Strategic Purposes
C) Assessing Project Quality On Ongoing Basis
D) Minimization of Development Schedule And Assessing Project Quality On Ongoing Basis

Ans: D

Q3. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?

A) Efficiency
B) Cost
C) Effort Applied
D) All of The Mentioned

Ans: A

Q4. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A) Quality
B) Complexity
C) Reliability
D) All Of The Mentioned

Ans: D

Q5. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___________________
A) Number Of Functions
B) Number Of User Inputs
C) Number Of Lines Of Code
D) Amount Of Memory Usage

Ans: C
Q. 6. Usability can be measured in terms of:
A) Intellectual Skill To Learn The System
B) Time Required To Become Moderately Efficient In System Usage
C) Net Increase In Productivity
D) All of The Mentioned

Ans: D

Q7. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:

A) E – Errors Found Before Software Delivery
B) D – Defects Found After Delivery To User
C) Both E And D
D) Varies With Project

Ans: C

Q8. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in
FPA ?
A) Number of User Input
B) Number of User Inquiries
C) Number of External Interfaces
D) Number of Errors

Ans: D

Q9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known
as
A) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
B) Function Points Analysis
C) Control Chart
D) All Of The Mentioned

Ans: C

Q10. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:

A) Help In Assessment of Status of Ongoing Project
B) Track Potential Risk
C) Help In Assessment of Status of Ongoing Project & Track Potential Risk
D) None of The Mentioned

Ans: C

Q11. Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?
A) Word Token
B) Word Count
C) Word Size
D) Word Length

Ans: B
Q12. How is the complexity of a web page related to link count ?
A) Directly
B) Indirectly
C) No Relation
D) All of The Mentioned

Ans: A

Q13. Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about________ for a web page that is to be
built.
A) Size
B) Complexity
C) Effort
D) All of The Mentioned

Ans: D

Q14. Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between two
or more web pages ?
A) Number of Static Content Objects
B) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C) Web Page Similarity
D) Number of Internal Page Links

Ans: C

Q15. Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page
Similarity ?
A) Content Based
B) Link Based
C) Usage Based
D) Traffic Based

Ans: D

Q16. Link based measures rely on ___________ structure of a web graph to obtain related pages.
A) Embedded
B) Hyperlink
C) Dynamic
D) All of The Mentioned

Ans: B

Q17. Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?

A) Number of Static Content Objects
B) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C) Number of Inherited Objects
D) Word Count

Ans: C
Q18. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
A) Interface Design Metrics
B) Component-Level Metrics
C) Architectural Metrics
D) Complexity Metrics

Ans: D

Q19. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of

A) Analysis Model
B) Testing
C) Design Model
D) Source Code

Ans: B

Q20. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

A) Booch
B) Boehm
C) Albrecht
D) Jacobson

Ans: C

Q21. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six

Ans: C

Q22. Function Point Computation is given by the formula

A) FP = [Count Total * 0.65] + 0.01 * Sum(Fi)
B) FP = Count Total * [0.65 + 0.01 * Sum(Fi)].
C) FP = Count Total * [0.65 + 0.01] * Sum(Fi)
D) FP = [Count Total * 0.65 + 0.01] * Sum(Fi)

Ans: B

Q23. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.

A) Black Box
B) White Box
C) Gray Box
D) Green Box

Ans: A
Q24. Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here?
A) “Fan Check-Out” Of Module I
B) “Fan Check-In” Of Module I
C) “Fan In” Of Module I
D) “Fan Out” Of Module I

Ans: D

Q25. SMI stands for

A) Software Mature Indicator
B) Software Maturity Index
C) Software Mature Index
D) Software Maturity Indicator

Ans: B

Q26. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules

A) In The Current Release
B) In The Current Release That Have Been Changed
C) From The Preceding Release That Were Deleted In The Current Release
D) None Of The Mentioned

Ans: A

Q27. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
A) Reliability
B) Usability
C) Efficiency
D) Functionality

Ans: A

Q28. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software
A) Stated Needs
B) Is Easy To Use
C) Makes Optimal Use of System Resources
D) None of the Mentioned

Ans: B

Q29. Size and Complexity are a part of

A) Product Metrics
B) Process Metrics
C) Project Metrics
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: A
Q30. Cost and schedule are a part of
A) Product Metrics
B) Process Metrics
C) Project Metrics
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: C

Q31. Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a

A) Measurement
B) Measure
C) Metric
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: C

Q32. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality
Factors?
A) Flexibility
B) Reliability
C) Usability
D) Integrity

Ans: A

Q33. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio?
A) Maximum Number Of Nodes At Any Level
B) Longest Path From The Root To A Leaf
C) Number Of Modules
D) Lines Of Control

Ans: D

Q34. Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?
A) Complexity Metrics
B) Cohesion Metrics
C) Morphology Metrics
D) Coupling Metrics

Ans: C

Q35. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of

A) Product Metrics
B) Process Metrics
C) Project Metrics
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: B
Q36. MTTC falls the category of
A) Correctness
B) Integrity
C) Maintainability
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: C

Q37. Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics.
A) Integrity = [Sigma(1 – Threat)] * (1 – Security)
B) Integrity = [1 – Sigma(Threat)] * (1 – Security)
C) Integrity = [1 – Threat * Sigma(1 – Security)].
D) Integrity = Sigma[1 – Threat * (1 – Security)].

Ans: D

Q38. Which of the following is not project management goal?

A) Keeping Overall Costs within Budget
B) Delivering the Software to the Customer at the Agreed Time
C) Maintaining a Happy and Well-Functioning Development Team
D) Avoiding Customer Complaints

Ans: D

Q39. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

A) Specification Delays
B) Product Competition
C) Testing
D) Staff Turnover

Ans: C

Q40. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
A) Project Management
B) Manager Life Cycle
C) Project Management Life Cycle
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: C

Q41. A 66.6% risk is considered as

A) Very Low
B) Low
C) Moderate
D) High

Ans: D
Q42. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of
a software development project?
A) Travel And Training Costs
B) Hardware And Software Costs
C) Effort Costs (The Costs Of Paying Software Engineers And Managers)
D) All Of The Mentioned

Ans: D

Q43. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

A) Team
B) Project
C) Customers
D) Project Manager

Ans: B

Q44. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?
A) Internship Management
B) Change Management
C) Version Management
D) System Management

Ans: A

Q45. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

A) Process Introduction
B) Process Analysis
C) De-Processification
D) Process Distribution

Ans: B

Q46. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
A) Costs of Networking And Communications
B) Costs of Providing Heating And Lighting Office Space
C) Costs of Lunch Time Food
D) Costs of Support Staff

Ans: C

Q47. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

A) Function-Related Metrics
B) Product-Related Metrics
C) Size-Related Metrics
D) None of the Mentioned

Ans: A
Q48. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to
the project cost.
A) Algorithmic Cost Modelling
B) Expert Judgement
C) Estimation by Analogy
D) Parkinson’s Law

Ans: A

Q49. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have
been completed?
A) Algorithmic Cost Modelling
B) Expert Judgement
C) Estimation by Analogy
D) Parkinson’s Law

Ans: C

Q50. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database
programming?
A) An Application-Composition Model
B) A Post-Architecture Model
C) A Reuse Model
D) An Early Design Model

Ans: A

Q51. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
A) CASE Tools
B) Pricing To Win
C) Parkinson’s Law
D) Expert Judgement

Ans: C

Q52. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been
established?
A) An Application-Composition Model
B) A Post-Architecture Model
C) A Reuse Model
D) An Early Design Model

Ans: D
Q53. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC
or FP?
A) FP-Based Estimation
B) Process-Based Estimation
C) COCOMO
D) Both FP-Based Estimation And COCOMO

Ans: D

Q54. COCOMO stands for

A) Constructive Cost Model
B) Comprehensive Cost Model
C) Constructive Cost Estimation Model
D) Complete Cost Estimation Model

Ans: A

Q55. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic
software architecture has been established?
A) Early Design Stage Model
B) Post-Architecture-Stage Model
C) Application Composition Model
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: A

Q56. Which one is not a size measure for software product?

A) LOC
B) Halstead’s Program Length
C) Function Count
D) Cyclomatic Complexity

Ans: D

Q57. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on

A) Cost
B) Time
C) Schedule
D) None of the Mentioned

Ans: D

Q58. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility
A) Confidentiality
B) Intellectual Property Rights
C) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual Property Rights
D) Managing Client Relationships

Ans: C
Q59. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
A) Responsiveness
B) Licensing
C) Memory Utilization
D) Processing Time

Ans: B

Q60. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to

A) Software Companies
B) Software Developers
C) Both Software Companies and Developers
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: C
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Subject: Mobile Computing ()

Branch: Computer Science and Engineering,

Class: BE

Semester: VIII
Q1. In 1997, researchers in AT&T Bell Labs conceived the idea of ________ phones.

A Cellular.

B Mobile.

C CDMA.

D GSM.

Ans.: A

Q2. 3G uses__________ techniques for media access and encoding.

A CDMA.

B Spread Spectrum.

C GPRS.

D GSM.

Ans.: B

Q3. Mobile computing is defined as a ____________environment of physical mobility.

A Computing.

B Data.

C Address Book.

D Information.

Ans.: A

Q4. The device for mobile computing can be either computing or a _________device.

A Mobile.

B Computing.
C Communication.

D Computer

Ans.: C

Q5. In any communication there are_______types of user dialogue.

A Two.

B Three.

C One.

D Four.

Ans.: A

Q6. Wireline networks are generally _________ network and cover wide areas.

A Public.

B Private

C Gobal.

D Network.

Ans.: A

Q7. Mobile network are called_________ network.

A Wired.

B Wireless.

C Co-axial.

D Fibre.

Ans.: B

Q8. Any software layered between a user application and operating system is a __________.

A Middleware.

B Database Middleware.

C Behaviour Management Middleware.

D RPC Middleware.

Ans.: A
Q9. Which of the following is the world's first cellular system to specify digital modulation
and network level architecture.

A GSM.

B AMPS.

C CDMA.

D IS-54.

Ans.: A

Q. 10 Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for__________.

A Global system for mobile.

B Groupe special mobile.

C Global special mobile.

D Groupe system mobile.

Ans.: B

Q. 11 Who set the standards of GSM

A ITU.

B AT&T.

C ETSI.

D USDC

Ans.: C

Q. 12 Which of the following does not come under the teleservices of GSM.

A Standard mobile telephony.

B Mobile originated traffic.

C Base originated traffic.

D Packet switched traffic.

Ans.: D

Q. 13 Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services.

A Emergency calling.
B Packet switched protocols.

C Call diversion.

D Standard mobile telephony.

Ans.: C

Q. 14 Which of the following memory device stores information such as subscriber's

identification number in GSM

A Register.

B Flip flop.

C SIM.

D SMS.

Ans.: C

Q. 15 Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM radio

transmission.

A SIM.

B On the air privacy.

C SMS.

D Packet switched traffic.

Ans.: B

Q. 16 Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM architecture.

A BSS

B NSS

C OSS

D Channel

Ans.: D

Q. 17 ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

A BSS

B NSS

C OSS
D MSC

Ans.: B

Q. 18 Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between mobile station
and MSC.

A BSS

B NSS

C OSS

D BSC

Ans.: A

Q. 19 Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

A TDMA.

B CDMA.

C FDMA.

D None of these.

Ans.: B

Q. 20 The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

A Cell.

B Tessellate.

C Mobile Station.

D None of these.

Ans.: A

Q. 21 In a cellular system, the shape of the cell depends on —–

A Environmental condition.

B Social conditions

C Political condition.

D None of these.

Ans.: A
Q. 22 World’s first cellular system was developed by__________

A Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)

B Bellcore and Motorola

C AT&T Bell Laboratories

D Qualcomm

Ans.: A

Q. 23 Bluetooth technology support__________.

A Piconet.

B Adhoc piconet.

C Scatter net.

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q. 24 Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data between a
variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A An Mobile technology.

B Bluetooth technology.

C Ad hoc Computing

D None of the above.

Ans.: B

Q. 25 In piconet devices connected with the master is called___________.

A Slaves.

B Parked.

C Standby.

D None of these.

Ans.: A

Q. 26 The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —--------.

A Mobility.
B Portability.

C Wireless connectivity.

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q. 27 In a cellular system, the shape of the cell is generally —-------

A Hexagon.

B Circular.

C Square.

D None of these.

Ans.: A

Q.28 Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

A Education.

B Sports.

C Games.

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q. 29 Challenges of mobile computing include ———

A Low Security.

B Ad hoc Networking.

C Shared Medium.

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q. 30 Slow and fast hopping is used in —-

A FHSS.

B GSM.

C GPRS.

D UMTS.
Ans.: A

Q. 31 WiMAX stands for ___________

A wireless maximum communication

B worldwide interoperability for microwave access

C worldwide international standard for microwave access

D wireless internet maximum communication

Ans.: B

Q. 32 WiMAX provides ________

A simplex communication

B half duplex communication

C full duplex communication

D no communication

Ans.: C

Q.33 WiMAX uses the _________

A orthogonal frequency division multiplexing

B time division multiplexing

C space division multiplexing

D channel division multiplexing

Ans.: A

Q. 34 Which of the following modulation schemes is supported by WiMAX?

A binary phase shift keying modulation.

B quadrature phase shift keying modulation.

C quadrature amplitude modulation.

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q. 35 WiMAX is mostly used for __________

A local area network

B metropolitan area network

C personal area network

D wide area network

Ans.: B

Q. 36 IPv6 has a larger address space of _________

A 216

B 2128
C 232

D 28

Ans.: B

Q. 37 In IPv6, real-time audio or video, particularly in digital form, requires resources such
as __________
A Fixed Bandwidth

B Variable Bandwidth

C High Bandwidth

D Low Bandwidth

Ans.: C

Q. 38 The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________

A 10 bytes.

B 25 bytes.

C 30 bytes.

D 40 bytes.

Ans.: D

Q. 39 Which of these functions is called to display the output of an applet?

A display()

B paint()

C displayApplet()

D PrintApplet()
Ans.: B

Q. 40 GPRS stands for?

A General Packet Repair Service

B General Packet Radio Service

C Graphics Packet Radio Service

D None of these.

Ans.: B

Q. 41 GPRS and EDGE supports which 2G standard?

A GSM only

B IS-136 only

C GSM and IS-136 both

D PDC

Ans.: C

Q. 42 MIN stands for_______

A Mobile Identification Number

B Mobile Internet

C Mobility In Network

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q. 43 The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another
is___________

A MSC

B Roamer

C Hand off

D Forward channel

Ans.: C

Q. 44 The 2G cellular network uses__________

A TDMA/FDD

B CDMA/FDD

C Digital modulation formats

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q. 45 3G W-CDMA is also known as__________

A UMTS

B DECT

C DCS-1800

D ETACS

Ans.: A

Q. 46 Commonly used mode for 3G networks is_______

A TDMA

B FDMA

C FDD

D TDD

Ans.: C

Q. 47 The advantage of using frequency reuse is_____

A Increased capacity

B Limited spectrum is required

C Same spectrum may be allocated to other network

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q. 48 Interference in frequency bands may lead to_______

A Cross talk

B Missed calls

C Blocked calls
D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q. 49 Fading is caused due to _____

A Multi path propagation

B Variation in amplitude and phase at receiver

C Obstacles

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q. 50 Doppler spread refers to________

A Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel

B Temporary failure of message transfer

C Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints

D All of the above

Ans.: A

Q. 51 Spread spectrum modulation involves________

A PN sequence for modulation

B Large bandwidth

C Multiple users

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q. 52 Direct sequence spread spectrum demodulation uses_______

A DPSK

B FSK

C ASK

D QPSK

Ans.: A

Q. 53 The digital modulation technique used in frequency selective channels is________

A FSK

B ASK

C BPSK

D QPSK

Ans.: C

Q. 54 WAP is a _______.

A Application Environment for mobile device.

B Common Protocol.

C Both A and B.

D Transport protocol.

Ans.: A

Q. 55 Which of the following is not a property of spread spectrum techniques?

A Interference rejection capability

B Multipath fading

C Frequency planning elimination

D Multiple user, multiple access interface

Ans.: B

Q. 56 Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission _______

A Signal

B Frequency

C Phase

D Amplitude

Ans.: B

Q. 57 DSSS system spreads the baseband signal by ________ the baseband pulses with a
pseudo noise sequence.

A Adding

B Subtracting
C Multiplying

D Dividing

Ans.: C

Q. 58 In cellular telephony, Interim Standard 95 (IS-95), produces data at a basic rate

of_____________.

A 9.6 KBPS

B 9.7 KBPS

C 9.8 KBPS

D 9.9 KBPS

Ans.: A

Q. 59 In cellular telephony, Interim Standard 95 (IS-95), the forward channel uses the
technique___________.

A CDMA

B DSSS

C FHSS

D FDMA

Ans.: A

Q. 60 In Interim Standard 95 forward transmission, the output of the decimator is used

for__________.

A Signaling

B Scrambling

C Framing

D Searching

Ans.: B
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehousing & Mining

Branch: Computer Engineering & Information Security

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Data mining is

AThe actual discovery phase of a knowledge discovery process

B The stage of selecting the right data for a KDD process

C A subject-oriented integrated time variant non-volatile collection of data in

support of management

D None of these

Ans.: A

Q2. Data selection is

AThe actual discovery phase of a knowledge discovery process

B The stage of selecting the right data for a KDD process

C A subject-oriented integrated time variant non-volatile collection of data in

support of management

D None of these

Ans.: B

Q3. Data Warehouse Architecture is having

Afive tier

B four tier

C three tier

D eight tier
Ans.: C

Q4. Dimension table are normalized in

Asnowflake schema

B star schema

Cgalaxy schema

DFact constellation

Ans.: A

Q5. Fact constellation schema is

Acollection of star schema

B also known as galaxy schema

Cboth A and B

Dhaving only one fact table

Ans.: C

Q6. KDD (Knowledge Discovery in Databases) is referred to

ANon-trivial extraction of implicit previously unknown and potentially useful

information from data

B Set of columns in a database table that can be used to identify each record
within this table uniquely

Ccollection of interesting and useful patterns in a database

DNone of these

Ans.: A

Q7. OLAP stands for

Aonline access processing

B online analytical processing

Conline analysis processing

Donline and processing

Ans.: B

Q8. OLTP is having access of

ARead only

B Write only

Cboth

Dhaving no access

Ans.: C

Q9. OLTP stans for

Aonline tally processing

B online transcript processing

Conline transaction processing

DAll of the above

Ans.: C

Q10. Which of the following are OLAP Servers?

AROLAP

B MOLAP

CHOLAP

Dall of the above

Ans.: D

Q11. Which of the following are/is technique/techniques for Data Cleaning

AClustering
B Binning

CRegression

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q12. Which of the following are/is technique/techniques for data

transformation?

ASmoothing of data

B Generalization of data

CNormalization of data

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q13. Which of the following are/is technique/techniques for Numerosity

Reduction?

AHistograms

B Regression and Log-Linear Models

Cboth A and B

DNone of these

Ans.: C

Q14. Which of the following is not a category of measures?

ADistributive

B Algebraic

CHolistic

DSelective

Ans.: D
Q15. Which of the following is not Discretization and Concept Hierarchy
Generation methods for Numerical Data?

AEntropy-Based Discretization

B Interval Merging by Chi square Analysis

CCluster Analysis

DZ-Score

Ans.: D

Q16. Data warehouse systems allow for

A The integration of a variety of application systems

B systematically organizes

Cdata to make strategic decisions

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q17. Data Warehouse is Subject-Oriented because

AA data warehouse is organized around major subjects

B data warehouse is usually constructed

Cuse Data cleaning and data integration techniques

DNone of the above

Ans.: A

Q18. Data Warehouse is Time Variantbecause

AData warehouse data: provide information from a historical perspective

B holds current value data

CContains an element of time, explicitly or implicitly

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q19. What is a data cube?

AA data cube allows data to be modelled and viewed in multiple dimensions

B holds data in cuboidal

Cholds unmodelled data

DNone of the above

Ans.: A

Q20. Day to day operations belongs to

A OLTP

B OLAP

CHOLAP

DMOLAP

Ans.: A

Q21. Data mining can be done of following data

ADataWarehouses

B Transactional Databases

CObject-Relational Databases

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q22. Data Mining Functionalities following patterns can be mined

AConcept/Class Description

B Mining Frequent Patterns

CClassification and Prediction

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q23. Frequent patterns are

ACluster of data

B Are patterns that occur frequently in data

CRegression of values

DAll of the above

Ans.: B

Q24. Integration of a Data Mining System with a Database or Datawarehouse

System can be done with

ALoose coupling

B Semi tight coupling

CTight coupling

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q25. Major Issues in Data Mining are/is

AMining different kind of knowledge in databases

B Interactive mining of knowledge at multiple levels of abstraction

C Presentation and visualization of data mining results

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q26. Outlier in clustering refers to

AData object in one cluster only

B Data object that does not belongs to any cluster

CBoth A and B

DData object that belongs to all clusters

Ans.: B

Q27. Regression analysis is a statistical methodology that is most often used

for

Anumeric prediction

B clustering

C relevance analysis

D All of the above

Ans.: A

Q28. single-dimensional association rules consist of

Aonly one AND connective

B only one OR connective

C Only one predicate

D More than one predicate

Ans.: C

Q29. The output of data characterization can be presented in various forms

as

Apie charts

B Bar charts

C curves

D All of the above

Ans.: D
Q30. Which of the following are/is issues relating to the diversity of database
types?

AHandling of relational and complex types of data

B Mining information from heterogeneous databases and global information

systems

C both A and B

D None of these

Ans.: C

Q31. Which of the following is not a classification technique?

AIF-THEN rules

B Decision tree

C K-means

D Neural network

Ans.: D

Q32. Which of the following is/are Data Mining Task Primitives?

AThe set of task-relevant data to be mined

B The kind of knowledge to be mined

C Both A and B

D Evolution Analysis

Ans.: C

Q33. Which of the following is/are performance issues in data mining?

AEfficiency and scalability of data mining algorithms

B Parallel, distributed, and incremental mining algorithms

C Both A and B
D Z-Score

Ans.: C

Q34. Data cleaning is responsible for

Ato make good data

B to remove noise and inconsistent data

Cto remove empty spaces

Dto delete zeros

Ans.: B

Q35. Data Characterizationis responsible for

Asummarization of the general characteristics or features of a target class of

data

B used to specify the kind of patterns to be found in data mining tasks.

CDescriptive mining tasks characterize the general properties of the data in the
database.

DPredictive mining tasks performs inference on the current data to make

predictions.

Ans.: A

Q36. Data Discrimination is responsible for

AIt is a comparison of the general features of targeting class data objects with
the general features of objects from one or a set of contrasting classes.

B User can specify target and contrasting classes.

CThe user may like to compare the general features of software products
whose sales increased by 10% in the last year with those whose sales
decreased by about 30% in the same duration.

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q37. Association Analysis means

Afrom marketing perspective, determining which items are frequently

purchased together within the same transaction.

B used to specify the kind of patterns to be found in data mining tasks.

CDescriptive mining tasks characterize the general properties of the data in the
database.

DPredictive mining tasks performs inference on the current data in order to

make predictions.

Ans.: A

Q38. Classification is the ___

AThe process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data classes
or concepts for the purpose of being able to use the model to predict the class
of objects whose class label is unknown.

B From marketing perspective, determining which items are frequently

purchased together within the same transaction.

CDescriptive mining tasks characterize the general properties of the data in the
database.

DPredictive mining tasks performs inference on the current data to make

predictions.

Ans.: A

Q39. Clustering analyses is responsible for

AData objects without consulting a known class label.

B In many cases class labelled data may simply not exist at the beginning.

CCan be used to generate class label for the group of data.

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q40. Outlier Analysis is responsible for

AA database may contain data objects that do not comply with the general
behaviour or model of the data.

B Main object in cluster

CBad clusters

DObjects with class

Ans.: A

Q41. Frequent patterns are patterns

AThat appear in a data set frequently

B That appear in data book frequently

CThat appear in database frequently

DThat appear in data office frequently

Ans.: A

Q42. Market basket analysismay help you design

ASoftware

B store layouts

Coffice plan

Dhouse plan

Ans.: B

Q43. Apriori is a seminal algorithm proposed by

AR. Agrawal and R. Srikant

B R. Aadam and R. Swan

CR. Bhuvan and R. Pathak

DR. Jadhav and R. Sivam

Ans.: A

Q44. Association rule mining is finding

Afrequent pattern

B associations

Ccorrelations

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q45. Association rule mining applications are

ABasket data analysis

B cross-marketing

Ccatalog design

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q46. Uniform Support is responsible for

Areduced minimum support at lower levels

B Controlled level-cross filtering by single item

Cthe same minimum support for all levels

DNone of the above

Ans.: C

Q47. Reduced Support is used to

Areduced minimum support at lower levels

B Controlled unlevel-cross filtering by single item

Cthe same minimum support for all levels

DNone of the above

Ans.: A

Q48. Reduced support has following strategy

ALevel-by-level independent

B Level-cross filtering by k-itemset

CLevel-cross filtering by single item

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q49. Improving the Efficiency of Apriori algorithm include

AHash-based technique

B Partitioning

CSampling

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q50. Hash-based technique used to

Aused to reduce the size of the candidate

B used to reduce values of attributes

Cused to reduce size of the table

DNone of the above

Ans.: A

Q51. Transaction reduction is used to

Areducing the numbers

B used to reduce values of attributes

Cused to reduce size of the table

DNone of the above

Ans.: D

Q52. Partitioningresponsible for the

Apartitioning the data to find candidate itemsets and used that requires just
two database scans to mine the frequent itemsets

B cleaning the data to itemsets

Ctransform data

Dprepare data for improvement of Bayes

Ans.: A

Q53. Sampling refers to

Asample the dataset for cleaning

B Transform data in bining

Cpick a random sample S of the given data D, and then search for frequent

itemsets in S instead of D

DBining data in containers

Ans.: C

Q54. Knowledge type constraints is specifying the

AThese specify the type of knowledge to be mined, such

as association or correlation.

B These specify the set of task-relevant data.

CThese specify the desired dimensions (or attributes) ofthe data, or levels of
the concept hierarchies, to be used in mining.
DThese specify thresholds on statistical measures of ruleinterestingness, such
as support, confidence, and correlation.

Ans.: A

Q55. Interestingness constraints is specifying the

AThese specify the type of knowledge to be mined, suchas association or

correlation.

B These specify the set of task-relevant data.

CThese specify the desired dimensions (or attributes) ofthe data, or levels of
the concept hierarchies, to be used in mining.

DThese specify thresholds on statistical measures of ruleinterestingness, such

as support, confidence, and correlation.

Ans.: D

Q56. Data constraintsis specifying the

AThese specify the type of knowledge to be mined, suchas association or

correlation.

B These specify the set of task-relevant data.

CThese specify the desired dimensions (or attributes) ofthe data, or levels of
the concept hierarchies, to be used in mining.

DThese specify thresholds on statistical measures of ruleinterestingness, such

as support, confidence, and correlation.

Ans.: B

Q57. Dimension/level constraintsspecifying the

AThese specify the type of knowledge to be mined, suchas association or

correlation.

B These specify the set of task-relevant data.

CThese specify the desired dimensions (or attributes) ofthe data, or levels of
the concept hierarchies, to be used in mining.

DThese specify thresholds on statistical measures of ruleinterestingness, such

as support, confidence, and correlation.

Ans.: C

Q58. Constraint-based mining contents

ARule constraints

B Cluster Constraints

CClassification Constraints

DMining constraints

Ans.: A

Q59. Which constraints maybe expressed as metarules (rule templates), as

the maximum or minimum numberof predicates that can occur in the rule
antecedent or consequent, or as relationshipsamong attributes, attribute
values, and/or aggregates?

ARule constraints

B Dimension/level constraints

C. Data constraints

DPredication Constraints

Ans.: A

Q60. Apriori algorithm consist

AJoin step

B Prune step

Cboth A & B

Dnone of the above

Ans.: C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Software Metrics & Quality Assurance
Branch: Computer Engineering & Information Technology
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Sr. No. Questions Answer

Measurement helps us to focus on which of the following parameter

A. Understand
1) B. Control D
C. Improve
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not the Cost and Effort Estimation model
A. Boehm’s COCOMO model
2) B. Demarco's Approach B
C. Albrecht’s function model
D. Putnam’s SLIM Model
Which of the followings are the Reliability model
A. Jelinski-Moranda model
3) B. Little Wood model D
C. Little wood Verall Model
D. All of the above
Performance evaluation and models covers
A. Response time
4) B. Completion rates D
C. Internal workings of system
D. All of the above
Capability Maturity Assessment Model (CMM) has how many numbers of
levels
5) A. 3 C
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Which of the following is not the type of empirical relation
A. UnaryB. Binary D
6) C. TernaryD. Machinery
Frankie is taller. This sentence belongs to which type of empirical
Relation? A
7) A. UnaryB. Binary
C. TernaryD. Machinery
Direct measurement of an attribute of an entity involves no other

1
8) attribute or entity.
A. True A
B. False
Indirect measurement of an attribute of an entity involves no other
attribute or entity.
9) A. True B
B. False
Which of the following is not the type of measurement scale?
A. Nominal
10) B. Ordinal D
C. Interval
D. Control
Which of the following is powerful measurement scale
A. Nominal
11) B. Ordinal D
C. Interval
D. Absolute
True Zero element is present in which type of measurement scale?
A. Nominal
12) B. Ordinal C
C. Ratio
D. Absolute
All arithmetic operations are applied to which type of measurement scale?
A. Nominal
13) B. Ordinal C
C. Ratio
D. Absolute
Only addition and subtraction operations are applied to which type of
measurement scale?
14) A. Nominal D
B. Ordinal
C. Ratio
D. Interval

Person A twice as tall as Person B. This statement is

15) A. Meaningful
B. Not Meaningful A
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

The temperature in Shirpur today is twice that in Dhule.

A. Meaningful
16) B. Not Meaningful B
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Collection of software related activities is called as

2
 A. Process
17) B. Product A
C. Resources
D. None of the above
Classifying software metrics does not covers
A. Process
18) B. Product D
C. Resources
D. People
Which of the following is not the external attribute of product
A. Quality
19) B. Reliability D
C. Productivity
D. Software Size
Which of the following is the internal attribute of product
A. Quality
20) B. Reliability D
C. Productivity
D. Software Size
Which of the following is not the aspect of software size?
A. Length
21) B. Functionality D
C. Complexity
D. Quality
Which of the following is not the internal attribute of product?
A. Size
22) B. Structure C
C. Quality
Which of the following is not the type of reuse?
A. Reuse Verbatim
23) B. Slightly Modified D
C. Extensively Modified
D. Complete

Formula for finding function point is

A. FP=UFC*TCF
B. FP=UFC+TCF A
24) C. FP=UFC-TCF
D. FP=UFC/TCF

Logical master file is nothing but the_____

A. External Input
25) B. External Output D
C. External File
D. Internal File
Which of the following is not required to find function points?

3
 A. External Input
26) B. Temporary File B
C. External File
D. External Output
What is the function point FP if UFC=63and FP=0.93?
A. 60
27) B. 59.58 B
C. 58.59
D. 61
COCOMO stands for Constructive Cost Model
A. True A
28) B. False
Full form of COCOMO is
A. Constructive Cost Model
29) B. Cost Constructive Model A
C. Cost Quality Model
D. none of the above
Which of the following is not the measures of Demarco's Approach
A. Function Bang
30) B. Data Bang C
C. Cost Bang
D. None of the above
Which of the following is not the type of complexity?
A. Problem Complexity
31) B. Algorithmic Complexity D
C. Structural Complexity
D. Quality Complexity
Which of the following is not the aspect of structure?
A. Control Flow Structure
32) B. Data Flow Structure D
C. Data Structure
D. None of the above
The node whose out degree is more than 1 is called as
A. Predicated Node
33) B. Procedural Node A
C. Data Node
D. None of the above
Which of the following is not related to operations of flowgraph
A. SequencingB. Nesting C
34) C. Replacement D. None of the above

Morphology refers to overall “shape” of system structure when expressed

pictorially.
35) A. True A
B. False

Morphology characteristic includes

4
 A. Size
36) B. Depth D
C. Width
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not the type of coupling
A. Data Coupling
37) B. Stamp Coupling D
C. Control Coupling
D. Logical Coupling
Which of the following is not the type of cohesion
A. Functional
38) B. Sequential C
C. Control
D. Logical

39)
Above formula used for B
A.Control Flow Structure
B.Tree Impurity Measure
C.Calculation of UFP & TFP
D.None of these
Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reportingfunctions
40) of management A
a) True
b) False
Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
A.help in assessment of status of ongoing project
41) B.track potential risk C
C.help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
D.none of the mentioned
Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made
to the software?
42) A.Project manager C
B.Project team
C.SQA group
D.All of the mentioned

Which metric is related to the software maintenance

43) A.Development B
B.Software
C.Process
D. Product
Software quality assurance consists of which function of management.
A.Reporting functionsB.Auditing functions C
44) C.Both A and B D. All of the above
Which of the following is not included in prevention cost?

5
 A.Equipment calibration and maintenance
45) B.Formal technical reviews A
C.Test equipment reviews
D. Quality planning reviews
Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not
become the defect…
46) A.failure C
B.faults
C.errors
D.none of the mentioned
Select the option which is not an appraisal in SQA?
A.inter-process inspection
47) B.maintenance D
C.testing
D.quality planning
Which phase is considered as software architecture phase..
A.Design
48) B.Implementation A
C.Development
D.Requirement gathering
In which phase the defect is less costly…
A.Coding
49) B.Design C
C.Requirements Gathering
D. Implementation
Select which measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the
term which is called as…
A.Reliability A
50) B.Validity
C.Calibration
D.Ease of use and simplicity
The effort required for modifying an operational program.
A.Availability
51) B.Maintainability D
C.Portability
D.Flexibility
To achieve the software Quality is easily adaptable only with
programming skills?
52) A.True B
B.False
How many levels in the Process Maturity Model
A.6
53) B.5 B
C.4
D. 3
Which one is the level-2 in the process maturity

6
 A.Defined
54) B.Ad-hoc C
C.Repeatable
D. Managed
What is the long form of MTTR
A.Mean time to restore
55) B.Major time to repair D
C.Minimum time to restore
D.Mean time to repair
What is the full form of LOC
A.Lines of Constraints
56) B.Legal of Code D
C.Length of Code
D. Lines of Code
What is the formula of Function Point Calculation (FP)
A.FP = UFC * TCF
57) B.FP = UFC - TCF A
C.FP = UFC + TCF
D. FP = UFC / TCF
Which one is the level-5 in the process maturity
A.Defined
58) B.Optimizing C
C.Repeatable
D. Managed
What is the long form of MTTF
A.Major Time Between Failures
59) B.Mean Time Between Failures B
C.Mean Time Between Fault
D.Minimum Time Between Failures
Which one is the level-3 in the process maturity
A.Defined
60) B.Optimizing D
C.Repeatable
D. Defined

***

7
 Model Question Paper
Subject: iPhone Programming

Branch: Computer Engineering & I. T.

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following framework is not used in iOS ?

AUIKit Framework

BAppKit Framework

CFoundation Framework

DCoreMotion Framework

Ans.: B

Q2. iOS stands for ?

AInternetwork Operating System

BiPhone Operating System

CInternet Operating System

DNone of Them

Ans.: B

Q3. The application has not been launched or was running but terminated by
the device.Determine the current state of App.

ASuspended state

BBackground state

CInactive state

DNot running state

Ans.: D
Q4. Flash Applications is supported in iPhone browsers.Is it true?

AYes

BNo

CIt supports flash applications from apple only

DSupports partially

Ans.: A

Q5.iOS remote push notification is introduced by apple in which version?

AiOS 2.0

BiOS 3.0

CiOS 4.0

DiOS 6.0

Ans.: B

Q6.Which of the following is a default UI property?

Aassign

Bnon-atomic

Catomic

DNone of them

Ans.: C

Q7. Multitasking in iOS was introduced in which version?

AiOS 2.0

BiOS 4.0

CiOS 6.0

DiOS 7.0
Ans.: B

Q8. What is the built-in database used in iOS ?

AMySQL

BSQLite

CApache

DOracle

Ans.: A

Q9. What is the core functionality of iPhone camera?

ARecord Videos

BZoom

CAuto Focus

DMake digital photos

Ans.: D

Q10. Creating a UI (User Interface) in Android requires careful use of

AJava and SQL

BXML and Java

C XML and C++

DDreamweaver

Ans.: B

Q11. The ___________ file specifies the layout of your screen.

ALayout file

BManifest file

CStrings XML
DR file

Ans.: A

Q12.The Iphone has a feature that activates when you rotate the device from
portrait to landscape.

ARotator

BAccelerometer

CShadow detector

DSpecial Sensor

Ans.: B

Q13. Which is not the characteristics of objective c ?

AOnly adds OOP to C

BHas no standard library; is dependent on other libraries

CHas numerous uses

DSimpler way of handling classes and objects

Ans.: C

Q14. NS Coversion character for float is ?

A%g

B%c

C%lg

D%nf

Ans.: A

Q15. Which arithmetic expression has left to right associativity ?

ARelational

BAssignment
Cconditional

Dunary

Ans.: A

Q16. Which of the data types has the size that is variable?

Aint

Bstruct

Cfloat

Ddouble

Ans.: B

Q17.What does the “id” type mean?

AThis is the general type for any kind of object regardless of class

BThis is a type for a specific object of class id

CThis is a type for strings

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q18. What does an Objective-C string literal look like?

A“foo”

B#”foo”

C@”foo”

D$”foo”

Ans.: C

Q19. Can you call C++ code from objective C environment?

AYes, from any .mm file

BYes, from any .m file

C Yes, from any .xib file

DNo, it is not possible

Ans.: A

Q20. Does Objective-C have constructors and destructors?

AYes

BIt depends on the object

CNo, you use init and dealloc on Objective-C

DOnly NSStrings do

Ans.: C

Q21. What is not supported in Objective-C

ARecursive method call

BMethod argument default value

CVariable argument count to method

DByte manipulation

Ans.: B

Q22. Under what section the various functions are declared ?

Ainterface

Bimplementation

Cautorelease

DNSLog

Ans.: A

Q23. Under what section the various functions are defined ?

Ainterface

Bimplementation

Cautorelease

DNSLog

Ans.: B

Q24. What is NSLog ?

AIt is the function that is used to print the logs

BIt is the function that Display or log its argument

CIt is used to run the object.

DIt is the function that system uses to run the program after main

Ans.: B

Q25. What is the use of id datatype in objective c?

AIt is used default datatype

BIt is used to store object of any datatype

CIt is same as integer

DIt is use when some unique number is to be given

Ans.: B

Q26. Which is not a function of IOS

ACarrying network protocols and functions

BConnecting high speed traffic between devices

CProviding scalability for ease of network growth and redundancy

DCreating session between hosts in LAN

Ans.: D
Q27. Command to find the broadcast address from router

Ashow running-config

Bshow startup-config

Cshow interfaces

Dshow protocols

Ans.: C

Q28. What is the Xcode?

AIt is the integrated development environment (IDE) that developer use to

write software for IOS or OS X

BIt is the language most preferred by developer to write programs for apple

CIt is the application

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q29. What is the Objective-C?

AIt is the integrated development environment (IDE) that developer use to

write software for IOS or OS X

BIt is the language most preferred by developer to write programs for apple

CIt is the application

D None of the above

Ans.: B

Q30. What is the Cocoa?

AIt is the integrated development environment (IDE) that developer use to

write software for IOS or OS X

BIt is the language most preferred by developer to write programs for apple
CIt is the application

D None of the above

Ans.: C

Q31. Mention what are the source items used by Xcode?

ASource File

BSource Group, Folder

CFramework

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q32. XCode is the integrated development environment (IDE) that developer

use to write software for IOS or __________ applications ?

AC#

BAndroid

C OS X

D C++

Ans.: C

Q33. Which object is created by the UIApplicationMain function at app

launch time?

AAppMain

BAppDelegate

CUIMain

DNone of these.

Ans.: B

Q34. Which is true about the XCode command line tools?

AIs available free of charge

BIt can be installed without installing XCode.

CIs a self-contained package.

DAll of the above.

Ans.: D

Q35. When we use NSArray?

AWhen data in the array change

BWhen data in the array don't change

CCan only be obtained from a single direct parent class

DNone of these

Ans.: B

Q36. Name the application thread from where UIKit classes should be used?

AApplication's Local Thread

BApplication's Global Thread

CApplication's Deamon Thread

DApplication's Main Thread

Ans.: D

Q37. A special C data type that encapsulates other pieces of data into a single
cohesive unit is called?

Adouble

Bchar

Cint

Dstruct

Ans.: D
Q38. Which of the following is used to design GUI of Apps (Inbuilt feature of
the iPhone SDK) ?

ASimulator

BInstruments

CInterface Builder

DNone of these

Ans.: C

Q39. How many types of Protocols are there?

A5

B3

C2

D4

Ans.: C

Q40. What is resolution of iPad Min in portrait mode?

A1280X720

B768X1024

C720X1280

D1024X768

Ans.: D

Q41. What is meant by Nil?

ANil is meant for class pointers

BNil is meant for function pointers

CNil is meant for variable pointers

DNil is meant for object pointers

Ans.: A

Q42. What is "Protocol" in Objective C?

AA protocol can create new variables at runtime

BA protocol declares methods that can be implemented by any class

CA protocol is used to transfer data from one class to another

DNone of above

Ans.: B

Q43. Which are the app specific objects that stores the app's content?

AData model objects

BClass Objects

CData Driven objects

DDelegates

Ans.: A

Q44.What does DOM stands for?

AData Object Model

BDocument Of Model

CData Of Model

DDocument Object Model

Ans.: D

Q45. What is meaning of "synthesize" keyword ?

Acreate a new variable

Bcreates an empty space for new values

Cdeletes a variable
Dcreates a getter and a setter for the variable

Ans.: D

Q46. Which company owns Iphone?

AGoogle

BMicrosoft

COracle

DApple

Ans.: D

Q47. Iphone OS is based on which language?

AC++

BC

CJava

DBoth (A) and (B)

Ans.: D

Q48.Iphone has its OS under which licence?

AGPL

BBSD

CMPL

DProprietary

Ans.: D

Q49.What is the latest version of Iphone OS?

A 3.1

B 8.4
C 2.0

D 5.0

Ans.: B

Q50.What is the user interface of Iphone OS called?

ATouchwiz

BMobiface

CCocoa

DUniversal Mobile Interface

Ans.: C

Q51. How many generations are there for Iphone OS?

AOne generation

BThree generations

CFour generations

DTwo generations

Ans.: C

Q52. Who is responsible for development of Iphone OS?

ABill Gates

BSteve Jobs

CSteve Ballmer

DBarack Obama

Ans.: B

Q53. Which version of Iphone OS supports video calling and multitasking?

AIphone 3.2
BIphone 4.0

CIphone 5.0

DIphone 2.4

Ans.: B

Q54. When the activity is not in focus, but still visible on the screen it is in?

Arunning state

BPaused state

Cstopped state

Ddestroyed state

Ans.: B

Q55.What is face time in apple ?

ADigital Photos

BVideo Calls

CTaking Videos

DEditing Photos

Ans.: B

Q56. When an activity doesn’t exist in memory it is in.

AStarting state

BRunning state

CLoading state

DInexistent state

Ans.: A

Q57. Which of the following commands displays the syntax for the clock
command?
Acl?

Bclock?

Cclock ?

Dcl ?

Ans.: C

Q58. Which of the following statement is wrong ?

AIBAction is a type qualifier used by IB to enable connection user experience

elements and app code.

BIBAction resolves to void

CIBAction is a macro defined to denote a method that can be referred to in

Interface Builder

D None of the above

Ans.: D

Q59. Which of the following is a default UI property?

Aassign

Bnon-atomic

Catomic

DNone of them

Ans.: C

Q60. First IOS was written in

A 1984

B 1985

C 1986

D 1987
Ans.: C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehousing & Mining

Branch: Computer

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following statement is true?

A.The data warehouse consists of data marts and operational data
B.The data warehouse is used as a source for the operational data
C.The operational data are used as a source for the data warehouse
D.All of the above
Ans.: C

Q2. The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A.Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data
warehouse at periodic times
B.Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the
operational databases
C.The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse
D.A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size
Ans.: A

Q3. A data warehouse is which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end users.
B. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.
C. Organized around important subject areas.
D. Contains only current data.
Ans.: C

Q4. An operational system is which of the following?

A. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on
historical data.
B. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on current
data.
C. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on current
data.
D. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on historical
data.
Ans.: B

Q5. Data transformation includes which of the following?

A. A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level
B. A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level
C. Joining data from one source into various sources of data
D. Separating data from one source into various sources of data
Ans.: A

Q6. __________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile

collection of data in support of management decisions.
A. Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining.
Ans.: B

Q7. Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.
B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System.
Ans.: A
Q8. The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data
found within the data warehouse is___________.
A. subject-oriented.
B. time-variant.
C. integrated.
D. All of the above.
Ans.: D

Q9. __________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans.: C

Q10. Which of the following process includes data cleaning, data integration,
data transformation, data selection, data mining, pattern evaluation and
knowledge presentation?

A. KDD process

B. ETL process

C. KTL process

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q11. At which level we can create dimensional models?

A. Business requirements level

B. Architecture models level

C. Detailed models level

D. Implementation level

Ans.: B

Q12. The full form of OLAP is

A. Online Analytical Processing

B. Online Advanced Processing
C. Online Advanced Preparation
D. Online Analytical Performance

Ans.: A

Q13. The data is stored, retrieved and updated in ....................

A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. SMTP
D. FTP
Ans.: B

Q14. An .................. system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis

by knowledge workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q15. Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing

____________.
A. relevant attributes.
B. irrelevant attributes.
C. derived attributes.
D. composite attributes.
Ans.: B

Q16. Removing duplicate records is a process called _____________.

A. recovery.
B. data cleaning.
C. data cleansing.
D. data pruning.
Ans.: B

Q17._________ is the input to KDD.

A. Data.
B. Information.
C. Query.
D. Process.
Ans.: A

Q18. The KDD process consists of ________ steps.

A. three.
B. four.
C. five.
D. six.
Ans.: C
Q19. Treating incorrect or missing data is called as ___________.
A. selection.
B. preprocessing.
C. transformation.
D. interpretation.
Ans.: B
Q20. Converting data from different sources into a common format for
processing is called as ________.
A. selection.
B. preprocessing.
C. transformation.
D. interpretation.
Ans.: C

Q21. What are the specific application oriented databases?

A. Spatial databases,

B. Time-series databases,

C. Both a & b

D. None of these

Ans.:C

Q22. The Synonym for data mining is

A. Data warehouse

B. Knowledge discovery in database

C. ETL

D. Business intelligence

Ans.: B

Q23. Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?

A. Characterization and Discrimination
B. Classification and regression
C. Selection and interpretation
D. Clustering and Analysis

Ans.: C

Q24...................... is an essential process where intelligent methods are

applied to extract data patterns.
A. Data warehousing
B. Data mining
C. Text mining
D. Data selection

Ans.: B

Q25. The output of KDD is .............

A. Data
B. Information
C. Query
D. Useful information

Ans.: D

Q26. Which statement about outliers is true?

A. Outliers should be identified and removed from a dataset.

B. Outliers should be part of the training dataset but should not be present in
the test data.

C. Outliers should be part of the test dataset but should not be present in the
training data.

D. The nature of the problem determines how outliers are used.

Ans.: D

Q27. ____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business

managers to make proactive, knowledge-driven decisions.
A. Data warehouse.
B. Data mining.
C. Datamarts.
D. Metadata.
Ans.: B

Q28. Data mining is?

A. time variant non-volatile collection of data

B. The actual discovery phase of knowledge

C. The stage of selecting the right data

D. None of these

Ans.: B

Q29. Which of the following can also applied to other forms?

A. Data streams & Sequence data

B. Networked data

C. Text & Spatial data

D. All of These

Ans.: D

Q30. Which of the following is a general characteristic or features of a target

class of data?

A. Data selection

B. Data discrimination

C. Data Classification

D. Data Characterization

Ans.: D

Q31. Data mining is a tool for allowing users to find the hidden relationships
in data.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Ans.: A

Q32. Classification and regression are the properties of…

A. data analysis

B. data manipulation’

C. data mining

D. none of these

Ans.: C

Q33. We define a ______ as a subdivision of a set of examples into a number

of classes.

A. kingdom

B. tree

C. classification

D. array

Ans.: C

Q34. Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects is
named as …

A. classification

B. cluster

C. community

D. none of these

Ans.: B

Q35. Which of the following is true for Classification?

A. A subdivision of a set
B. A measure of the accuracy

C. The task of assigning a classification

D. All of these

Ans.: A

Q36. ............................. is a summarization of the general characteristics or

features of a target class of data.
A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection

Ans.: A

Q37. The full form of KDD is ..................

A. Knowledge Database
B. Knowledge Discovery Database
C. Knowledge Data House
D. Knowledge Data Definition

Ans.: B

Q38. Cluster is

A. Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects

B. Operations on a database to transform or simplify data in order to prepare

it for a machine-learning algorithm

C. Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can

potentially be extracted

D. None of these

Ans.: A

Q39. Hidden knowledge referred to

A. A set of databases from different vendors, possibly using different database

paradigms
 B. An approach to a problem that is not guaranteed to work but performs well
in most cases

C. Information that is hidden in a database and that cannot be recovered by a

simple SQL query.

D. None of these

Ans.: C

Q40. The various aspects of data mining methodologies is/are ...................

i) Mining various and new kinds of knowledge

ii) Mining knowledge in multidimensional space

iii) Pattern evaluation and pattern or constraint-guided mining.

iv) Handling uncertainty, noise, or incompleteness of data

A. i, ii and iv only

B. ii, iii and iv only

C. i, ii and iii only

D. All i, ii, iii and iv

Ans.: D

Q41. Which of the following is NOT a valid association rule?

A. A -> B

B. B -> A

C. A -> D

D. D -> A

Ans.: C

Q42. The left hand side of an association rule is called __________.

A. consequent.
B. onset.
C. antecedent.
D. precedent.
Ans.: C
Q43. The right hand side of an association rule is called _____.
A. consequent.
B. onset.
C. antecedent.
D. precedent.
Ans.: A

Q44. All set of items whose support is greater than the user-specified
minimum support are called as _____________.
A. border set.
B. frequent set.
C. maximal frequent set.
D. lattice.
Ans.: B

Q45. Apriori algorithm is otherwise called as __________.

A. width-wise algorithm.
B. level-wise algorithm.
C. pincer-search algorithm.
D. FP growth algorithm.
Ans.:B
Q46. The APriori algorithm is a ___________.
A. top-down search.
B. breadth first search.
C. depth first search.
D. bottom-up search.
Ans.: D
Q47. The first phase of APriori algorithm is _______.
A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.
Ans.: A
Q48. The second phase of APriori algorithm is ____________.
A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.
Ans.: C

Q49. After the pruning of apriori algorithm, _______ will remain.

A. Only candidate set.
B. No candidate set.
C. Only border set.
D. No border set.
Ans.: B

Q50. The FP-growth algorithm has ________ phases.

A. one.
B. two.
C. three.
D. four.
Ans.: B

Q51. A frequent itemset is one which satisfies the:

A. Support criteria

B. Confidence criteria

C. Both support and confidence criteria

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q52. The minimum support is 60% and the minimum confidence is 80%.

Trans_id Itemlist

T1 {F, A, D, B}

T2 {D, A, C, E, B}

T3 {C, A, B, E}
T4 {B, A, D}

The 1-itemsets that satisfy the support criteria are:

A. {A}, {B}, {C}, {D}

B. {A}. {B}, {C}

C. {A}, {B}

D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q53. Association rules are always defined on ________.

A. Binary attribute.

B. Single attribute.

C. Relational database.

D. Multidimensional attribute.

Ans.: A

Q54. The apriori property means

A. If a set cannot pass a test, all of its supersets will fail the same test as well

B. To improve the efficiency the level-wise generation of frequent item sets

C. If a set can pass a test, all of its supersets will fail the same test as well

D. To decrease the efficiency the level-wise generation of frequent item sets

Ans.: B

Q55. A frequent pattern tree is a tree structure consisting of ________.

A. an item-prefix-tree.
B. a frequent-item-header table.
C. a frequent-item-node.
D. both A & B.
Ans.: D
Q56. The partition algorithm uses _______ scans of the databases to discover
all frequent sets.
A. two.
B. four.
C. six.
D. eight.
Ans.: A

Q57. The basic idea of the apriori algorithm is to generate________ item sets
of a particular size & scans the database.

A. candidate.
B. primary.
C. secondary.
D. superkey.

Ans.: A

Q58. ________is the most well known association rule algorithm and is used
in most commercial products.
A. Apriori algorithm.
B. Partition algorithm.
C. Distributed algorithm.
D. Pincer-search algorithm

Ans.: A

Q59. An algorithm called________is used to generate the candidate item sets

for each pass after the first.
A. apriori.
B. apriori-gen.
C. sampling.
D. partition.

Ans.: B

Q60. The number of iterations in apriori ___________ Select one:

A. increases with the size of the data

B. decreases with the increase in size of the data

C. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set

D. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set

Ans.: C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Internet Security

Branch: Information Technology

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. The Certificate_request massage includes two parameters, one of which

is-

ACertificate_extension

BCertificate_creation

CCertificate_exchange

DCertificate_type

Ans.: D

Q2. Which of the following is an independent malicious program that need

not any host program?

A Trap Doors

B Trojan Horse

C Virus

D Worm

Ans.: D

Q3. Keyloggers are a form of

ASpyware

BShoulder Surfing

CTrojan

DSocial Engineering
Ans.: A

Q4. From the options below, which of them is not a threat to information
security?

ADisaster

BEavesdropping

CInformation leakage

DUnchanged default password

Ans.: D

Q5. What is a mantrap?

AA trusted security domain

BA mechanism for logical accessing control

CA double-door room used for physical access control

DA device for fire suppression

Ans.: C

Q6. _____ platforms are used for safety and protection of information in the
cloud.

ACloud workload protection platforms

BCloud security protocols

CAWS

DOne Drive

Ans.: A

Q7. Which of the following is not a control category in a physical security

program?

ADeterrence and delaying

BResponse and detection

CAssessment and detection

DDelaying and lighting

Ans.: D

Q8. Which data communication method is used to send data over a serial
communication link?

Asimplex

Bhalf duplex

Cfull duplex

Dall of these

Ans.: C

Q9. In networking terminology UTP means

AUnshielded Twisted pair

BUbiquitous Teflon port

CUniformly Terminating port

DUnshielded T-connector port

Ans.: A

Q10. Which of the following is possible in a token passing bus network?

Ain-service expansion

Bunlimited number of stations

Cboth (a) and (b)

Dunlimited distance

Ans.: A

Q11. In RSA, Ф(n) = _______ in terms of p and q.

A(p)/(q)

B(p)(q)

C(p-1)(q-1)

D(p+1)(q+1)

Ans.: C

Q12. ___________ is widely used today for protecting data in transit in a

variety of applications such as data transfer on the Internet, and on cellular
phone networks.

AEncryption

BData mining

CInternet Security

DArchitectural security

Ans.: A

Q13. In which of the following encryption key is used to encrypt and decrypt
the data?

APublic key

BPrivate key

CSymmetric key

DAsymmetric key

Ans.:C

Q14. Encryption of small values, such as identifiers or names, is made

complicated by the possibility of __________

ADictionary attacks

BDatabase attacks

CMinor attacks
DRandom attacks

Ans.: A

Q15. The DES Algorithm Cipher System consists of ____________rounds

(iterations) each with a round key

A12

B18

C9

D16

Ans.: D

Q16. Which of the following is not a type of symmetric-key cryptography

technique?

ACaesar cipher

BData Encryption Standard (DES)

CDiffie Hellman cipher

DPlayfair cipher

Ans.: C

Q17. In the RSA algorithm, we select 2 random large values ‘p’ and ‘q’. Which
of the following is the property of ‘p’ and ‘q’?

Ap and q should be divisible by Ф(n)

Bp and q should be co-prime

Cp and q should be prime

Dp/q should give no remainder.

Ans.: C

Q18. The process of transforming plain text into unreadable text.

ADecryption

BEncryption

CNetwork Security

D Information Hiding

Ans.: B

Q19. For p = 11 and q = 19 and choose e=17. Apply RSA algorithm where
message=5 and find the cipher text.

AC=80

BC=92

CC=56

DC=23

Ans.: A

Q20. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by ______

ASender

BReceiver

CSender & Receiver

Dall devices connected

Ans.: B

Q21. From where the term ‘hacker’ first came to existence?

AMIT

BStanford University

CCalifornia

DBell’s Lab

Ans.: A
Q22. What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?

ATo think like hackers and know how to defend such attacks

BTo hack a system without the permission

CTo hack a network that is vulnerable

DTo corrupt software or service using malware

Ans.: A

Q23. _______ is the oldest phone hacking techniques used by hackers to

make free calls

APhishing

BSpamming

CPhreaking

DCracking

Ans.: C

Q24. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is

____________ ethical practice.

Aa good

Bnot so good

Cvery good social engineering practice

Da bad

Ans.: D

Q25. ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular

automated tools for unethical hacking.

AAutomated apps

BDatabase software
CMalware

DWorms

Ans.: C

Q26. A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the ___________ &
___________ requirements of a firm while evaluating the security postures.

Aprivacy and security

Brules and regulations

Chacking techniques

Dethics to talk to seniors

Ans.: A

Q27. Which is not an objective of network security?

AIdentification

BAuthentication

CAccess Control

DLock

Ans.: D

Q28. Which of these is a part of network identification?

AUser ID

BPassword

COTP

DFingerprint

Ans.: A

Q29. The process of verifying the identity of a user.

AAuthentication
BIdentification

CValidation

DVerification

Ans.: A

Q30. Security features that control that can access resources in the OS.

AAuthentication

BIdentification

CValidation

DAccess control

Ans.: D

Q31. Which of the following is a class of computer threat?

APhishing

BSoliciting

CDoS attacks

DStalking

Ans.: C

Q32. __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and
provides different theories and a principle regarding the view-points about
what is right and wrong.

ASocial ethics

BEthics in cyber-security

CCorporate ethics

DEthics in black hat hacking

Ans.: D
Q33. ________ helps to classify arguments and situations, better understand
a cyber-crime and helps to determine appropriate actions.

ACyber-ethics

BSocial ethics

CCyber-bullying

DCorporate behaviour

Ans.: A

Q34. The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of
personal data.

AEthical hacking

BUnethical hacking

CFixing bugs

DInternal data-breach

Ans.: A

Q35. ___________ is an activity that takes place when cyber-criminals

infiltrates any data source and takes away or alters sensitive information.

AData-hack

BData-stealing

CDatabase altering

DData breach

Ans.: D

Q36. Which of these is not a step followed by cyber-criminals in data

breaching?

AResearch and info-gathering

BAttack the system

CFixing the bugs

DExfiltration

Ans.: C

Q37. What types of data are stolen by cyber-criminals in most of the cases?

AData that will pay once sold

BData that has no value

CData like username and passwords only

DData that is old

Ans.: A

Q38. ___________ will give you an USB which will contain ___________ that
will take control of your system in the background.

AAttackers, Trojans

BWhite hat hackers, antivirus

CWhite hat hackers, Trojans

DAttackers, antivirus

Ans.: A

Q39. _____________ will encrypt all your system files and will ask you to pay
a ransom in order to decrypt all the files and unlock the system.

AScareware

BRansomware

CAdware

DSpyware

Ans.:B
Q40. An attacker may use automatic brute forcing tool to compromise your
__________

Ausername

Bemployee ID

Csystem / PC name

Dpassword

Ans.: D

Q41. Information security is a __________ process to manage risk.

AProactive

BReactive

Cboth A and B

Dnone of the these

Ans.: A

Q42. The process of information security is a continual process comprised of -

___________ key phases.

AFive

BFour

CSix

DThree

Ans.: A

Q43. A hash function can be called secure if:

(i) The function is one-way. In other words, the function creates a

checksum from the information but you cannot create the
information from the checksum.
 (ii) It is very difficult to construct two pieces of information that
provide the same checksum when run through the function.
Aonly (i)

Bonly (ii)

Cboth (i) and (ii)

Dnone of the these

Ans.: C

Q44. When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the

hash function value is called to as:

AMessage Field

BMessage Digest

CMessage Score

DMessage Leap

Ans.: B

Q45. hash functions are MD5, which produces a ________ checksum

A160 bits

B100bits

C64bits

D128-bit

Ans.: D

Q46. Which of the following is /are offered by the Hash functions?

AAuthentication

BNon-repudiation

CData Integrity
DAll of the these

Ans.: D

Q47. SHA-l has a message digest of

A160 bits

B512 bits

C628 bits

D820 bits

Ans.: A

Q48. A digital signature needs a ____________________

Aprivate-key system

Bshared-key system

Cpublic-key system

DAll of the these

Ans.: C

Q49. A hash function guarantees integrity of a message. It guarantees that

message has not be ____________

AReplaced

BOver view

CChanged

DLeft

Ans.: C

Q50. A digital signature is ________________________.

Aa bit string giving identity of a correspondent

Ba unique identification of a sender

Can authentication of an electronic record by tying it uniquely to a key only a
sender knows

Dan encrypted signature of a sender

Ans.: C

Q51. A digital signature is required______________________.

(i) to tie an electronic message to the sender’s identity

(ii) for non-repudiation of communication by a sender
(iii) to prove that a message was sent by the sender in a court of law
(iv) in all e-mail transactions
Ai and ii

Bi, ii and iii

Ci, ii, iii, and iv

Dii, iii, iv

Ans.: B

Q52. Digital signature provides ____________________

Aauthentication

Bnonrepudiation

Cboth A & B

DNeither A nor B

Ans.: C

Q53. What are the major components of the intrusion detection system?

AAnalysis Engine

BEvent provider

CAlert Database
DAll of the these

Ans.: D

Q54. What are the different types of IDS?

AZone based

BHost & Network based

CNetwork & Zone based

DLevel based

Ans.: B

Q55. What are the characteristics of Host based IDS?

AThe host operating system logs in the audit information

BLogs includes logins, file opens and program executions

CLogs are analysed to detect tails of intrusion

DAll of the these

Ans.: D

Q56. What are strengths of Network based IDS?

ACost of ownership reduced

BMalicious intent detection

CReal time detection and response

DAll of the these

Ans.: D

Q57. How does an IPS differ from IDS?

AAn IPS detects network attacks, but doesn't issue alerts.

BAn IPS detects network attacks and issues alerts.

CAn IPS responds to network attacks by blocking traffic and resetting
connections.

DAn IPS sits inline and monitors traffic.

Ans.: C

Q58. Which of the following detection mechanisms might an IPS employ?

Apacket anomaly detection

Bgeneric pattern matching

CTCP connection analysis

DAll of the these

Ans.: D

Q59. An assessment answers the basic questions________________________

A“Where are we?”

B“Where are we going?”

Cboth A and B

DNone of the these

Ans.: C

Q60. The audit function ensures that controls are _______________correctly

with regard to policy.

AConfigured

BTrained

Cboth A and B

Dnone of the these

Ans.: A
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Mobile Computing

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for
the GSM system in mobile computing?

A.SIM

B. HLR

C. ELR

D. VLR

Ans.: A

Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number –

MSISDN?

A. Home location register

B. Visitor location register

C. Entity equipment register

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q3. The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

A. Cell

B. Tessellate

C. Mobile station

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q4. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell depends on —–

A. Environmental conditions

B. Social conditions

C. Political conditions

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q5. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

A. Handover

B. Infrastructure

C. Frequency planning

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q6. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over
the cellular network system?

A. GSM

B. GPRS

C. TCP

D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q7. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

A. Bearer

B. Supplementary

C. Telephony
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q8. Bluetooth Technology supports

A. Piconet

B. Ad hoc piconet

C. Scatter net

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q9. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data
between a variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A. Mobile technology

B. Bluetooth Technology

C Ad hoc computing

D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q10. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

A. Master

B. Parked

C. Standby

D. Slave

Ans.: A

Q11. Which of the following uses high-frequency radio waves instead of

cables for connecting the devices in LAN?

A. Wired LAN
B. Wireless LAN

C. Fiber made LAN

D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q12. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

A. IEEE 802.2

B. IEEE 802.11

C. IEEE 802.5

D. IEEE 802.15

Ans.: B

Q13. Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

A. Flexibility

B. Ease of use

C. Robustness

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q14. Disadvantages of WLANs include —–

A. Interference and noise

B. Slower than wired

C. Greater care is needed for encryption

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q15. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

A. Slaves

B. Parked

C. Standby

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q16. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —

A. Mobility

B. Portability

C. Wireless connectivity

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q17. Which of the following is the base of most mobile communications?

A. GSM

B. GPRS

C. CDMA

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q18. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?

A. TDMA

B. FDMA

C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

Ans.: C
Q19. Group of cells without overlapping gaps is called ——

A. Cell

B. Tessellate

C. Mobile station

D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q20. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell is generally —–

A. Hexagon

B. Circular

C. Square

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q21. Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

A. Education

B. Sports

C. Games

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q22. Challenges of mobile computing include ———

A. Low Security

B. Ad hoc Networking

C. Shared medium

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q23. The overlapping portion of two piconets is called——–

A. Piconet

B. Ad hoc piconet

C. Scatter net

D. All of the above

Ans.: C

Q24. Bluetooth technology is used for —-

A. Connection of peripheral devices

B. Ad-hoc networking

C. Bridging network gaps

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q25. In Bluetooth which of the following device follow the hopping

sequence?

A. Master

B. Parked

C. Standby

D. Slave

Ans.: D

Q26. Electronic commerce transactions that are conducted with a mobile

device are

A. Mobile Commerce (M-Commerce)

B. Mobile Portal
C. Location-Based Commerce (L-Commerce)

D. Mobile Computing

Ans.: A

Q27. A wireless technology that allows manufacturers to attach tags with

antennas and computer chips to goods and then track their movement
through radio signals

A. Near-Field Communication (NFC)

B. Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN)

C. Wireless Fidelity (WiFi)

D. Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID) Technology

Ans.: D

Q28. Chip technology that enables shirt-range connections between wireless

devices

A. Wireless

B. Hotspot

C. Voice Portal

D. Bluetooth

Ans.: D

Q29.A real-time connection between a mobile decide and other computing

environments, such as the Internet and an intranet

A. Mobile Wallet

B. Mobile Computing

C. Pervasive Computing

D. Mobile Portal

Ans.: B
Q30.Phones the provide two-way radio communications over a cellular
network of base stations with seamless handoffs

A. Bluetooth

B. Infrared

C. Cellular Phones

D. Mobile Wallet

Ans.: C

Q31. 3G W-CDMA is also known as

A. UMTS

B. DECT

C. DCS-1800

D. ETACS

Ans.: A

Q32. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify
digital modulation and network level architecture?

A.GSM

B. AMPS

C. CDMA

D. IS-54

Ans.: A

Q33. Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

A. Global system for mobile

B. Groupe special mobile

C. Global special mobile

D .Groupe system mobile

Ans.: B

Q34. Who sets the standards of GSM?

A. ITU

B. AT & T

C. ETSI

D. USDC

Ans.: C

Q35. Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?

A. Emergency calling

B. Packet switched protocols

C. Call diversion

D. Standard mobile telephony

Ans.: C

Q36. Which of the following memory device stores information such as

subscriber’s identification number in GSM?
A. Register

B. Flip flop
C. SIM

D. SMS

Ans.: C

Q37. Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM
architecture?

A. BSS
B. NSS

C. OSS

D. Channel

Ans.: D

Q38. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between

mobile station and MSC?

A. BSS

B. NSS

C. OSS

D. BSC

Ans.: A

Q39. ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

A. BSS

B. NSS

C. OSS

D. BSC

Ans.: B

Q40. __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.

A. BSS

B. NSS

C. OSS

D. BSC

Ans.: C

Q41. A GPRS Network is a part of ____ in GSM network.

A. BTS

B. BSS

C. NSS

D. VLR

Ans.: C

Q42. Which is the organization providing standards for GPRS network?

A. ANSI

B. ETSI

C. 3GPP

D. UMTS
Ans.: C
Q43. Which is the main protocol that transfers packets in a GPRS Core
network?

A. GTP

B. SSTP

C. SCTP

D. None

Ans.: A

Q44. A GPRS Network works same in _____.

A.2G
B.3G
C.2G and /or 3G
D. 4G
Ans.: C
Q45.What is the interface between BSC and SGSN in a GPRS Network
Structure?

A. Ga

B. Gb

C. Gc

D. Gd

Ans.: B

Q46. What is the interface between SGSN and GGSN in a GPRS network?

A. Ga

B. Gb

C. Gn

D. Gd

Ans.: C

Q47. What is the interface between GGSN and Inter-PLMN GPRS network?

A. Ga

B. Gb

C. Gp

D. Gd

Ans.: C

Q48. What is the interface between GGSN and External Packet Network(
Internet ) in a GPRS structure?

A. Ga

B. Gb

C. Gp
D. Gi

Ans.: D

Q49. What is the interface between SGSN and MSC/VLR in a GPRS network?

A. Gs

B. Gb

C. Gp

D. Gd

Ans.: A

Q50. The Gb interface in a GRPS network uses which protocol?

A. Frame Relay

B. IP

C. Frame Realy or IP protocol

D.None

Ans.: C

Q51. The Gd interface in a GPRS network uses which protocol?

A.MAP 1 (MAP- Message Application Protocol)
B.MAP 2
C.MAP 3
D. All MAP1, MAP2 and MAP3
Ans.: D

Q52. GPRS stands for?

A. General Packet Repair Service

B. General Packet Radio Service

C. Graphics Packet Radio Service

D. None

Ans.: B

Q53. What is the data rate or speed offered by a GPRS connection?

A.56-115kbps

B.9-256kbps

C.64-128kbps

D.None

Ans.: A

Q54. GPRS services belong to which generation?

A.1G
B.2G
C.3G
D.4G
Ans.: B

Q55. Choose a correct abbreviation below.

A. SGSN - Serving GPRS Support Node

B. GGSN - Gateway GPRS Support Node

C. IP - Internet Protocol

D. All

Ans.: D

Q56. GPRS uses which unused channels for transportation of Data in general?
A.SDCCH
B.BCCH
C.TCH
D.SCH
Ans.: C

Q57. Which system in a GPRS architecture collects all Charging (Billing)

records for final processing?

A.SGSN

B.GGSN

C.CH (Charging Gateway)

D.None

Ans.: C

Q58. What are the main parts of a Mobile Station in a GSM Network?

A.MT - Mobile Terminal

B.SIM - Subscriber Identity Module

C.Both A and B

D.None

Ans.: C

Q59. What are the three main parts of a GSM Architecture or Structure?

A. Mobile Station

B.BSS - Base Station Subsystem

C.NSS - Network and Switching Subsystem

D.All the above

Ans.: D

Q60. Each Mobile Terminal is identified by a unique ______ number?

A.IMEI

B.SIM
C.IMSI

D.None

Ans.: A
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Cloud Computing

Branch: Information Technology

Class: BE IT

Semester: VIII

1) In Cloud computing abstracts the details of system implementation from users and developers,
This Concept is known as ___________

(A)Abstraction

(B) Encapsulation

(C) Hiding

(D)Inheritance

Ans. A

2) Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of resources?

((A) Polymorphism

(B) Abstraction

(C) Virtualization

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. C

3) Which of the following is not a Cloud Service provider

(A) Amazon Web Services

(B) Azure Platform

(C) Google

(D) Facebook Services

Ans. D
4) The __________ model originally did not require a cloud to use virtualization to pool
resources.

(A) NIST

(B)NEFT

(C)NIT

(D)None of these

Ans. A

5) The ------------ model originally did not require a cloud to use virtualization to pool resources.

(A) NEFT

(B) NIST

(C) NIT

(D)All of the mentioned

Ans. B

6) How many types of dimensions exist in Cloud Cube Model?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Ans. D

7) ________ refers to the location and management of the cloud’s infrastructure.

(A) Deployment

(B) Service

(C) Application

(D) None of these

Ans. A
8) Which of the following is deployment model?

(A) public

(B) private

(C) hybrid

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. D

9) Which of the following is NOT deployment model?

(A) Autonomous

(B) Public

(C) Private

(D) Hybrid

Ans. A

10) --------------- cloud is one where the cloud has been organized to serve a common function or
purpose.

(A) Public

(B) Private

(C) Community

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. C

11) --------- model consists of the particular types of services that you can access on a cloud
computing platform.

(A) Service

(B) Deployment

(C) Application

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. A
12) SaaS stands for?

(A) Software as a service

(B) System Software and services

(C) Software as a system

(D) System as a service

Ans. A

13) A service that concentrates on hardware follows the ----------- as a Service model.

(A) IaaS

(B) CaaS

(C) PaaS

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. A

14) _______ Number of dimensions exists in Cloud Cube Model?

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D)1

Ans. A

15) In ------- a client can provision computer resources without the need for interaction with
cloud service provider personnel.

(A) On-demand self-service

(B) Broad network access

(C) Resource pooling

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. A
16) _______ model attempts to categorize a cloud network based on four dimensional factors.

(A) Cloud Cube

(B) Cloud Pyramid

(C) Cloud Square

(D) Cloud Services

Ans. A

17) Which of the following is the most important area of concern in cloud computing?

(A) Security

(B) Storage

(C) Scalability

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. A

18) Which of the following can be identified as cloud?

(A) Hadoop

(B) Intranet

(C) Web Applications

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. A

19) The ---------- is something that you can obtain under contract from your vendor.

(A) PoS

(B) QoS

(C) SoS

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. B
20) Which of the following is given by Cloud Cube Model's ownership dimension

(A) Proprietary

(B) Owner

(C) Service Provider

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. B

21) A composable Component of Cloud Computing stack are

(A) Modular

(B) Stateless

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. C

22) The Vendors of Infrastructure as a Service are -----------

(A) Amazon Web Services

(B) GoGrid

(C) Rackspace

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. D

23) Which of the following component is called hypervisor?

(A) VGM

(B) VMc

(C) VMM

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. C

24) _________ is designed specifically to run connected to the cloud as a dedicated cloud client.
(A) Harvera Tablet OS

(B) Fedora Netbook OS

(C)Jolicloud Netbook OS

(D ) None of the mentioned

Ans. C

25) ----------- hypervisor virtual machine that includes a a NetBeans Integrated Development
Environment (IDE)

(A) Sun xVM

(B) VGM

(C) VMc

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. A

26) ------------ services offer all the hosted hardware and software needed to build and deploy
Web applications.

(A) Salesforce.com’s Force.com Platform

(B) Windows Azure Platform

(C) Google Apps and the Google AppEngine

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. D

27) Many platforms offer user interface development tools based on

(A) HTML

(B) JavaScript

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. C

28) Which of the following is a third-party VPN based on Google’s GoogleTalk?

(A) Hotspot VPN

(B) Gbridge

(C) AnchorFree Hotspot Shield

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. B

29) Applications such as a Web server or database server that can run on a virtual machine image
are referred to as

(A) HTML

(B) virtual appliances

(C) Applications

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. B

30) ------- offers virtual appliances, including ones based on Windows, all of which run on
VMware Player.

(A) Bagvapp

(B) HelpdeskLive

(C) Jcinacio

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. A

31) --------- is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor.

(A) Imaging

(B) Parallels

(C) QEMU

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. C
32) Which of the following lets a Web service advertise itself in terms of a collection of
endpoints?

(A) WSDL

(B) VMc

(C) SOAP

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. A

33) Which of the following is a virtual machine technology now owned by Oracle that can run
various operating systems?

(A) Vmachines

(B) VirtualBox

(C) ThoughtPolice

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. B

34) -------- hosts a variety of appliances that includes Linux distros, server software, and other
products.

(A) Jumpbox

(B) Parallels

(C) Ken

(D) API

Ans. B

35) ---------- is an open-source virtual appliance installation and management service.

(A) Jumpbox

(B) ThoughtPolice

(C) Parallels

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. A

36) --------- is a specification for multicast discovery on a LAN

(A) WS-Addressing

(B) WS-Discovery

(C) WS-Eventing

(D) WS-Federation

Ans. B

37) __________ is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor.

(A) Imaging

(B) Parallels

(C) QEMU

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. C

38) What are the basic methods for secure connection?

(A) SSL

(B) FTPS

(C) IPsec

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. D

39) -------- are the Remote data transfer protocol

(A) Microsoft RDP

(B) Citrix ICA

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. C
40) Which OS incorporates a sandbox architecture for running applications and also performs
automatic updates.

(A) Jolicloud Netbook OS

(B) Chromium OS

(C) Windows

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. B

41) Which of the following is(are) best known service model(s) ?

(A) SaaS

(B) IaaS

(C) PaaS

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. D

42) ---------- is a complete operating environment with applications, management, and the user
interface.

(A) IaaS

(B) SaaS

(C) PaaS

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. B

43) Which of the following is most refined and restrictive service model?

(A) IaaS

(B) CaaS

(C) PaaS

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. C
44) -------- as a Service is a cloud computing infrastructure that creates a development
environment upon which applications may be build.

(A) Infrastructure

(B) Service

(C) Platform

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. C

45) --------- as a Service is a hosted application that is the cloud equivalent of a traditional
desktop application.

(A) Software

(B) Platform

(C) Analytics

(D) Compliance

Ans. A

46) Which of the following model allows vendor to provide security as part of the Service Level
Agreement?

(A) SaaS

(B) PaaS

(C) IaaS

(D) None of these

Ans. A

47) _______ offering provides the tools and development environment to deploy applications on
another vendor’s application.

(A) PaaS

(B) IaaS

(C) CaaS

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. B

48) Any of the following deals can be called PaaS?

(A) Google Maps

(B) Gmail

(C) Google Earth

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. A

49) How many types of virtual private server instances are partitioned in an IaaS stack?

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D) all of the mentioned

Ans. C

50) Which of the following is a classic example of an IaaS service model?

(A) Amazon Web Services (AWS)

(B) Azure

(C) Cloudera

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. A

51) Pods are aggregated into pools within an IaaS region or site called an ----------- zone.

(A) restricted

(B) unavail

(C) availability

(D) none of the mentioned

Ans. C
52) ____________ offering provides the tools and development environment to deploy
applications on another vendor’s application.

(A) PaaS

(B) IaaS

(C) CaaS

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. B

53) __________ is the most refined and restrictive service model.

(A) IaaS

(B) CaaS

(C) PaaS

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. C

54) _______ provides virtual machines, virtual storage, virtual infrastructure, and other hardware
assets.

a. IaaS

b. SaaS

c. PaaS

d. All of the mentioned

Ans. A

55) Which of the following aspect of the service is abstracted away?

(A) Data escrow

(B) User Interaction

(C) Adoption drivers

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. B
56) Which of the following attribute should be unique?

(A) identity

(B) digital identity

(C) Mashup

(D) all of the mentioned

Ans. B

57) ________ is one of the more expensive and complex areas of network computing.

(A) Multi-Factor Authentication

(B) Fault tolerance

(C) Identity protection

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. C

58) Which of the following is provided by Identity as a Service?

(A) Identity governance

(B) Provisioning

(C) Risk and event monitoring

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. D

59) Which of the following allows a distributed ID system to write and enforce custom policy
expressions?

(A) XACML

(B) XML

(C) SOAP

(D) None of the mentioned

Ans. A
60) Which of the following is a man-in-the-middle type of service?

(A) CaaS

(B) IaaS

(C) AaaS

(D) All of the mentioned

Ans. A
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Cloud Computing

Branch: IT

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1.Point out the wrong statement.

A All applications benefit from deployment in the cloud

B With cloud computing, you can start very small and become big very fast

C Cloud computing is revolutionary, even if the technology it is built on is

evolutionary

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q2. Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of
resources?

A Polymorphism

BAbstraction

CVirtualization

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q3. Cloud providers provide cloud services to the cloud users.

ATrue
BFalse

CMay be

DCan’t Say

Ans.: A

Q4.------------ computing refers to applications and services that run on a

distributed network using virtualized resources.

A Distributed

B Cloud

C Soft

D Parallel

Ans.: B

Q5. The ------------ model originally did not require a cloud to use virtualization
to pool resources.

ANEFT

B NIST

CNIT

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q6. ---------- model attempts to categorize a cloud network based on four

dimensional factors.

A Cloud Square
B Cloud Cube

C Cloud Service

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q7. Point out the correct statement.

A Google’s cloud includes perhaps some 10 data centers worldwide

BFlipkart.com’s infrastructure was built to support elastic demand so the

system could accommodate peak traffic

C Data centers have been sited to optimize the overall system latency

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q8. Which of the following is deployment model?

A public

B private

C hybrid

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q9. SaaS stands for?

A Software as a service

B System Software and services

C Software as a system

D System as a service

Ans.: A

Q10. The ------- cloud infrastructure is operated for the exclusive use of an
organization.

A Public

B Private

C Community

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q11. --------------- cloud is one where the cloud has been organized to serve a
common function or purpose.

A Public

B Private

C Community

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q12. --------- model consists of the particular types of services that you can
access on a cloud computing platform.

A Service

B Deployment
C Application

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q13. A service that concentrates on hardware follows the ----------- as a Service

model.

AIaaS

BCaaS

CPaaS

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q14. A -------- Level Agreement is the contract for performance negotiated

between you and a service provider.

AService

BApplication

CDeployment

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q15. In ------- a client can provision computer resources without the need for
interaction with cloud service provider personnel.

AOn-demand self-service

BBroad network access

CResource pooling

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q16. Which of these companies is not a leader in cloud computing?

A Google

B Amazon

C Blackboard

D Microsoft

Ans.: C

Q17. Which of the following benefit is related to create resources that are
pooled together in a system that supports multi-tenant usage?

A On-demand self-service

B Broad network access

C Resource pooling

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q18. The ---------- is something that you can obtain under contract from your
vendor.

APoS

BQoS
CSoS

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q19. Cloud computing is a --------- system as is the Internet in general.

Astateless

Bstateful

Creliable

D4

Ans.: A

Q20. Which of the following is the most important area of concern in cloud
computing?

A Security

B Storage

C Scalability

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q21. Which of the following provider rely on the virtual machine technology to
deliver servers?

ACaaS

BAaaS

CPaaS
DIaaS

Ans.: D

Q22. A composable Component of Cloud Computing stack are

A Modular

B Stateless

C Both A and B

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q23. The Vendors of Infrastructure as a Service are -----------

A Amazon Web Services

BGoGrid

CRackspace

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q24. Which of the following architectural standards is working with cloud

computing industry?

A Service-oriented architecture

B Standardized Web services

C Web-application frameworks

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: A
Q25. Which of the following component is called hypervisor?

A VGM

BVMc

C VMM

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q26. ----------- hypervisor virtual machine that includes a a NetBeans Integrated

Development Environment (IDE)

A Sun xVM

B VGM

C VMc

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q27. ----------- services offer all the hosted hardware and software needed to
build and deploy Web applications.

A Salesforce.com’s Force.com Platform

B Windows Azure Platform

C Google Apps and the Google AppEngine

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: D
Q28. Many platforms offer user interface development tools based on

A HTML

B JavaScript

C Both A and B

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q29. Point out the wrong statement.

AA cloud is defined as the combination of the infrastructure of a datacenter

with the ability to provision hardware and software

B High touch applications are best done on-premises

CThe Google App Engine follows IaaS

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q30. ---------- were developed to allow software components that ran on

different computers to interoperate with one another.

A DCOM

B CORBA

C Both A and B

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: C
Q31. ------- offers virtual appliances, including ones based on Windows, all of
which run on VMware Player.

A Bagvapp

B HelpdeskLive

C Jcinacio

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q32. --------- is a CPU emulator and virtual machine monitor.

A Imaging

B Parallels

C QEMU

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q33. Amazon Machine Images are virtual appliances that have been packaged
to run on the grid of -------- nodes.

A Ben

B Xen

C Ken

D Zen

Ans.: B
Q34. Which of the following is a virtual machine technology now owned by
Oracle that can run various operating systems?

A Vmachines

B VirtualBox

C ThoughtPolice

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q35. -------- hosts a variety of appliances that includes Linux distros, server
software, and other products.

A Jumpbox

B Parallels

C Ken

D API

Ans.: B

Q36. ---------- is an open-source virtual appliance installation and management

service.

A Jumpbox

B ThoughtPolice

C Parallels

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: A
Q37. --------- is a specification for multicast discovery on a LAN

A WS-Addressing

B WS-Discovery

C WS-Eventing

D WS-Federation

Ans.: B

Q38. What are the basic methods for secure connection?

A SSL

B FTPS

C IPsec

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q39. -------- are the Remote data transfer protocol

A Microsoft RDP

B Citrix ICA

C Both A and B

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q40. Which OS incorporates a sandbox architecture for running applications

and also performs automatic updates.

A Jolicloud Netbook OS
B Chromium OS

C Windows

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q41. Which of the following is(are) best known service model(s) ?

ASaaS

BIaaS

CPaaS

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.:D

Q42. ---------- is a complete operating environment with applications,

management, and the user interface.

AIaaS

BSaaS

CPaaS

D All of the mentioned

Ans.:B

Q43. Which of the following is most refined and restrictive service model?

AIaaS

B CaaS

C PaaS
D All of the mentioned

Ans.:C

Q44. -------- as a Service is a cloud computing infrastructure that creates a

development environment upon which applications may be build.

AInfrastructure

BService

CPlatform

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.:C

Q45. --------- as a Service is a hosted application that is the cloud equivalent of

a traditional desktop application.

ASoftware

B Platform

C Analytics

D Compliance

Ans.:A

Q46. Which of the following can be considered PaaS offering?

AGoogle Maps

BGmail

CGoogle Earth

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.:A

Q47. SaaS supports multiple users and provides a shared data model through
_________ model.

A single-tenancy

B multi-tenancy

C multiple-instance

D all of the mentioned

Ans.:B

Q48. Which of the following allows a distributed ID system to write and

enforce custom policy expressions?

A XACML

B XML

C SOAP

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q49. How many types of virtual private server instances are partitioned in an
IaaS stack?

A one

B two
C three

D all of the mentioned

Ans.:C

Q50. Which of the following is a classic example of an IaaS service model?

A Amazon Web Services (AWS)

B Azure

CCloudera

D All of the mentioned

Ans.:A

Q51. ------- offering provides the tools and development environment to

deploy applications on another vendor’s application.

APaaS

BIaaS

CCaaS

D All of the mentioned

Ans.:B

Q52. Which of the following is the most complete cloud computing service
model?

APaaS
BIaaS

CCaaS

DSaaS

Ans.:D

Q53. In SaaS which of the following aspect of the service is abstracted away?

A Data escrow

B User Interaction

C Adoption drivers

D None of the mentioned

Ans.:B

Q54. Open source software used in a SaaS is called -------- SaaS.

A closed

B free

C open

D all of the mentioned

Ans.:C

Q55. Pods are aggregated into pools within an IaaS region or site called an ------
----- zone.

A restricted
Bunavail

C availability

D none of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q56. Salesforce.com is the largest -------- provider of CRM software.

APaaS

BIaaS

CCaaS

DSaaS

Ans.:D

Q57. ---------- is one of the more expensive and complex areas of network
computing.

A Multi-Factor Authentication

B Fault tolerance

C Identity protection

D All of the mentioned

Ans.:C

Q58. Which of the following is provided by Identity as a Service?

A Identity governance
B Provisioning

C Risk and event monitoring

D All of the mentioned

Ans.:D

Q59. Which of the following is a man-in-the-middle type of service?

ACaaS

BIaaS

CAaaS

D All of the mentioned

Ans.:A

Q60. Amazon Web Services offers a classic Service Oriented Architecture (SOA)
approach to ______________

AIaaS

BSaaS

CPaaS

D All of the mentioned

Ans.:C
 Model Question Paper

Subject: CNS

Branch: IT

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

Q1. In symmetric-key cryptography, the key locks and unlocks the box is

A same

B shared

C private

D public

Ans.: A

Q2. The keys used in cryptography are

A secret key

B private key

C public key

D All of them

Ans.: D

Q3. Cryptography, a word with Greek origins, means

a. Corrupting Data

b. Secret Writing

c. Open Writing

d. Closed Writing

Ans: b
Q4. The relationship between characters in the plaintext to a character is

a. many-to-one relationship

b. one-to-many relationship

c. many-to-many relationship

d. None

Ans.: b

Q5. Which of the following is not a type of symmetric-key cryptography

technique?

a. Caesar cipher
b. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
c. Diffie Hellman cipher
d. Playfair cipher

Answer: c) Diffie Hellman cipher

Q6. Which of the following is not a principle of data security?

a. Data Confidentiality
b. Data Integrity
c. Authentication
d. None of the above

Answer: d) None of the above

Q7. Which of the following security attacks is not an active attack?

OR
Which of the following attacks is a passive attack?

a. Masquerade
b. Modification of message
c. Denial of service
d. Traffic analysis
Answer: d) Traffic analysis

Q8. Which of the following options correctly defines the Brute force attack?

a. Brutally forcing the user to share the useful information like pins and
passwords.
b. Trying every possible key to decrypt the message.
c. One entity pretends to be some other entity
d. The message or information is modified before sending it to the receiver.

Answer: b) Trying every possible key to decrypt the message.

Q9. A key is a string of bits used by a cryptographic algorithm to transform

plain text into ciphertext." Which of the following is capable of becoming a key
in a cryptographic algorithm?

a. An integer values
b. A square matrix
c. An array of characters (i.e. a string)
d. All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Q10. In cryptography, what is cipher?

a) algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
b) encrypted message
c) both algorithm for performing encryption and decryption and encrypted message
d) decrypted message

Ans.: a

Q11. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by __________

a) sender
b) receiver
c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network

Ans.: b
Q12Data which is easily readable & understandable without any special algorithm or method is
called _________________
a) cipher-text
b) plain text
c) raw text
d) encrypted text

Ans.: b

Q13. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a message is rearranged by __________

a) transpositional ciphers
b) substitution ciphers
c) both transpositional ciphers and substitution ciphers
d) quadratic ciphers

Ans.: a

Q14. Cryptanalysis is used __________

a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme
b) to increase the speed
c) to encrypt the data
d) to make new ciphers

Ans.: a

Q15. Which one of the following is a cryptographic protocol used to secure HTTP connection?
a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP)
b) transport layer security (TLS)
c) explicit congestion notification (ECN)
d) resource reservation protocol

Ans.: b

Q16. _________________ is the process or mechanism used for converting ordinary plain text
into garbled non-human readable text & vice-versa.
a) Malware Analysis
b) Exploit writing
c) Reverse engineering
d) Cryptography

Ans.: d

Q17. . ______________ is a means of storing & transmitting information in a specific format so

that only those for whom it is planned can understand or process it.
a) Malware Analysis
b) Cryptography
c) Reverse engineering
d) Exploit writing

Ans.: b

Q18. When plain text is converted to unreadable format, it is termed as _____________

a) rotten text
b) raw text
c) cipher-text
d) ciphen-text

Ans.: c

Q19. Cryptographic algorithms are based on mathematical algorithms where these algorithms
use ___________ for a secure transformation of data.
a) secret key
b) external programs
c) add-ons
d) secondary key

Ans.: a

Q20. Cryptography can be divided into ______ types.

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

Ans.: d

Q21. What is data encryption standard (DES)?

a) block cipher
b) stream cipher
c) bit cipher
d) byte cipher

Ans.: a

Q22. . Which one of the following algorithm is not used in asymmetric-key cryptography?
a) rsa algorithm
b) diffie-hellman algorithm
c) electronic code book algorithm
d) dsa algorithm

Ans.: c

Q23. Rail Fence Technique is an example of

a) Substitution

b) Transposition

c) Product cipher

d) Caesar cipher

Ans.: b

Q24. Public key encryption is advantageous over Symmetric key Cryptography because of
a) Speed

b) Space

c) Key exchange

d) Key length

Ans.: c

Q25. The sub key length at each round of DES is__________

a) 32

b) 56

c) 48

d) 64

Ans.: b

Q26. Differential Cryptanalysis can be mounted on

a) DES encryption algorithm

b) AES encryption algorithm

c) RSA encryption algorithm

d) Deffie-Hellman key exchange algorithm

Ans.: a

Q27. Which one is the strong attack mechanism?

a) Chosen plaintext attack

b) Chosen cipher text

c) Brute Force Attack

d) Man in the middle attack

Ans.: c

Q28. No. of keys used in Asymmetric key Cryptography is

a) 10

b) 02

c) 04

d) 01

Ans.: b

Q29. Biometric authentication works on the basis of

a) Human characteristics

b) Passwords

c) Smart cards

d) Pin

Ans.: a

Q30. _______ is based on the idea of hiding the relationship between the cipher text and the Key
a) Diffusion

b) Confusion

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of these

Ans.: b

Q31. The DES process involves ____ number of rounds.

a) 8

b) 32

c) 12

d) 16

Ans.: d
Q32. What does IDEA stand for in the world of cryptography?
or
The IDEA word in the IDEA algorithm is the abbreviation for which of the
following?

a. Independent Decryption Environment Analysis

b. International Defense Encryption Area
c. International Data Encryption Algorithm
d. None of the above

Answer: c.

Q33. How many sub-keys in the total are used by the IDEA for encrypting the
plain text into ciphertext?

a. 64 sub- keys
b. 48 sub- keys
c. 52 sub- keys
d. Only one key and no subkeys

Answer: c.

Q34. Which of the following properties are the characteristic properties of a

block cipher technique which differs from stream cipher?

a. Avalanche effect
b. Completeness
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

Answer: c.

Q35. All the below-stated processes are performed in the AES (Advanced
Encryption Standard) Algorithm. Which of the following process(s) are not
performed in the final round of the AES?

a. Substitution bytes
b. Shift rows
c. Mix columns
d. Add round key

Answer: c.

Q36. Triple-DES has ______ keys.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4

Ans.: b

Q37. DES stands for?

a) Data Encryption Standard
b) Data Encryption Statistics
c) Data Encryption System
d) Data Encryption Sequence

Ans.: a

Q38. Encryption standard that is selected by the US government to replace DES.

a) AES
b) BES
c) CES
d) DES

Ans.: a

Q39. Under DES, the data encryption standard took a 64-bit block of data and subjected it to
______ levels of encryption.
a) 64
b) 8
c) 16
d) 4

Ans.: c

Q40. Data Encryption Standard. It was created in ______and went into operation from 1990s.

a. 1977
b. 1978
c. 1979
d. 1980

Ans.: a

Q41. The Authentication Header (AH) , part of IPsec, provides which of the following security
function?

a) Source authentication

b) Data Integrity
c) Data confidentiality

d) Source authentication and data integrity

Ans.: d

Q42. RSA_____ be used for digital signature.

a) Must no

b) Cannot

c) Can

d) Should not

Ans.: c

Q43. Encryption Algorithm is

a) Mode of Cryptography

b) Security approach of cryptography

c) Components of cryptography

d) All of the above

Ans.: c

Q44. The _____ mode of IPsec, take the whole IP packet to form secure communication between
two gateways

a) Transport

b) Tunnel

c) Either (a) or (b)

d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans.: b

Q45. Man in the middle attack can endanger the security of Diffie Hellman method if two parties are
not

a) Joined

b) Authenticated

c) Submitted

d) Shared
Ans.: b

Q46.In public key cryptosystem _____ keys are used for encryption and decryption.
a) Same
b) Different
c) Encryption Keys
d) None of the mentioned

Ans.:b
Q47. In public key cryptosystem which is kept as public?

a) Encryption keys

b) Decryption keys

c) Encryption & Decryption keys

d) None of the mentioned

Ans.:a

Q48. Pretty good privacy program is used for

a) Electronic mails
b) File encryption
c) Electronic mails & File encryption
d) None of the mentioned

Ans.:c

Q49. PGP system uses

a) Private key system
b) Public key system
c) Private & Public key system
d) None of the mentioned

Ans.:c

Q50. Private key algorithm is used for _____ encryption and public key algorithm is used for
_____ encryption.
a) Messages, session key
b) Session key, messages
c) Can be used for both
d) None of the mentioned

Ans.:a
Q51. Which algorithm can be used to sign a message?
a) Public key algorithm
b) Private key algorithm
c) Public & Private key algorithm
d) None of the mentioned

Ans.:a

Q52. RSA is also a stream cipher like Merkel-Hellman.

a) True
b) False

Ans.:a

Q53. In the RSA algorithm, we select 2 random large values ‘p’ and ‘q’. Which of the following
is the property of ‘p’ and ‘q’?
a) p and q should be divisible by Ф(n)
b) p and q should be co-prime
c) p and q should be prime
d) p/q should give no remainder

Ans.:c

Q54. . In RSA, Ф(n) = _______ in terms of p and q.

a) (p)/(q)
b) (p)(q)
c) (p-1)(q-1)
d) (p+1)(q+1)

Ans.:c

Q55. In RSA, we select a value ‘e’ such that it lies between 0 and Ф(n) and it is relatively prime
to Ф(n).
a) True
b) False

Ans.:b

Q56. The ________ method parties

A. Diffie-Hellman

B. RSA

C.DES

D.AES
Ans.:a

Q57. The components of IP security includes ………………….

A) Authentication Header (AH)
B) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
C) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
D) All of the above

Ans.:d

Q58. In ………………. Mode, the authentication header is inserted immediately after the IP
header.

A) Tunnel
B) Transport
C) Authentication
D) Both A and B

Ans.:a

Q59. …………… is to protect data and passwords.

A) Encryption
B) Authentication
C) Authorization
D) Non-repudiation

Ans.:a

Q60. What is the full-form of RSA in the RSA encryption technique?

a. Round Security Algorithm

b. Rivest, Shamir, Adleman
c. Robert, Shamir, Addie
d. None of the above

Ans.:b
Name of College: Gangamai College of Engineering.
Subject: Data Warehouse and Mining (DWM).
Branch: Computer Engineering.
Class: BESemester: VIII

Q1.__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection of

data in support ofmanagement decisions.
A.Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining.
Ans.: B

Q2.Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.
B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System.
Ans.: A

Q3.The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually __________.

A. 1-2 years
B. 3-4years.
C. 5-6 years.
D. 5-10 years.
Ans.: D

Q4.. ________________defines the structure of the data held in operational databases

and used by
operational applications.
A. User-level metadata.
B. Data warehouse metadata.
C. Operational metadata.
D. Data mining metadata.
Ans.: C

1
Q5.__________ is the heart of the warehouse.
A.Data mining database servers.
B. Data warehouse database servers.
C. Data mart database servers.
D. Relational data base servers.
Ans.: B

Q6.A data mart is designed to optimize the performance for well-defined and predicable
uses.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A

Q7.Transient data is which of the following?

A. Data in which changes to existing records cause the previous version of the records
to be eliminated
B. Data in which changes to existing records do not cause the previous version of the
records to be eliminated
C. Data that are never altered or deleted once they have been added
D. Data that are never deleted once they have been added
Ans.: A

Q8.A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To create a new data warehouse
Ans.: A

Q9.Data mining is?

A. Time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C. The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans.: B

Q10.What is noise?
A. Component of a network
B. Context of KDD and data mining

2
 C. Aspects of a data warehouse
D. None of these
Ans.:B

Q11.The data Warehouse is__________.

A. read only.
B. write only.
C. read write only.
D. none.
Ans.: A

Q12.The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within
the data warehouseis___________.
A. subject-oriented.
B. time-variant.
C. integrated.
D. All of the above.
Ans.: D

Q13.A ________ system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge
workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above.
Ans.: A

Q14.. Query tool is meant for __________.

A. data acquisition.
B. information delivery.
C. information exchange.
D. communication.
Ans.: A

Q15.________ are responsible for running queries and reports against data warehouse
tables.

3
A. Hardware.
B. Software.
C. End users.
D. Middle ware.
Ans.: C

Q16.Classification rules are extracted from _____________.

A. root node.
B. decision tree.
C. siblings.
D. branches.
Ans.: B

Q17._________ is not associated with data cleaning process.

A. Deduplication
B. Domain
C. Consistency
D. Segmentation
Ans.: D

Q18.Expansion for DSS in DW is?

A. Decisive Strategic System
B. Data Support System
C. Data Store System
D. Decision Support system
Ans.: D

Q19.A data warehouse is described by which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end user
B. Contains only current data
C. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
D. Organized around important subject areas
Ans.: D

Q20. The main organizational justification for implementing a data warehouse is to

provide?

4
 A. ETL from operation systems to strategic system
B. Large scale transaction processing
C. Storing large volumes of data
D. Decision support
Ans.: D

Q21.When you ________ the data, you are aggregating the data to a higher level.
A. Slice
B. Roll up
C. Accumulate
D. Drill down
Ans.: B

Q22.______ makes a copy of a table and places it in a different location, to improve

access time.
A. Archive
B. Replication
C. Partitioning
D. Aggregation
Ans.: B

Q23.The data is stored, retrieved & updated in?

A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. SMTP
D. FTP
Ans.: B

Q24.__________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans.: C

5
Q25. ____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to
make proactive,
knowledge-driven decisions.
A. Data warehouse.
B. Data mining.
C. Datamarts.
D. Metadata.
Ans.: B

Q26. Record cannot be updated in _____________.

A. OLTP
B. files
C. RDBMS
D. data warehouse
Ans.: D

Q27. The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes __________.

A. at least one data mart.
B. data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources.
C. near real-time updates.
D. far real-time updates.
Ans.: C

Q28.The active data warehouse architecture includes __________

A. at least one data mart.
B. data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources.
C. near real-time updates.
D. all of the above.
Ans.: D

Q29.Treating incorrect or missing data is called as _______.

A. Preprocessing
B. Interpretation
C. Selection
D. Transformation
Ans.: A

6
Q30.Successful data warehousing requires that a formal program in total quality
management (TQM) be implemented.
A. True
B.False
Ans.: A

Q31. The core of the multidimensional model is the _______ , which consists of a large set of
facts and a number of dimensions.
A. Multidimensional cube
B. Dimensions cube
C. Data cube
D. Data model
Ans.: C

Q32. —— is not a data mining functionality?

A. Clustering and Analysis
B. Selection and interpretation
C. Classification and regression
D. Characterization and Discrimination
Ans.: B

Q33.Data mining is a tool for allowing users to find the hidden relationships in data.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A

Q34.What are the two main objectives associated with data mining?
A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To find hidden patterns and trends
Ans.: D

Q35.Data mining is?

A. Time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C. The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans.: B

7
Q36.._______ is an essential process where intelligent methods are applied to extract
data patterns.

A. Data warehousing
B. Data mining
C. Text mining
D. Data selection
Ans.: B

Q37.. Data mining can also applied to other forms such as ______
i) Data streamsii) Sequence data
iii) Networked dataiv) Text datav) Spatial data
A. i, ii, iii and v only
B. ii, iii, iv and v only
C. i, iii, iv and v only
D. All i, ii, iii, iv and v
Ans.: D

Q38.The full form of KDD is _______

A. Knowledge Database
B. Knowledge Discovery Database
C. Knowledge Data House
D. Knowledge Data Definition.
Ans.: B

8
Q39.. Strategic value of data mining is_________
A. cost-sensitive
B. work-sensitive
C. time-sensitive
D. technical-sensitive.
Ans.: C

Q40.The _________ refers to extracting knowledge from larger amount of data.

A. data abstraction.
B. data warehouse.
C. database.
D. data mining
Ans.: D

Q41.Knowledge discovery in database refers to _____.

A. whole process of extraction of knowledge from data.
B. selection of data.
C. coding.
D. cleaning the data.
Ans.: A

Q42.Data mining is used to refer ______ stage in knowledge discovery in database.

A. selection.
B. retrieving.
C. discovery.
D. coding.
Ans.: C

Q43._________refers to the process of deriving high-quality information from text.

A. Text Mining.
B. Image Mining.
C. Database Mining.
D. Multimedia Mining
Ans.: A

9
Q44.Reduce amount of time and memory required by data mining algorithms--------
A. Target Data
B. Data sampling
C. Data aggregation
D. Data reduction
Ans.: D

Q45.What does Apriori algorithm do

A. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
B. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q46.. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of Apriori algorithm?
A. Hash-based techniques
B. Transaction Reduction
C. Partitioning
D. All of the above
Ans.: D

Q47.Which of the following is direct application of frequent item set mining?

A. Social Network Analysis
B. Market Basket Analysis
C. Outlier Detection
D. Intrusion Detection
Ans.: B

Q48.When do you consider an association rule interesting?

A. If it only satisfies min support
B. If it only satisfies min confidence
C. If it satisfies both min support and min confidence
D. There are other measures to check so
Ans.: C

10
Q49.. What is the relation between candidate and frequent item sets?
A. A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset
B. A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset
C. No relation between the two
D. Both are same
Ans.: B

Q50.What is the principle on which Apriori algorithm work?

A. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent
B. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q51.Which of these is not a frequent pattern mining algorithm?

A. Apriori
B. FP growth
C. Decision trees
D. Éclat
Ans.: C

Q52.What are closed frequent itemsets?

A. A closed itemset
B. A frequent itemset
C. An itemset which is both closed and frequent
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q53. What are maximal frequent itemsets?

A. A frequent itemsetwho’s no super-itemset is frequent
B. A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent
C. A non-frequent itemset whose super-itemset is frequent
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

11
Q54.Why is correlation analysis important?
A. To make apriori memory efficient
B. To weed out uninteresting frequent itemsets
C. To find large number of interesting itemsets
D. To restrict the number of database iterations
Ans.: B

Q55. What is association rule mining?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining
B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets
C. Using association to analyses correlation rules
D. None of the above
Ans.: B

Q56.What is frequent pattern growth?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining
B. Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient
C. Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q57.The apriori algorithm works in a..And...Fashion?

A. top-down and depth-first
B. top-down and breath-first
C. bottom-up and depth-first
D. bottom-up and breath-first
Ans.: D

Q58.A ______ system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge
workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A) OLAP
B) OLTP
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Ans.: A

12
Q59.Data cleaning routine attempt to fill I missing values, ___ and correct
inconsistencies.
A. smooth out noise
B.remove error
C. variance
D. none of above
Ans.: A

Q60.Pivot is also known as?

A. drill up
B. roll up
C. rotate
D. mix
Ans.: C

13
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehousing and Mining
Branch : Computer Engineering /Information Technology
Class : BE
Semester : VIII
Unit I
Q1. ......................... is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection or
data in support of management decisions.
A) Data Mining
B) Data Warehousing
C) Document Mining
D) Text Mining
Answer:B) Data Warehousing
Q2. Which of the following is not a component of a data warehouse?
A) Metadata
B) Current detail data
C) Lightly summarized data
D) Component Key
Answers: D) Component Key
Q3. Which of the following is not a kind of data warehouse application?
A) Information processing
B) Analytical processing
C) Data mining
D) Transaction processing
Answers: D) Transaction processing
Q4. A data warehouse is ......................
A) updated by end users.
B) contains numerous naming conventions and formats
C) organized around important subject areas
D) contain only current data
Answer :C) organized around important subject areas
Q5. Data warehouse contains ................ data that is never found in the operational
environment.
A) normalized
B) informational
C) summary
D) denormalized
Answer: C) summary
Q6. ................... are responsible for running queries and reports against data warehouse
tables.
A) Hardware
B) Software
C) End users
D) Middle ware
Answer: C) End users
Q7. The full form of OLAP is
A) Online Analytical Processing
B) Online Advanced Processing
C) Online Advanced Preparation
D) Online Analytical Performance
Answer: A) Online Analytical Processing
Q8. ........................ is a good alternative to the star schema.
A) Star schema
B) Snowflake schema
C) Fact constellation
D) Star-snowflake schema
Answer: C) Fact constellation
Q9. Fact tables are which of the following
A) Completely denormalized
B) Partially denormalized
C) Completely normalized
D) Partially normalized
Answer: C) Completely normalized
Q10.A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table?
A) Many-to-many
B) One-to-one
C) One-to-many
D) All of the above.
Answer: C) One-to-many
Q11.Among the followings which is not a characteristic of Data Warehouse?
A) Integrated
B) Volatile
C) Time-variant
D) Subject oriented
Answer: B) Volatile
Q12. The type of relationship in star schema is ...............
A) many to many
B) one to one
C) one to many
D) many to one
Answers: C) one to many
Q13. Which of the following method(s) is(are) used to handle the missing value in dataset.
A) Ignore the tuple or Fill in the missing value manually
B) Use the attribute mean for all samples belonging to the same class as the given tuple
C) Use a global constant to fill in the missing value or Use the attribute mean to fill in the
missing value
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q14. Which of the following is/are data smoothing technique(s)
A) Binning
B) Regression
C) Clustering
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q15.Which of the following is/are data transformation technique(s)
A) Smoothing
B) Aggregation
C) Generalization , Normalization and Attribute construction
D) All of the above
Answer: D) all of above
Q16.The methods for data normalization is/are
A) Min Max
B) Z-score
C) Decimal Scaling
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q17. ……………can be used to reduce the data by collecting and replacing low level
concepts with higher level concepts.
A) Concept Hierarchy
B) Z-Score
C) Min Max
D) None of the Above
Answer:A) Concept Hierarchy
Q18. ……………can be used to reduce the data by collecting and replacing low level
concepts with higher level concepts.
A) Decimal Scaling
B) Z-Score
C) Min Max
D) None of the Above
Answer: D) None of the Above
Q19. Which of the following is not data smoothing technique
A) Binning
B) Regression
C) Clustering
D) None of the above
Answer: D) None of the above
Q20.The star schema is composed of __________ fact table
A) Four
B) Three
C) Two
D) One
Answer: D) One

Unit II
Q1. ...................... is an essential process where intelligent methods are applied to extract data
patterns.
A) Data warehousing
B) Data mining
C) Text mining
D) Data selection
Answer: B) Data Mining
Q2. Data that are not of interest to the data mining task is called as ______.
A)Missing data
B)Changing data
C)Irrelevant data
D)Noisy data
Answer: C)Irrelevant data
Q3. Data mining can also applied to other forms such as ................
A) Data streams
B) Sequence data
C) Text data
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q4. Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?
A) Characterization and Discrimination
B) Classification and regression
C) Selection and interpretation
D) Clustering and Analysis
Answer: C) Selection and interpretation
Q5. The full form of KDD is ..................
A) Knowledge Database
B) Knowledge Discovery Database
C) Knowledge Data House
D) Knowledge Data Definition
Answer: B) Knowledge Discovery Database
Q6 . The output of KDD is .............
A) Data
B) Information
C) Query
D) Useful information
Answer: D) Useful information
Q7. Which of following is NOT a stage of KDD(Knowledge Discovery from
Database) process?
A)Data Mining
B)Data Selection
C) Data integration
D)Correlation
Answer: D)Correlation
Q8. Which of following is/are a step(s) of KDD(Knowledge Discovery from
Database) process?
A)Data Mining
B)Data Selection
C)Data integration
D)All of the above
Answer: D)All of the above
Q9. Which of the following process includes data cleaning, data integration, data selection,
data transformation, data mining, pattern evolution and knowledge presentation?
A) KDD process
B) ETL process
C) KTL process
D) None of the above
Answer: A) KDD Process
Q10. Which of the following process includes data cleaning, data integration, data selection,
data transformation, data mining, pattern evolution and knowledge presentation?
A) MTX process
B) ETL process
C) KTL process
D) None of the above
Answer: D) None of the above

Q11. Data mining application domains are

A) Biomedical
B) DNA data analysis and Financial data analysis
C) Retail industry and telecommunication industry
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q12. Which of the following is/are the Data mining tasks?
A) Regression
B) Classification
C) Clustering
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q13. The Synonym for data mining is
A) Data warehouse
B) Knowledge discovery in database
C) ETL
D) Business intelligence
Answer:B) Knowledge discovery in database
Q14. …………………is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a target
class of data
A) Data characterization
B) Data discrimination
C) Both A and B
D ) None
Answer: A ) Data characterization
Q15. …………… is a comparison of the general features of target class data objects with the
general features of objects from one or a set of contrasting classes
A) Data characterization
B) Data discrimination
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer: B) Data discrimination
Q16. A database may contain data objects that do not comply with the general behavior or
model of the data. These data objects are ………
A) Outliers
B) Inners
C) Well known objects
D) None
Answer: A) Outliers
Q17. A database may contain data objects that do not comply with the general behavior or
model of the data. These data objects are ………
A) Inners
B) Well known objects
C) Inners and well known objects
D) None
Answer: D) None
Q18. Which of the following is/are integration scheme(s) of data mining system with a data
warehouse system
A) No Coupling
B) Loose coupling
C) Tight coupling
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q19. In which integration scheme DM system will not utilize any function of a DB or DW
system.
A) No Coupling
B) Loose coupling
C) Tight coupling
D) All of the above
Answer: A) No Coupling
Q20. ………….. means that a DM system is smoothly integrated into the DB/DW system.
A) No Coupling
B) Loose coupling
C) Tight coupling
D) All of the above
Answer C) Tight coupling

Unit III

Q1. Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

A) Social Network Analysis
B) Market Basket Analysis
C) Outlier Detection
D) Intrusion Detection
Answer: B) Market Basket Analysis
Q2. What does Apriori algorithm do?
A) It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
B) It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
Answer: A) It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
Q3. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency ofApriori algorithm?
A) Hash-based techniques
B) Transaction Reduction
C) Partitioning
D) All of the above
Ans: D) All of the above
Q4. What do you mean by support(A)?
A) Total number of transactions containing A
B) Total Number of transactions not containing A
C) Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions
D) Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions
Answer : C)Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions
Q5. How do you calculate Confidence(A -> B)?
A) Support(A Ո B) / Support (A)
B) Support(A Ո B) / Support (B)
C) Support(A Ս B) / Support (A)
D) Support(AՍ B) / Support (B)
Answer: A) Support(A Ո B) / Support (A)
Q6. The proportion of transaction supporting X in T is called _________.
A) Confidence.
B) Support.
C) Support count.
D) All of the above.
Answer: B) support
Q7. The absolute number of transactions supporting X in T is called ___________.
A) Confidence
B) Support
C) Support count
D) None of the above
Answer: C) support count
Q8. The value that says that transactions in D that support X also support Y is called
______________.
A) confidence
B) support
C) support count
D) None of the above
Answer: A) confidence.
Q9. The left hand side of an association rule is called __________.
A) consequent.
B)onset.
C) antecedent.
D) precedent.
Answer: C) antecedent.
Q10. The right hand side of an association rule is called _____.
A) consequent.
B) onset.
C) antecedent.
D) precedent.
Answer: A) consequent
Q11. When do you consider an association rule interesting?
A) If it only satisfies min_support
B) If it only satisfies min_confidence
C) If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence
D) There are other measures to check so
Answer: C) If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence
Q12. What is the relation between candidate and frequent itemsets?
A) A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset
B) A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset
C) No relation between the two
D) Both are same
Answer: B) A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset
Q13. The second step of Apriori algorithm is ____________.
A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.
Answer: C) Pruning
Q14. What is the Apriori property
A)All nonempty subsets of a frequent itemset must also be frequent
B)All nonempty subsets of a frequent itemset must be infrequent
C)Both A and B
D)None of the above
Answer: A) All nonempty subsets of a frequent itemset must also be frequent
Q15. What are closed itemsets?
A) An itemset for which at least one proper super-itemset has same support
B) An itemset whose no proper super-itemset has same support
C) An itemset for which at least super-itemset has same confidence
D) An itemset whose no proper super-itemset has same confidence
Answer: B) An itemset whose no proper super-itemset has same support

Q16. What are closed frequent itemsets?

A) A closed itemset
B) A frequent itemset
C) An itemset which is both closed and frequent
D) None of the above
Answer: C) An itemset which is both closed and frequent
Q17. What are maximal frequent itemsets?
A) A frequent itemset whose no super-itemset is frequent
B) A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent
C) A non-frequent itemset whose super-itemset is frequent
D) None of the above
Answer: A) A frequent itemset whose no super-itemset is frequent
Q18. All set of items whose support is greater than the user-specified minimum support are
called as _____________.
A) border set.
B) frequent set.
C) maximal frequent set.
D) lattice.
Answer: B) frequent set
Q19. If a set is a frequent set and no superset of this set is a frequent set, then it is called
________.
A) maximal frequent set.
B)border set.
C) lattice.
D) infrequent sets.
Answer: A) maximal frequent set.
Q20. In the first step of Apriori algorithm _______ is performed.
A)Candidate generation.
B)Itemset generation.
C) Pruning.
D) Partitioning.
ANSWER: A)Candidate generation
 Model Question Paper
Computer Engineering
MCQ Bank for Data Warehousing and Mining (178113) Sem 8th

1. ______________which works to remove noise from the data.

A. Aggregation
B. Generalization
C. Normalization
D. Smoothing
Ans.: D
2. _________executes queries involving more than one fact table.
A. Drill-down
B. Roll-up
C. Drill-across
D. Pivot
Ans.: C
3. DB size in OLTP is___________________.
A. 100 GB to TB
B. 10 MB to GB
C. 10 GB to TB
D. 100 MB to GB
Ans.: D
4. In _____________histogram the width of each bucket range is uniform.
A. Equidepth
B. V-Optimal
C. Equal-width
D. MaxDiff
Ans.: C
5. _________________find discrepancies by analyzing the data to discover rules and
relationships, and detecting data that violate such conditions.
A. Data scrubbing tools
B. Data migration tools
C. Data auditing tools
D. ETL tools
Ans.: C
6. A Data warehouse is_____________________________.
A. subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, volatile
B. application-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile
C. subject-oriented, nonintegrated, time-variant, volatile
D. subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile
Ans.: D

Page 1 of 9
7. In ______________ a fact table in the middle connected to a set of dimension tables.
A. Star schema
B. Snowflake schema
C. Fact constellations
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
8. An aggregate function is ___________ if it can be computed in a distributed Manner.
A. Holistic
B. Distributive
C. Algebraic
D. Nonholistic
Ans.: B
9. _____________is a visualization operation that rotates the data axes in view in order to
provide an alternative presentation of the data.
A. Roll-up
B. Drill-down
C. Pivot
D. Slice and dice
Ans.: C
10. Number of records accessed by OLTP is in _________________.
A. Thousands
B. Millions
C. Tens
D. Hundreds
Ans.: C
11. _________________includes fact tables and dimension tables.
A. Data source view
B. Business query view
C. Top-down view
D. Data warehouse view
Ans.: D
12. ______________may be detected by clustering.
A. Noise
B. Outliers
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans.: B
13. DB Design in OLAP is____________________.
A. Application-oriented
B. Object-oriented
C. Subject-oriented
D. ER based oriented
Ans.: C

Page 2 of 9
14. Multiple fact tables share dimension tables, viewed as a collection of stars, therefore called
as ___________________.
A. Star schema
B. Snowflake schema
C. Fact constellations
D. None of the above
Ans. C
15. Number of records accessed by OLAP is in ___________.
A. Hundreds
B. Thousands
C. Millions
D. Tens
Ans.: C
16. ______________says that there can be no missing values between the lowest and highest
values for the attribute, and that all values must also be unique.
A. A unique rule
B. A null rule
C. A consecutive rule
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
17. ____________methods smooth a sorted data value by consulting its “neighborhood,” that
is, the values around it.
A. Regression
B. Non-regression
C. Binning
D. Clustering
Ans.: C
18. _____________obtains a reduced representation of the data set that is much smaller in
volume yet produces the same analytical results.
A. Data Transformation
B. Data Integration
C. Data Cleaning
D. Data Reduction
Ans.: D
19. ____________is a random error or variance in a measured variable.
A. Outlier
B. Noise
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans.: B
20. Principal components analysis is also called as____________________.
A. P-L Method
B. P-A Method
C. P-C Method
D. K-L Method
Ans.: D

Page 3 of 9
21. ______________means that a DM system is smoothly integrated into the DB/DW system.
A. No coupling
B. Loose coupling
C. Tight coupling
D. Semitight coupling
Ans.: C
22. _____________refers to extracting or mining knowledge from large amounts of data.
A. Data Mining
B. Data Warehouse
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
23. In _________________multiple data sources may be combined.
A. Data Cleaning
B. Data Selection
C. Data Integration
D. Data Transformation
Ans.: C
24. The next stage to data mining in KDD process is____________________.
A. Data Selection
B. Knowledge Presentation
C. Data Transformation
D. Pattern Evaluation
Ans.: D
25. _________is the domain knowledge that is used to guide the search or evaluate the
interestingness of resulting patterns.
A. Pattern evaluation module
B. Data mining engine
C. Knowledge base
D. User interface
Ans.: C
26. ________________________can be designed to support ad hoc and interactive data mining.
A. Data warehouse query language
B. Data mining query language
C. Data control query language
D. Data Definition query language
Ans.: B
27. _______________is the process of finding a model (or function) that describes and
distinguishes data classes or concepts.
A. Classification
B. Prediction
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Page 4 of 9
28. _____________tasks perform inference on the current data in order to make predictions.
A. Descriptive Mining
B. Predictive Mining
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Ans.: B
29. ___________________is used to summarized the general characteristics of a target class of
data.
A. Data Classification
B. Data discrimination
C. Data Characterization
D. Data selection
Ans.: C
30. The output of KDD is ___________.
A. Data
B. Information
C. Query
D. Useful information
Ans.: D
31. ________________where visualization and knowledge representation techniques are used
to present the mined knowledge to the user.
A. Pattern evaluation
B. Data mining
C. Knowledge Presentation
D. User interface
Ans.: C
32. ___________________is a comparison of the general features of the target class data
objects with the general features of objects from one or set comparative classes.
A. Data characterization
B. Data classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection
Ans.: C
33. ________________means that a DM system will not utilize any function of a DB or DW
system.
A. Tight coupling
B. Loose coupling
C. Semitight coupling
D. No coupling
Ans.: D
34. _______________tasks characterizes the general properties of the data in the database.
A. Descriptive mining
B. Predictive mining
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Page 5 of 9
35. ____________routines work to “clean” the data by filling in missing values, smoothing noisy
data.
A. Data Transformation
B. Data Integration
C. Data Cleaning
D. Data Reduction
Ans.: C
36. ______________________________specifies the portions of the database or the set of data
in which the user is interested.
A. The interestingness measures and thresholds for pattern evaluation
B. The expected representation for visualizing the discovered patterns
C. The kind of knowledge to be mined
D. The set of task-relevant data to be mined
Ans.: D
37. __________________ can be designed to incorporate primitives, allowing users to flexibly
interact with data mining systems.
A. Data warehouse query language
B. Data mining query language
C. Data control query language
D. Data Definition query language
Ans.: B
38. ______________is the task of discovering interesting patterns from large amounts of data,
which can be stored in databases, data warehouses, or other information repositories.
A. Databases
B. Data warehouse
C. Data mining
D. Task Primitives
Ans.: C
39. The next stage to data integration in KDD process is____________________.
A. Data Cleaning
B. Pattern Evaluation
C. Data Selection
D. Data Transformation
Ans.: C
40. _______________where data are consolidated into forms appropriate for mining by
performing summary or aggregation operations.
A. Pattern evaluation
B. Data transformation
C. Data integration
D. Data reduction
Ans.: B
41. ________________________is an example of frequent itemset mining.
A. Intrusion Detection
B. Social Network Analysis
C. Outlier Detection
D. Market Basket Analysis
Ans.: D

Page 6 of 9
42. Association rule is consider__________________________________________.
A. If it only satisfies min_support
B. If it only satisfies min_confidence
C. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence
D. There are other measures to check so
Ans.: C
43. Confidence (A B) is calculated as_____________________________.
A. Support_count (A ∪ B) / Support_count (B)
B. Support_count (A ∩ B) / Support_count (A)
C. Support_count (A ∩ B) / Support_count (B)
D. Support_count (A ∪ B) / Support_count (A)
Ans.: D
44. Apriori algorithm is used for ___________________________________.
A. To mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
B. To mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
45. ___________________specify the desired dimensions of the data, or levels of the concept
hierarchies, to be used in mining.
A. Data constraints
B. Interestingness constraints
C. Knowledge type constraints
D. Dimension constraints
Ans.: D
46. Association rule mining means _________________________________.
A. Same as frequent itemset mining
B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets
C. Using association to analyse correlation rules
D. None of the above
Ans.: B
47. Correlation analysis is considered as important _________________________________.
A. To make apriori memory efficient
B. To weed out uninteresting frequent itemsets
C. To find large number of interesting itemsets
D. To restrict the number database iterations
Ans.: B
48. Apriori algorithm is work on which principle?
A. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent
B. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Page 7 of 9
49. Performance of Apriori algorithm is improved by________________________.
A. Hash-based techniques
B. Transaction Reduction
C. Partitioning
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
50. Association rules generated from mining data at multiple levels of abstraction are
called______________________________.
A. Hybrid-dimesnsional association rules
B. Single level association rules
C. Multilevel association rules
D. Multidimensional association rules
Ans.: C
51. Support (A) is calculated as_________________________________________.
A. Total number of transactions containing A
B. Total Number of transactions not containing A
C. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions
D. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions
Ans.: C
52. ___________________specify the set of task-relevant data.
A. Interestingness constraints
B. Data constraints
C. Knowledge type constraints
D. Dimension constraints
Ans.: B
53. The Apriori algorithm is a _________________________________________.
A. seminal algorithm for mining frequent itemsets for nonboolean association rules.
B. seminal algorithm for mining frequent itemsets for constraint based association rules.
C. seminal algorithm for mining frequent itemsets for Boolean association rules.
D. seminal algorithm for mining non-frequent itemsets for Boolean association rules.
Ans. C
54. _______________________mining allows users to focus the search for rules by providing
metarules and additional mining constraints.
A. Quantitative association rules
B. Multilevel association rules
C. Constraint-based rule
D. Association Rule
Ans.: C
55. In Apriori property__________________________________________.
A. All empty subsets of a frequent itemset must also be frequent.
B. All nonempty subsets of a nonfrequent itemset must also be frequent.
C. All nonempty subsets of a frequent itemset must also be nonfrequent.
D. All nonempty subsets of a frequent itemset must also be frequent.
Ans.: D

Page 8 of 9
56. An itemset X is a closed frequent itemset in set S.
A. if S is both closed and frequent in X.
B. if X is both closed and nonfrequent in S.
C. if X is both nonclosed and frequent in S.
D. if X is both closed and frequent in S.
Ans. D
57. What step should be taken if support is reduced?
A. Number of frequent itemsets remains same
B. Some itemsets will become infrequent while others will become frequent
C. Some itemsets will add to the current set of frequent itemsets
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
58. The lift between the occurrence of A and B i.e lift (A, B) can be measured by_____________.
A. P(B ∪ A) / P(A)P(B)
B. P(B ∩ A) / P(B)P(A)
C. P(A ∪ B) / P(A)P(B)
D. P(A ∩ B) / P(A)P(B)
Ans.: C
59. In which of the following the same minimum support threshold is used when mining at each
level of abstraction.
A. Using reduced minimum support at lower levels
B. Using item or group-based minimum support
C. Using uniform minimum support for all levels
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
60. ________________specify the type of knowledge to be mined, such as association or
correlation.
A. Data constraints
B. Interestingness constraints
C. Knowledge type constraints
D. Dimension constraints
Ans.: C

Page 9 of 9
 Model Question Paper

Subject: DATA WAREHOUSING & MINING

Branch: COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Class: BE COMP

Semester: VIII

1. The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually .

A. 1-2 years.
B. 3-4years.
C. 5-6 years.
D. 5-10 years.
ANSWER: D
2. is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non volatile collection of data
in support of management decisions.

A). Data Mining.

B). Data Warehousing.

C). Web Mining.

D). Text Mining.

Ans. B

3. The data Warehouse is .

A). read only.

B). write only.

C). read write only.

D). none.

Ans. A

4. The core of the multidimensional model is the which consists of a large set
of facts and a number of dimensions.

A). Multidimensional cube

B). Dimensions cube

 C). Data cube

D). Data model

Ans. C

5. The source of all data warehouse data is the .

A. Operational environment.
B. Informal environment.
C. Formal environment.
D. Technology environment.
ANSWER: A

6. Data that can be modelled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are called
data.

A). Multidimensional

B).Single dimensional

C). Measured

D).Dimensional

Ans. A

7. Data warehouse architecture is based on

A). DBMS

B). RDBMS

C). Sybase

D). SQL Server

Ans. D

8. supports basic OLAP operations, including slice and dice, drill-down, roll-up
and pivoting.

A). Information processing

B). Analytical processing

C). Data mining

D). Transaction processing

Ans. B
9. is a good alternative to the star schema.
A. Star schema.
B. Snowflake schema.
C. Fact constellation.
D. Star-snowflake schema.
ANSWER: C

10. Routines work to clean the data by filling in missing values, smoothing
noisy data, identifying or removing outliers and resolving inconsistencies.

A). Data Integration

B). Data Cleaning

C). Data Transformation

D). Data Reduction

Ans. B

11. Data modelling technique used for data marts is_

A). Dimensional Modelling

B). ER Model

C). Extended ER

D) All of these

Ans. A

12. The star schema is composed of fact table.

A). One.

B). Two.

C). Three.

D). Four.

Ans. A

13. Data can be updated in environment.

A). Data warehouse.

B). Data mining.

C). Operational.
 D). Informational.

Ans. C

14. A data warehouse is .

A). Updated by end users.

B). Contains numerous naming conventions and formats

C). Organized around important subject areas.

D). Contains only current data.

Ans. C

15. The extract process is .

A. capturing all of the data contained in various operational systems.

B. capturing a subset of the data contained in various operational systems.

C. capturing all of the data contained in various decision support systems

D. capturing a subset of the data contained in various decision support systems.

ANSWER: B

16. Data transformation includes .

A). A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level.

B). A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level.

C). Joining data from one source into various sources of data.

D). Separating data from one source into various sources of data.

Ans. A

17. Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing .

A). Relevant attributes.

B). Irrelevant attributes.

C). Derived attributes.

D). Composite attributes.

Ans. B

18. is data about data.

 A). Meta data.

B). Micro data.

C). Mini data.

D). Multi data

Ans. A

19. The full form of KDD is .

A). Knowledge database.

B). Knowledge discovery in database.

C). Knowledge data house.

D). Knowledge data definition

Ans. B

20. Removing duplicate records is a process called .

A). Recovery.

B). Data cleaning.

C). Data cleansing.

D). Data pruning.

Ans. B

21. Data marts that incorporate data mining tools to extract sets of data are called .

A).Independent data mart.

B). Dependent data marts.

C). Intra-entry data mart.

D). Inter-entry data mart.

Ans. B

22. The dimension tables describe the .

A). Entities.

B). Facts.

C). Keys.
 D). Units of measures.

Ans. B

23. is a the input to KDD.

A). Data.

B). Information.

C). Query.

D). Process.

Ans. A

24. The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within the
data warehouse is .
A. Subject-oriented.
B. Time-variant.
C. Integrated.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D

25. Treating incorrect or missing data is called as .

A). Selection.

B). pre-processing.

C). Transformation.

D). Interpretation.

Ans. B

26. is the goal of data mining.

A). To explain some observed event or condition.

B). To confirm that data exists.

C). To analyze data for expected relationships.

D). To create a new data warehouse.

Ans. A

27. Data mining is?

A). Time variant non-volatile collection of data

 B). The actual discovery phase of a knowledge

C). The stage of selecting the right data

D). None of these

Ans. B

28. defines the structure of the data held in operational databases and
used by operational applications.
A. User-level metadata.
B. Data warehouse metadata.
C. Operational metadata.
D. Data mining metadata.
ANSWER: C

29. ——- is not a data mining functionality?

A). Clustering and Analysis

B). Selection and interpretation

C). Classification and regression

D). Characterization and Discrimination

Ans.B

30. Which of the following are general characteristics or features of a target class of data?

A). Data selection

B). Data discrimination

C).Data Classification

D). Data Characterization

Ans. C

31. is held in the catalogue of the warehouse database system.

A. Application level metadata.
B. Algorithmic level metadata.
C. Departmental level metadata.
D. Core warehouse metadata.
ANSWER: B

32. Which of the following activities is NOT a data mining task?

A). Predicting the future stock price of a company using historical records
 B). Monitoring and predicting failures in a hydropower plant

C). Extracting the frequencies of a sound wave

D). Monitoring the heart rate of a patient for abnormalities

Ans. C

33. Highly summarized data is .

A. compact and easily accessible.

B. compact and expensive.

C. compact and hardly accessible.

D. compact.

ANSWER: A

34. predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to make
proactive, knowledge-driven decisions.

A). Data warehouse.

B). Data mining.

C). Data marts.

D). Metadata.

Ans. B

35. Data mining helps in .

A). Inventory management.

B). Sales promotion strategies.

C). Marketing strategies.

D). All of the above.

Ans. D

36. Data mining is used to refer stage in knowledge discovery in database.

A). Selection.

B). Retrieving.

C). Discovery.
 D). Coding.

Ans. C

37. A collection of interesting and useful patterns in database is called _

A). knowledge.

B). information.

C). data.

D). algorithm

Ans. A

38. analysis divides data into groups that are meaningful, useful, or both.

A. Cluster.

B. Association.

C. Classification.

D. Relation

Ans. A

39. How many components are there in a data warehouse?

A. two.
B. three.
C. four.
D. five.
ANSWER: D
40. is an expensive process in building an expert system.
A. Analysis.
B. Study.
C. Design.
D. Information collection.
ANSWER: D

41. Strategic value of data mining is .

A. cost-sensitive.
B. work-sensitive.
C. time-sensitive.
D. technical-sensitive.
ANSWER: C

42. is a process of determining the preference of customer's majority.

 A. Association
B. Preferencing.
C. Segmentation.
D. Classification.
ANSWER: B

43. The term that is not associated with data cleaning process is .
A. Domain consistency.
B. Deduplication.
C. Disambiguation.
D. Segmentation.
ANSWER: D

44. EIS stands for .

A. Extended interface system.
B. Executive interface system.
C. Executive information system.
D. Extendable information system.
ANSWER: C

45. MDDB stands for .

A. multiple data doubling.
B. multidimensional databases.
C. multiple double dimension.
D. multi-dimension doubling.
ANSWER: B
46. is a data transformation process.
A. Comparison.
B. Projection.
C. Selection.
D. Filtering.
ANSWER: D

47. Source data from the warehouse comes from .

A. ODS.
B. TDS.
C. MDDB.
D. ORDBMS.
ANSWER: A

48. The main organizational justification for implementing a data warehouse is to provide
.
A. cheaper ways of handling transportation.
B. decision support.
 C. storing large volume of data.
D. access to data.
ANSWER: C

49. Classification rules are extracted from .

A. root node.
B. decision tree.
C. siblings.
D. branches.
ANSWER: B

50. Query tool is meant for _ .

A. data acquisition.
B. information delivery.
C. information exchange.
D. communication.
ANSWER: A

51. are responsible for running queries and reports against data warehouse tables.
A. Hardware.
B. Software.
C. End users.
D. Middle ware.
ANSWER: C

52. The most common source of change data in refreshing a data warehouse is .
A. queryable change data.
B. cooperative change data.
C. logged change data.
D. snapshot change data.
ANSWER: A

53. A fact is said to be fully additive if .

A. it is additive over every dimension of its dimensionality.
B. additive over atleast one but not all of the dimensions.
C. not additive over any dimension.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: A

54. Which of the following is the other name of Data mining?

A. Exploratory data analysis.
B. Data driven discovery.
C. Deductive learning.
D. All of the above.
 ANSWER: D

55. Which of the following is a predictive model?

A. Clustering.
B. Regression.
C. Summarization.
D. Association rules.
ANSWER: B
56. In the groups are not predefined.
A. Association rules.
B. Summarization.
C. Clustering.
D. Prediction.
ANSWER: C

57. The output of KDD is .

A. Data.
B. Information.
C. Query.
D. Useful information.
ANSWER: D

58. Various visualization techniques are used in step of KDD.

A. selection.
B. transformation.
C. data mining.
D. interpretation.
ANSWER: D

59. Extreme values that occur infrequently are called as .

A. outliers.
B. rare values.
C. dimensionality reduction.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: A
60. Incorrect or invalid data is known as .
A. changing data.
B. noisy data.
C. outliers.
D. missing data.

ANSWER: B
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehousing & Mining

Branch: Information Technology

Class: BE IT

Semester: VIII

1)__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non volatile collection of data in

support of management decisions.

A). Data Mining.

B). Data Warehousing.

C). Web Mining.

D). Text Mining.

Ans. B

2) The data Warehouse is__________.

A). read only.

B). write only.

C). read write only.

D). none.

Ans. A

3) The core of the multidimensional model is the ___________ which consists of a large set of
facts and a number of dimensions.

A). Multidimensional cube

B). Dimensions cube

C). Data cube

D). Data model

Ans. C
4) Data that can be modelled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are called _______
data.

A). Multidimensional

B).Single dimensional

C). Measured

D).Dimensional

Ans. A

5) Data warehouse architecture is based on___________

A). DBMS

B). RDBMS

C). Sybase

D). SQL Server

Ans. D

6) __________supports basic OLAP operations, including slice and dice, drill-down, roll-up and
pivoting.

A). Information processing

B). Analytical processing

C). Data mining

D). Transaction processing

Ans. B

7) _____________ Routines work to clean the data by filling in missing values, smoothing noisy
data, identifying or removing outliers and resolving inconsistencies.

A). Data Integration

B). Data Cleaning

C). Data Transformation

D). Data Reduction

Ans. B

8) Data modelling technique used for data marts is_______

A). Dimensional Modelling

B). ER Model

C). Extended ER

D) All of these

Ans. A

9) The star schema is composed of __________ fact table.

A). One.

B). Two.

C). Three.

D). Four.

Ans. A

10) Data can be updated in _____environment.

A). Data warehouse.

B). Data mining.

C). Operational.

D). Informational.

Ans. C

11) A data warehouse is _____________.

A). Updated by end users.

B). Contains numerous naming conventions and formats

C). Organized around important subject areas.

D). Contains only current data.

Ans. C
12) Data transformation includes __________.

A). A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level.

B). A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level.

C). Joining data from one source into various sources of data.

D). Separating data from one source into various sources of data.

Ans. A

13) Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing ____________.

A). Relevant attributes.

B). Irrelevant attributes.

C). Derived attributes.

D). Composite attributes.

Ans. B

14) ______________ is data about data.

A). Meta data.

B). Micro data.

C). Mini data.

D). Multi data

Ans. A

15) The full form of KDD is _________.

A). Knowledge database.

B). Knowledge discovery in database.

C). Knowledge data house.

D). Knowledge data definition

Ans. B

16) Removing duplicate records is a process called _____________.

A). Recovery.

B). Data cleaning.

C). Data cleansing.

D). Data pruning.

Ans. B

17) Data marts that incorporate data mining tools to extract sets of data are called ______.

A).Independent data mart.

B). Dependent data marts.

C). Intra-entry data mart.

D). Inter-entry data mart.

Ans. B

18) The dimension tables describe the _________.

A). Entities.

B). Facts.

C). Keys.

D). Units of measures.

Ans. B

19) _________ is a the input to KDD.

A). Data.

B). Information.

C). Query.

D). Process.

Ans. A

20) Treating incorrect or missing data is called as ___________.

A). Selection.
B). pre-processing.

C). Transformation.

D). Interpretation.

Ans. B

21)_______________ is the goal of data mining.

A). To explain some observed event or condition.

B). To confirm that data exists.

C). To analyze data for expected relationships.

D). To create a new data warehouse.

Ans. A

22)Data mining is?

A). Time variant non-volatile collection of data

B). The actual discovery phase of a knowledge

C). The stage of selecting the right data

D). None of these

Ans. B

23) ——- is not a data mining functionality?

A). Clustering and Analysis

B). Selection and interpretation

C). Classification and regression

D). Characterization and Discrimination

Ans.B

24)Which of the following are general characteristics or features of a target class of data?

A). Data selection

B). Data discrimination

C).Data Classification

D). Data Characterization

Ans. C

25)Which of the following activities is NOT a data mining task?

A). Predicting the future stock price of a company using historical records

B). Monitoring and predicting failures in a hydropower plant

C). Extracting the frequencies of a sound wave

D). Monitoring the heart rate of a patient for abnormalities

Ans. C

26)____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to make

proactive,

knowledge-driven decisions.

A). Data warehouse.

B). Data mining.

C). Data marts.

D). Metadata.

Ans. B

27)Data mining helps in __________.

A). Inventory management.

B). Sales promotion strategies.

C). Marketing strategies.

D). All of the above.

Ans. D

28) Data mining is used to refer ______ stage in knowledge discovery in database.

A). Selection.
B). Retrieving.

C). Discovery.

D). Coding.

Ans. C

29) A collection of interesting and useful patterns in database is called _______

A). knowledge.

B). information.

C). data.

D). algorithm

Ans. A

30) _______analysis divides data into groups that are meaningful, useful, or both.

A. Cluster.

B. Association.

C. Classification.

D. Relation

Ans. A

31) Which of the following is the data mining tool?

A). Borland C.

B). Weka.

C). Borland C++.

D). Visual C.

Ans. B

32) Two fundamental goals of Data Mining are ____c ____.

A). Analysis and Description

B). Data cleaning and organizing the data

C). Prediction and Description

D). Data cleaning and organizing the data

Ans. C

33) Strategic value of data mining is___________

A). Cost-sensitive

B). Work-sensitive

C). Time-sensitive

D). Technical-sensitive

Ans. C

34) ________is the collection of tables, each of which is assigned a unique name.

A). Relational Database

B). Data Warehouses

C). Data Mining

D). Stream Database

Ans. A

35) ________store image, audio, video data

A). Text Database

B).Legacy Database

C). Data Stream

D). Multimedia Database

Ans. D

36)________Tasks characterize the general Properties of data in the database.

A). Descriptive Mining

B). Predictive Mining

C) Characterization
D) Discrimination

Ans. A

37)_______Tasks perform inference on the current data in order to make prediction.

A). Descriptive Mining

B). Predictive Mining

C) Characterization

D) Discrimination

Ans. B

38) A data mining query is defined in the term of_________

A). Classification

B). Prediction

C). Data mining task primitive

D) Query

Ans. C

39)________ is the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data classes or
concept.

A). Classification

B). Data

C). Data mining task primitive

D) Query

Ans. A

40) A database may contain data objects that do not comply with the general bahavior or model
of the data. These data objects are______

A). Cluster

B). Outliers

C). Evolution
D) Classification

Ans. B

41)What does Apriori algorithm do?

A).It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support

B).It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support

C).Both a and b

D).None of the above

Ans. A

42)What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm?

A).Hash-based techniques

B).Transaction Reduction

C).Partitioning

D).All of the above

Ans. D

43) What do you mean by support(A)?

A).Total number of transactions containing A

B).Total Number of transactions not containing A

C).Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions

D).Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions

Ans. C

44)How do you calculate Confidence(A -> B)?

A).Support(A B) / Support (A)

B).Support(A B) / Support (B)

C).Support(A B) / Support (A)

D).Support(A B) / Support (B)

Ans. A

45) Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

A).Social Network Analysis

B). Market Basket Analysis

C).Outlier Detection

D).Intrusion Detection

Ans. B

46) When do you consider an association rule interesting?

A).If it only satisfies min_support

B).If it only satisfies min_confidence

C).If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence

D).There are other measures to check so

Ans. C

47) What is the relation between candidate and frequent itemsets?

A).A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset

B).A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset

C).No relation between the two

D). Both are same

Ans. B

48) What are closed itemsets?

A).An itemset for which at least one proper super-itemset has same support

B).An itemsetwhose no proper super-itemset has same support

C).An itemset for which at least super-itemset has same confidence

D).An itemsetwhose no proper super-itemset has same confidence

Ans. B
49) What are maximal frequent itemsets?

A).A frequent itemsetwhose no super-itemset is frequent

B).A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent

C).A non-frequent itemset whose super-itemset is frequent

D).None of the above

Ans. A

50) What will happen if support is reduced?

A).Number of frequent itemsets remains same

B).Some itemsets will add to the current set of frequent itemsets

C).Some itemsets will become infrequent while others will become frequent

D). Cannot say

Ans. B

51) The apriori algorithm works in a _____and __________fashion?

A).Top-down and depth-first

B).Top-down and breath-first

C).Bottom-up and depth-first

D).Bottom-up and breath-first

Ans. D

52) Why is correlation analysis important?

A).To make apriori memory efficient

B).To weed out uninteresting frequent itemsets

C).To find large number of interesting itemsets

D).To restrict the number of database iterations

Ans. B

53) What is frequent pattern growth?

A).Same as frequent itemset mining

B).Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient

C)Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation

D). None of the above

Ans. C

54)When is sub-itemset pruning done?

A).A frequent itemset 'P' is a proper subset of another frequent itemset 'Q'

B).Support (P) = Support(Q)

C).When both a and b is true

D).When a is true and b is not

Ans. C

55) Which of the following is not null invariant measure(that does not considers null
transactions)?

A).all_confidence

B).max_confidence

C).cosine measure

D).lift

Ans. D

56) The number of iterations in apriori ___________ Select one:

A).increases with the size of the data

B).decreases with the increase in size of the data

C).increases with the size of the maximum frequent set

D).decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set

Ans. C

57) Frequent item sets is Select one:

A).Superset of only closed frequent item sets

B).Superset of only maximal frequent item sets

C).Subset of maximal frequent item sets

D).Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets

Ans. D

58)Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is Select one:

A).Finding frequent itemsets

B).Pruning

C).Candidate generation

D).Number of iterations

Ans. C

59) KDD represents extraction of Select one:

A).Data

B).Knowledge

C).Rules

D).Model

Ans. B

60) Which statement about outliers is true? Select one:

A). Outliers should be part of the training dataset but should not be present in the test data.

B).Outliers should be identified and removed from a dataset.

C).The nature of the problem determines how outliers are used

D).Outliers should be part of the test dataset but should not be present in the training data.

Ans. C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehousing& Mining
Branch:Computer Engineering
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Q1.The full form of KDD is _____________

A. Knowledge data definition

B. Knowledge Database
C. knowledge discovery in database
D. knowledge data house

Ans.: C

Q2In a star schema, only __________join defines the relationship between the fact table and
any dimension tables.

A. Single
B. Double
C. Cross
D. Base

Ans.: A

Q3.Data mining is the application of specific________ for extracting ________ from data.

A. Data warehouse, transactions

B. Data mart , valuable
C. Algorithms, Patterns
D. Database , Knowledge

Ans.: C

Q4. ___________is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non-volatile collection of

data in support of management decisions

A. Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining

Ans.: B

Q5. The data Warehouse is__________.

A. Read only.
B. Write only.
 C. Read write only
D. D. none.

Ans.: A

Q6. Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.

B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System

Ans.: A

Q7. The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within the
data warehouse is___________

A. Subject-oriented.
B. Time-variant.
C. Integrated.
D. All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q8. Background knowledge referred to –

A. Additional acquaintance/ information used by learning algorithm to facilitate learning

process.
B. It is a form of transactional data
C. It is a form of automatic learning
D. None of these
Ans.: A

Q9. The data is stored, retrieved & updated in ____________.

A. OLAP.
B. OLTP.
C. SMTP.
D. FTP.

Ans.: B

Q10. __________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans.: C

Q11.Data that are not of interest to the data mining task is called as ______.

A. missing data.
B. changing data.
C. irrelevant data.
D. noisy data.

Ans.: C

Q12. In Which Data Warehouse Schema some dimension tables are normalized?

A. Star Schema
B. Snowflake Schema
C. ER Schema
D. OLTP Schema

Ans.: B

Q13.Which of the following is not data pre-processing method?

A. Data Cleaning
B. Data Normalization
C. Data Visualization
D. Data Reduction

Ans.: C

Q14.Data is stored, retrieved, updated in ___________

A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. OLTP
D. OLAP

Ans.: C

Q15.OLAP (online analytical processing) is for ____________

A. Day to Day transaction

B. Concurrency Control
C. Data analysis and decision making
D. None of the above

Ans.: C
Q16.Operation of moving from higher level summarized data to lower level detailed data in
data cube is known as ___________

A. Roll up
B. Drill down
C. Pivot
D. Dice

Ans.: B

Q17..What is Data Cube

A. Multidimensional Database
B. Single Dimensional Data Model
C. Transactional Data model
D. A type of database

Ans.: A

Q18. What are facts ?

A. Categorical Data
B. Boolean Values
C. Numeric Measures
D. Data types

Ans.: C

Q19.What is a concept hierarchy?

A. A set of mappings from lower conceptual level to higher conceptual level

B. Sorted data in increasing order
C. Hierarchy of data types
D. Sorted data in decreasing order

Ans.: A

Q20. The star schema is composed of __________ fact table.

A. one.
B. two.
C. three.
D. four.

Ans.: A

Q21. How does roll-up operation affect the size of data cube?

A. It increases the size

B. It decreases the size
C. Does not affect the size
 D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q22.Correlation analysis is used for _______________

A. eliminating noise
B. find missing values
C. identifying redundant attributes
D. data partitioning
Ans.: C
Q23What is noise?

A. Random error or variance in a measured value

B. Read only data
C. Sorted values
D. Missing values
Ans.: A
Q24. What is use of data normalization?

A. It is used to scale the data of an attribute so that it falls in a smaller range.

B. It is used to increase size of data.
C. It is used for predicting unknown values
D. It is used for data grouping
Ans : A
Q25. What is a base cuboid?

A. Fact of data cube

B. Cuboid which holds lowest level of summarization
C. Cuboid which holds highest level of summarization
D. A complete data cube
Ans.: B
Q26. Data warehouse contains_____________data that is never found in the operational
environment.
A. Normalized.
B. Informational.
 C. Summary.
D. Denormalized

Ans.: C

Q27. Which of the following is the entity identification problem ?

A. One person with different email address

B. One person’s name written in different way
C. One person with multiple phone numbers
D. Title of person
Ans.: B
Q28. In Binning, we first sort data, and partition into bins, and then which of the following is
not a valid step

A. Smoothing by bin boundaries

B. Smoothing by bin median
C. Smoothing by bin means
D. Smoothing by bin values
Ans.: D
Q29. Which of the following data mining task is known as market basket analysis

A. Clustering
B. Classification
C. Association mining
D. Regression.
Ans.: C

Q30.What does Apriori algorithm do?

A. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
B. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q31. What is association rule mining?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining

B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets
 C. Using association to analyse correlation rules
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q32. An operational system is _____________.

A. used to run the business in real time and is based on historical data.
B. used to run the business in real time and is based on current data.
C. used to support decision making and is based on current data.
D. used to support decision making and is based on historical data.

Ans.: B

Q33. Various visualization techniques are used in ___________ step of KDD.

(A) selection. (B) transformation. (C) data mining. (D) interpretation.

Ans.: D

Q34. The first phase of apriori algorithm is _______.

A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.

Ans.: A

Q35. The type of relationship in star schema is __________________.

A. many-to-many.
B. one-to-one.
C. one-to-many.
D. many-to-one.

Ans.: C

Q36.Data transformation is data mining strategy, In __________ low-level data are replaced
with high-level data by using concept hierarchies climbing.

A. Generalization
B. Adoption
C. Characterization
D. Association

Ans.: A

Q37. Rule based classification algorithms generate _________ rule to perform the
classification.

A. if-then.
 B. while.
C. do while.
D. switch..

Ans.: A

Q38.Data Discretization techniques can be used to ____________the range of continuous

attribute into intervals.

A. sum
B. Divide
C. Characterize
D. Tabularize

Ans.: B

Q39. __________ mining tasks characterize the general properties of the data in the database.

A. Predictive
B. Descriptive
C. Assertive
D. Productive

Ans.: B

Q40. Data transformation includes which of the following?

A. process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level

B. process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level
C. Joining data from one source into various sources of data
D. (D)Separating data from one source into various sources of data

Ans.: A

Q41.............................. is the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data
classes or concepts.

A. Data Reduction
B. Data Classification
C. Data Association
D. Data selection

Ans.: B

Q42Which of the following is data mining tool ?

A. Borland C
B. Weka
C. Visual C
 D. Autocad

Ans.: B

Q43. ............................. is a comparison of the general features of the target class data objects
against the general features of objects from one or multiple contrasting classes.

A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection

Ans.: C

Q44. Data warehouse architecture is based on ______________.

A. DBMS.
B. RDBMS.
C. Sybase.
D. SQL Server.

Ans.: B

Q45. Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?

A. Characterization and Discrimination

B. Classification and regression
C. Selection and interpretation
D. Clustering and Analysis

Ans.: C

Q46.Which of the following is not a kind of data warehouse application?

A. Information processing
B. Analytical processing
C. Data mining
D. Transaction processing

Ans.: D

Q47. Classification rules are extracted from______________

A. root node
B. decision tree
C. siblings
D. branches

Ans.: B
Q48. The granularity of the fact is the _____ of detail at which it is recorded.
A. transformation.
B. summarization.
C. level.
D. transformation and summarization.

Ans.: C

Q50. Which of the following is not a data mining attribute?

A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. multiple

Ans.: D

Q51. A snowflake schema is which of the following types of table?

A. Fact
B. Dimension
C. Helper.
D. All the above.

Ans.: D

Q.52________is the most well-known association rule mining algorithm and is used in most
commercial products.

A. Apriori algorithm.
B. Partition algorithm.
C. Distributed algorithm.
D. Pincer-search algorithm.

Ans : A

Q.54 In the K-means clustering algorithm the distance between cluster centroid to

each object is calculated using ______ method.

A. Cluster distance
B. Euclidean distance
C. Cluster width
D. None of above

Ans: B

Q.55 What are closed frequent itemsets?

A. A closed itemset
 B. A frequent itemset
C. An itemset which is both closed and frequent
D. None of the above

Ans : C

Q. 57 What is the effect of reducing min confidence on association rules?

A. Number of association rules remains same

B. Some association rules will add to the current set of association rules
C. Some association rules will become invalid while others might become a rule.
D. Can not say

Ans B

Q. 59 Binning is top down splitting technique, based on specific number of bins. Binning is a
_________ discretization technique.

A. supervised
B. reinforced
C. ReLU
D. unsupervised

Ans : D

Q. 60 Apriori is a classic algorithm for mining frequent items for ________ association rule.

A. Rapid
B. Hierarchical
C. Boolean
D. Cluster
Ans : C
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Mobile Computing

Branch: CSE

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for
the GSM system in mobile computing?

a. Sim
b. HLR
c. ELR
d. VLR

Ans.: a

Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

a. Home location register

b. Visitor location register
c. Entity equipment register
d. None of the above

Ans.: a

Q3. In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied to
the transmission?

a. GSM
b. GPRS
c. CDMA
d. None of the above

Ans.: c

Q4. Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. CDMA
d. None of the above

Ans.: c

Q5. The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

a. Cell
b. Tessellate
c. Mobile station
d. None of the above

Ans.: a

Q6. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell depends on —–

a. Environmental conditions
b. Social conditions
c. Political conditions
d. None of the above

Ans.: a

Q7. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

a. Handover
b. Infrastructure
c. Frequency planning
d. All of the above

Ans.: d

Q8. In a cellular system, the same frequency is used for other users using the
technique ———-

a. Frequency planning
b. Frequency hopping
c. Frequency reuse
d. None of the above

Ans.: c
 Q9. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over
the cellular network system?

a. GSM
b. GPRS
c. TCP
d. None of the above

Ans.: b

Q10. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

a. Bearer
b. Supplementary
c. Tele
d. All of the above

Ans.: d

Q11. . Bluetooth Technology supports

a. Piconet
b. Ad hoc piconet
c. Scatter net
d. All of the above

Ans.: d

Q12. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data
between a variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

a. Mobile technology
b. Bluetooth technology
c. Ad hoc computing
d. None of the above

Ans.: b

Q13. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

a. Master
b. Parked
c. Standby
d. Slave

Ans.: a

Q14. Which of the following uses high-frequency radio waves instead of cables
for connecting the devices in LAN?

a. Wired LAN
b. Wireless LAN
c. Fiber made LAN
d. None of the above

Ans.: b

Q15. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

a. IEEE 802.2
b. IEEE 802.11
c. IEEE 802.5
d. IEEE 802.15

Ans.: b

Q16. . Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

a. Flexibility
b. Ease of use
c. Robustness
d. All of the above

Ans.: d

Q17. Disadvantages of WLANs are —–

a. Slow speed
b. Noise
c. More effort for Security
d. All of the above

Ans.: d
 Q18. In the distributed system a client gives the request, and the server provides—
-

a. Data
b. Service
c. Information
d. All of the above

Ans.: b

Q19. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

a. Slaves
b. Parked
c. Standby
d. None of the above

Ans.: a

Q20. The important challenges of distributed systems apply to DFS are ——

a. Migration of data
b. Concurrent access to data
c. Replication of data
d. All of the above

Ans.: d
Q21. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________
a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) metropolitan area network
d) wide area network

Ans.: b

Q22. Bluetooth uses __________

a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing

Ans.: a
Q23. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________
a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes

Ans.: d

Q24. Bluetooth is named after a(n) ____________ king.

a. Swiss
b. English
c. German
d. Danish

Ans.: d

Q25. What is one of the features that make Bluetooth different from other wireless
technologies?

a. inability to transfer voice and data between battery-operated mobile devices

b. long-distance wireless capabilities
c. high bandwidth wireless capabilities
d. low power consumption

Ans.: d

Q26. IPv6 does not use _________ type of address.

a) broadcast
b) multicast
c) anycast
d) unicast

Ans.: a

Q27. Bluetooth devices communicate at ____________ bandwidths.

a. static
b. low
c. high
d. fixed

Ans.: b

Q28. WiMAX stands for ___________

a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
d) wireless internet maximum communication

Ans.: b

Q29. WiMAX provides ________

a) simplex communication
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication
d) no communication

Ans.: c

Q30. Which of the following is NOT a device that is likely to use Bluetooth
technology?

a. toy
b. high-speed router
c. PDA
d. cell phone

Ans.: b

Q31. Which among the following features is present in IPv6 but not in IPv4?
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) Anycast address

Ans.: d

Q32. What is the full form of WLAN?

a) Wide Local Area Network
b) Wireless Local Area Network
c) Wireless Land Access Network
d) Wireless Local Area Node

Ans.: b

Q33. Devices that provide the connectivity to a WiMAX network are known as
_________
a) subscriber stations
b) base stations
c) gateway
d) switch stations

Ans.: a

Q34. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________

a) 4 bytes
b) 128 bits
c) 8 bytes
d) 100 bits

Ans.: b

Q35. IPv6 has a larger address space of _________

a) 216
b) 2128
c) 232
d) 28

Ans.: b

Q36. Which of the following frequencies is not used in WiMAX for communication?
a) 2.3 GHz
b) 2.4 GHz
c) 2.5 GHz
d) 3.5 GHz

Ans.: b

Q37. RFID stands for?

a. Random frequency identification

b. Radio frequency identification

c. Random frequency information

d. Radio frequency information

Ans.: b

Q38. Which of the following is NOT true about Bluetooth?

a. Bluetooth is considered to be low bandwidth wireless technology.

b. Bluetooth has a range of about 30 feet.
c. Bluetooth has a bandwidth of 720 kbps.
d. Bluetooth is considered to be a long-distance wireless technology.
Ans.: d

Q39. Wi-Fi stands for?

a. Wireless fidelity

b. Wireless Flexibility

c. Wide Fidelity

d. WAN Flexibility

Ans.: a

Q40. Which of the following specifies a set of media access control (MAC) and
physical layer specifications for implementing WLANs?
a) IEEE 802.16
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.11
d) IEEE 802.15

Ans.: c

Q41. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify digital
modulation and network level architecture?
a) GSM
b) AMPS
c) CDMA
d) IS-54

Ans.: a

Q42. . Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

a) Global system for mobile
b) Groupe special mobile
c) Global special mobile
d) Groupe system mobile

Ans.: b

Q43. Who sets the standards of GSM?

a) ITU
b) AT & T
c) ETSI
d) USDC

Ans.: c

Q44. Which of the following does not come under the teleservices of GSM?
a) Standard mobile telephony
b) Mobile originated traffic
c) Base originated traffic
d) Packet switched traffic

Ans.: d

Q45. Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?

a) Emergency calling
b) Packet switched protocols
c) Call diversion
d) Standard mobile telephony

Ans.: c

Q46. Which of the following memory device stores information such as subscriber’s
identification number in GSM?
a) Register
b) Flip flop
c) SIM
d) SMS

Ans.: c

Q47. Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM radio
transmission?
a) SIM
b) On the air privacy
c) SMS
d) Packet switched traffic

Ans.: b

Q48. Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM architecture?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) Channel
Ans.: d

Q49. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between mobile
station and MSC?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) BSC

Ans.: a

Q50. ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC

Ans.: b

Q51. . __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.

a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC

Ans.: c

Q52. A GPRS Network is a part of ____ in GSM network.

A) BTS

B) BSS

C) NSS

D) VLR

Ans.: c

Q53. Which is the organization providing standards for GPRS network?

A) ANSI

B) ETSI

C) 3GPP
D) UMTS

Ans.: c

Q54. A GPRS Network works same in _____.

A) 2G

B) 3G

C) 2G and /or 3G

D) 4G

Ans.: c

Q55. The Ga interface in a GRPS network uses which protocol?

A) MAP

B) CAP

C) Frame Relay

D) GTP (GPRS Tunneling Protocol)

Ans.: D

Q56. GPRS stands for?

A) General Packet Repair Service

B) General Packet Radio Service

C) Graphics Packet Radio Service

D) None

Ans.: b

Q57. What is the data rate or speed offered by a GPRS connection?

A) 56-115kbps

B) 9-256kbps

C) 64-128kbps

D) None
Ans.: a

Q58. GPRS services belong to which generation?

A) 1G

B) 2G

C) 3G

D) 4G

Ans.: b

Q59. Choose a correct abbreviation below.

A) SGSN - Serving GPRS Support Node

B) GGSN - Gateway GPRS Support Node

C) IP - Internet Protocol

D) All

Ans.: D

Q60. GPRS is a Connection Oriented service. True/False?

A) False

B) True

Ans.: a
Name of College: Gangamai College of Engineering, Nagaon Dist Dhule
Subject: Mobile Computing
Branch: Computer
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for
the GSM system in mobile computing?

A. Sim
B. HLR
C. VLR
D. ELR
Ans.: A
Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

A. Home location register

B. Visitor location register
C. Entity equipment register
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
Q3. In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied
to the transmission?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q4. Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. CDMA
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q5. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

A. Handover
B. Infrastructure
C. Frequency planning
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q6. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over
the cellular network system?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. TCP
D. None of the above
Ans.: B

Q7. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

A. Bearer
B. Supplementary
C. Tele
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q8. Bluetooth Technology supports

A. Piconet
B. Ad hoc piconet
C. Scatter net
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q9. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data
between a variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A. Mobile technology
B. Bluetooth technology
C. Ad hoc computing
D. None of the above
Ans.: B
Q10. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

A. Master
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. Slave
Ans.: A
Q11. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

A. IEEE 802.2
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.15
Ans.: B
Q12. Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

A. Flexibility
B. Ease of use
C. Robustness
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q13. Disadvantages of WLANs include —–

A. Interference and noise

B. Slower than wired
C. Greater care is needed for encryption
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q14. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

A. Slaves
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
Q15. Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-
enabled device to another —-

A. Any device
B. Wired device
C. Wireless-enabled device
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q16. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —-

A. Mobility
B. Portability
C. Wireless connectivity
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q17. Which of the following is the base of most mobile communications?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
Q18. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q19. Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

A. Education
B. Sports
C. Games
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q20. Challenges of mobile computing include ———

A. Low Security
B. Ad hoc Networking
C. Shared medium
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q21. Which of the following services/service are defined within the bearer
services?

A. Data transmission
B. Forward error correction
C. Flow control
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q22. The overlapping portion of two piconets is called——–

A. Piconet
B. Ad hoc piconet
C. Scatter net
D. All of the above
Ans.: C
Q23. Bluetooth technology is used for —-

A. Connection of peripheral devices

B. Ad-hoc networking
C. Bridging network gaps
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q24. The most WLANs are based upon —-
A. IEEE 802.11
B. WiFi
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Ans.: C
Q25. The advantages of WLANs are —–

A. Flexibility
B. Robustness
C. Less cost
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.26. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify
digital modulation and network level architecture?
A. GSM
B.AMPS
C.CDMA
D.IS-54
Ans.: A

Q.27 Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

A. Global system for mobile
B. Groupe special mobile
C. Global special mobile
D. Groupe system mobile
Ans.: B
Q.28 who sets the standards of GSM?
A. ITU
B. AT & T
C. ETSI
D. USDC
Ans.: C
Q.29 Which of the following does not come under the tele-services of GSM?
A. Standard mobile telephony
B. Mobile originated traffic
C. Base originated traffic
D. Packet switched traffic
Ans.: D
Q.30 Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?
A. Emergency calling
B. Packet switched protocols
C. Call diversion
D. Standard mobile telephony
Ans.: C
Q.31 Which of the following memory device stores information such as
subscriber’s identification number in GSM?
A. Register
B. Flip flop
C. SIM
D. SMS
Ans.: C

Q.32 Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM

radio transmission?
A. SIM
B. On the air privacy
C. SMS
D. Packet switched traffic

Ans.: B

Q.33 Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM
architecture?
A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. Channel

Ans.: D

Q.34 Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between

mobile station and MSC?
A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. BSC

Ans.: A

Q.35 ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. MSC

Ans.: B
Q.36 __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.
A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. MSC

Ans.: C

Q.37 __________ carries digitally encoded user data.

A. Traffic channels
B. Control channels
C. Signaling channels
D. Forward channels6

Ans.: A

Q.38 ____________ carries signalling and synchronizing commands.

A. Traffic channels
B. Control channels
C. Signaling channels
D. Forward channels
Ans.: B
Q.39 Several protocols for upper layers in bluetooth use _________
A. UDP
B. HSP
C. ITC
D. L2CAP
Ans.: D
Q.40 Network layer at source is responsible for creating a packet from data
coming from another ________
A. Station
B. Link
C. Node
D. Protocol
Ans.: D
Q.41 Header of datagram in IPv4 has _________
A. 0 to 20 bytes
B. 20 to 40 bytes
C. 20 to 60 bytes
D. 20 to 80 bytes
Ans.: C
Q.42 In IPv4 layer, datagram is of ________
A. Fixed length
B. Variable length
C. Global length
D. Zero length
Ans.: B
Q.43 Which protocol is commonly used to retrieve email from a mail server?
A. FTP
B. IMAP
C. HTML
D. TELNET
Ans.: B
Q.44 A packet in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is called a ____________
A. Transmittable slots
B. Packet
C. Segment
D. Source Slots
Ans.: C
Q.45 IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as building block of a wireless
___________
A. LAN
B. WAN protocol
C. MAN
D. ALOHA
Ans.: A
Q.46 Wireless transmission is divided into ___________
A. 3 broad groups
B. 6 broad groups
C. 9 broad groups
D. 8 broad groups
Ans.: A
Q.47 Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Networking Protocol have
___________
A. Four Layers
B. Five Layers
C. Six Layers
D. Seven Layers
Ans.: A
Q.48 Packets of data that is transported by IP is called __________
A. Datagram
B. Frames
C. Segments
D. Encapsulate message
Ans.: A
Q.49 IPv6 has a larger address space of _________
A. 216
B. 2128
C. 232
D. 28
Ans.: B
Q.50 In practical IPv6 application, a technology encapsulates IPv6 packets
inside IPv4 packets, this technology is called _______
A. Tunneling
B. Hashing
C. Routing
D. NAT
Ans.: A
Q.51 Which one of the following descriptions about IPv6 is correct?
A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random
B. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts
C. There are 2.7 billion available addresses
D. An interface can only be configured with one IPv6 address
Ans.: B
Q.52 MIN stands for_____________________
A. Mobile Identification Number
B. Mobile Internet
C. Mobility In Network
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
Q.53 The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to
another is_________________

A. MSC
B. Roamer
C. Hand off
D. Forward channel

Ans.: C

Q.54 In Handoff

A. Process of transferring the call to the new base station

B. Transfers the call
C. New channel allocation is done
D. All of the above

Ans.: D
Q.55 In a wireless communication, base station is connected to central hub
called _______
A. PSTN
B. MSC
C. CO
D. PBX
Ans.: B
Q.56 PSTN stands for ________
A. Public switched telephone network
B. Personal switched telephone network
C. Personal switched telephone node
D. Public switched telephone node
Ans.: A
Q.57 In public switched telephone network, LATA stands for ______
A. Local access and transport area
B. Land area and transport area
C. Local access and telephone access
D. Local area and telephone access
Ans.: A
Q.58 Connection oriented services are also called __________
A. Datagram services
B. Virtual circuit routing
C. Connectionless services
D. Routing service
Ans.: B
Q.59 ISDN is based on the concept of __________
A. SS7
B. CCS
C. ARDIS
D. CDPD
Ans.: B
Q.60 ______ is used for transmission of packets in the cellular switched
architecture.
A. Packet switching techniques
B. Circuit switching techniques
C. Packet and circuit switched technique
D. Datagram technique
Ans.: A
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Mobile Computing

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. “Mr. Watson, come here, I want to see you” was a first ever voice call by

A) Joseph Henry

B) F. B. Morse

C) Alexander G. Bell

D) Harald Blatand

Ans. C

Q2. Mobile Computing is also known as

A) Parallel Computing

B) Genetic Computing

C) Nomadic Computing

D) All of these

Ans. C

Q3. Fixed telephone is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. D

Q4. CDMA Mobile Phone is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device
Ans. D

Q5. PDA is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. D

Q6. Analog exchange is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. A

Q7. Mobile exchange WAP is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. A

Q8. ISP Internet Gateway is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. A

Q9. Digital IVR is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. B

Q10. SMS Gateway is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. B

Q11. Web Server is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. B

Q12. Rendering is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. C

Q13. HTTP Server is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway
D) User/Device

Ans. C

Q14. User Hooks are

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. C

Q15. Connectors are

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. C

Q16. Mail Server is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) Content Service

Ans. D

Q17. Mainframe Server is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) Content Service

Ans. D

Q18. PIM Server is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) Content Service

Ans. D

Q19. ............ is a personal Mobile Computing application

A) Bank Transactions

B) Wallet

C) Utility Bill Payment

D) News

Ans. B

Q20. ............ is a transaction oriented Mobile Computing application

A) Wallet

B) Diary

C) Utility Bill Payment

D) News

Ans. C

Q21. A Network can be divided into.......segments

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Four

Ans. C

Q22. The Mobile Computing architecture has.......tiers

A) One

B) Two

C) Three
D) Four

Ans. C

Q23. In Mobile Computing architecture, User Interface is

A) Tire1

B) Tire2

C) Tire3

D) Tire4

Ans. A

Q24. In Mobile Computing architecture, Process Management is

A) Tire1

B) Tire2

C) Tire3

D) Tire4

Ans. B

Q25. In Mobile Computing architecture, Business Tasks are

A) Tire1

B) Tire2

C) Tire3

D) Tire4

Ans. B

Q26. In Mobile Computing architecture, Database Management is

A) Tire1

B) Tire2

C) Tire3

D) Tire4

Ans. C

Q27. In Mobile Computing architecture, Data Store is

A) Tire1

B) Tire2

C) Tire3

D) Tire4

Ans. C

Q28. The Google Chrome browser comes under

A) Presentation Tier

B) Application Tier

C) Data Tier

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q29. Lynx comes under

A) Presentation Tier

B) Application Tier

C) Data Tier

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q30. Apache comes under

A) Presentation Tier

B) Application Tier

C) Data Tier

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q31. The Client Context manager does not deal with

A) Identity

B) Security

C) Activity
D) Social Situation

Ans. B

Q32. Semantic Web is based on

A) URI

B) URL

C) A & B

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q33. Mobile Computing through Internet will be through

A) WiFi

B) GSM

C) CDMA

D) All of these

Ans. D

Q34. Bluetooth was the nickname of

A) Joseph Henry

B) F. B. Morse

C) Alexander G. Bell

D) Harald Blatand

Ans. D

Q35. Bluetooth operates in .......frequency band.

A) 2.2 GHz

B) 2.4 GHz

C) 2.6 GHz

D) 2.8 GHz

Ans. B

Q36. Bluetooth can transfer data at maximum speed of

A) 512 Kbps

B) 512 KBps

C) 1 Mbps

D) 1 MBps

Ans. C

Q37. RFID operates on.......basic frequncies

A) Two

B) Four

C) Six

D) Eight

Ans. C

Q38. ........is not currently identified application area of RFID.

A) Transportation and Logistics

B) Animal Tagging

C) Retail Store

D) Matchmaking

Ans. D

Q39. The WiMax technical standard is

A) 802.3

B) 802.11

C) 802.16

D) 802.22

Ans.C

Q40. The Home Agent in Mobile IP is used in

A) Discovery

B) Registration

C) Tunnelling
D) None of these

Ans. C

Q41. GSM was established in

A) 1982

B) 1987

C) 1989

D) 1990

Ans. A

Q42. GSM uses

A) FDMA

B) TDMA

C) A & B

D) None of these

Ans. C

Q43. In GSM System hierarchy, ........is at the top.

A) BSC

B) MSC

C) PLMN

D) LA

Ans. C

Q44. ........is not a GSM entity.

A) MS

B) BSC

C) MSC

D) LA

Ans. D

Q45. In GSM, HLR & VLR are connected to

A) BTS

B) BSC

C) MSC

D) OMC

Ans. C

Q46. .........is not used in GSM call routing.

A) IMEI

B) IMSI

C) TMSI

D) MSRN

Ans. A

Q47. IMEI is the acronym for

A) Internet Mobile Equipment Identity

B) International Mobile Equivalent Identity

C) International Mobile Equipment Identity

D) None of these

Ans. C

Q48. IMEI is stored in

A) EIR

B) SIM Card

C) Memory Card

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q49. IMSI is stored in

A) EIR

B) SIM Card

C) Memory Card
D) None of these

Ans. B

Q50. In the Mobile phone handset, one can type.......to see the IMEI number(s).

A) #*06*

B) *#06#*

C) *#06#

D) #*06*#

Ans. C

Q51. GSM has ........number of channels.

A) 120

B) 125

C) 130

D) 132

Ans. B

Q52. The IMEI number is of ........digits.

A) 12

B) 14

C) 15

D) 16

Ans. C

Q53. . The IMSI number is of ........digits.

A) 12

B) 14

C) 15

D) 16

Ans. C

Q54. In GSM, ....... Algorithm is used for Authentication.

A) A3

B) A5

C) A8

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q55. In GSM, ....... Algorithm is used for Key Generation.

A) A3

B) A5

C) A8

D) None of these

Ans. C

Q56. In GSM, ....... Algorithm is used for Privacy.

A) A3

B) A5

C) A8

D) None of these

Ans. B

Q57. .........is not a GPRS QoS requirement.

A) Reliability

B) Security

C) Delay

D) Throughput

Ans. B

Q58. .........is not used in GPRS

A) MS

B) BSS

C) SGSN
D) LA

Ans. D

Q59. GPRS works with

A) GSM

B) CDMA

C) A & B

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q60. GPRS is a ..........standard.

A) 1G

B) 2G

C) 2.5G

D) 3G

Ans. C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: MOBILE COMPUTING

Branch: COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Class: FINAL YEAR BE COMPUTER

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following is a mobile computingcharacteristic?

A. Bearer Mobility.

B. Session Mobility

C. Host mobility.

D. All

Ans.: D

Q2. Gateway is:

A. Interface.

B. Mobility.

C. Network.

D. All

Ans.: A

Q.3.The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

A.Cell

B. Tessellate
C. Mobile station
D. None of the above

Answer A.

Q.4 ISO 9000 related to …

A. Connection.

B. Software Quality.

C. Frequency.

D. All

Answer B.

Q.5 Session Mobility is a

A. One bearer to another.

B. One device to another.

C. One user-agent environment to another.

D. Physical Location.

Answer C.

Q.6. User Agent (UA) in the Mobile Computing is

A. Software.

B. Equipment.

C. Software and Equipment.

D. None.

Answer A

Q.7 In India the regulatory authority is

A. FCC

B.TRAI

C.ICT

D.CEPT

Answer B

Q.8 Virtual Office is

A. Physical office

B. Mobile office

C. Both A and B

D. None

Answer B

Q.9 Standards is a

A. Guideline

B. Rules

C. Criteria

D All

Answer D

Q. 10 second generation or 2G Technology uses

A. AMPS

B. FDMA

C. TDMA AND FDMA

D. UMTS

Answer C

Q.11 Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-enabled device to
another —-

A. Any device
B. Wired device
C. Wireless-enabled device
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q.12The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —-

A. Mobility

B. Portability
C . Wireless connectivity
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q.13 In a cellular system, the shape of the cell is generally —–

A.Hexagon

B.Circular

C. Square
 D.None of the above

Answer A

Q.14 Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

A. Home location register

B. Visitor location register
C. Entity equipment register
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q.15 In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied to the
transmission?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q.16 Presentation Tiers responsible for presenting the information to the

A. End User.

B. Security.

C. Memory.

D . All

Answer A

Q.17 Edge is responsible for

A. Distribution of Traffic.
B. Local switching.

C. Exchanges.

D .All

Answer D.

Q.18. In Application Tier-2 MOM is a

A. Memory Oriented Management

B. Message –Oriented Middleware

C. Format

D. None

Answer B

Q.19 Three Tier architecture for mobile computing these tiers are Presentation Tier, application
Tier and

A. Session Tier

B. Physical Tier

C. Data Tier

D None

Answer C

Q.20 Which of the following uses high-frequency radio waves instead of cables for connecting
the devices in LAN?
 A. Wired LAN
B. Wireless LAN
C. Fiber made LAN
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q.21 EIR is a

A. Equipment Identity Register

B. Equipment Identity Rules

C. Equipment information Registration

D None.

Q.22 Bluetooth Technology supports

A. Piconet

B .Ad hoc piconet

C .Scatter net

D. All of the above

Answer D

Q.23. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data between a variety
of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A. Mobile technology
B. Bluetooth technology
C. Ad hoc computing
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q.24. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

A. Master
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. Slave

Answer A

Q.25 Peripheral devices can communicate though a small network known as

A. Bluetooth

B. Wifi

C. Lifi

D. None

Answer A

Q.26 Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________

a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) metropolitan area network
d) wide area network

Answer B
Q.27 Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.
a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM

Answer A

Q.28. RFID stands for?

a) Random frequency identification
b) Radio frequency identification
c) Random frequency information
d) Radio frequency information

Answer B

Q.29. which of the following statement about radio frequency Identification (RFID) is not true?

A.RFID systems transmit radio signals over long distances

B. RFID systems use tiny tags with embedded microchips containing data about an item and its
location

C. RFID systems provide a powerful technology for tracking the movement of goods throughout
the supply chain

D .Companies may be required to upgrade hardware and software to accommodate the massive
amounts data that are being produced by RFID systems.

Answer A.

Q.30 1 WiMAX stands for ___________

a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
d) wireless internet maximum communication

Answer B

Q.31 WiMAX uses the _________

a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing

Answer A

Q.32 WiMAX is mostly used for __________

a) local area network
b) metropolitan area network
c) personal area network
d) wide area network

Answer B

Q.33. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify digital modulation
and network level architecture?
a) GSM
b) AMPS
c) CDMA
d) IS-54

Answer A

Q.34 Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

a) Global system for mobile
b) Groupe special mobile
c) Global special mobile
d) Groupe system mobile

Answer B

Q.35 Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

a) Global system for mobile
b) Groupe special mobile
c) Global special mobile
d) Groupe system mobile

Answer C

Q.36 Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM radio
transmission?
a) SIM
b) On the air privacy
c) SMS
d) Packet switched traffic
Answer B

Q.37 ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC

Answer B

Q.38 Which of the following memory device stores information such as subscriber’s
identification number in GSM?
a) Register
b) Flip flop
c) SIM
d) SMS

Answer C

Q.39 The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is
a. MSC
b. Roamer
c. Hand off
d. Forward channel
Answer C

Q.40 Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because
a. It uses the maximum area for coverage
b. Fewer number of cells are required
c. It approximates circular radiation pattern
d. All of the above
Answer D

Q.41 Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM architecture?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) Channel
Answer D

Q.42 Which one is not an advantage of using frequency reuse?

a) Increased capacity
b) Limited spectrum is required
c) Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
d) Number of base stations is reduced

Answer: d
Q.43 What is handoff?
a) Forward channel
b) Switching technique
c) Roamer
d) Guard channel

Answer: B
Q.44 who has the responsibility of billing and system maintenance function in cellular system?
a) Base Station
b) PSTN
c) MSC
d) Mobile system

Answer: C

Q.45Which is one of the disadvantages of 2G standards?

a) Short Messaging Service (SMS)
b) Digital modulation
c) Limited capacity
d) Limited Internet Browsing

Answer:D

Q.46VLR and HLR in GSM systems are

A. Gateways for outer connectivity

B. Databases of registered users

C. Routers and call management servers

D. NONE

Answer: B
Q.47Main reasons for a handover in GSM are

A. Weak signal in cell and heavy cell load

B. Heavy cell load

C. Mobile station moves from cell to cell

D.ALL

Answer:A

Q.48GPRS needs the following parts of a typical GSM

A. Does not need any part of GSM

B. The packet-switched core for data transmission

C. The circuit-switched core for localization and authentication

D.NONE

Answer:C

Q.49 MIN stands for

a. Mobile Identification Number
b. Mobile Internet
c. Mobility In Network
d. None of the above

Answer:A

Q.50 Centre excited hexagonal cells use

a. Sectored directional antennas
b. Omni directional antennas
c. Yagiuda antennas
d. None of the above

Answer:B

Q.51 The strategies acquired for channel assignment are

a. Fixed
b. Dynamic
c. Regular
d. Both a andb
e. Both b and c

Answer:D

Q.52 Delay in handoffs is caused due to

a. Week signal conditions
b. High traffic conditions
c. Un availability of the channel
d. All of the above

Answer:D

Q.53. Trunking in a cellular network refers to

a. Termination of a call
b. Spectrum unavailability
c. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
d. All of the above

Answer:C

Q.542. RFID is a part of IoT.

a) True
b) False

Answer:A
Q.55 Bluetooth uses __________
a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing

Answer:A

Q.56 Bluetooth supports _______

a) point-to-point connections
b) point-to-multipoint connection
c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
d) multipoint to point connection

Answer:C

Q.57In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.

a) 63
b) 127
c) 255
d) 511

Answer:C

Q.58Which of the following priority handoff method decrease the probability of forced
termination of a call due to lack of available channels?
a) Queuing
b) Guard channel
c) Cell dragging
d) Near far effect

Answer:A

Q.59What is frequency reuse?

a) Process of selecting and allocating channels
b) Process of selection of mobile users
c) Process of selecting frequency of mobile equipment
d) Process of selection of number of cells

Answer:A
Q.60 Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?
a) Emergency calling
b) Packet switched protocols
c) Call diversion
d) Standard mobile telephony

Answer: C
 Model Question Paper
SMQA
Department of Computer Engineering
Year 2019-20
Class :- BE
Subject:- Software Metrics and Quality Assurance

Q.1 Internal product attribute

A. Usability
B. Portability
C. Size
D. Maintainability

Ans. C

Q.2 External product attribute

A. Reliability
B. Size
C. Complexity
D. Reuse

Ans. A

Q.3 Functionality approach

A. Testability
B. Albrecht's Approach
C. Little Wood Model
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.4 TCF stands for

A. Test Complex Factor
B. Technical Complexity Factor
C. Type Component Factor
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.5 Parametric reliability growth model

A. Putnam Slim Model
B. COCOMO Model
C. DeMarco's Model
D. Jelinski Moranda Model

Ans. D

Q.6 Rayleigh curve is used in

A. COCOMO Model
B. COCOMO 2.0 Model
C. Putnam's Slim Model
D. Regression Based Model

Ans. C

Q.7 Model is applied for project exceeding 70000 lines of code

A. Regression Based Model
B. COCOMO Model
C. COCOMO 2.0 Model
D. Putnam's Slim Model

Ans. D

Q.8 Software quality model

A. Non Homogeneous Poission Process Model
B. ISO 9126
C. Little Wood Model
D. COCOMO Model

Ans. B

Q.9 Complexity is denoted by

A. Big B Notation
B. Big O Notation
C. Small o Notation
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.10 What is in degree?

A. Number of Arcs that leave the node
B. Number of Arcs arriving at the node
C. Number of sequence of consecutive node
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.11 Type[s] of structural measure

A. Information Flow Structure
B. Database Structure
C. Control Flow Structure
D. All of Above

Ans. C

Q.12 Measurement is made by counting number of elements in entity set

A. Absolute Scale
B. Ordinal Scale
C. Nominal Scale
D. Ratio Scale

Ans. A

Q.13 Conversion of fahrenheit to celsius is example of

A. Nominal Scale
B. Ordinal Scale
C. Interval Scale
D. Ratio Scale

Ans. C

Q.14 Meaningful statement

A. Fred is twice as tall as Jane
B. The Temperature in Tokyo today is twice that in London
C. Failure x is twice as critical as y
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.15 In DeMarco's approach functionality is measured by

A. Function Point
B. Object Point
C. Bang Metrics
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.16 Complete graph has tree impurity

A. 0
B. 1
C. Greater than 1
D. None of Above
Ans. B

Q.17 To compute McCabe's cyclomatic number, following equation is used

A. v(G)=d+2
B. v(G)=n-e+2
C. v(G)=e-n+1
D. v(G)=e-n+2

Ans. D

Q.18 Example of direct measurement

A. Test Effectiveness Ratio
B. Duration of Testing Process
C. Module Deftect Density
D. Programmer Productivity

Ans. B

Q.19 UFC stands for

A. Function Point Count
B. Adjusted Function Point Count
C. Unadjusted Fuction Point Count
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.20 Shooman's model is based on

A. Jelinski Moranda Model
B. Little Wood Model
C. Little Wood Verrall Model
D. Non Homogeneous Poisson Process Model

Ans. A

Q.21 Goel Okumoto model is

A. NHPP variant of Little Wood Verrall Model
B. NHPP variant of Little Wood Model
C. NHPP variant of Jelinski Moranda Model
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.22 Estimators compare proposed project with one or more past projects
A. Expert Opinion
B. Analogy
C. Decomposition
D. Models

Ans. B

Q.23 COCOMO stands for

A. Constructive Cost Model
B. Cost Constructive Model
C. Cost Coopearative Model
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.24 Banking or Accounting is

A. Organic System
B. Semidetached System
C. Embedded System
D. All of Above

Ans. A

Q.25 In Original COCOMO model, Intermediate model is applied when

A. Little bit about project is known
B. After requirements are specified
C. Design is complete
D. All of Above

Ans. B

Q.26 COCOMO 2.0 estimates size in

A. Function Point
B. Object Point
C. Bang Metics
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.27 Documentation should include

A. Process and Product Documentation
B. User Documentation
C. System Documentation
D. All of Above

Ans. D
Q.28 Tree impurity of Tree is
A. 0
B. 1
C. Greater than 1
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.29 x and y refers to the same global data

A. Data Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. Control Coupling
D. Common Coupling

Ans. D

Q.30 Modules are related only by the fact that they must occur within same timespan
A. Sequential Cohesion
B. Communicational Cohesion
C. Procedural Cohesion
D. Temporal Cohesion

Ans. D

Q.31 Modules are unrelated

A. Function Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Logical Cohesion
D. Coincidental Cohesion

Ans. D

Q.32 It is the extent to which its individual components are needed to perform the
same task
A. Coupling
B. Cohesion
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q. 33 It is the degree of interdependence between modules

A. Coupling
B. Cohesion
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.34 Type[s] of testing

A. Manual Testing
B. Automatic Testing
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.35 Short term goal[s] of software testing

A. Bug Discovery
B. Bug Prevention
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.36 Long term goal[s] of software testing

A. Quality
B. Customer Satisfaction
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.37 Post implementation goal[s] of software testing

A. Reduced Maintainance Cost
B. Improved Software Testing Process
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.38 In this software testing life cycle phase, real time validation of product and
finding bugs operations are carried out
A. Test Planning
B. Test Case Designing
C. Test Environment Set Up
D. Test Execution

Ans. D
Q.39 Matrix, reports and results are documented after completion of testing
A. Requirement analysis
B. Test Planning
C. Test Case Designing
D. Test Closure

Ans. D

Q.40 Testing will be carried out simultaneously on different machine with different
OS platform combination
A. Manual Testing
B. Automation Testing
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.41 Testing will be used when need to execute the set of test cases tests repeatedly.
A. Manual Testing
B. Automated Testing
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.42 Test scripts are developed and testing is performed using scripts in
A. Manual Testing
B. Automated Software Testing
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.43 Functional testing tool[s]

A. WinRunner
B. Quick Test Professional
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.44 Type[s] of structural coverage

A. Statement Coverage
B. Decision Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. All of Above

Ans. D

Q.45 Testing interactions of modules

A. Module Testing
B. Regression Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. System Testing

Ans. C

Q.46 Specification based (functional, black-box) testing include

A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Cause-effect Analysis
D. All of Above

Ans. D

Q.47 Structure based (white-box) testing include

A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Cause-effect Analysis
D. Coverage Metrics and Criteria

Ans. D

Q.48 Load and performance testing tool

A. Win Runner
B. Quick Test Professional
C. JMeter
D. All of Above

Ans. C

Q.49 Testing Tool is used to validate web application across different browsers and
platforms
A. Selenium IDE
B. Selenium 3
C. Selenium Grid
D. All of Above

Ans. D
Q.50 Level of CMM includes defect prevention, test process optimization and quality
control
A. Managed
B. Defined
C. Measured
D. Optimization

Ans. D

Q.51 Level of CMM includes test planning, test monitoring and control, test
environment
A. Initial
B. Managed
C. Defined
D. Measured

Ans. B

Q.52 Standard is applicable to most software development organizations

A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 9002
C. ISO 9003
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.53 Standard applies to those organizations which do not design products but are
only involved in production
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 9002
C. ISO 9003
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.54 Standard applies to those organizations that are involved in only installation and
testing of the products
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 9002
C. ISO 9003
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.55 Model is developed specifically for software industries

A. ISO 9000 Model
B. CMM Model
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.56 Model is applied to any type of industries

A. ISO 9000 Model
B. CMM Model
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.57 Phases of software engineering

A. Planning, Requirement Analysis
B. Design and Implemantation
C. Testing
D. All of Above

Ans. D

Q.58 M'=aM is
A. Admissible Transformation
B. Affine Transformation
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.59 M=aM'+b is
A. Admissible Transformation
B. Affine Transformation
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B
Q.60 Measurement in SMQA includes
A. Requirements are complete, Design is High Quality
B. Code is ready to be tested, Product is ready for delivery
C. Budget will be exceeded
D. All of Above

Ans. D
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehouse and Mining (DWM).
Branch: Computer Engineering.
Class: BESemester: VIII

Q1.__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection of

data in support ofmanagement decisions.
A.Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining.
Ans.: B

Q2.Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.
B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System.
Ans.: A

Q3.The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually __________.

A. 1-2 years
B. 3-4years.
C. 5-6 years.
D. 5-10 years.
Ans.: D

Q4.. ________________defines the structure of the data held in operational databases

and used by
operational applications.
A. User-level metadata.
B. Data warehouse metadata.
C. Operational metadata.
D. Data mining metadata.
Ans.: C

1
Q5.__________ is the heart of the warehouse.
A.Data mining database servers.
B. Data warehouse database servers.
C. Data mart database servers.
D. Relational data base servers.
Ans.: B

Q6.A data mart is designed to optimize the performance for well-defined and predicable
uses.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A

Q7.Transient data is which of the following?

A. Data in which changes to existing records cause the previous version of the records
to be eliminated
B. Data in which changes to existing records do not cause the previous version of the
records to be eliminated
C. Data that are never altered or deleted once they have been added
D. Data that are never deleted once they have been added
Ans.: A

Q8.A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To create a new data warehouse
Ans.: A

Q9.Data mining is?

A. Time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C. The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans.: B

2
Q10.What is noise?
A. Component of a network
B. Context of KDD and data mining
C. Aspects of a data warehouse
D. None of these
Ans.:B

Q11.The data Warehouse is__________.

A. read only.
B. write only.
C. read write only.
D. none.
Ans.: A

Q12.The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within
the data warehouseis___________.
A. subject-oriented.
B. time-variant.
C. integrated.
D. All of the above.
Ans.: D

Q13.A ________ system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge
workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above.
Ans.: A

Q14.. Query tool is meant for __________.

A. data acquisition.
B. information delivery.
C. information exchange.
D. communication.
Ans.: A

3
Q15.________ are responsible for running queries and reports against data warehouse
tables.
A. Hardware.
B. Software.
C. End users.
D. Middle ware.
Ans.: C

Q16.Classification rules are extracted from _____________.

A. root node.
B. decision tree.
C. siblings.
D. branches.
Ans.: B

Q17._________ is not associated with data cleaning process.

A. Deduplication
B. Domain
C. Consistency
D. Segmentation
Ans.: D

Q18.Expansion for DSS in DW is?

A. Decisive Strategic System
B. Data Support System
C. Data Store System
D. Decision Support system
Ans.: D

Q19.A data warehouse is described by which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end user
B. Contains only current data
C. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
D. Organized around important subject areas
Ans.: D

4
Q20. The main organizational justification for implementing a data warehouse is to
provide?
A. ETL from operation systems to strategic system
B. Large scale transaction processing
C. Storing large volumes of data
D. Decision support
Ans.: D

Q21.When you ________ the data, you are aggregating the data to a higher level.
A. Slice
B. Roll up
C. Accumulate
D. Drill down
Ans.: B

Q22.______ makes a copy of a table and places it in a different location, to improve

access time.
A. Archive
B. Replication
C. Partitioning
D. Aggregation
Ans.: B

Q23.The data is stored, retrieved & updated in?

A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. SMTP
D. FTP
Ans.: B

Q24.__________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans.: C

5
Q25. ____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to
make proactive,
knowledge-driven decisions.
A. Data warehouse.
B. Data mining.
C. Datamarts.
D. Metadata.
Ans.: B

Q26. Record cannot be updated in _____________.

A. OLTP
B. files
C. RDBMS
D. data warehouse
Ans.: D

Q27. The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes __________.

A. at least one data mart.
B. data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources.
C. near real-time updates.
D. far real-time updates.
Ans.: C

Q28.The active data warehouse architecture includes __________

A. at least one data mart.
B. data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources.
C. near real-time updates.
D. all of the above.
Ans.: D

Q29.Treating incorrect or missing data is called as _______.

A. Preprocessing
B. Interpretation
C. Selection
D. Transformation
Ans.: A

6
Q30.Successful data warehousing requires that a formal program in total quality
management (TQM) be implemented.
A. True
B.False
Ans.: A

Q31. The core of the multidimensional model is the _______ , which consists of a large set of
facts and a number of dimensions.
A. Multidimensional cube
B. Dimensions cube
C. Data cube
D. Data model
Ans.: C

Q32. —— is not a data mining functionality?

A. Clustering and Analysis
B. Selection and interpretation
C. Classification and regression
D. Characterization and Discrimination
Ans.: B

Q33.Data mining is a tool for allowing users to find the hidden relationships in data.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A

Q34.What are the two main objectives associated with data mining?
A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To find hidden patterns and trends
Ans.: D

Q35.Data mining is?

A. Time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C. The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans.: B

7
Q36.._______ is an essential process where intelligent methods are applied to extract
data patterns.

A. Data warehousing
B. Data mining
C. Text mining
D. Data selection
Ans.: B

Q37.. Data mining can also applied to other forms such as ______
i) Data streamsii) Sequence data
iii) Networked dataiv) Text datav) Spatial data
A. i, ii, iii and v only
B. ii, iii, iv and v only
C. i, iii, iv and v only
D. All i, ii, iii, iv and v
Ans.: D

Q38.The full form of KDD is _______

A. Knowledge Database
B. Knowledge Discovery Database
C. Knowledge Data House
D. Knowledge Data Definition.
Ans.: B

8
Q39.. Strategic value of data mining is_________
A. cost-sensitive
B. work-sensitive
C. time-sensitive
D. technical-sensitive.
Ans.: C

Q40.The _________ refers to extracting knowledge from larger amount of data.

A. data abstraction.
B. data warehouse.
C. database.
D. data mining
Ans.: D

Q41.Knowledge discovery in database refers to _____.

A. whole process of extraction of knowledge from data.
B. selection of data.
C. coding.
D. cleaning the data.
Ans.: A

Q42.Data mining is used to refer ______ stage in knowledge discovery in database.

A. selection.
B. retrieving.
C. discovery.
D. coding.
Ans.: C

Q43._________refers to the process of deriving high-quality information from text.

A. Text Mining.
B. Image Mining.
C. Database Mining.
D. Multimedia Mining
Ans.: A

9
Q44.Reduce amount of time and memory required by data mining algorithms--------
A. Target Data
B. Data sampling
C. Data aggregation
D. Data reduction
Ans.: D

Q45.What does Apriori algorithm do

A. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
B. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q46.. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of Apriori algorithm?
A. Hash-based techniques
B. Transaction Reduction
C. Partitioning
D. All of the above
Ans.: D

Q47.Which of the following is direct application of frequent item set mining?

A. Social Network Analysis
B. Market Basket Analysis
C. Outlier Detection
D. Intrusion Detection
Ans.: B

Q48.When do you consider an association rule interesting?

A. If it only satisfies min support
B. If it only satisfies min confidence
C. If it satisfies both min support and min confidence
D. There are other measures to check so
Ans.: C

10
Q49.. What is the relation between candidate and frequent item sets?
A. A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset
B. A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset
C. No relation between the two
D. Both are same
Ans.: B

Q50.What is the principle on which Apriori algorithm work?

A. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent
B. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q51.Which of these is not a frequent pattern mining algorithm?

A. Apriori
B. FP growth
C. Decision trees
D. Éclat
Ans.: C

Q52.What are closed frequent itemsets?

A. A closed itemset
B. A frequent itemset
C. An itemset which is both closed and frequent
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q53. What are maximal frequent itemsets?

A. A frequent itemsetwho’s no super-itemset is frequent
B. A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent
C. A non-frequent itemset whose super-itemset is frequent
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

11
Q54.Why is correlation analysis important?
A. To make apriori memory efficient
B. To weed out uninteresting frequent itemsets
C. To find large number of interesting itemsets
D. To restrict the number of database iterations
Ans.: B

Q55. What is association rule mining?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining
B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets
C. Using association to analyses correlation rules
D. None of the above
Ans.: B

Q56.What is frequent pattern growth?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining
B. Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient
C. Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q57.The apriori algorithm works in a..And...Fashion?

A. top-down and depth-first
B. top-down and breath-first
C. bottom-up and depth-first
D. bottom-up and breath-first
Ans.: D

Q58.A ______ system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge
workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A) OLAP
B) OLTP
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Ans.: A

12
Q59.Data cleaning routine attempt to fill I missing values, ___ and correct
inconsistencies.
A. smooth out noise
B.remove error
C. variance
D. none of above
Ans.: A

Q60.Pivot is also known as?

A. drill up
B. roll up
C. rotate
D. mix
Ans.: C

13
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Mobile Computing

Branch: Computer

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for
the GSM system in mobile computing?

A. Sim

B. HLR

C. VLR

D. ELR

Ans.: A

Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

A. Home location register

B. Visitor location register
C. Entity equipment register
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q3. In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied
to the transmission?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q4. Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q5. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

A. Handover
B. Infrastructure
C. Frequency planning
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q6. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over
the cellular network system?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. TCP
D. None of the above
Ans.: B

Q7. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

A. Bearer
B. Supplementary
C. Tele
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q8. Bluetooth Technology supports

A. Piconet
B. Ad hoc piconet
C. Scatter net
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q9. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data
between a variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A. Mobile technology
B. Bluetooth technology
C. Ad hoc computing
D. None of the above

Ans.: B
Q10. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

A. Master
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. Slave

Ans.: A

Q11. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

A. IEEE 802.2
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.15

Ans.: B

Q12. Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

A. Flexibility
B. Ease of use
C. Robustness
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q13. Disadvantages of WLANs include —–

A. Interference and noise

B. Slower than wired
C. Greater care is needed for encryption
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q14. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

A. Slaves
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q15. Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-

enabled device to another —-

A. Any device
B. Wired device
C. Wireless-enabled device
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q16. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —-

A. Mobility
B. Portability
C. Wireless connectivity
D. All of the above
Ans.: D

Q17. Which of the following is the base of most mobile communications?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q18. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q19. Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

A. Education
B. Sports
C. Games
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q20. Challenges of mobile computing include ———

A. Low Security
B. Ad hoc Networking
C. Shared medium
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q21. Which of the following services/service are defined within the bearer
services?

A. Data transmission
B. Forward error correction
C. Flow control
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q22. The overlapping portion of two piconets is called——–

A. Piconet
B. Ad hoc piconet
C. Scatter net
D. All of the above

Ans.: C

Q23. Bluetooth technology is used for —-

A. Connection of peripheral devices

B. Ad-hoc networking
C. Bridging network gaps
D. All of the above
Ans.: D

Q24. The most WLANs are based upon —-

A. IEEE 802.11
B. WiFi
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

Ans.: C

Q25. The advantages of WLANs are —–

A. Flexibility
B. Robustness
C. Less cost
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q.26. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify
digital modulation and network level architecture?
A. GSM
B.AMPS
C.CDMA
D.IS-54
Ans.: A

Q.27 Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

A. Global system for mobile
B. Groupe special mobile
C. Global special mobile
D. Groupe system mobile
Ans.: B
Q.28 who sets the standards of GSM?
A. ITU
B. AT & T
C. ETSI
D. USDC

Ans.: C

Q.29 Which of the following does not come under the tele-services of GSM?
A. Standard mobile telephony
B. Mobile originated traffic
C. Base originated traffic
D. Packet switched traffic

Ans.: D

Q.30 Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?

A. Emergency calling
B. Packet switched protocols
C. Call diversion
D. Standard mobile telephony

Ans.: C

Q.31 Which of the following memory device stores information such as

subscriber’s identification number in GSM?
A. Register
B. Flip flop
C. SIM
D. SMS

Ans.: C

Q.32 Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM

radio transmission?
A. SIM
B. On the air privacy
C. SMS
D. Packet switched traffic

Ans.: B

Q.33 Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM
architecture?
A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. Channel

Ans.: D

Q.34 Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between

mobile station and MSC?
A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. BSC

Ans.: A

Q.35 ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. MSC

Ans.: B

Q.36 __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.

A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. MSC

Ans.: C

Q.37 __________ carries digitally encoded user data.

A. Traffic channels
B. Control channels
C. Signaling channels
D. Forward channels6

Ans.: A

Q.38 ____________ carries signalling and synchronizing commands.

A. Traffic channels
B. Control channels
C. Signaling channels
D. Forward channels
Ans.: B
Q.39 Several protocols for upper layers in bluetooth use _________

A. UDP
B. HSP
C. ITC
D. L2CAP

Ans.: D

Q.40 Network layer at source is responsible for creating a packet from data
coming from another ________
A. Station
B. Link
C. Node
D. Protocol

Ans.: D

Q.41 Header of datagram in IPv4 has _________

A. 0 to 20 bytes
B. 20 to 40 bytes
C. 20 to 60 bytes
D. 20 to 80 bytes

Ans.: C

Q.42 In IPv4 layer, datagram is of ________

A. Fixed length
B. Variable length
C. Global length
D. Zero length
Ans.: B

Q.43 Which protocol is commonly used to retrieve email from a mail server?
A. FTP
B. IMAP
C. HTML
D. TELNET

Ans.: B

Q.44 A packet in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is called a ____________

A. Transmittable slots
B. Packet
C. Segment
D. Source Slots

Ans.: C

Q.45 IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as building block of a wireless
___________
A. LAN
B. WAN protocol
C. MAN
D. ALOHA

Ans.: A

Q.46 Wireless transmission is divided into ___________

A. 3 broad groups
B. 6 broad groups
C. 9 broad groups
D. 8 broad groups
Ans.: A

Q.47 Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Networking Protocol have

___________
A. Four Layers
B. Five Layers
C. Six Layers
D. Seven Layers

Ans.: A

Q.48 Packets of data that is transported by IP is called __________

A. Datagram
B. Frames
C. Segments
D. Encapsulate message

Ans.: A

Q.49 IPv6 has a larger address space of _________

A. 216
B. 2128
C. 232
D. 28

Ans.: B

Q.50 In practical IPv6 application, a technology encapsulates IPv6 packets

inside IPv4 packets, this technology is called _______
A. Tunneling
B. Hashing
C. Routing
D. NAT

Ans.: A

Q.51 Which one of the following descriptions about IPv6 is correct?

A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random
B. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts
C. There are 2.7 billion available addresses
D. An interface can only be configured with one IPv6 address

Ans.: B

Q.52 MIN stands for_____________________

A. Mobile Identification Number
B. Mobile Internet
C. Mobility In Network
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q.53 The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to
another is_________________

A. MSC
B. Roamer
C. Hand off
D. Forward channel

Ans.: C

Q.54 In Handoff
A. Process of transferring the call to the new base station
B. Transfers the call
C. New channel allocation is done
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q.55 In a wireless communication, base station is connected to central hub

called _______
A. PSTN
B. MSC
C. CO
D. PBX

Ans.: B

Q.56 PSTN stands for ________

A. Public switched telephone network
B. Personal switched telephone network
C. Personal switched telephone node
D. Public switched telephone node

Ans.: A

Q.57 In public switched telephone network, LATA stands for ______

A. Local access and transport area
B. Land area and transport area
C. Local access and telephone access
D. Local area and telephone access
Ans.: A

Q.58 Connection oriented services are also called __________

A. Datagram services
B. Virtual circuit routing
C. Connectionless services
D. Routing service

Ans.: B

Q.59 ISDN is based on the concept of __________

A. SS7
B. CCS
C. ARDIS
D. CDPD

Ans.: B

Q.60 ______ is used for transmission of packets in the cellular switched

architecture.
A. Packet switching techniques
B. Circuit switching techniques
C. Packet and circuit switched technique
D. Datagram technique

Ans.: A
Name of College: Gangamai College Of Engineering,Nagaon,Dhule-05

Subject: Software Metrics & Quality Assurance

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following is the task of project

indicators A help in assessment of status of ongoing
project
B track potential risk

C help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track

potential risk D none of the mentioned
Ans.: help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track
potential risk

Q2. Which of the following does not affect the software quality
and organizational performance?

A Market
B
Product
C
Technology
D People
Ans.:
Market
Q3. The intent of project metrics is:

A minimization of development
schedule B for strategic purposes
C assessing project quality on ongoing basis

D minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on

ongoing basis

Ans.: minimization of development schedule and assessing project

quality on ongoing basis

Q4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE

process? A Efficiency
B Effort
Applied C Cost
D All of the mentioned

Ans.: Efficiency

Q5. Which of the following is an indirect measure of

product? A Quality
B
Complexity
C Reliability
D All of the Mentioned

Ans.: All of the Mentioned

Q6. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the

A number of
Functions B number
of user inputs
C number of lines of code

D amount of memory usage

Ans.: number of lines of code

Q7. Usability can be measured in terms of:

A Intellectual skill to learn the system

B Time required to become moderately efficient in system

usage C Net increase in productivity
D All of the mentioned

Ans.: All of the mentioned

Q8. Defects removal efficiency

(DRE)depends on A E – errors found before
software delivery
B D – defects found after delivery to
user C Both E and D
D Varies with project

Ans.: Both E and D

Q9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in
metrics data are meaningful is known as

A DRE (Defect Removal

Efficiency) B Function points
analysis
C Control Chart

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: Control Chart

Q10. Which of the following is not a metric for design
model? A Interface design metrics
B Component-level
metrics C Architectural
metrics
D Complexity metrics

Ans.: Complexity metrics

Q11. Statement and branch coverage metrics are

part of A Analysis Model
B Design
Model C
Testing
D Source Code

Ans.: Testing
Q12. Function Points in software engineering was first
proposed by A Booch
B Boehm
C
Albrecht
D
jacobson
Ans.: Albrecht

Q13. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function
Point Computation?

A3

B4

C5

D6

Ans.: 5

Q16. Architectural Design Metrics are in

nature. A Black box
B White
box C Grey
box D
Green box
Ans.: Black Box
Q17. SMI stands for

A Software Mature
Indicator B Software
Maturity Index
C Software Mature Index

D Software Maturity Indicator

Ans.: Software Maturity Index

Q18. The amount of time that the software is available for use is
known as A Reliability
B Usability
C
Efficiency
D Functionality

Ans.: Reliability

Q19. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the

software A Stated needs
B is easy to use

C makes optimal use of system

resources D None of the above
Ans.: is easy to use
Q20. Suitability, Accuracy, Interoperability, and security are what type
quality attribute of ISO 9126 ?

A
Reliability
B Usability
C
Efficiency

D Functionality

Ans.: Functionality

Q21. In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource utilization are a

part of A Maintainability
B
Portability
C
Efficiency
D Usability
Ans.: Efficiency

Q22. is a measure of the degree of

interdependence between modules.

A
Cohesion
B
Coupling
C None of
these D All of
these Ans.:
Coupling
Q23. Which of the following is the best type of module
coupling? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C Data
coupling
D Content coupling

Ans.: Data Coupling

Q24. Which of the following is the worst type of module
coupling? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C
External coupling
D Content
coupling

Ans.: External Coupling

Q25. Which of the following is the worst type of module

cohesion? A Logical cohesion
B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Coincidental Cohesion

Q26. Which of the following is the best type of module
cohesion? A Logical cohesion
B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Functional cohesion

Q27. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal
of high cohesion and low coupling.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True

Q28. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed

from one module to another? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C
External coupling
D Content
coupling

Ans.: Stamp Coupling

Q29. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what
type of cohesion is being exhibited?

A Logical cohesion

B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Temporal cohesion

Q30. Which of the following is not included in failure
costs? A Rework
B Repair

C Failure Mode
analysis D none of
these
Ans.: None of these

Q31. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

measured? A Hardware
B Software

C
Programmers
D None of
these Ans.:
Software
Q32. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software?

A Project
Manager B
Project Team
C SQA
group D All
of these
Ans.: SQA group

Q33. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find

during the process so that they do not become defects after release
of the software.

A Error

B Equivalent
failure C Failure
cause
D None of these

Ans.: Errors
Q34. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and
reporting functions of management.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True
Q35. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each
other? A Direct relation
B Inverse
relation C No
relation
D None of these

Ans.: Inverse relation

Q36. Which one of the following is not a software quality

model? A ISO 9000
B McCall
Model C
Boehm Model
D ISO 9126
Ans.: ISO 9000

Q37. What is MTTF ?

A Maximum time to
failure B mean time to
failure
C minimum time to
failure D none of these
Ans.: Mean time to failure

Q38. How is software reliability defined?

A Time

B
Efficiency
C Quality
D Speed

Ans.: Time

Q39. NHPP stands for

A Non Homogeneous Poisson
Product B Non-Hetrogeneous
Poisson Product C Non-
Hetrogeneous Poisson Process D
Non Homogeneous Poisson
Process
Ans.: Non Homogeneous Poisson Process

Q40. Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of

hardware reliability?

A Useful -
life B Burn -
in
C Wear -
out D Time
Ans.: Time

Q41. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the

total cost of a software development project?
A Hardware and Software
Cost B Effort Cost
C Travel and training
cost D All of these
Ans.: All of these

Q42. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort
cost? A Costs of networking and communications
B Costs of providing heating and lighting office
space C Costs of lunch time food
D Costs of support staff

Ans.: Costs of lunch time food

Q43. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered

software? A Function related metrics
B Product related
metrics C Size related
metrics
D None of these

Ans.: Function related metrics

Q44. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project
when only a specification is available

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True

Q45. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict

effort as a function of LOC or FP? A FP-Based Estimation
B Process-Based
Estimation C COCOMO
D Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

Ans.: Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

Q46. The empirical data that support most estimation models are
derived from a vast sample of projects.

A
True
B

False

Ans.: False

Q47. COCOMO stands

for A Constructive cost
model
B Comprehensive cost model

C Constructive cost estimation

model D Complete cost estimation
model Ans.: Constructive cost
model

Q48. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements

have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been
established?

A Early design stage model

B Post-architecture-stage model
C Application composition
model D All of the mentioned
Ans.: Early design stage model
Q49. Which model was used during the early stages of software
engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of
software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and
evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.

A Early design stage model

B Post-architecture-stage
model C Application
composition model D All of the
mentioned

Ans.: Application composition model

Q50. Estimation of size for a project is

dependent on A Cost

B Time

C Schedule

D None of these

Ans.: None of these

Q51. RAD stands for

A Relative Application
Development B Rapid
Application Development
C Rapid Application Document
D None of these

Ans.: Rapid Application Development

Q52. Which one of the following models is not suitable for

accommodating any change?

A Build & Fix

Model B
Prototyping Model
C RAD Model
D Waterfall Model

Ans.: Waterfall Model

Q53. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping

Model A Horizontal prototype
B Vertical
prototype C
Diagonal prototype
D Domain
prototype
Ans.: Diagonal Prototype

Q54. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping

Model? A Quick design
B Coding

C Prototype Refinement
D Engineer product

Ans.: Coding

Q55. RAD Model

has A 2 phases
B 3 phases C 5 phases

D 6 phases
Ans.: 5 phases

Q56. SDLC stands for

A Software Development Life

Cycle B System Development
Life cycle
C Software Design Life
Cycle D System Design
Life Cycle
Ans.: Software Development Life Cycle

Q57. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases
of SDLC? A Waterfall Model
B Prototyping
Model C RAD
Model
D both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Ans.: RAD Model

Q58. ensures the integrity and security of data that are

passing over a network. A Firewall
B Anti-virus

C Pen testing tools

D Network security protocol

Ans.: Network security protocol

Q59. Which of the following is not a strong security

protocol? A HTTPS
B SSL

C
SMTP
D SFTP
Ans.: SMTP
Q60. TSL (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol
used for securing HTTP/HTTPS based connection.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Software Metrics & Quality Assurance

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following is the task of project

indicators A help in assessment of status of ongoing
project
B track potential risk

C help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track

potential risk D none of the mentioned
Ans.: help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track
potential risk

Q2. Which of the following does not affect the software quality
and organizational performance?

A Market
B
Product
C
Technology
D People
Ans.:
Market
Q3. The intent of project metrics is:

A minimization of development
schedule B for strategic purposes
C assessing project quality on ongoing basis

D minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on

ongoing basis

Ans.: minimization of development schedule and assessing project

quality on ongoing basis

Q4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE

process? A Efficiency
B Effort
Applied C Cost
D All of the mentioned

Ans.: Efficiency

Q5. Which of the following is an indirect measure of

product? A Quality
B
Complexity
C Reliability
D All of the Mentioned

Ans.: All of the Mentioned

Q6. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the

A number of
Functions B number
of user inputs
C number of lines of code

D amount of memory usage

Ans.: number of lines of code

Q7. Usability can be measured in terms of:

A Intellectual skill to learn the system

B Time required to become moderately efficient in system

usage C Net increase in productivity
D All of the mentioned

Ans.: All of the mentioned

Q8. Defects removal efficiency

(DRE)depends on A E – errors found before
software delivery
B D – defects found after delivery to
user C Both E and D
D Varies with project

Ans.: Both E and D

Q9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in
metrics data are meaningful is known as

A DRE (Defect Removal

Efficiency) B Function points
analysis
C Control Chart

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: Control Chart

Q10. Which of the following is not a metric for design
model? A Interface design metrics
B Component-level
metrics C Architectural
metrics
D Complexity metrics

Ans.: Complexity metrics

Q11. Statement and branch coverage metrics are

part of A Analysis Model
B Design
Model C
Testing
D Source Code

Ans.: Testing
Q12. Function Points in software engineering was first
proposed by A Booch
B Boehm
C
Albrecht
D
jacobson
Ans.: Albrecht

Q13. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function
Point Computation?

A3

B4

C5

D6

Ans.: 5

Q16. Architectural Design Metrics are in

nature. A Black box
B White
box C Grey
box D
Green box
Ans.: Black Box
Q17. SMI stands for

A Software Mature
Indicator B Software
Maturity Index
C Software Mature Index

D Software Maturity Indicator

Ans.: Software Maturity Index

Q18. The amount of time that the software is available for use is
known as A Reliability
B Usability
C
Efficiency
D Functionality

Ans.: Reliability

Q19. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the

software A Stated needs
B is easy to use

C makes optimal use of system

resources D None of the above
Ans.: is easy to use
Q20. Suitability, Accuracy, Interoperability, and security are what type
quality attribute of ISO 9126 ?

A
Reliability
B Usability
C
Efficiency

D Functionality

Ans.: Functionality

Q21. In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource utilization are a

part of A Maintainability
B
Portability
C
Efficiency
D Usability
Ans.: Efficiency

Q22. is a measure of the degree of

interdependence between modules.

A
Cohesion
B
Coupling
C None of
these D All of
these Ans.:
Coupling
Q23. Which of the following is the best type of module
coupling? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C Data
coupling
D Content coupling

Ans.: Data Coupling

Q24. Which of the following is the worst type of module
coupling? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C
External coupling
D Content
coupling

Ans.: External Coupling

Q25. Which of the following is the worst type of module

cohesion? A Logical cohesion
B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Coincidental Cohesion

Q26. Which of the following is the best type of module
cohesion? A Logical cohesion
B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Functional cohesion

Q27. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal
of high cohesion and low coupling.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True

Q28. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed

from one module to another? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C
External coupling
D Content
coupling

Ans.: Stamp Coupling

Q29. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what
type of cohesion is being exhibited?

A Logical cohesion

B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Temporal cohesion

Q30. Which of the following is not included in failure
costs? A Rework
B Repair

C Failure Mode
analysis D none of
these
Ans.: None of these

Q31. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

measured? A Hardware
B Software

C
Programmers
D None of
these Ans.:
Software
Q32. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software?

A Project
Manager B
Project Team
C SQA
group D All
of these
Ans.: SQA group

Q33. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find

during the process so that they do not become defects after release
of the software.

A Error

B Equivalent
failure C Failure
cause
D None of these

Ans.: Errors
Q34. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and
reporting functions of management.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True
Q35. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each
other? A Direct relation
B Inverse
relation C No
relation
D None of these

Ans.: Inverse relation

Q36. Which one of the following is not a software quality

model? A ISO 9000
B McCall
Model C
Boehm Model
D ISO 9126
Ans.: ISO 9000

Q37. What is MTTF ?

A Maximum time to
failure B mean time to
failure
C minimum time to
failure D none of these
Ans.: Mean time to failure

Q38. How is software reliability defined?

A Time

B
Efficiency
C Quality
D Speed

Ans.: Time

Q39. NHPP stands for

A Non Homogeneous Poisson
Product B Non-Hetrogeneous
Poisson Product C Non-
Hetrogeneous Poisson Process D
Non Homogeneous Poisson
Process
Ans.: Non Homogeneous Poisson Process

Q40. Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of

hardware reliability?

A Useful -
life B Burn -
in
C Wear -
out D Time
Ans.: Time

Q41. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the

total cost of a software development project?
A Hardware and Software
Cost B Effort Cost
C Travel and training
cost D All of these
Ans.: All of these

Q42. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort
cost? A Costs of networking and communications
B Costs of providing heating and lighting office
space C Costs of lunch time food
D Costs of support staff

Ans.: Costs of lunch time food

Q43. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered

software? A Function related metrics
B Product related
metrics C Size related
metrics
D None of these

Ans.: Function related metrics

Q44. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project
when only a specification is available

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True

Q45. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict

effort as a function of LOC or FP? A FP-Based Estimation
B Process-Based
Estimation C COCOMO
D Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

Ans.: Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

Q46. The empirical data that support most estimation models are
derived from a vast sample of projects.

A
True
B

False

Ans.: False

Q47. COCOMO stands

for A Constructive cost
model
B Comprehensive cost model

C Constructive cost estimation

model D Complete cost estimation
model Ans.: Constructive cost
model

Q48. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements

have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been
established?

A Early design stage model

B Post-architecture-stage model
C Application composition
model D All of the mentioned
Ans.: Early design stage model
Q49. Which model was used during the early stages of software
engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of
software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and
evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.

A Early design stage model

B Post-architecture-stage
model C Application
composition model D All of the
mentioned

Ans.: Application composition model

Q50. Estimation of size for a project is

dependent on A Cost

B Time

C Schedule

D None of these

Ans.: None of these

Q51. RAD stands for

A Relative Application
Development B Rapid
Application Development
C Rapid Application Document
D None of these

Ans.: Rapid Application Development

Q52. Which one of the following models is not suitable for

accommodating any change?

A Build & Fix

Model B
Prototyping Model
C RAD Model
D Waterfall Model

Ans.: Waterfall Model

Q53. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping

Model A Horizontal prototype
B Vertical
prototype C
Diagonal prototype
D Domain
prototype
Ans.: Diagonal Prototype

Q54. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping

Model? A Quick design
B Coding

C Prototype Refinement
D Engineer product

Ans.: Coding

Q55. RAD Model

has A 2 phases
B 3 phases C 5 phases

D 6 phases
Ans.: 5 phases

Q56. SDLC stands for

A Software Development Life

Cycle B System Development
Life cycle
C Software Design Life
Cycle D System Design
Life Cycle
Ans.: Software Development Life Cycle

Q57. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases
of SDLC? A Waterfall Model
B Prototyping
Model C RAD
Model
D both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Ans.: RAD Model

Q58. ensures the integrity and security of data that are

passing over a network. A Firewall
B Anti-virus

C Pen testing tools

D Network security protocol

Ans.: Network security protocol

Q59. Which of the following is not a strong security

protocol? A HTTPS
B SSL

C
SMTP
D SFTP
Ans.: SMTP
Q60. TSL (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol
used for securing HTTP/HTTPS based connection.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Internet Security
Branch: Information Tech.
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Internet Security A
N
UNIT- I S
1) The Certificate request Massage Includes Two Parameters, One of Which D
Is-

A) Certificate extension B) Certificate creation

C) Certificate exchange D) Certificate type
2) Which of The Following Is an Independent Malicious Program That Need D
Not Any Host Program?

A) Trap Doors B) Trojan Horse C) Virus D) Worm

3) Keyloggers Are A Form Of A

A) Spyware B) Shoulder Surfing C) Trojan D) Social Engineering

4) From the options below, which of them is not a threat to information D
security?

A) Disaster B) Eavesdropping
C) Information leakage D) Unchanged default password
5) What is a mantrap? C

A) A trusted security domain

B) A mechanism for logical accessing control
C) A double-door room used for physical access control
D) A device for fire suppression
6) _____ platforms are used for safety and protection of information in the A
cloud.

A) Cloud workload protection platforms

B) Cloud security protocols
C) AWS
D) One Drive

1 P.T.O.
7) Which of the following is not a control category in a physical security D
program?

A) Deterrence and delaying

B) Response and detection
C) Assessment and detection
D) Delaying and lighting
8) Which data communication method is used to send data over a serial C
communication link?

A) simplex B) half duplex C) full duplex D) all of these

9) In networking terminology UTP means A

A) Unshielded Twisted pair

B) Ubiquitous Teflon port
C) Uniformly Terminating port
D) Unshielded T-connector port
10) Which of the following is possible in a token passing bus network? A

A) in-service expansion
B) unlimited number of stations
C) both (a) and (b)
D) unlimited distance
11) In RSA, Ф(n) = _______ in terms of p and q. C

A) (p)/(q) B) (p)(q) C) (p-1) (q-1) D) (p+1) (q+1)

12) ___________ is widely used today for protecting data in transit in a variety A
of applications such as data transfer on the Internet, and on cellular phone
networks.

A) Encryption B) Data mining C) Internet Security D) Architectural security

13) In which of the following encryption key is used to encrypt and decrypt the C
data?

A) Public key B) Private key C) Symmetric key D) Asymmetric key

14) Encryption of small values, such as identifiers or names, is made A
complicated by the possibility of __________

A) Dictionary attacks B) Database attacks

C) Minor attacks D) Random attacks
15) The DES Algorithm Cipher System consists of ____________rounds D
(iterations) each with a round key

A) 12 B) 18 C) 9 D) 16

2
16) Which of the following is not a type of symmetric-key cryptography C
technique?

A) Caesar cipher B) Data Encryption Standard (DES)

C) Diffie Hellman cipher D) Playfair cipher
17) In the RSA algorithm, we select 2 random large values ‘p’ and ‘q’. Which of C
the following is the property of ‘p’ and ‘q’?

A) p and q should be divisible by Ф(n)

B) p and q should be co-prime
C) p and q should be prime
D) p/q should give no remainder.
18) The process of transforming plain text into unreadable text. B

A) Decryption B) Encryption C) Network Security D) Information Hiding

19) For p = 11 and q = 19 and choose e=17. Apply RSA algorithm where A
message=5 and find the cipher text.

A) C=80 B) C=92 C) C=56 D) C=23

20) In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by ______ B

A) Sender B) Receiver C) Sender & Receiver D) all devices connected

UNIT- II

21) What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system? A

a) To think like hackers and know how to defend such attacks

b) To hack a system without the permission
c) To hack a network that is vulnerable
d) To corrupt software or service using malware
22) Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is D
____________ ethical practice.

a) a good
b) not so good
c) very good social engineering practice
d) a bad

3 P.T.O.
23) ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated C
tools for unethical hacking.

a) Automated apps
b) Database software
c) Malware
d) Worms
24) Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of A
senior authority is a crime.

a) True
b) False
25) The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of B
personal data.

a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
26) Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key D
points listed below is not mandatory?

a) Know the nature of the organization

b) Characteristics of work done in the firm
c) System and network
d) Type of broadband company used by the firm
27) An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not A
get leaked.

a) True
b) False

4
28) After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client C
information to other parties.

a) hacking
b) cracking
c) penetration testing
d) exploiting
29) __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and D
provides different theories and a principle regarding the view-points about
what is right and wrong.

a) Social ethics
b) Ethics in cyber-security
c) Corporate ethics
d) Ethics in black hat hacking
30) A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the ___________ & A
___________ requirements of a firm while evaluating the security postures.

a) privacy and security

b) rules and regulations
c) hacking techniques
d) ethics to talk to seniors
31) What is the attack called “evil twin”? A

a) Rogue access point

b) ARP poisoning
c) Session hijacking
d) MAC spoofing
32) What are the forms of password cracking techniques? D

a) AttackSyllable
b) AttackBrute Forcing
c) AttacksHybrid
d) All of the above
33) What is the primary goal of ethical hacker? C

a) Avoiding detection
b) Testing security controls
c)Resolving security vulnerabilities
d)Determining return on investment for security measures

5 P.T.O.
34) What is the first phase of hacking? D

a) Maintaining access
b) Gaining access
c) Reconnaissance
d) Scanning
35) Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network? D

a) Black-hat hackers
b) Grey-hat hackers
c) Script kiddies
d) Disgruntled employees
36) Hacking for a cause is called? A

a) Hacktivism
b) Black-hat hacking
c). Active hacking
d)Activism
37) When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the internet it is known as what type B
of attack?

a) Local access
b) Remote attack
c) Internal attack
d) Physical access
38) Which are the four regional internet registries? D

a) APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC

b) APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
c) APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC
d) APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
39) What port number does HTTPS use? B

a) 53
b) 443
c) 80
d) 21
40) Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of A
senior authority is a crime.

a) True
b) False

UNIT- III

6
41) What are the major components of the intrusion detection system? D

a) Analysis Engine
b) Event provider
c) Alert Database
d) All of the mentioned
42) What are the different ways to classify an IDS? D

a) anomaly detection
b) signature-based misuse
c) stack based
d) all of the mentioned
43) What are the different ways to classify an IDS? B

a) Zone based
b) Host & Network based
c) Network & Zone based
d) Level based
44) What are the characteristics of anomaly-based IDS? A

a) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization

b) It doesn’t detect novel attacks
c) Anything distinct from the noise is not assumed to be intrusion activity
d) It detects based on signature
45) What is the major drawback of anomaly detection IDS? B

a) These are very slow at detection

b) It generates many false alarms
c) It doesn’t detect novel attacks
d) None of the mentioned
46) What are the characteristics of signature-based IDS? A

a) Most are based on simple pattern matching algorithms

b) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packets
c) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization
d) Anything distinct from the noise is assumed to be intrusion activity
47) What are the drawbacks of signature-based IDS? D

a) They are unable to detect novel attacks

b) They suffer from false alarms
c) They have to be programmed again for every new pattern to be detected
d) All of the mentioned

7 P.T.O.
48) What are the characteristics of Host based IDS? D

a) The host operating system logs in the audit information

b) Logs includes logins, file opens and program executions
c) Logs are analysed to detect tails of intrusion
d) All of the mentioned
49) What are the drawbacks of the host-based IDS? A

a) Unselective logging of messages may increase the audit burdens

b) Selective logging runs the risk of missed attacks
c) They are very fast to detect
d) They have to be programmed for new patterns
50) What are the strengths of the host-based IDS? D

a) Attack verification
b) System specific activity
c) No additional hardware required
d) All of the mentioned
51) What are characteristics of stack-based IDS? A

a) They are integrated closely with the TCP/IP stack and watch packets
b) The host operating system logs in the audit information
c) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packets
d) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization
52) What are characteristics of Network-based IDS? A

a) They look for attack signatures in network traffic

b) Filter decides which traffic will not be discarded or passed
c) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packet
d) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization
53) What are strengths of Network-based IDS? D

a) Cost of ownership reduced

b) Malicious intent detection
c) Real time detection and response
d) All of the mentioned

8
54) Which one of the following is not an application hash functions? B

a) One-way password file

b) Key wrapping
c) Virus Detection
d) Intrusion detection
55) What is a one-way password file? C

a) A scheme in which the password is jumbled and stored

b) A scheme in which the password is XOR with a key and stored
c) A scheme in which the hash of the password is stored
d) A scheme in which the password is passed through a PRF, which is then
stored
56) Case b ( refer Figure 1 From The chapter Message Authentication Codes in A
William Stallings )is an example of digital signature.

a) True
b) False
57) The main difference in MACs and digital signatures is that, in digital signatures the B
hash value of the message is encrypted with a user’s public key.

a) True
b) False
58) Message authentication code is also known as C

a) key code
b) hash code
c) keyed hash function
d) message key hash function
59) When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash B
function value is referred to as

a) Message Field
b) Message Digest
c) Message Score
d) Message Leap
60) What are the different ways to intrude? D

a) Buffer overflows
b) Unexpected combinations and unhandled input
c) Race conditions
d) All of the mentioned

**********
9 P.T.O.
 Name of College: Gangamai College of Engineering, Nagaon Dist
Dhule
Subject: Internet Security
Branch: Information Tech.
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Internet Security A
N
UNIT- I S
1) The Certificate request Massage Includes Two Parameters, One of Which D
Is-

A) Certificate extension B) Certificate creation

C) Certificate exchange D) Certificate type
2) Which of The Following Is an Independent Malicious Program That Need D
Not Any Host Program?

A) Trap Doors B) Trojan Horse C) Virus D) Worm

3) Keyloggers Are A Form Of A

A) Spyware B) Shoulder Surfing C) Trojan D) Social Engineering

4) From the options below, which of them is not a threat to information D
security?

A) Disaster B) Eavesdropping
C) Information leakage D) Unchanged default password
5) What is a mantrap? C

A) A trusted security domain

B) A mechanism for logical accessing control
C) A double-door room used for physical access control
D) A device for fire suppression

1 P.T.O.
6) _____ platforms are used for safety and protection of information in the A
cloud.

A) Cloud workload protection platforms

B) Cloud security protocols
C) AWS
D) One Drive
7) Which of the following is not a control category in a physical security D
program?

A) Deterrence and delaying

B) Response and detection
C) Assessment and detection
D) Delaying and lighting
8) Which data communication method is used to send data over a serial C
communication link?

A) simplex B) half duplex C) full duplex D) all of these

9) In networking terminology UTP means A

A) Unshielded Twisted pair

B) Ubiquitous Teflon port
C) Uniformly Terminating port
D) Unshielded T-connector port
10) Which of the following is possible in a token passing bus network? A

A) in-service expansion
B) unlimited number of stations
C) both (a) and (b)
D) unlimited distance
11) In RSA, Ф(n) = _______ in terms of p and q. C

A) (p)/(q) B) (p)(q) C) (p-1) (q-1) D) (p+1) (q+1)

12) ___________ is widely used today for protecting data in transit in a variety A
of applications such as data transfer on the Internet, and on cellular phone
networks.

A) Encryption B) Data mining C) Internet Security D) Architectural security

13) In which of the following encryption key is used to encrypt and decrypt the C
data?

A) Public key B) Private key C) Symmetric key D) Asymmetric key

2
14) Encryption of small values, such as identifiers or names, is made A
complicated by the possibility of __________

A) Dictionary attacks B) Database attacks

C) Minor attacks D) Random attacks
15) The DES Algorithm Cipher System consists of ____________rounds D
(iterations) each with a round key

A) 12 B) 18 C) 9 D) 16
16) Which of the following is not a type of symmetric-key cryptography C
technique?

A) Caesar cipher B) Data Encryption Standard (DES)

C) Diffie Hellman cipher D) Playfair cipher
17) In the RSA algorithm, we select 2 random large values ‘p’ and ‘q’. Which of C
the following is the property of ‘p’ and ‘q’?

A) p and q should be divisible by Ф(n)

B) p and q should be co-prime
C) p and q should be prime
D) p/q should give no remainder.
18) The process of transforming plain text into unreadable text. B

A) Decryption B) Encryption C) Network Security D) Information Hiding

19) For p = 11 and q = 19 and choose e=17. Apply RSA algorithm where A
message=5 and find the cipher text.

A) C=80 B) C=92 C) C=56 D) C=23

20) In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by ______ B

A) Sender B) Receiver C) Sender & Receiver D) all devices connected

UNIT- II

21) What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system? A

a) To think like hackers and know how to defend such attacks

b) To hack a system without the permission
c) To hack a network that is vulnerable
d) To corrupt software or service using malware

3 P.T.O.
22) Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is D
____________ ethical practice.

a) a good
b) not so good
c) very good social engineering practice
d) a bad
23) ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated C
tools for unethical hacking.

a) Automated apps
b) Database software
c) Malware
d) Worms
24) Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of A
senior authority is a crime.

a) True
b) False
25) The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of B
personal data.

a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
26) Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key D
points listed below is not mandatory?

a) Know the nature of the organization

b) Characteristics of work done in the firm
c) System and network
d) Type of broadband company used by the firm

4
27) An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not A
get leaked.

a) True
b) False
28) After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client C
information to other parties.

a) hacking
b) cracking
c) penetration testing
d) exploiting
29) __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and D
provides different theories and a principle regarding the view-points about
what is right and wrong.

a) Social ethics
b) Ethics in cyber-security
c) Corporate ethics
d) Ethics in black hat hacking
30) A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the ___________ & A
___________ requirements of a firm while evaluating the security postures.

a) privacy and security

b) rules and regulations
c) hacking techniques
d) ethics to talk to seniors
31) What is the attack called “evil twin”? A

a) Rogue access point

b) ARP poisoning
c) Session hijacking
d) MAC spoofing
32) What are the forms of password cracking techniques? D

a) AttackSyllable
b) AttackBrute Forcing
c) AttacksHybrid
d) All of the above

5 P.T.O.
33) What is the primary goal of ethical hacker? C

a) Avoiding detection
b) Testing security controls
c)Resolving security vulnerabilities
d)Determining return on investment for security measures
34) What is the first phase of hacking? D

a) Maintaining access
b) Gaining access
c) Reconnaissance
d) Scanning
35) Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network? D

a) Black-hat hackers
b) Grey-hat hackers
c) Script kiddies
d) Disgruntled employees
36) Hacking for a cause is called? A

a) Hacktivism
b) Black-hat hacking
c). Active hacking
d)Activism
37) When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the internet it is known as what type B
of attack?

a) Local access
b) Remote attack
c) Internal attack
d) Physical access
38) Which are the four regional internet registries? D

a) APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC

b) APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
c) APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC
d) APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
39) What port number does HTTPS use? B

a) 53
b) 443
c) 80
d) 21

6
40) Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of A
senior authority is a crime.

a) True
b) False

UNIT- III

41) What are the major components of the intrusion detection system? D

a) Analysis Engine
b) Event provider
c) Alert Database
d) All of the mentioned
42) What are the different ways to classify an IDS? D

a) anomaly detection
b) signature-based misuse
c) stack based
d) all of the mentioned
43) What are the different ways to classify an IDS? B

a) Zone based
b) Host & Network based
c) Network & Zone based
d) Level based
44) What are the characteristics of anomaly-based IDS? A

a) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization

b) It doesn’t detect novel attacks
c) Anything distinct from the noise is not assumed to be intrusion activity
d) It detects based on signature
45) What is the major drawback of anomaly detection IDS? B

a) These are very slow at detection

b) It generates many false alarms
c) It doesn’t detect novel attacks
d) None of the mentioned

7 P.T.O.
46) What are the characteristics of signature-based IDS? A

a) Most are based on simple pattern matching algorithms

b) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packets
c) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization
d) Anything distinct from the noise is assumed to be intrusion activity
47) What are the drawbacks of signature-based IDS? D

a) They are unable to detect novel attacks

b) They suffer from false alarms
c) They have to be programmed again for every new pattern to be detected
d) All of the mentioned
48) What are the characteristics of Host based IDS? D

a) The host operating system logs in the audit information

b) Logs includes logins, file opens and program executions
c) Logs are analysed to detect tails of intrusion
d) All of the mentioned
49) What are the drawbacks of the host-based IDS? A

a) Unselective logging of messages may increase the audit burdens

b) Selective logging runs the risk of missed attacks
c) They are very fast to detect
d) They have to be programmed for new patterns
50) What are the strengths of the host-based IDS? D

a) Attack verification
b) System specific activity
c) No additional hardware required
d) All of the mentioned
51) What are characteristics of stack-based IDS? A

a) They are integrated closely with the TCP/IP stack and watch packets
b) The host operating system logs in the audit information
c) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packets
d) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization

8
52) What are characteristics of Network-based IDS? A

a) They look for attack signatures in network traffic

b) Filter decides which traffic will not be discarded or passed
c) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packet
d) It models the normal usage of network as a noise characterization
53) What are strengths of Network-based IDS? D

a) Cost of ownership reduced

b) Malicious intent detection
c) Real time detection and response
d) All of the mentioned
54) Which one of the following is not an application hash functions? B

a) One-way password file

b) Key wrapping
c) Virus Detection
d) Intrusion detection
55) What is a one-way password file? C

a) A scheme in which the password is jumbled and stored

b) A scheme in which the password is XOR with a key and stored
c) A scheme in which the hash of the password is stored
d) A scheme in which the password is passed through a PRF, which is then
stored
56) Case b ( refer Figure 1 From The chapter Message Authentication Codes in A
William Stallings )is an example of digital signature.

a) True
b) False
57) The main difference in MACs and digital signatures is that, in digital signatures the B
hash value of the message is encrypted with a user’s public key.

a) True
b) False
58) Message authentication code is also known as C

a) key code
b) hash code
c) keyed hash function
d) message key hash function

9 P.T.O.
59) When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash B
function value is referred to as

a) Message Field
b) Message Digest
c) Message Score
d) Message Leap
60) What are the different ways to intrude? D

a) Buffer overflows
b) Unexpected combinations and unhandled input
c) Race conditions
d) All of the mentioned

**********

10
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Software Metrics and Quality Assurance

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

A. Evaluations to be performed
B. Amount of technical work
C. Audits and reviews to be performed
D. Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Ans.: B

Q2. The most important feature of spiral model is

A. Requirement analysis.
B. Risk management.
C. Quality management.
D. Configuration management.
Ans.: B

Q3. SRD stands for

A. Software requirements definition

B. Structured requirements definition
C. Software requirements diagram
D. Structured requirements diagram
Ans.: B

Q4.The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle
are called
A. CASE Tools
B. CAME tools
C. CAQE tools
D. CARE tools
 Ans.: A

Q5.Line of code(LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity

measure for
A. Extended function point metrics
B. Function point metrics.
C. Size oriented metrics.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: C

Q6. Quality of the product comes under which type of measures?

A. Indirect measures
B. Direct measures
C. Coding
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q7. What is Software?

A. Software is documentation and configuration of data
B. Software is set of programs
C. Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
D. None of the mentioned
Ans.: C

Q8.Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total

cost of a software development project?

A. Hardware and software costs

B. Effort costs
C. Travel and training costs
D.All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q9.Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
A. Costs of networking and communications
B. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
D. Costs of lunch time food
D. Costs of support staff
 Ans.: C
Q10.What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
A. Function-related metrics
B. Product-related metrics
C. Size-related metrics
D. None of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Q11. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by
A. Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht
D.Jacobson
Ans.: C

Q12.How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point
Computation?
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
` Ans.: C

Q13. Function Point Computation is given by the formula

A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
C. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
D. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Ans.: B
Q14.Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.
A. Black Box
B. White Box
C. Gray Box
D. Green Box
Ans.: A
Q15.SMI stands for
A. Software Mature Indicator
B. Software Maturity Index
C. Software Mature Index
D. Software Maturity Indicator
Ans.: B
Q16.The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D. Functionality
Ans.: A

Q17.Size and Complexity are a part of

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Q18. Cost and schedule are a part of
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

Ans.: C
Q19. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned
Ans.: B
Q20.Line of code(LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity
measure for?
A. Extended function point metrics
B. Function point metrics.
C. Size oriented metrics.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: C

Q21.Project risk factor is considered in which model.

A. Spiral model.
B. Waterfall model.
C. Prototyping model
D. None of the above.
Ans.: A

Q22.Which of the following is / are characteristics of testable software?

A. Observability
B. Simplicity
C. Stability
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q23. Black Box Testing is also known as ________ .

A. Behavioral Testing
B. Flow Testing
C. Data Testing
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q24. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?
A. Test recording
B. Test configuration
C. Test planning
D. Test specification
Ans.: D

Q25.Static analysis can be best described as:

 A. The reviewing of test plans
B. The analysis of batch programs
C. The use of black box testing
D. The analysis of program code
Ans.: D

Q26.White-box testing can be started:

A. After installation
B. After SRS creation
C. After programming
D. After designing
Ans.: C

Q27.Beta Testing is done at:

A. Developer’s end
B. User’s end
C. User’s & Developer’s end
D. None of the mentioned
Ans.: B

Q28.In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which

phase:
A. Coding
B. Design
C. Implementation
D. Requirements Gathering
Ans.: D

Q29.Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

A. rework
B. repair
C. failure mode analysis
D. none of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q30.Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

 measured?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the mentioned
Ans.: B

Q31.Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

A. testing
B. help line support
C. warranty work
D. complaint resolution
Ans.: A

Q32.What is not included in prevention costs?

A. quality planning
B. formal technical reviews
C. test equipment
D. equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans.: D

Q33.Which one is not a software quality model?

A. ISO 9000
B. McCall model
C. Boehm model
D. ISO 9126
Ans.: A

Q34.How many levels are present in CMM?

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Ans.: C

Q35.Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the time needed to repair a failed

 hardware module.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A

Q36.Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of hardware

reliability?
A. Useful Life
B. Burn-in
C. Wear-out
D. Time
Ans.: D

Q37.How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?

A. direct relation
B. inverse relation
C. no relation
D. none of the mentioned
Ans.: B

Q38.How is software reliability defined?

A. time
B. efficiency
C. quality
D. speed
Ans.: A

Q39.…………… is a measure of the time between observed system failures.

A. Probability of Failure on Demand (POFOD)
B. Rate of Failure Occurrence (ROCOF)
C. Mean Time to Failure (MTTF)
D. Availability (AVAIL)
Ans.: C

Q40.The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to

 software development, reuse, etc.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: B

Q41.Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total

cost of a software development project?
A. Hardware and software costs
B. Effort costs
C. Travel and training costs
D. All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q42.As a software manager, when you will decide the number of people
required for a software project?

A. Before the scope is determined.

B. Before an estimate of the development effort is made.
C. After an estimate of the development effort is made.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: C

Q43.What is the meaning of Software Scope?

A. It describes the Off-the-shelf component.

B. It describes the functions and features that are to be delivered to end
users.
C. It describes the software risk.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: B

Q44.Debugging is not Testing, but always occurs as a consequences of

testing.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A
Q45. What does QA and QC stand for?
A. Quality Assurance and Queuing Control
B. Quality Adjustment and Quality completion
C. Quality Assurance and Quality control
D. Quality Adjustment and Queuing control
Ans.: C

Q46.What is QA?
A. It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need
B. Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process
C. Process of identifying defects
D. It is a corrective tool
Ans.: B

Q47.Which of the following is an example of QA?

A. Verification
B. Software testing
C. Validation
D. Documentation
Ans.: A

Q48.Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?

A. Define
B. Control
C. Measure
D. Analyse
Ans: B

Q49.What is the main purpose of integration testing?

A. Design errors
B. Interface errors
C. Procedure errors
D. None of the above
Ans :B
Q50.Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
A. rework
B. repair
C. failure mode analysis
D. none of the mentioned
Ans: D

Q51.Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

measured?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: B

Q52.Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

A. evaluations to be performed
B. amount of technical work
C. audits and reviews to be performed
D. documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans :B

Q53.Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

A. testing
B. help line support
C. warranty work
D. complaint resolution
Ans : A

Q54.What is not included in prevention costs?

A. quality planning
B. formal technical reviews
C. test equipment
D. equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans: D
Q55.Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
A. SQA
B. SQM
C. SQI
D.SQA and SQM
Ans:A

Q56.Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?

A. Prevention
B. Internal Failure
C. External Failure
D. Appraisal
Ans: A

Q57.Boundary value analysis belong to?

A. White Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. White Box & Black Box Testing
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: B

Q58.Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

measured?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: B

Q59.The cost incurred in first time reviews and testing is called ---------

A. Red money
B. Green money
C.Blue money
Ans : C
Q60.Continual (Continuous) improvement cycle is based on systematic
sequence of -------------- activities.
A. SDLC
B. PDCA
C. waterfall model
Ans : B.
 Model Question Paper
Subject :SMQA ( Software Metric and Quality and Assurance )

Branch :Computer Engineering / Computer Science and Engineering

Class : BE

Semester : VIII

Q1. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned

Q2. Attributes of the software are

a) Length
b) Functionality
c) Reuse
d) All of Above
Q3. Measurement can be called as ________________

a) Quantization
b) Quantification
c) Qualification
d) None of Above

Q4. Direct Measurement quantification is :

a) Length
b) Height
c) Weight
d) All of Above

Q5. Which of following is not Indirect Measurement quantification i?

a) To Calculate area
b) To measure the valuation of house
c) To calculate BMI ratio
d) To measure height

Q6. As software engineering focuses on implementing the software in controlled and scientific way.

a) True
b) False

Q7. Neglecting Measurements causes :

a) fail to set measurable targets
b) fail to understand and quantify the cost
c) can’t quantify the quality of the product
d) All of the above

Q8. Measurement is needed for assessing the status of :

a) Projects
b) Products
c) Resources
d) All of above

Q9. Software Manager does not check:

a) What does each process cost?

b) Are the requirements testable?
c) How productive is the staff?
d) How good is the code being developed?

Q10. Developer checks :

a) Have we found all the faults?
b) Have we meet our product or process goals?
c) What will happen in future?
d) All of the above

Q11. Cost and Effort estimation Models are:

a) COCOMO
b) Putnam
c) Albrecht’s function point model
d) All of above

Q12. Measurement for Prediction always require mathematical model:

a) True
b) False

Q13: Which of the following are types of measurement scales:

i) Nominal scale ii) Ordinal scale iii) Internal scale iv) Ratio scale v) Obsolete scale

a) (I,ii,iii)
b) (ii,iii,v)
c) (i,ii,iv)
d) (I,ii,iv,v)

Q14. The interval scale:

a) Maintains order
b) Maintains differences
c) Not accept multiplication and division
d) All of Above

Q.15 The quality of any measurement program is clearly dependent on careful data collection.
a) True
b) False

Q16.Software metrics is a term that embraces many activities. Which are these?:
a) Cost and effort estimation models and measures
b) Data collection
c) Quality models and measures
d) All of above
e) None of above

Q17. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the:

a. number of Functions
b. number of user inputs
c. number of lines of code
d. amount of memory usage

Q18. Line of code(LOC) of the product comes under which type of measures?
a.Indirect measures
b. Direct measures
c. Coding
d. None of the above

Q 19. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

a. Booch
b.Boehm
c. Albrecht
d. Jacobson

Q20.Labeling, classifying entities are the example of _____________ scale:

a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Ratio
d) Interval
Q.21 .Simple measure of size is often rejected because it fails to reflect

a) Effort
b) Productivity
c) Cost
d) All of above

Q22. Software size can be outlined using three attributes

a) Length
b) Functionality
c) Complexity
d) All of above

Q23. Length of traditional code measures commented lines also.

a) True
b) False

Q 24.Two alternative Measures for line of code:

a) Number of bytes of computer storage required for the program text.

b) Number of characters in the program text.
c) Number of words in the program text.
d) a,b

Q25. Structured Analysis and Structured Design (SA/SD) is diagrammatic notation which is
design to :
a) help people understand the system.
b) improve quality and reduce the risk of System failure.
c) Basically the approach of SA/SD is based on the Data Flow Diagram.
d) All of above

Q.26.The control flow measures are usually modeled with:

a) Control graph
b) Bipartite Graph
c) Directed graph
d) None of above

Q27. Node on control graph shows :

a) Program Statement
b) Control Flow
c) Loop
d) None of above
Q28.In-degreeof the node is the:

a) Logarithm of degree
b) number of arcs arriving at the node
c) number of values arriving at the node
d) All of above

Q29. External Inputs Means :

a) Distinct application oriented dataitems provided by the user
b) Interacting i/p
c) Machine Readable files
d) None

Q30. Coupling is :

a) Degree of Interdependence between modules

b) Degree of Independence between module
c)Degree of functionality among modules
d) None

Q31. There are ________ types of Structural measures.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Q32. Control Flow addresses the sequence of instructions executed.

a) True
b) False

Q33. DFD depicts the behavior of data when it interacts with the system.
a) Pattern
b) Behavior
c) No. of instructions
d) None

Q34.
Above Flow graph indicate the statement:

a) If X then A
b) IF A then X
c)IF A then true
d) IF X then true

Q35.

Above flow graph shows the statement :

a) If A then x else y
b) If x and y then A
c) If A then y else x
d) None

Q 36. ET, in this formula ET and ER are________ , ________ resply.

Portability = 1 -
ER
i)Target environment
ii)Resident environment
iii)Event test
iv)Event recall

a) i), iii)
b) ii), iii)
c) i), ii)
d) ii,iv)

Q37. X and y communicate by parameters, where each parameter is either a single data element or
a homogeneous set of data items that incorporate no control element. This type of coupling is
________________.
a) No coupling relation
b) Stamp Coupling
c) Common Coupling
d) Data Coupling
Q38. If the modules performs more than one function, and they are unrelated then it is ______
cohesion.

a)Temporal
b) Logical
c) Coincidental
d) None

Q39. What is GQM :

a)Goal-Question-Metric Paradigm
b) General-Question-Metric Paradigm
c) Goal-Quotient-Metric Paradigm
d) Goal-Quality-Metric Paradigm

Q40.PDF means _______________.

a)Probability Dynamic Function
b) Probability Density Function
c) Portable Document Format
d) None

Q41. UPDF is _______________.

a)Uniform PDF
b) Unified PDF
c) Universal PDF
d) None

Q42. We define the reliability function R(t) as:

a)R(t)=1-F(t)

b) R(t)=F(t)-1

c) R(t)=1+F(t)

d) None of Above

Q43. Which Model is basic model of reliability from which various reliability models are derived :

a)DeMarcho Model
b) LittleWood Model
c) Jelinski-Moranda (J-M) Model
d) All of above

Q44. An operating environment or integrated applications environment is the environment in which

____________
a)Users operates the environment
b) Users run application software.
c) Environment application support
d) None of Above

Q45. Operating environment rest between

a)OS and application
b) OS and middleware
c) Middleware and application
d) All of above

Q46. Uniform pdf applies when the failure time is Bounded.

a)True
b) False

Q47. The mean time to failure (MTTF) is the mean of the probability density function.
a)True
b) False

Q48. In morphology size metric is measured by size=n+a. Where n= ________ and a=_______.

a)No. of nodes and arcs

b) No. of lines and comment
c) No. of commented and non-commented lines.
d) Number and address

Q49. mean time between failures (MTBF)

a)MTBF=MTTF-MTTR
b) MTBF = MTTF + MTTR
c) MTBF=MTTR-MTTF
d) None of above

Q50. Usually software fails due to design problem

a)True
b) False

Q51.Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Reliability
d) All of the Mentioned
Q52. In size oriented metric, metrics are based on
a)Lines of code
b) No. of Functions
c) User input
d) Memory Usage

Q53. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the time needed to repair a failed hardware module.
a) True
b) False

Q54. Which quality is measured as a foundation of requirement…?

a) Hardware
b) Programmers
c)Software
d) None of the mentioned

Q55. Which is the examples of Measurement

a)Radar System
b) Medical System
c) Weather forecasting system
d) All of above

Q56. A is taller than B iff M(A) > M(B).This statement implies that when ever A is taller than B then
M(A) must be bigger number that M(B).

a)True
b) False

Q57. A ratio scale has the following features:

a)The measurement mapping needs to start at zero

b) It is a measurement mapping that maintains ordering
c) Measurement mapping increase at equal intervals, called units.
d) All of Above

Q58. Measurement is the process by which numbers or symbols are assigned to attributes of
entities in the real world.

a)True
b) False
Q59. To count FP we first computer the UFC (Unadjusted function point count)

a)True
b) False

Q60. Performance evaluation is based on :

a)Response Time
b) Computational
c) Algorithmic complexity
d) All of above

Answer Key

1. b

2. d

3. b

4. d

5. d

6. a

7. d

8. d

9. b

10. d

11. d

12.a

13.c

14.d

15.a

16. c
17. c

18.b

19. c

20.a

21.d

22.d

23. a

24.d

25.d

26. c

27. a

28.b

29.a

30. a

31. c

32. a

33. b

34.b

35. a

36.c

37.d

38. c

39. a

40.b

41.a
42. a

43. c

44. b

45.a

46.a
47.a

48.a

49.b

50. a

51.d

52. a

53. a

54.c

55. d

56. a

57. d

58.a

59.a

60.d
 Model Question Paper
SUBJECT: SOFTWARE METRICS AND QUALITY ASSURANCE

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE Semester: VIII

___________________________________________________________________________

UNIT I

Q1. --------------describes the collection of techniques that apply an engineering approach to

the construction of software product
A. Measurement
B. Software engineering
C. Planning
D. Specification
Ans.: B

Q2. Which of the following does not affect software quality?

A. Market
B. Technology
C. Reliability
D. Product
Ans.: A

Q3. Which of the following does not affect software productivity?

A. Time
B. Money
C. Complexity
D. None of the above
Ans.: D

Q4. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Time
B. Density
C. Length
D. None of above
Ans.: B

Q5. Which of the following is not the attribute of program code?

A. Quality
B. Reliability
C. Length
D. Requirement stability
Ans.: D

Q6. The order in which participants complete a task is an example of what level of
measurement?
A. Ordinal
B. Ratio
C. Interval
D. Nominal
Ans.: A

Q7. What level of measurement would be used if participants were asked to choose their
favourite picture from a set of six?
A. Ordinal
B. Nominal
C. Ratio
D. Interval
Ans.: B

Q8. If the grading of diabetes is classified as mild, moderate and severe the scale of
measurement used is:
A. Interval
B. Nominal
C. Ordinal
D. Ratio
Ans.: C
Q9. The quantity or quality is measured using which of the following measurement?
A. Direct Measurement:
B. Indirect Measurement:
C. Both a and b
D. Controlling
Ans.: C

Q10. Which of following is the internal product attribute of software?

A . Usability
B. Reliability
C. Price
D. Comfort
Ans.: C

Q11. Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality?

A. Correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability.
B. Reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
C. Correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
D Correctness, performance, integrity, usability
Ans.: A

Q12. A measure must specify the ____and _______as well as the rules for performing the
mapping
A binary relation, domain
B domain, number
C domain ,range
D empirical relation, range
Ans.: C

Q13 Measurement is needed for assessing the status of our---------

A Projects and Products

B Processes
C Resources.
D All of above

Ans.: D
Q14. A abstraction of reality, allowing us to strip away details and view an entity or concept
from a particular perspective is called as

A. Method
B. Function.
C. Model.
D. document
Ans.: C
Q15. Direct measurement---

A. Involves attributes of entity

B. involves no other attributes of entity
C. involves data
D involves functions of program,
Ans.: B

Q16. A mathematical model together with a set of prediction procedures for determining
unknown parameters is known as

A. Calculation System
B. Database system.
C. Prediction system.
D. Power System
Ans.: C

Q17. Line of code calculation is an example of which scale

A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Absolute
Ans.: D

Q18. Which of the following comes under the Control Structure Testing?
A. Condition testing
B. Loop testing
C. Data Flow Testing
D. All of the above
Ans: D

Q19. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are
meaningful is known as

A.DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)

B. Function points analysis

C. Control Chart
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: C

Q20. Cost and schedule are a part of_________________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: C

UNIT II

Q21. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point?
A. Number of user Input
B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D. Number of errors
Ans.: D
Q22. Which of these the advantage using LOC (lines of code) as a size oriented metrics?
A. LOC is easily computed
B. LOC is language dependent measure
C. LOC is language measurement.
D. LOC is computed before design is completed.
Ans.: A

Q23. Line of code (LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity measure for
------------.
A. Extended function point metrics
B. Function point metrics.
C. Size oriented metrics.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: C
Q24. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ----------------- .
A. number of Functions
B. number of user inputs
C. number of lines of code
D. amount of memory usage
Ans.: C
Q25. Function oriented metric were first proposed by ___________ and he suggested a
measure called the __________ .
A. Barry Boehm, KLOC.
B. Barry Boehm, Function point.
C. Albrecht, Function point.
D. Albrecht, KLOC.
Ans.: C

Q.26 Which of the following is an example of QA

A. validation
B. Software testing
C. verification
D. Documentation
Ans.: C

Q27. What does QA and QC stand for

A. Quality Adjustment and Queuing control

B. Quality Assurance and Quality control

C. Quality Adjustment and Quality completion

D. Quality Assurance and Queuing Control

Ans.: B
Q.28 Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point in FPA?

A. Number of user Input

B. Number of user Inquiries

C. Number of external Interfaces

D. Number of errors
Ans.: D
Q.29 Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

A. Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht
D. Jacobson
Ans.: C
Q.30 Function Point Computation is given by the formula

A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

B.FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]

C.FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

D.FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

Ans.: B
Q.31 Size and Complexity are a part of
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. None of the above

Ans.: A
Q.32 Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?

A. Complexity Metrics
B. Cohesion Metrics
C. Morphology Metrics
D. Coupling Metrics
Ans.: C
Q.33 From the following methods which size of the software product can be calculated?

A. Counting the lines of delivered code

B. Counting delivered function points
C. Both a and b above
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q.34 How many product quality factors are proposed in McCall quality model?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 11
D.8

Ans.: B
Q.35Advantage of using function point(FP) as measure of the functionality delivered by a
software application?

A.FP is a language dependent measure

B.FP is a language independent measure

C.FP can be computed before a design is completed

D. Both b and c
Ans.: D

Q.36 Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?

A. Word Token

B. Word Count

C. Word Size

D. Word Length
Ans.: C
Q.37 Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about________ for a web page that is
to be built.

A. Size
B. Complexity
C. Effort
D. All of the mentioned

Ans.: B
Q.38 How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Ans.: C
Q.39. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s
Software Quality Factors?
A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Usability.
D. Integrity
Ans.: A
Q.40 Software size can be calculated by
A. Length
B. Functionality
C. Complexity
D. All of above
Ans: D

UNIT III

Q41. Which one is not a software quality model?

A. ISO 9000
B. McCall model
C. Boehm model
D. ISO 9126
Ans.: A

Q42. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance?
A. Market
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People
Ans.: A

Q43. Which of the following is not a direct measure of software engineering process?
A. Efficiency
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
D. All of the mentioned
Ans.: A

Q44. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the Mentioned
Ans .: D

Q45. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the above
Ans .: D

Q 46. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?

A. Direct relation
B. Inverse relation
C . No relation
D. None of the mentioned
Ans .: B

Q 47. What is MTTF ?

A. Maximum time to failure
B. Mean time to failure
C. Minimum time to failure
D. None of the mentioned
Ans .: B

Q 48. Which of the following approaches are used to achieve reliable systems?
A. Fault prevention
B. Fault removal
C. Fault tolerance
D. All of the above
Ans .: D
Q 49. Failure In Time (FIT) is another way of reporting
A. MTTR
B. MTTF
C. MTSF
D. MTBF
Ans .: D

Q 50. Which one of the following is not parametric reliability growth model?
A. Jelinski moranda
B. Little wood
C. Albrecht function point
D. All of above
Ans .: C

Q 51. What is MTBF?

A. Maximum Time Between Failure
B. Mean Time Between Failures
C. Mean Time Between Fix
D. Maximum Time Between Fix
Ans .: B

Q 52. In ISO 9126, time behaviour and resource utilization are a part of
A. Maintainability
B. Portability
C. Efficiency
D. Usability
Ans .: C

Q53. What is MTTR?

A. Mean Time To Repair
B. Mean Time To Reuse
C. Maximum Time To Reuse
D. None of the above
Ans .: A
Q54. As the reliability increases failure intensity ---------.
A. decreases
B. increases
C. No effect
D. None of the above
Ans .: A

Q. 55 Which one of the following is not software quality model?

A. McCall
B. Boehm
C. ISO 9126
D. Jelinski Moranda
Ans .: D

Q 56. What are the reasons of software failure?

A. Usually software fail due to design problem.
B. Changes in requirements.
C. Correction in existing problem.
D. All of the above
Ans .: D

Q 57. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D . Functionality
Ans .: A

Q 58. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software-------.
A. stated needs
B. is easy to use
C. makes optimal use of system resources
D. none of the mentioned
Ans .: B
Q 59. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s
Software Quality Factors?
A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Usability
D. Integrity
Ans .: A

Q 60. Failure occurrences can be represented as

A. time to failure
B. time interval between failures
C. failures experienced in a time interval
D. All of the Above
Ans .: D
 Model Question Paper
SUBJECT: SOFTWARE METRICS AND QUALITY ASSURANCE

Branch: Information Technology

Class: BE Semester: VIII

___________________________________________________________________________

UNIT I

Q1. --------------describes the collection of techniques that apply an engineering approach to

the construction of software product
A. Measurement
B. Software engineering
C. Planning
D. Specification
Ans.: B

Q2. Which of the following does not affect software quality?

A. Market
B. Technology
C. Reliability
D. Product
Ans.: A

Q3. Which of the following does not affect software productivity?

A. Time
B. Money
C. Complexity
D. None of the above
Ans.: D

Q4. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Time
B. Density
C. Length
D. None of above
Ans.: B

Q5. Which of the following is not the attribute of program code?

A. Quality
B. Reliability
C. Length
D. Requirement stability
Ans.: D

Q6. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the Mentioned
Ans .: D

Q7. What level of measurement would be used if participants were asked to choose their
favourite picture from a set of six?
A. Ordinal
B. Nominal
C. Ratio
D. Interval
Ans.: B

Q8. If the grading of diabetes is classified as mild, moderate and severe the scale of
measurement used is:
A. Interval
B. Nominal
C. Ordinal
D. Ratio
Ans.: C

Q9. The quantity or quality is measured using which of the following measurement?
A. Direct Measurement:
B. Indirect Measurement:
C. Both a and b
D. Controlling
Ans.: B

Q10. Which of following is the internal product attribute of software?

A . Usability
B. Reliability
C. Price
D. Comfort
Ans.: C

Q11. Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality?

A. Correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability.
B. Reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
C. Correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
D Correctness, performance, integrity, usability
Ans.: A

Q12. A measure must specify the ____and _______as well as the rules for performing the
mapping
A binary relation, domain
B domain, number
C domain ,range
D empirical relation, range
Ans.: C

Q13 Measurement is needed for assessing the status of our---------

A Projects and Products

B Processes and Resources.
C Both A and B
D All of above

Ans.: C
Q14. A abstraction of reality, allowing us to strip away details and view an entity or concept
from a particular perspective is called as

A. Method
B. Function.
C. Model.
D. document
Ans.: C
Q15. Direct measurement---

A. Involves attributes of entity

B. involves no other attributes of entity
C. involves data
D involves functions of program,
Ans.: B

Q16. A mathematical model together with a set of prediction procedures for determining
unknown parameters is known as

A. Calculation System
B. Database system.
C. Prediction system.
D. Power System
Ans.: C

Q17. Line of code calculation is an example of which scale

A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Absolute
Ans.: D

Q 18. Which of the following is not a direct measurement of software engineering?

A. Length
B. Duration of Testing Process
C. Productivity
D. Time of a Programmer
Ans.: C

Q 19.If its truth value is invariant of transformation of allowable scales it is called_____.

A. Meaningless
B. Meaningful
C. Predication System
D. All above
Ans.: B

Q 19.If its truth value is invariant of transformation of allowable scales it is called_____.

A. Meaningless
B. Meaningful
C. Predication System
D. All above
Ans.: B

Q 20 Which of the following is not a scope of Software metrics.

A. Management by Metrics
B. Reliability Model
C. Cost and Effort Model
D. Software Process Model
Ans.: D
 UNIT II

Q21. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point?
A. Number of user Input
B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D. Number of errors
Ans.: D

Q22. Which of these the advantage using LOC (lines of code) as a size oriented metrics?
A. LOC is easily computed
B. LOC is language dependent measure
C. LOC is language measurement.
D. LOC is computed before design is completed.
Ans.: A

Q23. Line of code (LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity measure for
------------.
A. Extended function point metrics
B. Function point metrics.
C. Size oriented metrics.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: C

Q24. What do QA and QC stand for?

A. Quality Adjustment and Queuing control

B. Quality Assurance and Quality control

C. Quality Adjustment and Quality completion

D. Quality Assurance and Queuing Control

Ans.: B
Q.25 what is the Full form of TCF?

A. Technology Complex Factor

B. Taken common factor
C. Technical Complex Factor
D. Technical Complexity Factor
Ans.: D

Q.26 which of the following methods is used for size of the software product.

A. Counting the lines of delivered code

B. Counting delivered function points
C. Both a and b above
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q.27 How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Ans.: C
Q.28. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s
Software Quality Factors?
A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Usability.
D. Integrity
Ans.: A
Q.29 Software size can be calculated by
A. Length
B. Functionality
C. Complexity
D. All of above
Ans: D

Q.30 Flow graph nodes with out-degree equal to 1 are called

A. Procedure nodes
B. predicate nodes
C. intermediate nodes
D. leaf nodes
Ans: A

Q.31 There are legitimate operations we can use to build new flow graphs from old
A. Sequencing
B. Nesting
C. Sequencing and Nesting
D. Sequencing ,Nesting and Directed graph
Ans: C

Q.32 Cyclomatic number of program’s flow graph is calculated as

A. e-n+2
B. e+n-2
C. e-n-2
D. e+n+2
Ans: A

Q.33 ________the extent to which modules are reused within the same product
A. internal use
B. internal reuse
C. Internal design reuse
D. internal module based reuse
Ans: B

Q.34 In coupling, the pair (x, y) where y represents

A. Coupling relation
B. no of times relation occur
C. no coupling relation
D. module coupling
Ans: B

Q.35 -------------of a module is the extent to which its individual components are needed to
perform the same task.
A. Coupling
B. relation
C. cohesion
D. information Flow
Ans: C

Q.36 How can we measure size in morphology

A. by length
B. by LOC
C. by FP
D. number of nodes, number of edges or combination
Ans:

Q.37 -------is a contiguous sequence of program statements bounded by boundary elements.

A. Module
B. Modularity
C. Intra-module
D. Inter-module
Ans: A

Q.38 ---------are intended to measure the amount of functionality in a system as described by

specification.
A. Function point
B. UFC
C. TCF
D. Reuse
Ans: A
Q.39 what is internal file in Albrecht’s Approach
A. input files
B. output files
C. logical master file
D. messages
Ans: C

Q.40 Physical size of product

A. Functionality
B. reuse
C. length
D. Complexity
Ans: C

UNIT III

Q 41. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance?
A. Market
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People
Ans.: A
Q 42. Which requirement is the foundation from which quality is measured?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the above
Ans .: D
Q 43. -----------------is the probability of failure between time o and t.
A. Hazard rate function
B. reliability function
C. Survival function
D. None of the above
Ans.: D
Q 44. Which one is not a software quality model?
A. ISO 9000
B. McCall model
C. Boehm model
D. ISO 9126
Ans.: A

Q 45. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?

A. Direct relation
B. Inverse relation
C . No relation
D. None of the mentioned
Ans .: B

Q 46. What is MTTF ?

A. Maximum time to failure
B. Mean time to failure
C. Minimum time to failure
D. None of the mentioned
Ans .: B

Q 47. Which of the following approaches are used to achieve reliable systems?
A. Fault prevention
B. Fault removal
C. Fault tolerance
D. All of the above
Ans .: D

Q 48. Failure In Time (FIT) is another way of reporting

A. MTTR
B. MTTF
C. MTSF
D. MTBF
Ans .: D

Q 49. Which one of the following is not parametric reliability growth model?
A. Jelinski moranda
B. Little wood
C. Albrecht function point
D. All of above
Ans .: C

Q 50. What is MTBF?

A. Maximum Time Between Failure
B. Mean Time Between Failures
C. Mean Time Between Fix
D. Maximum Time Between Fix
Ans .: B

Q 51. In ISO 9126, time behaviour and resource utilization are a part of
A. Maintainability
B. Portability
C. Efficiency
D. Usability
Ans .: C

Q52. What is MTTR?

A. Mean Time To Repair
B. Mean Time To Reuse
C. Maximum Time To Reuse
D. None of the above
Ans .: A

Q53. As the reliability increases failure intensity ---------.

A. decreases
B. increases
C. No effect
D. None of the above
Ans .: A

Q. 54 Which one of the following is not software quality model?

A. McCall
B. Boehm
C. ISO 9126
D. Jelinski Moranda
Ans .: D

Q 55. What are the reasons of software failure?

A. Usually software fail due to design problem.
B. Changes in requirements.
C. Correction in existing problem.
D. All of the above
Ans .: D

Q 56. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D . Functionality
Ans .: A
Q 57. Failure occurrences can be represented as
A. time to failure
B. time interval between failures
C. failures experienced in a time interval
D. All of the Above
Ans .: D
Q 58 In --------------,Components get failed due to physical wear.
A. hardware reliability
B. software reliability
C. probability density function
D. none of above
Ans .: A
Q 59.Defect density = no of known defects / product size
A. true
B. false
C. probability on place sof product size
D. probability on place of no of known defects
Ans .: A
Q 60.It describes uncertainty about when the component will fail.
A. cdf
B. mttf
C. pdf
D. rf
Ans .:C
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Software Metrics and Quality Assurance

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

A.rework
B. repair
C.failure mode analysis
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: D

Q2.Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?

A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the mentioned

Ans: B

Q3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

A. evaluations to be performed
B. amount of technical work
C. audits and reviews to be performed
D. documents to be produced by the SQA group

Ans: B

Q4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
A. Quality Control
B. Quality of conformance
C. Quality Assurance
D. None of the mentioned

Ans: B
Q5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
A. testing
B. help line support
C. warranty work
D. complaint resolution

Ans: A

Q6. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. SQA group
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: C

Q7. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?

A. inter-process inspection
B. maintenance
C. quality planning
D. testing

Ans: C

Q8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process
so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
A. errors
B. equivalent faults
C. failure cause
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: A

Q9. What is not included in prevention costs?

A. quality planning
B. formal technical reviews
C. test equipment
D. equipment calibration and maintenance

Ans:D

Q10.Which of the following is the task of project indicators:

A. help in assessment of status of ongoing project

B. track potential risk

C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk

D. none of the mentioned

Ans: C

Q11.Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance?

A. Market

B. Product

C. Technology
D. People

Ans: A

Q12.The intent of project metrics is:

A. minimization of development schedule

B. for strategic purposes

C. assessing project quality on ongoing basis

D. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis

Ans: D

Q 13.Cost and schedule are a part of_________________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: C

Q 14.Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of

a____________________?
A. measurement
B. measure
C. metric
D. all of the mentioned

Ans: C

Q15.Size and Complexity are a part of____________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: A

Q16. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software
Quality Factors ?

A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Usability
D. Integrity

Ans: A

Q 17.Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?

A. Complexity Metrics
B. Cohesion Metrics
C. Morphology Metrics
D. Coupling Metrics

Ans: C

Q 18.MTTC falls the the category of____________________?

A. correctness
B. integrity
C. maintainability
D. all of the mentioned
Ans: C

Q 19.The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio ?

A. maximum number of nodes at any level

B. longest path from the root to a leaf
C. number of modules
D. lines of control

Ans: D

Q 20.Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of__________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: B

Q 21.Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics ?

A. Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)

B. Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
C. Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)]
D. Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)]

Ans: D

Q 22.Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the

software_________________?

A. stated needs
B. is easy to use
C. makes optimal use of system resources
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: B

Q23.The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as_________________?

A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D. Functionality
Ans: A

Q24.SMI stands for_______________?

A. Software Mature Indicator

B. Software Maturity Index
C. Software Mature Index
D. Software Maturity Indicator

Ans: B

Q 25.Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by_______________?

A. Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht
D. Jacobson
Ans: C

Q 26.Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?

A. Number of Static Content Objects
B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C. Number of Inherited Objects
D. Word Count
Ans: C

Q 27.Which of the following is not a metric for design model ?

A. Interface design metrics
B. Component-level metrics
C. Architectural metrics
D. Complexity metrics
Ans: D

Q 28.How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation ?
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Ans: C
Q 29.Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the time needed to repair a failed hardware module.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

Q 30.SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules______________?

A. in the current release

B. in the current release that have been changed
C. from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: A

Q 31.Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here ?

A. “fan check-out” of module i

B. “fan check-in” of module i
C. “fan in” of module i
D. “fan out” of module i

Ans: D

Q 32.Function Point Computation is given by the formula___________________?

A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
C. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
D. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

Ans: B

Q 33.Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of______________________?

A. Analysis Model
B. Testing
C. Design Model
D. Source Code
Ans: B

Q 34.Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page
Similarity ?
A. Content based
B. Link based
C. Usage based
D. Traffic based
Ans: D

Q 35.How is the complexity of a web page related to link count?

A. Directly
B. Indirectly
C. No relation
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: A

Q 36.Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page?
A. Word Token
B. Word Count
C. Word Size
D. Word Length
Ans: B

Q 37.Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about____________ for a web page that is
to be built?

A. size
B. complexity
C. effort
D. all of the mentioned

Ans: D

Q 38.Link based measures rely on _____________ structure of a web graph to obtain related
pages?
A. Embedded
B. Hyperlink
C. Dynamic
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: B

Q 39.Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between
two or more web pages?

A. Number of Static Content Objects

B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C. Web Page Similarity
D. Number of Internal Page Links

Ans: C
Q 40.Usability can be measured in terms of_________________?

A. Intellectual skill to learn the system

B. Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
C. Net increase in productivity
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: D

Q 41.Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?

A. Efficiency
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: A

Q 42.Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance
?

A. Market
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People

Ans: A

Q 43.Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the Mentioned
Ans: D

Q 44.A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is
known as_________________?
A. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
B. Function points analysis
C. Control Chart
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: C

Q 45.In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the _____________________?
A. number of Functions
B. number of user inputs
C. number of lines of code
D. amount of memory usage
Ans: C

Q 46.Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on ______________________?

A. E – errors found before software delivery
B. D – defects found after delivery to user
C. Both E and D
D. Varies with project
Ans: C

Q 47.The intent of project metrics is_____________________?

A. minimization of development schedule
B. for strategic purposes
C. assessing project quality on ongoing basis
D. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis
Ans: D

Q 48.Which of the following is the task of project indicators?

A. help in assessment of status of ongoing project

B. track potential risk
C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: C

Q 49.Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point in FPA ?
A. Number of user Input
B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D. Number of errors
Ans: D

Q 50. How many product quality factors are proposed in McCall quality model?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 11
d) 8

Ans: B

Q 51. Which one of the following is not a software quality model?

a) ISO 9000
b) McCall model
c) Boehm model
d) ISO 9126

Ans: A

Q 52. What is MTTF?

a) Maximum time to failure
b) Mean time to failure
c) Minimum time to failure
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: B

Q 53. How is software reliability defined?

a) time
b) efficiency
c) quality
d) speed

Ans: A

Q 54. Suitability, Accuracy, Interoperability, and security are what type quality attribute of ISO
9126 ?
a) Reliability
b) Efficiency
c) Functionality
d) Usability

Ans: C
Q 55. Time Behavior and Resource Behavior fall under which quality attribute of ISO 9126?
a) Reliability
b) Efficiency
c) Functionality
d) Usability

Ans: B

Q 56. NHPP stands for

a) Non Homogeneous Poisson Product
b) Non-Hetrogeneous Poisson Product
c) Non-Hetrogeneous Poisson Process
d) Non Homogeneous Poisson Process

Ans: D

Q 57. The CMM model is a technique to.

a) automatically maintain the software reliability
b) improve the software process.
c) test the software
d) all of the mentioned

Ans: B

Q 58. Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of hardware reliability?
a) Useful Life
b) Burn-in
c) Wear-out
d) Time

Ans: D

Q 59. Which level of CMM is for process management?

a) Initial
b) Repeatable
c) Defined
d) Optimizing

Ans: D

Q 60. In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource utilization are a part of
a) maintainability
b) portability
c) efficiency
d) usability

Ans: C
 Model Question Paper
Computer Engineering
MCQ Bank for Software Metrics and Quality Assurance
(178141) Semester: VIII
Q1.One of the most important attribute for software product metrics is that it should be:
A.Easy to compute
B.Qualatative in nature
C Reliable overtime
D.Widely applicable
Ans: A.Easy to compute
Q.2.Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of
a____________________?

A. measurement

B. Measure

C. Metric

D. all of the mentioned

Ans: C. Metric

Q.3. Software ...... is a standard of measure that contains many activities which involve
some degree of measurement

A.quality

B.quantity

C.metrics

D.measurement

Ans: C.metrics

Q.4. ................. − is the sequence in which instructions are executed in a program.

A Control-flow structure

B Data Flow

C Structure

D Data Structure

Ans: A Control-flow structure

Q.5.Size and Complexity are a part of____________________?

AProduct Metric

B. Process Metric

C. Project Metric

D. All of the mentioned

Ans: A. Product Metrics

Q.6.Cost and schedule are a part of_________________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: C. Project Metrics

Q.7.Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics ?

A. Complexity Metrics
B. Cohesion Metrics
C. Morphology Metrics
D. Coupling Metrics

Ans:CMorphology Metrics

Q.8. ..........................describe the project characteristics and execution.

A Project metrics

B Process Metrics

C Product Metrics

D None of the above

Ans: A Project metrics

Q.9.Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of__________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned.
 Ans: B. Process Metrics

Q10.Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics ?

A Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)

B. Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
C. Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)]
D. Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)]

Ans: D. Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)]

Q.11.Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the

software_________________?

A. stated needs
B. is easy to use
C. makes optimal use of system resources
D. none of the mentioned.

Ans: B. is easy to use

Q.12Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by_______________?

A Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht
D. Jacobson
Ans: C. Albrecht

Q13The amount of time that the software is available for use is known
as_________________?

A.Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D. Functionality
Ans:A Reliability

Q.14SMI stands for_______________?

A. Software Mature Indicator

B. Software Maturity Index
C. Software Mature Index
D. Software Maturity Indicator

Ans: B. Software Maturity Index

Q.15 How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation ?
 A. three
B. four
C. five
D. Six

Ans: C. Five

Q.16.Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process ?

AEfficiency
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: A. Efficiency

Q.17.Function Point Computation is given by the formula___________________?

A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
C. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
D. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

Ans: B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].

Q.18.Usability can be measured in terms of_________________?

A. Intellectual skill to learn the system

B. Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
C. Net increase in productivity
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: D. All of the mentioned

Q.19Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes
here ?

A. “fan check-out” of module i

B. “fan check-in” of module i
C. “fan in” of module i
D. “fan out” of module i
Ans: D. “fan out” of module i

Q.20.Which of the following is an indirect measure of product ?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the Mentioned

Ans: D. All of the Mentioned

Q.21The intent of project metrics is_____________________?

 A. minimization of development schedule
B. for strategic purposes
C. assessing project quality on ongoing basis
D. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing
basis
Ans:D

Q.22.Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point in FPA ?

A Number of user Input

B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D. Number of errors

Ans: D. Number of errors

Q.23Which of the following is the task of project indicators ?

A. help in assessment of status of ongoing project
B. track potential risk
C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
D. none of the mentioned

Ans:C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
Q.24. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
A) rework
B) repair
C) failure mode analysis
D) none of the mentioned
Ans: D) none of the mentioned
Q,25. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
A) evaluations to be performed
B) amount of technical work
C) audits and reviews to be performed
D) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans: B) amount of technical work
Q.26. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
A) inter-process inspection
B) maintenance
C) quality planning
D) testing
Ans: C) quality planning
Q.27. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is
called
A) Quality Control
B) Quality of conformance
C) Quality Assurance
D) None of the mentioned
Ans: B) Quality of conformance
Q.28. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
A) testing
B) help line support
C) warranty work
D) complaint resolution
Ans: A) testing
Q.29. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
A) Hardware
B) Software
C) Programmers
D) None of the mentioned
Ans: B) Software
Q.30. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the
software?
A) Project manager
B) Project team
C) SQA group
D) All of the mentioned
Ans: C) SQA group
Q.31. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the
process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
A) errors
B) equivalent faults
C) failure cause
D) none of the mentioned
Ans: A) errors

Q.32. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of
management.
A) True
B) False
Ans: A) True

Q.33.Select which option is not true about SQA…?

A) Audits and reviews to be performed by the team
B) Amount of technical work to be performed
C) Evaluations to be performed
D) Documents that are produced by the SQA team.
Ans: C) Evaluations to be performed
Q.34 What is not included in prevention costs?
A) quality planning
B) formal technical reviews
C) test equipment
D) equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans: D) equipment calibration and maintenance
Q.35. A product which is manufactured by using the degree of the design specification…
A) Quality of conformance
 B) Quality Control
C) Quality Assurance
D) None of the above.
Ans: A) Quality of conformance
Q.36. Software quality assurance consists of which function of management.
A) reporting functions
B) auditing functions
C)both and b
D)all of the above
Ans:C)both and b

Q.37. Faults are found most cost-effectively in which test activity?

A. design
B. execution
C. planning
D. Check Exit criteria completion
Ans:C. Planning
Q.38. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?

A) direct relation
B) inverse relation
C) no relation
D) none of the mentioned
Ans: B) inverse relation

Q.39 Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance ?

A. Market
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People
Ans: A. Market

Q.40 What is MTTF ?

A) Maximum time to failure

B) Mean time to failure
C) Minimum time to failure
D) None of the mentioned
Ans: B) Mean time to failure
Q.41. How is software reliability defined?
A) time
B) efficiency
C) quality
D) speed
Ans: A) time
Q.42 Q.46. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
A) A compliant product
B) Good quality output
C) Delivery within budget and schedule
D) All of the mentioned
Ans : D) All of the mentioned

.43. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the above

Ans : D All of the above

Q.44.In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the _____________________?
A. number of Functions
B. number of user inputs
C. number of lines of code
D. amount of memory usage

Ans: C. number of lines of code

Q.45. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
A) SQA
B) SQM
C) SQI
D) SQA and SQM
Ans: A) SQA
Q.46. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
A) evaluations to be performed
B) amount of technical work
C) audits and reviews to be performed
D) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans : B) amount of technical work
Q.47 The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development,
reuse, etc.
 A) True
B) False
Ans: B) False
Q.48 It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a
specification is available
A) True
B) False
Ans: A) True
Q.49 What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

A) Function-related metrics
B Product-related metrics
C) Size-related metrics
D) None of the mentioned
Ans: A) Function-related metrics
Q.50 Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
A) Costs of networking and communications
B) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
C) Costs of lunch time food
D) Costs of support staff
Ans: C) Costs of lunch time food
Q.51. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a
software development project?
A) Hardware and software costs
B) Effort costs
C) Travel and training costs
D) All of the mentioned
Ans: D) All of the mentioned
Q.52.Which one of the following is not a s/w process quality:
A)Productivity
B)portability
C)Timelyness
D)Visibility
Ans: B)portability
Q.53.Choose an internal software quality from below
A) scalability
B)usability
C) reusability
D)Realiability
Ans: C) reusability
Q.54.Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?
A. Efficiency
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
D. All of the above

Ans : A Efficiency

Q.55.What is the project &process level that provides the Quality Metric Benefit:
A)Defect amplification
B)Defect removal efficiency
C) Measuring quality
D)all the above
Ans: B)Defect removal efficiency
Q. 56.Checking Quality of sw in both simulated and live environments is known as:
A)Usability
B)Reusability
C)Checking
D)validation
Ans: D)validation
Q.57 It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a
specification is available
A) True
B) False

Answer: A) True

Q.58. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

A) team
B) project
C) customers
D) project manager

Answer:B project
Q.59.Many s/w metrics can only be assessed by measuring hard Factors
A)True
B)False’
Ans:A)True
Q.60. Reliability in software system can be achieved using which of the following strategies.
 i) Fault Avoidance ii) Fault Tolerance
iii) Fault Detection iv) Fault Deletion

A)i, ii and iii only

B) ii, iii and iv only
C)i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

Ans: A) i, ii and iii only

EXTRA:

Q..SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules______________?

A in the current release

B. in the current release that have been changed
C. from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: A in the current release

 Model Question Paper

Subject: Mobile Computing

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for the
GSM system in mobile computing?

1. Sim
2. HLR
3. ELR
4. VLR

Answer 1

Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

1. Home location register

2. Visitor location register
3. Entity equipment register
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q3. In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied to
the transmission?

1. GSM
2. GPRS
3. CDMA
4. None of the above

Answer 3
Q4. Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

1. TDMA
2. FDMA
3. CDMA
4. None of the above

Answer 3

Q5. The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

1. Cell
2. Tessellate
3. Mobile station
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q6. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell depends on —–

1. Environmental conditions
2. Social conditions
3. Political conditions
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q7. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

1. Handover
2. Infrastructure
3. Frequency planning
4. All of the above

Answer 4
Q8. In a cellular system, the same frequency is used for other users using the
technique ———-

1. Frequency planning
2. Frequency hopping
3. Frequency reuse
4. None of the above

Answer 3

Q9. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over the
cellular network system?

1. GSM
2. GPRS
3. TCP
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q10. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

1. Bearer
2. Supplementary
3. Tele
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q11. Bluetooth Technology supports

1. Piconet
2. Ad hoc piconet
3. Scatter net
4. All of the above
Answer 4

Q12. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data
between a variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

1. Mobile technology
2. Bluetooth technology
3. Ad hoc computing
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q13. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

1. Master
2. Parked
3. Standby
4. Slave

Answer 1

Q14. In which of the following the total available bandwidth is split into many
channels of smaller bandwidth plus guard spaces between the channels?

1. FHSS
2. DSSS
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q15. In which of the following a single data stream is split across several separate
narrowband channels at different frequencies to reduce interference and crosstalk.

1. OFDM
2. GSM
3. GPRS
 4. UMTS

Answer 1

Q16. Which of the following uses high-frequency radio waves instead of cables for
connecting the devices in LAN?

1. Wired LAN
2. Wireless LAN
3. Fiber made LAN
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q17. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

1. IEEE 802.2
2. IEEE 802.11
3. IEEE 802.5
4. IEEE 802.15

Answer 2

Q18. Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

1. Flexibility
2. Ease of use
3. Robustness
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q19. Disadvantages of WLANs include —–

1. Interference and noise

2. Slower than wired
3. Greater care is needed for encryption
4. All of the above
Answer 4

Q20. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

1. Slaves
2. Parked
3. Standby
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q21 The general goal of a file system is to support———-

1. Transparent access to data

2. Efficient access to data
3. Consistent access to data
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q 22 In the distributed system a client gives the request, and the server provides—-

1. Data
2. Service
3. Information
4. All of the above

Answer 2

Q 23. The important challenges of distributed systems apply to DFS are ——

1. Migration of data
2. Concurrent access to data
3. Replication of data
4. All of the above

Answer 4
Q24. Features of CODA is/are

1. A disconnected operation for mobile computing

2. Freely available under a liberal license
3. High performance through client-side persistent caching
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q25. Which of the file system apply gossip protocols?

1. CODA
2. Ficus
3. Rover
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q26. Mio-NFS supports following mode/modes ———-

1. Connected
2. Loosely connected
3. Disconnected
4. All of the above

Answer 3

Q27. Which of the following are objects that can be dynamically loaded into a
client computer from a server (or vice-versa) to reduce client-server
communication?

1. Relocatable dynamic objects

2. Locatable objects
3. Dynamic objects
4. None of the above
Answer 1

Q28 Which of the following allows for non-blocking RPCs even when a host is
disconnected?

1. Queued remote procedure calls

2. Remote procedure calls
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q29. All transactions must satisfy the —–

1. Consistency
2. Availability
3. ACID Property
4. All of the above

Answer 3

Q 30. The ability of a system to perform its function correctly even in the presence
of internal faults is called

1. Fault tolerance
2. Recovery
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 3

Q 31. TCP is a reliable protocol that incorporates

1. congestion control
2. Flow control mechanisms
3. guarantees in-order delivery of data
4. All of the above
Answer 4

Q32. TCP supports many of the Internet’s most popular application protocols and
resulting applications, including

1. World Wide Web

2. e-mail,
3. File Transfer Protocol
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q 33. Which of the following segments a TCP connection into a fixed part and a
wireless part?

1. Indirect TCP
2. Direct TCP
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q 34. Advantages of Indirect TCP includes

1. Fast transmission
2. Congestion control
3. Error control
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q 35. The main function of snooping TCP is —-

1. To buffer data close to the mobile host to perform fast local retransmission
in case of packet loss.
2. Congestion control
3. Flow control
 4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q 36. I-TCP and Snooping TCP does not help much if a mobile host gets

1. Out of coverage area

2. Disconnected
3. Battery power low
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q 37. M-TCP wants to improve overall throughput to

1. to lower the delay

2. to maintain end-to-end semantics of TCP
3. to provide a more efficient handover
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q 38. Disadvantages of Mobile TCP includes

1. Assuming low bit error rates

2. Lack of buffering
3. Lack of acknowledgment
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q39. A very useful extension of TCP is the use of

1. Buffering packets
2. Congestion control
3. Selective retransmission
4. All of the above
Answer 3

Q40. Which of the following combine packets for connection establishment and
connection release with user data packets?

1. Transaction oriented TCP

2. Indirect TCP
3. Snooping TCP
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q41. Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-enabled

device to another —-

1. Any device
2. Wired device
3. Wireless-enabled device
4. None of the above

Answer 3

Q42. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —-

1. Mobility
2. Portability
3. Wireless connectivity
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q43. Which of the following is the base of most mobile communications?

1. GSM
2. GPRS
3. CDMA
4. None of the above
Answer 1

Q44. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?

1. TDMA
2. FDMA
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 3

Q45. Group of cells without overlapping gaps is called ——

1. Cell
2. Tessellate
3. Mobile station
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q46. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell is generally —–

1. Hexagon
2. Circular
3. Square
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q47. Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

1. Education
2. Sports
3. Games
4. All of the above

Answer 4
Q48. Challenges of mobile computing include ———

1. Low Security
2. Ad hoc Networking
3. Shared medium
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q49. The base station covers a specific area that is called a —-

1. Cell
2. Radius
3. Tessellate
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q50. Which of the following services/service are defined within the bearer
services?

1. Data transmission
2. Forward error correction
3. Flow control
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q51. The overlapping portion of two piconets is called——–

1. Piconet
2. Ad hoc piconet
3. Scatter net
4. All of the above

Answer 3
Q52. Bluetooth technology is used for —-

1. Connection of peripheral devices

2. Ad-hoc networking
3. Bridging network gaps
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q53. In Bluetooth which of the following device follow the hopping sequence?

1. Master
2. Parked
3. Standby
4. Slave

Answer 4

Q54. Which of the following system takes a user bitstream and perform an (XOR)?
The result is either the sequence 0110101 (if the user bit equals 0) or its
complement 1001010 (if the user bit equals 1).

1. FHSS
2. DSSS
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q55. Slow and fast hopping is used in —-

1. FHSS
2. GSM
3. GPRS
4. UMTS
Answer 1

Q56. The most WLANs are based upon —-

1. IEEE 802.11
2. WiFi
3. Both a and b
4. None of these

Answer 3

Q57. The advantages of WLANs are —–

1. Flexibility
2. Robustness
3. Less cost
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q58. Disadvantages of WLANs are —–

1. Slow speed
2. Noise
3. More effort for Security
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q59. In a piconet, the master device decides the —-

1. Hopping pattern
2. Frequency reuse
3. Channels
4. All of the above

Answer 4
Q60. In a Distributed File System, clients access files provided by

1. Other clients
2. Server
3. Access point
4. None of these

Answer 2
 Model Question Paper
Subject:-Mobile Computing

Branch:-Computer Engineering

Class:-B.E.

Semester:- VIII

Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for the GSM system in mobile
computing?

A. Sim
B. HLR
C. ELR
D. VLR

Answer A

Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

A. Home location register

B. Visitor location register
C. Entity equipment register
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q3. In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied to the transmission?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q4. Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q5. The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

 A. Cell
B. Tessellate
C. Mobile station
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q6. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell depends on —–

A. Environmental conditions
B. Social conditions
C. Political conditions
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q7. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

A. Handover
B. Infrastructure
C. Frequency planning
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q8. In a cellular system, the same frequency is used for other users using the technique ———-

A. Frequency planning
B. Frequency hopping
C. Frequency reuse
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q9. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over the cellular network
system?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. TCP
D. None of the above

Answer B
Q10. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

A. Bearer
B. Supplementary
C. Tele
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q11. Bluetooth Technology supports

A. Piconet
B. Ad hoc piconet
C. Scatter net
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q12. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data between a variety of fixed
and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A. Mobile technology
B. Bluetooth technology
C. Ad hoc computing
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q13. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

A. Master
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. Slave

Answer A

Q14. In which of the following the total available bandwidth is split into many channels of smaller
bandwidth plus guard spaces between the channels?

A. FHSS
B. DSSS
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer A
Q15. In which of the following a single data stream is split across several separate narrowband channels
at different frequencies to reduce interference and crosstalk.

A. OFDM
B. GSM
C. GPRS
D. UMTS

Answer A

Q16. Which of the following uses high-frequency radio waves instead of cables for connecting the
devices in LAN?

A. Wired LAN
B. Wireless LAN
C. Fiber made LAN
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q17. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

A. IEEE 802.2
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.15

Answer B

Q18. Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

A. Flexibility
B. Ease of use
C. Robustness
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q19. Disadvantages of WLANs include —–

A. Interference and noise

B. Slower than wired
C. Greater care is needed for encryption
D. All of the above

Answer D
Q20. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

A. Slaves
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q21 The general goal of a file system is to support———-

A. Transparent access to data

B. Efficient access to data
C. Consistent access to data
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q 22 In the distributed system a client gives the request, and the server provides—-

A. Data
B. Service
C. Information
D. All of the above

Answer B

Q 23. The important challenges of distributed systems apply to DFS are ——

A. Migration of data
B. Concurrent access to data
C. Replication of data
D. All of the above

Answer B

Q24. Features of CODA is/are

A. A disconnected operation for mobile computing

B. Freely available under a liberal license
C. High performance through client-side persistent caching
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q25. Which of the file system apply gossip protocols?

A. CODA
B. Ficus
C. Rover
D. None of the above
Answer B

Q26. Mio-NFS supports following mode/modes ———-

A. Connected
B. Loosely connected
C. Disconnected
D. All of the above

Answer C

Q27. Which of the following are objects that can be dynamically loaded into a client computer from a
server (or vice-versa) to reduce client-server communication?

A. Relocatable dynamic objects

B. Locatable objects
C. Dynamic objects
D. None of the above

Answer 1

Q28 Which of the following allows for non-blocking RPCs even when a host is disconnected?

A. Queued remote procedure calls

B. Remote procedure calls
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q29. All transactions must satisfy the —–

A. Consistency
B. Availability
C. ACID Property
D. All of the above

Answer C

Q 30. The ability of a system to perform its function correctly even in the presence of internal faults is
called

A. Fault tolerance
B. Recovery
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer C
Q 31. TCP is a reliable protocol that incorporates

A. congestion control
B. Flow control mechanisms
C. guarantees in-order delivery of data
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q32. TCP supports many of the Internet’s most popular application protocols and resulting
applications, including

A. World Wide Web

B. e-mail,
C. File Transfer Protocol
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q 33. Which of the following segments a TCP connection into a fixed part and a wireless part?

A. Indirect TCP
B. Direct TCP
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q 34. Advantages of Indirect TCP includes

A. Fast transmission
B. Congestion control
C. Error control
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q 35. The main function of snooping TCP is —-

A. To buffer data close to the mobile host to perform fast local retransmission in case of packet
loss.
B. Congestion control
C. Flow control
D. None of the above

Answer A
Q 36. I-TCP and Snooping TCP does not help much if a mobile host gets

A. Out of coverage area

B. Disconnected
C. Battery power low
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q 37. M-TCP wants to improve overall throughput to

A. to lower the delay

B. to maintain end-to-end semantics of TCP
C. to provide a more efficient handover
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q 38. Disadvantages of Mobile TCP includes

A. Assuming low bit error rates

B. Lack of buffering
C. Lack of acknowledgment
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q39. A very useful extension of TCP is the use of

A. Buffering packets
B. Congestion control
C. Selective retransmission
D. All of the above

Answer C

Q40. Which of the following combine packets for connection establishment and connection release
with user data packets?

A. Transaction oriented TCP

B. Indirect TCP
C. Snooping TCP
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q41. Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-enabled device to another —-

A. Any device
B. Wired device
C. Wireless-enabled device
 D. None of the above

Answer C

Q42. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —-

A. Mobility
B. Portability
C. Wireless connectivity
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q43. Which of the following is the base of most mobile communications?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q44. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q45. Group of cells without overlapping gaps is called ——

A. Cell
B. Tessellate
C. Mobile station
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q46. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell is generally —–

A. Hexagon
B. Circular
C. Square
D. None of the above

Answer A
Q47. Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

A. Education
B. Sports
C. Games
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q48. Challenges of mobile computing include ———

A. Low Security
B. Ad hoc Networking
C. Shared medium
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q49. The base station covers a specific area that is called a —-

A. Cell
B. Radius
C. Tessellate
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q50. Which of the following services/service are defined within the bearer services?

A. Data transmission
B. Forward error correction
C. Flow control
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q51. The overlapping portion of two piconets is called——–

1. Piconet

2. Ad hoc piconet

3. Scatter net

4. All of the above

Answer C
Q52. Bluetooth technology is used for —-

A. Connection of peripheral devices

B. Ad-hoc networking
C. Bridging network gaps
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q53. In Bluetooth which of the following device follow the hopping sequence?

A. Master
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. Slave

Answer D

Q54. Which of the following system takes a user bitstream and perform an (XOR)? The result is either
the sequence 0110101 (if the user bit equals 0) or its complement 1001010 (if the user bit equals 1).

A. FHSS
B. DSSS
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q55. Slow and fast hopping is used in —-

A. FHSS
B. GSM
C. GPRS
D. UMTS

Answer A

Q56. The most WLANs are based upon —-

A. IEEE 802.11
B. WiFi
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

Answer C
Q57. The advantages of WLANs are —–

A. Flexibility
B. Robustness
C. Less cost
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q58. Disadvantages of WLANs are —–

A. Slow speed
B. Noise
C. More effort for Security
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q59. In a piconet, the master device decides the —-

A. Hopping pattern
B. Frequency reuse
C. Channels
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q60. In a Distributed File System, clients access files provided by

A. Other clients
B. Server
C. Access point
D. None of these

Answer B