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One-line proof of the Euler's reflection formula

Asked 8 years, 5 months ago Active 2 years, 7 months ago Viewed 10k times

A popular method of proving the formula is to use the infinite product representation of the
gamma function. See ProofWiki for example.
9 However, I'm interested in down-to-earth proof; e.g. using the change of variables. As the
formula being connected to the beta function, there could be one-line proof for it.

Could anyone help me?

5
co.combinatorics

asked Sep 26 '11 at 8:26

juno
91 1 1 2

1 Could a down-to-earth proof have one line? – Dirk Sep 26 '11 at 8:35

With some complex variable theory there's a fairly quick proof. Let f(z) be gamma(z) gamma (1-z)
sin(pi*z). Then f(z+1)=f(z), and one wants to show that f is constant. To do this one looks at the growth
of f in absolute value as Im(z)-->plus or minus infinity, showing that the singularity at infinity is
removable. – paul Monsky Sep 26 '11 at 13:35

2 A bit more precisely, since f is entire and f(z+1)=f(z), f=F(exp(pi*2iz) for some entire F. Using the fact,
immediate from the integral representation formula for gamma, that gamma-->0 uniformly in bounded
vertical strips, we see that F has a removable singularity at infinity. By Liouville, F and f are constant.
Letting z-->0 we see that the constant value of f is pi. This seems to have the same flavor as David
Speyer's argument. – paul Monsky Sep 26 '11 at 14:05

Ah, this is nice. I wrote f = eg to knock down the growth rate and ran into the problem that I could only
By using our site, you acknowledge that you have read and understand our Cookie Policy, Privacy Policy, and
control R(g) , not |g| . You instead wrote f (z) = F (e2πiz ) , which also knocks down the growth rate
our Terms of Service
but has.no such problem. To spell out something which Paul is treating as obvious, "immediate from the
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integral representation" means "by the Riemman-Lebesgue lemma". – David E Speyer Sep 26 '11 at
17:37
∞
There is a standard residue-based way to compute ∫0 x
p−1
dx/(1 + x) , which is Beta function. Is it
what you need? – Fedor Petrov Apr 15 '16 at 6:41

5 Answers Active Oldest Votes

I suspect the following is a three line proof to the right reader: Set
e = Γ(1 + z)Γ(1 − z)z sin(πz) . Then R(g) is an even harmonic function with
g

g(z) = O(|z| log |z|) , so g is constant. Plugging in z = 1/2 evaluates the constant.
9
The "right reader" is someone who already knows good estimates for |Γ(z)| , who is familiar
k
with the lemma that a harmonic function where |g(z)| = o(|z| ) is a polynomial of degree
≤ k − 1 , and who knows how to compute Γ(1/2) . I'll try to edit in proofs of these later today.

This answer is CW in case someone else wants to do it.

Estimates for Γ(z) : For R(z) > 0 , we have

∞ ∞
|Γ(z)| ≤ ∫
0
e
−t z
|t |dt/t = ∫
0
e
−t
. By Stirling's formula, this
R(z)
t dt/t = Γ(R(z))

shows that log |Γ(z)| = O(|z| log |z|) . Now using the recursion for the Γ function lets us
extend this estimate to all of C (details omitted).

We also have the easy estimate log | sin(πz)| = O(|z|), on a contour which stays well away
from the zeroes of sin: Say a circle of radius N + 1/2 . So R(g) = O(|z| log |z|) for z on a
circle of radius N + 1/2 . As g is entire, the maximum modulus principle gives us the same
bound everywhere in C.

Harmonic functions with slow growth rate: Let f be a harmonic function on the unit disc.
We have the Poisson integral formula:
2 2
1 − x − y
iϕ
f (x + iy) = ∫ f (e )dϕ.
2 2
1 − 2(x cos ϕ − y sin ϕ) + x + y

Differentiating inside the integral sign, there is some smooth function K (x, y, ϕ) such that

a+b
∂ f
iϕ
(x + iy) = ∫ Kab (x, y, ϕ)f (e )dϕ.
a b
(∂ x) (∂ y)

Now, let f be defined on a circle of radius R . Making the appropriate variable changes,

a+b
∂ f 1
iϕ
(x + iy) = ∫ Kab (x/R, y/R, ϕ)f (Re )dϕ.
a b a+b+1
(∂ x) (∂ y) R

So, if g is entire and g = o(Rk ) , then every k-fold derivative of g is o(1/R). Sending R to
infinity, every k-fold derivative of g is zero, so we deduce that g is a polynomial of degree
≤ k.

The Gamma function at 1/2 :

∞ ∞ 2

We have Γ(1/2) = ∫ e
−t −1/2
t dt = ∫ e
−u
(2du) . This can be evaluated by a variety
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edited Sep 26 '11 at 17:30 community wiki

2 revisions

This is an argument offered by Paul Monsky in the comments. Now that I have the details
right, I definitely think it is better than mine.
4 For x between 1 and 2, and y positive, we have

|Γ(x + iy)| ≤ Γ(x) = O(1)

by the triangle inequality applied to the defining integral. Using the multiplicative recursion for
the Γ function, we deduce that Γ(x + iy) = O(1) for x ∈ [0, 1] and y ≥ 1 . (An earlier
version of this proved that, in fact Γ(x + iy) = O(e−y ) in this range, but I don't need it.)

Setting f (z) = Γ(z)Γ(1 − z) sin(πz) , for x ∈ [0, 1] we have

πy (π)y
|f (x + iy)| = O(1)O(1)O(e ) = O(e ) as y → ∞

Since f (z) = f (z + 1) , we have f (z) = F (e

2πiz
) for some holomorphic function F
∗ 1/2
defined on C . The above bounds show that |F (w)| = O(|w| ) as w → ∞ and similarly
−1/2
F (w) = O(|w| ) as w → 0. Since F is an entire function, this shows that F is constant,

and any number of arguments can establish the constant.

edited Aug 8 '17 at 17:46 community wiki

3 revs, 2 users 97%
David Speyer

Thank you David and Paul. The last argument which involves taking limit & stating constant was new to
me. So I researched textbooks and found that chapter 6 of [Stein & Shakarchi] has the satisfactory (1
page) answer. - Both Γ(z)Γ(1 − z) (LHS) and π/ sin(zπ) (RHS) has order 1 pole at z ∈ Z . -
Analytic continuation declares we only have to show (LHS)=(RHS) for z ∈ (0, 1) . - (RHS)=
zs z
∞ e ∞ dt t
∫
−∞
ds
1+e
s
= ∫
0 t 1+t
- (LHS) reduces to the same integral using some tricky (but often used)
change of variables. – juno Sep 28 '11 at 4:53

Apparently, there is no short proof of the reflection formula (unless you count the one you are
alluding to, which does need a fair bit of background). There is, however, at least one down-
2 to-earth one, see

http://warwickmaths.org/files/gamma.pdf

edited Apr 15 '16 at 3:47 answered Sep 26 '11 at 12:41

მამუკა ჯიბლაძე Igor Rivin
13.9k 3 50 125 90.4k 9 121 318

1 The link is dead, but there is a working mirror on the Web Archive. – Wojowu Feb 2 '16 at 15:40

This isn't a one-line proof in any sense (it's actually 4.5 pages), but I was pleased to see that the whole
thing can be done with elementary calculus. – sasquires May 11 '18 at 16:54

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It can be shown (from the Beta function) that

2 ∞ x−1
s ds
Γ(1 − x)Γ(x) = B(x, 1 − x) = ∫ (1)
s + 1
0

Now we show that

∞ x−1
s ds π
∫ =
0
s + 1 sin πx

We use the contour shown in Figure below

The singularities are a pole at s = −1 and a branch point at s = 0 where the function is
multivalued. We can use the positive x axis as a branch cut. The contour encloses the pole,
so the integral along the contour C = C1 ∪ C2 ∪ C3 ∪ C4 is given by

x−1
s ds
x−1 iπ(x−1)
∫ = 2πi(−1) = 2πi e .
C
s + 1

since (−1)x−1 = e−iπ(x−1) is the only residue of the integrand. We now evaluate the four
individual integrations for the four paths in the figure. Let us call Ii = ∫C sx−1 /(1 + s)ds .
i

We start with the integrals along the circular paths. For the small circle we can write s = ϵeiθ
where θ ∈ [δ, 2π − δ] with ϵ the radius of the disk, and δ the initial angle of integration. We
then change variables from s to θ with ds = iϵeiθ . That is,
δϵ x iθ(x+1) 2π−δ ϵ x x
∣ dθ ∣and understand|ϵ
By using our site, you acknowledge thatiϵyou
e have read our|dθ
Cookie Policy, Privacy|ϵPolicy
| , and
|I4 | = ∣∫ ∣ ≤ ∫ = (2π − 2δϵ )
our Terms of Service. ∣ 2π−δ ϵ ϵe
iθ
− 1 ∣ δϵ
1 − ϵ 1 − ϵ

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which goes to 0 as ϵ, δϵ → 0 , since 0 < x < 1 . Likewise along the big circle s = Re
iθ
and
ds = iRe dθ , and so
iθ

2π−δ R x iθ(x+1) 2π−δ R x x

∣ iR e dθ ∣ |R |dθ R
|I2 | = ∣∫ ∣ ≤ ∫ = (2π − 2δR )
iθ R − 1 R − 1
∣ δR Re − 1 ∣ δR

We use the L'H\^{o}pital rule to find that

x−1
xR x
lim |I2 | = lim 2(π − δR ) = lim = 0
1−x
R→∞ R→∞ 1 R→∞ R

since 1 > 1 − x > 0 . We are left with the integrals along C1 and C3 . If in the integral along
C1 we take the limit as ϵ → 0, R → ∞ , is the original integral (1). On the other hand, the

integral over C3 has the argument shifted by 2π with respect to the original integral. That is,
x−1 0 2πi(x−1) x−1 ∞ x−1
s ds e s ds s ds
2πi(x−1)
lim ∫ = ∫ = −e ∫
x+1 2πi x+1 x+1
ϵ→0,R→∞
C3 (s + 1) ∞ (e s + 1) 0 (s + 1)

Putting all integrals together we find that

∞ x−1
s ds
2iπ(x−1) iπ(x−1)
(1 − e )∫ = 2π i e .
x+1
0 (s + 1)

Hence
∞ x−1 iπ(x−1)
s ds 2πie π π
∫ = = =
x+1 2iπ(x−1) −πx iπx
0 (s + 1) 1 − e (−e + e )/2i sin πx

We then showed that Euler's reflection formula

answered Apr 21 '16 at 13:05

Herman Jaramillo
219 1 5

I have not seen a one line proof of this statement. I believe there is no such a thing. The
statement usually takes some work.
0 Here is my proof: The formula states that
π
Γ(1 − z)Γ(z) =
sin πz

We show this formula using contour ingegration. We start with equation for the Beta function
in terms of the Γ function (second property) with y = 1 − x, and 0 < x < 1 . That is

Γ(x)Γ(1 − x) = B(x, 1 − x).

We now show, by using contour integration, that

π
B(x, 1 − x) = .
sin πx

∞
Forsite,
By using our this,you
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function representation
you have (B = ∫0oursCookie
read and understand /(1 ) which
+ s,)Privacy
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x−1 x+y

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1 − x . becomes

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∞ x−1
s ds
B(x, 1 − x) = ∫
s + 1
0

We use contour integration. Let us first make the substitution s = e

t
, ds t
= e dt , and
t ∈ (−∞, ∞) . So we need to compute

We compute
∞ t(x−1) t ∞ tx
e e dt e dt
B(x, 1 − x) = ∫ = B(x, 1 − x) = ∫ , 0 < x < 1.
t t
−∞ e + 1 −∞ e + 1

Let us consider the contour integral

I = ∫ f (z)dz,
C

with
zx
e
f (z) = , 0 < x < 1.
z
e + 1

and C is the contour that we need to determine. In the complex plane, the poles of the
integrand are the roots of ez + 1 , that is ez = −1 = e(2k+1)iπ so the roots are
zk = (2k + 1)iπ , for k = 0, ±1, ±2, ⋯ . Then f (z) as an infinite number of poles all lying

on the imaginary axis. We will select a contour that has only one pole as shown in the Figure
below

The contour C can be seen as the union of C = C1 ∪ C2 ∪ C3 ∪ C4 , where C1 and C3

are horizontal lines from −R to R with opposite orientation. We want to let R grow to ∞.
The paths C2 and C4 are vertical lines between 0 and 2πi with opposite orientations showed
in the figure.

From the Residue Theorem we evaluate the integral over C . The residue corresponding to
the pole z0 = πi, is computed using the expression
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zx zx zx
(z − z0 )e e + (z − z0 )e
z0 (x−1)
lim (z − z0 )f (z) = lim = lim = e .
z z
z→z0 z→z0 e + 1 z→z0 e

where we use L'H\^{o}pital's rule.

Hence I = 2πi e
πi(x−1)
since the only residue inside the contour is at z = iπ . That is,

iπ(x−1)
2π i e = ∫ f (z)dz + ∫ f (z)dz + ∫ f (z)dz + ∫ f (z)dz.
C1 C2 C3 C4

We want to find I1 = ∫
C1
f (z)dz , as R → ∞ . Let us first find the integral along the vertical
path C3 .

−R (t+2πi)x
e
I3 = ∫ dt
t+2πi
R e + 1
−R tx
e
2πix
= e ∫ dt
t+2πi
R e + 1
−R tx
e
2πix
= e ∫ dt
t
R e + 1
2πix
= −e I1 ,

where we reversed the sign since I1 is computed from −R to R instead of going in the
opposite direction.

The integral I2 along the path C2 is evaluated as follows

2π (R+it)x Rx 2π (it)x 2π (it)x
e e e e
R(x−1)
I2 = ∫ dt = ∫ dt = e ∫ dt.
R+it R it R it R
0 e + 1 e 0 e + 1/e 0 e + 1/e

Now, since 0 (so x − 1 < 0) , and the last integral is bounded we have that
< x < 1

limR→∞ I2 = 0. The same argument applies for the integral I4 along the path C4 . We then
have that, from I = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 ,

iπ(x−1) 2πix
2πie = (1 − e )I1

and
∞ x−1 iπ(x−1)
s ds 2πie π π
I1 = ∫ = = = .
2πix iπx −iπx

0
s + 1 1 − e e −e sin πx
2i

We then showed that Euler's reflection formula is correct.

answered Apr 15 '16 at 2:30

Herman Jaramillo
219 1 5

Doesn't this just shift the problem to being: how do we prove this identity for the beta function? –
Yemon Choi Apr 15 '16 at 2:41

We may integrate without exponential change of variable: join two long horisontal segments
±εi + [0, R] by small semicircle near 0 and large arc (almost circle). – Fedor Petrov Apr 15 '16 at
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@FedorPetrov HOw do you deal with the branch cuts at s=0? Assume p=1/2 then you have
\int_0^{\infty} ds/\sqrt{s}(s+1} , then you have a square root branch cut between 0 and ∞ . Then assume
p = 1/3 then you have two branch cuts, in general you could have as many brunch cuts as you want.

Which contour covers them all? – Herman Jaramillo Apr 15 '16 at 12:58

@YemonChoi: The answer is no. I just wanted to add some background. I still proof the reflection
formula. Should I add one more line to my proof to state the final formula? – Herman Jaramillo Apr 15
'16 at 12:59

z
p
is analytic in the domain C ∖ [0, +∞) , the contour lies in this domain, there is unique residue of
p
z /(1 + z) inside the contour, in point −1. – Fedor Petrov Apr 15 '16 at 13:15

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