Philippine State College of Aeronautics

Piccio Garden, Villamor, Pasay City

Mock Examination
AERODYNAMICS

1) Assume that you are ascending in an elevator at sea level. Your eardrums are
very sensitive to minute changes pressure. In this case, you are feeling a one-
percent decrease in pressure per minute. Calculate the upward speed of the
elevator.

A. 84.11 m/s C. 84.52 m/s

B. 84.85 m/s D. 84.34 m/s

2) Consider a Venturi tube. At point A, the diameter is 1 foot. At point B, the

radius is 3 inches. What is the flow rate of water if the pressure difference is
equal to 5 inches of mercury?

A. 3.87 ft3/s C. 4.58 ft3/s

B. 5.24 m3/s D. 8.17 ft3/s

3) Which of the following is not an equation for calculating aspect ratio?

A. b/c C. b2/S
B. S/c2 D. b2/c2

4) Thickness tapering can be achieved by means of _____.

A. having a gradual change of airfoil section from a thick wing at the

root to a thin wing at the tip while letting the chord length constant.
B. varying the length of the chord from the root to the tip and letting
the airfoil in uniform set-up
C. changing the angle of attack of each wing section and varying the
length as well
D. varying the length of the chord and the airfoil used in each section

5) Angle measured between the line perpendicular to the axis of symmetry of the
airplane and the projection of the wing axis on a plane perpendicular to the
longitudinal axis of the airplane is known as _____.

A. angle of attack c. angle of incidence

B. dihedral angle d. induced angle

6) An airplane is flying at 480 miles per hour at 20,000 feet at standard altitude.
What is the critical velocity of airflow at the wing?

A. 705 mph B. 674 mph C. 989 mph D.560 mph

7) The force against an automobile windshield is 0.012 pounds when the car is
moving at 1 mile per hour. What is the force when the car is travelling at 35
miles per hour?

A. 0.42 lbs. B. 35 lbs. C. 14.7 lbs. D.4.2 lbs.

8) A cylinder 4 feet in diameter and 1 foot long is rotating at 100 RPM in an

airstream of 40 miles per hour. What is the lifting force?

A. 441 lbs. B. 446 lbs. C. 36.7 lbs. D.389 lbs.

9) An airplane takes seven minutes and thirty seconds to reach eight thousand feet
altitude. In the same time interval, it reaches 13,600 feet altitude. Determine
the altitude at which the power required is equal to the power available.

A. 20,500 ft. C. 26,600 ft.

B. 18,850 ft. D. 28,000 ft.

10) The rate of climb of an airplane is given by the expression RC = 850 – (1/12)h
in feet per min. Compute the climbing time from 300 feet up to its service
ceiling?

A. 6 minutes C. 5 minutes
B. 0.6 minutes D. 25.32 minutes

11) To ensure safety during landing, the approach speed should be _____.

A. 30 per cent greater than stalling speed

 B. 20 per cent greater than stalling speed
C. 10 per cent greater than stalling speed
D. 15 per cent greater than stalling speed

12) Calculate the negative limit maneuvering load factor of a 2,500-lb normal
airplane with symmetrical wing loading condition of positive hiHgh angle of
attack.

A. -4.02g B. -1.52g C. -1.496g D. 1.608g

13) If an airplane has a symmetrical wing section which has an angle of incidence
of zero degrees during take-off, all drag is:

A. profile drag C. parasite drag

B. wave drag D. induced drag

14) If the weight of a jet airplane is increased, the _____.

A. parasite drag increases more than induced drag

B. induced drag decreases more than parasite drag
C. both parasite and induced drag increase by the same amount
D. induced drag increases more than parasite drag

15) An airplane is making the final approach for landing when it encountered a
horizontal wind shear. Which of the following types below is the most
dangerous?

A. Tailwind to headwind shear C. Downburst

B. Headwind to tailwind shear D. Crosswind burst

16) Transonic flight problems may include _____.

A. force divergence C. buffeting

B. increase in drag D. all of the above

17) Airflow passing through an expansion wave _____.

A. slows down
B. decreases the energy of the airstream
C. decreases the temperature of the air
D. all of the above

18) In order to overcome induced drag, power required varies:

A. inversely with v^2

B. inversely with v^3
C. inversely with v
D. directly with v^2

19) An airplane weighing 5,000 pounds has a wing area of 250 square feet. If the
lift-curve slope is 6.0 per radian and the angle of attack at zero lift is -2
degrees. Calculate the angle of attack (in degrees) of this airplane at a
level flight speed of 200 miles per hour under standard sea - level condition.

A. 0.137 B. 3.52 C. -0.137 D.-3.52

20) Consider the isentropic flow over an airfoil. The freestream temperature and
pressure is equal to 245 Kelvin and 114.66 psi, respectively. At the point on
the airfoil, the pressure is 3.6 x10^4 Pa. Calculate the density at this
point.

A. 0.54 kg/m^3 B. 11.23 kg/m^3 C. 0.511 kg/m^3 D. 1.44 kg/m^3

21) What is maximum obtainable efficiency of a propeller if the airspeed is 210

knots and slipstream velocity is 230 knots?

A. 95% B. 85% C. 90% D. 75%

22) Calculate the thrust for a propeller 7.5 feet in diameter if the airspeed is
140 knots and the slipstream is 170 knots.

A. 950 lbs. B. 942 lbs. C.1,200 lbs. D.832 lbs.

23) To maintain altitude, what must be done as indicated airspeed is reduced?

A. Increase density C. Reduce thrust

 B. Increase AOA D. Deploy spoilers

24) As freestream Mach number is increased beyond 0.3, negative pressure

coefficient will _____.

A. become constant c. increase positively

B. increase negatively d. decrease positively

25) Consider the Gulfstream IV flying at 30,000 feet. Assume a total loss of
engine thrust. Calculate the minimum gliding path angle. Given that CD = 0.015
+ 0.08CL^2.

A. 3.964 deg. B. 4.264 deg.

B. 5.021 deg. D. 10.256 deg.

26) The boundary associated with outright structural failure is known as _____.

A. ultimate load factor C. load factor

B. limit load factor D. maneuvering load factor

27) What is the approximate value of lift of an airplane having a gross weight of
50,000 Newtons if it is in a horizontal coordinated forty-five degrees banked
turn?

A. 70,000 N B. 80,000 N C. 50,000 N D. 60,000 N

28) For best maximum endurance, an airplane should have the following
characteristics except _____.

A. highest propeller efficiency C.lowest specific consumption

B. highest fuel weight D.flight at altitude

29) Take – off from an airfield with a low density altitude will result in _____.

A. a longer take–off run

B. a higher than standard IAS before lift-off.
C. a higher TAS for the same lift-off IAS
D. a shorter take–off run because of the lower TAS required for the same
IAS

30) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance
during a glide?

A. Decrease the airplane’s gross weight

B. By means of the presence of tailwind
C. By means of the presence of headwind
D. Increase in airplane’s weight

31) A standard altimeter reads 14,000 ft. When the ambient temperature is 35
degrees Fahrenheit, what is the density altitude?

A. 14,652 ft. C. 15,984 ft.

B. 15,656 ft. D. 13,276 ft.

32) In a propeller blade, when is the blade angle and angle of attack equal?

A. During take-off C. During engine power off

B. During idle D. During cruising

33) For an airplane flying at 886 feet per second at 25,000 ft. altitude, find
the critical value of the pressure coefficient.

A. - 0.254 B. - 0.146 C. - 0.626 D. - 0.133

34) Maneuverability of an airplane is best when _____.

A. center of pressure is on the C.G. limit

B. speed is near Mach 1.0
C. center of gravity is forward the C.G. limit
D. center of gravity is on the C.G. limit

35) When a pilot makes a turn in a horizontal flight, the stall speed _____.

A. increases with flaps extended

B. increases with the square root of load factor
C. decrease with increasing bank angle
 D. increases with the square of the load factor

36) A low–speed airspeed indicator reads 200 miles per hour while the altimeter
reads 6,000 feet. What is the value of the true airspeed when the ambient
temperature is found to be 30 degrees Fahrenheit?

A. 210 mph B. 318 mph C. 210 fps D. 318 fps

37) This situation happens every time the helicopter’s main rotor is at rest.

A. Rotor Coning B. Rotor Droop C. Rotor Tracking D. Feathering

38) As the cyclic control is moved forward, the disc tilts forward, helicopter
will ______.

A. move backward C. move forward

B. move to the right D. move to the left

39) Which of the following blade angle setting is best for cross-country flights?

A. High blade angle setting C. Feathering

B. Low blade angle setting D. Medium blade angle setting

40) Which of the following is true?

A. Lift is always greater than weight.

B. Lift is greater during level flight than climbing flight.
C. Lift is greater during level flight than level turning flight.
D. Lift is always perpendicular to airfoil chord.

41) Washing in the left wing of a monoplane for the purpose of rigging
corrections after flight test will have what effect on the lift and drag of
that wing?

A. Both drag and lift will decrease due to decrease in angle of attack.
B. Both drag and lift will increase due to increase in angle of attack.
C. Both drag and lift will increase due to decrease in angle of attack.
D. Both drag and lift will decrease due to increase in angle of attack.

42) Wing dihedral is a rigging consideration on most airplanes of conventional

design that contributes most to the stability of the airplane about its
_____.

A. lateral Axis C. vertical Axis

B. directional Axis D. longitudinal Axis

43) Consider an airplane with a zero-lift drag coefficient of 0.025, an aspect of

6.72, and an Oswald’s efficiency factor of 0.90. Calculate the lift–drag
ratio at minimum power required.

A. 13.04 B. 9.50 C. 13.78 D. 170.11

44) It is the best rate of climb speed and is used to gain most altitude in a
given period of time.

A. VY B. VX C. VR D. VBR

45) Rate of descent can be minimized when the _____.

A. parasite drag equals the induced drag
B. parasite drag equals one–third of induced drag
C. parasite drag equals three times the induced drag
D. parasite drag is greater than the induced drag

46) The initial tendency of the aircraft to remain in a new condition after it
equilibrium is disturbed.

A. Neutral Static Stability

B. Positive Dynamic Stability
C. Neutral Dynamic Stability
D. Positive Static Stability

47) A gyroscopic instrument which provides details about roll rate and movements
about roll and yaw.

A. Attitude Indicator C. Altimeter

B. Heading Indicator D. Airspeed Indicator
48) The power required curves for an increase in altitude show that the:

A. PR remains the same as altitude increases

B. PR increases by the same amount as the velocity
C. PR increases but the velocity does not
D. PR decreases by the same amount as the velocity

49) Calculate the speed of sound (ft/s) if the gage pressure is 8.8 inches of
Mercury and the density is 0.000902 slugs per cubic foot.

A. 38.655
B. 834.569
C. 983.017
D. 2,061.995

50) A supersonic airplane experiences a normal shock wave. Calculate the ratio of
total pressure downstream to the total pressure upstream of the wave if the
change in entropy is equal to 0.0467 BTU/lbm-R.

A.0.506
B.1.000
C.1.506
D.1.976
 Philippine State College of Aeronautics
Piccio Garden, Villamor, Pasay City

MOCK EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS

1) Solve for x: x=-(1/-27)-2/3.

a. 9
b. -9
c. 1/9
d. -1/9

2) A statement which is admitted to be true without proof.

a. Axiom
b. Corollary
c. Postulate
d. Theorem

3) The number 0.123123123… is _____.

a. irrational
b. rational
c. surd
d. transcendental

4) An angular unit equivalent to 1/400 of the circumference of a circle is called

_____.
a. radian
b. mil
c. grad
d. degree

5) Convergent series is a sequence where the succeeding term is _____ than the
preceding term.
a. equal
b. greater
c. lesser
d. ten times more

6) If 3x=54, then 3x-2 is equal to _____.

a. 5
b. 6
c. 8
d. 9

7) Solve the equation 𝑥 ! − 3𝑥 = 2𝑥 − 6.

a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3

8) Find log P of ln P=8.

a. 2,980.96
b. 18.42
c. 8.57
d. 3.47

9) Which number has four significant figures?

a. 0.00120
b. 1.21212
c. 0.01212
d. 1.00121

10) The prefix peta is opposite to _____.

a. atto
b. femto
c. nano
d. pico

11) Solve for a in the equation: a=64x4y.

a. 4x+3y
b. 43xy
c. 256xy
d. 43x+y

12) Solve for the value of z: 2x+z-y-6=0; x-2z-3y=13; -3z+2x-3y-16=0

a. -3
 b. -2
c. -1
d. 2

13) The volume of any solid of revolution is equal to the generating area times the
circumference of the circle described by the centroid of the area. This is commonly
known as _____.
a. Cavalier’s principle
b. First proposition of Pappus
c. Second proposition of Pappus
d. Simpson’s Rule

14) The chord passing through the focus of the parabola and perpendicular to its axis is
termed as the _____.
a. major axis
b. latus rectum
c. directrix
d. asymptote

15) Find a if log2(a+2) + log2(a-2) = 5.

a. 8
b. 6
c. 4
d. 2

16) In the expansion of (x+4y)12, the numerical coefficient of the 5th term is _____.
a. 63,360
b. 126,720
c. 253,440
d. 506,880

17) Accumulate P5,000.00 for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly.

a. P12,456.20
b. P13,876.50
c. P10,345.00
d. P11,040.20

18) Any number multiplied by _____ equals unity.

a. infinity
b. itself
c. its reciprocal
d. zero

19) Given only the lengths of the sides of a triangle, one would use _____ to find the
angles.
a. the inverse square law
b. the law of cosines
c. the law of sines
d. the law of tangents

20) A point on the curve where the second derivative of a function is equal to zero is
called _____.
a. point of inflection
b. point of intersection
c. maxima
d. minima

21) If -9<x<-4 and -12<y<-6, then _____.

a. 108 < xy < 24
b. 108 > xy > 24
c. 108 < xy < 120
d. -21 < x+y < -10

22) If log8N=2/3, then N is equal to _____.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

23) Pedro can finish inspecting an Airbus A380 in 5 working days alone. Juan can do the
same inspection in 10 working days alone. How long will it take for them to finish
that inspection if they work together?
a. 2 and 2/3 days
b. 3 and 1/3 days
c. 3 and 2/3 days
d. 4 and 1/3 days
24) In a conic section, if the eccentricity is greater than one, it is _____.
a. a circle
b. an ellipse
c. a hyperbola
d. a parabola

25) The point on the curve where the first derivative of a function is zero and the
second derivative is positive is called _____.
a. point of inflection
b. point of intersection
c. maxima
d. minima

26) The sum of two numbers is ten and the sum of the squares of the numbers is fifty-
two. Find the product of the two numbers.
a. 16
b. 24
c. 26
d. 32

27) Polygons with all interior angles less than 180º are called _____.
a. acute polygons
b. concave polygons
c. convex polygons
d. supplemental polygons

28) A series of numbers which are perfect square numbers is called _____.
a. Euler’s number
b. Fermat’s number
c. Fibonacci numbers
d. Fourier series

29) It represents the distance of a point from the y-axis.

a. Abscissa
b. Coordinate
c. Ordinate
d. Polar distance

30) A line perpendicular to the x-axis has a slope of _____.

a. zero
b. unity
c. infinity
d. one

31) A comfortable cockpit temperature is 72ºF. What is this temperature in Kelvin?

a. 263
b. 281
c. 295
d. 345

32) The study of the properties of figures of three dimensions.

a. Plane geometry
b. Physics
c. Solid geometry
d. Trigonometry

33) Solve the equation (x5+3y)dx-xdy=0.

a. 2y=x5+cx3
b. 2y=x3+cx2
c. y2=5x4+cx3
d. y=x5+cx3x

34) It is the characteristic of population which is measurable.

a. Distribution
b. Frequency
c. Parameter
d. Sample

35) A load of 40kN is to be raised by means of a lever weighing 250N/m, which is

supported at one end. If the load is placed 1 meter from the support, how long
should the lever be so that the force required be a minimum?
a. 13.43 m
b. 17.89 m
c. 18.56 m
d. 20.19 m
36) The distance traveled by an airplane is given by the equation x=3t2+2t+4 where x is
the distance in kilometers and t is the time in hours. Determine the velocity of the
airplane after traveling 10 kilometers.
a. 8.72 kph
b. 18.72 kph
c. 23.50 kph
d. 75.30 kph

! ! !
37) Simplify 2𝑥 ! − 16𝑥 ! + 2 54𝑥 ! .
!
a. 2 𝑥 !
!
b. 2 5𝑥 !
!
c. 5 𝑥 !
!
d. 5 2𝑥 !

38) Three sides of a trapezoid are each 8 cm long. How long is the 4th side when the
area of the trapezoid has the greatest value?
a. 10 cm
b. 12 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 16 cm

39) The volume of the closed cylindrical tank is 11.3 cubic meter. If the total surface
area is a minimum, what is the base radius, in meters?
a. 1.22
b. 1.44
c. 1.66
d. 1.88

40) Divide 120 into two parts so that the product one and the square of the other is
maximum. Find the numbers.
a. 60 & 60
b. 70 & 50
c. 80 & 40
d. 100 & 20

41) The shortest distance from the point (5,10) to the curve x2=12y is _____.
a. 3.474
b. 4.331
c. 5.127
d. 6.445

42) A bank charges 12% simple interest on a P300.00 loan. How much will be repaid if the
loan is paid back in one lump sum after three years?
a. P408.00
b. P108.00
c. P1,080.00
d. P310.8

43) Evaluate the integral of x cos 2x dx with limits from 0 to π/4.

a. 0.114
b. 0.143
c. 0.186
d. 0.308

44) Solve for x: 37x+1=6561.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

45) Using lower limit=0 and upper limit=π/2, what is the integral of 15sin7xdx?
a. 6.857
b. 6.783
c. 6.648
d. 6.539

46) What is the discriminant of the equation 4x2=8x-5?

a. 8
b. -8
c. 16
d. -16

47) Find the sixth term of (3x-4y)6.

a. -144,288x3y5
 b. -548x2y5
c. -154,288x3y5
d. -1,548,288x3y5

48) Solve for x: 3x5x+1=6x+2.

a. 2.1455
b. 2.1445
c. 2.1544
d. 2.4154

49) What is the value of (log 5 to the base 2) + (log 5 to the base 3)?
a. 7.39
b. 3.79
c. 3.97
d. 9.37

50) If 1/3 and -3/2 are the roots of a quadratic equation, then the equation is _____.
a. 6x2+7x-3=0
b. 6x2-7x+3=0
c. 6x2-7x-3=0
d. 6x2-7x+1=0
 Philippine State College of Aeronautics
Piccio Garden, Villamor, Pasay City

MOCK EXAMINATION
AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES AND DESIGN

1) Buffeting, an intermittent application of forces to a part of an airplane, is

caused by _____.
a. an unsteady flow from turbulence
b. the incorrect rigging of elevator
c. the incorrect rigging of ailerons
d. incorrect combination of controls by the pilot

2) The point at which there is an appreciable elongation of the material without any
corresponding increase of load.
a. Elastic point
b. Proportional limit
c. Rupture point
d. Yield point

3) Flutter can be prevented by ___________ to alter the moment of inertia of the

surface and therefore the period of vibration (move the control surface CG closer
to the hinge) such as placing the engines on pylons forward of the wing leading
edge.
a. weight reduction
b. pulling back on the control
c. mass balancing control surfaces
d. fuel jettisoning

4) The maximum positive maneuvering load factors for a commuter and normal airplane
are _____, respectively.
a. 3.8 and 3.8
b. 3.8 and 4.4
c. 1.2 and 3.8
d. 3.8 and 6.0

5) It is the combination of compressive and tensile loads.

a. Bending
b. Gust
c. Shear
d. Torsion

6) It is the ratio of ultimate stress to the allowable stress.

a. Critical Ratio
b. Factor of Safety
c. Marginal Allowance
d. Proportional Limit

7) Calculate the minimum wall thickness for a cylindrical vessel that is to carry a
gas at a pressure of 1,400 psi. The diameter of the vessel is 2 feet and the stress
is limited to 12 ksi.
a. 0.7 inches
b. 1.0 inch
c. 1.4 inches
d. 1.5 inches

8) Friction always acts _____ to the contact surface.

a. diagonally at 45 degrees
b. normal
c. parallel
d. the same angle of static friction

9) The 16-ft wing of an airplane is subjected to a lift which varies from zero at the
tip to 360 lb/ft at the fuselage according to w=90x0.5 lb/ft where x is measured from
the tip. Compute the resultant and its location from the wing tip.
a. R=3,844 lbs; x=9.60 ft
b. R=3,840 lbs; x=8.60 ft
c. R=3,480 lbs; x=9.06 ft
d. R=3,804 lbs; x=9.60 ft

10) It is defined as the measure of the structure’s resistance to change in shape when
subjected to force.
a. Ductility
b. Resilience
c. Stiffness
 d. Toughness

11) Large transport airplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure
of approximately _____.
a. 1,000 psi
b. 2,000 psi
c. 3,000 psi
d. 4,000 psi

12) Referring to a rotorcraft, it is an anti-torque system which has no visible rotor

mounted on the tail boom.
a. Conventional
b. Ducted Fan
c. Fenestron
d. NOTAR

13) It is known as the measurement of height in inches. It is perpendicular from a

horizontal plane located at a ground, cabin floor, or some other easily referenced
location.
a. Aileron Station
b. Butt Line
c. Wing Station
d. Water Line

14) An airplane weighing 11,500 lbs has a positive maneuvering load factor of _____.
a. 2.78
b. 2.99
c. 2.21
d. 3.22

15) In reference to a V-n diagram, it is the slowest speed at which the maximum load
factor can be reached without stalling.
a. VA
b. VB
c. VSX
d. VS1

16) It is the ratio of modulus of elasticity and material density.

a. Specific strength
b. Specific stiffness
c. Specific volume equivalence
d. Specific toughness

17) Given the difference of the angle setting and angle at zero lift to be 14 degrees,
what is the slope of lift curve (in per rad) if your coefficient of lift is 1.35?
a. 0.0964
b. 0.00168
c. 5.525
d. 10.370

18) This speed is vital in protecting the aircraft from inadvertent stall and from
overstressing.
a. VPRO
b. VRA
c. VD
d. VH

19) What is the gust velocity for diving at 20,000 feet and below?
a. 12.5 ft/s
b. 25.0 ft/s
c. 30.0 ft/s
d. 50.0 ft/s

20) For a conventional, single-engine airplane of 6,000 pounds or less, the minimum
design maneuvering speed is given by _____.
a. 12.5 (n1w/s)0.5
b. 17.0 (n1w/s)0.5
c. 19.5 (n1w/s)0.5
d. 27.3 (n1w/s)0.5

21) This V-speed means ‘design speed for maximum gust intensity.’
a. VG
b. VNO
c. VB
d. VGE
22) What parameter is at its maximum when shear is equal to zero?
a. Bending
b. Moment
c. Force
d. Stability

23) It is a flat sheet triangular shape used to reinforce the corners of structure.
a. Webs
b. Fittings
c. Caps
d. Gussets

24) Frames which serve merely to maintain the shape of the fuselage is called _____.
a. Intermediate frames
b. Simple frames
c. Main frames
d. Transverse frames

25) The tangent of this angle where the opposite side is the frictional force and the
adjacent side is the normal force is called _____.
a. bank
b. friction
c. incidence
d. attack

26) The buttocks line, or butt line, is _____.

a. the width measurement left or right of, and parallel to, the vertical
centerline
b. the height measurement left or right of, perpendicular to the horizontal
centerline
c. the width measurement left of, and perpendicular to, the vertical centerline
d. the length measurement from the datum line

27) Which among the following statements best describes a cantilever wing?
a. Externally braced with either struts and /or bracing wires
b. Supported at one end only with no external bracing
c. Braced at both the upper and lower section of the airfoil
d. Able to be folded at the root section to ease storage in confined spaces

28) A single bolt is used to lap joint two steel bars together. Tensile force on the
bar is 20,000 Newtons. Determine the diameter of the bolt required if the allowable
shearing stress on it is 70 MPa.
a. 19 mm
b. 16 mm
c. 13 mm
d. 9 mm

29) A simply supported beam is five meters in length. It carries a uniformly

distributed load including its own weight of 300 Newtons per meter and a
concentrated load of 100 Newtons, 2 meters from the left end. Find the reactions if
reaction A is at the left end and reaction B is at the right end.
a. RA=810N ; RB=700N (790N)
b. RA=700N ; RB=810N
c. RA=710N ; RB=800N
d. RA=800N ; RB=710N

30) For any category airplane having a gross weight of 6,000 pounds or greater, the
constant k value in determining the landing reaction is _____.
a. 0.23
b. 0.25
c. 0.33
d. 0.35

31) Normally designed to provide restraints against rotation and all translations;
therefore, reactive forces and moments (reactions) are developed along the
directions where movements are not permitted.
a. Fixed support
b. Hinge-roller support
c. Wedge support
d. Hinge support

32) The maximum anticipated load in the entire service life-span of a flight vehicle is
called _____.
a. ultimate loads
b. limit loads
 c. design loads
d. imposed loads

33) For the design maneuvering wing loading for aileron, the average surface loading is
given by _____.
a. 0.566 (n1w/s)
b. 0.534 (n1w/s)
c. 0.466 (n1w/s)
d. 0.366 (n1w/s)

34) Without added oxygen, the time of useful consciousness at 25,000 feet is
approximately _____.
a. twenty seconds
b. eighty seconds
c. three minutes
d. six minutes

35) Airspeed limitations are shown on the airspeed indicator (ASI) by color coding.
Operation of an airplane in the yellow airspeed arc is for _____.
a. speed range between maximum structural cruising speed and VNE
b. smooth air only
c. only with caution
d. speed range between maximum structural cruising speed and VNE, smooth air and
only with caution.

36) The calibrated power-off stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which
the aircraft is controllable in a specified configuration is designated by _____.
a. VS0
b. VS1
c. VFE
d. VNO

37) This type of wing vertical location is known to be the most aerodynamically
streamlined.
a. High
b. Mid
c. Low
d. Parasol

38) It is a soft metal or plastic used to protect the airframe from damage caused by
the cable system.
a. Fairlead
b. Gusset plates
c. Phenolic tape
d. Plastic lugs

39) The shear diagram on a certain portion of the beam intensifies from 0 N to 2,000 N.
What is the bending moment experienced by this 3-feet portion?
a. 3,000 N-m
b. 6,000 N-m
c. 1,830 N-m
d. 915 N-m

40) Any deformable solid body which is capable of carrying loads and transmitting these
loads to other parts of the body is referred to as ______.
a. bar elements
b. fuselage elements
c. shear panels
d. structural systems

41) The positive limit maneuvering load factor (+n) for utility category airplane shall
not be less than ____.
a. 2.5
b. 3.8
c. 4.4
d. 6.0

42) Doors shall be designed to withstand an equivalent horizontal steady state wind Of
_____ knots while opening or closing.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40

43) The service ceiling of a Cessna 172 Skyhawk is 13,500 feet or _____ nautical miles.
a. 2.22
 b. 2.56
c. 4.11
d. 5.76

44) A force of 525 N lies 105 degrees from the positive x-axis. What is the horizontal
component of this force?
a. 507.111 N
b. 135.880 N
c. -135.88 lbf
d. -30.547 lbf

45) In the rectangular coordinate system, in what quadrant will you find the center of
the circle with the equation x2 + y2 - 5x + (7y/3) = (511/18)?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

46) This tail design is sometimes referred to as “butterfly” tail.

a. Triple-tail
b. V-tail
c. Inverted-Y
d. Boom-tail

47) What is the length of the moment arm of a 40 Newton force producing a moment of 40
foot-pounds?
a. 1.00 feet
b. 1.36 meter
c. 1.00 meter
d. 4.45 meter

48) It is the maximum speed for structural design.

a. VA
b. VB
c. VC
d. VD

49) The stick force required by the elevator is _____.

a. 100 lbs
b. 150 lbs
c. 200 lbs
d. 250 lbs

50) This type of door closes from the inside to provide safety advantages for
pressurized aircraft. The passenger entrance and service doors are examples of this
type.
a. Stressed
b. Non-stressed
c. Plugged
d. Non-plugged
 Philippine State College of Aeronautics
Piccio Garden, Villamor, Pasay City

MOCK EXAMINATION
AIRCRAFT CONSTRUCTION, REPAIR, AND MODIFICATION

1) Normalizing is a process of heat treating _____.

a. non-ferrous metals aside from aluminum
b. aluminum alloys only
c. ferrous metals only
d. both ferrous and non-ferrous metals

2) Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolt head are _____.
a. special bolts
b. magnetically inspected
c. standard steel bolts
d. clevis

3) A rivet designated as AN430DD4-5 has what type of head?

a. Brazier
b. Flat
c. Round
d. Universal

4) A bolt head having an ‘X’ inside a triangle is classified as a/an _____.

a. special bolt
b. NAS close tolerance bolt
c. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
d. reworked bolt

5) Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts
relate to _____.
a. clean, dry threads.
b. clean, lightly-oiled threads
c. clean, oil-soaked threads
d. both dry and lightly oiled threads

6) Lines carrying oxygen and Freon are marked “_____.”

a. DRAIN
b. FLAM
c. PHDAN
d. VENT

7) When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN fittings for aeronautical applications,
the flare angle should be _____.
a. 29°
b. 37°
c. 39°
d. 45°

8) The dimensions of an MS20430AD6-8 rivets are _____.

a. 3/8 inch in length and 1/4 inch in diameter
b. 3/16 inch in length and 1/2 inch in diameter
c. 3/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch in length
d. 3/16 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch in length

9) The main difference between Lockbolt tension and shear fasteners is in the _____.
a. number of locking collar grooves
b. method of installation
c. shape of the head
d. shape of the grip

10) When approaching the front of an idling turbojet engine, the hazard area extends
forward of the engine approximately _____.
a. 25 meters
b. 50 meters
c. 100 meters
d. 8 meters

11) A light aircraft is weighed in the flying position with the following weights
recorded: left wheel is 800 lbs, right wheel is 810 lbs, and nose wheel is 150 lbs.
The nosewheel is 12 inches behind the firewall (datum line). The distance between
the main wheels and the nose wheel is 68 inches. The CG of the aircraft is located
at _____.
a. 62.2 inches behind the nosewheel.
b. 74.2 inches behind the nosewheel.
 c. 5.8 inches behind the firewall.
d. 5.8 inches ahead of the firewall.

12) Which is not a deficiency of an overloaded airplane?

a. Excessive weight on the nosewheel
b. Reduced rate of climb, angle of climb, and maneuverability.
c. Higher landing, stalling, and cruising speeds.
d. Longer landing roll and take-off run.

13) Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys?

a. 2017
b. 5056
c. 7050
d. Monel

14) A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair
technique. What NDT method is used to determine the reliability of the repair after
curing?
a. Eddy current
b. Magnetic particle
c. Metallic ring
d. Ultrasonic

15) What is the color of an AC fitting?

a. Black
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Yellow

16) Wheel chocks and jacks placed on the scales and ground locks left in place on
retractable landing gear are called _____.
a. penalty weight
b. supplementary weight
c. tare weight
d. weighing weight

17) This type of corrosion-resistant steel does not contain carbon and does not respond
to heat treatment.
a. Martensitic
b. Ferritic
c. Austenitic
d. Beta

18) Listed below are the possible sources for weight and balance data of a specific
aircraft. Which among the following does the aircraft manufacturer not supply?
a. Aircraft Weight and Balance Report
b. Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheets
c. Aircraft Operating Limitations
d. Aircraft Flight Manual

19) Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is
changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?
a. Welding
b. Tempering
c. Normalizing
d. Case hardening

20) This property refers to the ability of a material to resist abrasion, penetration,
cutting action, or permanent distortion.
a. Hardness
b. Fusibility
c. Strength
d. Toughness

21) The replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer
purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a _____.
a. major alteration
b. minor alteration
c. major repair
d. minor repair

22) Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system will affect the balance of the
airplane about its _____.
a. lateral axis
b. longitudinal axis
c. vertical axis
 d. horizontal axis

23) An aircraft had an empty weight of 2,886 lb with a moment of 101,673.78 in-lb before
several alterations were made. The alterations included: removing two passenger
seats (45 lb each) at +69”; installing a cabinet (97 lb) at +71”; installing a seat
and safety belt (30 lb) at +71”; installing radio equipment (45 lb) at +94.” The
alterations caused the new empty weight to move _____.
a. 36.6 inches aft of the original empty weight CG
b. 2.81 inches aft of the original empty weigh CG
c. 1.40 inches aft of the original empty weight CG
d. 1.88 inches aft of the original empty weight CG

24) The most important consideration when selecting welding rod is ______.
a. ambient conditions
b. amount of acetylene
c. flame temperature
d. material compatibility

25) What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?

a. 1.5D
b. 2.0D
c. 3.0D
d. 4.0D

26) Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of _____.

a. aluminum
b. bronze
c. magnesium
d. steel

27) The universal propeller protractor can be used to measure _____.

a. amount of control surface travel
b. disk’s plane of rotation aligment
c. wing’s aspect ratio
d. propeller track

28) When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of
_____.
a. 140º and turn at a low speed
b. 140º and turn at a high speed
c. 90º and turn at a low speed
d. 90º and turn at a high speed

29) A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damage less than _____.
a. 0.5 inches in radius
b. 1 inch in radius
c. 2 inches in radius
d. 4 inches in radius

30) Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be _____.

a. the sum of the thickness of the material which is fastened together and bolt’s
diameter
b. equal to thrice the thickness of the material to be fastened
c. one and one half times the thickness of the material to be fastened
d. equal to the length of the unthreaded portion of the bolt shank

31) This rivet is known as the “field rivet” because of its capability to be used as
received without further treatment.
a. 2017
b. 2117
c. 2024
d. 2124

32) A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted
together. All rivet holes are drilled for 0.125-inch rivets. The length of the
rivets to be used will be _____.
a. 0.15625 inches
b. 0.18750 inches
c. 0.31250 inches
d. 0.37500 inches

33) The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering and aluminum welding should be _____,
respectively.
a. neutral; carburizing
b. neutral; oxidizing
c. neutral; neutral
 d. oxidizing; oxidizing

34) Jet fuel number identifiers are _____.

a. performance number to designate the volatility of the fuel
b. performance numbers and are relative to the fuel’s anti-knock qualities
c. type numbers and are relative to the octane rating of the fuel
d. type numbers and are not relative to the fuel’s performance

35) The shop head of a rivet should be _____.

a. one and one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet
b. one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet
c. one and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
d. one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank

36) Which resin to fiber (percent) ratio for advance composite wet lay-ups is generally
considered the best for strength?
a. 40:60
b. 60:40
c. 50:50
d. 70:30

37) Which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of
most metals, plastics, and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?
a. Eddy current inspection
b. Dye penetrant inspection
c. Magnetic particle inspection
d. Ultrasonic inspection

38) The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of 0.32 inch and 0.064-inch
aluminum alloy should be equal to _____.
a. three times the thickness of the thickest sheet
b. two times the rivet diameter plus 0.096 inch
c. one and one-half times the rivet diameter plus 0.096 inch
d. one and one-half times the rivet diameter plus 0.384 inch

39) Alclad is a metal consisting of _____.

a. aluminum alloy surface layers on a pure aluminum core
b. a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy
c. pure aluminum surface layers and core
d. pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core

40) The maximum allowable rivet pitch is _____.

a. 2D
b. 3D
c. 4D
d. 12D

41) A thin, pointed tip on a soldering copper is undesirable because _____.

a. it cools slowly
b. it has a tendency to overheat and become brittle
c. it does not transfer heat into the metal being soldered
d. it transfers too much heat into the metal being soldered

42) The recommended weight (lb) of a bucking bar to be used for a 0.25-inch rivet is
_____.
a. 2-3
b. 3-4.5
c. 4-5
d. 5-6.5

43) What load causes most rivet failures?

a. Bearing
b. Bending
c. Compression
d. Shear

44) Alloy within the _____ utilize Manganese as the principal alloying agent; alloy
within the _____ utilize Magnesium as the principal alloying agent.
a. 3000 series; 5000 series
b. 3000 series; 4000 series
c. 5000 series; 3000 series
d. 5000 series; 4000 series

45) What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening
or tempering treatment?
a. F
 b. H
c. O
d. W

46) The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptable. The stud
diameter is measured in _____.
a. tenths of an inch
b. sixteenths of an inch
c. hundredths of an inch
d. thousandths of an inch

47) Statement 1: The installation of permanent ballast results in an increase in the

aircraft empty weight and a decrease in the useful load. Statement 2: A permanent
ballast remains in the aircraft for a long period of time.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. Both statements are incorrect.
c. Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
d. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement 2 is correct.

48) Use of which of the following generally yields the highest degree of aircraft
leveling accuracy?
a. Electronic Load Cells
b. Plumb bob and Chalk Line
c. Protractor
d. Spirit Level

49) What is the location of the center of gravity in %MAC if the center of gravity is
295 inches from the datum, LEMAC is 270 inches from the datum, root chord is 65
inches, and tip chord is 30 inches?
a. %MAC is between 39 and 42
b. %MAC is between 42 and 45
c. %MAC is between 45 and 48
d. %MAC is between 48 and 51

50) Flexible lines must be installed with _____.

a. a slack of 5-8% of the length
b. a slack of 10-12% of the length
c. a slack of 5-8” of the length
d. a slack of 10-12” of the length
 Philippine State College of Aeronautics
Piccio Garden, Villamor, Pasay City

MOCK EXAMINATION
AIRCRAFT POWERPLANT

1) It occurs usually at high altitude where low engine speeds and low pressure form a
weak flame that can die out in a normal airflow.
a. Rich-blow out
b. Lean-blow out
c. Hot start
d. Cold start

2) The specific heat at constant volume of air is equal to _____.

a. 0.1714 Btu/lb-R
b. 0.1724 Btu/lb-R
c. 0.24 Btu/lb-R
d. 0.25 Btu/lb-R

3) In which section of the gas turbine engine is the highest noise level produced?
a. Compressor
b. Combustion
c. Turbine
d. Exhaust

4) It is a non-air breathing engine that carries its own fuel and oxygen.
a. Rocket
b. Ramjet
c. Pulsejet
d. GTE

5) Which statement below is correct regarding tractor propellers?

a. Tractor propellers are mounted on the aft end of an aircraft and pull an
aircraft through the air.
b. Tractor propellers are mounted on the front of an engine and push an airplane
through the air.
c. Tractor propellers are mounted on the front of an engine and rotates clockwise
when facing the aircraft.
d. Tractor propellers are mounted on the front of an engine and rotates counter-
clockwise when facing the aircraft.

6) The purpose of this GTE part is to transform a portion of the kinetic energy in the
hot exhaust gases into mechanical energy to drive the compressor and accessories.
a. Compressor
b. Diffuser
c. Turbine
d. Vanes

7) In a conventional reciprocating engine, the fuel-air mixture is ignited _____.

a. when the piston has reached the top dead center of the intake stroke
b. when the piston reaches top dead center of the compression stroke
c. shortly before the piston reaches the bottom of the intake stroke
d. shortly before the piston reaches the top dead center of the compression
stroke

8) What is the temperature in degree Celsius of 2 liters of water at 30 degrees Celsius

after 500 calories of heat have been added?
a. 30.25
b. 35.70
c. 38.00
d. 39.75

9) At what speed must a crankshaft turn if each cylinder of a four-stroke cycle engine
is to be fired 400 times a minute?
a. 200 RPM
b. 400 RPM
c. 800 RPM
d. 1,600 RPM

10) Which is not a cause if the engine is torching?

a. Improper use of mixture control when starting
b. Overpriming
c. Poor ignition
d. Underpriming

11) Which condition would be the effect of a failed or failing engine bearings?
 a. Excessive oil consumption
b. High oil temperature
c. Low oil temperature
d. Both a and b

12) What parameter is constant in an isochoric process?

a. Entropy
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Volume

13) A Carnot engine operates between 800 degrees Rankine and 1,000 degrees Rankine. What
is its thermal efficiency?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%

14) A six-cylinder engine with a stroke of 9.75 inches and a bore of 6.25 inches will
have a total engine displacement of _____.
a. 1,283 cubic inches
b. 1,795 cubic inches
c. 1,986 cubic inches
d. 2,800 cubic inches

15) The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft engine is called _____.
a. brake horsepower
b. friction horsepower
c. indicated horsepower
d. equivalent shaft horsepower

16) The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the order of their occurrence are
_____.
a. intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust
b. intake, compression, power, ignition, exhaust
c. intake, compression, ignition, exhaust, power
d. intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust

17) In most radial engines, deep-grove ball bearings are used as thrust bearings because
of its ability to reduce friction and carry _____.
a. thrust loads
b. radial loads
c. both thrust and radial loads
d. no load

18) Assuming compression is according to the law PV=constant, calculate the initial
volume (ft3) of a 1.5 bar gas which will occupy a volume of 8.5 cubic meters when it
is compressed to a pressure of 29.2 psi.
a. 11.4
b. 165.4
c. 223.5
d. 402.5

19) Two pounds of air initially at sixty psia and six hundred degrees Fahrenheit expands
isentropically until the temperature is two hundred degrees Fahrenheit. Compute the
work done (British thermal unit) by the gas.
a. 345
b. 145
c. 137
d. 127

20) Which law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a system at absolute zero is
a well-defined constant?
a. Zeroth
b. First
c. Second
d. Third

21) It is the energy stored within a body by the virtue of its activity and
configuration of molecules.
a. Enthalpy
b. Internal
c. Kinetic
d. Potential

22) Big fan engines get reverse thrust by _____.

 a. Blocking bypass air
b. Deflecting the exhaust gases
c. Reversing the direction of rotation of the compressor
d. Reversing the hot stream gases

23) A gas is calorically perfect at temperature below ______.

a. 400 K
b. 500 K
c. 600 K
d. 700 K

24) The highest pressure in a gas turbine engine occurs _____.

a. at the p1 probe
b. before the combustion chamber
c. in the turbine inlet
d. in the first stages of the compressor

25) When compared to an engine with a centrifugal compressor, an axial flow compressor
engine _____.
a. takes in less air and is less prone to rupturing
b. takes in less air and is more prone to rupturing
c. takes in more air and is more prone to rupturing
d. takes in more air and is less prone to rupturing

26) The critical altitude of a turbocharged aircraft engine is the altitude above which
the turbocharger _____.
a. can no longer produce sea level manifold pressure and the engine cannot
maintain its rated horsepower
b. can produce sea level manifold pressure and the engine can still maintain its
rated horsepower
c. can no longer produce sea level manifold pressure but the engine can still
maintain its rated horsepower
d. can produce sea level manifold pressure but the engine cannot maintain its
rated horsepower

27) On a cold day, the mass of air entering the compressor for a given engine speed is
_____ and the thrust or shaft horsepower is _____.
a. lesser, higher
b. lesser, lower
c. greater, higher
d. greater, lower

28) Which among the statements pertaining to fuel-air ratio is true?

a. The mixture ratio which gives the maximum economy may also be designated as
best power mixture.
b. The mixture ratio which gives the maximum economy is richer than the mixture
ratio which gives best power
c. The mixture ratio which gives the best power is richer than the mixture ratio
which gives maximum economy.
d. A rich mixture burns faster than a normal mixture.

29) Considering a subsonic air passing through a divergent duct, the pressure _____,
velocity _____, and temperature_____.
a. increases; decreases; increases
b. increases; decreases; decreases
c. decreases; increases; decreases
d. decreases; increases; increases

30) On a cold day, the idle speed of a gas turbine engine which has no fuel control unit
compensation _____.
a. is unaffected by temperature
b. is dependent on the number of compressor stages
c. will increase
d. will decrease

31) In a centrifugal compressor, the air _____.

a. enters the eye tangentially and leaves the periphery axially
b. enters the periphery axially and leaves the eye tangentially
c. enters the eye radially and leaves the tip tangentially
d. enters the impeller axially at the eye and leaves the periphery tangentially

32) As defined by the FAA, the engine’s operating flexibility is the ability of an
engine to _____.
a. deliver maximum horsepower at a specific altitude
b. give an economic flight at all times
c. meet exacting requirements of efficiency and low weight-per-horsepower ratio
 d. run smoothly and give the desired performance at all speeds

33) If a fuel sample appears cloudy, this is _____.

a. an indication of water in the fuel
b. an indication of air in the fuel
c. normal
d. due to the addition of the tetraethyl lead

34) It is a system that is completely impervious to its surrounding or neither mass nor
energy cross its boundaries.
a. Open
b. Non-flow
c. Isolated
d. Closed

35) This parameter is constant is a reversible, adiabatic process.

a. Entropy
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Volume

36) What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating engine?

a. To check the turbine inlet temperature.
b. To check magneto drop.
c. To determine static RPM and manifold pressure.
d. To determine if the fuel-air mixture is adequate.

37) What is the volume (m3/lbm) of air if its pressure and temperature are 2,195 psf and
400 R?
a. 312.752
b. 9.721
c. 8.863
d. 0.275

38) An airplane powered by a turbojet engine is flying at 455 miles per hour at an
altitude of 38,000 feet. What is the ambient temperature (K) experienced by the
airplane?
a. 390.59
b. 383.18
c. 216.66
d. 212.90

39) In a turbofan engine, the fan speed is controlled by _____.

a. a reduction gear
b. a waste gate
c. the turbine
d. varying the fan pitch

40) 600 cubic centimeters of a gas at 568 mmHg absolute and 53 degrees Celsius undergoes
a process until the pressure becomes 17.06 psia and the temperature 94 degrees
Fahrenheit. What is the final volume (cm3) of the gas? Answer is 300+ (not in the
choices)
a. 251
b. 605
c. 685
d. 1,652

41) It is the ratio of the total air pressure at the engine compressor entry to the
static air pressure at the air intake entry.
a. Pressure ratio
b. Ram ratio
c. Bypass ratio
d. Fan pressure ratio

42) An external combustion engine characterized of having two isothermal processes and
two isometric processes.
a. Brayton
b. Carnot
c. Ericsson
d. Sterling

43) What is the specific heat ratio of a gas if the ratio of the specific heat at
constant pressure and specific heat constant is 2.357?
a. 1.10
b. 1.42
c. 1.74
 d. Undefined due to lack of parameters

44) During the Brayton cycle, combustion takes place _____.

a. uninterruptedly
b. intermittently
c. once every revolution
d. once every other revolution

45) The octane number of gasoline is _____.

a. The percentage of octane in a mixture with benzene
b. The percentage of octane in a mixture with cetane
c. The percentage of octane in a mixture with dodecane
d. The percentage of octane in a mixture with heptane

46) The bypass ratio of a fan jet engines is _____.

a. the internal mass airflow divided by the external mass airflow
b. the external mass airflow divided by the internal mass airflow
c. the internal mass airflow divided by the mass fuel flow
d. the external mass airflow divided by the mass fuel flow

47) On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke cycle reciprocating aircraft
engine closed?
a. Exaust and intake
b. Intake and compression
c. Compression and power
d. Power and exhaust

48) An airplane with a forward velocity of 425 miles per hour at an altitude of 10
kilometers is propelled by a thrust of 3,000 lbf. If the propeller efficiency is
88%, what is the brake horsepower developed?
a. 1,862
b. 2,634
c. 2,731
d. 3,864

49) The purpose of two or more valve springs in aircraft engines is to _____.
a. equalize side pressure on the valve stems
b. equalize valve face loading
c. have valve spring surge
d. have two different resonant frequency

50) An aircraft uses clamshell doors for thrust reversal to _____.

a. absorb any change in thrust
b. block the flow of exhaust gases
c. change the direction of the exhaust gases
d. direct the gas flow rearward
 Philippine State College of Aeronautics
Piccio Garden, Villamor, Pasay City

MOCK EXAMINATION
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND MANAGEMENT, LAWS AND ETHICS

1) If P1,000 accumulates to P1,500 when invested at a simple interest for three years,
what is the rate of interest?
a. 15.67%
b. 16.33%
c. 16.67%
d. 17.33%

2) What do you call the market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for
which there are no goods substitutes?
a. Oligopsony
b. Oligopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Monopsony

3) Which is an example of an intangible asset?

a. Cash
b. Furnitures
c. Investments
d. Patents

4) An amount of money invested at 12% interest per annum will double in approximately
_____.
a. 4 years
b. 8 years
c. 6 years
d. 12 years

5) PANS stands for _____.

a. Practices for Air Navigation Standards
b. Practices for Air Navigation Services
c. Procedures for Air Navigation Standards
d. Procedures for Air Navigation Services

6) What is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interested
persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product
may continue to be operated?
a. Airworthiness Alerts
b. Aviation Safety Data
c. Airworthiness Directives
d. Service Bulletins

7) What is the maximum diameter of the seal of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering?
a. 46 mm
b. 48 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 52 mm

8) The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that
state, to take on passengers, mail, and cargo from a second state and put them down
in the third state is given by the _____ freedom.
a. 5th
b. 6th
c. 7th
d. 8th

9) Which is true about partnership?

a. It has a perpetual life.
b. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the
partnership.
c. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.
d. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner.

10) What is the minimum training requirements by a JAR 147 school for the JAR 66 CAT-a
license?
a. 800 hours
b. 1,000 hours
c. 1,600 hours
d. 2,400 hours
11) Certificates of registration and airworthiness, license of crew members, aircraft
log book, passenger manifest, cargo manifest, and radio station license are the
documents that should be carried during flight. It is listed in Article _____.
a. 23
b. 26
c. 29
d. 32

12) How long should the data of cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder be kept
in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting to flight termination?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days

13) These are publicly owned airports that have at least 2,500 passenger boardings per
calendar year and receive scheduled passenger service.
a. Cargo Service Airports
b. Commercial Service Airports
c. General Aviation Airports
d. Reliever Airports

14) Section 22 of PD 1570 states that the Board may refuse to issue certificate of
registration to any person who is/has the following except _____.
a. guilty of civil offense
b. incurable disease
c. unsound mind
d. none of the above

15) What should be issued to all successful examinees of the technical written
examination for aeronautical engineers upon payment of the required fee?
a. Certificate of Competence
b. Certificate of Excellence
c. Certificate of Reciprocity
d. Certificate of Registration

16) The management established the activity-authority relationship of the organization.

This function is called _____.
a. controlling
b. directing
c. planning
d. organizing

17) The amount of property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the
property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy or sell is called _____.
a. book value
b. fair value
c. goodwill value
d. market value

18) The power to regulate the economic aspect of air transportation is with the _____.
a. Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines
b. Civil Aeronautics Board
c. Department of Transportation and Communication
d. Philippine Aerospace Development Corporation

19) This is a function where the management identifies its objectives, achievements, and
alternatives.
a. controlling
b. directing
c. planning
d. organizing

20) The Certificate of Registration given to the successful examinees of the technical
written examination is signed by _____.
a. the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering
b. the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering and SAEP president.
c. the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering and Philippine president.
d. the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering and PRC chairperson.

21) Which part of the 14 CFR provides information regarding instrument range markings
for an airplane certificated in the acrobatic category?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 29
22) An airport terminal design that uses a small, narrow building with aircraft parked
on both sides.
a. Concourse
b. Pier
c. Satellite
d. Semi-circular

23) Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an annual,
100-hour, or progressive inspection?
a. The designated inspector representing the FAA administrator
b. The owner or operator of the aircraft
c. The person approving/disapproving for RTS
d. The pilot and crew members

24) For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorized by an aerodrome reference code.

This code is composed of two elements: a number and a letter. What does the number
signify?
a. Aerodrome Reference Field Length
b. Single Wheel Loading Classification
c. Crash/Rescue Category
d. Load Classification Number

25) Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers the specifications for the design and
operations of aerodromes?
a. 12
b. 14
c. 15
d. 16

26) Whichis the correct definition of night?

a.The average hours of darkness
b.The total hours when the sun is below the horizon
c.The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of
morning civil twilight
d. From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes before sunrise

27) For night landing, the thresholds are lighted _____.

a. blue
b. green
c. red
d. yellow

28) President Decree No. 1570 was signed last _____.

a. June 11, 1968
b. June 11, 1973
c. June 11, 1976
d. June 11, 1978

29) It contains the specifications and data for certificated aircraft when the number of
registered aircraft is 50 or fewer.
a. Aircraft Listings
b. Aircraft Specifications
c. Airworthiness Directives
d. Manufacturer’s Published Data

30) What document must a foreigner submit to qualify to take the technical written
examination prior to registration for the practice of aeronautical engineering?
a. Proof of Residency
b. Proof of Competency
c. Proof of Registration
d. Proof of Reciprocity

31) This permit is required when the government or military operates the aircraft.
a. Diplomatic
b. Landing
c. Overflight
d. Special

32) Issuance of the Certificate of Public Convenience is the duty of _____.

a. Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines
b. Civil Aeronautics Board
c. Department of Transportation and Communication
d. Philippine Aerospace Development Corporation

33) What is the SSR unlawful interference code?

 a. 2200
b. 7500
c. 7600
d. 7700

34) A category 2 landing is categorized of having a decision height of _____.

a. 30 m (100 ft) or more
b. 50 m (160 ft) or more
c. 60 m (200 ft) or more
d. 120 m (300 ft) or more

35) According to ICAO, markings on the runways and taxiways are painted _____,
respectively.
a. white; white
b. yellow; yellow
c. white; yellow
d. yellow; white

36) He shall express his opinion on an engineering subject only when he is fully
familiar and knowledgeable of all facts relating to the subject.
a. Relations with the Clients and Employers
b. Relations with the Engineers
c. Relations with the Profession
d. Relations with the Public

37) It is a kind of obligation which has no condition attached.

a. Analytic
b. Gratuitous
c. Private
d. Parasitic

38) The first licensure examination for aeronautical engineers was conducted by the PRC
last _____.
a. July 1982
b. July 1983
c. November 1982
d. November 1983

39) Means any leasing agreement whereby a person agrees to provide an entire aircraft
with at least one crew member to another person.
a. Absolute lease
b. Dry lease
c. Perpetual lease
d. Wet lease

40) The training required for crew members who have qualified and have served in the
same capacity on another aircraft is _____.
a. difference training
b. familiarization training
c. transition training
d. upgrade training

41) Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for
a turbo-propeller flag air carrier airplane?
a. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus
15% of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less.
b. 60 minutes at holding altitude.
c. 45 minutes at holding altitude.
d. 30 minutes plus 15% of the total time required or 90 minutes at normal cruise,
whichever is less.

42) The Rules and Regulations including the Code of Ethics of the Board of Aeronautical
Engineering shall be published in the Official Gazette and shall take effect in how
many days after the date of their publication?
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 25 days

43) Find the interest on P6,800 for 3 years at 11% simple interest.
a. P1,496.00
b. P2,006.00
c. P2,244.00
d. P2,992.00

44) The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway are _____.
 a. A and 1
b. A and 7
c. G and 1
d. G and 7

45) The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as _____.

a. insolvency
b. leverage
c. liquidity
d. solvency

46) The yearly depreciation for an aircraft equipment with an acquisition cost of
P50,000.00 and scrap value of 12% of the acquisition cost after ten years is _____.
a. P8,800.00
b. P8,400.00
c. P4,400.00
d. P4,800.00

47) Who is responsible for the upkeep of the required maintenance records of an
aircraft?
a. The repair station where maintenance was done
b. The certificated mechanic performing maintenance
c. The aircraft manufacturer
d. The aircraft owner

48) It is a kind of annuity where payments are made at the end of each period, starting
from the first period.
a. Annuity Due
b. Deferred Annuity
c. Ordinary Annuity
d. Perpetuity

49) What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation is
seldom used in the industry?
a. Unstable economy.
b. Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined.
c. The initial depreciation is high.
d. The initial depreciation is low.

50) The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of

international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage, and freight.
a. Chicago convention
b. Geneva convention
c. Montreal convention
d. Warsaw convention