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Module 1 Compilation

This document appears to be a compilation of modules for an Architecture Comprehensive Course submitted by a student named Czarina Marie M. Lera to their instructor Ar. Paolo Jose P. Llanes. The compilation includes multiple choice questions covering topics in architectural interiors, building technology, and design elements. It was submitted in partial fulfillment of the requirements for a Bachelor of Science in Architecture degree from Cavite State University in the Philippines.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
293 views45 pages

Module 1 Compilation

This document appears to be a compilation of modules for an Architecture Comprehensive Course submitted by a student named Czarina Marie M. Lera to their instructor Ar. Paolo Jose P. Llanes. The compilation includes multiple choice questions covering topics in architectural interiors, building technology, and design elements. It was submitted in partial fulfillment of the requirements for a Bachelor of Science in Architecture degree from Cavite State University in the Philippines.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Republic of the Philippines

CAVITE STATE UNIVERSITY


DON SEVERINO DE LAS ALAS CAMPUS
Indang, Cavite
(046) 415-0021 (046) 415-0012
E-mail: www.cvsu.edu.ph

COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY


DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

ARCHITECTURE COMPREHENSIVE COURSE


MODULE 1 COMPILATION

In partial fulfilment of the requirements for the degree of


Bachelor of Science in Architecture on
Architecture Comprehensive Course (COEX)

Submitted by:
Lera, Czarina Marie M.
201511103
Bachelor of Science in Architecture 5-1

Submitted to:
AR. PAOLO JOSE P. LLANES, uap
INSTRUCTOR • ARCHITECTURE COMPREHENSIVE COURSE (COEX)

October 22, 2020


ARCHITECTURAL INTERIORS

1. What Flooring material is the most resilient?


a) Wood Parquet
b) Ceramic Tiles
c) Linoleum
d) Wood Plank

2. What Flooring material is the LEAST resilient?


a) Wood Parquet
b) Ceramic Tiles
c) Linoleum
d) Wood Plank

3. Why is CFL preferred over other types of lamps?


a) More sustainable
b) Bushing
c) Both A and B
d) None of the Above

4. What color has the tendency of mitigating aggressive behavior?


a) Violet
b) Brown
c) Pink
d) Red

5. What color signifies purity and authority?


a) Yellow
b) Beige
c) White
d) Blue

6. In a crowded and noisy hallway, which will you not provide in terms of acoustical treatment?
a) Carpet
b) Gypsum board
c) Curtains
d) Glass

7. A small hot-water tank with sizes 12 - 24" in diameter and 6ft. long.
a) Stack Vent
b) Range Boiler
c) Vent Stack
d) Water Back

8. The measurement and study of the size and proportions of the human body.
a) Anthropometry
b) Ergonomics
c) Dynamic Fit
d) Proxemics

9. Any of the dimensions determined by bodily position and movement, as reach, stride, or clearance.
a) Dynamic Fit
b) Static Fit
c) Functional Dimension
d) Proxemics

10. The correspondence between the sensory experience of bodily presence and movement and the size,
shape and proportion of a space.
a) Dynamic Fit
b) Static Fit
c) Functional Dimension
d) Proxemics

11. The correspondence between the size and posture of a human body and a building element or article of
furniture.
a) Dynamic Fit
b) Static Fit
c) Functional Dimension
d) Proxemics
12. The study of the symbolic and communicative role of the spatial separation individuals maintain in
various social and interpersonal situations, and how the nature and degree of this spatial arrangement
relates to environmental and cultural factors.
a) Dynamic Fit
b) Static Fit
c) Functional Dimension
d) Proxemics

13. Study of measurable distances between people as they interact.


a) Dynamic Fit
b) Static Fit
c) Functional Dimension
d) Proxemics

14. Proxemics zone 2 fists away from your body.


a) Public
b) Personal
c) Intimate
d) Social

15. People emotionally close to you are allowed to enter this zone.
a) Public
b) Personal
c) Intimate
d) Social

16. Proxemics zone 1 handshake away.


a) Public
b) Personal
c) Intimate
d) Social

17. The distance you would stand during friendly gatherings.


a) Public
b) Personal
c) Intimate
d) Social

18. Proxemics zone about 2 arm lengths away.


a) Public
b) Personal
c) Intimate
d) Social

19. The distance you'd stand with people you don't know well.
a) Public
b) Personal
c) Intimate
d) Social

20. Proxemics zone over 3.6 meters away.


a) Public
b) Personal
c) Intimate
d) Social

21. The distance you'd feel comfortable when addressing a big group.
a) Public
b) Personal
c) Intimate
d) Social

22. The pattern of behaviour associated with defining and defending a territory or domain.
a) territoriality
b) Personal Space
c) Interior Design
d) Unity

23. The variable and subjective distance at which one person feels comfortable talking to another.
a) Territoriality
b) Personal Space
c) Interior Design
d) Unity

24. Also known as personal distance.


a) Territoriality
b) Personal Space
c) Interior Design
d) Unity

25. The art and science of enhancing the interiors, sometimes including the exterior, of a space or building,
to achieve a healthier and more aesthetically pleasing environment for the end user.
a) Territoriality
b) Personal Space
c) Interior Design
d) Unity

26. he process of shaping the experience of interior space, through the manipulation of spatial volume as
well as surface treatment for the betterment of human functionality.
a) Territoriality
b) Personal Space
c) Interior Design
d) Unity

27. The three-dimensional field in which objects and events occur and have relative position and direction.
a) Territoriality
b) Personal Space
c) Interior Space
d) Unity

28. Is a prime ingredient in the designer’s palette and the quintessential element in interior design.
a) Interior Space
b) Space Planning
c) Interior Design
d) Space

29. It occurs due to an increased reverse pressure above the supply pressure (pump, boilers, gravity or
other source of pressure.
a) Interior Space
b) Space Planning
c) Interior Design
d) Space

30. The fundamental element of the interior design process.


a) Interior Space
b) Space Planning
c) Interior Design
d) Space

31. It starts with an in-depth analysis of how the space is to be used.


a) Interior Space
b) Space Planning
c) Interior Design
d) Space

32. The basic element of design that refers to the continuous movement of a drawing tool such as a pen,
pencil, marker, or a brush.
a) Line
b) Form
c) Color
d) Texture

33. The shape and structure of a dimensional element.


a) Line
b) Form
c) Color
d) Texture

34. An element of design used to create surface appearance and often refers to the material that something
is made of.
a) Line
b) Form
c) Color
d) Texture
35. An element of design which is the response of the eye to different wavelengths of radiation within the
visible spectrum.
a) Line
b) Form
c) Color
d) Texture

36. Terms such as red, green, and blue which defines a color.
a) Value
b) Hue
c) Saturation
d) Harmony

37. The general lightness or darkness of a color is the value of that particular color.
a) Value
b) Hue
c) Saturation
d) Harmony

38. The intensity of a color.


a) Value
b) Hue
c) Saturation
d) Harmony

39. The area provided for sa purpose.


a) Space
b) Hue
c) Saturation
d) Harmony

40. Principle of design which means similarity of objects.


a) Focal Point
b) Harmony
c) Contrast
d) Emphasis
41. Principle of design which is the difference between size, color, and texture of the objects.
a) Focal Point
b) Harmony
c) Contrast
d) Emphasis

42. It creates visual interest.


a) Focal Point
b) Harmony
c) Contrast
d) Emphasis

43. The areas of interest that guides the eye into it.
a) Focal Point
b) Harmony
c) Contrast
d) Emphasis

44. The areas of interest that guides the eye into it.
a) Focal Point
b) Harmony
c) Contrast
d) Emphasis

45. The state where things are of equal weight, force, or Importance.
a) Unity
b) Secondary Colors
c) Balance
d) Focal Point

46. It could be symmetrical or asymmetrical.


a) Unity
b) Secondary Colors
c) Balance
d) Focal Point
47. The ultimate target for the design.
a) Unity
b) Secondary Colors
c) Balance
d) Focal Point

48. Colors wan be made by mixing the primary colors together.


a) Primary Colors
b) Secondary Colors
c) Tertiary Colors
d) Monochrome

49. Colors which cannot be made from mixing other colors.


a) Primary Colors
b) Secondary Colors
c) Tertiary Colors
d) Monochrome

50. The six shades that can be made from mixing primary and secondary colors.
a) Primary Colors
b) Secondary Colors
c) Tertiary Colors
d) Monochrome

BUILDING TECHNOLOGY

1. It is the process of providing all information necessary for construction of a building that will meet its
owner’s requirements and also satisfy public health, welfare, and safety requirements.
a) Building Safety
b) Building Construction
c) Building Requirements
d) Building Design

2. It consists of small units, such as clay brick, concrete block, glass block, or clay tile, held together by a
cement such as mortar.
a) Framed Walls
b) Unit Masonry
c) Hardware
d) Panel Walls

3. It consist of slender, vertical, closely spaced structural members, tied together with horizontal members
at top and bottom, and interior and exterior facings.
a) Bearing Walls
b) Framed Walls
c) Curtain Walls
d) Combination Walls

4. The major systems for conveyance of liquids and gases in pipes within a building.
a) Plumbing
b) Structural
c) Electrical
d) Architectural

5. Usually is used to control temperature, humidity, air movement, and air quality in the interior of buildings.
a) Exhaust
b) Vent
c) HVAC
d) Air-Condition

6. It is often used for movement of people and vehicles in such buildings as stadiums and garages (also
called as Sloping Floors)
a) Slides
b) Sliding Floor
c) Ramp
d) Stairs

7. These are produced by the users of a building. These loads include the weight of people, their furniture,
their storage items, and movable equipment.
a) Dead Loads
b) Moving Loads
c) Rain Load
d) Live Loads
8. The most common of the modern cements, is made by carefully blending selected raw materials to
produce a finished material meeting the requirements of ASTM C150 for one of
eight specific cement types.
a) Portland Cement
b) Aluminous Cement
c) Limes
d) Natural Cement

9. These are prepared by fusing a mixture of aluminous and calcareous materials (usually bauxite and
limestone) and grinding the resultant product to a fine powder.
a) Portland Cement
b) Aluminous Cement
c) Limes
d) Natural Cement

10. Sometimes called—mortar cements, are intended to be mixed with sand and used for setting unit
masonry, such as brick, tile, and stone. They may be any one of the hydraulic cements already discussed
or mixtures of them in any proportion
a) Fly Ashes
b) Masonry Cement
c) Silica Fume
d) Aggregates

11. It is the property most important to contractors who must place the concrete into forms and finish it. It
includes the properties of cohesiveness, plasticity, and nonsegregation. It is greatly influenced by
aggregate shape and gradation.
a) Volume
b) Workability
c) Resistance
d) Modulus of Elasticity

12. This product consists of a specifically manufactured paper firmly bonded to the core. It is designed to
be used without addition of plaster for walls, ceilings, or partitions and provides a surface suitable to receive
either paint or paper.
a) Cement Board
b) Hardiflex
c) Gypsum Board
d) Ficem Board
13. It carry exterior walls and support edges of floors and roofs in multistory buildings.
a) Trusses
b) Girts
c) Spandrels
d) Purlins

14. It support structural members around openings in floors, roofs, and walls.
a) Lintels
b) Stringers
c) Joists
d) Headers

15. One way to provide lateral stability is to incorporate in the system diagonal members.
a) Walling
b) Framing
c) Bracing
d) Plastering

16. A type of slab which are made up of wide band beams running between columns with narrow ribs
spanning on a single direction.
a) Two-Way Slab
b) One-Way Joist System
c) Two-Way Joist System
d) One-Way Slab
17. A conventional type of slab which is supported on two sides by beams or girders.
a) Two-Way Slab
b) One-Way Joist System
c) Two-Way Joist System
d) One-Way Slab

18. These are precast concrete wall units with rigid foam insulation sandwiched in the panel.
a) Solid Core
b) Composite
c) Hollow Core
d) all of the above
19. To pre-stress a concrete member by tensioning the reinforcing tendons after the concrete has set.
a) Post Tensioning
b) Pre-Tensioning
c) Pre-Stress
d) none of the above

20. A cable composed of high-strength steel wires twisted about a core.


a) Strand
b) Cable
c) Tendon
d) all of the above

21. It is a tube for encasing tendons in a post tensioned member to prevent their bonding to the concrete
during placement.
a) Sheath
b) Pipe
c) Duct
d) none of the above

22. These are members cast into walls and columns forming a shoulder to provide bearing for floors and
roofs.
a) Beam
b) Tie-Back
c) Corbel
d) none of the above

23. This kind of post tensioning which the reinforcing tendons are not grouted, allowing tendons to move
relative to the surrounding concrete is called _________.
a) Unbounded
b) Bonded
c) Un-Bonded
d) Bended

24. A type of precast slab which range from 6” to 12” thk with void sections for utilities.
a) Single Tee Slab
b) Metal Decking
c) Double Tee Slab
d) Hollow Core Slab

25. A type of slab is supported by columns which have no drop panels and column caps.
a) Flat Slab
b) Flat Plate
c) Flat Slab with Drop Panels and Column Heads
d) Flat Slab with Drop Panels

26. A kind of precast beam carrying two precast concrete slabs.


a) Rectangular Beam
b) L-Shaped Beam
c) Inverted T-Beam
d) None of the above

27. A type of two way slab used for long spans and heavy loads which has removable forms called “pods”,
making a coffered ceiling design for good acoustics.
a) Waffle Slab
b) Ribbed Slab
c) Flat Slab
d) Flat Plate

28. A type of cast-in-place method of construction which use re-usable concrete forms which is raised
vertically for RC walls in high-rise buildings, silos, shafts, towers, etc. with typical layout from the lowest to
the highest floors.
a) Tapered Slip Form
b) Horizontal Slip Form
c) Vertical Slip Form
d) None of the above

29. Part of foundation system usually in the building without a basement which supports the exterior wall of
the superstructure.
a) Grade Beam
b) Bond beam
c) Tie beam
d) Stiffener beam
30. A series of parallel beams of timber, reinforced concrete, or steel used to support the floor and ceiling
loads.
a) Binding joist
b) Floor Joist
c) Common joist
d) Bridging joist

31. A beam which support the common joists of the wood floor above the ceiling joist of below; commonly
joins two vertical post.
a) Binding joist
b) Floor Joist
c) Common joist
d) Bridging joist

32. Inlaid wood flooring usually set in simple geometric patterns.


a) Strip flooring
b) Plank flooring
c) Parquet Flooring
d) Parquet tile flooring

33. Flooring made of long, wide, square-sawn thick piece of timber.


a) Strip flooring
b) Plank flooring
c) Parquet Flooring
d) Parquet tile flooring
34. Types of mortar; made by mixing Portland cement, sand, and water.
a) Masonry cement
b) Cement-line mortar
c) Lime mortar
d) Cement Mortar

35. A roof truss having two vertical posts between the rafters and the tie beam.
a) King post truss
b) Queen Post Truss
c) Howe truss
d) French truss
36. A truss having upper and lower horizontal members, between which are vertical and diagonal
members.
a) King post truss
b) Queen Post Truss
c) Howe truss
d) French truss

37. It is a type of door for exterior and interior use. Normally turns on hinges about a side jamb when
pushed or pulled.
a) Swinging Door
b) Bypass Sliding Door
c) Folding Door
d) Surface Sliding Door

38. A concrete slab of uniform thicker reinforced in two or more direction supported directly by columns and
beams or girder.
a) Flat Slab
b) Flat Plate
c) Waffle Slab
d) Ribbed Slab

39. A two-way concrete slab reinforced in two directions.


a) Flat Slab
b) Flat Plate
c) Waffle Slab
d) Ribbed Slab

40. A precast, prestressed concrete slab having a broad, t-shaped cross section.
a) Single Tee
b) Double Tee
c) Inverted Tee
d) L-beam

41. A rigid planar structure of concrete designed to act together with principal and secondary reinforcement
in resisting applied forces.
a) One-way Slab
b) Two-way Slab
c) Reinforcement Concrete Slab
d) Continuous Slab

42. Two or more piles of flat glass bonded under heat and pressure to alternative layer; also called safety
glass.
a) Rough cast Glass
b) Spandrel Glass
c) Laminated Glass
d) Security Glass

43. Translucent glass with linear or geometric patterns embossed on one or both sides; also called figured
glass.
a) Rough cast Glass
b) Spandrel Glass
c) Laminated Glass
d) Security Glass

44. A type of reinforced concrete by pre-tensioning or post-tensioning high-steel tendons within their elastic
limit to actively resist a service load.
a) Pre Stressed Concrete
b) Pre-stressing
c) Tensioning
d) Tendons

45. A type of construction method where concrete wall panels are cast on-site in a horizontal position,
cured to a sufficient strength, lifted, and braced temporarily until connected to the structure.
a) Lift slab construction
b) Tilt Up Construction
c) Flat plate construction
d) None of the above

46. A conventional type of slab which is supported on two sides by beams or girders.
a) Two-way slab
b) Waffle slab
c) Ribbed slab
d) One-way slab
47. A kind of pre-cast beam carrying two precast concrete slab.
a) Single Tee
b) Double Tee
c) Inverted Tee
d) L-beam

48. A type of two-way slab used for long spans and heavy loads which has removable forms called “pods”,
making a coffered ceiling design for good acoustics.
a) Two-way slab
b) Waffle slab
c) Ribbed slab
d) One-way slab

49. A type of flat slab where columns have drop panels and column caps.
a) Flat Slab
b) Flat Plate
c) Flat Slab with Drop Panels and Column Heads
d) Flat Slab with Drop Panels

50. A roofing system with a three-dimensional truss whose linear members form a series of triangulated
polyhedrons. It can be seen as a plane of constant depth which is capable of fairly long spans.
a) Thin-shell membrane
b) Cable structure
c) Flat slab
d) Space Frame

BUILDING UTILITIES

1. A hemp or old hemp rope soaked in oil/tar to make it waterproof during caulking process.
a) Oakum
b) Foam
c) Teflon
d) Tar
2. A flange used to seal the end of pipe systems and prevent flow, making it easy to conduct pressure
tests.
a) Lap Flange
b) Rabbet Flange
c) Range Flange
d) Blind Flange

3. A plumbing fitting that connects the male end of a pipe to a fitting of a larger size.
a) Siamese Connection
b) Bushing
c) Pump
d) Blind Flange

4. A simple mechanism that produces a vacuum within itself and permits the lifting of water from the source
of supply by atmospheric pressure.
a) Siamese Connection
b) Bushing
c) Pump
d) Blind Flange

5. A type of cold water distributing system in tall buildings which distributes water to plumbing fixtures by
gravity.
a) Pump Circuit System
b) Main Soil and Waste Vent (Soil Stack)
c) Overhead Feed System
d) Retardation of Flow in Drainage System

6. A water heating device installed in the range, provided with waterways or channels for the circulation of
water.
a) Stack Vent
b) Range Boiler
c) Vent Stack
d) Water Back

7. A small hot-water tank with sizes 12 - 24" in diameter and 6ft. long.
a) Stack Vent
b) Range Boiler
c) Vent Stack
d) Water Back

8. A hot-water distribution system installation wherein the circulation of hot water to the plumbing fixtures is
by means of mechanical device. This system is confined to a larger type of building.
a) Pump Circuit System
b) Main Soil and Waste Vent (Soil Stack)
c) Overhead Feed System
d) Retardation of Flow in Drainage System

9. A plumbing fitting connected to a hydrant/ same nozzle/ hose fitting with clapper valves.
a) Wet Standpipes
b) Pump Circuit System
c) Siamese Connection
d) Siphon Jet

10. A plumbing fixture that conveys organic body of wastes to the plumbing systems.
a) Siphon Jet (SJ)
b) Water Closet
c) Clean out
d) Drain

11. A classification of standpipe where water pressure is maintained at all times.


a) Dry Standpipe
b) Automatic Standpipe System
c) Manually-operated Standpipe System
d) Wet Standpipes

12. A type of water closet with quiet flushing and moderate cost that is why it is the most popular model for
residential.
a) Siphon
b) Siphon Vortex
c) Siphon Jet
d) Wash Down

13. Portion of the drainage installation designed to maintain atmospheric pressure within it.
a) Vortex
b) Ventilation
c) Clean out
d) Siphonage

14. Inadequate ventilation of the trap/subsequent positive (+) and negative (-) pressures.
a) Trap Seal Loss
b) Siphonage
c) Seam
d) Flange

15. Minus pressure in the drainage system.


a) Trap Seal Loss
b) Siphonage
c) Seam
d) Flange

16. A result of improper atmospheric conditions, because of insufficient ventilation, or incorrect installation
fittings.
a) Pump Circuit System
b) Main Soil and Waste Vent (Soil Stack)
c) Overhead Feed System
d) Retardation of Flow in Drainage System

17. A principal classification of vents which is used to ventilate the soil and waste pipes.
a) Pump Circuit System
b) Main Soil and Waste Vent (Soil Stack)
c) Overhead Feed System
d) Retardation of Flow in Drainage System

18. A principal classification of vents which is referred to as "relief" or "yoke" vents.


a) Stack Vent
b) Range Boiler
c) Vent Stack
d) Water Back
19. Principal artery of the venting system.
a) Stack Vent
b) Range Boiler
c) Vent Stack
d) Water Back

20. Pipes installed to provide flow of air to or from a drainage system or to provide a circulation of air within
such system to protect trap seals from siphonage and backpressure.
a) Vent System
b) Drainage System
c) Pump Circuit System
d) Overhead Feed System

21. Vertical vent pipe installed primarily for providing a circulation of air.
a) Stack Vent
b) Range Boiler
c) Vent Stack
d) Water Back

22. The extension of a soil or waste stack above the highest horizontal drain connected to the stack.
a) Stack Vent
b) Range Boiler
c) Vent Stack
d) Water Back

23. A pipe or opening used for ensuring the circulation of air in a plumbing system and for reducing the
pressure exerted on trap seals.
a) standpipe
b) Relief pipe
c) Vent pipe
d) Air pipe

24. A suction created by the flow of liquids in pipes (pressure less than atmospheric).
a) Trap Seal Loss
b) Siphonage
c) Seam
d) Flange

25. An air pressure less than atmospheric (siphonage)


a) Trap Seal Loss
b) Siphonage
c) Backflow
d) Vacuum

26. Backflow preventer.


a) Unit vent
b) End pipe
c) Vacuum break
d) stopper

27. Flow of water into a water supply system from any source other than its regular source.
a) Trap Seal Loss
b) Siphonage
c) Backflow
d) Vacuum

28. A condition or arrangement where reverse flow can occur.


a) Backflow Connection
b) Siphonage
c) Backflow
d) Vacuum

29. It occurs due to an increased reverse pressure above the supply pressure (pump, boilers, gravity or
other source of pressure.
a) Back Pressure
b) Backflow
c) Back Siphonage
d) Backpressure Backflow

30. Flowing back of used, contaminated, or polluted water from a plumbing fixture or vessel into a water
supply due to negative pressure in pipe.
a) Back Pressure
b) Backflow
c) Back Siphonage
d) Backpressure Backflow

31. Air pressure in drainage pipes greater than atmospheric pressure.


a) Back Pressure
b) Backflow
c) Back Siphonage
d) Backpressure Backflow

32. A portion of the vent pipe system which ventilates two fixture traps that discharge into a sanitary cross
with deflectors.
a) Unit vent
b) End pipe
c) Vacuum break
d) stopper

33. A portion of the drainage system which ventilates 2 or more fixture traps that discharge into a horizontal
soil or waste branch extended at slight grade.
a) Circuit or Loop Ventilation
b) Unit Ventilation
c) Wet Ventilation
d) Relief Ventilation

34. A portion of the vent pipe installation which primarily eliminates minus and plus pressures in the
drainage system.
a) Circuit or Loop Ventilation
b) Unit Ventilation
c) Wet Ventilation
d) Relief Ventilation

35. A portion of the vent pipe system through which liquid wastes flow.
a) Circuit or Loop Ventilation
b) Unit Ventilation
c) Wet Ventilation
d) Relief Ventilation
36. The minimum sound pressure level of sound which stimulates the ear to the point at which discomfort
gives way to definite pain.
a) Pain Limit
b) Threshold of Pain
c) Maximum Pain
d) Threshold

37. A type of air conditioning system composed of two separate sections, one installed inside the room
while the other is mounted outside the building.
a) Package Type AC
b) Ventilation System
c) Split Type AC
d) Airconditioning Unit

38. The amount of heat which is absorbed or evolved in changing the state of the substance without
changing its temperature.
a) Latent Heat
b) Delta Heat
c) Constant Heat
d) Stagnant Heat

39. A substance which produces refrigerating effect by absorbing heat while expanding or evaporating.
a) refrigerator
b) coolant
c) refrigerant
d) freon

40. When sound travels in all directions.


a) desicant
b) sound diffusion
c) reverberation
d) echo

41. The amount of heat which is absorbed or evolved in changing the state of the substance without
changing its temperature.
a) desicant
b) sound diffusion
c) reverberation
d) echo

42. A machine for drawing refrigerant from the evaporator at a relatively low pressure, compresses it and
then discharges it to the condenser.
a) absorber
b) phon
c) compressor
d) creep

43. A device used to vary the volume of air passing through an air outlet, inlet or duct.
a) phon
b) volumizer
c) compressor
d) damper

44. Wood and hardwood panels, gypsum boards, suspended plaster ceilings, furred out plasters, rigid
plastic boards, windows, glazing, wood floors and platforms are what kind of Sound Absorption Materials?
a) Panel / Membrane Absorbers
b) Solid absorbers
c) Sound Absorbers
d) Acoustic Panels

45. How many decibels does Threshold of Pain has?


a) 125db
b) 130db
c) 135db
d) 120db

46. The rate at which acoustic energy is radiated. It is usually measured in watts.
a) Sound Energy
b) Audio Energy
c) Audio Power
d) Sound Power

47. It is the lowest frequency present in a complex tone.


a) Basic
b) Fundamental
c) Base Frequency
d) Creep

48. It is the transmission of sound along a curved surface.


a) Echo
b) Reverberant
c) Vibration
d) Creep

49. The speed of sound.


a) 115 ft/s
b) 125 ft/s
c) 120 ft/s
d) 130 ft/s

50. The science of sound, including the generation, transmission, and effect of sound waves.
a) Audiotronics
b) Sound Science
c) Acoustics
d) Masking

HISTORY OF ARCHITECTURE

1. It is the earliest form of dwelling.


a) Tents & huts
b) Temples
c) Rock cave
d) Dolmen

2. The most common system of construction in which two upright member hold up a third member, laid
across their top.
a) Post & lintel / column & beam / columnar & trabeated
b) Arch & Vault
c) Trussed construction
d) Corbel & cantilever

3. It is the largest church in the world.


a) St. Paul’s cathedral
b) St. Peter's basilica
c) Medici chapel
d) Basilica vicenza

4. The 1st roman renaissance architect who designed the original greek cross plan of st. Peter's basilica.
a) Carlo maderno
b) G. Lorenzo bernini
c) Donato bramante
d) Michelangelo

5. He designed the noble entrance piazza of St. Peter's Basilica.


a) Carlo Maderno
b) G. Lorenzo Bernini
c) Donato Bramante
d) Michelangelo

6. Small passage atop the old Vatican wall used by Pope Clement VII during the Sack of Rome.
a) oltramontano
b) passetto
c) Obelisk
d) colonnades

7. He designed the façade of St. Peter's Basilica.


a) Carlo Maderno
b) G. Lorenzo Bernini
c) Donato Bramante
d) Michelangelo

8. He designed the dome of St. Peter's Basilica.


a) Carlo Maderno
b) G. Lorenzo Bernini
c) Donato Bramante
d) Michelangelo

9. He painted the ceiling of Sistine Chapel.


a) Carlo Maderno
b) G. Lorenzo Bernini
c) Donato Bramante
d) Michelangelo

10. The south pillars of the old St. Peter's was actually built on what side of Circus of Nero?
a) North
b) South
c) East
d) West

11. The right clock on the facade of St. Peter's that shows European mean time.
a) North
b) South
c) East
d) West

12. Labeled as "Museum of France" because it houses over 30,000 works of art.
a) Chateau de Blois
b) Chateau de Chambord
c) Palais de Fontainebleau
d) Chateau de Bury

13. A local sandstone that, though particularly difficult to work, was widely used at Fontainebleau.
a) Rance
b) Salamander
c) Gres
d) Tapestry

14. A room in Chateau de Blois, given the name Chamber of Secrets (Chambre des Secrets).
a) studiolo/ study
b) Diana Salon
c) Gres
d) King's room

15. A room in Chateau de Blois, enriched with golden decorations to conceal blood after the assassination.
a) studiolo/ study
b) Diana Salon
c) Gres
d) King's room

16. Napoleon called it "the true residence of king, a house that belongs to the centuries".
a) Chateau de Blois
b) Chateau de Chambord
c) Palais de Fontainebleau
d) Chateau de Bury

17. The heraldic symbol of Francis I.


a) Rance
b) Salamander
c) Gres
d) Tapestry

18. Believed to be the designer of the famous staircase of Chambord.


a) Michelangelo
b) Da Vinci
c) Palladio
d) Maderno

19. Served as a billiard room; called the "Chamber of Applause".


a) studiolo/ study
b) Diana Salon
c) Gres
d) King's room
20. Red marble used in the Hall of Mirrors.
a) Salamander
b) Dolomite
c) Gres
d) Rance

21. Heavy cloth woven with rich designs or scenes, hung on walls for decorations and used to cover
furniture.
a) Rance
b) Salamander
c) Gres
d) Tapestry

22. The elevation of someone to divine status; deification.


a) apotheosis
b) parterre
c) cortier
d) soiree

23. An ornamental flower garden having the beds and paths arranged to form a pattern.
a) apotheosis
b) parterre
c) cortier
d) soiree

24. It is the longest cathedral in London.


a) Cimborrio
b) Parterre
c) Winchester
d) St. Paul’s Cathedral

25. Cathedral in England that was the setting for the movie Harry Potter.
a) Durham
b) Basilica Vicenza
c) Winchester
d) St. Paul’s Cathedral
26. Open space or a court of a stone-built castle.
a) battlement
b) motte
c) moat
d) bailey

27. A cathedral in France famous for its 500 statues.


a) Chartress
b) Reims
c) Cologne
d) Seville

28. A cathedral in France that was the coronation church of France.


a) Chartress
b) Reims
c) Cologne
d) Seville

29. A Gothic cathedral in Spain that is the 2nd largest cathedral in the world.
a) Chartress
b) Reims
c) Cologne
d) Seville

30. The Spanish term for lantern admitting light over a crossing; central lantern.
a) cimborrio
b) sgrafitto
c) chevet
d) spire

31. Term used for French Gothic Architecture.


a) bartizan
b) ogivale
c) bailey
d) retablo
32. A type of decoration that involves scratching the outer layer of plaster to show the color beneath.
a) cimborrio
b) sgrafitto
c) chevet
d) spire

33. Parapet with alternating indentations (embrasures) & raised portions (merlons) also called
"crenellation".
a) battlement
b) motte
c) moat
d) bailey

34. A small turret projecting from the angle on top of a tower or a parapet.
a) bartizan
b) motte
c) moat
d) spire

35. A tower crowned by a spire.


a) arcadia
b) steeple
c) chevet
d) spire

36. An ornamental screen or wall at the back of the altar.


a) bartizan
b) ogivale
c) bailey
d) retablo

37. The largest gothic church of Northern Europe covering approximately an area of 91,000 m².
a) Chartress
b) Reims
c) Cologne
d) Seville
38. A cathedral in France famous for its 160 stained glass windows.
a) Chartres
b) Reims
c) Cologne
d) Seville

39. The apse, ambulatory & radiating terminal of a church.


a) arcadia
b) steeple
c) chevet
d) spire

40. The architectural term for three-sided courtyard.


a) trompe l'oeil
b) cour d'honneur
c) baroque
d) rococo

41. The architecture of curved lines.


a) trompe l'oeil
b) cour d'honneur
c) baroque
d) rococo

42. Baroque style interior design used in France.


a) trompe l'oeil
b) cour d'honneur
c) baroque
d) rococo

43. A visual illusion in art used to trick the eye into perceiving a painted detail as a three-dimensional
object.
a) trompe l'oeil
b) cour d'honneur
c) baroque
d) rococo
44. Australia's first architect.
a) Jorn Utzon
b) Antonio Gaudi
c) Walter Gropius
d) Adolf Loos

45. A revival or return to the principles of Greek and Roman art and architecture.
a) Neo-classicism
b) classicm
c) Modernism
d) Stile Liberty

46. Architect of the Sydney Opera House.


a) Jorn Utzon
b) Antonio Gaudi
c) Walter Gropius
d) Adolf Loos

47. Greatest Catalan architect who never designed with 90° angles.
a) Jorn Utzon
b) Antonio Gaudi
c) Walter Gropius
d) Adolf Loos

48. Art Noveau in Italy.


a) Neo-classicism
b) classicm
c) Modernism
d) Stile Liberty

49. Founder of Bauhaus school in Germany.


a) Jorn Utzon
b) Antonio Gaudi
c) Walter Gropius
d) Adolf Loos
50. Art Noveau in Spain.
a) Neo-classicism
b) classicm
c) Modernismo
d) Stile Liberty

THEORY OF ARCHITECTURE

1. Author of the oldest research on architecture.


a) Andrea Palladio
b) Michelangelo
c) Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
d) Da Vinci

2. Wrote an extensive summary of all the theory on construction.


a) Andrea Palladio
b) Michelangelo
c) Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
d) Da Vinci

3. Had a thorough knowledge of earlier Greek and Roman writings.


a) Andrea Palladio
b) Michelangelo
c) Marcus Vitruvius
d) Da Vinci

4. Nature’s influence in the development of architecture that deals with fault lines, volcanoes, etc.
a) Seismologic
b) Geologic
c) Topographic
d) Climatic

5. Nature’s influence in the development of architecture that deals with land, availability of materials, etc.
a) Seismologic
b) Geologic
c) Topographic
d) Climatic

6. Nature’s influence in the development of architecture that deals with contour & physical characteristics.
a) Seismologic
b) Geologic
c) Topographic
d) Climatic

7. Nature’s influence in the development of architecture that deals with the heat, rain, wind of a location.
a) Seismologic
b) Geologic
c) Topographic
d) Climatic

8. Man’s influence in the development of architecture brought about by faith & belief in supreme gods.
a) Political
b) Religion
c) Social
d) Economic

9. Man’s influence in the development of architecture brought about by the nature of commerce & trade.
a) Political
b) Religion
c) Social
d) Economic

10. Man’s influence in the development of architecture brought about by the form of government & attitudes
of leaders towards progress & nationalism.
a) Political
b) Religion
c) Social
d) Economic
11. Man’s influence in the development of architecture brought about by relations between the way in which
nations lives & the architecture they produce.
a) Political
b) Religion
c) Social
d) Economic

12. Urge of man to assert himself as an individual, to do things in his own way.
a) Stimuli to Action
b) Economic Conditions
c) Response
d) Self-expression

13. Forces which must be satisfied if life is to exist and civilization is to develop.
a) Stimuli to Action
b) Economic Conditions
c) Response
d) Self-expression

14. Arises from the gregarious nature of man; wish for love, friendship and sociability.
a) Stimuli to Action
b) Economic Conditions
c) Response
d) Self-expression

15. Relations between the way in which nations lived & the architecture they produced.
a) Stimuli to Action
b) Social Conditions
c) Response
d) Economic Conditions

16. The nature of trade, commerce, industry & agriculture.


a) Stimuli to Action
b) Social Conditions
c) Response
d) Economic Conditions
17. Played an important role in the mode of living & in the design of buildings.
a) Political
b) Religion
c) Social
d) Economic

18. In anthropometry, this should be considered if you are designing for the reach of people.
a) 5th Percentile
b) 85th Percentile
c) 50th Percentile
d) 95th Percentile

19. In anthropometry, this should be considered if you are designing for the clearance of structures.
a) 5th Percentile
b) 85th Percentile
c) 50th Percentile
d) 95th Percentile

20. An approach in using anthropometric data where the designer uses his/her body as reference.
a) Design for the Mean
b) Cognitive
c) Ego-design
d) Physical

21. An approach in using anthropometric data that is the ideal solution.


a) Design for the Mean
b) Cognitive
c) Ego-design
d) Physical

22. Ergonomic domain of specialization that considers proper body mechanics.


a) Design for the Mean
b) Cognitive
c) Ego-design
d) Physical
23. Ergonomic domain of specialization otherwise known as engineering psychology, ex. fun theory.
a) Design for the Mean
b) Cognitive
c) Ego-design
d) Physical

24. A national artist whose most of designs used clean and smooth lines.
a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

25. A national artist whose works are simple and functional.


a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

26. He believes that the true Philippine Architecture is the product of two great streams of culture, the
oriental and the occidental.
a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

27. Who is the architect of Cultural Center of the Philippines - Main Building?
a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

28. Some of his works are the Far Eastern University Administration and Science buildings.
a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa
29. The architect of Manila Polo Club.
a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

30. He is the Father of Philippine Architecture.


a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

31. Who is the first National Artist for Architecture?


a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

32. The architect of Quiapo Church.


a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

33. Landscape architect of Paco Park in Metro Manila.


a) Jose Maria Zaragosa
b) Antonio Mañalac Toledo
c) Ildefonso P. Santos, Jr.
d) Rogelio Garcia Villarosa

34. He is the country’s 82nd licensed architect.


a) Jose Maria Zaragosa
b) Antonio Mañalac Toledo
c) Ildefonso P. Santos, Jr.
d) Rogelio Garcia Villarosa
35. He played a key role in the reconstruction of post war Philippines.
a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

36. The architect of Meralco Building.


a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

37. The architect of Santo Domingo Church in Quezon City.


a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

38. A national artist in architcture whose major work is the Ideal Theater in Rizal, Manila.
a) Juan F. Nakpil
b) Pablo S. Antonio
c) Leandro V. Locsin
d) Jose Maria Zaragosa

39. Architect of National Bookstore Super Branch in Araneta Center Cubao.


a) Antonio Mañalac Toledo
b) Fernando Hizon Ocampo
c) Rogelio Garcia Villarosa
d) Antonio S. Sindiong

40. Architect of the Manila City Hall.


a) Antonio Mañalac Toledo
b) Fernando Hizon Ocampo
c) Rogelio Garcia Villarosa
d) Antonio S. Sindiong
41. Architect of UP Padre Faura campus.
a) Antonio Mañalac Toledo
b) Fernando Hizon Ocampo
c) Rogelio Garcia Villarosa
d) Antonio S. Sindiong

42. Architect of Harrison Plaza Shopping Center in Manila.


a) Antonio Mañalac Toledo
b) Fernando Hizon Ocampo
c) Rogelio Garcia Villarosa
d) Antonio S. Sindiong

43. He designed the Manila Metropolitan Cathedral.


a) Antonio Mañalac Toledo
b) Fernando Hizon Ocampo
c) Rogelio Garcia Villarosa
d) Antonio S. Sindiong

44. Form follows function.


a) Louis Sullivan
b) Kenzo Tange
c) Antonio Gaudi
d) Ludwig Mies Van de Rohe

45. Form does not necessarily follow function.


a) Louis Sullivan
b) Kenzo Tange
c) Antonio Gaudi
d) Ludwig Mies Van de Rohe

46. Less is more.


a) Louis Sullivan
b) Kenzo Tange
c) Antonio Gaudi
d) Ludwig Mies Van de Rohe
47. Modern architecture need not to be Western.
a) Walter Gropius
b) Kenzo Tange
c) John Ruskin
d) Frank Lloyd Wright

48. Architecture must meet 3 requirements: strength, beauty, and unity.


a) Walter Gropius
b) Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
c) John Ruskin
d) Frank Lloyd Wright

49. Form follows function – that has been misunderstood. Form and function should be one, joined in a
spiritual union.
a) Walter Gropius
b) Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
c) John Ruskin
d) Frank Lloyd Wright

50. Architecture is the work of nations.


a) Walter Gropius
b) Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
c) John Ruskin
d) Frank Lloyd Wright

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