1

GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01

PART - I

Q.1 Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) has handed over a Dornier 228 light-weight aircraft to DRDO.
What is the name of this aircraft?

(a) Vayurathna (b) Maharathna (c) Nabhrathna (d) Aakashrathna

Q.2 Which country hosted the CoWIN Global Conclave?

(a) Australia (b) USA (c) India (d) Canada

Q.3 What is the name of the online discovery platform for the most promising start-ups of the country?

(a) Start-up India Finder

(b) Start-up India Showcase

(c) Start-up India Lens

(d) Startup India Discovery

Q.4 Golf player Vijay Singh belongs to which country?

(a) USA (b) Fiji (c) India (d) UK

Q.5 DRDL stands for

(a) Defence Research and Development Laboratory

(b) Department of Research and Development Laboratory

(c) Differential Research and Documentation Laboratory

(d) None of the above

Q.6 An astronaut in outer space will observe sky as

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
(a) White (b) Black (c) Blue (d) Red

Q.7 Who is known as 'the father of Indian missile technology'?

(a) Dr. U.R. Rao

(b) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(c) Dr. Chidambaram

(d) Dr. Homi Bhabha

Q.8 Who will inaugurate the 6th Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference?

(a) Narendra Modi

(b) Menaka Gandhi

(c) Sushma Swaraj

(d) Venkaiah Naidu

Q.9 G-15 is an economic grouping of

(a) First World Nations

(b) Second World Nations

(c) Third World Nations

(d) Fourth World Nations

Q.10 Who was appointed as new Brand Ambassador for Swachh Bharat Mission in 2017 ?

(a) Priyanka Chopra

(b) Shilpa Shetty

(c) Kangana Ranaut

(d) Anushka Sharma

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
Q.11 Kempegowda Festival was organized in which city?

(a) Hyderabad (b) Delhi (c) Mumbai (d) Bengaluru

Q.12 First Indian woman to participate in Olympics?

(a) Karnam Malleswari (b) Mary Kom (c) P.V. Sindhu (d) Geeta Phogat

Q.13 Which supercomputer is developed by the Indian Scientists?

(a) Super 3 (b) Param 808 (c) Super 149 (d) Param 8000

Q.14 NASA and ISRO to come together to inspect 'oldest civilisation' site in ____________.

(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan (c) Haryana (d) Telangana

Q.15 Which company briefly touched $800 billion market valuation, making it the world's first ever
company to hit the milestone?

(a) Google (b) Microsoft (c) Facebook (d) Apple

Q.16 _________ has successfully created the country’s first smart grid project, which will generate power
from renewable sources of energy.

(a) Indian Institutes of Technology

(b) Indian Institutes of Engineering Science Technology

(c) Indian Institutes of Space Science and Technology

(d) Indian Institutes of Management

Q.17 Who of the following scientists is named after ISRO in sriharikota ?

(a) APJ Abdul Kalam (b) Vikram Sarabhai (c) Homi J Baba (d) Satish Dhawan

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
Q.18 Which Indian organization has rolled out a customized space-themed merchandise programme?

(a) ISRO (b) BEL (c) HAL (d) DRDO

Q.19 Which space agency has been selected by NASA to provide launch services for Europa Clipper
Mission?

(a) SpaceX (b) Boeing (c) Blue Origin (d) Virgin Galactic

Q.20 Which nation is competing in the Tokyo Olympics under the ROC?

(a) Myanmar (b) Palestine (c) North Korea (d) Russia

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01

PART - II
Direction for questions 1 and 2.
Answer the following questions based on the following information.
Table 1 gives the education level of 570 married couples surveyed. The surveyed members are distributed
into four categories namely A (Std. X passes), B (Std. XII passed), C (Graduates) and D (Post Graduates).
Answer the questions based 11. And on the information given in the Table 1 below, Row is for wives and
column is for husbands
Table 1

HUSBAND↓ /
A B C D
WIFE→
A 25 30 35 42
B 32 36 45 23
C 46 39 39 33
D 37 45 41 22

Q.1 In how many married couples have exactly one of the pair finished his/her education at least till
graduation?
(a) 72 (b) 110 (c) 312 (d) 156

Q.2 How many of the above married couples is one of them more educated than the other?
(a) 400 (b) 427 (c) 463 (d) 448

Q.3 If a rectangular picture that measures 4 feet from side to side is hung exactly in the middle of a
rectangular wall that measures 13 feet from side to side, then the left edge of the picture is how many
feet from the left edge of the wall?
(a) 2.0 (b) 3.0 (c) 4.5 (d) 6.5

Q.4 In a solid cylinder, sum of the height and radius of the base is equal to 37 cm. Total surface area of
cylinder is 1,628 cm2. What is the volume of the cylinder (in cubic cm)?
(a) 4,640 (b) 4,620 (c) 6,420 (d) 6,460

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
Q.5 A company paid Rs 5,00,000 in merit raises to employees whose performances were rated A, B or C.
Each employee rated A received twice the amount of the raise that was paid to each employee rated C,
each employee rated B received 1.5 times the amount of the raise that was paid to each employee rated
C. If 50 workers were rated A, 100 were rated B, and 150 were rated C, how much was the raise paid to
each employee rated A?
(a) Rs 370 (b) Rs 625 (c) Rs 1,250 (d) Rs 2,500

Q.6 For each of n people, Margie bought a 4hamburger and a soda at a restaurant. For each of n people,
Paul bought 3 hamburgers and a soda at the same restaurant. If Margie spent a total of $5.40 and Paul
spent a total of $12.60, how much did Paul spend just for hamburger? (Assume that all hamburgers cost
the same and all sodas cost the same
(a) $10.80 (b) $9.60 (c) $7.20 (d) $3.60

Q.7 What is the number of squares of perimeter 36 into which a rectangle with width 36 and
other length 72 can be partitioned?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 32

Q.8 Find the area of the enclosed area made by the lines/curves:
| x + y | = 2, | x | = 2 and | y l = 2
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 24

Q.9 The ratio of a compound, by weight, consisting only of substances x, y, and z is 4:6:10, respectively.
Due to a dramatic increase in the surrounding temperature, the composition of the compound is changed
such that the ratio of x to y is halved and the ratio of x to z is tripled. In the changed compound, if the
total weight is 58 gms, how much does substance x weigh?
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 36

Q.10 Circular gears A & B start rotating at the same time at constant speeds. Gear A rotates at 10
revolutions/min and gear B at 40 revolutions/min. How many seconds after gears start rolling will B have
made exactly 6 more revs than A?
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 15

Q.11 Let a, b, c be distinct digits. Consider a two digit number 'ab' and a three digit number 'ccb', both
defined under the usual decimal number system. If (ab)2 = ccb and ccb > 300 then the value of b is:
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 5 (d) 6

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
Q.12 Let x and y be positive integers such that x is prime and y is composite. Then,
(a) y - x cannot be an even integer
(b) xy cannot be an even integer
(c) cannot be an even integer
(d) None of these

Q.13 The smallest perfect square divisible by 7:

(a) 44,100 (b) 176,400 (c) 705,600 (d) 19,600

Q.14 Inside a quadrilateral ABCD (right angled at B), a circle is drawn in such a way that all the four sides
of the quadrilateral are tangent to the circle. Circle touches side CD at P and side BC at R. Given that PD =
9 cm and RC = 11 cm. If radius of the circle = 5 cm, find the length of BC.
(a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 14

Direction for question 15. The question has a sentence with two blanks. Choose the pair that best
completes the sentence.
Q.15 China is the most powerful exhibit for those who would like to argue that authoritarian regimes are
no ______ to growth but most disastrous growth performances have also been under authoritarian
regime and somewhat ______, the postwar era democracies have not done much better than non-
democratic regimes.
(a) strangers, rationally
(b) enemies, predictably
(c) way linked to expectedly
(d) impediments, puzzlingly

Direction for question 16: The question given below has on opening statement and a closing statement.
In between, there are four other sentences labeled A to D. You are required to choose the most coherent
and logical sequencing of the four sentences.
Q.16 I. The prospects for democracy in the Third World are again a subject of practical concern.
A. They have generally failed to produce material prosperity or political stability
B. At worst their oppressiveness involved incarceration and brutality.
C. Various forms of dictatorship have been tried.
D. Their repressiveness has at best curtailed freedom of expression.

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
IV. But is awareness of the consequences of dictatorship enough to ensure the triumph of democracy?
(a) ABCD (b) CADB (c) DBAC (d) CBDA

Direction for questions 17 and 18: In these questions, choose the word from the four alternatives (a), (b),
(c) and (d) that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word given in CAPITAL letters.
Q.17 REVULSION :
(a) Apathy (b) Violence (c) Disgust (d) Avenge

Q.18 GRIT :
(a) Bold (b) Courage (c) Grease (d) Level

Direction for questions 19 and 20: In these questions, choose the word from the four alternatives (a), (b),
(c) and (d) that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word given in CAPITAL letters.
Q.19 RESTIVE :
(a) Buoyant (b) Placid (c) Resistant (d) Insolent

Q.20 GRADUAL :
(a) Energetic (b) Dynamic (c) Rapid (d) Enthusiastic

Direction for questions 21: The question is a logical sequence of statements with a missing link, the
location of which is shown parenthetically [(........)). From the four options available, choose the one that
best fits into the sequence.
Q.21 This is the part of the world where amassing the money seems to be the only standard of success.
As a professor of environmental science says, “People won't sacrifice their living standards for the sake of
the environment”. The lesson that Asia is yet to learn is that an improved environment is as much a part
of higher living standard as lower fertility rates and better education. The remedies are known to all but
too many ignore them—and will continue to do so until their own lives are touched by death, disease or
pollution. Asia's blinkered attitude to the world it actually lives in, is perfectly summed up in: (........).
(a) Let the next man clear up the mess
(b) Your house is someone else's backyard!
(c) "You cry only when you see the coffin".
(d) There is a higher reality than dirt, pollution and human lives

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
Direction for questions 22: Questions ahead consist of sentences each of which contains
Q.22 One or two idioms. Four possible meanings labeled (a) through (d) are provided below each
sentence. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the idiom.
He proved to be quite a wet blanket at the party for he spoke to no one and morosely sat by himself.
(a) he was crying
(b) discouraged the rest from having fun
(c) he wet the blanket
(d) he had covered himself with a wet blanket

Direction for questions 23: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence
has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most
appropriate way
Q.23 Yes, nobody wants to be Japan, the fallen angel that went from one of the fastest growing economies
in the world for more than three decades to one that has slowed to a crawl for the past 18 years. No one
wants to live with the trauma of the deflation (falling prices) that Japan has repeatedly experienced. No
one wants to navigate the precarious government-debt dynamic that Japan faces, with debt levels far
above 100% of GDP-even if one factors in the Japanese government's vast holdings of foreign-exchange
reserves ______
(a) No one wants to go from being a world-beater to a poster child for economic stagnation
(b) And yet, visitors to Tokyo today see prosperity everywhere.
(c) Although hardly in crisis yet, Japan's fiscal situation grows more alarming by the day.
(d) Until now, the government has been able to finance its vast debts locally, despite paying paltry interest
rates even on longer-term borrowings.

Direction for questions 24: Choose the best way of summarizing the text given in the question.
Q.24 When the next full-scale global financial crisis hits, let it not be said that the International Monetary
Fund never took a stab at forestalling it. Recently, the IMF proposed a new global tax on financial
institutions loosely in proportion to their size, as well as a tax on banks' profits and bonuses.
(a) The IMF has proposed a new global tax on financial institutions and banks in an attempt to forestall
future financial crises.
(b) The IMF new global tax on financial institutions and banks will prevent future financial crises.
(c) The IMF has proposed a new global tax on financial institutions and banks which will forestall financial
crises.
(d) The IMF has proposed a tax on financial institutions/and banks' profits and bonuses that will prevent
financial crises.

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
Direction for questions 25. In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined.
Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best
alternative from among the four.
Q.25 The MP rose up to say that, in her opinion, she thought the Women's Reservation Bill should be
passed on unanimously.
(a) rose to say that she thought the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed
(b) rose up to say that, the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed on
(c) rose to say that, in her opinion, she thought that the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed
(d) rose to say that, in her opinion, the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed on

Q.26 What is the minimum number of squares that can be cut out of a cloth of 16m x 6m such that no
cloth is wasted?
(a) 96 (b) 24 (c) 5 d) 6

Direction for questions 27 and 28. Study the Table 1 carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Table 1 shows the percentage population of six states below poverty line and the proportion of male and
female.

Everybody is either above the poverty line or below the poverty line. Answer to some of the questions
may be fractional. For the sake of calculation convenience, take integral values in such cases.
Q.27 The total population of State A is 3,200 thousands, then what is the approximate number of females
above poverty line in state A (in thousands)?

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
(a) 1,206 (b) 2,112 (c) 1,800 (d) 1,950

Q.28 If the total population of State C and D together is 18,000, then what is the total number of females
below poverty line in these two states?
(a) 5,000 (b) 5,500 (c) 4,800 (d) Cannot be determined

Q.29 In a house, there are six 40-watt lamps which are on for 5 hours a day and three 80-watt fans which
are on for 10 hours a day. If electricity costs * 2 per kilowatt hour, what is the monthly electricity bill?
(a) 216 (b) 280 (c) 315 (d) 400

Q.30 A driver's income consists of his salary and tips. During one week his tips were 5/4 of his salary. What
fraction of his income came from tips?
(a) 4/9 (b) 5/9 (c) 5/8 (d) 5/4

Q.31 Two candles of the same height are lighted at the same time. The first is consumed in 4 hours and
the second in 3 hours. Assuming that each candle burns at a constant rate, in how many hours after being
lighted was the first candle twice the height of the second?
(a) 3/4 hrs (b) 11/2 hrs (c) 2 hrs d) None of these

Q.32 How many times in a 24 hour day will the minute and the hour hand be at 90° or 270° to each other?
(a) 44 times (b) 66 times (c) 96 times (d) 48 times

Q.33 A discount of 18% on the marked price of book enables a man to buy a pen worth Rs 72. How much
did he pay for the book?
(a) Rs 328 (b) Rs 288 (c) Rs 400 (d) Rs 648

Q.34 Two rockets approach 42,000 mph and the other 18,000 mph. They start 3,256 m
are they apart (in miles) 1 minute before impact ?
(a) 1,628 (b) 1,000 (c) 826 (d) 1,200

Q.35 A bought 4 bottles of B and B bought one using even both the statements together. Bottle of L, L per
bottle costing twice that of the B. C bought nothing but paid Rs 50 for his share of the drink which they
mixed together and shared equally. If C's Rs 50 covered his share, then what is the cost of the L per bottle?

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
(a) 50 (b) 75 (c) 30 (d) 46

Q.36 Two varieties of rice are mixed in the ratio 2:3. Price of mixture is Rs 12 per kg and price of the variety
having lower weight is Rs 10 per kg. Find the price (Rs / kg) of other variety
(a) 13.33 (b) 12.66 (c) 13 (d) 12

Q.37 In a maternity centre, 5% of all the child birth cases result in twins and all other deliveries result in
single child. What is the approx. percentage of twins out of total children born?
(a) 5% (b) 7.6% (c) 9.5% (d) 10.4%

Q.38 There is a natural number which when divided by 4 and 5 gives 3 as the remainder in each case.
What is the lowest such number?
(a) 23 (b) 43 (c) 103 (d) 13

Q.39 Which term in the series 3 + 10 +17 + …… and 63 + 65 + 67 + …... is common?

(a) 9 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15

Q.40 If x and y are positive integers such that 3x + 7y is a multiple of 11, then which of the following will
also be divisible by 11?
(a) 4x + 6y (b) x + y + 4 (c) 4x – 9y (d) 9x + 4y

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01

PART - III
Q.1 The relationship between Young's modulus (E), Bulk modulus (K) and Poisson's ratio (μ) is given by:
(a) 𝐸 = 3𝐾(1 − 2𝜇)
(b) 𝐾 = 3𝐸(1 − 2𝜇)
(c) 𝐸 = 3𝐾(1 − 𝜇)
(d) 𝐾 = 3𝐸(1 − 𝜇)

Q.2 Water flows steadily down a vertical pipe of constant cross section. Neglecting friction, according to
Bernoulli's equation,

(a) pressure is constant along the length of the pipe

(b) velocity decreases with height
(c) pressure decreases with height
(d) pressure increases with height

Q.3 A circular rod of length ‘L’ and area of cross-section ‘A’ has a modulus of elasticity ‘E’ and coefficient
of thermal expansion One end of the rod is fixed and other end is free. If the temperature of the rod is
increased by then

(a) stress developed in the rod is Eα∆T and strain developed in the rod is α∆T
(b) both stress and strain developed in the rod are zero
(c) stress developed in the rod is zero and strain developed in the rod is α∆T
(d) stress developed in the rod is Eα∆T and strain developed in the rod is zero

Q.4 In a simple tension test, Hooke's law is valid upto the

(a) Elastic limit
(b) Limit of proportionality
(c) Ultimate stress
(d)Breaking point

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
Q.5 The component of a transonic airplane for which transonic area rule applied is
(a) Nose (b) Wing (c) Tail (d) Fuselage

Q.6 A block of steel is loaded by a tangential force on its top surface while the bottom surface is held
rigidly. The deformation of the block is due to
(a) Shear only (b) Bending only (c) Shear and bending (d) Torsion

Q.7 Identify the TRUE statement regarding as altitude increases in ISA of stratosphere

(a) Temperature constant and pressure increases

(b) Temperature decreases and dynamic viscosity increase
(c) Temperature constant and density decreases
(d) Temperature constant and speed of sound increases

Q.8 In a turbofan engine,

(a) Increasing bypass ratio improves specific fuel consumption (SFC) at the expense of significant reduction
in specific thrust.
(b) Increasing bypass ratio improves specific fuel consumption (SFC) with significant increase in specific
thrust.
(c) Increasing bypass ratio increases specific fuel consumption (SFC) at the expense of significant reduction
in specific thrust.
(d) Increasing bypass ratio increases specific fuel consumption (SFC) with significant increase in specific
thrust.

Q.9 The symmetry of stress tensor at a point in the body under equilibrium is obtained from
(a) conservation of mass
(b) force equilibrium equations
(c) moment equilibrium equations
(d) conservation of energy

Q.10 A streamlined body is one for which

(a) the skin friction is zero
(b) the skin friction is minimum

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
(c) the thickness of the body is minimum
(d) the separation point occurs on the far down by the stream part of the body

Q.11 A simply supported beam of span length 6m and 75mm diameter carries a uniformly distributed load
of 1.5 kN/m. What is the maximum value of bending moment?
(a) 6.75 kNm (b) 13.5 kNm (c) 81 kNm (d) 125 kNm

Q.12 A flow of a viscous fluid with μ = 1.0 Ns/m2 has a velocity distribution given by u = 0.90 y – y2. The
shear stress at y = 0.45 m is
(a) 0.90 N/m2 (b) ∞ (c) zero (d) - 0.90 N/m2

Q.13 The point· of contraflexure is a point where:

(a) Shear force changes sign
(b) Bending moment changes sign
(c) Shear force is maximum
(d) Bending moment is maximum

Q.14 The following statement are related to bending of beams

I. The slope of the bending moment diagram is equal to the shear force.

II. The slope of the shear force diagram is equal to the load intensity

III. The slope of the curvature is equal to the flexural rotation

IV. The second derivative of the deflection is equal to the curvature.
The only FALSE statement is
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV

Q.15 The diameter of a shaft is increased from 30 mm to 60 mm, all other conditions remaining
unchanged. How many times is its torque carrying capacity increased?
(a) 2 times (b) 4 times (c) 8 times (d) 16 times

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GOODWILL GATE2IIT
HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
Q.16 For the same internal diameter, wall thickness, material and internal pressure, the ratio of maximum
stress, induced in a thin cylindrical and in a thin spherical pressure vessel will be:
(a) 2 (b) 1/2 (c) 4 (d) ¼

Q.17 The viscosity of

(a) liquids increases with temperature
(b) gases increases with temperature
(c) fluids decreases with temperature
(d) fluids increases with temperature

Q.18 For a fluid, the shear stress was found to be directly proportional to the rate of angular deformation.
The fluid is classified as
(a) Newtonian
(b) Non - Newtonian
(c) Dilatant fluid
(d) Thixotropic

Q.19 What are the materials which show direction dependent properties, called?
(a) Homogeneous materials
(b) Viscoelastic materials
(c) Isotropic materials
(d) Anisotropic materials

Q.20 The basic differential equation for the variation of pressure ρ in a static fluid with vertical distance y
(measured upwards) is
(a) dρ = - γdy (b) dy = - γdρ (c) dρ = - ρdy (d) dρ = - dy

Q.21 Rate of change of Temperature (Temperature Lapse Rate) in troposphere is

(a) 2°C/km (b) 3.5°C/km (c) -2.2°C/km (d) 6.5°C/km

Q.22 If ψ2 and ψ1 are the values of stream function at points 2 and 1 respectively, the volume rate of flow
per unit depth across an element As connecting 2 and 1 is given by

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HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
∆ψ 1
(a) ∆s
(b) ε ∆ψ ∙ ∆s (c) ∆ψ
(d) ∆ψ

Q.23 What is the ratio of isentropic work to Euler work in an centrifugal compressor called?
(a) Work coefficient
(b) Velocity coefficient
(c) Pressure coefficient
(d) Flow coefficient

Q.24 If ∅ = 3 x y, the x and y components of velocity the point (1, 3) will be

(a) u = -9, v = -3 (b) u = -3, v = -9 (c) u = 9, v = -3 (d) u = 9, v = 9

Q.25 The ability of maximum time that a piston engine aircraft can fly per unit fuel will

(a) Decrease with altitude

(b) Remains the same
(c) Increase with altitude
(d) First Increases and then decreases
(e) First decreases and then increases

Q.26 A jet of air is directed over a circular cylinder as shown in Figure Neglecting viscous effects, the force
acting on the cylinder due to air motion is
(a) upwards the section in
(b) downwards
(c) in the direction of jet flow
(d) zero

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HAL – Design Trainee
FULL MOCK 01
Q.27 A water jet has an area of 0.03 m3 and impinges normally on a plate. If a force of 1 kN is produced
as a result of this impact, the velocity of the jet, in m/s, is
(a) 15 (b) 33.4 (c) 3.4 (d) 5.78

Q.28 If the maximum velocity in a laminar flow through two parallel static plates is 9 m/s, then the average
velocity of the flow will be
(a) 3.0 m/s (b) 4.5 m/s (c) 6.0 m/s (d) 7.5 m/s

Q.29 In a laminar flow between two parallel plates separated by a distance B, the head loss varies.
(a) directly as B (b) inversely as B2 (c) directly as B2 (d) inversely as B3

Q.30 If the velocity distribution in a turbulent boundary layer is u/U = (y/δ)1/10 the displacement thickness
δ∗ is given by δ∗/δ =
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.125 (c) 0.091 (d) 0.0758

Q.31 If a compression coil spring is cut into two equal parts and the parts are then used in parallel, the
ratio of the spring rate to its initial value will be:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) Indeterminable for
want of sufficient data

Q.32 In a laminar boundary layer the nominal thickness varies with the longitudinal distance x as
(a) 𝓍 -1/2 (b) 𝓍 -1/5 (c) 𝓍 (d) 𝓍 1/2

Q.33 By increasing the Wgt of the aircraft by 1.7 times the original Wgt the stalling speed is increased by

(a) 130% (b) 70% (c) 45% (d) 30%

Q.34 If a streamlined body A and a sphere B both having the same maximum cross sectional area are
subjected to laminar flow past them, then
(a) the body drag on A will be smaller than on B
(b) the total drag on A will be larger than on B
(c) the total drag on both A and B will be identical

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(d) initially A will have larger drag but later on, both the objects will experience the same drag

Q.35 A heat engine is supplied with 300 kJ/s of heat at constant temperature of 250°C. If 200 kJ/s are
rejected at 10°C, the cycle is

(a) reversible (b)irreversible (c)impossible (d)None of above

Q.36 In a turbo prop engine, turbine generates power to.

a) Propel the airplane forward.

b) Drive the compressor to compress the air.
c) Drive the compressor to compress the air, other accessories and rotate the propeller to produce trust
d) None of the above

Q.37 The over all drag of an aircraft of weight W and wing area S is given by
CD = 𝒶 + b CL2
where a and b are constants. The maximum drag in horizontal flight will be
(a) 6W √ab (b) 4W √ab (c) 2W √ab (d) W √ab

Q.38 Zero-lift drag coefficient of an airplane is 0.025. For its wings Aspect Ratio is 7.28 and Oswald
efficiency factor is 0.82. The maximum value of L/D for this airplane is
(a) 9.8 (b) 11.2 (c) 13.7 (d) 15.2

Q.39 When an airfoil reaches the stall angle

(a) the drag cocfficient is zero
(b) the lift decrea.es rapidly for any further increase in the angle of attack
(c) the drag decreases rapidly for any further increase in the angle of attack
(d) the lift coefficient is zero.

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Q.40 Determine the energy necessary to bring a unit mass into a circular orbit around the earth having a
height of 170 km. Neglect the effects of drag.

(a) 25 MJ (b) 16 MJ (c) 32 MJ (d) 19 MJ

Q.41 What is the typical altitude of LEO?

(a) more than 500 km

(b) Less than 800 km
(c) Less than 500 km
(d) More than 800 km

Q.42 Satellite velocity is maximum at __________ for an elliptical orbit.

(a) apogee (b) perigee (c) focal point (d) infinity

Q.43 Euler's equation for the turbines is

(a) U (V3 - V1) = Cp (T03 - T01)
(b) U (V3 - V2) = Cp (T03 - T02)
(c) U (V1 – V3) = Cp (T01 – T03)
(d) U (V2 + v3) = Cp (T02 – T03)
where, U = rotor speed, 1,2,3 are station locations and v = swirl velocity

Q.44 Determine the period of revolution of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit of altitude 350 km.

(a) 1.738 hrs (b) 1.266 hrs (c) 1.395 hrs (d) 1.525 hrs

Q.45 The first law of thermodynamics, for steady flow

(a) accounts for all energy entering and leaving a control volume
(b) is an energy balance for a specified mass of fluid
(c) is an expression for the conservation of linear momentum

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(d) is restricted in its application to perfect gases

Q.46 In a closed system, the input heat is 50 kJ while there is a decrease of 25 kJ in internal energy, then
the work transfer in the process is

(a) 25 kJ (b)75 kJ (c) zero (d) -75kJ

Q.47 Air is compressed to half the volume at constant pressure, then the change in entropy is

(a) positive (b)negative (c) zero (d) not predictable

Q.48 In which process the work done por kg of air compressed from 1,05 atm, 15°C and 6.3 sm, will be
minimum?

(a) Adiabatic (b) Isothermal (c) Polytropic n 1.35 (d) All the above

Q.49 In the relation PVn = C, n=∞ for the following process

(a) Isothermal (b) Isentropic (c) Constant pressure (d) Constant volume

Q.50 In an adiabatic change

(a) total heat taken in from surroundings is equal to the heat rejected to surroundings
(b) total heat gained by conduction and radiation is equal to the total heat lost by conduction only
(c) heat is taken from the surroundings and supplied to gases only
(d)heat is neither gained nor lost to the surroundings

Q.51 In an ideal condition, _____ remains constant when gas is expanded through a nozzle

(a) Entropy (b) Enthalpy (c) Internal Energy (d)Work

Q.52 Indicate the incorrect statement

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When there is a flow past a submerged body such as
(a) an airfoil the viscous forces are predominant
(b) a plate held normal to the flow the skin friction drag predominates
(c) a streamlined body the skin friction drag is predominant
(d) a bluff body the pressure drag is more than the skin friction drag.

Q.53 Gases have

(a) only one value of specific heat

(b) sometimes one value and sometimes two values of specific heat
(c) two values of specific heat
(d) three values of specific heat

Q.54 Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system?

(a) Pressure (b) Temperature (c) Specific Volume (d) Heat (e) Density

Q.55 The bulk modulus of elasticity K of

(a) a gas is larger than that of a solid

(b) a liquid is smaller than that of a gas
(c) a liquid is larger than that of a solid
(d) a solid is larger than that of a liquid

Q.56 In which of the following situations, the entropy change will be negative (reduction)?

(a) Air expands isothermally from 6 kg/cm² to 3 kg/cm².

(b) Air is compressed to half the volume at constant pressure.
(c) Heat is supplied to air at constant volume till the pressure becomes three-fold.
(d) None of the above.

Q.57 The area under temperature-entropy curve for any thermodynamic process represents

(a) efficiency

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(b) irreversibility
(c) work done or work expanded
(d) heat absorbed or rejected

Q.58 In a bi-axial stress problem, the stresses in x and y directions are (σx = 200 MPa and σy = 100 MPa.
The maximum principal stress in MPa, is:

(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 200

Q.59 A reversed air-standard Brayton cycle consists of the following reversible processes:

(a) two adiabatic and two isobaric

(b) two adiabatic and two isothermal
(c) two adiabatic and two isochoric
(d) two isothermal and two isochoric

Q.60 The First Law of Thermodynamics takes the form Q = ∆h when applied to:

(a) a closed system undergoing any reversible process

(b) a closed system undergoing a constant pressure reversible process
(c) a closed system undergoing a constant volume reversible process
(d) any open system

Q.61 Air contained in a rigid vessel is cooled from 800°C to 300°C. The change in entropy of the air during
the process, in kJ/kg K, is:

(a) - 0.70 (b) +0.45 (c) -0.45 (d) -0.63

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Q.62 For an airplane undergoing a steady pull-up maneuver along a curved flight path of the constant
angle of attack, constant pitch rate of 20°/s, and having a radius of curvature of 150 m, determine the
flight velocity.
a) 47.66 m/s b) 52.36 m/s c) 38.33 m/s d) 69.42 m/s

𝑎
Q.63 The equation (𝑝 + ) (𝑉 − 𝑏) = 𝑅𝑇 is known as
𝑉2

(a) real gas equation

(b) kinetic theory of gases equation
(c) Van der Waals’ equation
(d)Avogadro’s Equation

Q.64 The angle at which the wings of the vehicle are inclined to the flight path is called as __________
(a) angle of attack (b) flight path angle (c) pitch angle (d) roll angle

Q.65 For a level flight, when angle of attack decreases, speed

(a) must increase (b) must decrease (c) need not change (d) depends on altitude

Q.66 For maximum range in jet aircraft, the ratio

(a CL1/2/CD is maximum (b) CL/CD is maximum (c) CL3/2/CD is maximum (d) CL2/CD is maximum

Q.67 An open system

(a) is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place
(b) is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
(c) cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
(d) has a mass transfer across its boundaries and the mass within the system is not necessarily constant

Q.68 An aircraft in straight and level flight starts cruising at double its normal cruise speed. What happens
to its induced drag?

(a) becomes double (b) becomes four times (c) becomes one-fourth (d) becomes half

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Q.69 On which of the following factors, the Thrust required by an aircraft DOESN’T depends directly?

(a) Drag Coefficient

(b) Lift Coefficient
(c) Aircraft Speed
(d) None of the above

Q.70 Power available in a jet engine ___________with increasing flight speed.

(a) increases linearly (b) increases cubically (c) decreases (d) remains same

Q.71 90 degree banked constant altitude

(a) Velocity = ∞ (b) load factor = 0 (c) is not possible (d) Velocity is finite

Q.72 Consider a fighter aircraft which is undergoing a nose diving maneuver, then the load factor at that
maneuver is

(a) 1 (b) Data Insufficient (c) Always greater than 1 (d) 0 (e) Always less than 1

Q.73 What is the value of Cl of a symmetric airfoil if the angle of attack is 5°?

(a) 0.548 (b) 0.0548 (c) 3.1416 (d) 31.416

Q.74 The relationship between Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) and True Air Speed (TAS) at an altitude where
air density is ρ is given by EAS=k.(TAS), Where k is

𝜌 𝜌 𝜌 𝜌0
(a)√ ⁄𝜌𝑜 (b) √ 0⁄𝜌 (c) ⁄𝜌𝑜 (d) ⁄𝜌

Q.75 Geopotential altitudes are defined as the altitudes where

(a) distance from center of earth is same
(b) acceleration due to gravity is same
(c) ambient pressure is same

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(d) None of These

Q.76 Why are the orbits of satellites outside of the earth’s atmosphere?
(a) The orbit needs to be elliptical
(b) The orbit needs to be circular
(c) Within the atmosphere, the satellite spirals down to the earth
(d) Drag losses are absent outside the atmosphere

Q.77 What is the theoretical value of lift curve slope of a flat airfoil?

(a) 2π per radian

(b) 4aπ per radian
(c) 3π per radian
(d) π per radian

Q.78 A reversible polytropic process can be described by the equation

𝑝 𝑛
(a) pVn = C (b) (pv)" = C (c) ( ) = 𝐶 (d) pnV=C
𝑉

Q.79 Work done during adiabatic expansion is given by

𝑝1 𝑣1 − 𝑝2 𝑣2 𝑚𝑅(𝑇1 −𝑇2 ) 𝑅𝑇 𝑝 𝑉
(a) 𝛾−1
(b) 𝛾−1
(c) 𝛾−11 (1 − 𝑝2 2 ) (d)all of the above
1𝑉1

Q.80 What is meant by minimum unstick speed?

(a) The maximum speed at which the aircraft becomes airborne

(b) The minimum speed at which the aircraft does not becomes airborne
(c) The maximum speed at which the aircraft does not becomes airborne
(d) The minimum speed at which the aircraft becomes airborne

Q.81 For an ideal gas which of the following is/are constant:

(a) Cp (b) Cp- CV (c) Cp/CV (d) All of Above

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Q.82 Center of pressure of an airfoil in supersonic flow lies at
(a) leading edge (b) 25% of chord (c) 50% of chord (d) 75% of chord

Q.83 Center of pressure of a positive cambered airfoil in subsonic flow ........ with increase in angle of
attack
(a) Moves ahead
(b) Moves backwards
(c) Doesn’t change
(d) First moves ahead and then backwards after a limit

Q.84 Match the following pairs

P. Maximum endurance of Propeller aircraft L. Max CL/CD

Q. Maximum endurance of Jet aircraft M. Max CL1/2/CD

R. Maximum range of jet Aircraft N. Max CL3/2/CD

(a) P-N, Q-L, R-M

(b) P-L, Q-N, R-M
(c) P-M, Q-L, R-N
(d) P-L, Q-M, R-N

Q.85 Consider an aircraft with finite rectangular (but not tapered) wing, the span efficiency factor for this
will be
(a) 1
(b) Always greater than 1
(c) 0
(d) Always less than 1

Q.86 For a propeller driven airplane, the maximum excess power is available at which of the following
conditions?

(a) Minimum drag

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(b) Maximum L/D
(c) Maximum available power
(d) Minimum power required

Q.87 The critical Mach number can be increased by

(a) Increasing aspect ratio
(b) Increasing thickness to chord ratio
(c) Increasing sweep back
(d) Decreasing sweep back

Q.88 The diffuser blades in Centrifugal flow compressor are kept ______ the number of impeller blades .

(a) 1/10 th of (b) 1/3 rd of (c) 10 times (d) 3 times

Q.89 The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the centrifugal compressor is called as
_________.

(a) velocity factor (b) slip factor (c) work factor (d) none of the above

Q.90 The rocket nozzle is usually so designed such that the exhaust pressure is ____ the ambient fluid
pressure.

(a) greater than (b) less than (c) equal to (d) equal to or slightly higher than

Q.91 A solid circular shaft is subjected to a maximum shearing stress of 140 MPs. The magnitude of the
maximum normal stress developed in the shaft is:

(a) 140 MPa (b) 80 MPa (c) 70 MPa (d) 60 MPa

Q.92 What is a sensible specific impulse value for a nuclear fission type rocket engine among the given
options?

(a) 300 s (b) 600 s (c) 800 s (d) 2000 s

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Q.93 A normal flap is added to a wing. Which of the following is TRUE when flap is deflected?

(a) CL -α curve slope would remain same

(b) αL=0 (Angle of attack for zero lift) would remain same
(c) Stall angle would remain same
(d) None of the above

Q.94 The matching of compressor - turbine operating point during off - nominal conditions requires
balance in

(a) rotor speed

(b) power
(c) flοw
(d) conservation of mass flow, power and speed

Q.95 Identify the incorrect statement:

At the outer edge of a laminar boundary layer (y = δ) over a flat plate
(a) U = 0 (b) u = U (c) ∂2u/∂2y = 0 (d) τ0 = 0

Q.96 High air-fuel mixture ratio in turbo-jet engine

(a) Increases power output
(b) Improves thermal efficiency
(c) does not damage turbine blades
(d) increases exhaust gas temperature

Q.97 If the flow area is reduced even after critical section in a converging nozzle, the outlet Mach number
will become
(a) zero
(b) less than one
(c) more than one

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(d) equal to one

Q.98 Thermal efficiency of an engine is defined as

(a) Ratio of engine output to energy input.

(b) Ratio of useful propulsive work to available propulsive energy.
(c) Ratio of Input temperature to output temperature.
(d) Ratio of Initial velocity to final velocity.

Q.99 A steel bar of 40 mm × 40 mm square cross-section is subjected to an axial compressive load of 200
kN. If the length of the bar is 2 m and E = 200 GPa, the elongation of the bar will be:
(a) 1.25 mm (b) 2.70 mm (c) 4.05 mm (d) 5.40 mm

Q.100 During the Phugoid mode of an aircraft, which of the following two parameters are excited?

(a)Air speed and angle of attack

(b) Air speed and pitch angle
(c) Pitch rate and pitch angle
(d) Angle of attack and pitch rate

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Part -I Part -II Part -II

Questions Keys Questions Keys Questions Keys

Q1 c Q1 c Q21 c

Q2 c Q2 d Q22 b

Q3 b Q3 c Q23 a

Q4 b Q4 b Q24 a

Q5 a Q5 d Q25 a

Q6 b Q6 a Q26 c

Q7 b Q7 d Q27 a

Q8 d Q8 c Q28 d

Q9 c Q9 b Q29 a

Q10 b Q10 c Q30 b

Q11 b Q11 a Q31 d

Q12 a Q12 d Q32 a

Q13 d Q13 b Q33 a

Q14 c Q14 a Q34 b

Q15 d Q15 d Q35 a

Q16 b Q16 b Q36 a

Q17 d Q17 c Q37 c

Q18 a Q18 b Q38 d

Q19 a Q19 a Q39 b

Q20 d Q20 c Q40 c

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Part -III
Questions Keys Questions Keys Questions Keys

Q1 a Q21 d Q41 c

Q2 c Q22 d Q42 b

Q3 c Q23 c Q43 d

Q4 b Q24 a Q44 d

Q5 d Q25 a Q45 a

Q6 a Q26 a Q46 b

Q7 c Q27 d Q47 b

Q8 a Q28 c Q48 b

Q9 c Q29 b Q49 d

Q10 d Q30 c Q50 d

Q11 a Q31 c Q51 a

Q12 c Q32 d Q52 b

Q13 b Q33 d Q53 c

Q14 c Q34 b Q54 d

Q15 c Q35 b Q55 d

Q16 a Q36 c Q56 b

Q17 b Q37 c Q57 d

Q18 a Q38 c Q58 d

Q19 d Q39 b Q59 a

Q20 a Q40 c Q60 c

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Part -III
Questions Keys Questions Keys

Q61 c Q81 d

Q62 b Q82 c

Q63 c Q83 a

Q64 a Q84 a

Q65 a Q85 d

Q66 a Q86 a

Q67 d Q87 c

Q68 c Q88 b

Q69 d Q89 b

Q70 a Q90 d

Q71 c Q91 a

Q72 d Q92 c

Q73 a Q93 a

Q74 a Q94 d

Q75 b Q95 a

Q76 d Q96 b

Q77 a Q97 d

Q78 a Q98 a

Q79 d Q99 a

Q80 d Q100 b

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