CN MCQs

COMPUTER NETWORKS 2020-21
Unit-1
1. Which processes does TCP, but not UDP, b. Hub/switch

use? c. PDC
a. Windowing d. Router
b. Acknowledgements Answer: Option(b)
c. Both a and b 7. In OSI network architecture, the dialogue
d. Destination Port control and token management are
Answer: Option(c) responsibility of
a. session layer
2. SMTP is a protocol used in which layer? b. network layer
a. Application c. transport layer
b. Network d. data link layer
c. Physical Answer: Option(a)
d. Transport
Answer: Option(a) 8. In OSI network architecture, the routing is
performed by
3. Terminators are used in which topology? a. network layer
a. Bus b. data link layer
b. Star c. transport layer
c. Ring d. session layer
d. token ring Answer: Option(a)
Answer: Option(a)
9. Which of the following performs
4. In which topology, if a computer’s network modulation and demodulation?
cable is broken, whole network goes down. a. fiber optics
a. Ring b. satellite
b. Star c. coaxial cable
c. Bus d. Modem
d. token ring Answer: Option(d)
Answer: Option(c)
10. The process of converting analog signals
into digital signals so they can be processed by
5. For large networks, which topology is used? a receiving computer is referred to as
a. Bus a. modulation
b. Tree b. demodulation
c. Ring c. synchronizing
d. Mesh d. Digitizing
Answer: Option(b) Answer: Option(b)
6. What is the central device in star topology? 11. The protocol data unit (PDU) for the
a. STP server application layer in the Internet stack is?
3 University Academy
connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-

a. Datagram duplex as well. Find the bandwidth does each
b. Frame host have to the server?
c. Message a. 100 kbps
d. Segment b. 1 Mbps
Answer: Option(c) c. 2 Mbps
d. 10 Mbps
12. Which protocol does switch use at the Answer: Option(d)
layer 2 for finding MAC address?
17. While transferring files between server and
a. ICMP client, if the transmission rates along the path
b. UDP is 10Mbps, 20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The
c. ARP throughput is usually
d. TCP a. 20Mbps
Answer: Option(c) b. 10Mbps
c. 40Mbps
d. 50Mbps
13. Which OSI layer adds a trailer during Answer: Option(b)
encapsulation of data?
18. Which is the additional layer to OSI model
a. Layer 3 when compared with TCP IP model?
b. Layer 4 a. Application layer
c. Layer 2 b. Presentation layer
d. Layer 5,6,7 c. Session layer
Answer: Option(d) d. Session and Presentation layer
Answer: Option(d)
14. Which of the following term describes
PDU encapsulated at Transport Layer? 19. Maximum data transfer rate of the optical
fiber is……….?
a. Frame a. 50 kbps
b. Packet b. 1000 kbps
c. Data c. 1000 Mbps
d. Segment d. None of the these
Answer: Option(d) Answer: Option(c)
15. Which protocol does HTTP (Hyper Text 20. A list of protocols used by a system, one
Transfer Protocol) - use for transferring web protocol per layer, is called ________
pages at the Transport layer a) protocol architecture
a. IP b) protocol stack
b. UDP c) protocol suite
c. TCP d) protocol system
d. ARP Answer: Option(b)
Answer: Option(c)
21. Connector RJ-45 contains?
16. There are 10 users plugged into a hub a. Two pins
running 10Mbps half-duplex.and a server b. Four pins
c. Eight pins a. A thin coaxial cable

d. Ten pins b. A twisted pair cable
Answer: Option(c) c. A microwave link
d. A fiber optical cable
22. Which is not the legitimate transmission Answer: Option(c)
directions listed here?
a. Simplex 28. HTTP stands for?
b. Half Duplex a. Hyper terminal tracing program
c. Full Duplex b. Hypertext tracing protocol
d. Double Duplex c. Hypertext transfer protocol
Answer: Option(d) d. Hypertext transfer program
Answer: Option(c)
23. Which layer provides interface between
network support layers and user support 29. Find the best suitable topology for large
layers? businesses which must capable to control and
a. session layer coordinate the operation of distributed branch
b. data link layer outlets?
c. transport layer a. Ring
d. network layer b. Local area
Answer: Option(c) c. Hierarchical
d. Star
24. A set of rules that governs data Answer: Option(d)
communication is called
a. Protocols 30. Which mode of Communication occurs
b. Standards between a computer and a keyboard.
c. RFCs a. Automatic
d. Servers b. Half-duplex
Answer: Option(c) c. Full-duplex
d. Simplex
Answer: Option(d)
25. Which one is not a network topology?
a. Star 31. How many layers are present in the Internet
b. Ring
protocol stack (TCP/IP model)?
c. Bus
d. Peer to Peer a. 5
Answer: Option(d) b. 7
c. 6
26. Full form of OSI
a. open system interconnection d. 10
b. operating system interface Answer: Option(a)
c. optical service implementation
32. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference
d. open service Internet
Answer: Option(a) model is __________
a. 5
27. Identify the non suitable medium for 802.3 b. 7
ethernet?
c. 6 c. Transport layer
d. 10 d. Link layer
Answer: b Answer: b
33. Which of the following layers is an addition 38. In OSI model, when data is sent from device
to OSI model when compared with TCP IP A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at
model? B is _________
a. Application layer a. Application layer
b. Presentation layer b. Transport layer
c. Session layer c. Link layer
d. Session and Presentation layer d. Session layer
Answer: d Answer: d
39. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from
34. Application layer is implemented in _______ device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive
a. End system data at B is ____________
b. NIC a. Application layer
c. Ethernet b. Transport layer
d. Packet transport c. Link layer
Answer: a d. Session layer
35. Transport layer is implemented in _________ Answer: a
a. End system 40. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from
b. NIC the lower to the upper layers, headers are
c. Ethernet _______
d. Signal transmission a. Added
Answer: a b. Removed
36. The functionalities of the presentation layer c. Rearranged
include ____________ d. Randomized
a. Data compression Answer: b
b. Data encryption 41. Which of the following statements can be
c. Data description associated with OSI model?
d. All of the mentioned a. A structured way to discuss and easier
Answer: d update system components
37. Delimiting and synchronization of data b. One layer may duplicate lower layer
exchange is provided by __________ functionality
a. Application layer
b. Session layer
c. Functionality at one layer no way a. mechanical specifications of

requires information from another electrical connectors and
cables
layer
b. electrical specification of
d. It is an application specific network transmission line signal level
model c. specification for IR over
optical fiber
Answer: c
d. all of the mentioned
42. The physical layer is concerned with Answer: Option(d)
___________ 47. In asynchronous serial
a. bit-by-bit delivery communication the physical layer
b. process to process delivery provides ___________
c. application to application delivery a. start and stop signalling
d. port to port delivery b. flow control
Answer: Option(a) c. both start & stop signalling
43. Which transmission media provides and flow control
the highest transmission speed in a d. only start signalling
network? Answer: Option(c)
a. coaxial cable
b. twisted pair cable 48. The physical layer is responsible for
c. optical fiber _____
d. electrical cable a) line coding
Answer: Option(c) b) channel coding
c) modulation
44. Bits can be sent over guided and d) all of the mentioned
unguided media as analog signal by Answer: Option(d)
___________ 49. The physical layer translates logical
a. digital modulation communication requests from the
b. amplitude modulation ______ into hardware specific
c. frequency modulation operations.
d. phase modulation a. data link layer
Answer: Option(a) b. network layer
c. trasnport layer
45. The portion of physical layer that d. application layer
interfaces with the media access Answer: Option(a)
control sublayer is called 50. A single channel is shared by multiple
___________ signals by _____
a. physical signalling sublayer a. analog modulation
b. physical data sublayer b. digital modulation
c. physical address sublayer c. multiplexing
d. physical transport sublayer d. phase modulation
Answer: Option(a) Answer: Option(c)
51. Wireless transmission of signals can
46. The physical layer provides be done via ___________
__________ a. radio waves
b. microwaves
c. infrared
Answer: Option(d)
Unit-II
c. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol),
IEEE802.3
1. The two sublayers of a Data Link layer are d. All the above
a. LLC Logical Link Control Layer Answer: Option(d)
b. MAC Medium Access Control Layer
c. Both A and B
d. Data Layer 5. Which is the protocol that maps varying IP
Answer: Option(c) addresses to the Physical MAC Address of a
machine in a LAN network?
a. ARQ (Automatic Repeat Request)
2. The functions of a Logical Link Layer b. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
(LLC) are c. SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol)
a. Error control d. PLIP (Parallel Line Internet Protocol)
b. Flow control Answer: Option(b)
c. Creating and managing the
communication link between two 6. Which protocols adopted the standards of
devices with the help of the Transport HDLC (High Level Link Control) protocol?
layer. a. X.25 protocol as LAPB (Link Access
d. All the above Procedure Balanced, V.42 protocol as
Answer: Option(d) LAPM (Link Access Procedure for
Modems)
b. Frame Relay protocol as LAPF (Link
3. The types of data services offered by an Access Procedure for Frame Relay)
LLC (Logical Link Control) layer are c. ISDN (Integrated Services Digital
a. Connectionless which is fast and Network) protocol as LAPD (Link
unreliable Access Procedure on D channel)
b. Connection Oriented which is slow d. All the above
and reliable Answer: Option(d)
c. Both A and B
d. None 7. The Dialup connections to access the
Answer: Option(c) internet uses ___ protocol.
a. PPP (Point to Point protocol)
b. X.25 protocol
4. Choose the Protocols working in the Data c. PLIP protocol
Link Control Layer of OSI model below. d. None
a. ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode), Answer: Option(a)
Frame Relay
b. HDLC (High Level Data Link 8. Automatic repeat request error management
Control), SDLC (Synchronous Data mechanism is provided by ________
Link Control) a. logical link control sublayer
b. media access control sublayer
c. network interface control sublayer 14. Which of the following is the multiple
d. application access control sublayer access protocol for channel access control?
Answer: Option(a) a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
9. Header of a frame generally contains c. Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
a. synchronization bytes d. HDLC
b. addresses Answer: Option(c)
c. frame identifier
d. all of the mentioned 15. The technique of temporarily delaying
Answer: Option(d) outgoing acknowledgements so that they can
be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is
called ____________
10. Which sublayer of the data link layer a. piggybacking
performs data link functions that depend upon b. cyclic redundancy check
the type of medium? c. fletcher’s checksum
a. logical link control sublayer d. parity check
b. media access control sublayer Answer: Option(a)
c. network interface control sublayer
d. error control sublayer 16. Which of the following uses a very thin
Answer: Option(b) glass or plastic fiber through which pulses of
light travel?
11. CRC stands for __________
a. cyclic redundancy check a. Cat 1
b. code repeat check b. Optical fiber
c. code redundancy check c. Twisted pair
d. cyclic repeat check d. Coax
Answer: Option(a) Answer: Option(b)
17. When does the station B send a positive

12. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been acknowledgement (ACK) to station A in Stop
changed during the transmission, the error is and Wait protocol?
called _____
a. random error a. only when no error occurs at the
b. burst error transmission level
c. inverted error b. when retransmission of old packet in a
d. double error novel frame is necessary
Answer: Option(b) c. only when station B receives frame
with errors
13. Which of the following is a data link d. all of the above
protocol? Answer: Option(a)
a. ethernet
b. point to point protocol 18. Which consequences are more likely to
c. hdlc occur during the frame transmission in
d. all of the mentioned StopandWait ARQ mechanism?
Answer: Option(d)
a. Loss of frame or an acknowledgement
b. Delay in an acknowledgement a. NRM

c. Normal operation b. ABM
d. All of the above c. Both a & b
Answer: Option(d) d. None of the above
Answer: Option(b)
19. Which provision can resolve / overcome 23. Which category of HDLC frames
the shortcomings associated with duplication undergoes error and flow control mechanisms
or failure condition of Stop and Wait by comprising send and receive sequence
Automatic Repeat Request protocol especially numbers?
due to loss of data frames or non reception of a. Uframes
acknowledgement? b. Iframes
c. Sframes
a. Provision of sequence number in the d. All of the above
header of message Answer: Option(c)
b. Provision of checksum computation
c. Both a & b 24. Which type of Sframe in HDLC exhibit the
d. None of the above correspondence of last three bits [N(R)] by
Answer: Option(a) defining the negative acknowledgement
(NAK) number with the code value of '01'?
20. Which ARQ mechanism deals with the
transmission of only damaged or lost frames a. Receive ready
despite the other multiple frames by increasing b. Receive not ready
the efficiency & its utility in noisy channels? c. Reject
d. Selective Reject
a. GoBackN ARQ Answer: Option(c)
b. Selective Repeat ARQ
c. StopandWait ARQ
d. All of the above 25. Which among the following represents the
Answer: Option(b) objectives/requirements of Data Link Layer?
21. Which feature of Go Back N ARQ a. Frame Synchronization

mechanism possesses an ability to assign the b. Error & Flow Control
sliding window in the forward direction? c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
a. Control Variables Answer: Option(c)
b. Sender Sliding Window
c. Receiver Sliding Window 26. When does the station B send a positive
d. Resending of frames acknowledgement (ACK) to station A in Stop
Answer: Option(b) and Wait protocol?
22. Which operational mode/s of HDLC a. only when no error occurs at the
support/s the balanced configuration by transmission level
governing point to point link connectivity in b. when retransmission of old packet in a
addition to the primary as well as secondary novel frame is necessary
functions performed by the station? c. only when station B receives frame
with errors
d. all of the above b. 2

Answer: Option(a) c. 2.5
27. For pure ALOHA, the maximum channel d. 5
utilization is Answer: Option(b)
a. 100% 32. Let G(x) be the generator polynomial used
b. 50% for CRC checking. What is the condition that
c. 36% should be satisfied by G(x) to detect odd
d. 18% number of bits in error?
Answer: Option(d) a. G(x) contains more than two terms
b. G(x) does not divide 1+x^k, for any k
28. The program used to determine the round not exceeding the frame length
trip delay between a workstation and a c. 1+x is a factor of G(x)
destination address is d. G(x) has an odd number of terms
Answer: Option(c)
a. Tracert
b. Traceroute 33. In Ethernet when Manchester encoding is
c. Ping used, the bit rate is:
d. Pop a. Half the baud rate.
Answer: Option(b) b. Twice the baud rate.
c. Same as the baud rate.
29. What is the difference between the d. None of the above
Ethernet frame preamble field and the IEEE Answer: Option(a)
802.3 preamble and start of frame Delimiter
fields? 34. In a token ring network the transmission
speed is 10^7 bps and the propagation
a. 1 byte speed is 200 metres/micro second. The 1-
b. 1 bit bit delay in this network is equivalent to:
c. 4 bit a. 500 metres of cable.
d. 16 bit b. 200 metres of cable.
Answer: Option(a) c. 20 metres of cable.
d. 50 metres of cable
30. Which of the following approaches to Answer: Option(c)
switching share networks resource?
35. The message 11001001 is to be transmitted
a. Circuit switching using the CRC polynomial x^3 + 1 to
b. Packet switching protect it from errors. The message that
c. Both A and B should be transmitted is:
d. None of these a. 11001001000
Answer: Option(b) b. 11001001011
c. 11001010
31. Determine the maximum length of the d. 110010010011
cable (in km) for transmitting data at a rate of Answer: Option(b)
500 Mbps in an Ethernet LAN with frames of 36. The distance between two stations M and N
size 10,000 bits. Assume the signal speed in is L kilometers. All frames are K bits long.
the cable to be 2,00,000 km/s. The propagation delay per kilometer is t
a. 1 seconds. Let R bits/second be the channel
capacity. Assuming that processing delay is d. 512

negligible, the minimum number of bits for Answer: Option(c)
the sequence number field in a frame for 40. How many 8-bit characters can be
maximum utilization, when the sliding transmitted per second over a 9600 baud
window protocol used is: serial communication link using
asynchronous mode of transmission with
one start bit, eight data bits, two stop bits,
and one parity bit ?
a. 600
b. 800
c. 876
a. A d. 1200
b. B Answer: Option(b)
c. C 41. Consider a CSMA/CD network that
d. D transmits data at a rate of 100 Mbps (108 bits
per second) over a 1 km (kilometre) cable
Answer: Option(c) with no repeaters. If the minimum frame size
37. A bit-stuffing based framing protocol uses required for this network is 1250 bytes, what
an 8-bit delimiter pattern of 01111110. If the is the signal speed (km/sec) in the cable?
output bit-string after stuffing is a. 8000
01111100101, then the input bit-string is b. 10000
a. 0111110100 c. 16000
b. 0111110101 d. 20000
c. 0111111101 Answer: Option(d)
d. 0111111111 42. Which one of the following statements is
Answer: Option(b) FALSE?
38. Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit a. Packet switching leads to better
messages to Station B using a sliding utilization of bandwidth resources than
window protocol. The round trip delay circuit switching.
between A and B is 80 milliseconds and the b. Packet switching results in less
bottleneck bandwidth on the path between A variation in delay than circuit
and B is 128 kbps. What is the optimal switching.
window size that A should use? c. Packet switching requires more per
a. 20 packet processing than circuit
b. 40 switching
c. 160 d. Packet switching can lead to
d. 320 reordering unlike in circuit switching
Answer: Option(b)
Answer: Option(b)
39. Suppose the round trip propagation delay for
a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming 43. Which of the following statements is TRUE
signal is 46.4 ms. The minimum frame size about CSMA/CD
is a. IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN
a. 94 runs CSMA/CD protocol
b. 416 b. Ethernet is not based on
c. 464 CSMA/CD protocol
c. CSMA/CD is not suitable for Answer: Option(b)

a high propagation delay
network like satellite network 47. The minimum frame size required for a
d. There is no contention in a CSMA/CD based computer network
CSMA/CD network running at 1 Gbps on a 200m cable with a
Answer: Option(c) link speed of 2 × 108m/s is
44. A sender uses the Stop-and-Wait ARQ a. 125 bytes
protocol for reliable transmission of frames. b. 250 bytes
Frames are of size 1000 bytes and the c. 500 bytes
transmission rate at the sender is 80 Kbps d. None of these
(1Kbps = 1000 bits/second). Size of an Answer: Option(b)
acknowledgement is 100 bytes and the
transmission rate at the receiver is 8 Kbps.
The one-way propagation delay is 100 48. Suppose that the one-way propagation delay
milliseconds. Assuming no frame is lost, the for a 100 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit
sender throughput is __________ jamming signal is 1.04 micro-seconds. The
bytes/second. minimum frame size in bits is:
a. 2500
b. 2000 a. 112
c. 1500 b. 160
d. 500 c. 208
Answer: Option(a) d. 256
Answer: Option(d)
45. In an Ethernet local area network, which one 49. Which of the following statement is False
of the following statements is TRUE ? about the efficiency of the given channel?
a. A station stops to sense the channel a. If we want to send big packets on the
once it starts transmitting a frame. channel, then Stop and Wait is good
b. The purpose of the jamming signal is choice.
to pad the frames that are smaller than b. If length of packet increases,
the minimum frame size. efficiency of channel also increases.
c. A station continues to transmit the c. Distance between sender and
packet even after the collision is receiver is directly proportional to
detected. efficiency of channel.
d. The exponential backoff mechanism d. Efficient might be less if capacity of
reduces the probability of collision channel is high
on retransmissions
46. How many bytes of data can be sent in 15 50. Consider a link with packet loss probability
seconds over a serial link with baud rate of of 0.2. What is the expected number of
9600 in asynchronous mode with odd parity transmissions it would take to transfer 200
and two stop bits in the frame? packets given that the stop and wait protocol
a. 10,000 bytes is used?
b. 12,000 bytes a. 125
c. 15,000 bytes b. 250
d. 27,000 bytes c. 225
d. 150 Answer: Option(b)

Answer: Option(b)
51. Which of the following devices takes data

sent from one network device and forwards
it to the destination node based on MAC 56. Match the following
address ?
a. Hub
b. Modem
c. Switch
d. Gateway
Answer: Option(c)
52. In Ethernet CSMA/CD, the special bit
sequence transmitted by media access
management to handle collision is called
a. Preamble
b. Postamble
c. Jam a. (1)
d. None of the above b. (2)
Answer: Option(c) c. (3)
d. (4)
53. Let C be a binary linear code with minimum Answer: Option(a)
distance 2t + 1 then it can correct upto _____
bits of error. 57. If the frame to be transmitted is 1101011011
a. t + 1 and the CRC polynomial to be used for
b. t generating checksum is x4+ x + 1, then what
c. t - 2 is the transmitted frame?
d. t / 2 a. 11010110111011
Answer: Option(b) b. 11010110111101
54. In CRC if the data unit is 100111001 and the c. 11010110111110
divisor is 1011 then what is dividend at the d. 11010110111001
receiver? Answer: Option(c)
a. 100111001101
b. 100111001011 58. What will be the efficiency of a Stop and
c. 100111001 Wait protocol, if the transmission time for a
d. 100111001110 frame is 20ns and the propagation time is
Answer: Option(b) 30ns?
a. 20%
55. A certain population of ALOHA users b. 25%
manages to generate 70 request/sec. If the c. 40%
time is slotted in units of 50 msec, then d. 66%
channel load would be Answer: Option(b)
a. 4.25
b. 3.5 59. Bit stuffing refers to
c. 350 a. inserting a 0 in user stream
d. 450 to differentiate it with a flag
b. inserting a 0 in flag stream to

avoid ambiguity
c. appending a nipple to the flag
sequence
d. appending a nipple to the use
data stream
Answer: Option(a)
60. _______ can detect burst error of length less

than or equal to degree of the polynomial
and detects burst errors that affect odd
number of bits.
a. Hamming Code
b. CRC
c. VRC
Answer: Option(b)
Unit-III
Answer: Option(c)
1. The network layer is concerned with
__________ of data.
a. bits
b. frames 6. Which of the following routing algorithms
c. packets can be used for network layer design?
d. bytes a. shortest path algorithm
Answer: Option(c) b. distance vector routing
2. Which one of the following is not a function
c. link state routing
of network layer? d. all of the mentioned
a. routing Answer: Option(b)
b. inter-networking 7. A subset of a network that includes all the
c. congestion control routers but contains no loops is called
d. error control ________
Answer: Option(d) a. spanning tree
b. spider structure
3. In virtual circuit network each packet c. spider tree
contains ___________ d. special tree
Answer: Option(a)
a. full source and destination address 8. Which one of the following algorithm is not
b. a short VC number used for congestion control?
c. only source address
d. only destination address a. traffic aware routing
Answer: Option(b) b. admission control
c. load shedding
d. routing information protocol
4. Which of the following is not correct in Answer: Option(d)
relation to multi-destination routing?
a. is same as broadcast routing 9. ICMP is primarily used for __________

b. contains the list of all destinations
c. data is not sent by packets a. error and diagnostic functions
d. there are multiple receivers b. addressing
Answer: Option(c) c. forwarding
d. routing
5. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________ Answer: Option(a)
10. The network layer contains which
a. only network address hardware device?
b. only host address
c. network address & host address a. Routers, Bridges
d. network address & MAC address b. Bridges only
c. Bridges and switches d. The devices that operates at

d. Routers, Bridges and Switches network
Answer: Option(d) Answer: Option(d)
11. Network layer protocol exits in _________ 16. ICMP stands for __________
a. Host a. Internet Coordinate Message Protocol

b. Switches b. Internet Control Message Protocol
c. Packets c. Interconnect Control Message
d. Bridges Protocol
Answer: Option(a) d. Interconnect Coordinate Message
Protocol
Answer: Option(b)
12. What are the common protocols associated 17. Packets will be transferred in how many
with the network layer? types?
a. Address Resolution Protocol a. 5 types
b. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol b. 4 types
c. Internet protocol c. 2 types
d. Neighbour Discovery Protocol d. 3 types
Answer: Option(c) Answer: Option(d)
18. RIP stands for ________
13. The network layer responds to request a. Reduced Information Protocol
from which layer? b. Routing Internet Protocol
a. Transport layer c. Routing Information Protocol
b. Data layer d. Reduced Internet Protocol
c. Application layer Answer: Option(c)
19. DDP stands for _________
d. Session layer
Answer: Option(a) a. Datagram Delivery Protocol
b. Device Delivery Protocol
c. Datagram Device Protocol
14. The network layer issues request to which
layer? d. Device Datagram Protocol
Answer: Option(a)
a. Transport layer 20. Which level is the network layer in the OSI
b. Data layer model?
c. Application layer
d. Session layer a. Third level
Answer: Option(b) b. Fourth level
c. Second level
d. Fifth layer
15. What are called routers? Answer: Option(a)
21. Which of the following is correct IPv4
a. The devices that operates at session address?
layer
b. The devices that operates at data layer a. 124.201.3.1.52
c. The devices that operates at b. 01.200.128.123
application layer c. 300.142.210.64
d. 128.64.0.0 b. Masking
Answer: Option(d) c. Fragmenting
22. How many versions available of IP? d. Hopping
Answer: Option(a)
a. 6 version
b. 4 version
c. 2 version 28. Which field/s of ICMPv6 packet header
d. 1 version has/have a provision of minimal integrity level
Answer: Option(c) concerning to verification for ICMP
23. The term IPv4 stands for? messages?
a. Internet Protocol Version 4 a. Type

b. Internet Programming Version 4 b. Code
c. International Programming Version 4 c. Checksum
d. None of these d. All of the above
Answer: Option(a) Answer: Option(c)
24. Which of the following IP address class is
Multicast?
29. Which among the below stated datagram
a. Class A discard code fields in ICMP is/are generated if
b. Class B a router fails to forward a packet due to
c. Class C administrative filtering?
d. Class D
Answer: Option(d) a. Source Route Failed
25. Which form of byte assigning strategy is b. Communication Administratively
adopted in class B type of network Prohibited
corresponding to IP addresses? c. Host Precedence Violation
d. Precedence Cut-off in Effect
a. Network.Node.Node.Node Answer: Option(b)
b. Network.Network.Node.Node 30. What are the problems involved in an IP
c. Network.Network.Network.Node Fragmentation Process?
d. Network.Node.Node.Node
Answer: Option(b) A. Loss of any fragment results in
26. On which factors do the size of block rejection of all datagrams
depends in classless addressing? B. Management of buffer space is
essential to handle reassembly process
a. Nature & size of an entity C. No necessity of initializing the timer
b. Number of addresses after the reception of initial fragment
c. Availability of the address space D. Multiple attempts can be made to
d. All of the above recover ICMP error message due to
Answer: Option(a) connection-oriented IP service
a. A & B
27. The ability of a single network to span
multiple physical networks is known as b. C & D
______ c. B& C
a. Subnetting
d. A & D
Answer: Option(a) 34. For which one of the following reasons

does Internet Protocol (IP) use the time-to-
31. In an IPv4 datagram, the M bit is 0, the live (TTL) field in the IP datagram header?
value of HLEN is 10, the value of total length
is 400 and the fragment offset value is 300. a. Ensure packets reach destination
The position of the datagram, the sequence within that time
numbers of the first and the last bytes of the b. Discard packets that reach later than
payload, respectively are that time
c. Prevent packets from looping
a. Last fragment, 2400 and 2789 indefinitely
b. First fragment, 2400 and 2759 d. Limit the time for which a packet gets
c. Last fragment, 2400 and 2759 queued in intermediate routers.
d. Middle fragment, 300 and 689 Answer: Option(c)
Answer: Option(c) 35. Which of the following statements is
32. Consider a source computer(S) transmitting TRUE?
a file of size 106 bits to a destination computer
(D)over a network of two routers (R1 and R2) a. Both Ethernet frame and IP packet
and three links(L1, L2, and L3). L1connects S include checksum fields
to R1; L2 connects R1 to R2; and L3 connects b. Ethernet frame includes a checksum
R2 to D. Let each link be of length 100 km. field and IP packet includes a CRC
Assume signals travel over each link at a speed field
of 108 meters per second. Assume that the link c. Ethernet frame includes a CRC
bandwidth on each link is 1Mbps. Let the file field and IP packet includes a
be broken down into 1000 packets each of size checksum field
1000 bits. Find the total sum of transmission d. Both Ethernet frame and IP packet
and propagation delays in transmitting the file include CRC fields
from S to D? Answer: Option(c)
a. 1005 ms
b. 1010 ms 36. Which of the following assertions is
c. 3000 ms FALSE about the Internet Protocol (IP)?
d. 3003 ms
Answer: Option(a) a. It is possible for a computer to have
multiple IP addresses
33. One of the header fields in an IP datagram b. IP packets from the same source to the
is the Time to Live (TTL) field. Which of the same destination can take different
following statements best explains the need for routes in the network
this field? c. IP ensures that a packet is discarded if
it is unable to reach its destination
a. It can be used to prioritize packets within a given number of hops
b. It can be used to reduce delays d. The packet source cannot set the
c. It can be used to optimize throughput route of an outgoing packets; the
d. It can be used to prevent packet route is determined only by the
looping routing tables in the routers on the
Answer: Option(d) way
Answer: Option(d)
37. An organization is granted the block c. Reach agreement with other routers
130.34.12.64/26. It needs to have 4 subnets. about the network topology
Which of the following is not an address of d. All of the above
this organization? Answer: Option(d)
a. 130.34.12.124
b. 130.34.12.89 41. When a host on network A sends a message
c. 130.34.12.70 to a host on network B, which address does
d. 130.34.12.132 the router look at?
Answer: Option(d) a. Port
b. IP
38. An IP datagram of size 1000 bytes arrives c. Physical
at a router. The router has to forward this d. Subnet mask
packet on a link whose MTU (maximum Answer: Option(b)
transmission unit) is 100 bytes. Assume that 42. For n devices in a network, ________
the size of the IP header is 20 bytes. The number of duplex-mode links are required
number of fragments that the IP datagram will for a mesh topology.
be divided into for transmission is : a. n(n + 1)
b. n (n – 1)
a. 10 c. n(n + 1)/2
b. 50 d. n(n – 1)/2
c. 12 Answer: Option(d)
d. 13 43. __________ is a bit-oriented protocol for
communication over point-to-point and
Answer: Option(d) multipoint links.
a. Stop-and-wait
b. HDLC
39. In an IPv4 datagram, the M bit is 0, the
c. Sliding window
d. Go-back-N
is 400 and the fragment offset value is 300.
Answer: Option(c)
The position of the datagram, the sequence
44. In Challenge-Response authentication the
numbers of the first and the last bytes of the
claimant ________.
payload, respectively are
a. Proves that she knows the secret
a. Last fragment, 2400 and 2789 without revealing it
b. First fragment, 2400 and 2759 b. Proves that she doesn’t know the
c. Last fragment, 2400 and 2759 secret
d. Middle fragment, 300 and 689 c. Reveals the secret
Answer: Option(c) d. Gives a challenge
Answer: Option(a)
45. An organization is granted the block
40. Dynamic routing protocol enable routers to 130.34.12.64/26. It needs to have 4 subnets.
Which of the following is not an address of
a. Dynamically discover and maintain
this organization?
routes
a. 130.34.12.124
b. Distribute routing updates to other
b. 130.34.12.89
routers
c. 130.34.12.70
d. 130.34.12.132 d. 10 Mbps
Answer: Option(d)
51. Dynamic routing protocol enable routers to
46. A pure ALOHA Network transmits 200 bit a. Dynamically discover and maintain
frames using a shared channel with 200 routes
Kbps bandwidth. If the system (all stations b. Distribute routing updates to other
put together) produces 500 frames per routers
second, then the throughput of the system is c. Reach agreement with other routers
______. about the network topology
a. 0.384 d. All of the above
b. 0.184
c. 0.286 Answer: Option(d)
d. 0.58 52. The address of a class B host is to be split
Answer: Option(b) into subnets with a 6-bit subnet number.
47. IPv6 does not support which of the What is the maximum number of subnets
following addressing modes? and the maximum number of hosts in each
a. unicast addressing subnet?
b. multicast addressing a. 62 subnets and 262142 hosts.
c. broadcast addressing b. 64 subnets and 262142 hosts.
d. anycast addressing c. 62 subnets and 1022 hosts.
d. 64 subnets and 1024 hosts
Answer: Option(c)
Answer: Option(c)
48. What is IP class and number of sub-
networks if the subnet mask is 255.224.0.0? 53. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can
a. Class A, 3 pass only an average of 12,000 frames per
b. Class A, 8 minute with each frame carrying an average
c. Class B, 3 of 10,000 bits. What is the throughput of
d. Class B, 32 this network ?
a. 1 Mbps
Answer: Option(b) b. 2 Mbps
49. Which of the following is not a congestion c. 10 Mbps
policy at network layer? d. 12 Mbps
a. Flow Control Policy Answer: Option(b)
b. Packet Discard Policy 54. Suppose transmission rate of a channel is
c. Packet Lifetime Management Policy 32 kbps. If there are ‘8’ routes from source
d. Routing Algorithm to destination and each packet p contains
Answer: Option(a) 8000 bits. Total end to end delay in sending
50. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can packet P is _____.
pass only an average of 15,000 frames per a. 2 sec
minute with each frame carrying an average b. 3 sec
of 8,000 bits. What is the throughput of this c. 4 sec
network? d. 1 sec
a. 2 Mbps Answer: Option(a)
b. 60 Mbps
c. 120 Mbps
55. Which of the following routing technique / 59. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, which one of
techniques is / are used in distributed the following is NOT part of the IP header?
systems ? a. Fragment Offset
A. Fixed Routing b. Source IP address
B. Virtual Routing c. Destination IP address
C. Dynamic Routing d. Destination port number
Answer: Option(d)
a. A Only 60. In the network 200.10.11.144/27, the fourth
b. A and B only octet (in decimal) of the last IP address of
c. C only the network which can be assigned to a host
d. All A,B,C is ________
a. 158
Answer: Option(a) b. 255
56. Consider the given network implementation c. 222
scenario. For the given classful NID d. 223
199.10.20.0/24, the requirement is to create Answer: Option(a)
13 subnets. With given details, find the
range of first and last valid IP in 15th 61. Which one of the following fields of an IP
subnet. header is NOT modified by a typical IP
a. 199.10.20.208 to 199.10.20.222 router?
b. 199.10.20.225 to 199.10.20.238 a. Checksum
c. 199.10.20.193 to 199.10.20.206 b. Source address
d. Not of these c. Time to Live (TTL)
d. Length
Answer: Option(b) Answer: Option(b)
57. __________ do not take their decisions on 62. If a Company require 60 hosts then What is
measurements or estimates of the current the best possible subnet mask?
traffic and topology. a. 255.255.255.0
a. Static algorithms b. 255.255.255.192
b. Adaptive algorithms c. 255.255.225.224
c. Non - adaptive algorithms d. 225.225.255.240
d. Recursive algorithms Answer: Option(b)
Answer: Option(c)
63. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is
58. A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask used for
of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum a. Finding the IP address from the DNS
number of hosts that can belong to this b. Finding the IP address of the default
subnet? gateway
a. 14 c. Finding the IP address that
b. 30 corresponds to a MAC address
c. 62 d. Finding the MAC address that
d. 126 corresponds to an IP address
Answer: Option(c)
Answer: Option(d)
Unit-IV
1. Transport layer aggregates data from c. wins

different applications into a single stream d. sockwi
before passing it to ____________ Answer: Option(d)
6. An endpoint of an inter-process
a. network layer communication flow across a computer
b. data link layer network is called
c. application layer
d. physical layer a. socket
Answer: Option(a) b. pipe
2. Which of the following are transport layer c. port
protocols used in networking? d. machine
Answer: Option(a)
a. TCP and FTP
b. UDP and HTTP 7. Which one of the following is a version of
c. TCP and UDP UDP with congestion control?
d. HTTP and FTP
Answer: Option(c) a. datagram congestion control
3. User datagram protocol is called protocol
connectionless because _____________ b. stream control transmission protocol
c. structured stream transport
a. all UDP packets are treated d. user congestion control protocol
independently by transport layer Answer: Option(a)
b. it sends data as a stream of related
packets 8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport
c. it is received in the same order as sent service access point.
order a. port
d. it sends data very quickly b. pipe
Answer: Option(a) c. node
4. Transmission control protocol ___________ d. protocol
a. is a connection-oriented protocol Answer: Option(a)
b. uses a three way handshake to 9. Transport layer protocols deals with _____
establish a connection
c. receives data from application as a a. application to application
single stream communication
d. all of the mentioned b. process to process communication
Answer: Option(d) c. node to node communication
5. Socket-style API for windows is called d. man to man communication
____________ Answer: Option(b)
a. wsock 10. Which of the following is a transport layer

b. winsock protocol?
a. stream control transmission 17. Buffer overrun can be reduced by using

protocol what?
b. internet control message protocol a. Traffic control
c. neighbor discovery protocol b. Flow control
d. dynamic host configuration protocol c. Byte orientation
Answer: Option(a) d. Data integrity
11. What are the functions of the transport Answer: Option(b)
layer? 18. Transport layer can identify the symptoms
a. Multiplexing/ Demultiplexing of overload nodes using _________
b. Connection less Services a. Flow control
c. Connection oriented service b. Traffic control
d. Congestion control c. Byte orientation
Answer: Option(a) d. Data integrity
12. Which services are provided by transport Answer: Option(b)
layer? 19. Transport layer is which layer in OSI
a. Error control model?
b. Connection service a. Fourth layer
c. Connection less service b. Third layer
d. Congestion control c. Second layer
Answer: Option(a) d. Fifth layer\
13. TCP and UDP are called ________ Answer: Option(a)
a. Application protocols 20. Congestion control can control traffic entry
b. Session protocols into a telecommunications network, so to
c. Transport protocols avoid _________
d. Network protocols a. Congestive connection
Answer: Option(c) b. Connection collapse
14. Security based connection is provided by c. Congestive collapse
which layer? d. Collapse congestive
a. Network layer Answer: Option(c)
b. Session layer 21. FCP stands for _________
c. Application layer a. Fiber Channel Protocol
d. Transport layer b. Field Channel Protocol
Answer: Option(d) c. Fast Channel Protocol
15. TCP is the standard protocol with std no? d. Fiber Carrying Protocol
a. 5 Answer: Option(a)
b. 4 22. UDP packets are called as _________
c. 7 a. Segments
d. 3 b. Checksum
Answer: Option(c) c. Frames
16. Using which method in transport layer data d. Datagrams
integrity can be ensured? Answer: Option(d)
a. Checksum
b. Repetition codes 23._________ does not provide reliable end to
c. Cyclic redundancy checks end communication.
d. Error correcting codes a. TCP
Answer: Option(a) b. UDP
c. Both TCP and UDP c. stop incoming traffic from a specific

d. Neither TCP nor UDP IP address but allow outgoing traffic
Answer: Option(b) to the same IP address
24. ARQ stands for __________ d. block TCP traffic from a specific
a. Automatic Repeat Request user on a multi-user system during
b. Automatic Request Repeat 9:00PM and 5:00AM
c. Application Repeat Request Answer: Option(d)
d. Application Request Repeat
Answer: Option(a) 29. Which of the following system calls results
25. The transport layer protocols used for real in the sending of SYN packets?
time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and email, a. socket
respectively are: b. bind
a. TCP, UDP, UDP and TCP c. listen
b. UDP, TCP, TCP and UDP d. connect
c. UDP, TCP, UDP and TCP Answer: Option(d)
d. TCP, UDP, TCP and UDP
Answer: Option(c) 30. In the slow start phase of the TCP
26. Which of the following transport layer congestion control algorithm, the size of the
protocols is used to support electronic mail? congestion window
a. SMTP a. does not increase

b. IP b. increases linearly
c. TCP c. increases quadratically
d. UDP d. increases exponentially
27. Consider an instance of TCP’s Additive
Increase Multiplicative Decrease (AIMD) 31. Which one of the following uses UDP as
algorithm where the window size at the start of the transport protocol?
the slow start phase is 2 MSS and the a. HTTP
threshold at the start of the first transmission is b. Telnet
8 MSS. Assume that a timeout occurs during c. DNS
the fifth transmission. Find the congestion d. SMTP
window size at the end of the tenth Answer: Option(c)
transmission.
a. 8 MSS 32. the maximum window size for data
b. 14 MSS transmission using the selective reject
c. 7 MSS protocol with n-bit frame sequence
d. 12 MSS numbers is:
Answer: Option(c) a. 2^n
28. A layer-4 firewall (a device that can look b. 2^(n-1)
at all protocol headers up to the transport c. 2^n – 1
layer) CANNOT d. 2^(n-2)
a. block entire HTTP traffic during Answer: Option(b)
9:00PM and 5 :0OAM 33. Which of the following is NOT true about
b. block all ICMP traffic User Datagram Protocol in transport layer?
a. Works well in unidirectional Answer: Option(c)

communication, suitable for broadcast
information. 37. Suppose there are n stations in a slotted
b. It does three way handshake before LAN. Each station attempts to transmit
sending datagrams with a probability P in each time slot. The
c. It provides datagrams, suitable for probability that only one station transmits
modeling other protocols such as in IP in a given slot is _______.
tunneling or Remote Procedure Call
and the Network File System
d. The lack of retransmission delays a. nP(1 – P)n – 1
makes it suitable for real-time b. nP
applications c. P(1 – P)n – 1
d. nP(1 – P)n – 1
Answer: Option(b) Answer: Option(a)
34. Identify the correct order in which a server 38. What is the maximum size of data that the
process must invoke the function calls application layer can pass on to the TCP
accept, bind, listen, and recv according to layer below?
UNIX socket API a. Any size
a. listen, accept, bind recv b. 216 bytes - size of TCP header
b. bind, listen, accept, recv c. 216 bytes
c. bind, accept, listen, recv d. 1500
d. accept, listen, bind, recv Answer: Option(a)
Answer: Option(b)
39. An ACK number of 1000 in TCP always
35. Consider the following statements. means that
I. TCP connections are full duplex. a. 999 bytes have been successfully
II. TCP has no option for selective received
acknowledgment b. 1000 bytes have been successfully
III. TCP connections are message received
streams. c. 1001 bytes have been successfully
a. Only I is correct received
b. Only I and II are correct d. None of the above
c. Only II and III are correct Answer: Option(d)
d. All of I, II and III are correct
40. Suppose you are browsing the world wide
Answer: Option(a) web using a web browser and trying to
access the web servers. What is the
36. Generally TCP is reliable and UDP is not underlying protocol and port number that
reliable. DNS which has to be reliable uses are being used?
UDP because a. UDP, 80
a. UDP is slower b. TCP, 80
b. DNS servers has to keep connections c. TCP, 25
c. DNS requests are generally very d. UDP, 25
small and fit well within UDP Answer: Option(b)
segments
d. None of these
41. If link transmits 4000 frames per second

and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission 46. The maximum payload of a TCP segment
rate of circuit of this TDM is ______. is:
a. 64 Kbps a. 65,535
b. 32 Mbps b. 65,515
c. 32 Kbps c. 65,495
d. 64 MbpS d. 65,475
Answer: Option(c) Answer: Option(c)
42. Which algorithm is used to shape the bursty 47. Silly Window Syndrome is related to
traffic into a fixed rate traffic by averaging a. Error during transmission
the data rate? b. File transfer protocol
a. solid bucket algorithm c. Degrade in TCP performance
b. spanning tree algorithm d. Interface problem
c. hocken helm algorithm
d. leaky bucket algorithm Answer: Option(c)
Answer: Option(d)
48. SSL is not responsible for
43. Four channels are multiplexed using TDM. a. Mutual authentication of client &
If each channel sends 100 bytes/second and server
we multiplex 1 byte per channel, then the b. Secret communication
bit rate for the link is __________. c. Data Integrity protection
a. 400 bps d. Error detection and correction
b. 800 bps Answer: Option(d)
c. 1600 bps 49. Which of the following is not a field in
d. 3200 bps TCP header?
Answer: Option(d) a. Sequence number
44. A device is sending out data at the rate of b. Fragment offset
2000 bps. How long does it take to send a c. Checksum
file of 1,00,000 characters ? d. Window size
a. 50 Answer: Option(b)
b. 200 50. To guarantee correction of upto t errors, the
c. 400 minimum Hamming distance d min in a
d. 800 block code must be ________.
Answer: Option(c) a. t+1
45. The TCP sliding window b. t−2
c. 2t−1
a. can be used to control the flow of d. 2t+1
information Answer: Option(d)
b. always occurs when the field value is
0
c. always occurs when the field value is
1
d. occurs horizontally
Answer: Option(a)
Unit-V
1. The ____ layer is the network dialog
controller. 6. The functionalities of the presentation layer
a. network include ____________
b. transport a. Data compression
c. session b. Data encryption
d. presentation c. Data description
Answer: Option(c) d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option(d)
2. The ____ layer establishes, maintains, and
synchronizes the interaction between 7. Encryption and decryption are functions of
communicating systems. which layer?
a. network a. transport
b. transport b. session
c. session c. application
d. presentation d. presentation
3. The session layer lies between the 8. Which of the following layers of the OSI
______layer and the presentation layer. reference model is concerned with the syntax
a. network of data exchanged between application
b. transport entities?
c. data link a. Presentation layer
d. application b. Application layer
Answer: Option(b) c. Transportation layer
d. Session layer
4. The _____ layer lies between the session Answer: Option(a)
layer and he application layer.
a. network 9. In respect of OSI model, LANs implement
b. transport a. lower two layers
c. data link b. all seven layers
d. presentation c. upper five layers
Answer: Option(d) d. None of the above
Answer: Option(b)
5. The _____ layer uses data compression to
reduce the number of bits to be transmitted.
a. presentation 10. In OSI model, which of the following layer
b. network transforms information from machine format
c. data link into that understandable by user
d. application a. application
Answer: Option(a) b. session
c. presentation c. Transport layer

d. physical d. Link layer
Answer: Option(c) Answer: Option(b)
11. Which network component/s is/are 16. Which of the following layers is an
involved in the Presentation layer of an OSI addition to OSI model when compared with
model? TCP IP model?
a. Gateway a. Application layer
b. Multiplexer & Oscilloscope b. Presentation layer
c. Amplifier & Hub c. Session layer
d. All of the above d. Session and Presentation layer
Answer: Option(a) Answer: Option(d)
12. Which OSI layer assumes responsibility 17. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves
for managing network connections between from the lower to the upper layers, headers are
applications? a. Added
a. Network layer b. Removed
b. Data link layer c. Rearranged
c. Application layer d. Randomized
d. Session layer Answer: Option(b)
Answer: Option(d)
18. Which of the following statements can be
13. The _______ layer ensures interoperability associated with OSI model?
between communicating devices through a. A structured way to discuss and easier
transformation of data into a mutually agreed update system components
upon format. b. One layer may duplicate lower layer
functionality
a. network c. Functionality at one layer no way
b. presentation requires information from another
c. transport layer
d. data link d. It is an application specific network
Answer: Option(b) model
Answer: Option(b)
14. In OSI model, when data is sent from
device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive 19. In OSI model, session layer is responsible
data at B is _________ for
a. Application layer a. Recovery
b. Transport layer b. Check pointing
c. Link layer c. Both a and b
d. Session layer d. None of the above
15. Delimiting and synchronization of data 20. In which layer of OSI client send request
exchange is provided by __________ to the server?
a. Application layer a. Application layer
b. Session layer b. Presentation layer
c. Session layer Answer: Option(d)

d. Transport layer
Answer: Option(c) 26. Which of the following is an application
layer service?
21. What is the main function of Session layer a. Remote log-in
in OSI model? b. File transfer and access
a. Defines how data is formatted c. Mail service
between the devices d. All of the above
b. Made physical connection between Answer: Option(d)
server and client
c. Both a and b 27. Which DNS client maps an address to a
d. None of the above name or a name to an address especially
Answer: Option(a) when required by a host?
22. Sometimes, Session layer is also called a. Resolver

______ layer b. Mapper
c. Primary Server
a. Virtual layer d. Secondary Server
b. Port layer Answer: Option(a)
c. Segmentation layer
d. Process layer 28. Which application-level protocol plays a
Answer: Option(b) crucial role in carrying out the data
definition and manipulation in addition to
23. In which layer of OSI session is first check X-500 features?
and then data is transmitted
a. TCP
a. Application layer b. LDAP
b. Presentation layer c. FTP
c. Session layer d. None of the above
d. Transport layer Answer: Option(b)
Answer: Option(c)
29. Which intermediaries are more likely to
24. Which of the following is the session layer get involved during the transfer function
protocol or service? of an e-mail system?
a. SPDY
b. NetBIOS a. Storage and forwarding of e-mail for
c. PPTP certain addresses
d. SAP b. Act as gateways to other e-mail or
Answer: Option(c) messaging systems
25. TELNET, FTP, SMTP, Protocols fall in c. Both a & b
the following layer of OSI reference d. None of the above
model? Answer: Option(c)
a. Transport layer 30. Which among the below specified
b. Internet layer illustrations belongs to the category of
c. Network layer GUI based user agents?
d. Application layer
a. mail d. OPTION
b. pine Answer: Option(c)
c. Outlook & Netscape 34. Which language in WWW specifies a
d. All of the above web's way by describing three-
Answer: Option(c) dimensional objects?
a. HTML
31. Which phase/s of POP3 allow/s an user b. VRML
agent to retrieve the messages as well as c. XML
to mark the messages for deletion d. UML
purpose? Answer: Option(b)
35. Which field of cookie in WWW
a. Authorization Phase represents the server's directory structure
b. Transaction Phase by identifying the utilization of part
c. Update Phase associated with server's file tree?
d. All of the above
Answer: Option(b) a. Domain
b. Path
32. Consider the assertions given below. c. Content
Which among them prove to be beneficial d. Secure
for Persistent HTTP connections? Answer: Option(b)
A. Reduction in latency over the sub- 36. Which among the below mentioned
sequent requests protocols provides a mechanism of
B. Pipeline-oriented connection over the acquiring an IP address without manual
requests and responses intervention in addition to plug and play
C. Increase in number of packets due to type of networking?
TCP opens
D. Prevention in opening and closing of a. BOOTP
some TCP connections b. DHCP
c. Both a & b
a. A & B d. None of the above
b. C & D Answer: Option(b)
c. A & C
d. B & B 37. Which of the following layers of the OSI
Answer: Option(a) model is responsible for user interaction?
a. Layer 4
33. Which URL method of HTTP performs b. Layer 5
similar function as that of PUT method c. Layer 6
only with an exception of request d.Layer 7
comprising a list of differences that Answer: Option(d)
exhibit the necessity to get implemented
in the existing file? 38. What occurs in the session layer?
a. Data compression and encryption
a. POST b. MAC address are handled
b. GET c. binary to decimal conversion
c. PATCH d.sessions are created
Answer: Option(d) 44. In the SMTP herder field_____ is added

by the final transport system that delivers
39. Which of the following is/are the the mail.
important applications of the application a. Reply-to
layer? b. Return-path
a. Electronic mail c. Subject
b. World Wide Web d. From
c. USENET Answer: Option(b)
d.All of the above
Answer: Option(d)
40. The TCP/IP …………corresponds to the 45. In SMTP mail transaction flow, the
combined session, presentation, and sender SMTP establishes a TCP
application layers of the OSI model. connection with the destination SMTP
a. session layer and then waits for the server to send a
b. presentation layer ……….
c. application layer a. 220 service ready message
d. None of the above b. 421 service not available message
Answer: Option(c) c. Both of the above
41. The ……… protocol is based on end-to- Answer: Option(c)
end delivery.
a. SMTP 46. In the MIME header field____describes
b. TCP how the object within the body is to be
c. IP interpreted.
d. SCTP a. content-type
Answer: Option(a) b. content-transfer-encoding
c. content-description
42. The well-known port of the SMTP server d. content-id
is ……. Answer: Option(a)
a. 110
b. 25 47. In the MIME header field, ____describes
c. 50 how the object within the body was
d. 20 encoded in order that it be included in the
Answer: Option(b) message using a mail-safe form.
a. content-type
b. content-transfer-encoding
43. In the SMTP header field_____ is a c. content-description
summary of the message being sent which d. content-id
is specified by the sender. Answer: Option(b)
a. Reply-to
b. Return-path 48. In a/an ………… of DNS resolver, the
c. Subject queried name server can return the best
d. From answer it currently has back to the DNS
Answer: Option(c) resolver.
a. Recursive queries
b. Iterative queries
c. Reverse queries 54. The ASCII encoding of binary data is

d. Inverse queries called
Answer: Option(b) a. base 64 encoding
49. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent b. base 32 encoding
to the combined session, presentation, and c. base 16 encoding
application layers of the OSI model. d. base 8 encoding
a. data link Answer: Option(a)
b. network
c. physical 55. Consider different activities related to
d.application email:
Answer: Option(d) m1: Send an email from a mail client to a mail
server
50. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from m2: Download an email from mailbox server
device A to device B, the 5th layer to to a mail client
receive data at B is ____________ m3: Checking email in a web browser
a. Application layer Which is the application level protocol used in
b. Transport layer each activity?
c. Link layer a. m1: HTTP m2: SMTP m3: POP
d. Session layer b. m1: SMTP m2: FTP m3: HTTP
Answer: Option(a) c. m1: SMTP m2: POP m3: HTTP
d. m1: POP m2: SMTP m3: IMAP
51. Which layer provides the services to user?
a. application layer Answer: Option(c)
b. session layer
c. presentation layer 56. Identify the correct order in which the
d. physical layer following actions take place in an
Answer: Option(a) interaction between a web browser and a
web server.
52. Application layer protocol defines ____ 1. The web browser requests a
a. types of messages exchanged webpage using HTTP.
b. message format, syntax and semantics 2. The web browser establishes a TCP
c. rules for when and how processes send connection with the web server.
and respond to messages 3. The web server sends the requested
d.all of the mentioned webpage using HTTP.
Answer: Option(d) 4. The web browser resolves the
domain name using DNS.
53. Which one of the following allows a user a. 4,2,1,3
at one site to establish a connection to b. 1,2,3,4
another site and then pass keystrokes c. 4,1,2,3
from local host to remote host? d. 2,4,1,3
a. HTTP
b. FTP Answer: Option(a)
c. Telnet
d. TCP 57. In one of the pairs of protocols given
Answer: Option(c) below, both the protocols can use
multiple TCP connections between the
same client and the server. Which one is

that? 61. Which of the following protocols is used
a. HTTP, FTP by email server to maintain a central
b. HTTP, TELNET repository that can be accessed from any
c. FTP, SMTP machine ?
d. HTTP, SMTP a. POP3
Answer: Option(a) b. IMAP
c. SMTP
d. DMSP
Answer: Option(b)
58. Which one of the following statements is 62. A packet filtering firewall can
NOT correct about HTTP cookies? a. deny certain users from accessing a
a. A cookies is a piece of code that has service
the potential to compromise the b. block worms and viruses from
security of an Internet user entering the network
b. A cookie gains entry to the user’s c. disallow some files from being
work area through an HTTP header accessed through FTP
c. A cookie has an expiry date and time d. block some hosts from accessing the
d. Cookies can be used to track the network
browsing pattern of a user at a
particular site Answer: Option(d)
Answer: Option(a) 63. Which of the following protocols is an

59. Which of the following is/are example(s) application layer protocol that establishes,
of stateful application layer protocols? manages and terminates multimedia
(i) HTTP sessions ?
(ii) FTP a. Session Maintenance Protocol
(iii) TCP b. Real - time Streaming Protocol
(iv) POP3 c. Real - time Transport Control Protocol
d. Session Initiation Protocol
a. (i) and (ii) only Answer: Option(d)
b. (ii) and (iii) only
c. (ii) and (iv) only 64. What is the size of the ‘total length’ field
d. (iv) only in IPv4 datagram?
a. 4 bit
Answer: Option(c) b. 8 bit
c. 16 bit
60. Which of the following protocol is used d. 32 bit
for transferring electronic mail messages Answer: Option(c)
from one machine to another?
a. TELNET 65. What is one advantage of setting up a
b. FTP DMZ(Demilitarized Zone) with two
c. SNMP firewalls?
d. SMTP a. You can control where traffic goes
in the three networks
Answer: Option(d) b. You can do stateful packet filtering
c. You can do load balancing

d. Improve network performance
Answer: Option(a)
Practice Set
Set-1
1. The computer network is D) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
A) Network computer with cable 8. Which of the following is an application
B) Network computer without cable layer service?
C) Both of the above
A) Network virtual terminal
D) None of the above
B) File transfer, access and management
2. FDDI used which type of physical
C) Mail service
topology?
D) All of the above
A) Bus 9. Which is the main function of transport
B) Ring layer?
C) Star
A) Node to node delivery
D) Tree
B) End to end delivery
3. FTP stands for
C) Synchronization
A) File transfer protocol d) Updating and maintaining routing tables
B) File transmission protocol 10. The .............. layer change bits onto
C) Form transfer protocol electromagnetic signals.
D) Form transmission protocol A) Physical
4. Ethernet system uses which of the
B) Transport
following technology.
C) Data Link
A) Bus D) Presentation
B) Ring 11. In mesh topology, relationship between
C) Star one device and another is ..............
D) Tree A) Primary to peer
5. Which of the following are the network B) Peer to primary
services?
C) Primary to secondary
A) File service D) Peer to Peer
B) Print service 12. The performance of data communications
C) Database service network depends on ..............
D) All of the above A) Number of users
6. If all devices are connected to a central
B) The hardware and software
hub, then topology is called
C) The transmission
A) Bus Topology D) All of the above
B) Ring Topology 13. Find out the OSI layer, which performs
C) Star Topology token management.
D) Tree Topology A) Network Layer
7. FDDI stands for
B) Transport Layer
A) Fiber Distributed Data Interface C) Session Layer
B) Fiber Data Distributed Interface D) Presentation Layer
C) Fiber Dual Distributed Interface
14. The name of the protocol which provides

virtual terminal in TCP/IP model is. Answers:
A) Telnet 1. C) Both of the above
B) SMTP 2. B) Ring
C) HTTP 3. A) File transfer protocol
15. The layer one of the OSI model is 4. A) Bus
5. D) All of the above
A) Physical layer
6. C) Star Topology
B) Link layer
7. A) Fiber Distributed Data
C) Router layer
Interface
D) Broadcast layer
8. C) Mail service
16. What is the name of the network
9. B) End to end delivery
topology in which there are bi-
10. A) Physical
directional links between each possible
11. D) Peer to Peer
node?
A) Ring
13. C) Session Layer
B) Star
14. A) Telnet
C) Tree
15. A) Physical layer
D) Mesh 16. D) Mesh
17. What is the commonly used unit for 17. B) Baud
measuring the speed of data 18. B) Half-duplex
transmission? 19. A) Attenuation
A) Bytes per second 20. A) FTP
B) Baud
C) Bits per second
D) Both B and C
18. Which of the communication modes
support two way traffic but in only once
direction of a time?
A) Simplex
B) Half-duplex
C) Three - quarter's duplex
D) Full duplex
19. The loss in signal power as light travels
down the fiber is called .............
A) Attenuation
B) Propagation
C) Scattering
D) Interruption
20. Which of the following TCP/IP protocols
is used for transferring files form one
machine to another.
A) FTP
B) SNMP
C) SMTP
D) RPC
Set-2
1. A network that needs human 7. Which of the following OSI
beings to manually route signals is layers correspond to TCP/IP's
called.... application layer?
A) Fiber Optic Network A) Application
B) Bus Network B) IP Address
C) T-switched network C) Session
D) Ring network D) All of the above
2. TCP/IP layer corresponds to
the OSI models to three layers. 8. Devices on one network can
A) Application communicate with devices on another
B) Presentation network via a .......
C) Session A) File Server
D) Transport B) Utility Server
3. Which of the transport layer C) Printer Server
protocols is connectionless? D) Gateway
A) UDP 9. A communication device that
B) TCP combines transmissions from several
C) FTP I/O devices into one line is a
D) Nvt A) Concentrator
4. Which of the following B) Modifier
applications allows a user to access C) Multiplexer
and change remote files without actual D) Full duplex file
transfer? 10. Which layers of the OSI
A) DNS determines the interface often system
B) FTP with the user?
C) NFS A) Network
D) Telnet B) Application
5. The data unit in the TCP/IP C) Data link
layer called a ..... D) Session
A) Message 11. Which of the following of the
B) Segment TCP/IP protocols is the used for
C) Datagram transferring files from one machine to
D) Frame another?
6. DNS can obtain the of A) FTP
host if its domain name is known and B) C) SNMP
vice versa. C) SMTP
A) Station address D) D) Rpe
B) IP address 12. In which OSI layers does the
C) Port address FDDI protocol operate?
D) Checksum A) Physical
B) Data link 19. Which of the following is the

C) Network logical topology?
D) A and B A) Bus
13. In FDDI, data normally travel B) Tree
on .................. C) Star
D) Both A and B
A) The primary ring 20. Which of the following is/ are
B) The Secondary ring the drawbacks of Ring Topology?
C) Both rings A) Failure of one computer, can
D) Neither ring affect the whole network
14. The layer of OSI model B) Adding or removing the
can use the trailer of the frame for computers disturbs the network
error detection. activity.
A) Physical C) If the central hub fails, the
B) Data link whole network fails to operate.
C) Transport D) Both of A and B
D) Presentation
15. In a topology, if there are
n devices in a network, each device Answer
has n-1 ports for cables. 1. C) T-switched network
A) Mesh 2. A) Application
B) Star 3. A) UDP
C) Bus 4. C) NFS
D) Ring 5. D) Frame
16. Another name for Usenet is 6. B) IP address
A) Gopher 7. D) All of the above
B) Newsgroups 8. D) Gateway
C) Browser 9. C) Multiplexer
D) CERN 10. B) Application
17. The standard suit of protocols 11. A) FTP
used by the Internet, Intranets, 12. D) A and B
extranets and some other networks. 13. A) The primary ring
A) TCP/IP 14. A) Physical
B) Protocol 15. A) Mesh
C) Open system 16. B) Newsgroups
D) Internet work processor 17. A) TCP/IP
18. State whether the following is 18. A) True, True
True or False. 19. C) Star
i) In bus topology, heavy 20. D) Both of A and B
Network traffic slows down the bus
speed.
ii) It is multipoint configuration.
A) True, True
B) B) True, False
C) False, True
D) False, False
Set-3
c. Both A and B
1. Which of the following is not the layer d. None of the above
of TCP/IP protocol?
a. Application Layer
b. Session Layer 6. Which is not the Regional Internet
c. Transport Layer Registers (RIR) of the following?
d. Internetwork layer a. American Registry for Internet
2. address use 7 bits for the <network> Numbers (ARIN)
and 24 bits for the <host> portion of b. Europeans Registry for
the IP Internet Numbers (ERIN)
a. address. c. Reseaux IP Europeans (RIPE)
b. Class A d. Asia Pacific Network
c. Class B Information Centre (APNIC)
d. Class C 7. Match the following IEEE No to their
e. Class D corresponding Name for IEEE 802
3. addresses are reserved for standards for LANs.
multicasting. i) 802.3 a) WiFi
a. Class B ii) 802.11 b) WiMa
b. Class C iii) 802.15.1 c) Ethernet
c. Class D iv) 802.16 d) Bluetooth
d. Class E a. i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
4. State the following statement is true or b. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
false. c. i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
I. In class B addresses a total of d. i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
more than 1 billion addresses 8. was the first step in the evolution of
can be formed. Ethernet from a coaxial cable bus to
II. Class E addresses are reserved hub managed, twisted pair network.
for future or experimental use. a. Star LAN
a. True, False b. Ring LAN
b. True, True c. Mesh LAN
c. False, True d. All of the above
d. False, False 9. is the predominant form of Fast
5. Which of the following statement is Ethernet, and runs over two pairs of
true? category 5 or above cable.
I. An address with all bits 1 is a. 100 BASE-T
interpreted as all networks or all hosts. b. 100 BASE-TX
II. The class A network 128.0.0.0 is c. 100 BASE-T4
defined as the loopback network. d. 100 BASE-T2
a. i only 10. IEEE 802.3ab defines Gigabit
b. ii only Ethernet transmission over unshielded
twisted pair (UTP) category 5, 5e or 6 I. A connection oriented protocol can

cabling known as .................... only use unicast addresses.
a. 1000 BASE-T II. The any cast service is included in
b. 1000 BASE-SX IPV6.
c. 1000 BASE-LX a. True, False
d. 1000 BASE-CX b. True, True
11. is a high performance fiber optic token c. False, True
ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over d. False, False
distances up to 1000 stations 17. implies that all subnets obtained from
connected. the same network use the subnet mask.
a. FDDI a. Static subnetting
b. FDDT b. Dynamic Subnetting
c. FDDR c. Variable length subnetting
d. FOTR d. Both B and C
12. Which of the following are Gigabit
Ethernets? 18. The most important and common
a. 1000 BASE-SX protocols associated TCP/IP
b. 1000 BASE-LX internetwork layer are.
c. 1000 BASE-CX i) Internet Protocol (IP)
d. All of the above ii) Internet Control Message Protocol
13. is a collective term for a number of (ICMP)
Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at iii) Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)
the nominal rate of 1000 Mbits/s iv) Dynamic Host Configuration
against the original Ethernet speed of Protocol (DHCP)
10 Mbit/s. v) Address Resolution Protocol
a. Ethernet (ARP)
b. Fast Ethernet a. i, ii, iii, and iv only
c. Gigabit Ethernet b. ii, iii, iv and v only
d. All of the above c. i, iii, iv and v only
14. is another kind of fiber optic network d. All i, ii, iii, iv and v only
with active star for switching. 19. ........... is responsible for converting
a. S/NET the higher level protocol addresses to
b. SW/NET physical Network Addresses.
c. NET/SW a. Address Resolution Protocol
d. FS/NET (ARP)
15. The combination of ........... and is b. Reverse Address Resolution
often termed the local address or the Protocol (RARP)
local portion of the IP Address. c. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)
a. Network number and host d. Internet Control Message
number Protocol (ICMP)
b. Network number and subnet 20. Which of the following is not a
number mechanism that DHCP supports for IP
c. Subnet number and host address allocation?
number. a. Automatic allocation
d. All of the above b. Static allocation
16. State whether true or false. c. Dynamic allocation
d. Manual allocation
Answer:
1. B) Session Layer
2. A) Class A
3. C) Class D
4. B) True, True
5. A) i only
6. B) Europeans (ERIN)
7. C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
8. A) Star LAN
9. B) 100 BASE-TX
10. A) 1000 BASE-T
11. A) FDDI
13. B) Fast Ethernet
14. A) S/NET
15. C) Subnet... number.
16. B) True, True
17. A) Static subnetting
18. D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v only
19. A) Address Protocol (ARP)
20. B) Static allocation
Set-4
1. Which server computer that is d. all of above
configured to serve file transfer and storage,
data migration, file updates
synchronization? 5. Which of the following is not email
a. FTP Server. service?
b. Database Server a. Hotmail
c. File Server b. Gmail
d. None of above c. Yahoo
d. None of above
2. Which of the following is responsible
for approving standards and allocating 6. Which of the following application is
resources in the Internet? required to read your email in
a. Internet Architecture Board (IAB) Hotmail?
b. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) a. A computer with browser and internet
c. InterNIC connection
d. None of above b. Outlook Express or Microsoft Outlook
c. Eudora Pro
3. Which body in Internet provides the d. All of above
registration services to Internet
community? 7. Tim Berners Lee is credited for the
a. Internet Architecture Board (IAB) creation of
b. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) a. Web email system
c. InterNIC b. world wide web
d. None of above c. File Transfer Protocol
d. All of above
4. Which of the following is considered a
broad band communication 8. Error control is needed at the transport
channel? layer because of potential errors occurring
a. coaxial cable _____.
b. fiber optics cable a. from transmission line noise
c. microwave circuits b. in routers
c. from out-of-sequence delivery

d. from packet losses
9. Which of the following is not a

standard synchronous communication
protocol?
a. SDLC
b. SMTP
c. SLIP
d. PAS
10. The network layer, in reference to the

OSI model, provide
a. data link procedures that provide for the
exchange of data via frames that can be
sent and received
b. the interface between the X.25 network
and packet mode device
c. the virtual circuit interface to packet-
switched service
d. All of the above
Answers
1.c
2.a
3.c
4.d
5.c
6.a
7.b
8.b
9.d
10.c
Set-5
1. What is the powerful, centralized b. Internet Engineering Task Force
computer system that performs data (IETF)
storage and processing tasks on behalf c. InterNIC
of clients and other network devices ? d. None of above
a. Client
b. Host computer 5. Which body in Internet
c. Terminal provides the registration services to
d. Network Internet community?
a. Internet Architecture Board
2. A self-sufficient computer that (IAB)
acts as both a server and a client is b. Internet Engineering Task Force
known as (IETF)
a. Host c. InterNIC
b. Client d. None of above
c. Server
d. Peer 6. Who is responsible for
discussing and investigating the
3. A server computer that is operational and technical problems of
configured to serve file transfer and Internet?
storage, data migration, file updates a. Internet Architecture Board
synchronization is (IAB)
a. FTP Server b. Internet Engineering Task Force
b. Database Server (IETF)
c. File Server c. InterNIC
d. None of above d. None of above
4. Which of the following is 7. Which is the channel handle
responsible for approving standards moderate data volumes in transmission
and allocating resources in the rate between 110 to 9600 bps?
Internet? a. Narrowband channel
a. Internet Architecture Board b. Voice band channel
(IAB) c. Broadband channel
d. None of abover 9.a

8. A high speed, high capacity 10.a
transmission medium that can carry
signals from multiple independent
network carrier is?
a. Narrowband channel
b. Voice band channel
c. Broadband channel
d. None of above
9. The internet was developed by

US
a. Department of Defense
b. Department of Electronics
c. Department of Commerce
d. None of above
10. A user can get files from

another computer by using
a. File Transfer Protocol
b. TCP/IP
c. Internet Protocol
d. None of above
Answers
1.b
2.d
3.c
4.a
5.c
6.b
7.b
8.c
Set-6
1. A group of computers connected c. microwave transmission
together to communicate and share d. none of above
resources is known as
a. A computer network 5. The interactive transmission
b. A server of data within a time sharing system
c. A client may be best suited to
d. Authentication a. simplex lines
b. half-duplex lines
2. A high speed, high capacity c. full duplex lines
transmission medium that can carry d. biflex-lines
signals from multiple independent
network carrier is 6. Who owns and governs the
a. Narrowband channel Internet?
b. Voice band channel a. IAB
c. Broadband channel b. IETF
d. None of above c. InterNIC
d. None of above
3. A channel handle moderate
data volumes in transmission rate 7. Who is responsible for
between 110 to 9600 bps is discussing and investigating the
a. Narrowband channel operational and technical problems of
b. Voice band channel Internet?
c. Broadband channel a. Internet Architecture Board
d. None of above (IAB)
b. Internet Engineering Task Force
4. A form of wireless (IETF)
transmission in which signals are sent c. InterNIC
via pulses of infrared light d. None of above
a. radio networking
b. infrared transmission 8. Website is a collection of
a. HTML documents
b. Graphics file
c. audio and video files
d. All of above
9. A network computer that

shares resources with and responds to
reqests from other computer is known
as
a. client
b. server
c. terminal
d. key
10. ____ protocol is built into

most popular e-mail products such as
Eudora and Outlook Express:
a. SMTP
b. POP
c. HTTP
d. FTP
Answers
1.a
2.c
3.b
4.b
5.c
6.d
7.b
8.d
9.b
10.b
Set-7
1. Which protocol is used to b. Client / Server Network

transfer web pages? c. Peer-to-Peer Network
a. TCP/IP d. All of above
b. SMTP
c. POP3 7. Which of the following
d. HTTP network covers the largest
geographical area?
2. Which protocol is used to send a. PAN
email? b. LAN
a. SMTP c. MAN
b. POP d. WAN
c. HTTP 8. Router operates in which layer
d. FTP of OSI Reference Model?
a) Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
3. A self-sufficient computer that b) Layer 3 (Network Layer)
acts as both a server and a client is c) Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
known as d) Layer 7 (Application Layer)
a. Host
b. Client 9. Which of the following
c. Server performs modulation and
d. Peer demodulation?
a. fiber optics
4. What is the use of Bridge in b. satellite
Network? c. coaxial cable
a. to connect LANs d. modem
b. to separate LANs
c. to control Network Speed 10. The process of converting
d. All of the above analog signals into digital signals so
they can be processed by a receiving
5. A network model where there computer is referred to as:
is no server computer is a. modulation
a. Centralized Network b. demodulation
b. Client / Server Network c. synchronizing
c. Peer-to-Peer Network d. digitizing
d. All of above Answers
1.d
6. The network model is 2.a
sometimes called workgroup is 3.d
a. Centralized Network 4.a
5.c 9.d
6.c 10.b
7.d
8.b
Set-8
1. A computer circuit board installed in c. microwave transmission
a computer so that it can be connected to a d. none of above
network?
a. NIC
b. Switch 7. A communications device that
c. RJ45 combines transmissions from several I/O
d. Hub devices into one line is a?
a. concentrator
2. A NIC card can be used for? b. modifier
a. FDDI c. multiplexer
b. Ethernet d. full-duplex line
c. Microwave
d. WiFi 8. UTP cable has ___ pair of wires in
it?
3. Which of the following is unbound a. 3
transmission media? b. 4
a. UTP c. 5
b. Co-axial d. 6
c. Microwave
d. Fiber Optics 9. Which of the following might not be
present in a computer network?
4. Which of the following memories a. NIC
needs refresh? b. Switch
a. SRAM c. MODEM
b. DRAM d. NOS
c. ROM
d. All of above 10. To connect two networks of similar
systems you will use a
5. What is the set of information that a. Bridge
defines the status of resources allocated to a b. Gateway
process? c. Router
a. Process control d. Any of above
b. ALU
c. Register Unit Answers
d. Process description 1.a
2.b
6. A form of wireless transmission in which 3.c
signals are sent via pulses of infrared light? 4.b
a. radio networking 5.d
b. infrared transmission 6.b
7.c 9.c
8.b 10.a
Set -9
1. Which data communication method is c. 100 picowatts
used to transmit the data over a serial d. 10 miliwatts
communication link?
a. simplex
b. half-duplex 7. The synchronous modems are more
c. full-duplex costly than the asynchronous modems because
d. b and c a. they produce large volume of data
b. they contain clock recovery circuits
2. What is the minimum number of wires c. they transmit the data with stop and start
needed to send data over a serial bits
communication link layer? d. they operate with a larger bandwidth
a. 1
b. 2 8. Which of the following statement is
c. 4 correct?
d. 6 a. terminal section of a synchronous
3. Which of the following types of modem contains the scrambler
channels moves data relatively slowly? b. receiver section of a synchronous modem
a. wide band channel contains the scrambler
b. voice band challen c. transmission section of a synchronous
c. narrow band channel modem contains the scrambler
d. None of these d. control section of a synchronous modem
contains the scrambler
4. Most data communications involving
telegraph lines use: 9. In a synchronous modem, the digital-
a. simplex lines to-analog converter transmits signal to the
b. wideband channel a. equilizer
c. narrowband channel b. modulator
d. dialed service c. demodulator
d. terminal
5. A communications device that
combines transmissions from several I/O 10. Which of the following
devices into one line is a communications lines is best suited to
a. concentrator interactive processing applications?
b. modifier a. narrow band channel
c. multiplexer b. simplex lines
d. full-duplex line c. full duplex lines
d. mixed band channels
6. How much power (roughly) a light Answers
emitting diode can couple into an optical 1.c
fiber? 2.b
a. 100 microwatts 3.c
b. 440 microwatts 4.c
5.c 8.c
6.a 9.a
7.b 10.c
Set-10
1. The interactive transmission of data b. multiplexer
within a time sharing system may be best c. concentrator
suited to d. controller
a. simplex lines 6. Which of the following signal is not
b. half-duplex lines standard RS-232-C signal?
c. full duplex lines a. VDR
d. biflex-lines b. RTS
c. CTS
2. Which of the following statement is d. DSR
incorrect?
a. The difference between synchronous and 7. Which of the following statement is
asynchronous transmission is the clocking incorrect?
derived from the data in synchronous a. Multiplexers are designed to accept data
transmission. from several I/O devices and transmit a unified
b. Half duplex line is a communication line stream of data on one communication line
in which data can move in two directions, but b. HDLC is a standard synchronous
not at the same time. communication protocol.
c. Teleprocessing combines c. RTS/CTS is the way the DTE indicates
telecommunications and DP techniques in that it is ready to transmit data and the way the
online activities DCW indicates that it is ready to accept data
d. Batch processing is the prefered d. RTS/CTS is the way the terminal
processing mode for telecommunication indicates ringing
operation.
8. Which of the following is an
3. Which of hte following is considered a advantage to using fiber optics data
broad band communication channel? transmission?
a. coaxial cable a. resistance to data theft
b. fiber optics cable b. fast data transmission rate
c. microwave circuits c. low noise level
d. all of above d. all of above
9. Which of the following is required to
4. Which of the following is not a communicate between two computers?
transmission medium? a. communications software
a. telephone lines b. protocol
b. coaxial cables c. communication hardware
c. modem d. all of above including access to
d. microwave systems transmission medium
5. Which of the following does not allow 10. The transmission signal coding
multiple uses or devices to share one method of TI carrier is called
communication line? a. Bipolar
a. doubleplexer b. NRZ
c. Manchester
d. Binary
Answers
1.b
2.d
3.d
4.c
5.a
6.a
7.d
8.d
9.d
10.a
Set-11
1. Why IP Protocol is considered as d. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links
unreliable? except the originated link
a. A packet may be lost
b. Packets may arrive out of order 7. The Internet is an example of
c. Duplicate packets may be generated a. Cell switched network
d. All of the above b. circuit switched network
c. Packet switched network
2. What is the minimum header size of d. All of above
an IP packet?
a. 16 bytes
b. 10 bytes 8. What does protocol defines?
c. 20 bytes a. Protocol defines what data is
d. 32 bytes communicated.
b. Protocol defines how data is
3. Which of following provides reliable communicated.
communication? c. Protocol defines when data is
a. TCP communicated.
b. IP d. All of above
c. UDP
d. All of the above 9. What is the uses of subnetting?
a. It divides one large network into several
4. What is the address size of IPv6 ? smaller ones
a. 32 bit b. It divides network into network classes
b. 64 bit c. It speeds up the speed of network
c. 128 bit d. None of above
d. 256 bit
5. What is the size of Network bits & 10. Repeater operates in which layer of
Host bits of Class A of IP address? the OSI model?
a. Network bits 7, Host bits 24 a. Physical layer
b. Network bits 8, Host bits 24 b. Data link layer
c. Network bits 7, Host bits 23 c. Network layer
d. Network bits 8, Host bits 23 d. Transport layer
6. What does Router do in a network? Answers

a. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links 1.d
b. Forwards a packet to the next free 2.c
outgoing link 3.a
c. Determines on which outing link a 4.c
packet is to be forwarded 5.a
6.c
7.c
8.d
9.a
10.a
Set-12
1. Each IP packet must contain c. Network bit - 18, Host bit -16
a. Only Source address d. Network bit- 12, Host bit - 14
b. Only Destination address
c. Source and Destination address
d. Source or Destination address 7. The last address of IP address
represents
2. Bridge works in which layer of the a. Unicast address
OSI model? b. Network address
a. Appliation layer c. Broadcast address
b. Transport layer d. None of above
c. Network layer
d. Datalink layer
3. _______ provides a connection- 8. How many bits are there in the

oriented reliable service for sending messages Ethernet address?
a. TCP a. 64 bits
b. IP b. 48 bits
c. UDP c. 32 bits
d. All of the above d. 16 bits
4. Which layers of the OSI model are

host-to-host layers? 9. How many layers are in the TCP/IP
a. Transport, Session, Persentation, model?
Application a. 4 layers
b. Network, Transport, Session, b. 5 layers
Presentation c. 6 layers
c. Datalink, Network, Transport, Session d. 7 layers
d. Physical, Datalink, Network, Transport
5. Which of the following IP address

class is Multicast 10. Which of the following layer of OSI
a. Class A model also called end-to-end layer?
b. Class B a. Presentation layer
c. Class C b. Network layer
d. Class D c. Session layer
d. Transport layer
6. Which of the following is correct Answers

regarding Class B Address of IP address
a. Network bit -14, Host bit - 16 1.c
b. Network bit -16, Host bit -14 2.d
3.a 8.b
4.a 9.a
5.d 10.d
6.a
7.c
Online Practice Link

https://examradar.com/data-communication-networking-mcqs-set-1/
https://www.sanfoundry.com/computer-network-questions-answers/
Multiple Choice Questions of Computer Networking
1-1 Computer Network is
A. Collection of hardware components and computers
B. Interconnected by communication channels
C. Sharing of resources and information
D. All of the Above
1-2 What is a Firewall in Computer Network?
A. The physical boundary of Network
B. An operating System of Computer Network
C. A system designed to prevent unauthorized access
D. A web browsing Software
1-3 How many layers does OSI Reference Model has?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
1-4 DHCP is the abbreviation of
A. Dynamic Host Control Protocol
B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
C. Dynamic Hyper Control Protocol
D. Dynamic Hyper Configuration Protocol
1-5 IPV4 Address is
A. 8 bit
B. 16 bit
C. 32 bit
D. 64 bit
1-6 DNS is the abbreviation of
A. Dynamic Name System
B. Dynamic Network System
C. Domain Name System
D. Domain Network Service
1-7 What is the meaning of Bandwidth in Network?
A. Transmission capacity of a communication channels
B. Connected Computers in the Network
C. Class of IP used in Network
D. None of Above
1-8 ADSL is the abbreviation of
A. Asymmetric Dual Subscriber Line
B. Asymmetric Digital System Line
C. Asymmetric Dual System Line
D. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
1-9 What is the use of Bridge in Network?
A. to connect LANs
B. to separate LANs
C. to control Network Speed
D. All of the above
1-10 Router operates in which layer of OSI Reference Model?
A. Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
B. Layer 3 (Network Layer)
C. Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
D. Layer 7 (Application Layer)
Click Here for Answers
1 – D / 2 – C / 3 – D / 4 – B / 5 – C / 6 – C / 7 – A / 8 – D / 9 – A / 10 – B

2-1 Each IP packet must contain
A. Only Source address
B. Only Destination address
C. Source and Destination address
D. Source or Destination address
2-2 Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model?
A. Appliation layer
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Datalink layer
2-3 _______ provides a connection-oriented reliable service for sending messages
A. TCP
B. IP
C. UDP
D. All of the above
2-4 Which layers of the OSI model are host-to-host layers?
A. Transport, Session, Persentation, Application
B. Network, Transport, Session, Presentation
C. Datalink, Network, Transport, Session
D. Physical, Datalink, Network, Transport
2-5 Which of the following IP address class is Multicast
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
2-6 Which of the following is correct regarding Class B Address of IP address
A. Network bit – 14, Host bit – 16
B. Network bit – 16, Host bit – 14
C. Network bit – 18, Host bit – 16
D. Network bit – 12, Host bit – 14
2-7 The last address of IP address represents
A. Unicast address
B. Network address
C. Broadcast address
D. None of above
2-8 How many bits are there in the Ethernet address?
A. 64 bits
B. 48 bits
C. 32 bits
D. 16 bits
2-9 How many layers are in the TCP/IP model?
A. 4 layers
B. 5 layers
C. 6 layers
D. 7 layers
2-10 Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to-end layer?
A. Presentation layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer
D. Transport layer
1 – C / 2 – D / 3 – A / 4 – A / 5 – D / 6 – A / 7 – C / 8 – B / 9 – A / 10 – D

3-1. Why IP Protocol is considered as unreliable?
A. A packet may be lost
B. Packets may arrive out of order
C. Duplicate packets may be generated
D. All of the above
3-2. What is the minimum header size of an IP packet?
A. 16 bytes
B. 10 bytes
C. 20 bytes
D. 32 bytes
3-3. Which of following provides reliable communication?
A. TCP
B. IP
C. UDP
D. All of the above
3-4. What is the address size of IPv6 ?
A. 32 bit
B. 64 bit
C. 128 bit
D. 256 bit
3-5. What is the size of Network bits & Host bits of Class A of IP address?
A. Network bits 7, Host bits 24
B. Network bits 8, Host bits 24
C. Network bits 7, Host bits 23
D. Network bits 8, Host bits 23
3-6. What does Router do in a network?
A. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links
B. Forwards a packet to the next free outgoing link
C. Determines on which outing link a packet is to be forwarded
D. Forwards a packet to all outgoing links except the originated link
3-7. The Internet is an example of
A. Cell switched network
B. circuit switched network
C. Packet switched network
D. All of above
3-8. What does protocol defines?
A. Protocol defines what data is communicated.
B. Protocol defines how data is communicated.
C. Protocol defines when data is communicated.
D. All of above
3-9. What is the uses of subnetting?
A. It divides one large network into several smaller ones
B. It divides network into network classes
C. It speeds up the speed of network
D. None of above
3-10. Repeater operates in which layer of the OSI model?
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport layer

1 – D / 2 – C / 3 – A / 4 – C / 5 – A / 6 – C / 7 – C / 8 – D / 9 – A / 10 – A
Multiple C===hoice Questions of Computer Networking
4-1. What is the benefit of the Networking?
A. File Sharing
B. Easier access to Resources
C. Easier Backups
D. All of the Above
4-2. Which of the following is not the Networking Devices?
A. Gateways
B. Linux
C. Routers
D. Firewalls
4-3. What is the size of MAC Address?
A. 16-bits
B. 32-bits
C. 48-bits
D. 64-bits
4-4. Which of the following can be Software?
A. Routers
B. Firewalls
C. Gateway
D. Modems
4-5. What is the use of Ping command?
A. To test a device on the network is reachable
B. To test a hard disk fault
C. To test a bug in a Application
D. To test a Pinter Quality
4-6. MAC Address is the example of
A. Transport Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Application Layer
D. Physical Layer
4-7. Routing tables of a router keeps track of
A. MAC Address Assignments
B. Port Assignments to network devices
C. Distribute IP address to network devices
D. Routes to use for forwarding data to its destination
4-8. Layer-2 Switch is also called
A. Multiport Hub
B. Multiport Switch
C. Multiport Bridge
D. Multiport NIC
4-9. Difference between T568A and T568B is
A. Difference in wire color
B. Difference in number of wires
C. Just different length of wires
D. Just different manufacturer standards
4-10. The meaning of Straight-through Cable is
A. Four wire pairs connect to the same pin on each end
B. The cable Which Directly connects Computer to Computer
C. Four wire pairs not twisted with each other
D. The cable which is not twisted

1 – D / 2 – B / 3 – C / 4 – B / 5 – A / 6 – B / 7 – D / 8 – C / 9 – D / 10 – A
5-1 Which of the following is not the External Security Threats?
A. Front-door Threats
B. Back-door Threats
C. Underground Threats
D. Denial of Service (DoS)
5-2 What is the Demilitarized Zone?
A. The area between firewall & connection to an external network
B. The area between ISP to Military area
C. The area surrounded by secured servers
D. The area surrounded by the Military
5-3 What is the full form of RAID ?
A. Redundant Array of Independent Disks
B. Redundant Array of Important Disks
C. Random Access of Independent Disks
D. Random Access of Important Disks
5-4 What is the maximum header size of an IP packet?
A. 32 bytes
B. 64 bytes
C. 30 bytes
D. 60 bytes
5-5 What is the size of Host bits in Class B of IP address?
A. 04
B. 08
C. 16
D. 32
5-6 What is the usable size of Network bits in Class B of IP address?
A. 04
B. 08
C. 14
D. 16
5-7 In which type of RAID, data is mirrored between two disks.
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 2
D. RAID 3
5-8 What do you mean by broadcasting in Networking?
A. It means addressing a packet to all machine
B. It means addressing a packet to some machine
C. It means addressing a packet to a particular machine
D. It means addressing a packet to except a particular machine
5-9 Which of the following is/are Protocols of Application?
A. FTP
B. DNS
C. Telnet
D. All of above
5-10 Which of the following protocol is/are defined in Transport layer?
A. FTP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. B & C

1 – C / 2 – A / 3 – A / 4 – D / 5 – C / 6 – C / 7 – B / 8 – A / 9 – D / 10 – D
6-1. What is the IP Address range of APIPA?
A. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.0.254
B. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.0.255
C. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
D. 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.255
6-2. Which of the following is correct in VLSM?
A. Can have subnets of different sizes
B. Subnets must be in same size
C. No required of subnet
D. All of above
6-3. What does the port number in a TCP connection specify?
A. It specifies the communication process on the two end systems
B. It specifies the quality of the data & connection
C. It specify the size of data
D. All of the above
6-4. The class-based addressing is also known as
A. Modern Model
B. Classful Model
C. Classless Model
D. Heterogeneous Model
6-5. Which of the following is correct in CIDR?
A. Class A includes Class B network
B. There are only two networks
C. There are high & low class network
D. There is no concept of class A, B, C networks
6-6. What is the size of Source and Destination IP address in IP header?
A. 4 bits
B. 8 bits
C. 16 bits
D. 32 bits
6-7. Which of the following is reliable communication?
A. TCP
B. IP
C. UPD
D. All of them
6-8. What is the typical range of Ephemeral ports?
A. 1 to 80
B. 1 to 1024
C. 80 to 8080
D. 1024 to 65535
6-9. What is the purpose of the PSH flag in the TCP header?
A. Typically used to indicate end of message
B. Typically used to indicate beginning of message
C. Typically used to push the message
D. Typically used to indicate stop the message
6-10. What is the natural mask for a class C Network?
A. 255.255.255.1
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.255.254
D. 255.255.255.255

1 – C / 2 – A / 3 – A / 4 – B / 5 – D / 6 – D / 7 – A / 8 – D / 9 – A / 10 – B
1. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its

client, then it is called
a) computer network
b) distributed system
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
2. Two devices are in network if
a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in
another device
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
3. Which one of the following computer network is built on the top of another
network?
a) prior network
b) chief network
c) prime network
d) overlay network
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. In computer network nodes are

a) the computer that originates the data
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
5. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in
a) broadcast network
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
6. Bluetooth is an example of
a) personal area network
b) local area network
c) virtual private network
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
7. A _____ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing

the routing information included in the packet.
a) bridge
b) firewall
c) router
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
8. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called

a) protocol architecture
b) protocol stack
c) protocol suit
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
9. Network congestion occurs

a) in case of traffic overloading
b) when a system terminates
c) when connection between two nodes terminates
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?
a) local area network
b) virtual private network
c) enterprise private network
d) storage area network
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “Physical Media”.
1) Which of this is not a guided media ?

a) Fiber optical cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Wireless LAN
d) Copper wire
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided media.
2) UTP is commonly used in

a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair(UTP) is commonly used in home access.
3) Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4) Fiber optics posses following properties

a) Immune electromagnetic interference
b) Very less signal attenuation
c) Very hard to tap
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5) If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n, generally the link speed equals(in

Mbps),
a) n*39.8
b) n*51.8
c) 2n*51.8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6) Terrestrial radio channels are broadly classifed into _____ groups.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three types are those that operate over very short distance, those that operate in local areas, those that
operate in the wide area.
7) Radio channels are attractive medium because

a) Can penetrate walls
b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
c) Can carry signals for long distance
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8) Geostationary satellites
a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They are placed in orbit at 36,000km above Earth’s surface.
1. A piece of icon or image on a web page associated with another webpage is

called
a) url
b) hyperlink
c) plugin
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
2. Dynamic web page

a) is same every time whenever it displays
b) generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
3. What is a web browser?

a) a program that can display a web page
b) a program used to view html documents
c) it enables user to access the resources of internet
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. Common gateway interface is used to

a) generate executable files from web content by web server
b) generate web pages
c) stream videos
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. URL stands for

a) unique reference label
b) uniform reference label
c) uniform resource locator
d) unique resource locator
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
6. A web cookie is a small piece of data

a) sent from a website and stored in user’s web browser while a user is browsing
a website
b) sent from user and stored in the server while a user is browsing a website
c) sent from root server to all servers
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
7. Which one of the following is not used to generate dynamic web pages?
a) PHP
b) ASP.NET
c) JSP
View Answer
8. An alternative of javascript on windows platform is
a) VBScript
b) ASP.NET
c) JSP
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. What is document object model (DOM)?

a) convention for representing and interacting with objects in html documents
b) application programming interface
c) hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. AJAX stands for

a) asynchronous javascript and xml
b) advanced JSP and xml
c) asynchronous JSP and xml
d) advanced javascript and xml
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server
in
a) persistent HTTP
b) nonpersistent HTTP
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. HTTP is ________ protocol.

a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by

a) uniform resource identifier
b) unique resource locator
c) unique resource identifier
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular

port on the server.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol
c) broader gateway protocol
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
5. In HTTP pipelining
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting
for the corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
6. FTP server listens for connection on port number

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) active mode
b) passive mode
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
9. The file transfer protocol is built on

a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be done in

a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
1. Ethernet frame consists of

a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. What is stat frame delimeter (SFD) in ethernet frame?

a) 10101010
b) 10101011
c) 00000000
d) 11111111
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
3. MAC address is of
1) 24 bits
b) 36 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. What is autonegotiation?
a) a procedure by which two connected devices choose common transmission
parameters
b) a security algorithm
c) a routing algorithm
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN) can be used as

a) pure ethernet
b) ethernet over SDH
c) ethernet over MPLS
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
6. A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a network protocol for

a) encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet frames
b) encapsulating ehternet framse inside PPP frames
c) for security of ethernet frames
d) for security of PPP frames
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
7. High speed ethernet works on

a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
8. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet frame is

a) 1000 bytes
b) 1200 bytes
c) 1300 bytes
d) 1500 bytes
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
9. What is interframe gap?

a) idle time between frames
b) idle time between frame bits
c) idle time between packets
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. An ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE 802.3 minimum length of 64
octets is called
a) short frame
b) run frame
c) mini frame
d) man frame
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “Topology”.
1) Physical or logical arrangement of network is

a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2) In this topology there is a central controller or hub

a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3) This topology requires multipoint connection
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4) Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is

a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:Wide area network(WAN) covers the whole of the world network.
5) Data communication system within a building or campus is

a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6) Expand WAN
a) World area network
b) Wide area network
c) Web area network
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Packet Switching & Circuit

Switching
This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “Packet Switching and Circuit Switching”.
1) A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network
a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) both of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2) Most packet switches use this principle

a) Stop and wait
b) Store and forward
c) Both of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The packet switch will not transmit the first bit to outbound link until it recieves the entire packet.
3) If there are N routers from source to destination, total end to end delay in sending packet P(L->number of
bits in the packet R-> transmission rate)
a) N
b) (N*L)/R
c) (2N*L)/R
d) L/R
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4) Method(s) to move data through a network of links and switches

a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching
d) Both a and b
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5) The resources needed for communication between end systems are reserved for the duration of session
between end systems in ________
a) Packet switching
c) Line switching
d) Frequency switching
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6) As the resouces are reserved between two communicating end systems in circuit switching, this is achieved
a) authentication
b) guaranteed constant rate
c) reliability
d) store and forward
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
7) In _________ resources are allocated on demand.

a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) line switching
d) frequency switching
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In packet switching there is no reservation.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IPv4

This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “IPv4″.
1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?

a) Error reporting
b) Handle addressing conventions
c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling conventions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP.
2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?
a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the type of packets.
3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?
a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one each time the datagram is processed by a router.
4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is ____.
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For TCP it is 6.
5. The data field can carry which of the following?

a) TCP segemnt
b) UDP segment
c) ICMP messages
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Data field usually has tranaport layer segment, but it can also carry ICMP messages.
6. What should be the flag value to indicate the last fragment?

a) 0
b) 1
c) TTl value
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: flag=0 indicates that it is the last fragment.
7. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?

a) is connectionless
b) offer reliable service
c) offer unreliable service
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ip offers unreliable service.
8. Fragmentation has following demerits

a) complicates routers
b) open to DOS attack
c) overlapping of fragments.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation complex and also can create DOS attack.
9. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?

a) offset
b) flag
c) TTL
d) identifer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: offset field specifies where the fragment fits in the original datagram.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – IPv6

This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “IPv6″.
1. The size of IP address in IPv6 is

a) 4bytes
b) 128bits
c) 8bytes
d) 100bits
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
2. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is _____.

a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of 40bytes, which results is faster processing of the datagram.
3. In the IPv6 header,the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast-switching
c) ToS field
d) Option field
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This field enables to have different types of IP datagram.
4. IPv6 doesnot use ______ type of address

a) Broadcast
b) Multicast
c) Anycast
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in IPv6.
5. These are the features present in IPv4 but not in IPv6.

a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the features are only present in IPv4 and not IPv6.
6. The ____ field determines the lifetime of IPv6 datagram

a) Hop limit
b) TTL
c) Next header
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Hop limit value is decremented by one by a router when the datagram is forwaded by the router. When the
value becomes zero the datagram is discarded.
7. Dual-stack approach refers to

a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: dual-stack is one of the approach used to support IPv6 in already existing systems.
8. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each other by
intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is
a) use dual-stack approach
b) Tunneling
c) No solution
d) Replace the system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tuunel.
9. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by
bits
a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63
c) 80 to 95
d) 64 to 79
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Internet

This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on Internet.
1. What is internet?
a) a single network
b) a vast collection of different networks
c) interconnection of local area networks
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
2. To join the internet, the computer has to be connected to a

a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet service provider
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. Internet access by transmitting digital data over the wires of a local telephone network is provided by
a) leased line
b) digital subscriber line
c) digital signal line
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
4. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their networks by

a) internet exchange point
b) subscriber end point
c) ISP end point
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. Which one of the following protocol is not used in internet?

a) HTTP
b) DHCP
c) DNS
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
6. IPv6 addressed have a size of

a) 32 bits
b) 64 bits
c) 128 bits
d) 265 bits
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
7. Internet works on
a) packet switching
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
8. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol used in internet?
a) remote procedure call
b) internet relay chat
c) resource reservation protocol
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
9. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the internet?

a) DHCP
b) IP
c) RPC
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?
a) ethernet
b) digital subscriber line
c) fiber distributed data interface
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – DHCP

This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on DHCP Protocol.
1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides _____ to the client.

a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) url
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. DHCP is used for

a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. The DHCP server

a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is

a) for a limited period
b) for unlimited period
c) not time dependent
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. DHCP uses UDP port ____ for sending data to the server.
a) 66
b) 67
c) 68
d) 69
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.

a) dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation
c) static allocation
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via

a) UDP broadcast
b) UDP unicast
c) TCP broadcast
d) TCP unicast
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use
a) internet relay chat
b) broader gateway protocol
c) address resolution protocol
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
9. What is DHCP snooping?

a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can access the
network.
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Access Networks
This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “Access Networks”.
1) Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?

a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The third part is ordinary two way telephone channel.
2) In DSL telco provides these services

a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
c) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The same company which provides phone connection is also its ISP in DSL.
3) The function of DSLAM is

a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The DSLAM located in telco’s Central Office does this function.
4) The following term is not associted with DSL

a) DSLAM
b) CO
c) Splitter
d) CMTS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cable modem termination system is used in cable internet access.
5) HFC contains
a) Fibre cable
b) Coaxial cable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6) Choose the statement which is not applicable for cable internet access
a) It is a shared broadcast medium
b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In cable access analog signal is converted to digital signal by CMTS.
7) Among the optical-distribution architectures that is essentially switched ehternet is

a) AON
b) PON
c) NON
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation: Active optical networks are essentially switched ehternets.
8) StarBand provides
a) FTTH internet access
b) Cable access
c) Telephone access
d) Satellite access
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9) Home Access is provided by

a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
10) ONT is connected to splitter using

a) High speed fibre cable
b) HFC
c) Optical cable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
11) These factors affect transmission rate in DSL

a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line
b) Degree of electrical interfernece
c) Shadow fading
d) Both a and b
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Because DSL is made of twisted wire copper pair.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Physical Layer

This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on physical layer.
1. The physical layer concerns with

a) bit-by-bit delivery
p) process to process delivery
c) application to application delivery
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. Which transmission media has the highest transmission speed in a network?

a) coaxial cable
c) optical fiber
d) electrical cable
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. Bits can be send over guided and unguided media as analog signal by
a) digital modulation
b) amplitude modulation
c) frequency modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control sublayer is called
a) physical signalling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer
c) physical address sublayer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. physical layer provides

a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
6. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides

a) start and stop signalling
b) flow control
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
7. The physical layer is responsible for

a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
8. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the ______ into hardware specific
operations.
a) data link layer
b) network layer
c) trasnport layer
d) application layer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by

a) analog modulation
b) digital modulation
c) multiplexing
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
10. Wireless transmission can be done via

a) radio waves
b) microwaves
c) infrared
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Network Layer

This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on network layer.
1. The network layer concerns with

a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
3. The 4 byte IP address consists of

a) network address
b) host address
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains

a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
5. Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
6. Multidestination routing
a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
9. The network layer protocol of internet is
a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
10. ICMP is primarily used for

a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Transport Layer

This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses transport layer.
1. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) application layer
d) physical layer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol used in internet?

a) TCP
b) UDP
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because
a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
4. Transmission control protocol is

a) connection oriented protocol
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c) recievs data from application as a single stream
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called

a) socket
b) pipe
c) port
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
6. Socket-style API for windows is called

a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?

a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) structured stream transport
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.

a) port
b) pipe
c) node
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. Transport layer protocols deals with

a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
10. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol?

a) stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Application Layer

This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on application layer.
1. The ____ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.

a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site and then pass
keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) telnet
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. Application layer protocol defines

a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?

a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
6. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple newtwork management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
7. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?

a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
d) session initiation protocol
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
8. Which protocol is a signalling communication protocol used for controlling multimedia communication
sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. Which one of the following is not correct?

a) application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a communication session
b) application layer protocols implemented on the source and destination host must match
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
10. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Application Layer

This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “Application Layer”.
1) This is not a application layer protocol

a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol
2) The packet of information at the application layer is called

a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3) This is one of the architecture paradigm

a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both a and b
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.
4) Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5) Application layer offers _______ service

a) End to end
b) Process to process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6) E-mail is
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Because it can work with available throughput.
7) Pick the odd one out

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant other applications are not.
8) Which of the following is an application layer service ?
a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9) To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be
consulted
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10) This is a time-sensitive service

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony
View Answer
Answer: d
11) Transport services available to applications in one or another form

a) Reliable data transfer
b) Timing
c) Security
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
12) Electronic mail uses this Application layer protocol

a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) SIP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – HTTP

This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “HTTP”.
1. The number of objects in a Web page which consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is ______
a) 4
b) 1
c) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.
2. The default connection type used by HTTP is _____

a) Persistent
b) Non-persistent
c) Either of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the client is called ____
a) STT
b) RTT
c) PTT
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.
4. The HTTP request message is sent in ____ part of three-way handshake.

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. In the process of fetching a web page from a server the HTTP request/response takes ______ RTTs.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. The first line of HTTP request message is called ____

a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity line
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The line followed by request line are called header lines and status line is the initial part of response message.
7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____ of HTTP message
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity body
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is specified in the method field of request line in the HTTP request message.
8. The ______ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body empty.
a) POST
b) GET
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. The HTTP response message leaves out the requested object when _____ method is used
a) GET
b) POST
c) HEAD
d) PUT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes

a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request
c) 301 Moved permanently
d) 304 Not Found
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 404 Not Found.
11. Which of the following is not correct ?

a) Web cache doesnt has its own disk space
b) Web cache can act both like server and client
c) Web cache might reduce the response time
d) Web cache contains copies of recently requested objects
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
12. The conditional GET mechanism

a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be requested
b) Limits the number of response from a server
c) Helps to keep a cache upto date
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
13. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?
a) HTTP version number
b) URL
c) Method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Network Utilities

This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “Network Utilities”.
1) Ping can
a) Measure round-trip time
b) Report packet loss
c) Report latency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2) Ping sweep is a part of

a) Traceroute
b) Nmap
c) Route
d) Ipconfig
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A ping sweep is a method that can establish a range of IP addresses which map to live hosts and are mostly
used by network scanning tools like nmap.
3) ICMP is used in
a) Ping
b) Traceroute
c) Ifconfig
d) Both a and b
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4) _____ command is used to manipulate TCP/IP routing table.

a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5) If you want to find the number of routers between a source and destination, the utility to be used is.
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6) Which of the following is related to ipconfig in Microsoft Windows ?

a) Display all current TCP/IP network configuration values
b) Modify DHCP settings
c) Modify DNS settings
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7) This allows to check if a domain is available for registration.

a) Domain Check
b) Domain Dossier
c) Domain Lookup
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
8) Choose the wrong statement

a) Nslookup is used to query a DNS server for DNS data
b) Ping is used to check connectivity
c) Pathping combines the functionality of ping with that of route
d) Ifconfig can configure TCP/IP network interface parameters
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pathping combines the functionality of ping with that of traceroute (tracert).
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – FTP

This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “FTP”.
1) Expansion of FTP is
a) Fine Transfer Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) First Transfer Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2) FTP is built on _____ architecture

a) Client-server
b) P2P
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3) FTP uses _____ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Control connection and data connection.
4) Identify the incorrect statement

a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is out-of-band as it has separate control connection.
5) If 5 files are transfered from server A to client B in the same session. The number of TCP connection
between A and B is
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 1 control connection and other 5 for five file transfers.
6) FTP server
a) Mantains state
b) Is stateless
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7) The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the control
connection in ____ bit ASCII format
a) 8
b) 7
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8) Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched

a) 331 – Username OK, password required
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection
c) 452 – Error writing file
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9) Mode of data transfer in FTP, where all the is left to TCP

a) Stream mode
b) Block mode
c) Compressed mode
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10) The password is sent to the server using _____ command

a) PASSWD
b) PASS
c) PASSWORD
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Network Attacks

This set of Computer Networks Questions & Answers focuses on “Network Attacks”.
1) The attackers a network of compromised devices known as

a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2) Which of the following is a form of DoS attack ?

a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3) The DoS attack is which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open or fully open TCP connections
at the target host
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4)The DoS attack is which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
5) Packet sniffers involve

a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They donot inject packets into the channel.
6) Sniffers can be deployed in
a) Wired environment
b) WiFi
c) Ethernet LAN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7) Firewalls are often configured to block

a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Security In The Internet

This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on Security In The Internet.
1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the

a) transport layer
b) network layer
d) session layer
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the

a) entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
3. Network layer firewall works as a
a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
4. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as

a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall
b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) frame firewall and packet firewall
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. WPA2 is used for security in

a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
6. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called

a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
7. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in

a) wired personal area network
b) wireless networks
c) wired local area network
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in

a) browser security
b) email security
c) FTP security
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called

a) international data encryption algorithm
b) private data encryption algorithm
c) intrenet data encryption algorithm
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that
information, then it is called
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Security In The Internet

This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on Security In The Internet.
1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the

a) transport layer
b) network layer
d) session layer
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the

a) entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
3. Network layer firewall works as a

a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
4. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as

a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall
b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) frame firewall and packet firewall
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. WPA2 is used for security in

a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) wi-fi
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
6. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called

a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
7. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in

a) wired personal area network
b) wireless networks
c) wired local area network
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in

a) browser security
b) email security
c) FTP security
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called

a) international data encryption algorithm
b) private data encryption algorithm
c) intrenet data encryption algorithm
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
10. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that
information, then it is called
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Wireless LAN

This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on Wireless LAN.
1. What is the access point (AP) in wireless LAN?

a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
b) wireless devices itself
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
2. In wireless ad-hoc network

a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
c) nodes are not required
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
3. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
c) ALOHA
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
4. In wireless distribution system

a) multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
b) there is no access point
c) only one access point exists
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
5. A wireless network interface controller can work in

a) infrastructure mode
b) ad-hoc mode
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:In infrastructure mode WNIC needs access point but in ad-hoc mode access point is not required.
6. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of

a) connected basic service sets
b) all stations
c) all access points
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.

a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
8. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN.

a) collision detection
b) Acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) ?

a) security algorithm for ethernet
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb communication
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
10. What is WPA?

a) wi-fi protected access
b) wired protected access
c) wired process access
d) wi-fi process access
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
Computer Networks Questions & Answers – WiMAX

This section of our 1000+ Computer Networks MCQs focuses on WiMAX.
1. WiMAX stands for

a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
2. WiMAX provides
a) simplex communication
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
3. WiMAX uses the

a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
4. Which one of the following modulation scheme is supported by WiMAX?

a) binary phase shift keying modulation
b) quadrature phase shift keying modulation
c) quadrature amplitude modulation
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
5. WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface between

a) higher transport layers and physical layer
b) application layer and network layer
c) data link layer and network layer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
6. For encryption, WiMAX supports
a) advanced encryption standard
b) triple data encryption standard
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
7. WiMAX provides
a) VoIP services
b) IPTV services
c) both (a) and (b)
View Answer
Answer:c
Explanation:None.
8. Devices that provide the connectivity to a WiMAX network are known as

a) subscriber stations
b) base stations
c) gateway
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
9. WiMAX is mostly used for

b) metropolitan area network
c) personal area network
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
10. Which one of the following frequency is not used in WiMAX for communication?
a) 2.3 GHz
b) 2.4 GHz
c) 2.5 GHz
d) 3.5 GHz
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation:None.
1. Which of the following delay is faced by the packet in travelling from one end system to another?
a) Propagation delay
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
Answer: d
Explanation: When a packet has to travel from one end system to another, it first faces the queuing delay when there
are multiple packets which are to be sent, then it faces the transmission delay to convert the packet into bits to be tra
nsmitted, and then it faces the propagation delay to propagate the bits through the physical medium.
2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the packet is 32bits, the transmission delay is ____________ (in micr
oseconds)
a) 3.2
b) 32
c) 0.32
d) 320
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate = length / transmission rate = 32/10 = 3.2 microseconds.
3. The time required to examine the packet’s header and determine where to direct the packet is part of __________
a) Processing delay
b) Queuing delay
d) Propagation delay
Answer: a
Explanation: Processing delay is induced at a router’s or other network processor’s end in the path of the packet and
is caused by the time taken by the processor to examine the packet’s header to decide the further path of the packet.
4. Given L = number of bits in the packet, a = average rate and R = transmission rate. The Traffic intensity in the net
work is given by ____________
a) La/R
b) LR/a
c) R/La
d) Ra/L
Answer: a
Explanation: Traffic Intensity = (Number of bits in packet * Average Transmission rate)/Current Transmission rate.
5. In the transfer of file between server and client, if the transmission rates along the path is 10Mbps, 20Mbps, 30Mb
ps, 40Mbps. The throughput is usually ___________
a) 20Mbps
b) 10Mbps
c) 40Mbps
d) 50Mbps
Answer: b
Explanation: The throughput is generally the transmission rate of bottleneck link.
6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end = N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non congested network. The number of
routers between source and destination is?
a) N/2
b) N
c) N-1
d) 2N
Answer: c
Explanation: In the equation N (dproc + dtrans + dprop), N is the number of checkpoints/stops that the packet makes
as it reaches the destination. The stops are made at each router and the final destination node. Now, since N = numb
er of routers + final node, then number of routers = N – final node. As we know, there is only 1 final node in a path,
thus, number of routers = N – 1. Suppose, There is a path A->R1->R2->B for a packet where A is the source node,
B is the final node and R1 and R2 are routers. The total delay would be given by N (dproc + dtrans + dprop) where
N = 3, since the packet would stop at R1, R2 and B. The number of routers here are 2, and (N – 1) is also 2.
7. The total nodal delay is given by ____________
a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop

b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop
Answer: c
Explanation: The total node-to-node delay, that is, nodal delay is the sum of all, the processing delay, queuing delay,
transmission delay and propagation delay. Ideally, the nodal delay must be low as possible for a better Quality of Se
rvice of the network.
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of the followin
g delays could be zero?
b) Queuing delay
d) Processing delay
Answer: b
Explanation: Since there is no other packet to be transmitted, there is no need for a queue. Therefore, the delay cause
d due to the queuing would be none i.e. 0.
9. Transmission delay does not depend on _____________
a) Packet length
b) Distance between the routers
c) Transmission rate
d) Bandwidth of medium
Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission delay = packet length / transmission rate. The transmission rate depends upon the bandwi
dth of the medium.
10. Propagation delay depends on ___________
a) Packet length
b) Transmission rate
c) Distance between the routers
d) Speed of the CPU
Answer: c
Explanation: Propagation delay is caused when the packet is in its electric signal form and is travelling through a me
dium (a wire or a electromagnetic wave). Propagation delay is the time it takes a bit to propagate from one router to t
he next. If the distance between the routers is increased, it will take longer time to propagate, that is, there would be
more propagation delay.
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1. _____________ allows LAN users to share computer programs and data.
a) Communication server
b) Print server
c) File server
d) Network
Answer: c
Explanation: A file server allows LAN users to share computer programs and data. It uses the File Transfer Protocol
to provide this feature on ports 20 and 21. The file server works as a medium for the transfer.
2. With respect to physical media, STP cables stands for _________
a) Shielded Twisted Pair Cable

b) Spanning Tree Protocol Cable
c) Static Transport Protocol Cable
d) Shielded Two Power Cable
Answer: a
Explanation: For physical media, STP cable stands for Shielded twisted pair cable. 100 Mbps is the max data capacit
y of STP cable and its default connector is RJ45. It is popularly used in LANs due to its ease of maintenance and ins
tallation.
3. A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency controls such as file an
d record locking is an example of ___________
a) LAN intrinsic software

b) LAN aware software
c) Groupware
d) LAN ignorant software
Answer: a
Explanation: A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency controls suc
h as file and record locking is an example of LAN intrinsic software. They are used to give better functionality of th
e program and the applications working over it to the users of the LAN.
4. The __________ portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activities and audit data, etc.
a) Configuration management
b) Security management
c) Performance management
d) Recovery management
Answer: b
Explanation: The Security management portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activitie
s, and audit data. It is responsible for controlling access to the network based on predefined policy. The security man
agement ensures authentication, confidentiality, and integrity in the LAN.
5. What is the max length of the Shielded twisted pair cable?
a) 100 ft
b) 200 ft
c) 100 m
d) 200 m
Answer: c
Explanation: The max the Shielded twisted pair cable is 100 meters. If the length exceeds 100 meters, the loss of sig
nals flowing through the cable would be really high. Thus, STP cable is more suitable for smaller networks like LA
Ns.
6. What is the max data transfer rate of STP cables?
a) 10 Mbps
b) 100 Mbps
c) 1000 Mbps
d) 10000 Mbps
Answer: b
Explanation: 100 Mbps is the max data transfer rate that can be handled by STP cables, and its default connector is
RJ-45. 100 Mbps is a feasible data transfer rate for small networks like LANs.
7. Which connector does the STP cable use?
a) BNC
b) RJ-11
c) RJ-45
d) RJ-69
Answer: c
Explanation: RJ-45 is used for STP cable. 100 Mbps is the max data transfer rate that can be handled by STP. RJ-45
is popularly used to connect to modern-day routers, computer network cards, and other network devices.
8. What is the central device in star topology?
a) STP server
b) Hub/switch
c) PDC
d) Router
Answer: b
Explanation: In star topology, no computer is connected to another computer directly but all the computers are conn
ected to a central switch or hub. Every message sent from a source computer goes through the switch or hub and the
switch or hub then forwards the message only to the intended destination computer.
9. What is the max data transfer rate for optical fiber cable?
a) 10 Mbps
b) 100 Mbps
c) 1000 Mbps
d) 10000 Mbps
Answer: d
Explanation: Fiber channel speeds have been increasing over the years. 10000 Mbps is the max data transfer rate for
optical fiber cables. It is said to be the fastest among the other kinds of cables like STP cables and co-axial cables. P
eople are now using optical fiber cables instead of STP cables for LANs due to their fast data transfer capability.
10. Which of the following architecture uses the CSMA/CD access method?
a) ARC net
b) Ethernet
c) Router
d) STP server
Answer: b
Explanation: Collision detection is not possible in Ethernet without extensions. Collision detection techniques for m
ultiple access like CSMA/CD are used to detect collisions in the Ethernet architecture.
1. The attacker using a network of compromised devices is known as _____________
a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
Answer: b
Explanation: Botnet is a network of compromised devices used by the attacker without the owner’s knowledge to pe
rform unethical activities such as spamming. The attacker usually uses the least secure devices to create the botnet.
2. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack?
Answer: d
Explanation: In a DoS attack, the attacker won’t let the victims access the network by using a certain method that en
sures that an essential network resource is unavailable to the victim. In vulnerability attack, the attacker exploits any
obvious vulnerable entity in the network to deny the victim access into the network. In bandwidth flooding, the attac
ker floods the victim with a huge flow of packets and uses up all the bandwidth. In connection flooding, the attacker
floods the victim network with a huge number of connections, so that, no other machine can connect to it.
3. The DoS attack, in which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open or fully open TCP connections at th
e target host is ________
d) UDP flooding
Answer: c
Explanation: In Vulnerability attack, the attacker exploits the vulnerable control points of the network to deny access
to the victims. In Bandwidth flooding, the attacker intentionally uses up all the bandwidth by flooding the victim wi
th a deluge of packets and makes sure that the victim can’t use any bandwidth. In UDP flooding, too many UDP pac
kets are sent by the attacker to the victim at random ports.
4. The DoS attack, in which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host is ________
d) UDP flooding
Answer: b
Explanation: In Bandwidth flooding, the attacker floods the victim machine with a deluge of packets to make sure th
at no bandwidth is available. The victim then cannot utilize the complete bandwidth to perform its operation.
5. Packet sniffers involve ____________

a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Legal receiver
d) Partially-active receiver
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of packet sniffers is to just silently receive the packets flowing in the channel. If they inje
ct any packets into the channel, they might alert the other users about the intrusion.
6. Sniffers can be prevented by using _______________
b) WiFi
c) Ethernet LAN
d) Switched network
Answer: d
Explanation: Switches make sure that the packet is sent to the intended receiver and no one else, thus preventing Sni
ffers to perform their function. Intelligent switches are hence used preferably for the network.
7. Firewalls are often configured to block ___________
a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic
c) Sensitive traffic
d) Best-effort traffic
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is more vulnerable to attacks, so firewalls are often configured to block suspicious UDP traffic.
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of the followin
g delays could be zero?
b) Queuing delay
d) Processing delay
Answer: b
Explanation: Since there is no other packet to be transmitted, there is no need for a queue. Therefore, the delay cause
d due to the queuing would be none i.e. 0.
1. Multiple objects can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in a persistent HTTP connection.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Persistent connections are kept active after completing transaction so that multiple objects can be sent
over the same TCP connection.
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) data link layer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is an Application layer protocol used to define how messages are formatted and transmitted thro
ugh the World Wide Web.

d) union resource locator
Answer: a
Explanation: The Uniform Resource Identifier is a name and locator for the resource to be located by the HTTP. The
URLs and URNs are derived through the identifier.
4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the server.

c) border gateway protocol
d) domain host control protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP clients perform requests using a TCP connection, because the TCP connection provides a more r
eliable service. UDP is not a reliable protocol, border gateway protocol is used on top of TCP, while domain host co
ntrol protocol is a network layer protocol.
5. In HTTP pipelining ________________
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding responses
d) multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP pipelining helps the client make multiple requests without having to waiting for each response, t
hus saving a lot of time and bandwidth for the client.
6. FTP server listens for connection on port number ____________
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
Answer: b
Explanation: Port 20 is used for FTP data. Port 22 is used for SSH remote login. Port 23 is used for TELNET.

Answer: a
Explanation: The clients use the Transmission Control Protocol for FTP as it’s more reliable than UDP, DCCP, and
SCTP, and reliability of file transfer is required to be as high as possible for FTP.
8. In Active mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In Passive mode of FTP, the client initiates both data and control connections, while in Active mode, th
e client initiates the control connection and then the server initiates the data connection.
9. The File Transfer Protocol is built on ______________

d) connection oriented architecture
Answer: c
Explanation: The FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to share files. The server can have mult
iple clients at the same time while the client communicates with only one server at a time.
10. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in ___________
a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) message mode
Answer: d
Explanation: In Stream mode, the data is transferred in a continuous stream. In Block mode, data is transferred after
being divided into smaller blocks. In Compressed mode, data is transferred after being compressed using some comp
ression algorithm.
1. Expansion of FTP is __________
a) Fine Transfer Protocol

b) File Transfer Protocol
c) First Transfer Protocol
d) Fast Transfer Protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: File Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol used to share “files” between a server and a clien
t. The protocol uses two separate ports for data and control connections: port 20 for data and port 21 for control.
2. FTP is built on _____ architecture.
a) Client-server
b) P2P
c) Data centric
d) Service oriented
Answer: a
Explanation: An FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to share a number of data files. The serv
er can transfer files with multiple clients at the same time while the client communicates with only one server at a ti
me.
3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Control connection using FTP port: 21, and data connection using FTP port: 20. The FTP session is sta
rted or ended using port 21 and the actual data i.e. files are sent through port 20.
4. Identify the incorrect statement regarding FTP.
a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol

b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data connection
Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is out-of-band because the data connection is done separately through port 20 and control connecti
on is done separately through port 21.
5. If 5 files are transferred from server A to client B in the same session. The number of TCP connections between A
and B is _______
a) 5
b) 10
c) 2
d) 6
Answer: d
Explanation: The client would first initiate the TCP control connection through port 21. Then for every file transfer,
a separate connection would be made through port 20. Now, since we have five files to be transferred, 1 control con
nection + 5 data connections = 6 total TCP connections.
6. FTP server _____________
a) Maintains state information

b) Is stateless
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
d) Has UDP connection for file transfer
Answer: a
Explanation: FTP server maintains state information of every control connection to keep track of the active and inact
ive connections in the session. This helps the server decide which connection to terminate, in case the connection is i
nactive for too long.
7. The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the control connection in _
_______ bit ASCII format.
a) 8
b) 7
c) 3
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: FTP was designed to transmit commands only in English characters that are possible with just 7 bits in
ASCII. Even the media has to be converted to ASCII before transmission.
8. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.

a) 331 – Username OK, password required
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection
c) 452 – Error writing file
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection
Answer: d
Explanation: The correct response code for the message “Can’t open data connection” is 425. Response code 452 is
sent usually when the connection is suddenly closed.
9. The data transfer mode of FTP, in which all the fragmenting has to be done by TCP is ________
a) Stream mode
b) Block mode
c) Compressed mode
d) Message mode
Answer: a
Explanation: Stream mode is the default mode of FTP, in which the TCP transforms/fragments the data into segment
s, and then after the transmission is completed, converts it back to stream of bytes.
10. The password is sent to the server using ________ command.
a) PASSWD
b) PASS
c) PASSWORD
d) PWORD
Answer: b
Explanation: The PASS command, preceded by the username, completes the user’s identification for access control i
n an FTP session. Without the valid password, the user won’t be able to initiate the FTP connection.
1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) Master
Answer: b
Explanation: SMTP clients are the entities that send mails to other mail servers. The SMTP servers cannot send inde
pendent mails to other SMTP servers as an SMTP server. There are no masters or peers in SMTP as it is based on th
e client-server architecture.
2. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into _______
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) Hash
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
Answer: c
Explanation: Since only 7-bit ASCII codes are transmitted through SMTP, it is mandatory to convert binary multime
dia data to 7-bit ASCII before it is sent using SMTP.
3. Expansion of SMTP is ________
a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO
d) RCVR TO
Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol used to transport e-mails over
the Internet. Only 7-bit ASCII codes can be sent using SMTP.
4. In SMTP, the command to write receiver’s mail address is written with the command _______
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) IMAP
Answer: b
Explanation: RCPT TO command is followed by the recipient’s mail address to specify where or to whom the mail i
s going to through the internet. If there is more than one receiver, the command is repeated for each address continua
lly.
5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is ________
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format

b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) SMTP is responsible for the transmission of the mail through the internet
Answer: a
Explanation: TCP is a reliable protocol, and Reliability is a mandatory requirement in e-mail transmission using SM
TP.
6. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of SMTP?
a) Separate messages for each object

b) One message
c) Varies with number of objects
d) Multiple messages for each object
Answer: b
Explanation: In SMTP, the sending mail server pushes the mail to receiving mail server hence it is push protocol. In
a pull protocol such as HTTP, the receiver pulls the resource from the sending server.
7. Internet mail places each object in _________
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
Answer: b
Explanation: It places all objects into one message as it wouldn’t be efficient enough if there are different messages f
or each object. The objects include the text and all the multimedia to be sent.
8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is _________
a) Zero or more SMTP transactions

b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined
Answer: a
Explanation: The ports 15, 35 and 50 are all UDP ports and SMTP only uses TCP port 25 for reliability.
9. A session may include ________
a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Facebook
c) Google
d) Tumblr
Answer: a
Explanation: An SMTP session consists of SMTP transactions only even if no transactions have been performed. Bu
t no transactions in the session might mean that the session is inactive or is just initiated.
10. Which of the following is an example of user agents for e-mail?
a) One MTA
b) Two UAs
c) Two UAs and one MTA
d) Two UAs and two MTAs
Answer: a
Explanation: Among the options, only Microsoft Outlook is an e-mail agent. Google is a search engine and Faceboo
k, and Tumblr are social networking platforms. Gmail and Alpine are some other examples of e-mail agent.
11. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only _________
a) Composing messages
b) Reading messages
c) Replying messages
d) Routing messages
Answer: d
Explanation: The sender’s User Agent (U
a) submits the message to a Message Transfer Agent (MTA). Then the MTA sends the message to another MTA i.e.
a mail relay. Then the receiver receives the message from the mail relay whenever it is available.
1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes _________ as the transport layer protocol for electronic mail transf
er.
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) DCCP
d) SCTP
Answer: a
Explanation: Since TCP is a reliable protocol, it’s more efficient to use TCP protocol for e-mail transfer. TCP also p
rovides more security than other transport layer protocols.
2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known as _____________
a) SMTPS
b) SSMTP
c) SNMP
d) STARTTLS
Answer: a
Explanation: SSMTP is a simple mail transfer program to send mail from a local PC to a mail host. SNMP is a netw
ork management protocol. STARTTLS connections are secured by TLS.
3. SMTP uses which of the following TCP port?
a) 22
b) 23
c) 21
d) 25
Answer: d
Explanation: Port 21 is used for FTP control connection, port 22 is used by SSH, and port 23 is used by TELNET.
4. Which one of the following protocol is used to receive mail messages?
a) SMTP
b) Post Office Protocol (POP)
c) Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
d) FTP
Answer: d
Explanation: FTP is used to share files. SMTP, POP and IMAP are the protocols used to send and receive mails on t
he internet.
5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?
a) protocol for SMTP security

b) an SMTP extension
c) protocol for web pages
d) protocol for faster mail transfer
Answer: b
Explanation: ODMR is an extension to SMTP, in which mails are relayed to the receivers after they are authenticate
d. It allows only the authorized receivers to receive the mail.
6. An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) URL
d) Name
Answer: a
Explanation: The client needs to know the IP of its initial SMTP server as it has to send the mail first to that server a
nd then the server forwards the mail ahead on behalf of the user.
7. An SMTP session may not include _______
a) zero SMTP transaction

b) one SMTP transaction
c) more than one SMTP transaction
d) one HTTP transaction
Answer: d
Explanation: An SMTP session can only include SMTP transactions regardless the number. Any other protocol’s tra
nsaction is not included in an SMTP session.
8. SMTP defines _______
a) message transport
b) message encryption
c) message content
d) message password
Answer: a
Explanation: As the name suggests, Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is only responsible for “how” the message is tran
sferred i.e. Transport of the message. Other protocols such as TCP are used to provide other services like encryption
for the messages.
9. Which one of the following is an SMTP server configured in such a way that anyone on the internet can send e-m
ail through it?
a) open mail relay

b) wide mail reception
c) open mail reception
d) short mail reception
Answer: a
Explanation: Anyone can send an e-mail through an Open Mail Relay server so it acted like a free relay for email ag
ents to forward their mails through. Open Mail Relays are now unpopular because they can be used by attackers to p
erform man-in-the-middle attacks.
10. SMTP is not used to deliver messages to ______
a) user’s terminal
b) user’s mailbox
c) user’s word processor
d) user’s email client
Answer: c
Explanation: SMTP can only be used to send messages to user’s terminal, email client or mailbox. A stand-alone wo
rd processor cannot be connected to a network, so it won’t be possible to deliver messages to it.
1. IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________
a) Transport layer
b) Network layer
c) Application layer
d) Session layer
Answer: b
Explanation: IPSec is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data integrity and confidentiality between tw
o machines in an IP network. In the TCP/IP model, it provides security at the IP layer i.e. the network layer.
2. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the ______
a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) IP trailer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the tunnel mode, IPSec adds control bits into the packets to encrypt the entire packet between the IP
Sec endpoints. Using encryption, it provides secure communication between the two endpoints.
3. Which component is included in IP security?
a) Authentication Header (AH)

b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
Answer: d
Explanation: AH ensures that there is no retransmission of data from an unauthorized source, and protects against da
ta tampering. ESP provides with content protection and ensures that there is integrity and confidentiality for the mes
sage. IKE is used to make sure that only the intended sender and receiver can access the message.
4. WPA2 is used for security in _______
a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
d) Email
Answer: c
Explanation: WPA2 or WiFi Protected Access 2 is a security protocol used to provide users and firms with strong da
ta security and protection for their wireless networks (WiFi) to give them confidence that only authorized users can
access their network.
5. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called ______
a) Denial-of-service attack
b) Virus attack
c) Worms attack
d) Botnet process
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Denial of Service attack, the attacker won’t let the victims access the network by using a certain m
ethod that ensures that an essential network resource is unavailable to the victim. The methods that the attacker can
use are vulnerability attack, bandwidth flooding and connection flooding.
6. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in ______
a) Wired personal area network

b) Wireless networks
c) Wired local area network
d) Wired metropolitan area network
Answer: b
Explanation: The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication protocol used to connect a network
node to the Internet. It designed through extending the methods used by the Point-to-Point Protocol for authenticatio
n.
7. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in ______
a) Browser security
b) Email security
c) FTP security
d) WiFi security
Answer: b
Explanation: PGP is an encryption method used in e-mail security to encrypt and decrypt the content of an e-mail tra
nsmitted over the internet. It makes sure that the message cannot be stolen by other unauthorized users.
8. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called ______
a) International data encryption algorithm

b) Private data encryption algorithm
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
d) Local data encryption algorithm
Answer: a
Explanation: The IDEA was designed in 1991 by Xuejia Lai and James Massey. Before IDEA, PGP used the cipher
method BassOmatic.
9. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that informati
on, then it is called _________
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) DNS authorizing
Answer: c
Explanation: In DNS spoofing, also known as DNS cache poisoning, an attacker gets the valid credentials from a vic
tim by spoofing the intended resource, and tricking the victim to give his/her valid authorization credentials.
1. A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a public network such as the internet, cre
ating a secure private connection.
a) VNP
b) VPN
c) VSN
d) VSPN
Answer: b
Explanation: VPN provides enhanced security and online anonymity to users on the internet. It is also used to unblo
ck websites that are unavailable in certain regions.
2. When were VPNs introduced into the commercial world?
a) Early 80’s
b) Late 80’s
c) Early 90’s
d) Late 90’s
Answer: d
Explanation: VPNs were first introduced in the year 1996. Then as the internet started to get popularized, the need fo
r connection security increased. VPN was a great solution to this, and that’s when VPNs were implemented in the co
mmercial world.
3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a VPN?
a) PPTP
b) IPsec
c) YMUM
d) L2TP
Answer: c
Explanation: PPTP is a tunneling protocol which was initially used for the creation of VPNs. IPSec is used in encryp
ting the traffic flowing in the VPN. L2TP is used to tunnel all the L2 traffic on the VPN.
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning VPNs?
a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines

b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public networks
d) Is the backbone of the Internet
Answer: d
Explanation: VPNs are not the backbone of the Internet as they are just a method to create private intranets on the int
ernet. They are used for enhancing the connection security for the users.
5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________
a) Invisible from public networks

b) Logically separated from other traffic
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec
Answer: c
Explanation: Traffic in a VPN is not accessible from any unauthorized public networks because it is secured with th
e masking IP address. This provides the benefit of access to blocked resources to the users.
6. VPNs are financially speaking __________
a) Always more expensive than leased lines

b) Always cheaper than leased lines
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines
Answer: c
Explanation: The services of a VPN are cheaper for moderate to large scale institutional networks than the services o
f leased lines. Though for a small scale network, it does not prove to be as beneficial as the costs are not reduced to a
great degree as compared to leased lines.
7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over an L2TP VPN?
a) Only IP
b) Only IPX
c) Only ICMP
d) IP and IPX
Answer: d
Explanation: L2TP stands for Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol. It is used to tunnel all the L2 traffic on an IP network and
is able to transmit network layer’s IP and IPX protocol data.
8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined in which of the following standards?
a) IPsec
b) PPTP
c) PPP
d) L2TP
Answer: a
Explanation: ESP is a security component of IPSec. ESP provides content protection and ensures that there is integri
ty and confidentiality of the message. The other security components of IPSec are Authentication Header and Intern
et Key Exchange.
9. L2F was developed by which company?
a) Microsoft
b) Cisco
c) Blizzard Entertainment
d) IETF
Answer: b
Explanation: L2F stands for Layer 2 Forwarding protocol. It was designed by Cisco to tunnel PPP traffic, helping cr
eate VPNs over the internet.
10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does PPTP work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
Answer: b
Explanation: PPTP stands for Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol. PPTP is a tunneling protocol that was primitively u
sed to create VPNs. It is no longer used for VPNs due to the lack of security it provides.
11. Which layer of the OSI reference model does IPsec work at?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
d) Layer 4
Answer: c
o machines in an IP network. It operates in the network layer.
1. Storage management comprises of _______________
a) SAN Management
b) Data protection
c) Disk operation
Answer: d
Explanation: SAN management, data protection and disk operation are the main components of the Storage Manage
ment Initiative Specification. SMI-S was developed by the Storage Networking Industry Association.
2. Which of the following is not a storage device?
a) Switch
b) RAID Arrays
c) Tape drives
d) Hub
Answer: d
Explanation: Switches, RAID arrays and tape drives are the main storage devices in SMI-S, while a Hub is simple n
etworking device that cannot be used as storage.
3. Which protocols are used for Storage management?

a) SNMP
b) LDAP
c) POP3
d) MIB
Answer: a
Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol is used for storage management. Lightweight Directory Access
Protocol is used to access or locate information about directories and other resources on a network. Post Office Prot
ocol 3 is used for e-mailing on the internet. Management Information Base is a part of SNMP and contains hierarchi
cally organized information.
4. Identify the difficulty a SAN administrator does not incur while dealing with diverse vendors.
a) Proprietary management interfaces

b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the data center
c) No single view
d) Single view
Answer: d
Explanation: A single view is not possible with diverse vendors present. Proprietary management interfaces, multipl
e applications management and no single view are the main difficulties incurred by a SAN administrator in such a sit
uation.
5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure access to storage devices?
a) By using Zoning
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage device
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
d) By keeping devices when used
Answer: a
Explanation: Zoning is a method in SAN that can be used by a storage administrator to specify who can see what in t
he SAN. Zoning might complicate the scaling process if the size of the SAN increases.
6. Effective Storage management does not include __________
a) security
b) backups
c) reporting
d) connection
Answer: d
Explanation: Connection is the responsibility of the connection manager. Storage management includes management
of all necessities such as security, backups and reporting facilities.
7. Among the following, identify which task is not involved in Storage Capacity management?
a) Identifying storage systems are approaching full capacity

b) Monitoring trends for each resource
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total available
d) Preventing unauthorized access to the storage
Answer: d
Explanation: Prevention of unauthorized access to storage is the task of Security management. Identifying when the
storage is approaching full capacity, monitoring trends, reporting and tracking capacity are the tasks of Storage Capa
city management.
8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s) is _______________

a) standardization drives software interoperability and interchange ability
b) breaks the old-style dependence on proprietary methods, trade secrets, and single providers
c) builds a strong foundation on which others can quickly build and innovate
Answer: d
Explanation: Open standards like SMI-S inculcate a general ideal through which the normal designers are able to eas
ily implement the standard into their software and its scalability. Since it is open-source, nothing is hidden from its u
sers and they can implement it as they like or require to. As a whole lot of time is spent to build it as strong and scala
ble, it provides an efficient foundation to the designers to build and innovate on.
9. Task of Distributed Management Task Force is not ________
a) to promote interoperability among the management solution providers

c) to track the operation of the different management solution providers
d) to manage the facility by itself if one of the management solution providers fail
Answer: d
Explanation: The Distributed Management Task Force is used just to simplify the overall management of the networ
k. It cannot manage a network facility by itself in case one of the management solution providers fails. It provides an
interface for promoting interoperability among management solution providers.
10. SMI-S Standard uses which of the following?
a) Java RMI
b) CIM-XML/HTTP
c) CORBA
d) .NET
Answer: b
Explanation: The Distributed Management Task Force maintains a Common Information Model (CIM) to represent
a common set of network objects and their relationships. CIM-XML/HTTP refers to the operations of CIM being per
formed over HTTP or XML. SMI-S uses CIM-XML/HTTP.
1. The application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is called ______
a) HTML
b) TCP
c) SNMP
d) SNMP/IP
Answer: c
Explanation: SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol. It is an application-level protocol in which a
few manager stations control a set of agents. It is used under the TCP/IP protocol suite and is used for managing dev
ices on the internet.
2. Full duplex mode increases the capacity of each domain by ________
a) 10 to 20 mbps
b) 20 to 30 mbps
c) 30 to 40 mbps
d) 40 to 50 mbps
Answer: a
Explanation: In full duplex mode, both endpoints share a single channel bandwidth to achieve two-way transmission
. This results in complete utilization of the band capacity increasing the capacity by 10 to 20 mbps than half-duplex
mode.
3. Configuration management can be divided into which two subsystems?
a) Reconfiguration and documentation

b) Management and configuration
c) Documentation and dialing up
d) Configuration and dialing up
Answer: a
Explanation: The best current practices report is created by a management group to ensure the most effective config
uration management. The group also makes a MIB (Management Information Base) module to help with the configu
ration management.
4. To use a Simple Network Management System, we need _______
a) Servers
b) IP
c) Protocols
d) Rules
Answer: d
Explanation: Rules are a collection of expression containing parameters to observe the attributes of the user’s device
, and then execute some actions. It specifies the parameters for the managed objects inside the application and perfor
ms operations that would support the expression. The input of a rule may be many expressions or even a single expr
ession that end in an output of single object invoking some action.
5. The main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is _______
a) Management
b) Integration
c) Classification
d) Enhanced security
Answer: d
Explanation: SNMPv3 has introduced new cryptographic security, through which confidentiality is provided by encr
ypting packets and blocking intruders. It also ensures that the message is coming from a reliable source.
6. In Network Management System, the division that is responsible for controlling access to network based on a pre
defined policy is called _________
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
Answer: d
Explanation: Security management is also responsible to provide confidentiality, authentication and encryption in ad
dition to controlling access to network. Without security management, the network and its traffic would be vulnerabl
e to be exploited by attackers.
7. BER stands for ________
a) Basic Encoding Rules

b) Basic Encoding Resolver
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router
Answer: a
Explanation: The Basic Encoding Rules are a set of rules that specify the guidelines to encode the SNMP messages i
n binary form. Each SNMP message is encoded into 3 parts namely data, length and type of message.
8. Control of the users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of ________
a) Reactive Fault Management

b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
Answer: c
Explanation: The accounting management keeps track of the users and their access rights to the network and control
s the user’s access by communicating with the security management. The accounting management takes support of t
he Management Information Block to perform its operations.
9. SNMP is the framework for managing devices in an internet using the ______
a) TCP/IP protocol
b) UDP
c) SMTP
d) None
Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a management protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents using the TC
P/IP protocol suite. SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol.
10. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is the guideline of ________
a) HTTP
b) SNMP
c) URL
d) MIB
Answer: b
Explanation: SMI was developed by the Storage Networking Industry Association (SNI
a) and it defines a standard that can be manipulated by SNMP. Basically, it defines the standard format and hierarch
y of management data which is used by the SNMP. It does not describe how the objects are to be managed.
1. The application layer protocol used by a Telnet application is ________
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
Answer: a
Explanation: Telnet is an application layer protocol that provides access to the command-line interface on a remote h
ost. Telnet stands for teletype network.
2. Which amongst the following statements is correct for “character at a time” mode?
a) Character processing is done on the local system under the control of the remote system
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote host for processing
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are sent to the remote host
d) All text is processed locally, and only confirmed lines are sent to the remote host
Answer: b
Explanation: In character at a time mode, the typed text is sent immediately to the remote host while the user is typin
g. Another mode used in Telnet is “Old line by line” mode in which only completed lines are sent to the remote host.
3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
Answer: a
Explanation: Telnet provides access to the command-line interface on a remote computer. One can login to the comp
uter from the command-line interface.
4. What is the correct syntax to be written in the web browser to initiate a Telnet connection to www.sanfoundry.co
m?
a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com
c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com
d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
Answer: c
Explanation: telnet://” is the header to be used to initiate a Telnet connection to a web server. One can browse the w
ebsite using telnet if they are authorized to.
5. Telnet is used for _______
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
Answer: c
Explanation: Telnet is an application layer protocol that provides access to the command line interface of a remote c
omputer that can be used to perform remote login.
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program

b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) telnet can be used for remote login
Answer: c
Explanation: File Transfer Protocol is used for file transfer. Telnet provides access to the command-line interface on
a remote host.
7. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
a) default mode
b) server mode
c) line mode
d) character mode
Answer: c
Explanation: In line mode, terminal character processing is done on the client side but editing is enabled on the serve
r side. Line mode reduces the number of packets and is useful for long delay networks.
8. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server _________
a) interpret as command (IA

c) escape character has to be used
b) control functions has to be disabled
c) it is not possible
d) cli character has to be used
Answer: a
Explanation: The client must look at each byte that arrives and look for IAC escape character. If IAC is found, the cl
ient moves on to look for any other code or IAC. If the next byte is IAC – a single byte is presented by the client to t
he terminal. If IAC is followed by any other code than IAC, the client interprets this as a command.
1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to __________
a) TCP port number 21

b) TCP port number 22
c) TCP port number 23
d) TCP port number 25
Answer: c
Explanation: TCP port 21 is used for FTP, TCP port 22 is used for SSH and TCP port 25 is used for SMTP. Telnet p
rovides access to a command line interface on a remote computer using the TCP port number 23.
2. Which one of the following is not true?
a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal (NVT) standard

b) client programs interact with NVT
c) server translates NVT operations
d) client can transfer files using to remote server using NVT
Answer: d
Explanation: The client can use the NVT only to interact with the programs already present on the remote server, not
to transfer files to it. To transfer files, an FTP connection has to be used.
3. All telnet operations are sent as ________
a) 4 bits
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bits
d) 32 bits
Answer: b
Explanation: Telnet provides a bi-directional, 8-bit byte oriented communications facility through which operations
are sent as 8-bit bytes for the server to interpret.
4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for _______ Operating system.
a) windows
b) linux
c) mac
d) ubuntu
Answer: a
Explanation: AbsoluteTelnet was originally released in 1999. It was developed by Brian Pence of Celestial Software
.
5. The decimal code of Interpret as Command (IA
c) character is _______
a) 252
b) 253
c) 254
d) 255
Answer: d
Explanation: If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server, we use the IAC character. If I
AC is followed by any other code than IAC, the client interprets it as a character.
6. Which of the following is true for character mode operation of telnet implementation?
a) each character typed is sent by the client to the server

b) each character typed is discarded by the server
c) each character typed is aggregated into a word and then sent to the server
d) each character type is aggregated into a line and then sent to the server
Answer: a
Explanation: In character mode, each character that the user is typing is immediately sent to the server which then in
terprets it only after the complete operation command is received.
7. In which mode of telnet, the client echoes the character on the screen but does not send it until a whole line is com
pleted?
a) default mode
c) character mode
c) server mode
d) command mode
Answer: a
Explanation: In the default mode, the client does not send each character typed by the user to the server, thus saving
the amount of packet transmissions required for executing each operation. But the server has to remain idle until the
client sends the completed line wasting a lot of time.

Answer: c
Explanation: File Transfer Protocol is used for file transfer. Telnet provides access to the command-line interface on
a remote host.
1. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?
a) Connection-oriented
b) Process-to-process
c) Transport layer protocol
d) Unreliable
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable and ordered delivery of a stream of bytes betwe
en hosts communicating via an IP network.
2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as _______
a) Stream of bytes
b) Sequence of characters
c) Lines of data
d) Packets
Answer: a
Explanation: TCP provides stream oriented delivery between hosts communicating via an IP network and there are n
o message boundaries. TCP can concatenate data from a number of send () commands into one stream of data and sti
ll transmit it reliably.
3. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________ for storage.
a) Packets
b) Buffers
c) Segments
d) Stacks
Answer: b
Explanation: A TCP receiver has a receive buffer that is used to store the unprocessed incoming packets in case the s
ender is sending packets faster than the processing rate of the received packets.
4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called _______
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Stack
Answer: c
Explanation: A segment may be collection of data from many send () statements. TCP transmits each segment as a st
ream of bytes.
5. Communication offered by TCP is ________
a) Full-duplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Semi-duplex
d) Byte by byte
Answer: a
Explanation: Data can flow both the directions at the same time during a TCP communication hence, it is full-duplex
. This is the reason why TCP is used in systems that require full-duplex operation such as e-mail systems.
6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data.
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Acknowledgment
Answer: d
Explanation: Acknowledgment mechanism is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data. The sender actively c
hecks for acknowledgement from the receiver and once a specific time period has passed, it retransmits the data.
7. In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement number fields refer to _______
a) Byte number
b) Buffer number
c) Segment number
d) Acknowledgment
Answer: a
Explanation: As TCP has to ensure ordered delivery of packets, sequence number and acknowledgement number are
used to identify the byte number of the packet in the stream of bytes being transmitted.
8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. What is the sequ
ence number of the segment if all data is sent in only one segment?
a) 10000
b) 10001
c) 12001
d) 11001
Answer: b
Explanation: The sequence number given to first byte of a segment, with respect to its order among the previous seg
ments, is the sequence number of that segment.
9. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers start with a _________
a) Fixed number
b) Random sequence of 0’s and 1’s
c) One
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
Answer: d
Explanation: One might expect the sequence number of the first byte in the stream to be 0, or 1. But that does not ha
ppen in TCP, Instead, the sender has to choose an Initial Sequence Number (ISN), which is basically a random 32 bi
t sequence of 0’s and 1’s, during the connection handshake.
10. The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines _______
a) sequence number of the byte received previously

b) total number of bytes to receive
c) sequence number of the next byte to be received
d) sequence of zeros and ones
Answer: c
Explanation: The acknowledgement field in a segment defines the sequence number of the byte which is to be receiv
ed next i.e. sequence number of byte that the sender should transmit next.
1. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by the sender is referred to as ___________
a) Flow control
b) Error control
c) Congestion control
d) Error detection
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the receiver from being overflowed with data. It is done using various
open-loop (prevention) methods and closed-loop (recovery) methods.
2. Size of TCP segment header ranges between ___________

a) 16 and 32 bytes
b) 16 and 32 bits
c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) 20 and 60 bits
Answer: c
Explanation: The size of the header can be 20 bytes at a minimum if there are no options and can go up to 60 bytes a
t maximum with 40 bytes in the options field. The header contains all the control information required to ensure ord
ered, error-free and reliable delivery of the segment.
3. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?
a) Flow control
b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Forwarding
d) Synchronization
Answer: b
Explanation: A three-way handshake allows both, the server and the client to choose their Initial Sequence Number
and inform about it to the other party. This won’t be possible using the two-way handshake mechanism.
4. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready to accept a connection. This process is called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
Answer: d
Explanation: This is the first step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is started by the server. Then the Clien
t picks an ISN (Initial Sequence Number) and synchronizes (shares) it with the Server requesting a connection. The
Server acknowledges the clients ISN, and then picks an ISN and synchronizes it with the Client. At last, the Client a
cknowledges the servers ISN.
5. A client that wishes to connect to an open server tells its TCP that it needs to be connected to that particular server
. The process is called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
Answer: a
Explanation: This is the second step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is done by the client once it finds th
e open server and picks an ISN. The Server acknowledges the clients request, and then picks an ISN and synchroniz
es it with the Client. At last, the Client acknowledges the servers ISN.
6. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an active open is ___________
a) Mutual open
b) Mutual Close
c) Simultaneous open
d) Simultaneous close
Answer: c
Explanation: In simultaneous open situation, two nodes send an SYN signal to each other and start a TCP connectio
n. Here, both TCP nodes transmit a SYNC+ACK segment to each other and a connection is established between the
m. This doesn’t happen usually, because both sides have to know which port on the other side to send to.
7. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending that each of them is coming
from a different client by faking the source IP address in the datagram. Which type of attack is being performed in th
is situation?
a) SYNC flooding attack

b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
d) Denial-of-service attack
Answer: a
Explanation: SYNC flooding attack is a form of Denial of Service attack. Due to the overflow of SYNC segments se
nt to the server, the victims are not able to request for a connection to the server, thus resulting in Denial of Service.
8. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of security attack known as ___________

b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
Answer: d
Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system collapses and denies service to every request, making it a DoS attac
k. Some other DoS attacks are bandwidth flooding, connection flooding and UDP flooding.
9. The sizes of source and destination port address in TCP header are ___________ respectively.
a) 16-bits and 32-bits

b) 16-bits and 16-bits
c) 32-bits and 16-bits
d) 32-bits and 32-bits
Answer: b
Explanation: All port addresses are of 16 bits and they specify the type of service being used by the network entity.
For example, port 21 is used for FTP connections and port 25 is used for ICMP connections.
10. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss?
a) Sequence number
b) Acknowledgment number
c) Checksum
d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number
Answer: b
Explanation: TCP header contains separate fields for sequence number and acknowledgment number. Comparing th
ese values is what allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss. After detecting the lost seg
ments, the recovery may require retransmission of the lost segments of data.
1. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP?
b) Unreliable
d) Low overhead
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless transport layer protocol that provides message-based data transmi
ssion. TCP is an example of connection-oriented protocols.
2. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is _______
a) String of characters
b) String of integers
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
Answer: a
Explanation: Using Chargen with UDP on port 19, the server sends a UDP datagram containing a random number of
characters every time it receives a datagram from the connecting host. The number of characters is between 0 and 5
12.
3. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______
a) Routing and switching

b) Sending and receiving of packets
c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
Answer: d
Explanation: De-multiplexing is the delivering of received segments to the correct application layer processes at the
recipients end using UDP. Error checking is done through checksum in UDP.
4. What is the main advantage of UDP?
a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Low overhead
d) Fast
Answer: c
Explanation: As UDP does not provide assurance of delivery of packet, reliability and other services, the overhead ta
ken to provide these services is reduced in UDP’s operation. Thus, UDP provides low overhead, and higher speed.
5. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________
a) 161
b) 123
c) 162
d) 124
Answer: b
Explanation: The Network Time Protocol is a clock synchronization network protocol implemented by using UDP p
ort number 123 to send and receive time stamps.
6. What is the header size of a UDP packet?
a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
Answer: a
Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet header is 8 bytes. It contains four two-byte fields: Source port addres
s, Destination port address, Length of packet, and checksum.
7. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is _______
a) NTP
b) Echo
c) Server
d) Client
Answer: d
Explanation: Port numbers from 1025 to 5000 are used as ephemeral port numbers in Windows Operating System. E
phemeral port numbers are short-lived port numbers which can be used for clients in a UDP system where there are t
emporary clients all the time.
8. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the length of _________
a) Only UDP header

b) Only data
c) Only checksum
d) UDP header plus data
Answer: d
Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field which contains the length of UDP header and the data. The maximum va
lue of the Total length field and the maximum size of a UDP datagram is 65,535 bytes (8 byte header + 65,527 bytes
of data).
9. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?
a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length

b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length
Answer: a
Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in an IP datagram. There is a field in the IP header that defines the tot
al length of the IP packet. There is another field in the IP header that defines the length of the header. So if we subtra
ct the length of the IP header that is encapsulated in the IP packet, we get the length of UDP datagram.
10. The ______ field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram.
a) udp header
b) checksum
c) source port
d) destination port
Answer: b
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram. Though it is not as efficient as C
RC which is used in TCP, it gets the job done for the UDP datagram as UDP doesn’t have to ensure the delivery of t
he packet.
1. Which mode of IPsec should you use to assure the security and confidentiality of data within the same LAN?
a) AH transport mode
b) ESP transport mode
c) ESP tunnel mode
d) AH tunnel mode
Answer: b
Explanation: ESP transport mode should be used to ensure the integrity and confidentiality of data that is exchanged
within the same LAN. ESP tunnel mode is comparatively more secure and should be used to assure the security of th
e data within different LANs.
2. Which two types of encryption protocols can be used to secure the authentication of computers using IPsec?
a) Kerberos V5
b) SHA
c) MD5
d) Both SHA and MD5
Answer: d
Explanation: SHA or MD5 can be used. Kerberos V5 is an authentication protocol, not an encryption protocol; there
fore, answer A is incorrect. Certificates are a type of authentication that can be used with IPsec, not an encryption pr
otocol; therefore, answer B is incorrect.
3. Which two types of IPsec can be used to secure communications between two LANs?
a) AH tunnel mode
b) ESP tunnel mode
c) Both AH tunnel mode and ESP tunnel mode
d) ESP transport mode
Answer: c
Explanation: The AH and ESP tunnel mode IPSec should be used for data transfer purpose, option d is for integrity
& confidentiality purpose. Tunnel mode provides security for the entire original IP packet unlike transport mode whi
ch is not as secure as it only encrypts the data portion and not the whole packet.
4. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.
a) AH
b) ESP
c) PGP
d) SSL
Answer: a
Explanation: The Authentication Header (AH) authenticates the origin of data, and guarantees the integrity of the inf
ormation that’s being sent using IPSec. It also provides anti-reply security.
5. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and ________
a) AH; SSL
b) PGP; ESP
c) AH; ESP
d) PGP; SSL
Answer: c
Explanation: AH ensures that there is no retransmission of data from an unauthorized source, and protects against da
ta tampering. ESP provides with content protection and ensures that there is integrity and confidentiality for the mes
sage.
6. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI model?
a) Network
b) Transport
c) Application
d) Physical
Answer: a
o machines in an IP network. In the TCP/IP model, it provides security at the IP layer i.e. the network layer.
7. ESP does not provide ________
a) source authentication
b) data integrity
c) privacy
d) error control
Answer: d
Explanation: The ESP provides data confidentiality, integrity and authentication. It provides confidentiality through
encryption. ESP can operate in two modes, transport mode and tunnel mode.
8. In computer security _______ means that computer system assets can be modified only by authorized parities.
a) confidentiality
b) integrity
c) availability
d) authenticity
Answer: b
Explanation: Integrity means that computer system assets can be modified only by authorized parities. Confidentialit
y means that the assets can only be accessed by authorized parties. Availability refers to the accessibility of the reso
urce to the authorized parties. Authenticity means that the asset is not unethically changed.
9. In computer security _______ means that the information in a computer system only be accessible for reading by
authorized parities.
a) confidentiality
b) integrity
c) availability
d) authenticity
Answer: a
Explanation: Confidentiality means that the assets can only be accessed by authorized parties. Integrity means that c
omputer system assets can be modified only by authorized parities. Availability refers to the accessibility of the reso
urce to the authorized parties. Authenticity means that the asset is not unethically changed.
10. Which of the following organizations is primarily concerned with military encryption systems?
a) NSA
b) NIST
c) IEEE
d) ITU
Answer: a
Explanation: The NSA is primarily responsible for military encryption systems. The NSA designs evaluates, and im
plements encryption systems for the military and government agencies with high security needs.
1. Two broad categories of congestion control are
a) Open-loop and Closed-loop

b) Open-control and Closed-control
c) Active control and Passive control
d) Active loop and Passive loop
Answer: a
Explanation: Open loop congestion control techniques are used to prevent congestion before it even happens by enfo
rcing certain policies. Closed loop congestion control techniques are used to treat congestion after it has happened.
2. In open-loop control, policies are applied to __________
a) Remove after congestion occurs

b) Remove after sometime
c) Prevent before congestion occurs
d) Prevent before sending packets
Answer: c
Explanation: Open loop congestion control techniques are used to prevent congestion before it even happens by enfo
rcing certain policies. Retransmission policy, window policy and acknowledgement policy are some policies that mi
ght be enforced.
3. Retransmission of packets must not be done when _______
a) Packet is lost
b) Packet is corrupted
c) Packet is needed
d) Packet is error-free
Answer: d
Explanation: Retransmission refers to the sender having to resend the packet to the receiver. It needs to be done only
when some anomaly occurs with the packet like when the packet is lost or corrupted.
4. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the packet times out, several packets have to be resent even some may
have arrived safe. Whereas in Selective Repeat window, the sender resends ___________
a) Packet which are not lost

b) Only those packets which are lost or corrupted
c) Packet from starting
d) All the packets
Answer: b
Explanation: In Selective Repeat, the sender side uses a searching algorithm to find the packets which need to be retr
ansmitted based on the negative acknowledgements received and then resends only those packets thus saving bandw
idth.
5. Discarding policy is mainly done by _______
a) Sender
b) Receiver
c) Router
d) Switch
Answer: c
Explanation: The discarding policy adopted by the routers mainly states that the routers discard sensitive or corrupte
d packets that it receives, thus controlling the integrity of the packet flow. The discarding policy is adopted as an ope
n loop congestion control technique.
6. Closed-Loop control mechanisms try to _________

Answer: a
Explanation: In closed loop congestion control, methods are implemented to remove congestion after it occurs. Som
e of the methods used are backpressure and choke packet.
7. The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream node or nodes is calle
d as _______
a) Admission policy
b) Backpressure
c) Forward signaling
d) Backward signaling
Answer: b
Explanation: In this closed loop congestion control technique, the congested node propagates in the opposite directio
n of the data flow to inform the predecessor node to reduce the flow of packets. This is why this technique is called a
node-to-node congestion control technique.
8. Backpressure technique can be applied only to _______
a) Congestion networks
b) Closed circuit networks
c) Open circuit networks
d) Virtual circuit networks
Answer: d
Explanation: In Virtual circuit networks, each node knows the upstream node from which a flow data is coming. So,
it makes possible for the congested node to track the source of the congestion and then inform that node to reduce th
e flow to remove congestion.
9. The packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion is called _______
a) Explicit
b) Discard
c) Choke
d) Backpressure
Answer: c
Explanation: Choke packet is sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion. Two choke packet techniques c
an be used for the operation called hop-by-hop choke packet and source choke packet.
10. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases __________ until it reaches a threshold.
a) exponentially
b) additively
c) multiplicatively
d) suddenly
Answer: a
Explanation: In slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a thr
eshold. When it reaches the threshold, it stops increasing and continues sending packets through the threshold windo
w thus preventing congestion.
11. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases ____________ until congest
ion is detected.
a) exponentially
b) additively
c) multiplicatively
d) suddenly
Answer: b
Explanation: In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases additively until con
gestion is detected. Once congestion is detected, the size of congestion window is decreased once and then the packe
ts are transmitted to achieve congestion avoidance.
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Virtual Circuit Network?
a) There are setup and teardown phases in addition to the data transfer phase
b) Resources can be allocated during setup phase or on demand
c) All packets follow the same path established during the connection
d) Virtual circuit network is implemented in application layer
Answer: d
Explanation: Virtual circuit network is normally implemented in data link layer. It is a combination of circuit-switch
ed network and datagram network which are implemented in the physical layer and network layer respectively.
2. The address that is unique in the scope of the network or internationally if the network is part of an international n
etwork is called as ______
a) Global address
b) Network address
c) Physical address
d) IP address
Answer: a
Explanation: Global address is a network address that is unique internationally and is used as a common address by
all the users of the network. It is used to create a virtual circuit identifier.
3. The Identifier that is used for data transfer in virtual circuit network is called _______
a) Global address
b) Virtual circuit identifier
c) Network identifier
d) IP identifier
Answer: b
Explanation: A virtual circuit identifier is a type of numeric identifying address that is used to distinguish between di
fferent virtual circuits in a circuit-switched network. It is used for data transfer and has a switch scope.
4. Which of the following is not a phase of virtual circuit network?
a) Setup phase
b) Data transfer phase
c) Termination phase
d) Teardown phase
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three phases in a virtual circuit network: setup, data transfer and teardown phase. There is no
termination phase in it.
5. Steps required in setup process are ___________
a) Setup request and acknowledgement

b) Setup request and setup response
c) Setup request and setup termination
d) Setup and termination steps
Answer: a
Explanation: Setup request (sent by a source) and acknowledgement (sent by the destination) are the steps in the setu
p process. Both the ends’ switches make table entries during the setup process.
6. During teardown phase, the source, after sending all the frames to destination, sends a _____ to notify termination
.
a) teardown response
b) teardown request
c) termination request
d) termination response
Answer: b
Explanation: The source, after sending all the frames to destination sends teardown request to which, destination sen
ds teardown response. The switches then delete the corresponding table entries.
7. Delay of the resource allocated during setup phase during data transfer is ________
a) constant
b) increases for each packet
c) same for each packet
d) different for each packet
Answer: c
Explanation: If a resource is allocated during setup phase, delay is same for each packet as there is only one-time del
ay during the setup phase and no delay during the data transfer phase.
8. Delay of the resource allocated on demand during data transfer is ________
a) constant
b) increases for each packet
c) same for each packet
d) different for each packet
Answer: d
Explanation: If a resource is to be allocated on demand during the data transfer phase, the delay for each packet wou
ld be different depending upon the resource requirement of the packets.
9. In virtual circuit network, the number of delay times for setup and teardown respectively are _______
a) 1 and 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 1
d) 2 and 2
Answer: a
Explanation: There is one-time delay for both setup and teardown phase. The one-time delay in setup phase is for res
ource allocation and the one-time delay in teardown phase is for the de-allocation of the resources.
10. In data transfer phase, how many columns does the table contain?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: The switch maintains a table for each Virtual Circuit Network. In the data transfer phase, it maintains 2
columns each for incoming data and outgoing data. The columns are in the following order: Source port, Source VC
I, Destination port, Destination VCI.
1. Frame Relay is cheaper than other _____
a) LANs
b) WANs
c) MANs
d) Multipoint Networks
Answer: b
Explanation: Frame relay is a standardized wide area network technology and is popularly used because it is cheaper
than leased line WANs. It is also very simple to configure user equipment in a Frame Relay network.
2. Frame Relay networks offer an option called _______
a) Voice Over For Relay

b) Voice Over Fine Relay
c) Voice On Frame Relay
d) Voice Over Frame Relay
Answer: d
Explanation: Frame Relay networks offer an option called Voice over Frame Relay, which transmits voice and voice
-band data over a Frame Relay network. It has two sub-protocols FRF11 and FRF12.
3. There are ________ total features of Frame Relay.
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Nine
d) Ten
Answer: c
Explanation: Frame relay is a wide area network technology used to transmit information over a network in the form
of frames using relays. The frames are of variable size. It is cheaper than other WANs and it’s simple to configure u
ser equipment in the network.
4. Frame Relay does not provide flow or error control, they must be provided by the ______
a) Lower Level Protocol

b) Highest Level Protocol
c) Upper Level Protocol
d) Lowest Level Protocol
Answer: c
Explanation: Frame relay only provides error detection using CRC. If errors are detected, the upper-layer protocols,
such as TCP are expected to provide error correction features. Network layer provides flow control.
5. Frame Relay deploys physical layer carriers such as _______
a) ADMs
b) UPSR
c) BLSR
d) SONET
Answer: d
Explanation: Frame Relays uses carriers such as SONET (for fiber-optic connections) to physically transmit data fra
mes over a Frame Relay network. SONET is cheaper and provides better network reliability than other carriers.
6. Frame relay provides error detection at the ______

a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) network layer
d) transport layer
Answer: b
Explanation: Frame relay provides error detection using CRC in the data link layer. The transport layer then provide
s the error correction features if an error is detected.
7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called _______
a) data link connection identifier

b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
d) circuit connection identifier
Answer: a
Explanation: The Data Link Connection Identifier is 10-bit virtual circuit identifier. It is used to assign frames to the
specified Permanent Virtual Circuits or Switched Virtual Circuits.
8. Frame relay has only _______
a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) physical layer and data link layer
d) network layer and data link layer
Answer: c
Explanation: The physical layer is guided by the protocols recognized by the ANSI and provides conversion to fram
es. The data link layer supports the simplified core functions specified by the OSI model like error detection.
9. In frame relay networks, extended address is used ________
a) to increase the range of data link connection identifiers

b) for error detection
c) for encryption
d) for error recovery
Answer: a
Explanation: Extended address is indicated by the last bit of every address byte in the DLCI. It specifies whether the
byte is the last in the addressing field. It is used to increase the range of data link connection identifiers.
10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?
a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
c) FRAD is used for error detection
d) FRAD is used for error recovery
Answer: a
Explanation: FRAD stands for Frame Relay Assembler/Disassembler. It converts packets into frames that can be tra
nsmitted over Frame Relay Networks. It operates at the physical layer.
a) Connectionless
b) Offer reliable service
c) Offer unreliable service
d) Does not offer error reporting
Answer: b
Explanation: IP does not provide reliable delivery service for the data. It’s dependent upon the transport layer protoc
ols like TCP to offer reliability.
2. Which of the following demerits does Fragmentation have?
a) Complicates routers
b) Open to DOS attack
c) Overlapping of fragments
Answer: d
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation of the IP protocol complex and can also be exploited by attac
kers to create a DOS attack such as a teardrop attack. Fragmentation won’t be required if the transport layer protocol
s perform wise segmentation.
a) Offset
b) Flag
c) TTL
d) Identifier
Answer: a
Explanation: The Fragment Offset field specifies where the fragment fits in the original datagram. The offset of the f
irst fragment will always be 0. The size of the field (13 bits) is 3-bits shorter than the size of the total length field (16
bits).
4. In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in ______
a) IPs
b) Blocks
c) Codes
d) Sizes
Answer: b
Explanation: In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in blocks. The total number o
f addresses in a block of classless IP addresses = 2(32 – CIDR_value).
5. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is replaced with ________
a) Classless Addressing
b) Classful Addressing
c) Classful Advertising
d) Classless Advertising
Answer: a
Explanation: Classful addressing is replaced with classless addressing as a large ratio of the available addresses in a
class in calssful addressing is wasted. In classless addressing, one can reserve the number of IP addresses required b
y modifying the CIDR value and make sure that not many addresses are wasted.
6. First address in a block is used as network address that represents the ________
a) Class Network
b) Entity
c) Organization
d) Codes
Answer: c
Explanation: First address in a block is used as network address that represents the organization. The network addres
s can be found by AND’ing any address in the block by the default mask. The last address in a block represents the b
roadcast address.
7. In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are ________
a) Organized
b) Blocked
c) Wasted
d) Communicated
Answer: c
Explanation: In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are wasted. Thus to solve this classful address
ing is replaced with classless addressing where one can reserve the number of IP addresses required by modifying th
e CIDR value and make sure that not many addresses are wasted.
8. Network addresses are a very important concept of ________
a) Routing
b) Mask
c) IP Addressing
d) Classless Addressing
Answer: c
Explanation: Network addresses are a very important concept of IP addressing. The first address in a block is used a
s network address that represents the organization. The network address can be found by AND’ing any address in th
e block or class by the default mask.
9. Which of this is not a class of IP address?
a) Class E
b) Class C
c) Class D
d) Class F
Answer: d
Explanation: Class F is not a class of IP addressing. There are only five classes of IP addresses: Class A (0.0.0.0 to 1
27.255.255.255), Class B (128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255), Class C (192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255), Class D (224.0.0.
0 to 239.255.255.255), and Class E (240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255).
1. Dual-stack approach refers to _________
a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks

b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
d) Implementing a MAC address with 2 stacks
Answer: c
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approaches used to support IPv6 in already existing systems. ISPs are using it
as a method to transfer from IPv4 to IPv6 completely eventually due to the lower number of possible available addre
sses in IPv4.
2. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams, but they are connected to each other by inter
vening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is ________
a) Use dual-stack approach

b) Tunneling
c) No solution
Answer: b
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel in which at the sender’s side, the IPv6 datagram is encapsulated in t
o IPv4, and at the receiver’s side of the tunnel, the IPv4 packet is stripped and the IPv6 packet is sent to the receiver.
3. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by bits ____
__
a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63
c) 80 to 95
d) 64 to 79
Answer: a
Explanation: Teredo is a technique through which gives the possibility for full IPv6 network connectivity to IPv6 ca
pable hosts which are currently on an IPv4 network. Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents obfuscated 1Pv4 addr
ess of the IPv4 network.
4. A link local address of local addresses is used in an _______
a) Isolated router
b) Isolated mask
c) Isolated subnet
d) Isolated net
Answer: c
Explanation: Isolated subnet is very huge sharing network area in this link local address of local addresses is used. A
link local address can be configured on any subnet with the prefix “FE80::”.
5. In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6, address that is used by a host to test itself without going into networ
k is called _________
a) Unspecified address
b) Loopback address
c) Compatible address
d) Mapped address
Answer: b
Explanation: In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6, address that is used by a host to test itself without going i
nto network is called loop back address. IPv6 loopback address is 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001. IPv
4 loopback address is 127.0.0.1. It’s a reserved address.
6. A few leftmost bits in each address of IPv6 address define its category is called ________
a) Prefix type
b) Postfix type
c) Reserved type
d) Local type
Answer: a
Explanation: Prefix is the bits in the IP address which are placed in leftmost position. A network prefix in IPv6 is gi
ven by a CIDR format-liked number at the end of the address.
7. In IPv6 addresses, addresses that start with eight 0s are called ________
a) Unicast addresses
b) Multicast addresses
c) Any cast addresses
d) Reserved addresses
Answer: d
Explanation: In IPv6 address format, the starting bits are specified with eight 0s to represent reserved addresses. The
se reserved addresses have a certain function pre-defined like the loop-back address is used to test a network card. R
eserved addresses cannot be allotted to a machine.
8. Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true?
a) Leading zeros are required

b) Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros
c) Two colons (::) are used to separate fields
d) A single interface cannot have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types
Answer: b
Explanation: In order to shorten the written length of an IPv6 address, successive fields of zeros may be replaced by
double colons. In trying to shorten the address further, leading zeros may also be removed. Just as with IPv4, a singl
e device’s interface can have more than one address; with IPv6 there are more types of addresses and the same rule a
pplies. There can be link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses all assigned to the same interface.
9. When was IPv6 launched?
a) June 2, 2012
b) June 4, 2012
c) June 5, 2012
d) June 6, 2012
Answer: d
Explanation: IPv6 is the latest version of the Internet Protocol released on 6th June 2012. An IPv6 address is 128 bit
s long. Therefore, 2128 i.e. 340 undecillion addresses are possible in IPv6.
1. Which layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery?
a) Physical layer
b) Network layer
c) Transport layer
d) Application layer
Answer: c
Explanation: The transport layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery, error control and flow control. It pro
vides an interface for the implementation of process to process delivery through ports. There are 65,535 port number
s.
2. In process-to-process delivery, two processes communicate in which of the following methods?
a) Client/Server
b) Source/Destination
c) Message Transfer
d) Peer to Peer
Answer: a
Explanation: The most common method used for this communication is Client/Server. The client requests a service t
hrough a particular port number to the port of the server using its socket address. Then the server responds by giving
the requested service to the client port.
3. Multiple processes on destinations at transport layer are identified by __________
a) Mac address
b) Port number
c) Host number
d) Host address
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiple processes on destinations are identified by a transport layer address also called as port number
. The IP address along with the port number is called the socket address.
4. Range of port numbers in Internet model is __________
a) 0 and 32,765(8-bit)
b) 0 and 32,765(16-bit)
c) 0 and 65,535(32-bit)
d) 0 and 65,535(16-bit)
Answer: d
Explanation: Port numbers are 16-bit integers between 0 and 65,535. They are an interface for the implementation of
process to process delivery for the transport layer.
5. According to Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA), which of the following ranges is not a part of port nu
mber ranges?
a) Well-known ports
b) Registered ports
c) Dynamic ports
d) Static ports
Answer: d
Explanation: IANA divided port numbers into three ranges i.e., Well-known, Registered and Dynamic ports. Well-k
nown port numbers range from 0 to 1023, registered port numbers are from 1024 to 49151 and dynamic port number
s are from 49152 to 65535.
6. The combination of an IP address and port number is called as ________
a) Socket address
b) Port address
c) MAC address
d) Host address
Answer: a
Explanation: Socket address is the combination of an IP address and a port number and it is used to define the client-
end and server-end processes uniquely.
7. Which of the following is false with respect to Connectionless service of transport layer protocol?
a) Packets are not numbered

b) Packets are not delayed
c) No acknowledgement
d) Packet may arrive out of sequence
Answer: b
Explanation: There is a high probability in connectionless services like UDP that the packet gets delayed or lost beca
use there is no connection made between the two end nodes. No connection means that there is no unique pathway f
or the packets to travel.
8. Correct order in the process of Connection-Oriented services is ________
a) i-ii-iii
b) iii-ii-i
c) ii-i-iii
d) iii-i-ii
Answer: d
Explanation: First the client has to request a connection and the server has to accept the connection to establish a con
nection. Then data transfer can start between the two ends. Then both client and server need to terminate their ends t
o terminate the connection.
9. In transport layer, Multiplexing is done at _________
a) Channel
b) Receiver site
c) Sender site
d) Packet
Answer: c
Explanation: At the sender’s side, there are multiple processes which may want to send packets. But there is only on
e transport layer protocol like TCP or UDP working at a time. So the transport layer protocol gets the messages from
these processes and separates them with different port numbers. This process is called multiplexing and it is done be
fore sending packets to the receivers side.
10. The process of error checking and dropping of the header, delivering messages to appropriate process based on p
ort number is called as _______
a) Delivery of packets
b) Error correction
c) Multiplexing
d) Demultiplexing
Answer: d
Explanation: Demultiplexing is the process of error checking and dropping of the header, delivering messages to app
ropriate process based on port number. The transport layer does this on the receiver’s end after the packet is received
and takes help of the header attached by the sender’s side transport layer during multiplexing.
1. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) has been designed to compensate _________
a) Error-reporting
b) Error-correction
c) Host and management queries
Answer: d
Explanation: IP by itself does not provide the features of error reporting or error correction. So, to address these issu
es a network layer protocol called Internet Control Message Protocol is used. ICMP operates over the IP packet to pr
ovide error reporting functionality.
2. Header size of the ICMP message is _________
a) 8-bytes
b) 8-bits
c) 16-bytes
d) 16-bits
Answer: a
Explanation: An ICMP message has an 8-byte header and a variable size data section. Out of the 8 bytes, the first 4
bytes are of a fixed format having the type, code and checksum fields and the next 4 bytes depend upon the type of t
he message.
3. During error reporting, ICMP always reports error messages to ________
a) Destination
b) Source
c) Next router
d) Previous router
Answer: b
Explanation: ICMP notifies the source about the error when an error is detected because the datagram knows inform
ation about source and destination IP address. The source can then retransmit the data again or try to correct those er
rors.
4. Which of these is not a type of error-reporting message?
a) Destination unreachable
b) Source quench
c) Router error
d) Time exceeded
Answer: c
Explanation: Router error is not a type of error-reporting message in ICMP. The type of error reporting message is s
pecified in the ICMP header. Destination unreachable is type 3 error message, source quench is type 4, and time exc
eeded is type 11 error message.
5. ICMP error message will not be generated for a datagram having a special address such as _______
a) 127.0.0.0
b) 12.1.2
c) 11.1
d) 127
Answer: a
Explanation: 127.0.0.0 is a special address known as the loopback address which is used for testing purpose of a ma
chine without actually communicating with a network. Thus no error reporting message will be generated for such s
pecial addresses.
6. When a router cannot route a datagram or host cannot deliver a datagram, the datagram is discarded and the router
or the host sends a ____________ message back to the source host that initiated the datagram.
a) Destination unreachable
b) Source quench
c) Router error
d) Time exceeded
Answer: a
Explanation: Router sends destination unreachable message if the destination is not found. Destination unreachable i
s type 3 error reporting message. It is invoked when the router can’t find a path to the intended destination to forwar
d the packet through.
7. The source-quench message in ICMP was designed to add a kind of ____________ to the IP.
a) error control
b) flow control
c) router control
d) switch control
Answer: b
Explanation: Firstly, it informs the source that the datagram has been discarded. Secondly, it warns the source that th
ere is congestion in the network. It’s type 4 error reporting message after which the source is expected to reduce the
flow of packets.
8. In case of time exceeded error, when the datagram visits a router, the value of time to live field is _________
a) Remains constant
b) Decremented by 2
c) Incremented by 1
d) Decremented by 1
Answer: d
Explanation: This field will be decremented by 1 at every router, and will be zero by the time it reaches source. This
error reporting message is type 11 and is used to prevent the router from travelling forever in case some unknown pa
th anomaly occurs.
9. Two machines can use the timestamp request and timestamp replay messages to determine the ___________ need
ed for an IP datagram to travel between them.
a) Half-trip time
b) Round-trip time
c) Travel time for the next router
d) Time to reach the destination/source
Answer: b
Explanation: The round-trip time refers to the total time taken combining the time taken for a packet sent from a sou
rce to reach a destination and the time taken the acknowledgement sent by the destination to reach the source. The R
outer sends destination unreachable message if the destination is not found.
10. During debugging, we can use the ____________ program to find if a host is alive and responding.
a) traceroute
b) shell
c) ping
d) java
Answer: c
Explanation: Ping program is used to find if a host is alive and responding. It is to be entered into a command line w
ith the syntax “ping (IP address)” to be executed. Traceroute is a program used to find the shortest route to the destin
ation IP.
11. In windows ____________ can be used to trace the route of the packet from the source to the destination.
a) traceroute
b) tracert
c) ping
d) locater
Answer: b
Explanation: Tracert is used in case of windows, whereas Traceroute in UNIX. Tracert is a program used to find the
shortest route to the destination IP. The Router sends destination unreachable message if a path to the destination IP
is not found.
12. In a simple echo-request message, the value of the sum is 01010000 01011100. Then, value of checksum is ____
_______
a) 10101111 10100011
b) 01010000 01011100
c) 10101111 01011100
d) 01010000 10100011
Answer: a
Explanation: The sender side adds the bits of the fragmented packet to find a sum. Checksum is the compliment of t
he sum (exchange 0’s and 1’s). The receiver then has to verify the checksum by adding the bits of the received pack
et to ensure that the packet is error-free.
1. The main reason for transition from IPv4 to IPv6 is _________
a) Huge number of systems on the internet

b) Very low number of system on the internet
c) Providing standard address
d) To provide faster internet
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to huge number of systems on the internet and the lower number of available addresses on IPv4, tr
ansition from IPv4 to IPv6 needs to happen. IPv4 provides around 4 billion unique IP addresses whereas IPv6 provi
des over 340 undecillion unique IP addresses.
2. Which of the following is not a transition strategy?
a) Dual stack
b) Tunneling
c) Conversion
d) Header translation
Answer: c
Explanation: As IPv4 addresses are of 32 bits and IPv6 addresses are of 128 bits, it is not possible to convert IPv4 ad
dress to IPv6 address. So, Dual stack, tunneling and header translation are the three strategies which might help in th
e transition from IPv4 to IPv6.
3. To determine which version to use when sending a packet to a destination, the source host queries which of the fo
llowing?
a) Dual stack
b) Domain Name Server
c) Header information
d) Transport layer
Answer: b
Explanation: Source host queries DNS to determine which version to use when sending a packet to a destination. Th
e DNS contains both, the IPv4 and IPv6 addresses of the modern dual stack host servers.
4. The strategy used when two computers using IPv6 want to communicate with each other and the packet must pass
through a region that uses IPv4 is ______________
a) Dual stack
b) Header translation
c) Conversion
d) Tunneling
Answer: d
Explanation: In tunneling, The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel in which at the sender’s side, the IPv6 datagram is enc
apsulated in to IPv4, and at the receiver’s side of the tunnel, the IPv4 packet is stripped and the IPv6 packet is sent to
the receiver.
5. The correct format of packet in tunnel that uses IPv4 region is ________
a) iii-i-ii
b) iii-ii-i
c) i-ii-iii
d) i-iii-ii
Answer: a
Explanation: At the sender’s side, the IPv6 datagram is encapsulated in to IPv4 i.e. An IPv4 header is inserted on top
of the IPv6 header, and then the packet is sent through the tunnel.
6. ___________ is necessary when the sender wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not understand IPv6.
a) Dual stack
b) Header translation
c) Conversion
d) Tunneling
Answer: b
Explanation: Header translation is used when the sender wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not understand IPv
6. It is made possible through a Network Address Translation – Protocol Translation enabled device such as a gatew
ay.
7. Header translation uses ___________ to translate an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.
a) IP address
b) Physical address
c) Mapped address
d) MAC address
Answer: c
Explanation: A mapped IPv6 address contains the IPv4 address in its last 32-bits and is preceded by 16 1s and 80 0s.
It can be used to translate an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.
8. Which of the following is not a step in the Header translation procedure?
a) The IPv6 mapped address is changed to an IPv4 address by extracting the rightmost 32bits
b) The value of the IPv6 priority field is discarded
c) The type of service field in IPv4 is set to zero
d) The IPv6 flow label is considered
Answer: d
Explanation: In the header translation procedure, first the IPv6 mapped address is changed to an IPv4 address by ext
racting the rightmost 32bits, then the value of the IPv6 priority field is discarded, and finally the ToS field in the IPv
4 header is set to zero. IPv6 flow label is ignored in the procedure.
a) Error reporting
c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling
Answer: a
Explanation: The Internet Protocol is the networking protocol that establishes the internet by relaying datagram acro
ss network boundaries. ICMP is a supporting protocol for IP which handles the Error Reporting functionality.
a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier
Answer: c
Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the type of packets. It is not related to fragmentation but is used to reque
st specific treatment such as high throughput, high reliability or low latency for the IP packet depending upon the ty
pe of service it belongs to.
a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: TTL stands for Time to Live. This field specifies the life of the IP packet based on the number of hops
it makes (Number of routers it goes through). TTL field is decremented by one each time the datagram is processed
by a router. When the value is 0, the packet is automatically destroyed.
4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is _________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) ICMP
d) IGMP
Answer: b
Explanation: The protocol field enables the demultiplexing feature so that the IP protocol can be used to carry paylo
ads of more than one protocol type. Its most used values are 17 and 6 for UDP and TCP respectively. ICMP and IG
MP are network layer protocols.
a) offset
b) flag
c) ttl
d) identifier
Answer: a
Explanation: The Fragment Offset field specifies where the fragment fits in the original datagram. The offset of the f
irst fragment will always be 0. The size of the field (13 bits) is 3-bits shorter than the size of the total length field (16
bits).
6. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________
a) 4bytes
b) 128bits
c) 8bytes
d) 100bits
Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. Therefore, 2128 i.e. 340 undecillion unique addresses are available in
IPv6. IPv4 has only 4 billion possible addresses and IPv6 would be a brilliant alternative in case IPv4 runs out of po
ssible new addresses.
7. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________
a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
Answer: d
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of 40bytes, which results in faster processing of the datagram. T
here is one fixed header and optional headers which may or may not exist. The fixed header contains the mandatory
essential information about the packet while the optional headers contain the optional “not that necessary” informati
on.
8. In an IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
b) Fast switching
c) TOS field
d) Option field
Answer: c
Explanation: The traffic class field is used to specify the priority of the IP packet which is a similar functionality to t
he Type of Service field in the IPv4 header. It’s an 8-bit field and its values are not defined in the RFC 2460.
9. IPv6 does not use ________ type of address.
a) Broadcast
b) Multicast
c) Any cast
d) Unicast
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no concept of broadcast address in IPv6. Instead, there is an anycast address in IPv6 which all
ows sending messages to a group of devices but not all devices in a network. Anycast address is not standardized in
IPv4.
10. Which are the features present in IPv4 but not in IPv6?
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) Anycast address
Answer: d
Explanation: There is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a group of devices but not all de
vices in a network. Anycast address is not standardized in IPv4.
1. Which of the following is the broadcast address for a Class B network ID using the default subnetmask?
a) 172.16.10.255
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 172.16.255.255
d) 172.255.255.255
Answer: c
Explanation: In this case, the class B network ID is 172.16.0.0. We know that the default mask of a class B network
is 255.255.0.0. If we OR any address in a network with the complement of the default mask (0.0.255.255), we get th
e broadcast address of the network. In this case, the result of OR would be 172.16.255.255.
2. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet
address, and broadcast address?
a) Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127

b) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
c) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
d) Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that the prefix 172 lies in class B (128 to 191) of IPv4 addresses. From the subnet mask, we
get that the class is divided into 2 subnets: 172.16.13.0 to 172.16.13.127 and 172.16.13.128 to 172.16.13.255. The I
P 172.16.13.5 lies in the first subnet. So the starting address 172.16.13.0 is the subnet address and last address 172.1
6.13.127 is the broadcast address.
3. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C network ID, which subnet mask would you use?
a) 255.255.255.252
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
Answer: c
Explanation: If you have eight networks and each requires 10 hosts, you would use the Class C mask of 255.255.255
.240. Why? Because 240 in binary is 11110000, which means you have four subnet bits and four host bits. Using our
math, we’d get the following:
4. The combination of _________ and __________ is often termed the local address of the local portion of the IP ad
dress.
a) Network number and host number

b) Network number and subnet number
c) Subnet number and host number
d) Host number
Answer: c
Explanation: It is termed as the local address because the address won’t be applicable outside the subnet. Sub networ
king is implemented for remote sensing in transparent way from that host which is contained in the sub network whi
ch called a local operation.
5. _________ implies that all subnets obtained from the same subnet mask.
a) Static subnetting
b) Dynamic subnetting
c) Variable length subnetting
d) Dynamic length subnetting i) A connection oriented protocol can only use unicast addresses.
Answer: a
Explanation: Static subnetting is used when the requirement is of same number of hosts in each subnet for the institu
tion. The same subnet mask can be used to find the subnet id of each subnet. It is usually used to divide large networ
ks into smaller parts.
6. State whether true or false.
a) True, True
b) True, False
c) False, True
d) False, False
Answer: a
Explanation: In a connection oriented protocol, the host can only establish connection with another host on one uniq
ue channel, that’s why it can only use unicast addresses. In IPv6, there is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows se
nding messages to a group of devices but not all devices in a network.
7. __________ is a high performance fiber optic token ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over distances upto 1000 stati
ons connected.
a) FDDI
b) FDDT
c) FDDR
d) FOTR
Answer: a
Explanation: FDDI stands for Fiber Distributed Data Interface. It is a set of standards for fiber optic token ring LAN
s running at 100 Mbps over distances up to 200 km in diameter and 1000 stations connected.
8. Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?
a) 1000 BASE-SX
b) 1000 BASE-LX
c) 1000 BASE-CX
Answer: d
Explanation: In computer networking, Gigabit Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE) is a term describing various technologies f
or transmitting Ethernet frames at a rate of a gigabit per second (1,000,000,000 bits per second), as defined by the IE
EE 802.3-2008 standard. It came into use beginning in 1999, gradually supplanting Fast Ethernet in wired local netw
orks, as a result of being considerably faster.
9. _________ is a collective term for a number of Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at the nominal rate of 1000 M
bit/s against the original Ethernet speed of 10 Mbit/s.
a) Ethernet
b) Fast Ethernet
c) Gigabit Ethernet
d) Gigabyte Ethernet
Answer: b
Explanation: Fast Ethernet is a set of Ethernet Standards which were introduced in 1995, that carry traffic at the nom
inal rate of 1000 Mbit/s. 100BASE-TX is the most commonly used Fast Ethernet standard.
10. _________ is another kind of fiber optic network with an active star for switching.
a) S/NET
b) SW/NET
c) NET/SW
d) FS/NET
Answer: a
Explanation: A 50-MBd active star fiber optical Local area network (LAN) and its optical combiner and mixing rod
splitter are presented. The limited power budget and relatively large tapping losses of light wave technology, which l
imit the use of fiber optics in tapped bus LAN topologies, are examined and proven tolerable in optical star topologi
es.
1. A network administrator is connecting hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as shown in the ill
ustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the h
osts?
a) i only
b) ii only
c) iii and iv only
d) i and v only
Answer: d
Explanation: First, if you have two hosts directly connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a crossover cabl
e. A straight-through cable won’t work. Second, the hosts have different masks, which puts them in different subnets
. The easy solution is just to set both masks to 255.255.255.0 (/24).
2. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be valid host I
Ds on the LAN interface attached to the router?
a) i only
b) ii and iii only
c) iii and iv only
d) ii only
Answer: c
Explanation: The router’s IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This makes the th
ird octet a block size of 2. The router’s interface is in the 172.16.2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 172.16.3.25
5 because the next subnet is 172.16.4.0. The valid host range is 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254. The router is using the fi
rst valid host address in the range.
3. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?
a) i and iii
b) ii and iv
c) i, ii and iv
d) ii, iii and iv
Answer: b
Explanation: The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 ho
st bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, e
tc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 10.16.2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 10.16.4.0, so the broadcast
address for the 10.16.2.0 subnet is 10.16.3.255. The valid host addresses are 10.16.2.1 to 10.16.3.254.
4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255
.255.224 subnet mask?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 30
Answer: d
Explanation: A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. Does it
matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number of host bits would never
change.
5. You need to subnet a network into 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful subnet mask would you u
se?
a) 255.255.255.192
b) 255.255.255.224
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
Answer: b
Explanation: You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets with 1
4 hosts which is less than 15, so this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30 host
s so this may work. The mask 255.255.255.192 provides 4 subnets, each with 60 hosts so this may work. Comparing
both the possible masks, 255.255.255.224 provides the best answer.
6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses available on each subn
et. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to provide the correct subnet mask?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: d
Explanation: A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more subnets, so let’
s add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5 subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host bit
s (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer.
7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the valid subnet ad
dress of this host?
a) 172.16.112.0
b) 172.16.0.0
c) 172.16.96.0
d) 172.16.255.0
Answer: a
Explanation: A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are used for s
ubnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the fourth octet. Since there is only 1 bit in
the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-which is a value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, w
hich has a broadcast address of 127 since 128 is the next subnet
8. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how m
any hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 30
d) 32
Answer: a
Explanation: A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts are the maxi
mum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface. Out of the 8 addresses possible with the host bits,
the first and the last address are for the subnet id and broadcast address respectively.
9. What is the subnet id of a host with an IP address 172.16.66.0/21?

a) 172.16.36.0
b) 172.16.48.0
c) 172.16.64.0
d) 172.16.0.0
Answer: c
Explanation: A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just count by 8
until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address of the 64 sub
net is 71.255.
10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each

b) 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
c) 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
d) 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
Answer: b
Explanation: A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits, but it p
rovides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.
1. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and DEC net?
a) Ethernet 802.3
b) Ethernet 802.2
c) Ethernet II
d) Ethernet SNAP
Answer: c
Explanation: The Ethernet 802.3 framing is used for NetWare versions 2 to 3.11, and the Ethernet 802.2 framing is u
sed for NetWare versions 3.12 and later plus OSI routing, Ethernet II is used with TCP/IP and DEC net, and Etherne
t SNAP is used with TCP/IP and AppleTalk. The type field in Ethernet 802.2 frame is replaced by a length field in E
thernet 802.3.
2. Consider a situation in which you are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you are running NetWare 4.1
1 and you cannot communicate with your router. What is the likely problem?
a) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation

b) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation
c) Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11
d) NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
Answer: a
Explanation: The default encapsulation on Cisco routers is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare 3.12and later defaul
ts to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11 and earlier defaults to 802.3.
3. NetWare IPX addressing uses a network number and a node number. Which statement is not true?
a) The network address is administratively assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits long
b) The node address is always administratively assigned
c) The node address is usually the MAC address
d) If the MAC address is used as the node address, then IPX eliminates the use of ARP
Answer: b
Explanation: The network address can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits in length. The node number is 12 hexadecimal
digits. The node address is usually the MAC address. An example IPX address is 4a1d.0000.0c56.de33. The networ
k part is 4a1d. The node part is 0000.0c56.de33. The network number is assigned by the system administrator of the
Novell network and the MAC address/node address is not assigned by the administrator.
4. Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3–network layer—of the OSI model?
a) IPX
b) NCP
c) SPX
d) NetBIOS
Answer: a
Explanation: IPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange) is the NetWare network layer 3 protocol used for transferring info
rmation on LANs that use Novell’s NetWare.
5. Which NetWare protocol provides link-state routing?
a) NLSP
b) RIP
c) SAP
d) NCP
Answer: a
Explanation: NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP) provides link-state routing. SAP (Service Advertisement Prot
ocol) advertises network services. NCP (NetWare Core Protocol) provides client-to-server connections and applicati
ons. RIP is a distance vector routing protocol. NLSP was developed by Novell to replace RIP routing protocols.
6. As a system administrator, you want to debug IGRP but are worried that the “debug IP IGRP transaction” comma
nd will flood the console. What is the command that you should use?
a) Debug IP IGRP event

b) Debug IP IGRP-events
c) Debug IP IGRP summary
d) Debug IP IGRP events
Answer: d
Explanation: The “debug IP IGRP events” is used to display a short summary of IGRP routing information. You can
append an IP address onto either console’s command-line to see only the IGRP updates from a neighbor. The comm
and will only give a short summary and hence won’t flood the command line.
7. What does the following series of commands “Router IGRP 71 network” accomplish?
a) It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0

b) It loads IGRP for networks 109 and 71
c) It disables RIP
d) It disables all routing protocols
Answer: a
Explanation: It isolates network 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0 and associates autonomous systems 109 and71 with IGRP. I
GRP does not disable RIP, both can be used at the same time.
8. The “IPX delay number” command will allow an administrator to change the default settings. What are the defaul
t settings?
a) For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks
b) For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN interfaces, one tick
c) For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN interfaces, five ticks
d) For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN interfaces, zero Ticks
Answer: a
Explanation: Tick is basically the update rate of clients in the network. The IPX delay number will give the ticks at a
certain time. The default ticks are–for LAN interfaces, one tick, and for WAN interfaces, six ticks.
9. As a system administrator, you need to set up one Ethernet interface on the Cisco router to allow for both sap and
Novell-ether encapsulations. Which set of commands will accomplish this?
a) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface

b) Interface Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
c) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX
d) Interface Ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
Answer: d
Explanation: The following commands setup the sub interfaces to allow for two types of encapsulation:interface Eth
ernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface Ethernet0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network
6c.
10. What does the “IPX maximum-paths 2” command accomplish?
a) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths
b) It sets up routing to go to network 2
c) It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing
d) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are unequal metric paths
Answer: a
Explanation: It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths. The default is 1 path and the maxi
mum is 512 paths. The value must always be greater than 1 and must be a natural number.
11. You want to enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one router interface. How do you do this?
a) The interface can handle multiple encapsulation types with no extra configuration
b) Assign two network numbers, one for each encapsulation type
c) Enable Novell-ether to run multiple encapsulation types
d) Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so you don’t have to configure anything
Answer: b
Explanation: To assign multiple network numbers, you usually use sub interfaces. A sample configuration follows: I
PXEthernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx netw
ork 6c
12. By default, Cisco routers forward GNS SAPs to remote networks.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Explanation: GNS is Novell’s protocol to Get Nearest Server. If there is a server on the local network,that server wil
l respond. If there isn’t, the Cisco router has to be configured to forward theGNS SAP.
13. To prevent Service Advertisements (SAPs) from flooding a network, Cisco routers do not forward them. How ar
e services advertised to other networks?
a) Each router builds its own SAP table and forwards that every 60 seconds
b) Each router assigns a service number and broadcasts that
c) SAPs aren’t necessary with Cisco routers
d) Cisco routers filter out all SAPs
Answer: a
Explanation: Cisco routers build SAP tables and forward the table every 60 seconds. All SAPs can’t befiltered even
with 4.x since NDS and time synchronization uses SAPs.
14. Novell’s implementation of RIP updates routing tables every _________ seconds.
a) 60
b) 90
c) 10
d) 30
Answer: a
Explanation: Novell’s RIP updates routing tables every 60 seconds, Apple’s RTMP is every 10 seconds, routers AR
P every 60 seconds, IGRP signal every 90 seconds, and Banyan VINES signals every 90 seconds.
15. In Novell’s use of RIP, there are two metrics used to make routing decisions. Select the correct metrics.
a) Ticks & Hops

b) Hops & Loops
c) Loops & Counts
d) Counts & Ticks
Answer: a
Explanation: It first uses ticks (which is about 1/18 sec.); if there is a tie, it uses hops; if hops are equal, then it uses a
n administratively assigned tiebreaker.
1. Which routing protocol has a maximum network diameter (hop count) of 15?
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) EIGRP
d) Both RIPv1 and RIPv2
Answer: d
Explanation: Both RIPv1 and RIPv2 support a maximum hop count of 15 because they use 4-bits to store this value.
RIPv1 uses classful routing whereas RIPv2 uses classless routing. The routing updates are broadcasted over the net
work. It notifies routers about the update so that they update their own routing tables.
2. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its routing table by default?
a) Every 30 seconds
b) Every 60 seconds
c) Every 90 seconds
d) RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically
Answer: a
Explanation: RIPv1 router broadcasts its routing table every 30 seconds by default. The broadcasted routing table ca
n be used by other routers to find the shortest path among the network devices.
3. Which command displays RIP routing updates?
a) Show IP route
b) Debug IP rip
c) Show protocols
d) Debug IP route
Answer: b
Explanation: The debug IP rip command is used to show the Internet Protocol (IP) Routing Information Protocol (RI
P) updates being sent and received on the router. It verifies that the updates are being broadcasted and not multicaste
d.
4. Two connected routers are configured with RIP routing. What will be the result when a router receives a routing u
pdate that contains a higher-cost path to a network already in its routing table?
a) The updated information will be added to the existing routing table Debug IP rip
b) The update will be ignored and no further action will occur Debug IP route
c) The updated information will replace the existing routing table entry
d) The existing routing table entry will be deleted from the routing table and all routers will exchange routing update
s to reach convergence
Answer: b
Explanation: When a routing update is received by a router, the router first checks the administrative distance (A
d) and always chooses the route with the lowest AD. However, if two routes are received and they both have the sa
me AD, then the router will choose the one route with the lowest metrics, or in RIP’s case, hop count.
5. You type debug IP rip on your router console and see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to you with a metric of
16. What does this mean?
a) The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip

b) The route has a delay of 16 microseconds Debug IP route
c) The route is inaccessible
d) The route is queued at 16 messages a second
Answer: c
Explanation: You cannot have 16 hops on a RIP network by default, because the max default hops possible is 15. If
you receive a route advertised with a metric of 16, this means it is inaccessible.
6. Default administrative distance of a static route is ________
a) 0
b) 90
c) 100
d) 1
Answer: d
Explanation: 1 is the default administrative distance of Static Route. It is used by routers to select the best path when
there are different routes to the same destination. It’s used only two different routing protocols are being used.
7. Which protocol gives a full route table update every 30 seconds?
a) IEGRP
b) RIP
c) ICMP
d) IP
Answer: b
Explanation: RIP gives a full route table update every 30 seconds. The broadcasted routing table can be used by othe
r routers to find the shortest path among the network devices.
8. _________ is the default administrative distance of RIP.
a) 0
b) 90
c) 120
d) 130
Answer: c
Explanation: The default administrative distance is the default count of numbers assigned to arbitrary routes to a dest
ination. The default administrative distance of RIP is 120. It is used to find the shortest route amongst the number of
paths available.
9. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocol?
a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed

b) Use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d) IGRP supports classes routing within the same autonomous system
Answer: b
Explanation: Use of variable length subnet masks is permitted in classless routing protocols. Also use of discontinuo
us networks is allowed in such routing protocols. RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol but RIPv2 is classless routing
protocol.
10. Where should we use default routing?
a) On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network
b) Which have more than one exit path out of the network
c) Minimum five exit paths out of the network
d) Maximum five exit paths out of the network
Answer: a
Explanation: We must use default routing on stub networks. They have only one exit path out of the network, so ther
e can be no specific path decided for such networks.
1. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocols?
a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed

b) The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d) RIPv2 supports classless routing
Answer: b
Explanation: Classful routing means that all hosts in the internetwork use the same mask. Classless routing means th
at you can use Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) and can also support discontinuous networking.
2. What is route poisoning?
a) It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops the regular updates. The use of vari
able length subnet masks is permitted
b) It is information received from a router that can’t be sent back to the originating router.RIPv2 supports classless r
outing
c) It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come up
d) It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity
Answer: d
Explanation: When a network goes down, the distance-vector routing protocol initiates route poisoning by advertisin
g the network with a metric of 16, or unreachable.
3. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2?
a) It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1

b) It converges faster than RIPv1
c) It has the same timers as RIPv1
d) It is harder to configure than RIPv1
Answer: c
Explanation: RIPv2 is pretty much just like RIPv1. It has the same administrative distance and timers and is configu
red just like RIPv1.
4. Which of the situations might not require multiple routing protocols in a network?
a) When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to the network

b) When you are migrating from one routing protocol to another
c) When you are using routers from multiple vendors
d) When there are host-based routers from multiple vendors
Answer: a
Explanation: Multiple routing protocols are required only when we need to migrate from one routing protocol to ano
ther, or when we are using routers from multiple vendors, or when there are host-based routers from multiple vendor
s. Routing is not a layer-2 function so we don’t require multiple routing protocols when new layer-2 switch is added.
5. Which two routing protocols can be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router?
a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP

b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2
c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP
d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP
Answer: c
Explanation: OSPF stands for Open Shortest Path First. It is a Link state routing protocol. IP EIGRP and RIPv2 can
be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router.
6. Which is a reason for avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers between the same two routing domains?
a) Higher cost of two routers

b) Routing feedback
c) Cisco IOS incompatibility
d) Not possible to use two routers
Answer: b
Explanation: Routing feedback is an anomaly in which the routing protocols go back and forth between one route an
d another. Routing feedback is a reason for avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers between the same two
routing domains.
7. What does administrative distance rank?
a) Metrics
b) Sources of routing information
c) Router reliability
d) Best paths
Answer: b
Explanation: Sources of routing information is the administrative distance rank. It is used by routers to select the bes
t path when there are different routes to the same destination. It’s used only two different routing protocols are being
used.
8. Which protocol maintains neighbor adjacencies?
a) RIPv2 and EIGRP

b) IGRP and EIGRP
c) RIPv2
d) EIGRP
Answer: c
Explanation: Neighbor adjacency refers to the formal handshake performed by neighboring routers. It is to be done b
efore the router share any routing information. RIP V2 maintains neighbor adjacencies.
9. Which routing protocol implements the diffusing update algorithm?
a) IS-IS
b) IGRP
c) EIGRP
d) OSPF
Answer: c
Explanation: The diffusing update algorithm (DUAL) is used to maintain backup routes to a destination for when th
e primary route fails. EIGRP routing protocol implements the diffusing update algorithm.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Persistent connections are kept active after completing transaction so that multiple objects can be sent
over the same TCP connection.
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) data link layer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is an Application layer protocol used to define how messages are formatted and transmitted thro
ugh the World Wide Web.
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by __________
a) Uniform resource identifier

b) Unique resource locator
c) Unique resource identifier
d) Union resource locator
Answer: a
Explanation: The Uniform Resource Identifier is a name and locator for the resource to be located by the HTTP. The
URLs and URNs are derived through the identifier.
a) User datagram protocol

b) Transmission control protocol
c) Border gateway protocol
d) Domain host control protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP clients perform requests using a TCP connection, because the TCP connection provides a more r
eliable service. UDP is not a reliable protocol, border gateway protocol is used on top of TCP, while domain host co
ntrol protocol is a network layer protocol.
5. In HTTP pipelining __________

b) multiple HTTP requests cannot be sent on a single TCP connection
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP pipelining helps the client make multiple requests without having to waiting for each response, t
hus saving a lot of time and bandwidth for the client.
6. FTP server listens for connection on which port number?
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
Answer: b
7. In FTP protocol, a client contacts a server using ______ as the transport protocol.
a) Transmission control protocol

b) User datagram protocol
c) Datagram congestion control protocol
d) Stream control transmission protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: The clients use the Transmission Control Protocol for FTP as it’s more reliable than UDP, DCCP, and
SCTP, and reliability of file transfer is required to be as high as possible for FTP.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In Passive mode of FTP, the client initiates both data and control connections, while in Active mode, th
e client initiates the control connection and then the server initiates the data connection.
9. The File Transfer Protocol is built on __________

Answer: c
Explanation: The FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to share files. The server can have mult
iple clients at the same time while the client communicates with only one server at a time.
10. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in __________
a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) message mode
Answer: d
Explanation: In Stream mode, the data is transferred in a continuous stream. In Block mode, data is transferred after
being divided into smaller blocks. In Compressed mode, data is transferred after being compressed using some comp
ression algorithm.
1. Which methods are commonly used in Server Socket class?
a) Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()

b) Public Socket accept ()
c) Public synchronized void close ()
d) Public void connect ()
Answer: b
Explanation: The Public socket accept () method is used by the ServerSocket class to accept the connection request
of exactly one client at a time. The client requests by initializing the socket object with the servers IP address.
2. Which constructor of Datagram Socket class is used to create a datagram socket and binds it with the given Port N
umber?
a) Datagram Socket(int port)

b) Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address)
c) Datagram Socket()
d) Datagram Socket(int address)
Answer: b
Explanation: Datagram Socket (int port, Int Address address) is used to create a datagram socket. A datagram socket
is created for connection-less communication between the server and the client. There is no accept() method in this
class.
3. The client in socket programming must know which information?
a) IP address of Server
b) Port number
c) Both IP address of Server & Port number
d) Only its own IP address
Answer: c
Explanation: The client in socket programming must know IP address of Server as it has to use that IP address in ord
er to initialize the socket class constructor. That is how the client requests a connection to the server.
4. The URL Connection class can be used to read and write data to the specified resource that is referred by the URL
.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The URL Connection class can be used to read and write data to the specified resource referred by the
URL. A connection to the URL is initialized by the OpenConnection() method of the class.
5. Datagram is basically just a piece of information but there is no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival time.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Datagram is basically some information travelling between the sender and the receiver, but there is no
guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival time. A Datagram socket class object is created to make a datagram connec
tion between the server and the client.
6. TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are examples of ___________
a) Socket
b) IP Address
c) Protocol
d) MAC Address
Answer: c
Explanation: TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are examples of Protocol. Out of them, TCP is a transport layer pro
tocol and FTP, TELNET, SMTP and POP are application layer protocols.
7. What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?
a) Socket
b) IP Address
c) Protocol
d) MAC Address
Answer: b
Explanation: The java.net.InetAddress class represents IP Address of a particular specified host. It can be used to res
olve the host name from the IP address or the IP address from the host name.
8. The flush () method of Print Stream class flushes any un-cleared buffers in the memory.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The flush () method of Print Stream class flushes any un cleared buffers in memory.
9. Which classes are used for connection-less socket programming?
a) Datagram Socket
b) Datagram Packet
c) Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet
d) Server Socket
Answer: c
Explanation: Datagram is basically some information travelling between the sender and the receiver, but there is no
guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival time. Datagram Socket, Datagram Packet are used for connection-less sock
et programming, while Server Socket is used for connection-oriented socket programming.
10. In Inet Address class, which method returns the host name of the IP Address?
a) Public String get Hostname()

b) Public String getHostAddress()
c) Public static InetAddress get Localhost()
d) Public getByName()
Answer: a
Explanation: In Inet Address class public String getHostname() method returns the host name of the IP Address. The
getHostAddress() method returns the IP address of the given host name.
1. Cookies were originally designed for ____________
a) Client side programming

b) Server side programming
c) Both Client side programming and Server side programming
d) Socket programming
Answer: b
Explanation: Cookies were originally designed for server side programming, and at the lowest level, they are imple
mented as an extension to the HTTP protocol. They were introduced with the intention of providing a better user exp
erience for the websites.
2. The Cookie manipulation is done using which property?
a) cookie
b) cookies
c) manipulate
d) manipulate cookie
Answer: a
Explanation: The cookie property sets or returns all name/value pairs of cookies in the current document. There are
no methods involved: cookies are queried, set, and deleted by reading and writing the cookie property of the Docum
ent object using specially formatted strings.
3. Which of the following explains Cookies nature?
a) Non Volatile
b) Volatile
c) Intransient
d) Transient
Answer: d
Explanation: Cookies are transient by default; the values they store last for the duration of the web browser session b
ut are lost when the user exits the browser. While the browsing session is active the cookie stores the user values in t
he user’s storage itself and accesses them.
4. Which attribute is used to extend the lifetime of a cookie?
a) Higher-age
b) Increase-age
c) Max-age
d) Lifetime
Answer: c
Explanation: If you want a cookie to last beyond a single browsing session, you must tell the browser how long (in s
econds) you would like it to retain the cookie by specifying a max-age attribute. A number of seconds until the cook
ie expires. A zero or negative number will kill the cookie immediately.
5. Which of the following defines the Cookie visibility?
a) Document Path
b) LocalStorage
c) SessionStorage
Answer: d
Explanation: sessionStorage, localStorage and Document path all are used to store data on the client-side. Each one
has its own storage and expiration limit. Cookie visibility is scoped by the document origin as Local Storage and Ses
sion Storage are, and also by document path.
6. Which of the following can be used to configure the scope of the Cookie visibility?
a) Path
b) Domain
c) Both Path and Domain
d) Server
Answer: d
Explanation: The Cookie visibility scope is configurable through cookie attributes path and domain. Domain attribut
e in the cookie is used to specify the domain for which the cookie is sent. Path includes the Path attribute in the cook
ie to specify the path for which this cookie is sent.
7. How can you set a Cookie visibility scope to local Storage?
a) /
b) %
c) *
d) #
Answer: a
Explanation: Setting the path of a cookie to “/” gives scoping like that of localStorage and also specifies that the bro
wser must transmit the cookie name and value to the server whenever it requests any web page on the site.
8. Which of the following is a Boolean cookie attribute?
a) Bool
b) Secure
c) Lookup
d) Domain
Answer: b
Explanation: The final cookie attribute is a boolean attribute named secure that specifies how cookie values are trans
mitted over the network. By default, cookies are insecure, which means that they are transmitted over a normal, inse
cure HTTP connection. If a cookie is marked secure, however, it is transmitted only when the browser and server are
connected via HTTPS or another secure protocol.
9. Which of the following function is used as a consequence of not including semicolons, Commas or whitespace in
the Cookie value?
a) EncodeURIComponent()
b) EncodeURI()
c) EncodeComponent()
d) Encode()
Answer: a
Explanation: Cookie values cannot include semicolons, commas, or whitespace. For this reason, you may want to us
e the core JavaScript global function encodeURIComponent() to encode the value before storing it in the cookie.
10. What is the constraint on the data per cookie?
a) 2 KB
b) 1 KB
c) 4 KB
d) 3 KB
Answer: c
Explanation: Each cookie can hold up to only 4 KB. In practice, browsers allow many more than 300 cookies total,
but the 4 KB size limit may still be enforced by some. Storage of a session has to be a minimum of 5MB.
1. What does REST stand for?

a) Represent State Transfer
b) Representational State Transfer
c) Representing State Transfer
d) Representation State Transfer
Answer: b
Explanation: REST stands for Representational State Transfer and is a software architecture style in which the serve
r sends a representation of the state of the resource that it requests. It provides interoperability between the systems.
2. Which of the following protocol is used by Restful web services as a medium of communication between client a
nd server?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Gopher
d) TELNET
Answer: a
Explanation: Restful web services make use of HTTP protocol as a medium of communication between client and se
rver. The REST architecture was known as the HTTP object model back in the year 1994.
3. Which of the following is not a good practice to create a standard URI for a web service?
a) Maintain Backward Compatibility

b) Use HTTP Verb
c) Using spaces for long resource names
d) Use lowercase letters
Answer: c
Explanation: We must use hyphens (-) or underscores (_) instead of spaces to represent long resource names. It may
lead to the resource to be less recognizable for the system if we use spaces instead.
4. Which of the following HTTP methods should be idempotent in nature?
a) OPTIONS
b) DELETE
c) POST
d) HEAD
Answer: b
Explanation: DELETE operation should be idempotent, means their result will always same no matter how many ti
mes these operations are invoked. Also, the PUT operation is supposed to be idempotent.
5. Which of the following directive of Cache Control Header of HTTP response indicates that resource is cachable b
y only client and server?
a) Public
b) Private
c) Nocache/nostore
d) Maxage
Answer: b
Explanation: Private directive indicates that resource is cachable by only client and server; no intermediary can cach
e the resource. But if we use the public directive, it indicates that the resource may be cachable by any intermediary
component.
6. Which of the following HTTP Status code means CREATED, when a resource is successful created using POST
or PUT request?
a) 200
b) 201
c) 204
d) 304
Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP Status Code 201 means CREATED, when a resource is successful created using POST or PUT r
equest. The code 200 means success i.e. OK, code 204 means NO CONTENT, and the code 304 means NOT MODI
FIED.
7. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS API is used to annotate a method used to create resource?
a) @Path
b) @GET
c) @PUT
d) @POST
Answer: c
Explanation: @PUT is the HTTP request that is used to create resource and also define a complete resource path. @
POST may also be used to create a resource but it won’t define a resource path i.e. an accessing medium.
8. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS API binds the parameter passed to method to a HTTP matrix param
eter in path?
a) @PathParam
b) @QueryParam
c) @MatrixParam
d) @HeaderParam
Answer: b
Explanation: @MatrixParam is the annotation that binds the parameter passed to method to a HTTP matrix paramete
r in path, while @QueryParam binds to a query parameter, @PathParam binds to a value and @HeaderParam binds t
o the HTTP header in the path.
9. In REST architecture, a REST Server simply provides access to resources and REST client accesses and presents t
he resources.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: In REST architecture, a REST Server simply provides access to resources and REST client accesses an
d presents the resources. It is popularly used because it makes efficient use of the bandwidth and can be cached for b
etter performance and scalability.
1. The term that is used to place packet in its route to its destination is called __________
a) Delayed
b) Urgent
c) Forwarding
d) Delivering
Answer: c
Explanation: Forwarding is done by the nodes in the path from source to destination, that are not the intended destin
ation for the packet in order to pass the packet to the next node in the path. The destination machine does not forwar
d the packet to any other node.
2. A second technique to reduce routing table and simplify searching process is called _________
a) Network-Specific Method
b) Network-Specific Motion
c) Network-Specific Maintaining
d) Network-Specific Membership
Answer: a
Explanation: In the network specific forwarding method, there is only one record, the destination of the packet, in th
e routing table and not the other hosts of the network. The other two forwarding methods are the default method and
the next-hop method.
3. Next-Hop Method is used to reduce contents of a _________
a) Revolving table
b) Rotating Table
c) Routing Table
d) Re-allocate table
Answer: c
Explanation: In the next-hop forwarding method, the routing table of each router in the path contains the address of
only the next hop in the path of packet. This method is suitable for short distances only.
4. Several techniques can make size of routing table manageable and also handle issues such as __________
a) Maturity
b) Error reporting
c) Tunneling
d) Security
Answer: d
Explanation: The size of the routing table in the technique must be manageable for the network nodes i.e. it must not
be too big. Security of the forwarding packet is the highest priority for a technique and must be high enough so that
only authorized senders and receivers can access the packet’s content.
5. Host-specific routing is used for purposes such as checking route or providing _____
a) Network Measures
b) Security Measures
c) Routing Measures
d) Delivery Measures
Answer: b
Explanation: In host-specific routing, the route of the packet is defined based on the exact match of the packet’s IP
with the routing table entry of the host. It provides the best security for the packet as the packet is forwarded only to
routers in the pre-defined path.
6. In Unicast routing, if instability is between three nodes, stability cannot be ________
a) Stable
b) Reversed
c) Guaranteed
d) Forward
Answer: c
Explanation: In Unicast routing, there is only sender and one receiver. So, if there is instability between three nodes,
in which one is sender, one is receiver and one is the router in the path, there is no other path available for the packet
and the stability of the network is not guaranteed.
7. In Unicast Routing, Dijkstra algorithm creates a shortest path tree from a ________
a) Graph
b) Tree
c) Network
d) Link
Answer: a
Explanation: The Djikstra’s shortest path algorithm is the fastest among the algorithms for finding the shortest path i
n a graph. But it is a greedy method based algorithm so it does not guarantee the shortest path every time.
8. In Multicast Routing Protocol, flooding is used to broadcast packets but it creates ________
a) Gaps
b) Loops
c) Holes
d) Links
Answer: b
Explanation: In multicast routing, there is one sender and many receivers. So flooding is the most basic method to fo
rward packets to many receivers. The one issue with flooding is that it creates routing loops. One loop prevention m
ethod is that the routers will not send the packet to a node where the packet has been received before.
9. RPF stands for __________
a) Reverse Path Forwarding

b) Reverse Path Failure
c) Reverse Packet Forwarding
d) Reverse Protocol Failure
Answer: a
Explanation: Reverse Path Forwarding is a loop-free forwarding method for multi-cast routing in modern systems. T
he method focuses on forwarding the packet away from the source IP in each iteration to make sure there is no loops
.
10. LSP stands for __________
a) Link Stable Packet

b) Link State Packet
c) Link State Protocol
d) Link State Path
Answer: b
Explanation: A Link State Packet is a packet created by a router that lists its neighboring nodes and routers in link st
ate routing protocol. It is shared with other routers to find the shortest path from a source to the destination.
1. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called as _____________
a) Link state protocol

b) Error-correction protocol
c) Routing information protocol
d) Border gateway protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: In OSPF, the link state of each path is checked, and then the shortest path is chosen among only the op
en state links. Each OSPF router monitors the cost of the link to each of its neighbors and then floods the link state i
nformation to other routers in the network.
2. The computation of the shortest path in OSPF is usually done by ____________
a) Bellman-ford algorithm
b) Routing information protocol
c) Dijkstra’s algorithm
d) Distance vector routing
Answer: c
Explanation: Shortest path in OSPF is usually computed by Dijkstra’s algorithm. It was proposed by Edsger W. Dijk
stra in the year 1956. It is a greedy method algorithm and hence may not guarantee the shortest path every time, but i
s really fast.
3. Which of the following is false with respect to the features of OSPF?
a) Support for fixed-length subnetting by including the subnet mask in the routing message
b) More flexible link cost than can range from 1 to 65535
c) Use of designated router
d) Distribution of traffic over multiple paths that have equal cost to the destination
Answer: a
Explanation: OSPF provides support for variable-length sunbathing by including the subnet mask in the routing mes
sage. For fixed length subnets, there is no requirement for including the subnet mask in the routing message as there
is just one subnet mask for all the subnets.
4. In OSPF, which protocol is used to discover neighbour routers automatically?

d) Hello protocol
Answer: d
Explanation: Hello protocol is used to discover neighboring routers automatically. It makes sure that the communica
tion between neighbors is bidirectional. It’s similar to the real world moral construct of saying “Hello” to initialize t
he communication.
5. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF packet?
a) Hello
b) Link-state request
c) Link-state response
d) Link-state ACK
Answer: c
Explanation: The five types of OSPF packets are: Hello, Database description, Link-state request, Link-state update,
and Link-state ACK. There is no Link-state response packet; the neighbor router sends a Link-state update packet as
a response to the Link-state request packet if there is an update in the routing table.
6. What is the correct order of the operations of OSPF?
a) i-ii-iii
b) i-iii-ii
c) iii-ii-i
d) ii-i-iii
Answer: b
Explanation: OSPF first implements a hello protocol. Then it later on tries to establish synchronisation with database
. Later on building of routing tables is done.
7. In OSPF header, which field is used to detect errors in the packet?
a) Type
b) Area ID
c) Authentication type
d) Checksum
Answer: d
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors. It makes sure that the data portions that are being sent are all in
integrity. It can detect duplicated bits. Once an error is detected, the sender has to re-transmit the data as it won’t rec
eive an acknowledgement.
8. In OSPF database descriptor packet, if there are more database descriptor packets in the flow, ‘M’ field is set to _
___________
a) 1
b) 0
c) more
d) -1
Answer: a
Explanation: The “M” bit is the more bit, which indicates that there are more packets to be received in the descriptor
packet flow whenever it is set to 1. There is also an “I” bit which indicates if the packet is first in the flow.
9. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to indicate that the router is master?
a) M
b) MS
c) I
d) Options
Answer: b
Explanation: The MS bit is used to indicate if the origin of the packet is a master or a slave. If it is set to 1, the sourc
e of the packet is a master, and if it is set to 0, the source of the packet is a slave.
10. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to detect a missing packet?
a) LSA header
b) MS
c) Database descriptor sequence number
d) Options
Answer: c
Explanation: Sequence number field is used to detect a missing packet. The packets are to be received in order of the
sequence number, so if the receiver detects that there is a sequence number skipped or missing in the order, it stops
processing the further received packets and informs the sender to retransmit the packets in sequence.
1. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this number matches the sequence n
umber of the LSA that the receiving router already has. What does the receiving router do with the LSA?
a) Ignores the LSA

b) Adds it to the database
c) Sends newer LSU update to source router
d) Floods the LSA to the other routers
Answer: a
Explanation: When the OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number. If this number matches
the sequence number of the LSA that the receiving router already has, the router ignores the LSA.
2. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is higher tha
n the sequence number it already has. Which two tasks does the router perform with the LSA?
a) Ignores the LSA

Answer: b
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA. If the router checks its sequence number and finds that the number is
higher than the sequence number of the LSA that it already has, the router adds it to the database, and then floods th
e LSA to the other routers.
3. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is lower than
the sequence number it already has. What does the router do with the LSA?
a) ignores the LSA

b) adds it to the database
c) sends newer LSU update to source router
d) floods the LSA to the other routers
Answer: c
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA. If the router checks its sequence number and finds that this number i
s lower than the sequence number that it already has, the router sends newer LSU update to source router. The router
then adds it to the database and floods it to the other routers.
4. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does an LSA wait before requiring an update?
a) 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour
Answer: c
Explanation: Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, an LSA waits for 30 minutes before requiring an update.
The router then has to send a LSR (Link State Request) to its neighbors to get an update.
5. Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF, do not.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In Distance vector routing protocols, there is a problem called count-to-infinity which occurs regularly.
So, to make sure that it does not occur, the split horizon algorithm is used. There is no requirement for it in OSPF.
6. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the __________
a) Topology table
b) Routing table
c) Neighbor table
d) Adjacency table
Answer: b
Explanation: The outcome of Djikstra’s calculation is the main source of entries in the routing table as it is the algori
thm that is used to find the shortest path in OSPF. The calculations are done after receiving every new LSU.
7. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets?
a) 89
b) 86
c) 20
d) 76
Answer: a
Explanation: 89 is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets. 86 is the protocol number for DGP, 76 is the protocol n
umber for Backroom-SATNET-Monitoring and 20 is the protocol number for Host Monitoring Protocol.
8. Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?
a) LSU
b) LSR
c) DBD
d) Query
Answer: d
Explanation: LSU is the Link State Update packet, LSR is the Link State Request packet and DBD is the Database D
escriptor packet in OSPF. Query packet is NOT an OSPF packet type.
9. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use?
a) 224.0.0.5
b) 224.0.0.6
c) 224.0.0.7
d) 224.0.0.8
Answer: a
Explanation: Hello protocol is used to discover neighboring routers automatically. It makes sure that the communica
tion between neighbors is bidirectional. The multicast address that the OSPF Hello protocol uses is 224.0.0.5.
10. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between adjacent
routers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between
adjacent routers. It’s similar to the real world moral construct of saying “Hello” to initialize the communication.
11. DBD packets are involved during which two states?
a) Exstart and exchange

b) Loading and Two-way
c) Init and Full
d) Down and Loading
Answer: a
Explanation: DBD stands for Database Descriptor. DBD packets are involved during the two states Exstart and Exch
ange. In exstart, the master and the slaves are decided and in the exchange state, the DBD is exchanged among the n
eighbors.
12. At which interval does OSPF refresh LSAs?
a) 10 seconds
b) 30 seconds
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour
Answer: d
Explanation: Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, an LSA waits for 30 minutes before requiring an update.
So to make sure that each router first has an up-to-date LSA, OSPF refreshes LSAs after every 1 hour.
13. Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF packet header?
a) Packet length
b) Router ID
d) Maxage time
Answer: d
Explanation: The packet length field gives the length of the packet in bits. The Authentication type field gives the ty
pe of authentication used. The router ID field gives the ID of the source router of the packet. In an OSPF packet hea
der, there is no field called Maxage time.
14. Which two commands are required for basic OSPF configuration?
a) “Network mask area area-id” and “Router ospf process-id”

b) “Wildcard-mask area area-id” and “Network mask area area-id”
c) Only “Router ospf process-id”
d) “Wildcard-mask area area-id” and “Router ospf process-id”
Answer: d
Explanation: The “Router ospf process-id” command enables OSPF routing protocol in the router and the “Wildcard
-mask area area-id” command is used to select the interfaces that we want to include in the OSPF process. That is en
ough for the basic configuration of OSPF in a router.
15. Which OSPF show command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies?
a) Show ip ospf interface

b) Show ip ospf
c) Show ip route
d) Show ip ospf neighbor
Answer: d
Explanation: The “Show ip ospf neighbor” command is the OSPF show command that can describe a list of OSPF a
djacencies i.e. the list of adjacent nodes or neighbors. The router will only communicate with its neighbors directly.
1. Datagram switching is done at which layer of OSI model?
a) Network layer
b) Physical layer
d) Transport layer
Answer: a
Explanation: Datagram switching is normally done at network layer. In datagram switching, the datagram stream ne
ed not be in order as each datagram can take different routes to the destination.
2. Packets in datagram switching are referred to as ________
a) Switches
b) Segments
c) Datagrams
d) Data-packets
Answer: c
Explanation: As the name suggests, in datagram switching packets are called as datagram. Each datagram/packet is t
reated as an individual entity and routed independently through the network.
3. Datagram networks mainly refers to _________
a) Connection oriented networks

b) Connection less networks
c) Telephone networks
d) Internetwork
Answer: b
Explanation: The switch does not keep the information about the connection state, hence it is connection less. There
is no need for establishing a handshake to begin the transmission in such networks.
4. Datagrams are routed to their destinations with the help of ________
a) Switch table
b) Segments table
c) Datagram table
d) Routing table
Answer: d
Explanation: Routing table is used to route the packets to their destinations. The packet/datagram header contains th
e destination header for the whole journey to source to the destination through the routers.
5. The main contents of the routing table in datagram networks are ___________
a) Source and Destination address

b) Destination address and Output port
c) Source address and Output port
d) Input port and Output port
Answer: b
Explanation: Routing table contains destination address and output port to route the packets to their destinations. Th
e port address specifies the particular application that the packet has to be forwarded to after it has reached the destin
ation.
6. Which of the following remains same in the header of the packet in a datagram network during the entire journey
of the packet?
a) Destination address
b) Source address
c) Checksum
d) Padding
Answer: a
Explanation: Destination address remains same in the header during the entire journey of the packet. There is no pre-
decided route for the packets so each datagram/packet is treated as an individual entity and routed independently thr
ough the network.
7. Which of the following is true with respect to the delay in datagram networks?
a) Delay is greater than in a virtual circuit network

b) Each packet may experience a wait at a switch
c) Delay is not uniform for the packets of a message
Answer: d
Explanation: The delay of each packet in a datagram network is different as each packet might take a different route
to the destination. The delay includes the propagation delay and the processing delay that is induced at each stop/swi
tch that the packet encounters in its journey.
8. During datagram switching, the packets are placed in __________ to wait until the given transmission line becom
es available.
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Hash
d) Routing table
Answer: b
Explanation: When there are too many packets to be transmitted and the transmission line gets blocked while transm
itting some packets, the remaining packets are stored in queue during delay and are served as first in first out. The de
lay is called as queuing delay.
9. The probability of the error in a transmitted block _________ with the length of the block
a) Remains same
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) Is not proportional
Answer: c
Explanation: Probability of the error in a transmitted block increases with the length of the block. Hence, the blocks
should be as short as possible for ideal transmission with low possibility of an error.
10. Which of the following is false with respect to the datagram networks?
a) Number of flows of packets are not limited

b) Packets may not be in order at the destination
c) Path is not reserved
d) Delay is the same for all packets in a flow
Answer: d
Explanation: The delay of each packet in a datagram network is different as each packet might take a different route
to the destination. This happens because there is no pre-decided route for the packets.
1. Network layer firewall works as a __________
a) Frame filter
b) Packet filter
c) Content filter
d) Virus filter
Answer: b
Explanation: As you know, firewalls are available as hardware appliances, as software-only, or a combination of the
two. In every case, the purpose of a firewall is to isolate your trusted internal network (or your personal P
c) from the dangers of unknown resources on the Internet and other network connections that may be harmful. The fi
rewall prevents unauthorized access to your internal, trusted network from outside threats.
2. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as _________

a) State full firewall and stateless firewall
b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) Frame firewall and packet firewall
d) Network layer firewall and session layer firewall
Answer: a
Explanation: Most network layer firewalls can operate as stateful or stateless firewalls, creating two subcategories of
the standard network layer firewall. Stateful firewalls have the advantage of being able to track packets over a perio
d of time for greater analysis and accuracy — but they require more memory and operate more slowly. Stateless fire
walls do not analyze past traffic and can be useful for systems where speed is more important than security, or for sy
stems that have very specific and limited needs. For example, a computer that only needs to connect to a particular b
ackup server does not need the extra security of a stateful firewall.
3. A firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted external network meet which is
also known as __________
a) Chock point
b) Meeting point
c) Firewall point
d) Secure point
Answer: a
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a router, a midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, or a combination of th
ese that determines which information or services can be accessed from the outside and who is permitted to use the i
nformation and services from outside. Generally, a firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network
and untrusted external network meet, which is also known as a chokepoint.
4. Which of the following is / are the types of firewall?
a) Packet Filtering Firewall

b) Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
c) Screen Host Firewall
d) Dual Host Firewall
Answer: a
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, a router, or combination of thes
e. Depending on the requirements, a firewall can consist of one or more of the following functional components: Pac
ket-filtering router
5. A proxy firewall filters at _________
a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer
Answer: d
Explanation: The application firewall is typically built to control all network traffic on any layer up to the applicatio
n layer. It is able to control applications or services specifically, unlike a stateful network firewall, which is – withou
t additional software – unable to control network traffic regarding a specific application. There are two primary cate
gories of application firewalls, network-based application firewalls and host-based application firewalls.
6. A packet filter firewall filters at __________
a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer or Transport layer
Answer: c
Explanation: In computing, a firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls the incoming and outg
oing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.1 A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trust
ed, secure internal network and another outside network, such as the Internet, that is assumed not to be secure or trus
ted.2 Firewalls are often categorized as either network firewalls or host-based firewalls.
7. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls?
a) You can control where traffic goes in three networks

b) You can do stateful packet filtering
c) You can do load balancing
d) Improved network performance
Answer: c
Explanation: DMZ stands for De-Militarized Zone. In a topology with a single firewall serving both internal and ext
ernal users (LAN and WAN), it acts as a shared resource for these two zones. So load balancing can be done by addi
ng another firewall.
8. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data stream that has been divided into packets?
a) The source routing feature

b) The number in the header’s identification field
c) The destination IP address
d) The header checksum field in the packet header
Answer: a
Explanation: The source routing feature provides a path address for the packet to help the firewall to reassemble the
data stream that was divided into packets. After reassembling, the firewall can then filter the stream.
9. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________ which is a list of active connections.
a) Routing table
b) Bridging table
c) State table
d) Connection table
Answer: a
Explanation: The routing table basically gives the state of each connection i.e. whether the connection is active or no
t. A routing table ensures the best performance for the stateful firewall.
10. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it can grow proportionally with the network that it protects.
a) Robust
b) Expansive
c) Fast
d) Scalable
Answer: b
Explanation: The firewall has to be expansive because a network is expected to grow with time and if the firewall is
unable to grow with it, the firewall won’t be able to handle the growing network traffic flow and will hence fail.
1. Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of _________
a) Documents
b) Components
c) Servers
d) Entities
Answer: b
Explanation: Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of components. For effect
ive functioning of these thousands of components, good network management is essential.
2. Performance management is closely related to _________
a) Proactive Fault Management

b) Fault management
c) Reactive Fault Management
d) Preventive Fault Management
Answer: b
Explanation: Fault management is really closely related to performance management. It is important to ensure that th
e network handles faults as effectively as it handles it’s normal functioning to achieve better performance manageme
nt.
3. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems: reconfiguration and __________
a) Documentation
b) Information
c) Servers
d) Entity
Answer: a
Explanation: The documentation subsystem of configuration management handles the log making and reporting fun
ctions of the configuration management. It also reports the errors in the network caused by the configuration’s failur
e.
4. In Network Management System, the term that is responsible for controlling access to network based on predefine
d policy is called ___________
a) Fault Management
Answer: d
Explanation: In Network Management System, the term that is responsible for controlling access to the network base
d on predefined policy is called security management. The security management ensures authentication, confidential
ity and integrity in the network.
5. Control of users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of ______________

Answer: c
Explanation: Control of users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of accounting
management. The accounting management creates a log of the users activity on the network too and goes hand-in-ha
nd with the configurations management.
6. The physical connection between an end point and a switch or between two switches is __________
a) Transmission path
b) Virtual path
c) Virtual circuit
d) Transmission circuit
Answer: a
Explanation: The physical connection between an end point and a switch or between two switches is transmission pa
th. The transmission path is the physical roadway that the packet needs to propagate in order to travel through the ne
twork.
7. Which of the following networks supports pipelining effect?
a) Circuit-switched networks
b) Message-switched networks
c) Packet-switched networks
d) Stream-switched networks
Answer: c
Explanation: Packet switched network is most preferred for pipelining process. Pipelining exponentially reduces the
time taken to transmit a large number of packets in the network.
8. In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its connection to the _________
a) IP Server
b) Domain
c) Network
d) Data
Answer: c
Explanation: Network is the main entity connecting different components in a place. A network map is made to trac
k each component and its connection to the network to ensure better network management.
9. MIB is a collection of groups of objects that can be managed by __________
a) SMTP
b) UDP
c) SNMP
d) TCP/IP
Answer: c
Explanation: MIB stands for Management Information Base. Simple network management controls the group of obj
ects in management information base. It is usually used with SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).
10. A network management system can be divided into ___________
a) three categories
b) five broad categories
c) seven broad categories
d) ten broad categories
Answer: b
Explanation: The five broad categories of network management are
1. Which of the following is an advantage of anomaly detection?
a) Rules are easy to define

b) Custom protocols can be easily analyzed
c) The engine can scale as the rule set grows
d) Malicious activity that falls within normal usage patterns is detected
Answer: c
Explanation: Once a protocol has been built and a behavior defined, the engine can scale more quickly and easily tha
n the signature-based model because a new signature does not have to be created for every attack and potential varia
nt.
2. A false positive can be defined as ________
a) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to represent legitimat
e network traffic or behavior
b) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that is not running on the network
c) The lack of an alert for nefarious activity
d) Both An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, turns out to represent legi
timate network traffic or behavior and An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that is not running on the
network
Answer: d
Explanation: A false positive is any alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon further inspection, t
urns out to represent legitimate network traffic or behavior.
3. One of the most obvious places to put an IDS sensor is near the firewall. Where exactly in relation to the firewall i
s the most productive placement?
a) Inside the firewall

b) Outside the firewall
c) Both inside and outside the firewall
d) Neither inside the firewall nor outside the firewall.
Answer: a
Explanation: There are legitimate political, budgetary and research reasons to want to see all the “attacks” against yo
ur connection, but given the care and feeding any IDS requires, do yourself a favor and keep your NIDS sensors on t
he inside of the firewall.
4. What is the purpose of a shadow honeypot?
a) To flag attacks against known vulnerabilities

b) To help reduce false positives in a signature-based IDS
c) To randomly check suspicious traffic identified by an anomaly detection system
d) To enhance the accuracy of a traditional honeypot
Answer: c
Explanation: “Shadow honeypots,” as researchers call them, share all the same characteristics of protected applicatio
ns running on both the server and client side of a network and operate in conjunction with an ADS.
5. At which two traffic layers do most commercial IDSes generate signatures?
a) Application layer and Network layer

b) Network layer and Session Layer
c) Transport layer and Application layer
d) Transport layer and Network layer
Answer: d
Explanation: Most commercial IDSes generate signatures at the network and transport layers. These signatures are u
sed to ensure that no malicious operation is contained in the traffic. Nemean generates signature at application and s
ession layer.
6. IDS follows a two-step process consisting of a passive component and an active component. Which of the followi
ng is part of the active component?
a) Inspection of password files to detect inadvisable passwords
b) Mechanisms put in place to reenact known methods of attack and record system responses
c) Inspection of system to detect policy violations
d) Inspection of configuration files to detect inadvisable settings
Answer: b
Explanation: Secondary components of mechanism are set in place to reenact known methods of attack and to record
system responses. In passive components, the system I designed just to record the system’s responses in case of an i
ntrusion.
7. When discussing IDS/IPS, what is a signature?
a) An electronic signature used to authenticate the identity of a user on the network

b) Attack-definition file
c) It refers to “normal,” baseline network behavior
d) It is used to authorize the users on a network
Answer: b
Explanation: IDSes work in a manner similar to modern antivirus technology. They are constantly updated with atta
ck-definition files (signatures) that describe each type of known malicious activity. Nemean is a popular signature ge
neration method for conventional computer networks.
8. “Semantics-aware” signatures automatically generated by Nemean are based on traffic at which two layers?
a) Application layer and Transport layer

b) Network layer and Application layer
c) Session layer and Transport layer
d) Application layer and Session layer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nemean automatically generates “semantics-aware” signatures based on traffic at the session and appli
cation layers. These signatures are used to ensure that no malicious operation is contained in the traffic.
9. Which of the following is used to provide a baseline measure for comparison of IDSes?
a) Crossover error rate

b) False negative rate
c) False positive rate
d) Bit error rate
Answer: a
Explanation: As the sensitivity of systems may cause the false positive/negative rates to vary, it’s critical to have so
me common measure that may be applied across the board.
10. Which of the following is true of signature-based IDSes?
a) They alert administrators to deviations from “normal” traffic behavior

b) They identify previously unknown attacks
c) The technology is mature and reliable enough to use on production networks
d) They scan network traffic or packets to identify matches with attack-definition files
Answer: d
Explanation: They are constantly updated with attack-definition files (signatures) that describe each type of known
malicious activity. They then scan network traffic for packets that match the signatures, and then raise alerts to secur
ity administrators.
1. Both HDLC and PPP are Data link layer protocols.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Both HDLC and PPP both are Data link layer protocol. HDLC stands for High level Data Link Control
and PPP stands for Point to Point Protocol.
2. Which protocol does the PPP protocol provide for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network?
a) LCP
b) NCP
c) Both LCP and NCP
d) TCP
Answer: c
Explanation: LCP stands for Link Control Protocol and NCP stands for Network Control Protocol. LCP and NCP ar
e the PPP protocols which provide interface for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network.
3. The PPP protocol _________
a) Is designed for simple links which transport packets between two peers
b) Is one of the protocols for making an Internet connection over a phone line
c) Is designed for simple links which transport packets between two peers and making an Internet connection over a
phone line
d) Is used for sharing bandwidth
Answer: c
Explanation: The PPP protocol is designed for handling simple links which transport packets between two peers. It i
s a standard protocol that is used to make an Internet connection over phone lines.
4. PPP provides the _______ layer in the TCP/IP suite.
a) Link
b) Network
c) Transport
d) Application
Answer: a
Explanation: PPP provides function of the link layer in the TCP/IP suite. It focuses on the link between two nodes th
at is going to be used by the users to communicate. It can use pre-installed phone line for the purpose.
5. PPP consists of ________components
a) Three (encapsulating, the Domain Name system)

b) Three (encapsulating, a link control protocol, NCP)
c) Two (a link control protocol, Simple Network Control protocol)
d) One (Simple Network Control protocol)
Answer: b
Explanation: PPP consists of three components namely Link Control Protocol (LCP), Network Control Protocol (N
CP), and Encapsulation. LCP and NCP are the PPP protocols which provide interface for handling the capabilities of
the connection/link on the network and encapsulation provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols
.
6. The PPP encapsulation ____________
a) Provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols

b) Requires framing to indicate the beginning and end of the encapsulation
c) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-link connection
d) Provides interface for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network
Answer: a
Explanation: Encapsulation is a part of PPP which provides means for multiplexing of different network-layer proto
cols. The other two parts of PPP are Link Control Protocol and Network Control Protocol.
7. A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for ____________
a) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-link connection

b) Establishing and configuring different network-layer protocols
c) Testing the different network-layer protocols
d) Provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols
Answer: a
Explanation: The Link Control Protocol (LCP) is the part of PPP that is used for establishing, configuring and testin
g the data-link connection. The other two components are Network Control Protocol and Encapsulation.
8. A family of network control protocols (NCPs) ____________
a) Are a series of independently defined protocols that provide a dynamic

b) Are a series of independently-defined protocols that encapsulate
c) Are a series of independently defined protocols that provide transparent
d) The same as NFS
Answer: b
Explanation: The family of network control protocols (NCPs) is a series of independently-defined protocols that enc
apsulate the data flowing between the two nodes. It provides means for the network nodes to control the link traffic.
9. Choose the correct statement from the following.
a) PPP can terminate the link at any time

b) PPP can terminate the link only during the link establishment phase
c) PPP can terminate the link during the authentication phase
d) PPP can terminate the link during the callback control phase
Answer: a
Explanation: PPP allows termination of the link at any time in any phase because it works on the data link layer whi
ch is the layer in control of the link of the communication.
10. The link necessarily begins and ends with this phase. During the ______ phase, the LCP automata will be in INI
TIAL or STARTING states.
a) Link-termination phase
b) Link establishment phase
c) Authentication phase
d) Link dead phase
Answer: d
Explanation: The link necessarily begins and ends with the link dead phase. During this phase, the LCP automata wi
ll be in the initial or its final state. The link is non-functioning or inactive during the link dead phase.
1. EIGRP is a routing protocol design by Cisco.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: EIGRP stands for Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol is a routing protocol designed by Cisco
. It is available only on Cisco routers.
2. EIGRP metric is ________
a) K-values
b) Bandwidth only
c) Hop Count
d) Delay only
Answer: a
Explanation: EIGRP metric is K-values which are integers from 0 to 128. They are used to calculate the overall EIG
RP cost with bandwidth and delay metrics.
3. EIGRP can support ____________
a) VLSM/subnetting
b) Auto summary
c) Unequal cast load balancing
Answer: d
Explanation: EIGRP supports variable and fixed length subnetting, Auto summary, and Unequal cast load balancing
to provide efficient routing functionality on Cisco routers.
4. EIGRP sends a hello message after every ___________ seconds.
a) 5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN)

b) 5 seconds (LAN), 5 seconds (WAN)
c) 15s
d) 180s
Answer: a
Explanation: EIGRP routers broadcast the hello packets frequently to familiarize with the neighbors. EIGRP routers
send the hello message after every 5 seconds on LAN, and every 60 seconds on WAN.
5. Administrative distance for internal EIGRP is ______
a) 90
b) 170
c) 110
d) 91
Answer: a
Explanation: Routers use the metric of administrative distance to select the best path when there are different routes
to the same destination from two different routing protocols as it is a measure of reliability of routing protocols. Ad
ministrative distance for internal EIGRP is 90.
6. The EIGRP metric values include:
a) Delay
b) Bandwidth
c) MTU
Answer: d
Explanation: The EIGRP metric values are Delay, Bandwidth, and MTU. MTU stands for Maximum Transmission
Unit. They are combined together to give the overall EIGRP cost in K-values.
7. For default gateway, which of following commands will you use on a Cisco router?
a) IP default network
b) IP default gateway
c) IP default route
d) Default network
Answer: a
Explanation: IP default network command is used to find the default gateway in Cisco router. If the router finds rout
es to the node, it considers the routes to that node for installation as the gateway to it.
8. Administrative distance for external EIGRP route is _______
a) 90
b) 170
c) 110
d) 100
Answer: b
Explanation: Routers use the metric of administrative distance to select the best path when there are different routes
to the same destination from two different routing protocols as it is a measure of reliability of routing protocols. Ad
ministrative distance for external EIGRP is 170.
9. EIGRP uses the ____________ algorithm for finding shortest path.
a) SPF
b) DUAL
c) Linkstat
d) Djikstra’s
Answer: b
Explanation: EIGRP uses the DUAL algorithm for finding shortest path. DUAL stands for diffusing update algorith
m and it is used to prevent routing loops by recalculating routes globally.
10. In EIGRP best path is known as the successor, where as backup path is known as __________
a) Feasible successor
b) Back-up route
c) Default route
d) There is no backup route in EIGRP
Answer: a
Explanation: Feasible successor is the backup path. The backup path is used alternatively used whenever the best pat
h fails. It is not used primarily because it is comparatively expensive than the best path.

8/5/2021 Unit 1- computer network mcq questions – TheCodingShef
TheCodingShef
Unit 1- computer network mcq questions

Leave a Comment / computer Network MCQ questions
Hey Guys, If you are preparing Computer Network for the AKTU exams, then These are the Important computer
network mcq questions. so must go through these questions.
Note*: Do not depend only on these MCQ’s, Yes surely these questions help you in AKTU exams so do it first
and after that if you have enough time, study all the core topics as well.
You can also check out these subjects as well: Data Compression, Machine learning, Image processing
Computer network MCQ questions
1. Which processes does TCP, but not UDP, use?
a. Windowing
b. Acknowledgements
c. Both a and b
d. Destination Port
Answer: Option(c)
2. SMTP is a protocol used in which layer?
a. Application
b. Network
c. Physical
d. Transport
Answer: Option(a)
3. Terminators are used in which topology?
a. Bus
b. Star
c. Ring
d. token ring
Answer: Option(a)
4. In which topology, if a computer’s network cable is broken, whole network goes down.
a. Ring
b. Star
c. Bus
https://thecodingshef.com/unit-1-computer-network-mcq-questions/ 1/11
d. token ring
Answer: Option(c)
5. For large networks, which topology is used?
a. Bus
b. Tree
c. Ring
d. Mesh
Answer: Option(b)
a. STP server
b. Hub/switch
c. PDC
d. Router
Answer: Option(b)
7. In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of
a. session layer
b. network layer
c. transport layer
d. data link layer
Answer: Option(a)
8. In OSI network architecture, the routing is
performed by
a. network layer
b. data link layer
c. transport layer
d. session layer
Answer: Option(a)
9. Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation?
a. fiber optics
b. satellite
c. coaxial cable
d. Modem
Answer: Option(d)
10. The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by a receiving
computer is referred to as
a. modulation
b. demodulation
c. synchronizing
d. Digitizing
Answer: Option(b)
11. The protocol data unit (PDU) for the application layer in the Internet stack is?
a. Datagram
b. Frame
c. Message
d. Segment
Answer: Option(c)
12. Which protocol does switch use at the layer 2 for finding MAC address?
a. ICMP
b. UDP
c. ARP
d. TCP
Answer: Option(c)
13. Which OSI layer adds a trailer during encapsulation of data?
a. Layer 3
b. Layer 4
c. Layer 2
d. Layer 5,6,7
Answer: Option(d)
14. Which of the following term describes PDU encapsulated at Transport Layer?
a. Frame
b. Packet
c. Data
d. Segment
Answer: Option(d)
15. Which protocol does HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) – use for transferring web pages at the Transport
layer
a. IP
b. UDP
c. TCP
d. ARP
Answer: Option(c)
16. There are 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex.and a server connected to the switch
running 10Mbps halfduplex as well. Find the bandwidth does each host have to the server?
a. 100 kbps
b. 1 Mbps
c. 2 Mbps
d. 10 Mbps
Answer: Option(d)
17. While transferring files between server and client, if the transmission rates along the path is 10Mbps,
20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is usually
a. 20Mbps
b. 10Mbps
c. 40Mbps
d. 50Mbps
Answer: Option(b)
18. Which is the additional layer to OSI model
when compared with TCP IP model?
b. Presentation layer
c. Session layer
d. Session and Presentation layer
Answer: Option(d)
19. Maximum data transfer rate of the optical
fiber is……….?
a. 50 kbps
b. 1000 kbps
c. 1000 Mbps
d. None of the these
Answer: Option(c)
20. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called __
b) protocol stack
c) protocol suite
d) protocol system
Answer: Option(b)
21. Connector RJ-45 contains?
a. Two pins
b. Four pins
c. Eight pins
d. Ten pins
Answer: Option(c)
22. Which is not the legitimate transmission directions listed here?
a. Simplex
b. Half Duplex
c. Full Duplex
d. Double Duplex
Answer: Option(d)
23. Which layer provides interface between network support layers and user support layers?
a. session layer
b. data link layer
c. transport layer
d. network layer
Answer: Option(c)
24. A set of rules that governs data
communication is called
a. Protocols
b. Standards
c. RFCs
d. Servers
Answer: Option(c)
25. Which one is not a network topology?
a. Star
b. Ring
c. Bus
d. Peer to Peer
Answer: Option(d)
26. Full form of OSI
a. open system interconnection
b. operating system interface
c. optical service implementation
d. open service Internet
Answer: Option(a)
27. Identify the non suitable medium for 802.3 ethernet?
a. A thin coaxial cable
b. A twisted pair cable
c. A microwave link
d. A fiber optical cable
Answer: Option(c)
28. HTTP stands for?
a. Hyper terminal tracing program
b. Hypertext tracing protocol
c. Hypertext transfer protocol
d. Hypertext transfer program
Answer: Option(c)
29. Find the best suitable topology for large businesses which must capable to control and coordinate the
operation of distributed branch outlets?
a. Ring
b. Local area
c. Hierarchical
d. Star
Answer: Option(d)
30. Which mode of Communication occurs between a computer and a keyboard.
a. Automatic
b. Half-duplex
c. Full-duplex
d. Simplex
Answer: Option(d)
31. How many layers are present in the Internet protocol stack (TCP/IP model)?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 6
d. 10
Answer: Option(a)
32. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __
a. 5
b. 7
c. 6
d. 10
Answer: b
33. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP model?
c. Session layer
Answer: d
34. Application layer is implemented in
a. End system
b. NIC
c. Ethernet
d. Packet transport
Answer: a
35. Transport layer is implemented in
a. End system
b. NIC
c. Ethernet
d. Signal transmission
Answer: a
36. The functionalities of the presentation layer
include __
a. Data compression
b. Data encryption
c. Data description
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: d
37. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by __
b. Session layer
c. Transport layer
d. Link layer
Answer: b
38. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is
b. Transport layer
c. Link layer
d. Session layer
Answer: d
39. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is ____________
b. Transport layer
c. Link layer
d. Session layer
Answer: a
40. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are_______
a. Added
b. Removed
c. Rearranged
d. Randomized
Answer: b
41. Which of the following statements can be associated with OSI model?
a. A structured way to discuss and easier update system components
b. One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality

42. Which of the following statements can be associated with OSI model?
a. A structured way to discuss and easier update system components
b. One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality
c. Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer
d. It is an application-specific network model
Answer: c
43. Which transmission media provides the highest transmission speed in a network?
a. coaxial cable
b. twisted pair cable
c. optical fiber
d. electrical cable
Answer: Option(c)
44. Bits can be sent over guided and unguided media as analog signal by
a. digital modulation
b. amplitude modulation
c. frequency modulation
d. phase modulation
Answer: Option(a)
45. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control sublayer is called
a. a. physical signaling sublayer

b. physical data sublayer
c. physical address sublayer
d. physical transport sublayer
Answer: Option(a)
46. The physical layer provides
a. mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables

b. electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c. specification for IR over optical fiber
Answer: Option(d)
47. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides _
a. start and stop signalling
b. flow control
c. both start & stop signalling
and flow control
d. only start signalling
Answer: Option(c)
48. The physical layer is responsible for
a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
Answer: Option(d)
49. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the __ into hardware specific operations.
a. data link layer
b. network layer
c. trasnport layer
d. application layer
Answer: Option(a)
50. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by _
a. analog modulation
b. digital modulation
c. multiplexing
d. phase modulation
Answer: Option(c)
51. Wireless transmission of signals can be done via _
a. radio waves
b. microwaves
c. infrared
Answer: Option(d)
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Unit 2- computer network mcq questions

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Unit 2: Computer network MCQ questions
1. The two sublayers of a Data Link layer are
a. LLC Logical Link Control Layer

b. MAC Medium Access Control Layer
c. Both A and B
d. Data Layer
Answer: Option(c)
2. Which is the protocol that maps varying IP addresses to the Physical MAC Address of a machine in a LAN
network?
a. ARQ (Automatic Repeat Request)

b. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
c. SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol)
d. PLIP (Parallel Line Internet Protocol)
Answer: Option(b)
3. The types of data services offered by an LLC (Logical Link Control) layer are
a. Connectionless which is fast and unreliable

b. Connection Oriented which is slow and reliable
c. Both A and B
d. None
Answer: Option(c)
4. Choose the Protocols working in the Data Link Control Layer of OSI model below
a. ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode), Frame Relay

b. HDLC (High Level Data Link Control), SDLC (Synchronous Data Link Control)
c. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), IEEE802.3
d. All the above
Answer: Option(d)
5. The functions of a Logical Link Layer (LLC) are
a. Error control
b. Flow control
c. Creating and managing the communication link between two devices with the help of the Transport layer.
d. All the above
Answer: Option(d)
6. Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by ________
a. logical link control sublayer

d. application access control sublayer
Answer: Option(a)
Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by ________

d. application access control sublayer
Answer: Option(a)
7. The Dialup connections to access the internet uses ___ protocol.
a. PPP (Point to Point protocol)

b. X.25 protocol
c. PLIP protocol
d. None
Answer: Option(a)
8. Which protocols adopted the standards of HDLC (High Level Link Control) protocol?
a. X.25 protocol as LAPB (Link Access Procedure Balanced, V.42 protocol as LAPM (Link Access Procedure for
Modems)
b. Frame Relay protocol as LAPF (Link Access Procedure for Frame Relay)
c. ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) protocol as LAPD (Link Access Procedure on D channel)
d. All the above
Answer: Option(d)
9. Header of a frame generally contains
a. synchronization bytes
b. addresses
c. frame identifier
Answer: Option(d)
10. Which sublayer of the data link layer
performs data link functions that depend upon
the type of medium?
d. error control sublayer
Answer: Option(b)
a. cyclic redundancy check
b. code repeat check
c. code redundancy check
d. cyclic repeat check
Answer: Option(a)
12. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is called _____
a. random error
b. burst error
c. inverted error
d. double error
Answer: Option(b)
13. Which of the following is a data link protocol?
a. ethernet
b. point to point protocol
c. hdlc
Answer: Option(d)
14. Which of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access control?
a. CSMA/CD
b. CSMA/CA
c. Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
d. HDLC
Answer: Option(c)
15. The technique of temporarily delaying
outgoing acknowledgements so that they can
be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is
called ____________
a. piggybacking
b. cyclic redundancy check
c. fletcher’s checksum
d. parity check
Answer: Option(a)
16. Which of the following uses a very thin
glass or plastic fiber through which pulses of
light travel?
a. Cat 1
b. Optical fiber
c. Twisted pair
d. Coax
Answer: Option(b)
acknowledgement (ACK) to station A in Stop
and Wait protocol?
a. only when no error occurs at the
transmission level
b. when retransmission of old packet in a
novel frame is necessary
c. only when station B receives frame
with errors
d. all of the above
Answer: Option(a)
18. Which consequences are more likely to
occur during the frame transmission in
StopandWait ARQ mechanism?
a. Loss of frame or an acknowledgementCOMPUTER NETWORKS 2020-21
b. Delay in an acknowledgement
c. Normal operation
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(d)
19. Which provision can resolve / overcome
the shortcomings associated with duplication
or failure condition of Stop and Wait
Automatic Repeat Request protocol especially
due to loss of data frames or non reception of
acknowledgement?
a. Provision of sequence number in the
header of message
b. Provision of checksum computation
c. Both a & b
Answer: Option(a)
20. Which ARQ mechanism deals with the
transmission of only damaged or lost frames
despite the other multiple frames by increasing
the efficiency & its utility in noisy channels?
a. GoBackN ARQ
b. Selective Repeat ARQ
c. StopandWait ARQ
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(b)
21. Which feature of Go Back N ARQ
mechanism possesses an ability to assign the
sliding window in the forward direction?
a. Control Variables
b. Sender Sliding Window
c. Receiver Sliding Window
d. Resending of frames
Answer: Option(b)
22. Which operational mode/s of HDLC
support/s the balanced configuration by
governing point to point link connectivity in
addition to the primary as well as secondary
functions performed by the station?

a. NRM
b. ABM
c. Both a & b
Answer: Option(b)
23. Which category of HDLC frames
undergoes error and flow control mechanisms
by comprising send and receive sequence
numbers?
a. Uframes
b. Iframes
c. Sframes
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(c)
24. Which type of Sframe in HDLC exhibit the
correspondence of last three bits [N(R)] by
defining the negative acknowledgement
(NAK) number with the code value of ’01’?
a. Receive ready
b. Receive not ready
c. Reject
d. Selective Reject
Answer: Option(c)
25. Which among the following represents the
objectives/requirements of Data Link Layer?
a. Frame Synchronization
b. Error & Flow Control
c. Both a & b
Answer: Option(c)
acknowledgement (ACK) to station A in Stop
and Wait protocol?
a. only when no error occurs at the
transmission level
b. when retransmission of old packet in a
novel frame is necessary
c. only when station B receives frame
with errorsCOMPUTER NETWORKS 2020-21
d. all of the above
Answer: Option(a)
27. For pure ALOHA, the maximum channel
utilization is
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 36%
d. 18%
Answer: Option(d)
28. The program used to determine the round trip delay between a workstation and a destination address is
a. Tracert
b. Traceroute
c. Ping
d. Pop
Answer: Option(b)
29. What is the difference between the Ethernet frame preamble field and the IEEE 802.3 preamble and start of
frame Delimiter fields?
a. 1 byte
b. 1 bit
c. 4 bit
d. 16 bit
Answer: Option(a)
30. Which of the following approaches to switching share networks resource?
a. Circuit switching
b. Packet switching
c. Both A and B
d. None of these
Answer: Option(b)
31. Determine the maximum length of the cable (in km) for transmitting data at a rate of 500 Mbps in an Ethernet
LAN with frames of size 10,000 bits. Assume the signal speed in the cable to be 2,00,000 km/s.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 2.5
d. 5
Answer: Option(b)
32. Let G(x) be the generator polynomial used for CRC checking. What is the condition that should be satisfied by
G(x) to detect odd number of bits in error?
a. G(x) contains more than two terms
b. G(x) does not divide 1+x^k, for any k not exceeding the frame length
c. 1+x is a factor of G(x)
d. G(x) has an odd number of terms
Answer: Option(c)
33. In Ethernet when Manchester encoding is used, the bit rate is:
a. Half the baud rate.
b. Twice the baud rate.
c. Same as the baud rate.
Answer: Option(a)
34. In a token ring network the transmission speed is 10^7 bps and the propagation speed is 200 metres/micro
second. The 1- bit delay in this network is equivalent to:
a. 500 metres of cable.
b. 200 metres of cable.
c. 20 metres of cable.
d. 50 metres of cable
Answer: Option(c)
35. The message 11001001 is to be transmitted using the CRC polynomial x^3 + 1 to protect it from errors. The
message that should be transmitted is:
a. 11001001000
b. 11001001011
c. 11001010
d. 110010010011
Answer: Option(b)
36. The distance between two stations M and N is L kilometers. All frames are K bits long. The propagation delay per
kilometer is t seconds. Let R bits/second be the channel capacity. Assuming that processing delay is negligible, the
minimum number of bits for
the sequence number field in a frame for maximum utilization, when the sliding window protocol used is:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Answer: Option(c)
37. A bit-stuffing based framing protocol uses an 8-bit delimiter pattern of 01111110. If the output bit-string after
stuffing is 01111100101, then the input bit-string is
a. 0111110100
b. 0111110101
c. 0111111101
d. 0111111111
Answer: Option(b)
38. Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit messages to Station B using a sliding window protocol. The round trip
delay between A and B is 80 milliseconds and the bottleneck bandwidth on the path between A and B is 128 kbps.
What is the optimal window size that A should use?
a. 20
b. 40
c. 160
d. 320
Answer: Option(b)
39. Suppose the round trip propagation delay for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming signal is 46.4 ms. The
minimum frame size
is
a. 94
b. 416
c. 464
d. 512
Answer: Option(c)
40. How many 8-bit characters can be transmitted per second over a 9600 baud serial communication link using
asynchronous mode of transmission with one start bit, eight data bits, two stop bits, and one parity bit ?
a. 600
b. 800
c. 876
d. 1200
Answer: Option(b)
41. Consider a CSMA/CD network that transmits data at a rate of 100 Mbps (108 bits per second) over a 1 km
(kilometre) cable with no repeaters. If the minimum frame size required for this network is 1250 bytes, what is the
signal speed (km/sec) in the cable?
a. 8000
b. 10000
c. 16000
d. 20000
Answer: Option(d)
42. Which one of the following statements is
FALSE?
a. Packet switching leads to better utilization of bandwidth resources than circuit switching.
b. Packet switching results in less variation in delay than circuit switching.
c. Packet switching requires more per packet processing than circuit switching
d. Packet switching can lead to reordering unlike in circuit switching
Answer: Option(b)
43. Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD
a. IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD protocol
b. Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol
c. CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite network
d. There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network
Answer: Option(c)
44. A sender uses the Stop-and-Wait ARQ protocol for reliable transmission of frames. Frames are of size 1000 bytes
and the transmission rate at the sender is 80 Kbps (1Kbps = 1000 bits/second). The size of an acknowledgment is
100 bytes and the transmission rate at the receiver is 8 Kbps. The one-way propagation delay is 100 milliseconds.
Assuming no frame is lost, the sender throughput is __________
bytes/second.
a. 2500
b. 2000
c. 1500
d. 500
Answer: Option(a)
45. In an Ethernet local area network, which one of the following statements is TRUE ?
a. A station stops to sense the channel once it starts transmitting a frame.
b. The purpose of the jamming signal ito pad the frames that are smaller than the minimum frame size.
c. A station continues to transmit the packet even after the collision is detected.
d. The exponential backoff mechanism reduces the probability of collision on retransmissions
Answer: Option(d)
46. How many bytes of data can be sent in 15seconds over a serial link with baud rate of 9600 in asynchronous
mode with odd parity and two stop bits in the frame?
a. 10,000 bytes
b. 12,000 bytes
c. 15,000 bytes
d. 27,000 bytes
Answer: Option(b)
47. The minimum frame size required for a CSMA/CD based computer network running at 1 Gbps on a 200m cable
with a link speed of 2 × 108m/s is
a. 125 bytes
b. 250 bytes
c. 500 bytes
d. None of these
Answer: Option(b)
48. Suppose that the one-way propagation delay for a 100 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming signal is 1.04
micro-seconds. The minimum frame size in bits is:
a. 112
b. 160
c. 208
d. 256
Answer: Option(d)
49. Which of the following statement is False
about the efficiency of the given channel?
a. If we want to send big packets on the
channel, then Stop and Wait is good
choice.
b. If length of packet increases,
efficiency of channel also increases.
c. Distance between sender and
receiver is directly proportional to
efficiency of channel.
d. Efficient might be less if capacity of
channel is high
Answer: Option(c)
50. Consider a link with packet loss probability
of 0.2. What is the expected number of
transmissions it would take to transfer 200
packets given that the stop and wait protocol
is used?
a. 125
b. 250
c. 225COMPUTER NETWORKS 2020-21
d. 150
Answer: Option(b)
51. Which of the following devices takes data
sent from one network device and forwards
it to the destination node based on MAC
address ?
a. Hub
b. Modem
c. Switch
d. Gateway
Answer: Option(c)
52. In Ethernet CSMA/CD, the special bit
sequence transmitted by media access
management to handle collision is called
a. Preamble
b. Postamble
c. Jam
Answer: Option(c)
53. Let C be a binary linear code with minimum
distance 2t + 1 then it can correct upto _____
bits of error.
a. t + 1
b. t
c. t – 2
d. t / 2
Answer: Option(b)
54. In CRC if the data unit is 100111001 and the
divisor is 1011 then what is dividend at the
receiver?
a. 100111001101
b. 100111001011
c. 100111001
d. 100111001110
Answer: Option(b)
55. A certain population of ALOHA users
manages to generate 70 request/sec. If the
time is slotted in units of 50 msec, then
channel load would be
a. 4.25
b. 3.5
c. 350
d. 450
Answer: Option(b)
56. Match the following
a. (1)
b. (2)
c. (3)
d. (4)
Answer: Option(a)
57. If the frame to be transmitted is 1101011011

and the CRC polynomial to be used for
generating checksum is x
4+ x + 1, then what
is the transmitted frame?
a. 11010110111011
b. 11010110111101
c. 11010110111110
d. 11010110111001
Answer: Option(c)
58. What will be the efficiency of a Stop and
Wait protocol, if the transmission time for a
frame is 20ns and the propagation time is
30ns?
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 40%
d. 66%
Answer: Option(b)
59. Bit stuffing refers to
a. inserting a 0 in user stream
to differentiate it with a flagCOMPUTER NETWORKS 2020-21
b. inserting a 0 in flag stream to
avoid ambiguity
c. appending a nipple to the flag
sequence
d. appending a nipple to the use data stream
Answer: Option(a)
60. _______ can detect burst error of length less than or equal to degree of the polynomial and detects burst errors
that affect odd number of bits.
a. Hamming Code
b. CRC
c. VRC
8/5/2021 Unit 3 Computer Network mcq Questions – TheCodingShef
TheCodingShef
Unit 3 Computer Network mcq Questions

Leave a Comment / Aktu Exams MCQs, computer Network MCQ questions
1. The network layer is concerned with
__________ of data.
a. bits
b. frames
c. packets
d. bytes
Answer: Option(c)
2. Which one of the following is not a function
of network layer?
a. routing
b. inter-networking
c. congestion control
d. error control
Answer: Option(d)
3. In virtual circuit network each packet
contains ___________
a. full source and destination address
b. a short VC number
c. only source address
d. only destination address
Answer: Option(b)
4. Which of the following is not correct in
relation to multi-destination routing?
a. is same as broadcast routing
b. contains the list of all destinations
c. data is not sent by packets
d. there are multiple receivers
Answer: Option(c)
5. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________
a. only network address
b. only host address
c. network address & host address
d. network address & MAC address
Answer: Option(c)
6. Which of the following routing algorithms
can be used for network layer design?
a. shortest path algorithm
b. distance vector routing
c. link state routing
Answer: Option(b)
7. A subset of a network that includes all the
routers but contains no loops is called
________
a. spanning tree
b. spider structure
c. spider tree
d. special tree
Answer: Option(a)
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not
used for congestion control?
a. traffic aware routing
b. admission control
c. load shedding
d. routing information protocol
Answer: Option(d)
9. ICMP is primarily used for __________
a. error and diagnostic functions
b. addressing
c. forwarding
d. routing
Answer: Option(a)
10. The network layer contains which
hardware device?
a. Routers, Bridges
b. Bridges only
c. Bridges and switches
d. Routers, Bridges and Switches
Answer: Option(d)
11. Network layer protocol exits in _________
a. Host
b. Switches
c. Packets
d. Bridges
Answer: Option(a)
12. What are the common protocols associated
with the network layer?
a. Address Resolution Protocol
b. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
c. Internet protocol
d. Neighbour Discovery Protocol
Answer: Option(c)
13. The network layer responds to request
from which layer?
a. Transport layer
b. Data layer
d. Session layer
Answer: Option(a)
14. The network layer issues request to which
layer?
a. Transport layer
b. Data layer
d. Session layer
Answer: Option(b)
15. What are called routers?
a. The devices that operates at session
layer
b. The devices that operates at data layer
c. The devices that operates at
application layer
d. The devices that operates at

network
Answer: Option(d)
16. ICMP stands for __________
a. Internet Coordinate Message Protocol
b. Internet Control Message Protocol
c. Interconnect Control Message
Protocol
d. Interconnect Coordinate Message
Protocol
Answer: Option(b)
17. Packets will be transferred in how many
types?
a. 5 types
b. 4 types
c. 2 types
d. 3 types
Answer: Option(d)
18. RIP stands for ________
a. Reduced Information Protocol
b. Routing Internet Protocol
c. Routing Information Protocol
d. Reduced Internet Protocol
Answer: Option(c)
19. DDP stands for _________
a. Datagram Delivery Protocol
b. Device Delivery Protocol
c. Datagram Device Protocol
d. Device Datagram Protocol
Answer: Option(a)
20. Which level is the network layer in the OSI
model?
a. Third level
b. Fourth level
c. Second level
d. Fifth layer
Answer: Option(a)
21. Which of the following is correct IPv4
address?
a. 124.201.3.1.52
b. 01.200.128.123
c. 300.142.210.64
d. 128.64.0.0
Answer: Option(d)
22. How many versions available of IP?
a. 6 version
b. 4 version
c. 2 version
d. 1 version
Answer: Option(c)
23. The term IPv4 stands for?
a. Internet Protocol Version 4
b. Internet Programming Version 4
c. International Programming Version 4
d. None of these
Answer: Option(a)
24. Which of the following IP address class is
Multicast?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
Answer: Option(d)
25. Which form of byte assigning strategy is
adopted in class B type of network
corresponding to IP addresses?
a. Network.Node.Node.Node
b. Network.Network.Node.Node
c. Network.Network.Network.Node
d. Network.Node.Node.Node
Answer: Option(b)
26. On which factors do the size of block
depends in classless addressing?
a. Nature & size of an entity
b. Number of addresses
c. Availability of the address space
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(a)
27. The ability of a single network to span
multiple physical networks is known as
______
a. Subnetting
b. Masking
c. Fragmenting
d. Hopping
Answer: Option(a)
28. Which field/s of ICMPv6 packet header
has/have a provision of minimal integrity level
concerning to verification for ICMP

messages?
a. Type
b. Code
c. Checksum
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(c)
29. Which among the below stated datagram
discard code fields in ICMP is/are generated if
a router fails to forward a packet due to
administrative filtering?
a. Source Route Failed
b. Communication Administratively
Prohibited
c. Host Precedence Violation
d. Precedence Cut-off in Effect
Answer: Option(b)
30. What are the problems involved in an IP
Fragmentation Process?
A. Loss of any fragment results in
rejection of all datagrams
B. Management of buffer space is
essential to handle reassembly process
C. No necessity of initializing the timer
after the reception of initial fragment
D. Multiple attempts can be made to
recover ICMP error message due to

connection-oriented IP service
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. B& C
d. A & D
Answer: Option(a)
a. Last fragment, 2400 and 2789
b. First fragment, 2400 and 2759
c. Last fragment, 2400 and 2759
d. Middle fragment, 300 and 689
Answer: Option(c)
32. Consider a source computer(S) transmitting
a file of size 106 bits to a destination computer
(D)over a network of two routers (R1 and R2)
and three links(L1, L2, and L3). L1connects S
to R1; L2 connects R1 to R2; and L3 connects
R2 to D. Let each link be of length 100 km.
Assume signals travel over each link at a speed
of 108 meters per second. Assume that the link
bandwidth on each link is 1Mbps. Let the file
be broken down into 1000 packets each of size
1000 bits. Find the total sum of transmission
and propagation delays in transmitting the file
from S to D?
a. 1005 ms
b. 1010 ms
c. 3000 ms
d. 3003 ms
Answer: Option(a)
33. One of the header fields in an IP datagram
is the Time to Live (TTL) field. Which of the
following statements best explains the need for
this field?
a. It can be used to prioritize packets
b. It can be used to reduce delays
c. It can be used to optimize throughput
d. It can be used to prevent packet
looping
Answer: Option(d)
34. For which one of the following reasons
does Internet Protocol (IP) use the time-tolive (TTL) field in the IP datagram header?
a. Ensure packets reach destination
within that time
b. Discard packets that reach later than
that time
c. Prevent packets from looping
indefinitely
d. Limit the time for which a packet gets
queued in intermediate routers.
Answer: Option(c)
35. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
a. Both Ethernet frame and IP packet
include checksum fields
b. Ethernet frame includes a checksum
field and IP packet includes a CRC
field
c. Ethernet frame includes a CRC
field and IP packet includes a
checksum field
d. Both Ethernet frame and IP packet
include CRC fields
Answer: Option(c)
36. Which of the following assertions is
FALSE about the Internet Protocol (IP)?
a. It is possible for a computer to have
multiple IP addresses
b. IP packets from the same source to the
same destination can take different
routes in the network
c. IP ensures that a packet is discarded if
it is unable to reach its destination
within a given number of hops
d. The packet source cannot set the
route of an outgoing packets; the
route is determined only by the
routing tables in the routers on the
way
Answer: Option(d)
130.34.12.64/26. It needs to have 4 subnets.
this organization?
a. 130.34.12.124
b. 130.34.12.89
c. 130.34.12.70
d. 130.34.12.132
Answer: Option(d)
38. An IP datagram of size 1000 bytes arrives
at a router. The router has to forward this
packet on a link whose MTU (maximum
transmission unit) is 100 bytes. Assume that

the size of the IP header is 20 bytes. The
number of fragments that the IP datagram will
be divided into for transmission is :
a. 10
b. 50
c. 12
d. 13
Answer: Option(d)
a. Last fragment, 2400 and 2789
b. First fragment, 2400 and 2759
c. Last fragment, 2400 and 2759
d. Middle fragment, 300 and 689
Answer: Option(c)
routes
routers
c. Reach agreement with other routers
about the network topology
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(d)
41. When a host on network A sends a message
to a host on network B, which address does
the router look at?
a. Port
b. IP
c. Physical
d. Subnet mask
Answer: Option(b)
42. For n devices in a network, ________
number of duplex-mode links are required
for a mesh topology.
a. n(n + 1)
b. n (n – 1)
c. n(n + 1)/2
d. n(n – 1)/2
Answer: Option(d)
43. __________ is a bit-oriented protocol for
communication over point-to-point and
multipoint links.
a. Stop-and-wait
b. HDLC
c. Sliding window
d. Go-back-N
Answer: Option(c)
44. In Challenge-Response authentication the
claimant ________.
a. Proves that she knows the secret
without revealing it
b. Proves that she doesn’t know the
secret
c. Reveals the secret
d. Gives a challenge
Answer: Option(a)
130.34.12.64/26. It needs to have 4 subnets.
this organization?
a. 130.34.12.124
b. 130.34.12.89
c. 130.34.12.70
d. 130.34.12.132
Answer: Option(d)
46. A pure ALOHA Network transmits 200 bit
frames using a shared channel with 200
Kbps bandwidth. If the system (all stations
put together) produces 500 frames per
second, then the throughput of the system is
______.
a. 0.384
b. 0.184
c. 0.286
d. 0.58
Answer: Option(b)
47. IPv6 does not support which of the
following addressing modes?
a. unicast addressing
b. multicast addressing
c. broadcast addressing
d. anycast addressing
Answer: Option(c)
48. What is IP class and number of subnetworks if the subnet mask is 255.224.0.0?
a. Class A, 3
b. Class A, 8
c. Class B, 3
d. Class B, 32
Answer: Option(b)
49. Which of the following is not a congestion
policy at network layer?
a. Flow Control Policy
b. Packet Discard Policy
c. Packet Lifetime Management Policy
d. Routing Algorithm
Answer: Option(a)
50. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can
pass only an average of 15,000 frames per
minute with each frame carrying an average
of 8,000 bits. What is the throughput of this
network?
a. 2 Mbps
b. 60 Mbps
c. 120 Mbps
d. 10 Mbps
routes
routers
c. Reach agreement with other routers
about the network topology
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(d)
52. The address of a class B host is to be split
into subnets with a 6-bit subnet number.
What is the maximum number of subnets
and the maximum number of hosts in each
subnet?
a. 62 subnets and 262142 hosts.
b. 64 subnets and 262142 hosts.
c. 62 subnets and 1022 hosts.
d. 64 subnets and 1024 hosts
Answer: Option(c)
53. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can
pass only an average of 12,000 frames per
minute with each frame carrying an average
of 10,000 bits. What is the throughput of
this network ?
a. 1 Mbps
b. 2 Mbps
c. 10 Mbps
d. 12 Mbps
Answer: Option(b)
54. Suppose transmission rate of a channel is
32 kbps. If there are ‘8’ routes from source
to destination and each packet p contains
8000 bits. Total end to end delay in sending
packet P is _____.
a. 2 sec
b. 3 sec
c. 4 sec
d. 1 sec
Answer: Option(a)
55. Which of the following routing technique /
techniques is / are used in distributed
systems ?
A. Fixed Routing
B. Virtual Routing
C. Dynamic Routing
a. A Only
b. A and B only
c. C only
d. All A,B,C
Answer: Option(a)
56. Consider the given network implementation
scenario. For the given classful NID
199.10.20.0/24, the requirement is to create
13 subnets. With given details, find the
range of first and last valid IP in 15th
subnet.
a. 199.10.20.208 to 199.10.20.222
b. 199.10.20.225 to 199.10.20.238
c. 199.10.20.193 to 199.10.20.206
d. Not of these
Answer: Option(b)
57. __________ do not take their decisions on
measurements or estimates of the current
traffic and topology.
a. Static algorithms
b. Adaptive algorithms
c. Non – adaptive algorithms
d. Recursive algorithms
Answer: Option(c)
58. A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask
of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum
number of hosts that can belong to this
subnet?
a. 14
b. 30
c. 62
d. 126
Answer: Option(c)
59. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, which one of
the following is NOT part of the IP header?
a. Fragment Offset
b. Source IP address
c. Destination IP address
d. Destination port number
Answer: Option(d)
60. In the network 200.10.11.144/27, the fourth
octet (in decimal) of the last IP address of
the network which can be assigned to a host
is ________
a. 158
b. 255
c. 222
d. 223
Answer: Option(a)
61. Which one of the following fields of an IP
header is NOT modified by a typical IP
router?
a. Checksum
b. Source address
c. Time to Live (TTL)
d. Length
Answer: Option(b)
62. If a Company require 60 hosts then What is
the best possible subnet mask?
a. 255.255.255.0
b. 255.255.255.192
c. 255.255.225.224
d. 225.225.255.240
Answer: Option(b)
63. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is
used for
a. Finding the IP address from the DNS
b. Finding the IP address of the default
gateway
c. Finding the IP address that
corresponds to a MAC address
d. Finding the MAC address that
corresponds to an IP address
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TheCodingShef
Unit 4 Computer Network mcq Questions

1. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to ____________
a. network layer
b. data link layer
c. application layer
d. physical layer
Answer: Option(a)
2. Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?
a. TCP and FTP
b. UDP and HTTP
c. TCP and UDP
d. HTTP and FTP
Answer: Option(c)
3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because _____________

a. all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b. it sends data as a stream of related packets
c. it is received in the same order as sent order
d. it sends data very quickly
Answer: Option(a)
4. Transmission control protocol ___________
a. is a connection-oriented protocol
b. uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c. receives data from application as a single stream
Answer: Option(d)
5. Socket-style API for windows is called____________
a. wsock
b. winsock
c. wins
d. sockwi
Answer: Option(d)
6. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called
a. socket
b. pipe
c. port
d. machine
Answer: Option(a)
7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
a. datagram congestion control protocol
b. stream control transmission protocol
c. structured stream transport
d. user congestion control protocol
Answer: Option(a)
8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.
a. port
b. pipe
c. node
d. protocol
Answer: Option(a)
9. Transport layer protocols deals with _____
a. application to application communication
b. process to process communication
c. node to node communication
d. man to man communication
Answer: Option(b)
10. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol?
a. stream control transmission protocol
b. internet control message protocol
c. neighbor discovery protocol
d. dynamic host configuration protocol

Answer: Option(a)
11. What are the functions of the transport layer?
a. Multiplexing/ Demultiplexing
b. Connection less Services
c. Connection oriented service
d. Congestion control
Answer: Option(a)
12. Which services are provided by transport layer?
a. Error control
b. Connection service
c. Connection less service
d. Congestion control
Answer: Option(a)
13. TCP and UDP are called ________
a. Application protocols
b. Session protocols
c. Transport protocols
d. Network protocols
Answer: Option(c)
14. Security based connection is provided by
which layer?
a. Network layer
b. Session layer
d. Transport layer
Answer: Option(d)
15. TCP is the standard protocol with std no?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 7
d. 3
Answer: Option(c)
16. Using which method in transport layer data integrity can be ensured?
a. Checksum
b. Repetition codes
c. Cyclic redundancy checks
d. Error correcting codes
Answer: Option(a)
17. Buffer overrun can be reduced by using what?
a. Traffic control
b. Flow control
c. Byte orientation
d. Data integrity
Answer: Option(b)
18. Transport layer can identify the symptoms of overload nodes using _________
a. Flow control
b. Traffic control
c. Byte orientation
d. Data integrity
Answer: Option(b)
19. Transport layer is which layer in OSI model?
a. Fourth layer
b. Third layer
c. Second layer
d. Fifth layer
Answer: Option(a)
20. Congestion control can control traffic entry into a telecommunications network, so to avoid _________
a. Congestive connection
b. Connection collapse
c. Congestive collapse
d. Collapse congestive
Answer: Option(c)
21. FCP stands for _________
a. Fiber Channel Protocol
b. Field Channel Protocol
c. Fast Channel Protocol
d. Fiber Carrying Protocol
Answer: Option(a)
22. UDP packets are called as _________
a. Segments
b. Checksum
c. Frames
d. Datagrams
Answer: Option(d)
23._________ does not provide reliable end to end communication.
a. TCP
b. UDP
c. Both TCP and UDP
d. Neither TCP nor UDP
Answer: Option(b)
24. ARQ stands for __________
a. Automatic Repeat Request
b. Automatic Request Repeat
c. Application Repeat Request
d. Application Request Repeat
Answer: Option(a)
25. The transport layer protocols used for real time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and email, respectively are:
a. TCP, UDP, UDP and TCP
b. UDP, TCP, TCP and UDP
c. UDP, TCP, UDP and TCP
d. TCP, UDP, TCP and UDP
Answer: Option(c)
26. Which of the following transport layer protocols is used to support electronic mail?
a. SMTP
b. IP
c. TCP
d. UDP
Answer: Option(c)
27. Consider an instance of TCP’s Additive Increase Multiplicative Decrease (AIMD) algorithm where the window size
at the start of the slow start phase is 2 MSS and the threshold at the start of the first transmission is 8 MSS. Assume
that a timeout occurs during the fifth transmission. Find the congestion window size at the end of the tenth
transmission.
a. 8 MSS
b. 14 MSS
c. 7 MSS
d. 12 MSS
Answer: Option(c)
28. A layer-4 firewall (a device that can look at all protocol headers up to the transport layer) CANNOT
a. block entire HTTP traffic during 9:00PM and 5 :0OAM
b. block all ICMP traffic
c. stop incoming traffic from a specific IP address but allow outgoing traffic to the same IP address
d. block TCP traffic from a specific user on a multi-user system during 9:00PM and 5:00AM
Answer: Option(d)
29. Which of the following system calls results in the sending of SYN packets?
a. socket
b. bind
c. listen
d. connect
Answer: Option(d)
30. In the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control algorithm, the size of the congestion window
a. does not increase
b. increases linearly
c. increases quadratically
d. increases exponentially
Answer: Option(d)
31. Which one of the following uses UDP as the transport protocol?
a. HTTP
b. Telnet
c. DNS
d. SMTP
Answer: Option(c)
32. the maximum window size for data transmission using the selective reject protocol with n-bit frame sequence
numbers is:
a. 2^n
b. 2^(n-1)
c. 2^n – 1
d. 2^(n-2)
Answer: Option(b)
33. Which of the following is NOT true about User Datagram Protocol in transport layer?
a. Works well in unidirectional communication, suitable for broadcast information.
b. It does three way handshake before sending datagrams
c. It provides datagrams, suitable for modeling other protocols such as in IP tunneling or Remote Procedure Call
and the Network File System
d. The lack of retransmission delays
makes it suitable for real-time
applications
Answer: Option(b)
34. Identify the correct order in which a server process must invoke the function calls accept, bind, listen, and recv
according to UNIX socket API
a. listen, accept, bind recv
b. bind, listen, accept, recv
c. bind, accept, listen, recv
d. accept, listen, bind, recv
Answer: Option(b)
35. Consider the following statements.
I. TCP connections are full duplex.
II. TCP has no option for selective acknowledgment
III. TCP connections are message streams.
a. Only I is correct
b. Only I and II are correct
c. Only II and III are correct
d. All of I, II and III are correct
Answer: Option(a)
36. Generally TCP is reliable and UDP is not reliable. DNS which has to be reliable uses UDP because
a. UDP is slower
b. DNS servers has to keep connections
c. DNS requests are generally very small and fit well within UDP segments
d. None of these
Answer: Option(c)
37. Suppose there are n stations in a slotted LAN. Each station attempts to transmit with a probability P in each time
slot. The probability that only one station transmits in a given slot is _______.
a. nP(1 – P)n – 1
b. nP
c. P(1 – P)n – 1
d. n P(1 – P)n – 1
Answer: Option(a)
38. What is the maximum size of data that the application layer can pass on to the TCP layer below?
a. Any size
b. 216 bytes – size of TCP header
c. 216 bytes
d. 1500
Answer: Option(a)
39. An ACK number of 1000 in TCP always means that
a. 999 bytes have been successfully received
b. 1000 bytes have been successfully received
c. 1001 bytes have been successfully received
Answer: Option(d)
40. Suppose you are browsing the world wide web using a web browser and trying to access the web servers. What
is the underlying protocol and port number that are being used?
a. UDP, 80
b. TCP, 80
c. TCP, 25
d. UDP, 25
Answer: Option(b)
41. If link transmits 4000 frames per second and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of circuit of this TDM is
______.
a. 64 Kbps
b. 32 Mbps
c. 32 Kbps
d. 64 MbpS
Answer: Option(c)
42. Which algorithm is used to shape the bursty traffic into a fixed rate traffic by averaging the data rate?
a. solid bucket algorithm
b. spanning tree algorithm
c. hocken helm algorithm
d. leaky bucket algorithm
Answer: Option(d)
43. Four channels are multiplexed using TDM. If each channel sends 100 bytes/second and we multiplex 1 byte per
channel, then the bit rate for the link is __________.
a. 400 bps
b. 800 bps
c. 1600 bps
d. 3200 bps
Answer: Option(d)
44. A device is sending out data at the rate of 2000 bps. How long does it take to send a file of 1,00,000 characters ?
a. 50
b. 200
c. 400
d. 800
Answer: Option(c)
45. The TCP sliding window
a. can be used to control the flow of information
b. always occurs when the field value is 0
c. always occurs when the field value is 1
d. occurs horizontally
Answer: Option(a)
8/5/2021 Unit 5 Computer Network mcq questions – TheCodingShef
TheCodingShef
Unit 5 Computer Network mcq questions

1. The ____ layer is the network dialog
controller.
a. network
b. transport
c. session
d. presentation
Answer: Option(c)
2. The ____ layer establishes, maintains, and
synchronizes the interaction between
communicating systems.
a. network
b. transport
c. session
d. presentation
Answer: Option(c)
3. The session layer lies between the
______layer and the presentation layer.
a. network
b. transport
c. data link
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d. application
Answer: Option(b)
4. The _____ layer lies between the session
layer and he application layer.
a. network
b. transport
c. data link
d. presentation
Answer: Option(d)
5. The _____ layer uses data compression to
reduce the number of bits to be transmitted.
a. presentation
b. network
c. data link
d. application
Answer: Option(a)
6. The functionalities of the presentation layer
include ____________
a. Data compression
b. Data encryption
c. Data description
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option(d)
7. Encryption and decryption are functions of
which layer?
a. transport
b. session
c. application
d. presentation
Answer: Option(d)
8. Which of the following layers of the OSI
reference model is concerned with the syntax
of data exchanged between application
entities?
a. Presentation layer
b. Application layer
c. Transportation layer
d. Session layer
Answer: Option(a)
9. In respect of OSI model, LANs implement
a. lower two layers
b. all seven layers
c. upper five layers
Answer: Option(b)
10. In OSI model, which of the following layer
transforms information from machine format
into that understandable by user
a. application
b. session
c. presentation
d. physical
Answer: Option(c)
11. Which network component/s is/are
involved in the Presentation layer of an OSI
model?
a. Gateway
b. Multiplexer & Oscilloscope
c. Amplifier & Hub
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(a)
12. Which OSI layer assumes responsibility
for managing network connections between
applications?
a. Network layer
b. Data link layer
d. Session layer
Answer: Option(d)
13. The _______ layer ensures interoperability
between communicating devices through
transformation of data into a mutually agreed
upon format.
a. network
b. presentation
c. transport
d. data link
Answer: Option(b)
14. In OSI model, when data is sent from
device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive
data at B is _________
b. Transport layer
c. Link layer
d. Session layer
Answer: Option(d)
15. Delimiting and synchronization of data
exchange is provided by __________
b. Session layer
c. Transport layer
d. Link layer
Answer: Option(b)
16. Which of the following layers is an
addition to OSI model when compared with
TCP IP model?
c. Session layer
Answer: Option(d)
17. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves
from the lower to the upper layers, headers are
a. Added
b. Removed
c. Rearranged
d. Randomized
Answer: Option(b)
18. Which of the following statements can be
associated with OSI model?
a. A structured way to discuss and easier
update system components
b. One layer may duplicate lower layer
functionality
c. Functionality at one layer no way
requires information from another
layer
d. It is an application specific network
model
Answer: Option(b)
19. In OSI model, session layer is responsible
for
a. Recovery
b. Check pointing
c. Both a and b
Answer: Option(c)
20. In which layer of OSI client send request
to the server?
c. Session layer
d. Transport layer
Answer: Option(c)
21. What is the main function of Session layer
in OSI model?
a. Defines how data is formatted
between the devices
b. Made physical connection between
server and client
c. Both a and b
Answer: Option(a)
22. Sometimes, Session layer is also called
______ layer
a. Virtual layer
b. Port layer
c. Segmentation layer
d. Process layer
Answer: Option(b)
23. In which layer of OSI session is first check
and then data is transmitted
c. Session layer
d. Transport layer
Answer: Option(c)
24. Which of the following is the session layer
protocol or service?
a. SPDY
b. NetBIOS
c. PPTP
d. SAP
Answer: Option(c)
25. TELNET, FTP, SMTP, Protocols fall in
the following layer of OSI reference
model?
a. Transport layer
b. Internet layer
c. Network layer
d. Application layer
Answer: Option(d)
26. Which of the following is an application
layer service?
a. Remote log-in
b. File transfer and access
c. Mail service
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(d)
27. Which DNS client maps an address to a
name or a name to an address especially
when required by a host?
a. Resolver
b. Mapper
c. Primary Server
d. Secondary Server
Answer: Option(a)
28. Which application-level protocol plays a
crucial role in carrying out the data
definition and manipulation in addition to
X-500 features?
a. TCP
b. LDAP
c. FTP
Answer: Option(b)
29. Which intermediaries are more likely to
get involved during the transfer function
of an e-mail system?
a. Storage and forwarding of e-mail for
certain addresses
b. Act as gateways to other e-mail or
messaging systems
c. Both a & b
Answer: Option(c)
30. Which among the below specified
illustrations belongs to the category of
GUI based user agents?
a. mail
b. pine
c. Outlook & Netscape
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(c)
31. Which phase/s of POP3 allow/s an user
agent to retrieve the messages as well as
to mark the messages for deletion
purpose?
a. Authorization Phase
b. Transaction Phase
c. Update Phase
d. All of the above

Answer: Option(b)
32. Consider the assertions given below.
Which among them prove to be beneficial
for Persistent HTTP connections?
A. Reduction in latency over the subsequent requests
B. Pipeline-oriented connection over the
requests and responses
C. Increase in number of packets due to
TCP opens
D. Prevention in opening and closing of
some TCP connections
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & B
Answer: Option(a)
33. Which URL method of HTTP performs
similar function as that of PUT method
only with an exception of request
comprising a list of differences that
exhibit the necessity to get implemented
in the existing file?
a. POST
b. GET
c. PATCH
d. OPTION
Answer: Option(c)
34. Which language in WWW specifies a
web’s way by describing threedimensional objects?
a. HTML
b. VRML
c. XML
d. UML
Answer: Option(b)
35. Which field of cookie in WWW
represents the server’s directory structure
by identifying the utilization of part
associated with server’s file tree?
a. Domain
b. Path
c. Content
d. Secure
Answer: Option(b)
36. Which among the below mentioned
protocols provides a mechanism of
acquiring an IP address without manual
intervention in addition to plug and play
type of networking?
a. BOOTP
b. DHCP
c. Both a & b
Answer: Option(b)
37. Which of the following layers of the OSI
model is responsible for user interaction?
a.Layer 4
b.Layer 5
c.Layer 6
d.Layer 7
Answer: Option(d)
38. What occurs in the session layer?
a.Data compression and encryption
b.MAC address are handled
c.binary to decimal conversion
d.sessions are created
Answer: Option(d)
39. Which of the following is/are the
important applications of the application
layer?
a.Electronic mail
b.World Wide Web
c.USENET
d.All of the above
Answer: Option(d)
40. The TCP/IP …………corresponds to the
combined session, presentation, and
application layers of the OSI model.
a.session layer
b.presentation layer
c.application layer
d.None of the above
Answer: Option(c)
41. The ……… protocol is based on end-toend delivery.
a. SMTP
b. TCP
c. IP
d. SCTP
Answer: Option(a)
42. The well-known port of the SMTP server
is …….
a. 110
b. 25
c. 50
d. 20
Answer: Option(b)
43. In the SMTP header field_____ is a
summary of the message being sent which
is specified by the sender.
a. Reply-to
b. Return-path
c. Subject
d. From
Answer: Option(c)
44. In the SMTP herder field_____ is added
by the final transport system that delivers
the mail.
a. Reply-to
b. Return-path
c. Subject
d. From
Answer: Option(b)
45. In SMTP mail transaction flow, the
sender SMTP establishes a TCP
connection with the destination SMTP
and then waits for the server to send a
……….
a. 220 service ready message
b. 421 service not available message
c. Both of the above
Answer: Option(c)
46. In the MIME header field____describes
how the object within the body is to be
interpreted.
a. content-type
d. content-id
Answer: Option(a)
47. In the MIME header field, ____describes

how the object within the body was
encoded in order that it be included in the
message using a mail-safe form.
a. content-type
d. content-id
Answer: Option(b)
48. In a/an ………… of DNS resolver, the
queried name server can return the best
answer it currently has back to the DNS
resolver.
a. Recursive queries
b. Iterative queries
c. Reverse queries
d. Inverse queries
Answer: Option(b)
49. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent
to the combined session, presentation, and
application layers of the OSI model.
a.data link
b.network
c.physical
d.application
Answer: Option(d)
50. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from
device A to device B, the 5th layer to
receive data at B is ____________
a.Application layer
b.Transport layer
c.Link layer
d.Session layer
Answer: Option(a)
a.application layer
b.session layer
c.presentation layer
d.physical layer
Answer: Option(a)
52. Application layer protocol defines ____
a.types of messages exchanged
b.message format, syntax and semantics
c.rules for when and how processes send
and respond to messages
d.all of the mentioned
Answer: Option(d)
53. Which one of the following allows a user
at one site to establish a connection to
another site and then pass keystrokes
from local host to remote host?
a.HTTP
b.FTP
c.Telnet
d.TCP
Answer: Option(c)
54. The ASCII encoding of binary data is
called
a. base 64 encoding
b. base 32 encoding
c. base 16 encoding
d. base 8 encoding
Answer: Option(a)
55. Consider different activities related to
email:
m1: Send an email from a mail client to a mail
server
m2: Download an email from mailbox server
to a mail client
m3: Checking email in a web browser
Which is the application level protocol used in
each activity?
a. m1: HTTP m2: SMTP m3: POP
b. m1: SMTP m2: FTP m3: HTTP
c. m1: SMTP m2: POP m3: HTTP
d. m1: POP m2: SMTP m3: IMAP
Answer: Option(c)
56. Identify the correct order in which the
following actions take place in an
interaction between a web browser and a
web server.
1. The web browser requests a
webpage using HTTP.
2. The web browser establishes a TCP
connection with the web server.
3. The web server sends the requested
webpage using HTTP.
4. The web browser resolves the
domain name using DNS.
a. 4,2,1,3
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 4,1,2,3
d. 2,4,1,3
Answer: Option(a)
57. In one of the pairs of protocols given
below, both the protocols can use
multiple TCP connections between the
same client and the server. Which one is
that?
a. HTTP, FTP
b. HTTP, TELNET
c. FTP, SMTP
d. HTTP, SMTP
Answer: Option(a)
58. Which one of the following statements is
NOT correct about HTTP cookies?
a. A cookies is a piece of code that has
the potential to compromise the
security of an Internet user
b. A cookie gains entry to the user’s
work area through an HTTP header
c. A cookie has an expiry date and time
d. Cookies can be used to track the
browsing pattern of a user at a
particular site
Answer: Option(a)
59. Which of the following is/are example(s)
of stateful application layer protocols?
(i) HTTP
(ii) FTP
(iii) TCP
(iv) POP3
a. (i) and (ii) only
b. (ii) and (iii) only
c. (ii) and (iv) only
d. (iv) only
Answer: Option(c)
60. Which of the following protocol is used
for transferring electronic mail messages
from one machine to another?
a. TELNET
b. FTP
c. SNMP
d. SMTP
Answer: Option(d)
61. Which of the following protocols is used
by email server to maintain a central
repository that can be accessed from any
machine ?
a. POP3
b. IMAP
c. SMTP
d. DMSP
Answer: Option(b)
62. A packet filtering firewall can
a. deny certain users from accessing a
service
b. block worms and viruses from
entering the network
c. disallow some files from being
accessed through FTP
d. block some hosts from accessing the
network
Answer: Option(d)
63. Which of the following protocols is an
application layer protocol that establishes,
manages and terminates multimedia
sessions ?
a. Session Maintenance Protocol

b. Real – time Streaming Protocol
c. Real – time Transport Control Protocol
d. Session Initiation Protocol
Answer: Option(d)
64. What is the size of the ‘total length’ field
in IPv4 datagram?
a. 4 bit
b. 8 bit
c. 16 bit
d. 32 bit
Answer: Option(c)
65. What is one advantage of setting up a
DMZ(Demilitarized Zone) with two
firewalls?
a. You can control where traffic goes
in the three networks
b. You can do stateful packet filtering
c. You can do load balancing
d. Improve network performance
Answer: Option(a)
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8/5/2021 [MCQ] Computer Network & Network Design - LMT
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Engineering
[MCQ] Computer Network & Network Design
Introduction to Computer Networks (#1618820011959-5495464b-4d38)
 Module 1
1. The IETF standards documents are called ________
a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) DFC
Answer: a
Explanation: RFC stands for Request For Comments and they are documents that describe methods, behaviors, research, or innovations applicable
to the working of the Internet.
2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are ___________
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
Answer: a
Explanation: Each layer adds its own header to the packet from the previous layer. For example, in the Internet layer, the IP header is added over
the TCP header on the data packet that came from the transport layer.
3. The structure or format of data is called ___________

a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) Formatting
Answer: a
Explanation: The structure and format of data are defined using syntax. Semantics defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what
action is to be taken based on that interpretation. In programming languages, syntax of the instructions plays a vital role in designing of the
program.
4. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.
a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
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d) Simplex
Answer: d
Explanation: In simplex transmission, data flows in single direction which in this case refers to the data flowing from the keyboard to the computer.
Another example would be of the mouse where the data flows from the mouse to the computer only.
5. The first Network was called ________
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
Answer: d
Explanation: ARPANET stands for Advanced Research Projects Agency Networks. It was the first network to be implemented which used the
TCP/IP protocol in the year 1969.
6. A _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
Answer: b
Explanation: Messages travel from sender to receiver via a physical path called the medium using a set of methods/rules called protocol. Mediums
can be guided (wired) or unguided (wireless).
7. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field?
a) ITU-T
b) IEEE
c) FCC
d) ISOC
Answer: c
Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal Communications Commission. FCC is responsible for regulating all interstate communications
originating or terminating in USA. It was founded in the year 1934.
8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
Answer: d
Explanation: Network edge devices refer to host systems, which can host applications like web browser. A switch can’t operate as a host, but as a
central device which can be used to manage network communication.
9. A _________ set of rules that governs data communication.
a) Protocols
b) Standards
c) RFCs
d) Servers
Answer: a
Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers to a set of rules and regulations that allow a network of nodes to transmit and receive
information. Each layer in the network model has a protocol set, for example, the transport layer has TCP and UDP protocols.
10. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection.
a) Unipoint
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
d) Simplex
Answer: b
Explanation: A multipoint communication is established when three or many network nodes are connected to each other. Frame relay, Ethernet and
ATM are some examples of multipoint connections.
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11. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called _________
a) computer network
b) distributed system
c) networking system
d) mail system
Answer: b
Explanation: A Computer network is defined as a collection of interconnected computers which uses a single technology for connection.
A distributed system is also the same as computer network but the main difference is that the whole collection of computers appears to its users as a
single coherent system.
Example:- World wide web
12. Two devices are in network if __________
a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
d) a process is active and another is inactive
Answer: a
Explanation: A computer network, or data network, is a digital telecommunications network which allows nodes to share resources. In computer
networks, computing devices exchange data with each other using connections between nodes. The nodes have certain processes which enable
them to share a specific type of data using a distinct protocol.
13. Which of the following computer networks is built on the top of another network?
a) prior network
b) chief network
c) prime network
d) overlay network
Answer: d
Explanation: An overlay network is a computer network that is built on top of another network. Some examples of an overlay network are Virtual
Private Networks (VPN) and Peer-to-Peer Networks (P2P).
14. In computer network nodes are _________
a) the computer that originates the data
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
Answer: d
Explanation: In a computer network, a node can be anything that is capable of sending data or receiving data or even routing the data to its
destination. Routers, Computers and Smartphones are some examples of network nodes.
15. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in ________
a) broadcast network
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
d) anycast network
Answer: a
Explanation: In a broadcast network, information is sent to all stations in a network whereas in a multicast network the data or information is sent
to a group of stations in the network. In unicast network, information is sent to only one specific station. The broadcast address of the network is
the last assigned address of the network.
16. Bluetooth is an example of __________
a) personal area network
b) local area network
c) virtual private network
d) wide area network
Answer: a
Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology used to create a wireless personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters. It
operates on 2.45 GHz frequency band for transmission.
17. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.
a) bridge
b) firewall
c) router
d) hub
Answer: c
Explanation: A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing
functions on the Internet. They make use of routing protocols like RIP to find the cheapest path to the destination.
18. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called ________
b) protocol stack
c) protocol suite
d) protocol system
Answer: b
Explanation: A protocol stack refers to a group of protocols that are running concurrently that are employed for the implementation of network
protocol suite. Each layer in the network model has to use one specific protocol from the protocol stack.
19. Network congestion occurs _________
a) in case of traffic overloading
b) when a system terminates
c) when connection between two nodes terminates
d) in case of transfer failure
Answer: a
Explanation: Network congestion occurs when traffic in the network is more than the network could handle. To avoid network congestion, the
network management uses various open-loop and closed-loop congestion control techniques.
20. Which of the following networks extends a private network across public networks?
b) virtual private network
c) enterprise private network
d) storage area network
Answer: b
Explanation: A virtual private network extends a private network across a public network, and enables users to send and receive data across shared
or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network.VPN provides enhanced security and online
anonymity to users on the internet. It is also used to unblock websites which are unavailable in certain regions.

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21. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?
a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel
d) An ultra-high speed downstream channel
Answer: c
Explanation: A low-speed downstream channel is not a constituent of a residential telephone line. But it might be just a two-way telephone
channel. Internet can be provided through a high-speed downstream channel in a residential telephone line.
22. DSL telcos provide which of the following services?
a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
c) Wired phone access and ISP
d) Network routing and ISP
Answer: c
Explanation: DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line and ISP stands for Internet Service Provider. In a Digital Subscriber Line system, the same
company which provides phone connection is also an ISP. The internet is provided through the pre-installed telephone lines.
23. The function of DSLAM is to __________
a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
d) De-amplify digital signals
Answer: a
Explanation: DSLAM stands for Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer and it’s used by Telcos to convert the analog signals to digital signals
for the purpose of providing internet. The DSLAM located in a telco’s Central Office does this function.
24. Which of the following terms is not associated with DSL?
a) DSLAM
b) CO
c) Splitter
d) CMTS
Answer: d
Explanation: CMTS stands for Cable modem termination system. It is used in cable internet access. In cable internet access, internet is not provided
through telephone lines and the companies that provide such connections don’t necessarily provide telephone access.
25. HFC contains _______
a) Fibre cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) A combination of Fibre cable and Coaxial cable
d) Twisted Pair Cable
Answer: c
Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a telecommunications industry term for a broadband network that combines optical fiber and coaxial
cable. It has been popularly used since the early 1990s. It is stronger than the optical fiber cables and faster than the co-axial cables.
26. Which of the following statements is not applicable for cable internet access?
a) It is a shared broadcast medium
b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM
Answer: d
Explanation: CMTS stands for Cable modem termination system. In cable access analog signal is converted to digital signal by CMTS. In cable
internet access, internet is not provided through telephone lines. DSLAM is used by Telecom companies.
27. Among the optical-distribution architectures that are essentially switched ethernet is __________
a) AON
b) PON
c) NON
d) MON
Answer:a
Explanation: AON stands for Active optical networks which are essentially switched Ethernets. Each user has his/her own dedicated optical fiber
line connecting to the ISP in an AON.
28. StarBand provides __________
a) FTTH internet access
b) Cable access
c) Telephone access
d) Satellite access
Answer: d
Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite broadband Internet service available in the U.S. from 2000–2015. It was discontinued from
September 30 2015 due to increasing competition from other ISPs.
29. Home Access is provided by __________
a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
Answer: d
Explanation: Home Internet Access is provided by DSL, FTTP, and Cable. FTTP provides the fastest speeds followed by the cable connections and
then the DSLs. FTTP is popularly used in modern connections.
30. ONT is connected to splitter using _________
a) High speed fibre cable
b) HFC
c) Optical cable
d) Twisted pair cable
Answer: c
Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal. The ONT connects to the Termination Point (TP) with an optical fibre cable. It translates
light signals from the fibre optic line to electric signals that the router can read.

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31. How many layers are present in the Internet protocol stack (TCP/IP model)?
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 10
Answer: a
Explanation: There are five layers in the Internet Protocol stack. The five layers in Internet Protocol stack is Application, Transport, Network, Data
link and Physical layer. The internet protocol stack model is also called the TCP/IP model and it’s used in modern Internet Communication.
32. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is __________
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) 10
Answer: b
Explanation: The seven layers in ISO OSI reference model is Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer.
OSI stands for Open System Interconnect and it is a generalized model.
33. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP model?
a) Application layer
b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer
d) Session and Presentation layer
Answer: d
Explanation: The only difference between OSI model and TCP/IP model is that the functions of Presentation and Session layer in the OSI model
are handled by the transport layer itself in TCP/IP. OSI is a generalized model and TCP/IP is an application specific model.
34. Application layer is implemented in ____________
a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) Packet transport
Answer: a
Explanation: Not only application layer, but presentation layer, session layer and transport layer are also implemented in the end system. The layers
below are implemented outside the end system, for example, the network layer is implemented on the routers and the physical layer is implemented
for the medium.
35. Transport layer is implemented in ______________
a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) Signal transmission
Answer: a
Explanation: Application, Presentation, Session and Transport layer are implemented in the end system. The transport layer handles the process to
process delivery of the packet through ports.
36. The functionalities of the presentation layer include ____________
a) Data compression
b) Data encryption
c) Data description
Answer: d
Explanation: Some functions of the presentation layer include character-code translation, data conversion, data encryption and decryption, and data
translation. It connects the application layer with the layers below converting the human readable text and media to machine readable format and
vice-versa.
37. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by __________
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Link layer
Answer: b
Explanation: The session layer provides the mechanism for opening, closing and managing a session between end-user application processes. The
session layer 5 is responsible for establishing managing synchronizing and terminating sessions. In TCP/IP protocol stack, the functions of the
session layer are handled by the transport layer itself and thus the session layer is missing from the TCP/IP model.
38. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is _________
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
Answer: d
Explanation: In OSI reference model, the fifth layer is Session layer. Session layer provides the mechanism for opening, closing and managing a
session between end-user application processes. In TCP/IP protocol stack, the functions of the session layer are handled by the transport layer itself
and thus the session layer is missing from the TCP/IP model.
39. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is ____________
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
Answer: a
Explanation: In TCP/IP model, the fifth layer is application layer. When data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is
application layer. Application layer provides the interface between applications and the network. The user interacts with only this layer.
40. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Randomized
Answer: b
Explanation: In OSI reference model, when data packet moves from lower layers to higher layer, headers get removed. Whereas when the data
packet moves from higher layer to lower layers, headers are added. These headers contain the essential control information for the protocols used
on the specific layer.

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41. OSI stands for __________
a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation
d) open service Internet
Answer: a
Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open System Interconnection. OSI model provides a structured plan on how applications communicate
over a network, which also helps us to have a structured plan for troubleshooting. It is recognized by the ISO as the generalized model for computer
network i.e. it can be modified to design any kind of computer network.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Answer: d
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are 7 layers namely Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and Physical
layer. Each layer uses a protocol to perform its designated function, for example, the data link layer uses error detection protocols for error control
functions.
43. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) session layer
b) transport layer
d) network layer
Answer: a
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are two layers which are not present in TCP/IP model. They are Presentation and Session layer. The
functions of Presentation and Session layer in the OSI model are handled by the transport layer itself in TCP/IP.
44. Which layer is used to link the network support layers and user support layers?
a) session layer
b) data link layer
c) transport layer
d) network layer
Answer: c
Explanation: Physical, data link and network layers are network support layers and session, presentation and application layers are user support
layers. The transport layer links these layers by segmenting and rearranging the data. It uses protocols like TCP and UDP.
45. Which address is used on the internet for employing the TCP/IP protocols?
a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
Answer: d
Explanation: The physical, logical, port and specific addresses are used in TCP/IP protocol. All the addressing schemes, that is physical (MAC) and
logical address, port address and specific address are employed in both TCP/IP model and OSI model. In TCP/IP, the addresses are more focused
on the internet implementation of these addresses.
46. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
a) prior to
b) after
c) simultaneous to
d) with no link to
Answer: a
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes were developed at multiple research centers between 1978 and 1983, whereas OSI reference model was
developed in the year 1984. TCP/IP was developed with the intention to create a model for the Internet while OSI was intended to be a general
network model.
47. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery in a general network model?
a) network layer
b) transport layer
c) session layer
d) data link layer
Answer: b
Explanation: The role of Transport layer (Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to end connection between two systems in a network. The protocols
used in Transport layer is TCP and UDP. The transport layer is responsible for segmentation of the data. It uses ports for the implementation of
process-to-process delivery.
48. Which address is used to identify a process on a host by the transport layer?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
Answer: c
Explanation: A port number is a way to identify a specific process to which an Internet or other network message is to be forwarded when it arrives
at a server. Some examples of port numbers are port 20 which is used for FTP data, port 22 which is used for SSH remote login ,and port 23 which
is used for TELNET.
b) session layer
c) presentation layer
d) physical layer
Answer: a
Explanation: In networking, a user mainly interacts with application layer to create and send information to other computer or network. Application
layer provides the interface between applications and the network. It is the top-most layer in both the TCP/IP and the OSI model.
50. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) data link layer
d) transport layer
Answer: b
Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device which deals with network cables or the standards in use like connectors, pins, electric current used

me
anch itions.com/)
Engineering
Physical Layer & Data Link Layer (#1618820011965-7a359262-f8f0)
 Module 2
1. The physical layer is concerned with ___________
d) port to port delivery
Answer: a
Explanation: Physical layer deals with bit to bit delivery in networking. The data unit in the physical layer is bits. Process to process delivery or the
port to port delivery is dealt in the transport layer. The various transmission mediums aid the physical layer in performing its functions.
a) coaxial cable
c) optical fiber
d) electrical cable
Answer: c
Explanation: Fiber optics is considered to have the highest transmission speed among the all mentioned above. The fiber optics transmission runs at
1000Mb/s. It is called as 1000Base-Lx whereas IEEE standard for it is 802.3z. It is popularly used for modern day network connections due to its
high transmission rate.
3. Bits can be sent over guided and unguided media as analog signal by ___________
a) digital modulation
b) amplitude modulation
c) frequency modulation
d) phase modulation
Answer: a
Explanation: In analog modulation, digital low frequency baseband signal (digital bit stream) is transmitted over a higher frequency. Whereas in
digital modulation the only difference is that the base band signal is of discrete amplitude level. The bits are represented by only two frequency
levels, one for high and one for low.
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4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control sublayer is called ___________
a) physical signalling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer
c) physical address sublayer
d) physical transport sublayer
Answer: a
Explanation: The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the medium access control sublayer is Physical Signaling Sublayer. The main
function of this layer is character encoding, reception, decoding and performs optional isolation functions. It handles which media connection the
signal should be forwarded to physically.
5. The physical layer provides __________
a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
Answer: d
Explanation: Anything dealing with a network cable or the standards in use – including pins, connectors and the electric current used is dealt in the
physical layer (Layer 1). Physical layer deals with bit to bit delivery of the data aided by the various transmission mediums.
6. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides ___________
a) start and stop signalling
b) flow control
c) both start & stop signalling and flow control
d) only start signalling
Answer: c
Explanation: In asynchronous serial communication, the communication is not synchronized by clock signal. Instead of a start and stop signaling
and flow control method is followed. Unlike asynchronous serial communication, in synchronous serial communication a clock signal is used for
communication, so the start and stop method is not really required.
7. The physical layer is responsible for __________
a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
Answer: d
Explanation: The physical layer is responsible for line coding, channel coding and modulation that is needed for the transmission of the
information. The physical configuration including pins, connectors and the electric current used is dealt in the physical layer based on the
requirement of the network application.
8. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the ______ into hardware specific operations.
a) data link layer
b) network layer
c) trasnport layer
Answer: a
Explanation: Physical layer accepts data or information from the data link layer and converts it into hardware specific operations so as to transfer
the message through physical cables. Some examples of the cables used are optical fiber cables, twisted pair cables and co-axial cables.
9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by ____________
a) analog modulation
b) digital modulation
c) multiplexing
d) phase modulation
Answer: c
Explanation: In communication and computer networks, the main goal is to share a scarce resource. This is done by multiplexing, where multiple
analog or digital signals are combined into one signal over a shared medium. The multiple kinds of signals are designated by the transport layer
which is the layer present on a higher level than the physical layer.
10. Wireless transmission of signals can be done via ___________
a) radio waves
b) microwaves
c) infrared
Answer: d
Explanation: Wireless transmission is carried out by radio waves, microwaves and IR waves. These waves range from 3 Khz to above 300 Ghz and
are more suitable for wireless transmission. Radio waves can penetrate through walls and are used in radio communications, microwaves and
infrared (IR) waves cannot penetrate through walls and are used for satellite communications and device communications respectively.

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11. The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them into frames for transmission.
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) transport layer
Answer: a
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from application layer is sent to transport layer and is converted to segments. These segments are then
transferred to the network layer and these are called packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer where they are encapsulated into frames.
These frames are then transferred to physical layer where the frames are converted to bits. Error control and flow control data is inserted in the
frames at the data link layer.
12. Which of the following tasks is not done by data link layer?
a) framing
b) error control
c) flow control
d) channel coding
Answer: d
Explanation: Channel coding is the function of physical layer. Data link layer mainly deals with framing, error control and flow control. Data link
layer is the layer where the packets are encapsulated into frames.
13. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type of medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) error control sublayer
Answer: b
Explanation: Media access control (MAC) deals with transmission of data packets to and from the network-interface card, and also to and from
another remotely shared channel. The MAC sublayer also prevents collision using protocols like CSMA/CD.
14. Header of a frame generally contains ______________
a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier
Answer: d
Explanation: In a frame, the header is a part of the data that contains all the required information about the transmission of the file. It contains
information like synchronization bytes, addresses, frame identifier etc. It also contains error control information for reducing the errors in the
transmitted frames.
15. Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by ________
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) application access control sublayer
Answer: a
Explanation: The logical link control is a sublayer of data link layer whose main function is to manage traffic, flow and error control. The
automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by the LLC when an error is found in the received frame at the receiver’s end to
inform the sender to re-send the frame.
16. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is called ____________
a) random error
b) burst error
c) inverted error
d) double error
Answer: b
Explanation: When a single bit error occurs in a data, it is called single bit error. When more than a single bit of data is corrupted or has error, it is
called burst error. If a single bit error occurs, the bit can be simply repaired by inverting it, but in case of a burst error, the sender has to send the
frame again.
a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
d) cyclic repeat check
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyclic redundancy check is a code that is added to a data which helps us to identify any error that occurred during the transmission of
the data. CRC is only able to detect errors, not correct them. CRC is inserted in the frame trailer.
18. Which of the following is a data link protocol?
a) ethernet
b) point to point protocol
c) hdlc
Answer: d
Explanation: There are many data link layer protocols. Some of them are SDLC (synchronous data link protocol), HDLC (High level data link
control), SLIP (serial line interface protocol), PPP (Point to point protocol) etc. These protocols are used to provide the logical link control function
of the Data Link Layer.
19. Which of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access control?
a) CSMA/CD
b) CSMA/CA
c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
d) HDLC
Answer: c
Explanation: In CSMA/CD, it deals with detection of collision after collision has occurred, whereas CSMA/CA deals with preventing collision.
CSMA/CD is abbreviation for Carrier Sensing Multiple Access/Collision detection. CSMA/CA is abbreviation for Carrier Sensing Multiple
Access/Collision Avoidance. These protocols are used for efficient multiple channel access.
20. The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is
called ____________
a) piggybacking
b) cyclic redundancy check
c) fletcher’s checksum
d) parity check
Answer: a
Explanation: Piggybacking is a technique in which the acknowledgment is temporarily delayed so as to be hooked with the next outgoing data
frame. It saves a lot of channel bandwidth as in non-piggybacking system, some bandwidth is reserved for acknowledgement.

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21. Physical or logical arrangement of network is __________
a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
d) Control
Answer: a
Explanation: Topology in networks is the structure or pattern in which each and every node in the network is connected. There are many topologies
in networking like bus, tree, ring, star, mesh, and hybrid topology. There is no particular best topology and a suitable topology can be chosen based
on the kind of application of the network .
22. Which network topology requires a central controller or hub?
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
Answer: a
Explanation: In star topology, no computer is connected to another computer directly but all the computers are connected to a central hub. Every
message sent from a source computer goes through the hub and the hub then forwards the message only to the intended destination computer.
23. _______ topology requires a multipoint connection.
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
Answer: d
Explanation: In bus topology, there is a single cable to which all the network nodes are connected. So whenever a node tries to send a message or
data to other nodes, this data passes through all other nodes in the network through the cable. It is really simple to install but it’s not secure enough
to be used in most of the computer network applications.
24. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is ________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
Answer: b
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area Network. This network extends over a large geographical area. WANs are used to connect
cities, states or even countries. A wireless connection is required to build a WAN. The best example of WAN is the Internet.
25. Data communication system within a building or campus is________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
Answer: a
Explanation: LAN is an abbreviation for Local Area Network. This network interconnects computers in a small area such as schools, offices,
residence etc. It is the most versatile kind of data communication system where most of the computer network concepts can be visibly used.
26. WAN stands for __________
a) World area network
b) Wide area network
c) Web area network
d) Web access network
Answer: b
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area Network. This network extends over a large geographical area. These are used to connect
cities, states or even countries. They can be connected through leased lines or satellites.
27. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________
a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) Bits
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is the abbreviation for Time division multiplexing. It is technique for combining several low rate channels to a single high rate
channel. For a certain time slot, the several channels could use the maximum bandwidth. Each channel is inactive for a period of time too. Some
other multiplexing techniques are Frequency division multiplexing and Phase division multiplexing.
28. _____ is the multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency.
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) Both FDM & TDM
d) PDM
Answer: a
Explanation: FDM is an abbreviation for Frequency Division Multiplexing. This technique is used when the bandwidth of the channel is greater
than the combined bandwidth of all the signals which are to be transmitted. The channel is active at all times unless a collision occurs with another
channel trying to use the same frequency. Some other multiplexing techniques are Time division multiplexing and Phase division multiplexing.
29. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _________
a) Fully duplexing
b) Multiplexing
c) Micropleixng
d) Duplexing
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiplexing is a method using which one can send multiples signals through a shared medium at the same time. This helps in using
less resources and thus saving the cost of sending messages.
30. Multiplexing is used in _______
a) Packet switching
c) Data switching
d) Packet & Circuit switching
Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is a switching method by which one can obtain a physical path between end points. Circuit switching method is also
called a connection oriented network. Two nodes must be physically and logically connected to each other to create a circuit switching network.

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31. Which multiplexing technique used to transmit digital signals?
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
d) FDM & WDM
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM abbreviation for Time Division Multiplexing is a method used for digital signals. Whereas FDM and WDM abbreviation for
Frequency Division Multiplexing, and Wavelength Division Multiplexing, are used for analog signals. TDM is used in applications like ISDN
(Integrated Services Digital Network) and PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network).
32. If there are n signal sources of same data rate, then the TDM link has _______ slots.
a) n
b) n/2
c) n*2
d) 2n
Answer: a
Explanation: In TDM, the total unit of time is divided equally among all the signal sources and each and every source has access to the complete
channel bandwidth during its allotted time slot. When the time slot of the source is not active, it remains idle and waits for its slot to begin.
33. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of circuit this TDM is _________
a) 32kbps
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
d) 32bps
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate * number of bits in a slot.
Given: Frame rate = 4000/sec and number of bits in slot = 8
Thus, Transmission rate = (4000 * 8) bps
= 32000bps
= 32kbps
34. The state when dedicated signals are idle are called __________
a) Death period
b) Poison period
c) Silent period
d) Stop period
Answer: c
Explanation: There are instances when connection between two endpoints has been established, but no communication or transfer of messages
occurs. This period of time is called silent period. The silent period ends when either of the two endpoints starts the communication.
35. Multiplexing provides _________
a) Efficiency
b) Privacy
c) Anti jamming
d) Both Efficiency & Privacy
Answer: d
Explanation: Multiplexing helps us to transfer our messages over a shared channel. This brings up the issue of privacy and efficiency. Fortunately,
Multiplexing has high efficiency and high privacy when implemented because in the implementation, the transport layer of the OSI network model
handles the function of multiplexing through interfaces called ports which provide the required efficiency and privacy.
36. In TDM, the transmission rate of a multiplexed path is always _______ the sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources.
a) Greater than
b) Lesser than
c) Equal to
d) Equal to or greater than
Answer: a
Explanation: In TDM the transmission rate provided by the path that is multiplexed will always be greater than the sum of transmission rates of the
single sources. This happens because the transmission rate is provided to each source only for a small period of time.
37. In TDM, slots are further divided into _________
a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) Bits
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is the abbreviation for Time division multiplexing. It is technique for combining several low rate channels to a single high rate
channel. For a certain time slot, the several channels could use the maximum bandwidth. Each channel is inactive for a period of time too. Some
other multiplexing techniques are Frequency division multiplexing and Phase division multiplexing.
38. Which of the following delay is faced by the packet in travelling from one end system to another?
b) Queuing delay
Answer: d
Explanation: When a packet has to travel from one end system to another, it first faces the queuing delay when there are multiple packets which are
to be sent, then it faces the transmission delay to convert the packet into bits to be transmitted, and then it faces the propagation delay to propagate
the bits through the physical medium.
39. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the packet is 32bits, the transmission delay is ____________ (in microseconds)
a) 3.2
b) 32
c) 0.32
d) 320
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate = length / transmission rate = 32/10 = 3.2 microseconds.
40. The time required to examine the packet’s header and determine where to direct the packet is part of __________
a) Processing delay
b) Queuing delay
d) Propagation delay
Answer: a
Explanation: Processing delay is induced at a router’s or other network processor’s end in the path of the packet and is caused by the time taken by
the processor to examine the packet’s header to decide the further path of the packet.

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42. Given L = number of bits in the packet, a = average rate and R = transmission rate. The Traffic intensity in the network is given by
____________
a) La/R
b) LR/a
c) R/La
d) Ra/L
Answer: a
Explanation: Traffic Intensity = (Number of bits in packet * Average Transmission rate)/Current Transmission rate.
43. In the transfer of file between server and client, if the transmission rates along the path is 10Mbps, 20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The
throughput is usually ___________
a) 20Mbps
b) 10Mbps
c) 40Mbps
d) 50Mbps
Answer: b
Explanation: The throughput is generally the transmission rate of bottleneck link.
44. If end to end delay is given by dend-end = N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non congested network. The number of routers between
source and destination is?
a) N/2
b) N
c) N-1
d) 2N
Answer: c
Explanation: In the equation N (dproc + dtrans + dprop), N is the number of checkpoints/stops that the packet makes as it reaches the destination.
The stops are made at each router and the final destination node. Now, since N = number of routers + final node, then number of routers = N – final
node. As we know, there is only 1 final node in a path, thus, number of routers = N – 1. Suppose, There is a path A->R1->R2->B for a packet
where A is the source node, B is the final node and R1 and R2 are routers. The total delay would be given by N (dproc + dtrans + dprop) where N =
3, since the packet would stop at R1, R2 and B. The number of routers here are 2, and (N – 1) is also 2.
45. The total nodal delay is given by ____________
a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop
b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop
Answer: c
Explanation: The total node-to-node delay, that is, nodal delay is the sum of all, the processing delay, queuing delay, transmission delay and
propagation delay. Ideally, the nodal delay must be low as possible for a better Quality of Service of the network.
46. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of the following delays could be
zero?
b) Queuing delay
d) Processing delay
Answer: b
Explanation: Since there is no other packet to be transmitted, there is no need for a queue. Therefore, the delay caused due to the queuing would be
none i.e. 0.
47. Transmission delay does not depend on _____________
a) Packet length
b) Distance between the routers
c) Transmission rate
d) Bandwidth of medium
Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission delay = packet length / transmission rate. The transmission rate depends upon the bandwidth of the medium.
a) Packet length
d) Speed of the CPU
Answer: c
Explanation: Propagation delay is caused when the packet is in its electric signal form and is travelling through a medium (a wire or a
electromagnetic wave). Propagation delay is the time it takes a bit to propagate from one router to the next. If the distance between the routers is
increased, it will take longer time to propagate, that is, there would be more propagation delay.
49. _____________ allows LAN users to share computer programs and data.
a) Communication server
b) Print server
c) File server
d) Network
Answer: c
Explanation: A file server allows LAN users to share computer programs and data. It uses the File Transfer Protocol to provide this feature on ports
20 and 21. The file server works as a medium for the transfer.
50. With respect to physical media, STP cables stands for _________
a) Shielded Twisted Pair Cable
b) Spanning Tree Protocol Cable
c) Static Transport Protocol Cable
d) Shielded Two Power Cable
Answer: a
Explanation: For physical media, STP cable stands for Shielded twisted pair cable. 100 Mbps is the max data capacity of STP cable and its default
connector is RJ45. It is popularly used in LANs due to its ease of maintenance and installation.

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51. A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency controls such as file and record locking is
an example of ___________
a) LAN intrinsic software
b) LAN aware software
c) Groupware
d) LAN ignorant software
Answer: a
Explanation: A standalone program that has been modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency controls such as file and record locking is
an example of LAN intrinsic software. They are used to give better functionality of the program and the applications working over it to the users of
the LAN.
52. The __________ portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activities and audit data, etc.
a) Configuration management
b) Security management
c) Performance management
d) Recovery management
Answer: b
Explanation: The Security management portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activities, and audit data. It is
responsible for controlling access to the network based on predefined policy. The security management ensures authentication, confidentiality, and
integrity in the LAN.
53. What is the max length of the Shielded twisted pair cable?
a) 100 ft
b) 200 ft
c) 100 m
d) 200 m
Answer: c
Explanation: The max the Shielded twisted pair cable is 100 meters. If the length exceeds 100 meters, the loss of signals flowing through the cable
would be really high. Thus, STP cable is more suitable for smaller networks like LANs.
54. What is the max data transfer rate of STP cables?
a) 10 Mbps
b) 100 Mbps
c) 1000 Mbps
d) 10000 Mbps
Answer: b
Explanation: 100 Mbps is the max data transfer rate that can be handled by STP cables, and its default connector is RJ-45. 100 Mbps is a feasible
data transfer rate for small networks like LANs.
55. Which connector does the STP cable use?
a) BNC
b) RJ-11
c) RJ-45
d) RJ-69
Answer: c
Explanation: RJ-45 is used for STP cable. 100 Mbps is the max data transfer rate that can be handled by STP. RJ-45 is popularly used to connect to
modern-day routers, computer network cards, and other network devices.
a) STP server
b) Hub/switch
c) PDC
d) Router
Answer: b
Explanation: In star topology, no computer is connected to another computer directly but all the computers are connected to a central switch or hub.
Every message sent from a source computer goes through the switch or hub and the switch or hub then forwards the message only to the intended
destination computer.
57. What is the max data transfer rate for optical fiber cable?
a) 10 Mbps
b) 100 Mbps
c) 1000 Mbps
d) 10000 Mbps
Answer: d
Explanation: Fiber channel speeds have been increasing over the years. 10000 Mbps is the max data transfer rate for optical fiber cables. It is said
to be the fastest among the other kinds of cables like STP cables and co-axial cables. People are now using optical fiber cables instead of STP
cables for LANs due to their fast data transfer capability.
58. Which of the following architecture uses the CSMA/CD access method?
a) ARC net
b) Ethernet
c) Router
d) STP server
Answer: b
Explanation: Collision detection is not possible in Ethernet without extensions. Collision detection techniques for multiple access like CSMA/CD
are used to detect collisions in the Ethernet architecture.
59. The attacker using a network of compromised devices is known as _____________
a) Internet
b) Botnet
c) Telnet
d) D-net
Answer: b
Explanation: Botnet is a network of compromised devices used by the attacker without the owner’s knowledge to perform unethical activities such
as spamming. The attacker usually uses the least secure devices to create the botnet.
60. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack?
Answer: d
Explanation: In a DoS attack, the attacker won’t let the victims access the network by using a certain method that ensures that an essential network
resource is unavailable to the victim. In vulnerability attack, the attacker exploits any obvious vulnerable entity in the network to deny the victim
access into the network. In bandwidth flooding, the attacker floods the victim with a huge flow of packets and uses up all the bandwidth. In
connection flooding, the attacker floods the victim network with a huge number of connections, so that, no other machine can connect to it.

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61. The DoS attack, in which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open or fully open TCP connections at the target host is
________
d) UDP flooding
Answer: c
Explanation: In Vulnerability attack, the attacker exploits the vulnerable control points of the network to deny access to the victims. In Bandwidth
flooding, the attacker intentionally uses up all the bandwidth by flooding the victim with a deluge of packets and makes sure that the victim can’t
use any bandwidth. In UDP flooding, too many UDP packets are sent by the attacker to the victim at random ports.
62. The DoS attack, in which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host is ________
d) UDP flooding
Answer: b
Explanation: In Bandwidth flooding, the attacker floods the victim machine with a deluge of packets to make sure that no bandwidth is available.
The victim then cannot utilize the complete bandwidth to perform its operation.
63. Packet sniffers involve ____________
a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Legal receiver
d) Partially-active receiver
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of packet sniffers is to just silently receive the packets flowing in the channel. If they inject any packets into the channel,
they might alert the other users about the intrusion.
64. Sniffers can be prevented by using _______________
b) WiFi
c) Ethernet LAN
d) Switched network
Answer: d
Explanation: Switches make sure that the packet is sent to the intended receiver and no one else, thus preventing Sniffers to perform their function.
Intelligent switches are hence used preferably for the network.
65. Firewalls are often configured to block ___________
a) UDP traffic
b) TCP traffic
c) Sensitive traffic
d) Best-effort traffic
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is more vulnerable to attacks, so firewalls are often configured to block suspicious UDP traffic.
66. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, which of the following delays could be
zero?
b) Queuing delay
d) Processing delay
Answer: b
Explanation: Since there is no other packet to be transmitted, there is no need for a queue. Therefore, the delay caused due to the queuing would be
none i.e. 0.
67. Which of this is not a guided media?
a) Fiber optical cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Wireless LAN
d) Copper wire
Answer: c
Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided media.
68. UTP is commonly used in __________
a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) HTTP
Answer: a
Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair(UTP) is commonly used in home access.
69. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Coaxial cable has an inner conductor surrounded by a insulating layer, which is surrounded by a conducting shield. Coaxial cable is
used to carry high frequency signals with low losses.
70. Fiber optics posses following properties __________
a) Immune electromagnetic interference
b) Very less signal attenuation
c) Very hard to tap
Answer: d
Explanation: In fibre optics the transmission of information is in the form of light or photons. Due to all above properties mentioned in options
fibre optics can be submerged in water and are used at more risk environments.

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71. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n, generally the link speed equals(in Mbps) __________
a) n*39.8
b) n*51.8
c) 2n*51.8
Answer: b
Explanation: The base unit of transmission rates in optical fibre is 51.8 Mbits/s. So an optical carrier represented as OC-n has n*51.8 Mbits/s
transmission speed. For eg. OC-3 has 3*51.8 Mbits/s speed.
72. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly classifed into _____ groups.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation: The three types are those that operate over very short distance, those that operate in local areas, those that operate in the wide area.
73. Radio channels are attractive medium because __________
a) Can penetrate walls
b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
c) Can carry signals for long distance
Answer: d
Explanation: Radio channels can penetrate walls, can be used to provide connectivity to mobile users and can also carry signals for long distances.
74. Geostationary satellites ___________
a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
Answer: a
Explanation: They are placed in orbit at 36,000km above Earth’s surface.
75. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.
a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) Bit switched
d) Line switched
Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented switching technique, whereas in the case of packet switching, it is connectionless. Circuit
switching is implemented in the Physical layer, whereas packet switching is implemented in the Network layer. Internet too is based on the concept
of circuit switching.
76. Most packet switches use this principle ____________
a) Stop and wait
b) Store and forward
c) Store and wait
d) Stop and forward
Answer: b
Explanation: The packet switch will not transmit the first bit to outbound link until it receives the entire packet. If the entire packet is not received
and the time-out period expires, the packet switch will inform the sender to resend the part of packet or the entire packet based on the algorithm
being used.
77. If there are N routers from source to destination, the total end to end delay in sending packet P(L-> number of bits in the packet R->
transmission rate) is equal to ______________
a) N
b) (N*L)/R
c) (2N*L)/R
d) L/R
Answer: b
Explanation: The equation to find the end to end delay when no. of bits, transmission rate and no. of routers is given by (N*L)/R. The total end to
end delay, that is, nodal delay is the sum of all, the processing delay, queuing delay, transmission delay and propagation delay.
78. What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?
a) Packet switching and Line switching
b) Circuit switching and Line switching
c) Line switching and bit switching
d) Packet switching and Circuit switching
Answer: d
Explanation: Packet switching and Circuit switching are two different types of switching methods used to connect the multiple communicating
devices with one another. Packet switching is used in conventional LAN systems and circuit switching is used in telephonic systems.
79. The required resources for communication between end systems are reserved for the duration of the session between end systems in
________ method.
a) Packet switching
c) Line switching
d) Frequency switching
Answer: b
Explanation: In circuit switching, a physical path between the sender and receiver is established. This path is maintained until the connection is
needed. Circuit switching is implemented in the Physical layer and is used in telephonic systems.
80. As the resources are reserved between two communicating end systems in circuit switching, ___________ is achieved.
a) authentication
b) guaranteed constant rate

c) reliability
d) store and forward
Answer: b
Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented and is always implemented in the physical layer. Once a path is set, all transmission occurs
through the same path. It is used since the early times in telephonic systems.

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81. In _________ systems, resources are allocated on demand.
a) packet switching
c) line switching
d) frequency switching
Answer: a
Explanation: In packet switching, the bits are received in out of order and need to be assembled at the receiver end, whereas in the case of Circuit
switching, all the bits are received in order. All transmissions may not occur through the same path in case of packet switching.
82. Which of the following is not an application layer service?
c) Mail service
d) Error control
Answer: d
Explanation: Application layer is the topmost layer in the OSI model. Network virtual terminal, mail service, file transfer, access and management
are all services of the application layer. It uses protocols like HTTP, FTP, and DNS etc. to provide these services.
Network Layer (#1618829810631-f3c93887-23f0)
Transport Layer & Session Layer (#1618831379299-84cb00e4-c11d)
Presentation Layer & Application Layer (#1618834078904-b8efbcfc-3a59)
Network Design Concepts (#1618834922322-59b61d56-a40c)
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Engineering
 Module 3
1. The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.
a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) bytes
Answer: c
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from the application layer is sent to the transport layer and is converted to segments. These segments
are then transferred to the network layer and these are called packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer where they are encapsulated into
frames. These frames are then transferred to physical layer where the frames are converted to bits.
2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?
a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) error control
Answer: d
Explanation: In the OSI model, network layer is the third layer and it provides data routing paths for network communications. Error control is a
function of the data link layer and the transport layer.
3. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________
a) only network address
b) only host address
c) network address & host address
d) network address & MAC address
Answer: c
Explanation: An ip address which is 32 bits long, that means it is of 4 bytes and is composed of a network and host portion and it depends on
address class. The size of the host address and network address depends upon the class of the address in classful IP addressing.
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4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains ___________
a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) only source address
d) only destination address
Answer: b
Explanation: A short VC number also called as VCID (virtual circuit identifier) is a type of identifier which is used to distinguish between several
virtual circuits in a connection-oriented circuit-switched network. Each virtual circuit is used to transfer data over a larger packet-switched
network.
5. Which of the following routing algorithms can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
Answer: d
Explanation: The routing algorithm is what decides where a packet should go next. There are several routing techniques like shortest path
algorithm, static and dynamic routing, decentralized routing, distance vector routing, link state routing, Hierarchical routing etc. The routing
algorithms go hand in hand with the operations of all the routers in the networks. The routers are the main participants in these algorithms.
6. Which of the following is not correct in relation to multi-destination routing?
a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) there are multiple receivers
Answer: c
Explanation: In multi-destination routing, there is more than one receiver and the route for each destination which is contained in a list of
destinations is to be found by the routing algorithm. Multi-destination routing is also used in broadcasting.
7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called ________
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) special tree
Answer: a
Explanation: Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a network protocol that creates a loop free logical topology for ethernet networks. It is a layer 2
protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in
your network.
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) routing information protocol
Answer: d
Explanation: The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is used by the network layer for the function of dynamic routing. Congestion control focuses
on the flow of the traffic in the network and uses algorithms like traffic aware routing, admission control and load shedding to deal with congestion.
9. The network layer protocol for internet is __________
a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) file transfer protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: There are several protocols used in Network layer. Some of them are IP, ICMP, CLNP, ARP, IPX, HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer
protocol is for application layer and ethernet protocol is for data link layer.
10. ICMP is primarily used for __________
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) routing
Answer: a
Explanation: ICMP abbreviation for Internet Control Message Protocol is used by networking devices to send error messages and operational
information indicating a host or router cannot be reached. ICMP operates over the IP packet to provide error reporting functionality as IP by itself
cannot report errors.

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11. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called as _____________
d) Border gateway protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: In OSPF, the link state of each path is checked, and then the shortest path is chosen among only the open state links. Each OSPF
router monitors the cost of the link to each of its neighbors and then floods the link state information to other routers in the network.
12. The computation of the shortest path in OSPF is usually done by ____________
a) Bellman-ford algorithm
b) Routing information protocol
c) Dijkstra’s algorithm
d) Distance vector routing
Answer: c
Explanation: Shortest path in OSPF is usually computed by Dijkstra’s algorithm. It was proposed by Edsger W. Dijkstra in the year 1956. It is a
greedy method algorithm and hence may not guarantee the shortest path every time, but is really fast.
13. Which of the following is false with respect to the features of OSPF?
a) Support for fixed-length subnetting by including the subnet mask in the routing message
b) More flexible link cost than can range from 1 to 65535
c) Use of designated router
d) Distribution of traffic over multiple paths that have equal cost to the destination
Answer: a
Explanation: OSPF provides support for variable-length sunbathing by including the subnet mask in the routing message. For fixed length subnets,
there is no requirement for including the subnet mask in the routing message as there is just one subnet mask for all the subnets.
14. In OSPF, which protocol is used to discover neighbour routers automatically?
d) Hello protocol
Answer: d
Explanation: Hello protocol is used to discover neighboring routers automatically. It makes sure that the communication between neighbors is
bidirectional. It’s similar to the real world moral construct of saying “Hello” to initialize the communication.
15. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF packet?
a) Hello
b) Link-state request
c) Link-state response
d) Link-state ACK
Answer: c
Explanation: The five types of OSPF packets are: Hello, Database description, Link-state request, Link-state update, and Link-state ACK. There is
no Link-state response packet; the neighbor router sends a Link-state update packet as a response to the Link-state request packet if there is an
update in the routing table.
16. What is the correct order of the operations of OSPF?
i – Hello packets
ii – Propagation of link-state information and building of routing tables
iii – Establishing adjacencies and synchronization of database
a) i-ii-iii
b) i-iii-ii
c) iii-ii-i
d) ii-i-iii
Answer: b
Explanation: OSPF first implements a hello protocol. Then it later on tries to establish synchronisation with database. Later on building of routing
tables is done.
17. In OSPF header, which field is used to detect errors in the packet?
a) Type
b) Area ID
d) Checksum
Answer: d
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors. It makes sure that the data portions that are being sent are all in integrity. It can detect
duplicated bits. Once an error is detected, the sender has to re-transmit the data as it won’t receive an acknowledgement.
18. In OSPF database descriptor packet, if there are more database descriptor packets in the flow, ‘M’ field is set to ____________
a) 1
b) 0
c) more
d) -1
Answer: a
Explanation: The “M” bit is the more bit, which indicates that there are more packets to be received in the descriptor packet flow whenever it is set
to 1. There is also an “I” bit which indicates if the packet is first in the flow.
19. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to indicate that the router is master?
a) M
b) MS
c) I
d) Options
Answer: b
Explanation: The MS bit is used to indicate if the origin of the packet is a master or a slave. If it is set to 1, the source of the packet is a master, and
if it is set to 0, the source of the packet is a slave.
20. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to detect a missing packet?
a) LSA header
b) MS
c) Database descriptor sequence number
d) Options
Answer: c
Explanation: Sequence number field is used to detect a missing packet. The packets are to be received in order of the sequence number, so if the
receiver detects that there is a sequence number skipped or missing in the order, it stops processing the further received packets and informs the
sender to retransmit the packets in sequence.

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21. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this number matches the sequence number of the LSA
that the receiving router already has. What does the receiving router do with the LSA?
a) Ignores the LSA
Answer: a
Explanation: When the OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number. If this number matches the sequence number of the
LSA that the receiving router already has, the router ignores the LSA.
22. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is higher than the sequence
number it already has. Which two tasks does the router perform with the LSA?
a) Ignores the LSA
Answer: b
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA. If the router checks its sequence number and finds that the number is higher than the sequence
number of the LSA that it already has, the router adds it to the database, and then floods the LSA to the other routers.
23. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is lower than the sequence
number it already has. What does the router do with the LSA?
a) ignores the LSA
b) adds it to the database
c) sends newer LSU update to source router
d) floods the LSA to the other routers
Answer: c
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA. If the router checks its sequence number and finds that this number is lower than the sequence
number that it already has, the router sends newer LSU update to source router. The router then adds it to the database and floods it to the other
routers.
24. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does an LSA wait before requiring an update?
a) 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour
Answer: c
Explanation: Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, an LSA waits for 30 minutes before requiring an update. The router then has to send a
LSR (Link State Request) to its neighbors to get an update.
25. Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF, do not.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In Distance vector routing protocols, there is a problem called count-to-infinity which occurs regularly. So, to make sure that it does
not occur, the split horizon algorithm is used. There is no requirement for it in OSPF.
26. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the __________
a) Topology table
b) Routing table
c) Neighbor table
d) Adjacency table
Answer: b
Explanation: The outcome of Djikstra’s calculation is the main source of entries in the routing table as it is the algorithm that is used to find the
shortest path in OSPF. The calculations are done after receiving every new LSU.
27. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets?
a) 89
b) 86
c) 20
d) 76
Answer: a
Explanation: 89 is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets. 86 is the protocol number for DGP, 76 is the protocol number for Backroom-
SATNET-Monitoring and 20 is the protocol number for Host Monitoring Protocol.
28. Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?
a) LSU
b) LSR
c) DBD
d) Query
Answer: d
Explanation: LSU is the Link State Update packet, LSR is the Link State Request packet and DBD is the Database Descriptor packet in OSPF.
Query packet is NOT an OSPF packet type.
29. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use?
a) 224.0.0.5
b) 224.0.0.6
c) 224.0.0.7
d) 224.0.0.8
Answer: a
Explanation: Hello protocol is used to discover neighboring routers automatically. It makes sure that the communication between neighbors is
bidirectional. The multicast address that the OSPF Hello protocol uses is 224.0.0.5.
30. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between adjacent routers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between adjacent routers. It’s similar to
the real world moral construct of saying “Hello” to initialize the communication.

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31. Datagram switching is done at which layer of OSI model?
a) Network layer
b) Physical layer
d) Transport layer
Answer: a
Explanation: Datagram switching is normally done at network layer. In datagram switching, the datagram stream need not be in order as each
datagram can take different routes to the destination.
32. Packets in datagram switching are referred to as ________
a) Switches
b) Segments
c) Datagrams
d) Data-packets
Answer: c
Explanation: As the name suggests, in datagram switching packets are called as datagram. Each datagram/packet is treated as an individual entity
and routed independently through the network.
33. Datagram networks mainly refers to _________
a) Connection oriented networks
b) Connection less networks
c) Telephone networks
d) Internetwork
Answer: b
Explanation: The switch does not keep the information about the connection state, hence it is connection less. There is no need for establishing a
handshake to begin the transmission in such networks.
34. Datagrams are routed to their destinations with the help of ________
a) Switch table
b) Segments table
c) Datagram table
d) Routing table
Answer: c
Explanation: Routing table is used to route the packets to their destinations. The packet/datagram header contains the destination header for the
whole journey to source to the destination through the routers.
35. The main contents of the routing table in datagram networks are ___________
a) Source and Destination address
b) Destination address and Output port
c) Source address and Output port
d) Input port and Output port
Answer: b
Explanation: Routing table contains destination address and output port to route the packets to their destinations. The port address specifies the
particular application that the packet has to be forwarded to after it has reached the destination.
36. Which of the following remains same in the header of the packet in a datagram network during the entire journey of the packet?
a) Destination address
b) Source address
c) Checksum
d) Padding
Answer: a
Explanation: Destination address remains same in the header during the entire journey of the packet. There is no pre-decided route for the packets
so each datagram/packet is treated as an individual entity and routed independently through the network.
37. Which of the following is true with respect to the delay in datagram networks?
a) Delay is greater than in a virtual circuit network
b) Each packet may experience a wait at a switch
c) Delay is not uniform for the packets of a message
Answer: d
Explanation: The delay of each packet in a datagram network is different as each packet might take a different route to the destination. The delay
includes the propagation delay and the processing delay that is induced at each stop/switch that the packet encounters in its journey.
38. During datagram switching, the packets are placed in __________ to wait until the given transmission line becomes available.
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Hash
d) Routing table
Answer: b
Explanation: When there are too many packets to be transmitted and the transmission line gets blocked while transmitting some packets, the
remaining packets are stored in queue during delay and are served as first in first out. The delay is called as queuing delay.
39. The probability of the error in a transmitted block _________ with the length of the block
a) Remains same
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) Is not proportional
Answer: c
Explanation: Probability of the error in a transmitted block increases with the length of the block. Hence, the blocks should be as short as possible
for ideal transmission with low possibility of an error.
40. Which of the following is false with respect to the datagram networks?
a) Number of flows of packets are not limited
b) Packets may not be in order at the destination
c) Path is not reserved
d) Delay is the same for all packets in a flow
Answer: d
Explanation: The delay of each packet in a datagram network is different as each packet might take a different route to the destination. This
happens because there is no pre-decided route for the packets.

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41. Network layer firewall works as a __________
a) Frame filter
b) Packet filter
c) Content filter
d) Virus filter
Answer: b
Explanation: As you know, firewalls are available as hardware appliances, as software-only, or a combination of the two. In every case, the purpose
of a firewall is to isolate your trusted internal network (or your personal PC) from the dangers of unknown resources on the Internet and other
network connections that may be harmful. The firewall prevents unauthorized access to your internal, trusted network from outside threats.
42. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as _________
a) State full firewall and stateless firewall
b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) Frame firewall and packet firewall
d) Network layer firewall and session layer firewall
Answer: a
Explanation: Most network layer firewalls can operate as stateful or stateless firewalls, creating two subcategories of the standard network layer
firewall. Stateful firewalls have the advantage of being able to track packets over a period of time for greater analysis and accuracy — but they
require more memory and operate more slowly. Stateless firewalls do not analyze past traffic and can be useful for systems where speed is more
important than security, or for systems that have very specific and limited needs. For example, a computer that only needs to connect to a particular
backup server does not need the extra security of a stateful firewall.
43. A firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted external network meet which is also known as
__________
a) Chock point
b) Meeting point
c) Firewall point
d) Secure point
Answer: a
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a router, a midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, or a combination of these that determines which
information or services can be accessed from the outside and who is permitted to use the information and services from outside. Generally, a
firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted external network meet, which is also known as a chokepoint.
44. Which of the following is / are the types of firewall?
a) Packet Filtering Firewall
b) Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
c) Screen Host Firewall
d) Dual Host Firewall
Answer: a
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, a router, or combination of these. Depending on the
requirements, a firewall can consist of one or more of the following functional components: Packet-filtering router
45. A proxy firewall filters at _________
a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer
Answer: d
Explanation: The application firewall is typically built to control all network traffic on any layer up to the application layer. It is able to control
applications or services specifically, unlike a stateful network firewall, which is – without additional software – unable to control network traffic
regarding a specific application. There are two primary categories of application firewalls, network-based application firewalls and host-based
application firewalls.
46. A packet filter firewall filters at __________
a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer or Transport layer
Answer: c
Explanation: In computing, a firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on
predetermined security rules.[1] A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted, secure internal network and another outside network,
such as the Internet, that is assumed not to be secure or trusted.[2] Firewalls are often categorized as either network firewalls or host-based
firewalls.
47. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls?
a) You can control where traffic goes in three networks
b) You can do stateful packet filtering
c) You can do load balancing
d) Improved network performance
Answer: c
Explanation: DMZ stands for De-Militarized Zone. In a topology with a single firewall serving both internal and external users (LAN and WAN), it
acts as a shared resource for these two zones. So load balancing can be done by adding another firewall.
48. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data stream that has been divided into packets?
a) The source routing feature
b) The number in the header’s identification field
c) The destination IP address
d) The header checksum field in the packet header
Answer: a
Explanation: The source routing feature provides a path address for the packet to help the firewall to reassemble the data stream that was divided
into packets. After reassembling, the firewall can then filter the stream.
49. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________ which is a list of active connections.
a) Routing table
b) Bridging table
c) State table
d) Connection table
Answer: a
Explanation: The routing table basically gives the state of each connection i.e. whether the connection is active or not. A routing table ensures the
best performance for the stateful firewall.
50. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it can grow proportionally with the network that it protects.
a) Robust
b) Expansive
c) Fast
d) Scalable
Answer: b
Explanation: The firewall has to be expansive because a network is expected to grow with time and if the firewall is unable to grow with it, the
firewall won’t be able to handle the growing network traffic flow and will hence fail.

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51. Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of _________
a) Documents
b) Components
c) Servers
d) Entities
Answer: b
Explanation: Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of components. For effective functioning of these
thousands of components, good network management is essential.
52. Performance management is closely related to _________
a) Proactive Fault Management
b) Fault management
c) Reactive Fault Management
d) Preventive Fault Management
Answer: b
Explanation: Fault management is really closely related to performance management. It is important to ensure that the network handles faults as
effectively as it handles it’s normal functioning to achieve better performance management.
53. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems: reconfiguration and __________
a) Documentation
b) Information
c) Servers
d) Entity
Answer: a
Explanation: The documentation subsystem of configuration management handles the log making and reporting functions of the configuration
management. It also reports the errors in the network caused by the configuration’s failure.
54. In Network Management System, the term that is responsible for controlling access to network based on predefined policy is called
___________
a) Fault Management
Answer: d
Explanation: In Network Management System, the term that is responsible for controlling access to the network based on predefined policy is
called security management. The security management ensures authentication, confidentiality and integrity in the network.
55. Control of users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of ______________
Answer: c
Explanation: Control of users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of accounting management. The accounting
management creates a log of the users activity on the network too and goes hand-in-hand with the configurations management.
56. The physical connection between an end point and a switch or between two switches is __________
a) Transmission path
b) Virtual path
c) Virtual circuit
d) Transmission circuit
Answer: a
Explanation: The physical connection between an end point and a switch or between two switches is transmission path. The transmission path is the
physical roadway that the packet needs to propagate in order to travel through the network.
57. Which of the following networks supports pipelining effect?
a) Circuit-switched networks
b) Message-switched networks
c) Packet-switched networks
d) Stream-switched networks
Answer: c
Explanation: Packet switched network is most preferred for pipelining process. Pipelining exponentially reduces the time taken to transmit a large
number of packets in the network.
58. In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its connection to the _________
a) IP Server
b) Domain
c) Network
d) Data
Answer: c
Explanation: Network is the main entity connecting different components in a place. A network map is made to track each component and its
connection to the network to ensure better network management.
59. MIB is a collection of groups of objects that can be managed by __________
a) SMTP
b) UDP
c) SNMP
d) TCP/IP
Answer: c
Explanation: MIB stands for Management Information Base. Simple network management controls the group of objects in management
information base. It is usually used with SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).
60. A network management system can be divided into ___________
a) three categories
b) five broad categories
c) seven broad categories

d) ten broad categories
Answer: b
Explanation: The five broad categories of network management are
• Fault Management
• Configuration Management
• Accounting (Administration)
• Performance Management
• Security Management.

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a) Error reporting
c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling conventions
Answer: a
Explanation: The Internet Protocol is the networking protocol which establishes the internet by relaying datagrams across network boundaries.
ICMP is a supporting protocol for IP which handles the Error Reporting functionality.
a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier
Answer: c
Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the type of packets. It is not related to fragmentation but is used to request specific treatment such as
high throughput, high reliability or low latency for the IP packet depending upon the type of service it belongs to.
a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: TTL stands for Time to Live. This field specifies the life of the IP packet based on the number of hops it makes (Number of routers it
goes through). TTL field is decremented by one each time the datagram is processed by a router. When the value is 0, the packet is automatically
destroyed.
64. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is _____________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) ICMP
d) IGMP
Answer: b
Explanation: The protocol field enables the demultiplexing feature so that the IP protocol can be used to carry payloads of more than one protocol
type. Its most used values are 17 and 6 for UDP and TCP respectively. ICMP and IGMP are network layer protocols.
65. The data field cannot carry which of the following?
a) TCP segment
b) UDP segment
c) ICMP messages
d) SMTP messages
Answer: c
Explanation: Data field usually has transport layer segments, but it can also carry ICMP messages. SMTP is an application layer protocol. First it
must go through the transport layer to be converted into TCP segments and then it can be inserted into IP packets.
66. What should be the flag value to indicate the last fragment?
a) 0
b) 1
c) TTl value
d) Protocol field value
Answer: a
Explanation: The Flag field in the IP header is used to control and identify the fragments. It contains three bits: reserved, don’t fragment and more
fragments. If the more fragments bit is 0, it means that the fragment is the last fragment.
a) is connectionless
b) offer reliable service
c) offer unreliable service
d) does not offer error reporting
Answer: b
Explanation: IP does not provide reliable delivery service for the data. It’s dependent upon the transport layer protocols like TCP to offer reliability.
a) complicates routers
b) open to DOS attack
c) overlapping of fragments.
Answer: d
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation of the IP protocol complex and can also be exploited by attackers to create a DOS attack
such as a teardrop attack. Fragmentation won’t be required if the transport layer protocols perform wise segmentation.
a) offset
b) flag
c) ttl
d) identifer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Fragment Offset field specifies where the fragment fits in the original datagram. The offset of the first fragment will always be 0.
The size of the field (13 bits) is 3-bits shorter than the size of the total length field (16 bits).
a) Connectionless
b) Offer reliable service
c) Offer unreliable service
d) Does not offer error reporting
Answer: b
Explanation: IP does not provide reliable delivery service for the data. It’s dependent upon the transport layer protocols like TCP to offer reliability.

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a) Complicates routers
b) Open to DOS attack
c) Overlapping of fragments
Answer: d
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation of the IP protocol complex and can also be exploited by attackers to create a DOS attack
such as a teardrop attack. Fragmentation won’t be required if the transport layer protocols perform wise segmentation.
a) Offset
b) Flag
c) TTL
d) Identifier
Answer: a
Explanation: The Fragment Offset field specifies where the fragment fits in the original datagram. The offset of the first fragment will always be 0.
The size of the field (13 bits) is 3-bits shorter than the size of the total length field (16 bits).
74. In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in ______
a) IPs
b) Blocks
c) Codes
d) Sizes
Answer: b
Explanation: In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in blocks. The total number of addresses in a block of
classless IP addresses = 2(32 – CIDR_value).
75. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is replaced with ________
a) Classless Addressing
b) Classful Addressing
c) Classful Advertising
d) Classless Advertising
Answer: a
Explanation: Classful addressing is replaced with classless addressing as a large ratio of the available addresses in a class in calssful addressing is
wasted. In classless addressing, one can reserve the number of IP addresses required by modifying the CIDR value and make sure that not many
addresses are wasted.
76. First address in a block is used as network address that represents the ________
a) Class Network
b) Entity
c) Organization
d) Codes
Answer: c
Explanation: First address in a block is used as network address that represents the organization. The network address can be found by AND’ing
any address in the block by the default mask. The last address in a block represents the broadcast address.
77. In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are ________
a) Organized
b) Blocked
c) Wasted
d) Communicated
Answer: c
Explanation: In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are wasted. Thus to solve this classful addressing is replaced with classless
addressing where one can reserve the number of IP addresses required by modifying the CIDR value and make sure that not many addresses are
wasted.
78. Network addresses are a very important concept of ________
a) Routing
b) Mask
c) IP Addressing
d) Classless Addressing
Answer: c
Explanation: Network addresses are a very important concept of IP addressing. The first address in a block is used as network address that
represents the organization. The network address can be found by AND’ing any address in the block or class by the default mask.
79. Which of this is not a class of IP address?
a) Class E
b) Class C
c) Class D
d) Class F
Answer: d
Explanation: Class F is not a class of IP addressing. There are only five classes of IP addresses: Class A (0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255), Class B
(128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255), Class C (192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255), Class D (224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255), and Class E (240.0.0.0 to
255.255.255.255).
80. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________
a) 4 bytes
b) 128 bits
c) 8 bytes
d) 100 bits
Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. Therefore, 2128 i.e. 340 undecillion addresses are possible in IPv6. IPv4 has only 4 billion possible
addresses and IPv6 would be a brilliant alternative in case IPv4 runs out of possible new addresses.

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81. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________

a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
Answer: d
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of 40bytes, which results in faster processing of the datagram. There is one fixed header and
optional headers which may or may not exist. The fixed header contains the mandatory essential information about the packet while the optional
headers contain the optional “not that necessary” information.
82. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
b) Fast-switching
c) ToS field
d) Option field
Answer: c
Explanation: The traffic class field is used to specify the priority of the IP packet which is a similar functionality to the Type of Service field in the
IPv4 header. It’s an 8-bit field and its values are not defined in the RFC 2460.
83. IPv6 does not use _________ type of address.
a) broadcast
b) multicast
c) anycast
d) unicast
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no concept of broadcast address in IPv6. Instead, there is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a
group of devices but not all devices in a network. Anycast address is not standardized in IPv4.
84. Which among the following features is present in IPv6 but not in IPv4?
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) Anycast address
Answer: d
Explanation: There is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a group of devices but not all devices in a network. Anycast
address is not standardized in IPv4.
85. The _________ field determines the lifetime of IPv6 datagram
a) Hop limit
b) TTL
c) Next header
d) Type of traffic
Answer: a
Explanation: The Hop limit value is decremented by one by a router when the datagram is forwarded by the router. When the value becomes zero
the datagram is discarded. The field is 8-bits wide, so an IPv6 packet can live up to 255 router hops only.
86. Dual-stack approach refers to _________
a) implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
b) implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
d) implementing a MAC address with 2 stacks
Answer: c
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approaches used to support IPv6 in already existing systems. ISPs are using it as a method to transfer from
IPv4 to IPv6 completely eventually due to the lower number of possible available addresses in IPv4.
87. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using IPv6 datagrams, but they are connected to each other by intervening IPv4 routers.
The best solution here is ________
a) Use dual-stack approach
b) Tunneling
c) No solution
Answer: b
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel in which at the sender’s side, the IPv6 datagram is encapsulated in to IPv4, and at the receiver’s
side of the tunnel, the IPv4 packet is stripped and the IPv6 packet is sent to the receiver.
88. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by bits ______
a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63
c) 80 to 95
d) 64 to 79
Answer: a
Explanation: Teredo is a technique through which gives the possibility for full IPv6 network connectivity to IPv6 capable hosts which are currently
on an IPv4 network. Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address of the IPv4 network.

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Engineering
 Module 4
1. Which of the following is false with respect to TCP?
b) Process-to-process
d) Unreliable
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable and ordered delivery of a stream of bytes between hosts communicating via an
IP network.
2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as _______
a) Stream of bytes
b) Sequence of characters
c) Lines of data
d) Packets
Answer: a
Explanation: TCP provides stream oriented delivery between hosts communicating via an IP network and there are no message boundaries. TCP
can concatenate data from a number of send () commands into one stream of data and still transmit it reliably.
3. TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need __________ for storage.
a) Packets
b) Buffers
c) Segments
d) Stacks
Answer: b
Explanation: A TCP receiver has a receive buffer that is used to store the unprocessed incoming packets in case the sender is sending packets faster
than the processing rate of the received packets.
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4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called _______
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Stack
Answer: c
Explanation: A segment may be collection of data from many send () statements. TCP transmits each segment as a stream of bytes.
5. Communication offered by TCP is ________
a) Full-duplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Semi-duplex
d) Byte by byte
Answer: a
Explanation: Data can flow both the directions at the same time during a TCP communication hence, it is full-duplex. This is the reason why TCP
is used in systems that require full-duplex operation such as e-mail systems.
6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data.
a) Packet
b) Buffer
c) Segment
d) Acknowledgment
Answer: d
Explanation: Acknowledgment mechanism is used to check the safe and sound arrival of data. The sender actively checks for acknowledgement
from the receiver and once a specific time period has passed, it retransmits the data.
7. In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement number fields refer to _______
a) Byte number
b) Buffer number
c) Segment number
d) Acknowledgment
Answer: a
Explanation: As TCP has to ensure ordered delivery of packets, sequence number and acknowledgement number are used to identify the byte
number of the packet in the stream of bytes being transmitted.
8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the
segment if all data is sent in only one segment?
a) 10000
b) 10001
c) 12001
d) 11001
Answer: b
Explanation: The sequence number given to first byte of a segment, with respect to its order among the previous segments, is the sequence number
of that segment.
9. Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers start with a _________
a) Fixed number
b) Random sequence of 0’s and 1’s
c) One
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
Answer: d
Explanation: One might expect the sequence number of the first byte in the stream to be 0, or 1. But that does not happen in TCP, Instead, the
sender has to choose an Initial Sequence Number (ISN), which is basically a random 32 bit sequence of 0’s and 1’s, during the connection
handshake.
10. The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines _______
a) sequence number of the byte received previously
b) total number of bytes to receive
c) sequence number of the next byte to be received
d) sequence of zeros and ones
Answer: c
Explanation: The acknowledgement field in a segment defines the sequence number of the byte which is to be received next i.e. sequence number
of byte that the sender should transmit next.

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11. The receiver of the data controls the amount of data that are to be sent by the sender is referred to as ___________
a) Flow control
b) Error control
c) Congestion control
d) Error detection
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the receiver from being overflowed with data. It is done using various open-loop (prevention)
methods and closed-loop (recovery) methods.
12. Size of TCP segment header ranges between ___________
a) 16 and 32 bytes
b) 16 and 32 bits
c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) 20 and 60 bits
Answer: c
Explanation: The size of the header can be 20 bytes at a minimum if there are no options and can go up to 60 bytes at maximum with 40 bytes in
the options field. The header contains all the control information required to ensure ordered, error-free and reliable delivery of the segment.
13. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?
a) Flow control
b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Forwarding
d) Synchronization
Answer: b
Explanation: A three-way handshake allows both, the server and the client to choose their Initial Sequence Number and inform about it to the other
party. This won’t be possible using the two-way handshake mechanism.
14. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready to accept a connection. This process is called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
Answer: d
Explanation: This is the first step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is started by the server. Then the Client picks an ISN (Initial
Sequence Number) and synchronizes (shares) it with the Server requesting a connection. The Server acknowledges the clients ISN, and then picks
an ISN and synchronizes it with the Client. At last, the Client acknowledges the servers ISN.
15. A client that wishes to connect to an open server tells its TCP that it needs to be connected to that particular server. The process is
called ___________
a) Active open
b) Active close
c) Passive close
d) Passive open
Answer: a
Explanation: This is the second step in the Three-Way Handshaking process and is done by the client once it finds the open server and picks an
ISN. The Server acknowledges the clients request, and then picks an ISN and synchronizes it with the Client. At last, the Client acknowledges the
servers ISN.
16. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an active open is ___________
a) Mutual open
b) Mutual Close
c) Simultaneous open
d) Simultaneous close
Answer: c
Explanation: In simultaneous open situation, two nodes send an SYN signal to each other and start a TCP connection. Here, both TCP nodes
transmit a SYNC+ACK segment to each other and a connection is established between them. This doesn’t happen usually, because both sides have
to know which port on the other side to send to.
17. A malicious attacker sends a large number of SYNC segments to a server, pretending that each of them is coming from a different
client by faking the source IP address in the datagram. Which type of attack is being performed in this situation?
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
Answer: a
Explanation: SYNC flooding attack is a form of Denial of Service attack. Due to the overflow of SYNC segments sent to the server, the victims are
not able to request for a connection to the server, thus resulting in Denial of Service.
18. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of security attack known as ___________
b) Active attack
c) Passive attack
Answer: d
Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system collapses and denies service to every request, making it a DoS attack. Some other DoS attacks are
bandwidth flooding, connection flooding and UDP flooding.
19. The sizes of source and destination port address in TCP header are ___________ respectively.
a) 16-bits and 32-bits
b) 16-bits and 16-bits
c) 32-bits and 16-bits
d) 32-bits and 32-bits
Answer: b
Explanation: All port addresses are of 16 bits and they specify the type of service being used by the network entity. For example, port 21 is used for
FTP connections and port 25 is used for ICMP connections.
20. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss?
a) Sequence number
b) Acknowledgment number
c) Checksum
d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number
Answer: b
Explanation: TCP header contains separate fields for sequence number and acknowledgment number. Comparing these values is what allows TCP
to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss. After detecting the lost segments, the recovery may require retransmission of the lost
segments of data.

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21. Which of the following is false with respect to UDP?
b) Unreliable
d) Low overhead
Answer: a
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless transport layer protocol that provides message-based data transmission. TCP is an example of
connection-oriented protocols.
22. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is _______
a) String of characters
b) String of integers
c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
Answer: a
Explanation: Using Chargen with UDP on port 19, the server sends a UDP datagram containing a random number of characters every time it
receives a datagram from the connecting host. The number of characters is between 0 and 512.
23. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______
a) Routing and switching
b) Sending and receiving of packets
c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
Answer: d
Explanation: De-multiplexing is the delivering of received segments to the correct application layer processes at the recipients end using UDP.
Error checking is done through checksum in UDP.
24. What is the main advantage of UDP?

a) More overload
b) Reliable
c) Low overhead
d) Fast
Answer: c
Explanation: As UDP does not provide assurance of delivery of packet, reliability and other services, the overhead taken to provide these services
is reduced in UDP’s operation. Thus, UDP provides low overhead, and higher speed.
25. Port number used by Network Time Protocol (NTP) with UDP is ________
a) 161
b) 123
c) 162
d) 124
Answer: b
Explanation: The Network Time Protocol is a clock synchronization network protocol implemented by using UDP port number 123 to send and
receive time stamps.
26. What is the header size of a UDP packet?
a) 8 bytes
b) 8 bits
c) 16 bytes
d) 124 bytes
Answer: a
Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet header is 8 bytes. It contains four two-byte fields: Source port address, Destination port address,
Length of packet, and checksum.
27. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is _______
a) NTP
b) Echo
c) Server
d) Client
Answer: d
Explanation: Port numbers from 1025 to 5000 are used as ephemeral port numbers in Windows Operating System. Ephemeral port numbers are
short-lived port numbers which can be used for clients in a UDP system where there are temporary clients all the time.
28. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the length of _________
a) Only UDP header
b) Only data
c) Only checksum
d) UDP header plus data
Answer: d
Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field which contains the length of UDP header and the data. The maximum value of the Total length field and
the maximum size of a UDP datagram is 65,535 bytes (8 byte header + 65,527 bytes of data).
29. Which is the correct expression for the length of UDP datagram?
a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length

d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length
Answer: a
Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in an IP datagram. There is a field in the IP header that defines the total length of the IP packet.
There is another field in the IP header that defines the length of the header. So if we subtract the length of the IP header that is encapsulated in the
IP packet, we get the length of UDP datagram.
30. The ______ field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram.
a) udp header
b) checksum
c) source port
d) destination port
Answer: b
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram. Though it is not as efficient as CRC which is used in TCP, it
gets the job done for the UDP datagram as UDP doesn’t have to ensure the delivery of the packet.

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31. Which mode of IPsec should you use to assure the security and confidentiality of data within the same LAN?
a) AH transport mode
b) ESP transport mode
c) ESP tunnel mode
d) AH tunnel mode
Answer: b
Explanation: ESP transport mode should be used to ensure the integrity and confidentiality of data that is exchanged within the same LAN. ESP
tunnel mode is comparatively more secure and should be used to assure the security of the data within different LANs.
32. Which two types of encryption protocols can be used to secure the authentication of computers using IPsec?
a) Kerberos V5
b) SHA
c) MD5
d) Both SHA and MD5

Answer: d
Explanation: SHA or MD5 can be used. Kerberos V5 is an authentication protocol, not an encryption protocol; therefore, answer A is incorrect.
Certificates are a type of authentication that can be used with IPsec, not an encryption protocol; therefore, answer B is incorrect.
33. Which two types of IPsec can be used to secure communications between two LANs?
a) AH tunnel mode
b) ESP tunnel mode
c) Both AH tunnel mode and ESP tunnel mode
d) ESP transport mode
Answer: c
Explanation: The AH and ESP tunnel mode IPSec should be used for data transfer purpose, option d is for integrity & confidentiality purpose.
Tunnel mode provides security for the entire original IP packet unlike transport mode which is not as secure as it only encrypts the data portion and
not the whole packet.
34. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.
a) AH
b) ESP
c) PGP
d) SSL
Answer: a
Explanation: The Authentication Header (AH) authenticates the origin of data, and guarantees the integrity of the information that’s being sent
using IPSec. It also provides anti-reply security.
35. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and ________
a) AH; SSL
b) PGP; ESP
c) AH; ESP
d) PGP; SSL
Answer: c
Explanation: AH ensures that there is no retransmission of data from an unauthorized source, and protects against data tampering. ESP provides
with content protection and ensures that there is integrity and confidentiality for the message.
36. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI model?
a) Network
b) Transport
c) Application
d) Physical
Answer: a
Explanation: IPSec is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data integrity and confidentiality between two machines in an IP network.
In the TCP/IP model, it provides security at the IP layer i.e. the network layer.
37. ESP does not provide ________
a) source authentication
b) data integrity
c) privacy
d) error control
Answer: d
Explanation: The ESP provides data confidentiality, integrity and authentication. It provides confidentiality through encryption. ESP can operate in
two modes, transport mode and tunnel mode.
38. In computer security _______ means that computer system assets can be modified only by authorized parities.
a) confidentiality
b) integrity
c) availability
d) authenticity
Answer: b
Explanation: Integrity means that computer system assets can be modified only by authorized parities. Confidentiality means that the assets can
only be accessed by authorized parties. Availability refers to the accessibility of the resource to the authorized parties. Authenticity means that the
asset is not unethically changed.
39. In computer security _______ means that the information in a computer system only be accessible for reading by authorized parities.
a) confidentiality
b) integrity
c) availability
d) authenticity
Answer: a
Explanation: Confidentiality means that the assets can only be accessed by authorized parties. Integrity means that computer system assets can be
modified only by authorized parities. Availability refers to the accessibility of the resource to the authorized parties. Authenticity means that the
asset is not unethically changed.
40. Which of the following organizations is primarily concerned with military encryption systems?
a) NSA
b) NIST
c) IEEE
d) ITU
Answer: a
Explanation: The NSA is primarily responsible for military encryption systems. The NSA designs evaluates, and implements encryption systems
for the military and government agencies with high security needs.

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41. Two broad categories of congestion control are
a) Open-loop and Closed-loop
b) Open-control and Closed-control
c) Active control and Passive control
d) Active loop and Passive loop
Answer: a
Explanation: Open loop congestion control techniques are used to prevent congestion before it even happens by enforcing certain policies. Closed
loop congestion control techniques are used to treat congestion after it has happened.
42. In open-loop control, policies are applied to __________
Answer: c
Explanation: Open loop congestion control techniques are used to prevent congestion before it even happens by enforcing certain policies.
Retransmission policy, window policy and acknowledgement policy are some policies that might be enforced.
43. Retransmission of packets must not be done when _______
a) Packet is lost
c) Packet is needed
d) Packet is error-free
Answer: d
Explanation: Retransmission refers to the sender having to resend the packet to the receiver. It needs to be done only when some anomaly occurs
with the packet like when the packet is lost or corrupted.
44. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the packet times out, several packets have to be resent even some may have arrived safe.
Whereas in Selective Repeat window, the sender resends ___________
b) Only those packets which are lost or corrupted
d) All the packets
Answer: b
Explanation: In Selective Repeat, the sender side uses a searching algorithm to find the packets which need to be retransmitted based on the
negative acknowledgements received and then resends only those packets thus saving bandwidth.
45. Discarding policy is mainly done by _______
a) Sender
b) Receiver
c) Router
d) Switch
Answer: c
Explanation: The discarding policy adopted by the routers mainly states that the routers discard sensitive or corrupted packets that it receives, thus
controlling the integrity of the packet flow. The discarding policy is adopted as an open loop congestion control technique.
46. Closed-Loop control mechanisms try to _________
Answer: a
Explanation: In closed loop congestion control, methods are implemented to remove congestion after it occurs. Some of the methods used are
backpressure and choke packet.
47. The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream node or nodes is called as _______
a) Admission policy
b) Backpressure
Answer: b
Explanation: In this closed loop congestion control technique, the congested node propagates in the opposite direction of the data flow to inform
the predecessor node to reduce the flow of packets. This is why this technique is called a node-to-node congestion control technique.
48. Backpressure technique can be applied only to _______
a) Congestion networks
b) Closed circuit networks
c) Open circuit networks
d) Virtual circuit networks
Answer: d
Explanation: In Virtual circuit networks, each node knows the upstream node from which a flow data is coming. So, it makes possible for the
congested node to track the source of the congestion and then inform that node to reduce the flow to remove congestion.
49. The packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion is called _______
a) Explicit
b) Discard
c) Choke
d) Backpressure
Answer: c
Explanation: Choke packet is sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion. Two choke packet techniques can be used for the operation
called hop-by-hop choke packet and source choke packet.
50. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases __________ until it reaches a threshold.
a) exponentially
b) additively
c) multiplicatively
d) suddenly
Answer: a
Explanation: In slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold. When it reaches the
threshold, it stops increasing and continues sending packets through the threshold window thus preventing congestion.

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51. An RPC (remote procedure call) is initiated by the _________
a) server
b) client
c) client after the sever
d) a third party
Answer: b
Explanation: Remote Procedure Call is a method used for constructing distributed, client-server applications based on extending the conventional
local procedure calling where the client initiates an RPC to start a connection process.
52. In RPC, while a server is processing the call, the client is blocked ________
a) unless the client sends an asynchronous request to the server
b) unless the call processing is complete
c) for the complete duration of the connection
d) unless the server is disconnected
Answer: a
Explanation: While the server is processing the call i.e. looking through the specifications, the client is blocked, unless the client sends an
asynchronous request to the server for another operation.
53. A remote procedure call is _______
a) inter-process communication
b) a single process
c) a single thread
d) a single stream
Answer: a
Explanation: Remote procedure calls is a form of inter-process communication where the client initiates an RPC to start a connection process. It is
used to construct distributed, client-server applications.
54. RPC allows a computer program to cause a subroutine to execute in _________
a) its own address space
b) another address space
c) both its own address space and another address space
d) applications address space
Answer: b
Explanation: RPC allows a computer program to cause a subroutine to execute in another address space which is usually the servers address space
in a conventional client-server network.
55. RPC works between two processes. These processes must be ____________
a) on the same computer
b) on different computers connected with a network
c) on the same computer and also on different computers connected with a network
d) on none of the computers
Answer: c
Explanation: For the operation of RPC between two processes, it is mandatory that the processes are present on the same computer and also on
different computers connected with its network.
56. A remote procedure is uniquely identified by _________
a) program number
b) version number
c) procedure number
Answer: d
Explanation: Each remote procedure can be uniquely identified by the program number, version number and the procedure number in the networks
scope. The identifiers can be used to control the remote procedure by parties involved in the process.
57. An RPC application requires _________
a) specific protocol for client server communication
b) a client program
c) a server program
Answer: d
Explanation: The RPC technique for constructing distributed, client-server applications based on extending the conventional local procedure
calling. It requires a client program, a server program and specific protocol for client server communication to build the system.
58. RPC is used to _________
a) establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries
b) retrieve information by calling a query
c) establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries and retrieve information by calling a query
d) to secure the client
Answer: c
Explanation: RPC or Remote Procedure Call is used to establish a server on remote machine that can respond to queries and to retrieve information
by calling a query by other computers.
59. RPC is a _________
a) synchronous operation
b) asynchronous operation
c) time independent operation
d) channel specific operation
Answer: a
Explanation: RPC is a synchronous operation where the remote machine works in sync with the other machines to act as a server that can respond
to queries called by the other machines.
60. The local operating system on the server machine passes the incoming packets to the ___________
a) server stub
b) client stub
c) client operating system
d) client process
Answer: a
Explanation: The local operating system on the server machine passes the incoming packets to the server stub which then processes the packets
which contain the queries from the client machines for retrieving information.

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Engineering
 Module 5
1. Which is not a application layer protocol?
a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol.
2. The packet of information at the application layer is called __________
a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
Answer: b
Explanation: For Application, Presentation and Session layers there is no data format for message. Message is message as such in these three
layers. But when it comes to Transport, Network, Data and Physical layer they have data in format of segments, packets, frames and bits
respectively.
3. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigms?
a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.
https://lastmomenttuitions.com/mcq-computer-network-network-design/#1618834078904-b8efbcfc-3a59 1/16
4. Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum buffer size
Answer: c
Explanation: Application layer provides the interface between applications and the network. So application developer can decide what transport
layer to use and what should be its maximum buffer size.
5. Application layer offers _______ service.
a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both End to end and Process to process
Answer: a
Explanation: End to End service is provided in the application layer. Whereas process to process service is provided at the transport layer.
6. E-mail is _________
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
Answer: c
Explanation: Because it can work with available throughput.
7. Pick the odd one out.
a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
Answer: d
Explanation: File transfer, File download and Email are services provided by the application layer and there are message and data oriented.
8. Which of the following is an application layer service?
c) Mail service
Answer: d
Explanation: The services provided by the application layer are network virtual terminal, file transfer, access and management, mail services,
directory services, various file and data operations.
9. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted.
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
Answer: c
Explanation: IP address lets you know where the network is located. Whereas MAC address is a unique address for every device. Port address
identifies a process or service you want to carry on.
10. Which is a time-sensitive service?
a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony
Answer: d

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11. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.
a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
Answer: a
Explanation: Domain name system is the way the internet domain names are stored and translated to IP addresses. The domain names systems
matches the name of website to ip addresses of the website.
12. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to
remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Telnet
d) TCP
Answer: c
Explanation: Telnet is used for accessing remote computers. Using telnet a user can access computer remotely. With Telnet, you can log on as a
regular user with whatever privileges you may have been granted to the specific application and data on the computer.
13. Application layer protocol defines ____________
a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
Answer: d
Explanation: Application layer deals with the user interface, what message is to be sent or the message format, syntax and semantics. A user has
access to application layer for sending and receiving messages.
14. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP, abbreviation for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol. A client who wishes to send a mail creates a
TCP connection to the SMTP server and then sends the mail across the connection.
15. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called
a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding
Answer: a
Explanation: Base64 is used commonly in a number of applications including email via MIME, and storing complex data in XML. Problem with
sending normal binary data to a network is that bits can be misinterpreted by underlying protocols, produce incorrect data at receiving node and
that is why we use this code.
16. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple network management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: SNMP is a set of protocols for network management and monitoring. This protocol is included in the application layer. SNMP uses 7
protocol data units.
17. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?
a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
d) session initiation protocol
Answer: c
Explanation: Resource reservation protocol is used in transport layer. It is designed to reserve resources across a network for quality of service
using the integrated services model.
18. Which protocol is a signaling communication protocol used for controlling multimedia communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
d) resource reservation protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: SIP is a signaling protocol in which its function includes initiating, maintaining and terminating real time sessions. SIP is used for
signaling and controlling multimedia sessions.
a) Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a communication session
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol
c) TCP is an application layer protocol
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is an application layer protocol. Whereas TCP is a transport layer protocol.
20. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) TCP protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is abbreviation for hypertext transfer protocol. It is the foundation of data communication for world wide web. This protocol
decides how the message is formatted and transmitted etc.

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21. The number of objects in a Web page which consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is ________
a) 4
b) 1
c) 5
d) 7
Answer: c
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.
22. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________
a) Persistent
b) Non-persistent
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request
Answer: a
Explanation: By default the http connection is issued with persistent connection. In persistent connection server leaves connection open after
sending response. As little as one RTT (Time for a small packet to travel from client to server and back) is required for all referenced objects.
23. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the client is called __________
a) STT
b) RTT
c) PTT
d) JTT
Answer: b
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.
24. The HTTP request message is sent in _________ part of three-way handshake.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer: c
Explanation: In first step client sends a segment to establish a connection with the server. In the second the step the client waits for the
acknowledgement to be received from the server. After receiving the acknowledgement, the client sends actual data in the third step.
25. In the process of fetching a web page from a server the HTTP request/response takes __________ RTTs.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
Answer: b
Explanation: By default the http connection will be persistent connection. Hence it will take only 1 RTT to fetch a webpage from a server.
26. The first line of HTTP request message is called _____________
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity line
Answer: a
Explanation: The line followed by request line are called header lines and status line is the initial part of response message.
27. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP message
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity body
Answer: a
Explanation: It is specified in the method field of request line in the HTTP request message.
28. The __________ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body empty.
a) POST
b) SEND
c) GET
d) PUT
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two methods which help to request a response from a server. Those are GET and POST. In GET method, the client requests
data from server. In POST method the client submits data to be processed to the server.
29. The HTTP response message leaves out the requested object when ____________ method is used
a) GET
b) POST
c) HEAD
d) PUT
Answer: c
Explanation: HEAD method is much faster than GET method. In HEAD method much smaller amount of data is transferred. The HEAD method
asks only for information about a document and not for the document itself.
30. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request
c) 301 Moved permanently
d) 304 Not Found
Answer: d
Explanation: 404 Not Found.

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a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Persistent connections are kept active after completing transaction so that multiple objects can be sent over the same TCP connection.
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) data link layer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is an Application layer protocol used to define how messages are formatted and transmitted through the World Wide Web.

d) union resource locator
Answer: a
Explanation: The Uniform Resource Identifier is a name and locator for the resource to be located by the HTTP. The URLs and URNs are derived
through the identifier.
c) border gateway protocol

d) domain host control protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP clients perform requests using a TCP connection, because the TCP connection provides a more reliable service. UDP is not a
reliable protocol, border gateway protocol is used on top of TCP, while domain host control protocol is a network layer protocol.
35. In HTTP pipelining ________________
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP pipelining helps the client make multiple requests without having to waiting for each response, thus saving a lot of time and
bandwidth for the client.
36. FTP server listens for connection on port number ____________
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
Answer: b
Answer: a
Explanation: The clients use the Transmission Control Protocol for FTP as it’s more reliable than UDP, DCCP, and SCTP, and reliability of file
transfer is required to be as high as possible for FTP.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In Passive mode of FTP, the client initiates both data and control connections, while in Active mode, the client initiates the control
connection and then the server initiates the data connection.
39. The File Transfer Protocol is built on ______________
Answer: c
Explanation: The FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to share files. The server can have multiple clients at the same time
while the client communicates with only one server at a time.
40. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in ___________
a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) message mode
Answer: d
Explanation: In Stream mode, the data is transferred in a continuous stream. In Block mode, data is transferred after being divided into smaller
blocks. In Compressed mode, data is transferred after being compressed using some compression algorithm.

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41. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) Master
Answer: b
Explanation: SMTP clients are the entities that send mails to other mail servers. The SMTP servers cannot send independent mails to other SMTP
servers as an SMTP server. There are no masters or peers in SMTP as it is based on the client-server architecture.
42. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into _______
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) Hash
Answer: c
Explanation: Since only 7-bit ASCII codes are transmitted through SMTP, it is mandatory to convert binary multimedia data to 7-bit ASCII before
it is sent using SMTP.
43. Expansion of SMTP is ________
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol used to transport e-mails over the Internet. Only 7-bit ASCII
codes can be sent using SMTP.
44. In SMTP, the command to write receiver’s mail address is written with the command _______
a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO
d) RCVR TO
Answer: b
Explanation: RCPT TO command is followed by the recipient’s mail address to specify where or to whom the mail is going to through the internet.
If there is more than one receiver, the command is repeated for each address continually.
45. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is ________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) IMAP
Answer: a
Explanation: TCP is a reliable protocol, and Reliability is a mandatory requirement in e-mail transmission using SMTP.
46. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of SMTP?
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) SMTP is responsible for the transmission of the mail through the internet
Answer: b
Explanation: In SMTP, the sending mail server pushes the mail to receiving mail server hence it is push protocol. In a pull protocol such as HTTP,
the receiver pulls the resource from the sending server.
47. Internet mail places each object in _________
a) Separate messages for each object
b) One message
c) Varies with number of objects
d) Multiple messages for each object
Answer: b
Explanation: It places all objects into one message as it wouldn’t be efficient enough if there are different messages for each object. The objects
include the text and all the multimedia to be sent.
48. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is _________
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
Answer: a
Explanation: The ports 15, 35 and 50 are all UDP ports and SMTP only uses TCP port 25 for reliability.
49. A session may include ________
a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined
Answer: a
Explanation: An SMTP session consists of SMTP transactions only even if no transactions have been performed. But no transactions in the session
might mean that the session is inactive or is just initiated.
50. Which of the following is an example of user agents for e-mail?
a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Facebook
c) Google
d) Tumblr
Answer: a
Explanation: Among the options, only Microsoft Outlook is an e-mail agent. Google is a search engine and Facebook, and Tumblr are social
networking platforms. Gmail and Alpine are some other examples of e-mail agent.

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51. The entire hostname has a maximum of ___________
a) 255 characters
b) 127 characters
c) 63 characters
d) 31 characters
Answer: a
Explanation: An entire hostname can have a maximum of 255 characters. Although each label must be from 1 to 63 characters long. Host name is
actually a label that is given to a device in a network.
52. A DNS client is called _________
a) DNS updater
b) DNS resolver
c) DNS handler
Answer: b
Explanation: DNS client also known as DNS resolver also known as DNS lookup helps to resolve DNS requests using an external DNS server.
53. Servers handle requests for other domains _______
a) directly
b) by contacting remote DNS server
Answer: b
Explanation: Whenever a request is received at server from other domains, it handles this situation by contacting remote DNS server.
54. DNS database contains _______
a) name server records
b) hostname-to-address records
c) hostname aliases
Answer: d
Explanation: Domain Name system not only deals with mapping IP addresses with the hostname but also deals with exchange of information in the
server.
55. If a server has no clue about where to find the address for a hostname then _______
a) server asks to the root server
b) server asks to its adjcent server
c) request is not processed
Answer: a
Explanation: Root name servers are actually very important and critical as they are the first step in translating human readable hostnames into IP
addresses for carrying out communication.
56. Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP address change?
a) dynamic DNS
b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name server
Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic DNS or in short DDNS or DynDNS helps in automatically updating a name server in the DNS. This does not require
manual editing.
57. Wildcard domain names start with label _______
a) @
b) *
c) &
d) #
Answer: b
Explanation: A wildcard DNS record matches requests to a non existent domain name. This wildcard DNS record is specified by using asterisk “*”
as the starting of a domain name.
58. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are accredited by _______
a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet research task force
d) internet corporation for assigned names and numbers
Answer: d
Explanation: The ICANN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers) deals with IP address space allocation, protocol identifier
assignment, generic and country code Top Level domain name system management (gTLD and ccTLD).
59. The domain name system is maintained by _______
a) distributed database system
b) a single server
c) a single computer
Answer: a
Explanation: A domain name system is maintained by a distributed database system. It is a collection of multiple, logically interrelated databases
distributed over a computer network.
60. Which one of the following is not true?
a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a single IP address
b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP addresses
c) a single hostname may correspond to a single IP address
Answer: c
Explanation: It need not be that a single hostname will correspond to a ip address. For example facebook.com and fb.com both correspond to same
ip address. So there can be multiple hostnames for a single ip address

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61. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) Url
Answer: a
Explanation: We use DHCP to allow the hosts to acquire their ip addresses dynamically which is better than visiting each and every host on the
network and configure all of this information manually.
62. DHCP is used for ________
a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
Answer: c
Explanation: DHCP is used for both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing. With DHCP you get to let the hosts know about the change dynamically, and hosts
update their info themselves.
63. The DHCP server _________
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
Answer: d
Explanation: Whenever a DHCP server gets a request from a client it responds with a DHCP offer containing IP address being offered, network
mask offered, the amount of time that the client can use and keep it, the ip address of the DHCP server making this offer.
64. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is
a) for a limited period
b) for an unlimited period
c) not time dependent
Answer: a
Explanation: The IP address offered to a client is only for a limited period of time. There is actually a certain amount of time that the client can use
and keep this IP address.
65. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.
a) 66
b) 67
c) 68
d) 69
Answer: b
Explanation: 67 is the UDP port number that is used as the destination port of a server. Whereas UDP port number 68 is used by the client.
66. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.
a) dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation
c) static allocation
Answer: d
Explanation: When a host acquires multiple offers of IP addresses from different DHCP servers, the host will broadcast a dhcp request identifying
the server whose offer has been accepted.
67. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via _________
a) UDP broadcast
b) UDP unicast
c) TCP broadcast
d) TCP unicast
Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP actually employs a connectionless service, which is provided by UDP, since TCP is connection oriented. It is implemented
with two UDP port numbers 67 and 68 for its operations.
68. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use _________
a) internet relay chat
b) broader gateway protocol
c) address resolution protocol
Answer: c
Explanation: ARP abbreviation for address resolution protocol is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses that are present in the local
network.
69. What is DHCP snooping?
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP
Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP snooping is a security feature that is used in OS of a network in the layer 2. This technology prevents unauthorized DHCP
servers offering IP addresses to DHCP clients.
70. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can access the network.
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) Both MAC address and IP address
Answer: c
Explanation: The DHCP snooping is done to prevent unauthorized IP addresses being offered by unauthorized servers. This features allows only
specific mac addresses and IP addresses to access the network.

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71. The application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is called ______
a) HTML
b) TCP
c) SNMP
d) SNMP/IP
Answer: c
Explanation: SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol. It is an application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a
set of agents. It is used under the TCP/IP protocol suite and is used for managing devices on the internet.
72. Full duplex mode increases the capacity of each domain by ________
a) 10 to 20 mbps
b) 20 to 30 mbps
c) 30 to 40 mbps
d) 40 to 50 mbps
Answer: a
Explanation: In full duplex mode, both endpoints share a single channel bandwidth to achieve two-way transmission. This results in complete
utilization of the band capacity increasing the capacity by 10 to 20 mbps than half-duplex mode.
73. Configuration management can be divided into which two subsystems?
a) Reconfiguration and documentation
b) Management and configuration
c) Documentation and dialing up
d) Configuration and dialing up
Answer: a
Explanation: The best current practices report is created by a management group to ensure the most effective configuration management. The group
also makes a MIB (Management Information Base) module to help with the configuration management.
74. To use a Simple Network Management System, we need _______
a) Servers
b) IP
c) Protocols
d) Rules
Answer: d
Explanation: Rules are a collection of expression containing parameters to observe the attributes of the user’s device, and then execute some
actions. It specifies the parameters for the managed objects inside the application and performs operations that would support the expression. The
input of a rule may be many expressions or even a single expression that end in an output of single object invoking some action.
75. The main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is _______
a) Management
b) Integration
c) Classification
d) Enhanced security
Answer: d
Explanation: SNMPv3 has introduced new cryptographic security, through which confidentiality is provided by encrypting packets and blocking
intruders. It also ensures that the message is coming from a reliable source.
76. In Network Management System, the division that is responsible for controlling access to network based on a predefined policy is called
_________
a) Fault Management
Answer: d
Explanation: Security management is also responsible to provide confidentiality, authentication and encryption in addition to controlling access to
network. Without security management, the network and its traffic would be vulnerable to be exploited by attackers.
77. BER stands for ________
a) Basic Encoding Rules
b) Basic Encoding Resolver
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router
Answer: a
Explanation: The Basic Encoding Rules are a set of rules that specify the guidelines to encode the SNMP messages in binary form. Each SNMP
message is encoded into 3 parts namely data, length and type of message.
78. Control of the users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of ________
Answer: c
Explanation: The accounting management keeps track of the users and their access rights to the network and controls the user’s access by
communicating with the security management. The accounting management takes support of the Management Information Block to perform its
operations.
79. SNMP is the framework for managing devices in an internet using the ______
a) TCP/IP protocol
b) UDP
c) SMTP
d) None
Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a management protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents using the TCP/IP protocol suite. SNMP
stands for Simple Network Management Protocol.
80. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is the guideline of ________
a) HTTP
b) SNMP
c) URL
d) MIB
Answer: b
Explanation: SMI was developed by the Storage Networking Industry Association (SNIA) and it defines a standard that can be manipulated by
SNMP. Basically, it defines the standard format and hierarchy of management data which is used by the SNMP. It does not describe how the objects
are to be managed.

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81. The application layer protocol used by a Telnet application is ________
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
Answer: a
Explanation: Telnet is an application layer protocol that provides access to the command-line interface on a remote host. Telnet stands for teletype
network.
82. Which amongst the following statements is correct for “character at a time” mode?
a) Character processing is done on the local system under the control of the remote system
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote host for processing
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are sent to the remote host
d) All text is processed locally, and only confirmed lines are sent to the remote host
Answer: b
Explanation: In character at a time mode, the typed text is sent immediately to the remote host while the user is typing. Another mode used in
Telnet is “Old line by line” mode in which only completed lines are sent to the remote host.
83. _______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
Answer: a
Explanation: Telnet provides access to the command-line interface on a remote computer. One can login to the computer from the command-line
interface.
84. Telnet is used for _______
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
Answer: c
Explanation: Telnet is an application layer protocol that provides access to the command line interface of a remote computer that can be used to
perform remote login.
Answer: c
Explanation: File Transfer Protocol is used for file transfer. Telnet provides access to the command-line interface on a remote host.
86. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
a) default mode
b) server mode
c) line mode
d) character mode
Answer: c
Explanation: In line mode, terminal character processing is done on the client side but editing is enabled on the server side. Line mode reduces the
number of packets and is useful for long delay networks.
87. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server _________
a) interpret as command (IAC) escape character has to be used
b) control functions has to be disabled
d) cli character has to be used
Answer: a
Explanation: The client must look at each byte that arrives and look for IAC escape character. If IAC is found, the client moves on to look for any
other code or IAC. If the next byte is IAC – a single byte is presented by the client to the terminal. If IAC is followed by any other code than IAC,
the client interprets this as a command.

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Engineering
 Module 6
1. VPN is abbreviated as __________
a) Visual Private Network
b) Virtual Protocol Network
c) Virtual Private Network
d) Virtual Protocol Networking
Answer: c
Explanation: A Virtual Private Network i.e. VPN is a technique used in networking or other intermediate networks for connecting computers and
making them isolated remote computer networks, maintaining a tunnel of security and privacy.
2. __________ provides an isolated tunnel across a public network for sending and receiving data privately as if the computing devices
were directly connected to the private network.
a) Visual Private Network
b) Virtual Protocol Network
c) Virtual Protocol Networking
d) Virtual Private Network
Answer: d
Explanation: A Virtual Private Network i.e. VPN is a technique used in networking or other intermediate networks for connecting computers and
making them isolated remote computer networks, maintaining a tunnel of security and privacy.
3. Which of the statements are not true to classify VPN systems?
a) Protocols used for tunnelling the traffic
b) Whether VPNs are providing site-to-site or remote access connection
c) Securing the network from bots and malwares
d) Levels of security provided for sending and receiving data privately
https://lastmomenttuitions.com/mcq-computer-network-network-design/#1618834922322-59b61d56-a40c 1/7
Answer: c
Explanation: VPN systems have specific protocols for tunnelling the traffic, secure remote access connectivity as well as make sure how many
levels of security it is providing for private data communication.
4. What types of protocols are used in VPNs?
a) Application level protocols
b) Tunnelling protocols
c) Network protocols
d) Mailing protocols
Answer: a
Explanation: All VPNs are formed with a combination of tunnelling protocols as well as encryption techniques for maintaining privacy and
security.
5. VPNs uses encryption techniques to maintain security and privacy which communicating remotely via public network.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: All VPNs are formed with a combination of tunnelling protocols as well as encryption techniques for maintaining privacy and
security.
6. There are _________ types of VPNs.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: VPNs are of two types. These are remote access VPNs & Site-to-site VPNs. Remote Access VPNs are used for business & home
users. Site-to-site VPNs are mainly used in companies and firms with different geographical locations.
7. Site-to-site VPNs are also known as ________
a) Switch-to-switch VPNs
b) Peer-to-Peer VPNs
c) Point-to-point VPNs
d) Router-to-router VPNs
Answer: d
Explanation: Site-to-site VPNs are also known as Router-to-router VPNs. They are mainly used in companies and firms with different geographical
locations.
8. _________ type of VPNs are used for home private and secure connectivity.
a) Remote access VPNs
b) Site-to-site VPNs
c) Peer-to-Peer VPNs
d) Router-to-router VPNs
Answer: a
Explanation: Remote access VPN allows individual users to connect to private networks at home and access resources remotely.
9. Which types of VPNs are used for corporate connectivity across companies residing in different geographical location?
a) Remote access VPNs
b) Site-to-site VPNs
c) Peer-to-Peer VPNs
d) Country-to-country VPNs
Answer: b
Explanation: Site-to-site VPNs are also known as Router-to-router VPNs which are typically used in companies and firms for connecting remotely
different branches with different geographical locations.
10. Site-to-Site VPN architecture is also known as _________
a) Remote connection based VPNs
b) Peer-to-Peer VPNs
c) Extranet based VPN
d) Country-to-country VPNs
Answer: c
Explanation: Site-to-site VPN architecture is also known as extranet based VPNs because these type of VPNs are typically used to connect firms
externally between different branches of the same company.

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11. There are ________ types of VPN protocols.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: d
Explanation: There are six types of protocols used in VPN. These are Internet Protocol Security or IPSec, Layer 2 Tunnelling Protocol (L2TP),
Point – to – Point Tunnelling Protocol (PPTP), Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), OpenVPN and Secure Shell (SSH).
12. For secure connection, Remote access VPNs rely on ___________ and ____________
a) IPSec, SSL
b) L2TP, SSL
c) IPSec, SSH
d) SSH, SSL
Answer: a
Explanation: A remote-access VPN typically depends on either Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or IP Security (IPsec) for a secure connection over
public network.
13. A ______ can hide a user’s browsing activity.
a) Firewall
b) Antivirus
c) Incognito mode
d) VPN
Answer: d
Explanation: VPNs are used for hiding user’s browsing activities and maintain anonymity. This also helps in preventing user’s personal browsing
data leakage and protects the leakage of browsing habits.
14. __________ masks your IP address.
a) Firewall
b) Antivirus
c) VPN
d) Incognito mode
Answer: c
Explanation: VPNs are used for masking user’s IP address and maintain anonymity. This protects leakage of IP address that almost every website
grabs when a user opens a website.
15. _________ are also used for hides user’s physical location.
a) Firewall
b) Antivirus
c) Incognito mode
d) VPN
Answer: d
Explanation: VPNs are used for hiding your physical location which helps in maintaining anonymity. Using IP address and browsing habits, link
search, your physical location can be traced.
16. Using VPN, we can access _______________
a) Access sites that are blocked geographically
b) Compromise other’s system remotely
c) Hide our personal data in the cloud
d) Encrypts our local drive files while transferring
Answer: a
Explanation: With the help of VPN, users can access and connect to sites that are kept blocked by the ISPs based on a specific geographic location.
17. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be valid host IDs on the LAN
interface attached to the router?
i. 172.16.1.100
ii. 172.16.1.198
iii. 172.16.2.255
iv. 172.16.3.0
a) i only
b) ii and iii only
c) iii and iv only
d) ii only
Answer: c
Explanation: The router’s IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This makes the third octet a block size of 2. The
router’s interface is in the 172.16.2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 172.16.3.255 because the next subnet is 172.16.4.0. The valid host range
is 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254. The router is using the first valid host address in the range.
18. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?
i. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
ii. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
iii. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
iv. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
a) i and iii
b) ii and iv
c) i, ii and iv
d) ii, iii and iv
Answer: b
Explanation: The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the
third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the
10.16.2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 10.16.4.0, so the broadcast address for the 10.16.2.0 subnet is 10.16.3.255. The valid host addresses are
10.16.2.1 to 10.16.3.254.
19. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet
mask?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 30
Answer: d
Explanation: A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used
with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number of host bits would never change.
20. You need to subnet a network into 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful subnet mask would you use?
a) 255.255.255.192
b) 255.255.255.224
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
Answer: b
Explanation: You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets with 14 hosts which is less than 15,
so this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts so this may work. The mask 255.255.255.192 provides 4
subnets, each with 60 hosts so this may work. Comparing both the possible masks, 255.255.255.224 provides the best answer.

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21. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the valid subnet address of this host?
a) 172.16.112.0
b) 172.16.0.0
c) 172.16.96.0
d) 172.16.255.0
Answer: a
Explanation: A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are used for subnetting with a total of 9
subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the fourth octet. Since there is only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-which is a
value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 127 since 128 is the next subnet
22. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP
addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 30
d) 32
Answer: a
Explanation: A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts are the maximum number of hosts on this
LAN, including the router interface. Out of the 8 addresses possible with the host bits, the first and the last address are for the subnet id and
broadcast address respectively.
23. What is the subnet id of a host with an IP address 172.16.66.0/21?
a) 172.16.36.0
b) 172.16.48.0
c) 172.16.64.0
d) 172.16.0.0
Answer: c
Explanation: A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just count by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet
in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 71.255.
24. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
b) 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
c) 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
d) 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
Answer: b
Explanation: A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8
subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.
25. Which of the following is the broadcast address for a Class B network ID using the default subnetmask?
a) 172.16.10.255
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 172.16.255.255
d) 172.255.255.255
Answer: c
Explanation: In this case, the class B network ID is 172.16.0.0. We know that the default mask of a class B network is 255.255.0.0. If we OR any
address in a network with the complement of the default mask (0.0.255.255), we get the broadcast address of the network. In this case, the result of
OR would be 172.16.255.255.
26. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet address, and
broadcast address?
a) Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
b) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
c) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
d) Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that the prefix 172 lies in class B (128 to 191) of IPv4 addresses. From the subnet mask, we get that the class is divided into
2 subnets: 172.16.13.0 to 172.16.13.127 and 172.16.13.128 to 172.16.13.255. The IP 172.16.13.5 lies in the first subnet. So the starting address
172.16.13.0 is the subnet address and last address 172.16.13.127 is the broadcast address.
27. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C network ID, which subnet mask would you use?
a) 255.255.255.252
b) 255.255.255.255
c) 255.255.255.240
d) 255.255.255.248
Answer: c
Explanation: If you have eight networks and each requires 10 hosts, you would use the Class C mask of 255.255.255.240. Why? Because 240 in
binary is 11110000, which means you have four subnet bits and four host bits. Using our math, we’d get the following:
24-2=14 subnets
24-2=14 hosts.
28. The combination of _________ and __________ is often termed the local address of the local portion of the IP address.
a) Network number and host number
b) Network number and subnet number
c) Subnet number and host number
d) Host number
Answer: c
Explanation: It is termed as the local address because the address won’t be applicable outside the subnet. Sub networking is implemented for
remote sensing in transparent way from that host which is contained in the sub network which called a local operation.
29. _________ implies that all subnets obtained from the same subnet mask.
a) Static subnetting
b) Dynamic subnetting
c) Variable length subnetting
d) Dynamic length subnetting
Answer: a
Explanation: Static subnetting is used when the requirement is of same number of hosts in each subnet for the institution. The same subnet mask
can be used to find the subnet id of each subnet. It is usually used to divide large networks into smaller parts.
30. State whether true or false.
i) A connection oriented protocol can only use unicast addresses.
ii) The any cast service is included in IPV6.
a) True, True
b) True, False
c) False, True
d) False, False
Answer: a
Explanation: In a connection oriented protocol, the host can only establish connection with another host on one unique channel, that’s why it can
only use unicast addresses. In IPv6, there is an anycast address in IPv6 which allows sending messages to a group of devices but not all devices in a
network.

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31. __________ is a high performance fiber optic token ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over distances upto 1000 stations connected.
a) FDDI
b) FDDT
c) FDDR
d) FOTR
Answer: a
Explanation: FDDI stands for Fiber Distributed Data Interface. It is a set of standards for fiber optic token ring LANs running at 100 Mbps over
distances up to 200 km in diameter and 1000 stations connected.
32. Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?
a) 1000 BASE-SX
b) 1000 BASE-LX
c) 1000 BASE-CX
Answer: d
Explanation: In computer networking, Gigabit Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE) is a term describing various technologies for transmitting Ethernet frames
at a rate of a gigabit per second (1,000,000,000 bits per second), as defined by the IEEE 802.3-2008 standard. It came into use beginning in 1999,
gradually supplanting Fast Ethernet in wired local networks, as a result of being considerably faster.
33. _________ is a collective term for a number of Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at the nominal rate of 1000 Mbit/s against the
original Ethernet speed of 10 Mbit/s.
a) Ethernet
b) Fast Ethernet
c) Gigabit Ethernet
d) Gigabyte Ethernet
Answer: b
Explanation: Fast Ethernet is a set of Ethernet Standards which were introduced in 1995, that carry traffic at the nominal rate of 1000 Mbit/s.
100BASE-TX is the most commonly used Fast Ethernet standard.
34. _________ is another kind of fibre optic network with an active star for switching.
a) S/NET
b) SW/NET
c) NET/SW
d) FS/NET
Answer: a
Explanation: A 50-MBd active star fiber optical Local area network (LAN) and its optical combiner and mixing rod splitter are presented. The
limited power budget and relatively large tapping losses of light wave technology, which limit the use of fiber optics in tapped bus LAN topologies,
are examined and proven tolerable in optical star topologies.

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Computer Networking Objective Questions and Answers

1. What is the other types of OLAP apart from ROLAP?
A. HOLAP
B. MOLAP
C. DOLAP
D. Both a and b above
2. A network router joins two _________ together?
A. Computers
B. Switches
C. Networks
D. Gateway
3. Message Oriented Middleware allows general purpose

messages to be exchanged in a Client/Server system using
message queues.
A. True
B. False
4. Which of the following below is a loop back IP address?
A. 127.0.0.0
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/networking-mcqs/ 1/13
B. 127.0.1.1
C. 127.0.1.0
D. 127.0.0.1
5. Ping command works on which protocol?
A. ICMP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. UDP
6. Transport layer of OSI model lies between Network and

___________ layer
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Session
D. Presentation
7. Which of the following protocols below work in

application layer?
A. POP
B. PPP
C. FTP
D. Both a and d above
8. What is the port number for HTTP?
A. 25
B. 80
C. 21
D. 65
9. IP4 is more commonly used than IPv6?
A. True
B. False
10. From the options below, which suits best for MODEM?
A. a device that modulates an analog carrier signal to encode digital

information
B. a device that modulates a digital carrier signal to encode analog

information
C. a device that modulates an analog carrier signal to decode digital

information
D. a device that modulates a digital carrier signal to decode analog

information
11. What is the size of an IP address?
A. 64 bit
B. 128 bit
C. 16 bit
D. 32 bit
12. MAC addresses are also known as?
A. Hardware address
B. Physical address
C. both A and B above
D. IP address
Ans: C
13. A network point that provides entrance into another

network is called as ___________
A. Node
B. Gateway
C. Switch
D. Router
Ans: B
14. UDP is an unreliabe protocol.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
15. A stream socket provides _________ communications

between a client and server
A. One way
B. Two way
Ans: B
16. Token Ring is a data link technology for ?
A. WAN
B. MAN
C. LAN
D. both a and b above
Ans: C
17. Which of the following protocol below are suited for

email retrieval?
A. POP3
B. IMAP
C. FTP
D. Both a and b above
Ans: D
18. TELNET used _________ protocol for data connection
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. DHCP
Ans: A
19. 10Base5, 10Base2, 10BaseT are types of?
A. Internet
B. LAN
C. Ethernet
D. Cables
Ans: C
20. The process of assigning IP address for specific times to

the various hosts by DHCP is called as?
A. Lend
B. sublease
C. let
D. Lease
Ans: D
21. What is the full form of URL?
A. Uniform routing locator
B. Uniform Resource locator
C. Universal Resource locator
D. Uniform router locator
Ans: B
22. __________ is a standard suite of protocols used for

packet switching across computer networks.
A. x.22
B. x.23
C. x.25
D. x.26
Ans: C
23. What is the full form of CAN?
A. Campus Area Network
B. Cluster Area Network
C. Control Area network
D. both A and B
Ans: D
24. Which of the following below is/are capability of ICMP

protocol?
A. Report package count
B. Report network congestion
C. Both b and d
D. Report availability of remote hosts
Ans: C
25. ARP works on Ethernet networks.
A. False
B. True
Ans: B
26. _______ assigns a unique number to each IP network

adapter called the MAC address.
A. Media Access Control
B. Metro Access Control
C. Metropolitan Access Control
D. Both B and C above
Ans: A
27. Piconets in blue tooth a minimum of two and a

maximum of ____________ Bluetooth peer devices.
A. five
B. eight
C. nine
D. four
Ans: B
28. Dynamic addressing doesn’t allow many devices to

share limited address space on a network
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
29. NAT stands for _____ .
A. network address transformer
B. network address translator
C. network address translation
D. Both B and C above
Ans: C
30. Which of the following is true for secure shell

tunneling?
A. To set up an SSH tunnel, one configures an SSH client to forward a

specified local port
B. SSH tunnels provide a means to not bypass firewalls
C. All SSH clients support dynamic port forwarding
D. Both A and B
Ans: A
31. Which of the following below are secure VPN protocols?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. SSTP
D. Both B and C
Ans: D
32. What is the difference between a switch and a hub?
A. Switches operate at physical layer while hubs operate at data link

layer
B. Switches operate at data link layer while hubs operate at transport

layer
C. Switches operate at data link layer while hubs operate at physical

layer
D. Switches operate at transport layer while hubs operate at physical

layer
Ans: C
33. When computers in a network listen and receive the

signal, it is termed as active toplogy
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
34. In 10base2, 10base5, what does 2 and 5 stand for?
A. Speed in mbps
B. Number of segments
C. Length of segment
D. Size of segment
Ans: B
35. ______is added to data packet for error detection.
A. checksum bit
B. error bit
C. parity bit
Ans: C
36. ALL IP addresses are divided into network address and

host address
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
37. How can we examine the current routing tables in

command prompt?
A. using routestart
B. using netstart
C. using netstat
D. either a or b
Ans: C
38. Both ping and tracert are used to find If the computer is
in network.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
39. What is the difference between ring and bus topology?
A. In Ring all nodes are connected with another in a loop while in bus
they are connected to a central cable
B. In Ring all nodes are connected with another loop while in bus they
are connected to a central cable
C. In bus all nodes are connected with another in a loop while in star
they are connected to a central node
D. In Bus all nodes are connected with another loop while in star they
are connected to a central cable
Ans: A
40. MAC addressing works in data link layer while IP

addressing works in network layer.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
41. A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP

network segment is sent to the ____ .
A. File server
B. Default gateway
C. DNS server
D. DHCP server
Ans: B
42. Why was the OSI model developed?
A. manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite
B. the rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially
C. standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate
D. none of the above
Ans: C
43. Which piece of information is not vital for a computer

in a TCP/IP network?
A. IP address
B. Default gateway
C. Subnet Mask
D. DNS server
Ans: D
44. The physical layer is concerned with the movement of

_______ over the physical medium.
A. programs
B. dialogs
C. protocols
D. Bits
Ans: D
45. Which protocol below operates at the network layer in

the OSI model?
A. IP
B. ICMP
C. RARP
D. All of the above
Ans: D
46. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower
to the upper layers, headers are _______.
A. added
B. removed
C. rearranged
D. Modified
Ans: B
47. Session layer of the OSI model provides
A. Data representation
B. Dialog control
C. Remote job execution
D. Creating logical connections
Ans: B
48. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. Variable
Ans: C
49. Which one of the following functionalities isn’t

provided by TCP?
A. Flow control
B. Addressing
C. Retransmission of packets as required
D. Proper sequencing of the packets
Ans: B
50. Which of the following can be an Ethernet physical

address?
A. 01:02:01:2C:4B
B. 07:01:02:01:2C:4B:2C
C. 07:01:02:01:2C:4B
D. none of the above
Ans: C
51. An IP address contains________ bits ?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Ans: C
52. Which routing protocol below is used by exterior

routers between the autonomous systems?
A. RIP
B. IGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Ans: D
53. Which of the IP headers decides when the packet should

be discarded?
A. Fragment control
B. TTL
C. Checksum
D. Header length
Ans: B
54. Which IP address is reserved for software loop-back?
A. 224.x.x.x
B. 127.x.x.x
C. 0.0.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255
Ans: B
55. What is the network ID for a computer whose IP

address is 190.148.64.23?
A. 190
B. 190.148
C. 190.148.64
D. None of the above
Ans: B
56. Which port is reserved for use of the SMTP protocol?

A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 53
Ans: C
57. Which one of the folowings is a connectionless protocol?
A. UDP
B. Ethernet
C. IPX
D. All of the above
Ans: D
58. Which application below uses the UDP protocol?
A. DNS
B. TFTP
C. RIP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
59. Howmany IP addresses can be assigned to hosts in a C-

class networksegment with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.192?
A. 62
B. 126
C. 192
D. 254
Ans: A
60. Which of the folowings is not a direct implication of

subnet masks in TCP/IP networks?
A. Reduce network traffic
B. Increase network security
C. Assignment of more IP addresses
D. Better network management
Ans: C
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Computer Networks
Unit-I Questions
1. OSI stands for __________

a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation
d) open service Internet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open System Interconnection. OSI model
provides a structured plan on how applications communicate over a network, which
also helps us to have a structured plan for troubleshooting. It is recognized by the ISO
as the generalized model for computer network i.e. it can be modified to design any
kind of computer network.

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) session layer
b) transport layer
d) network layer
4. Which address is used on the internet for employing the TCP/IP protocols?
a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
5. Which address is used to identify a process on a host by the transport layer?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
6. Transmission data rate is decided by ____________
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) data link layer
d) transport layer
7. The physical layer is concerned with ___________
d) port to port delivery
a) coaxial cable
c) optical fiber
d) electrical cable
9. The physical layer is responsible for __________
a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
a) radio waves
b) microwaves
c) infrared
11. _____ is the multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier
frequency.
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) Both FDM & TDM
d) PDM
12. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission
rate of circuit this TDM is _________
a) 32kbps
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
d) 32bps
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate * number of bits in a slot.
Given: Frame rate = 4000/sec and number of bits in slot = 8
Thus, Transmission rate = (4000 * 8) bps
= 32000bps
= 32kbps
13. Which of the following delay is faced by the packet in travelling from one end system
to another?
b) Queuing delay
a) Packet length
d) Speed of the CPU
15. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) radio waves
b) microwaves
c) infrared
17. In the transfer of file between server and client, if the transmission rates along the path
is 10Mbps, 20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is usually ___________
a) 20Mbps
b) 10Mbps
c) 40Mbps
d) 50Mbps
18. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.
a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) Bit switched
d) Line switched
19. The protocol data unit(PDU) for the application layer in the Internet stack is
(A) Segment
(B) Datagram
(C) Message
(D) Frame
20. Which of the following transport layer protocolss is used to support electronic mail?
(A) SMTP
(B) IP
(C) TCP
(D) UDP
Computer Networks Unit-II Questions
1. Which layer provides a well-defined service interface to the network layer, determining
how the bits of the physical layer are grouped into frames.
1. Data Link
2. Physical
3. Transport
4. Session Answer: 4
2. Which of the following is a Random-access Protocol?

1. ALOHA
2. CDMA
3. FDMA
4. All the above Answer: 4
3. The throughput for Slotted ALOHA is:

1. S = G × e −2G
2. S = G × e −G
3. S = G × e G
4. None of the above Answer: 2
4. The maximum throughputfor pure ALOHA is achieved when the value of G is:
1. 1
2. 1/2
3. 1/4
4. None of the above Answer:2
5. A PureALOHA network transmits 200-bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps.

How many frames will be received successfully at receiver end if sender produces
1000 frames per second.
1. 38
2. 92
3. 135
6. Select the flow control protocol used for noisy channels.

1. Stop and Wait ARQ
2. Go-Back-N-ARQ
3. Selective repeat ARQ
7. Assume that, in a Stop-and-Wait ARQ system, the bandwidth of the line is 1 Mbps, and
1 bit takes 20 ms to make a round trip. What is the bandwidth-delay product? If the
system data frames are 1000 bits in length, what is the utilization percentage of the
link?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 20
8. Sender window size for Go-back-N-ARQ protocolis?

1. Sw= 2m-1
2. Sw =2m − 1
3. 1
4. None of above Answer: 2
9. Receiver window size for Go-back-N-ARQ protocol is ?

1. Rw= 2m-1
2. Rw =2m − 1
3. 1
10. A bit stream 1101011011 is transmitted using the standard CRC method. The
generator polynomial is x4+x+1. What is the actual bit string transmitted?
1. 11010110111111
2. 11010110111110
3. 11010110111101
4. 11010110111100 Answer: 2
11. Chose the correct option in the context of Flow control protocols.
1. Stop and wait ARQ is the special case of GO-BACK-N-ARQ.
2. GO-BACK-N-ARQ is the special case of Stop and wait ARQ.
3. Both 1 & 2
12. Chose the correct option in the context of GO-BACK-N-ARQ for window size of sender.
1. Sn - Sf>= Sw
2. Sn - Sf<Sw
3. Both 1 & 2
13. NAK is used by receiver for what purpose in flow control protocols:
1. Frame is successfully received.
2. Frame is corrupted during the transmission.
3. None of the above
14. Piggybackingis used by sender and receiver in flow control protocols:

1. Sending control information along with data frame.
2. Sending only the control information through the frame.
3. None of the above
15. A bit stream 100100 is transmitted using the standard CRC method. The generator
polynomial is x3+x2+1. What is the actual bit string transmitted?
1. 100100000
2. 100100100
3. 100100101
4. 100100001 Answer: 4
16. Which of the following is a Controlled-access Protocol?

1. ALOHA
2. CDMA
3. Reservation
17. The throughput for pure ALOHA is:

1. S = G × e−2G
2. S = G × e−G
3. S = G × eG
18. The maximum throughputfor slotted ALOHA is achieved when the value of G is:
1. 1
2. 1/2
3. 1/4
19. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200-bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps.
How many frames will survive at receiver end if sender produces 1000 frames per
second.
1. 368
2. 151
3. 49
20. Select the flow control protocol used for noisy channels.
2. Go-Back-N-ARQ
21. The Data link layer is responsible to create one of the following:
1. Message
2. Segment
3. Packet
4. Frame Answer: 4
22. Assume that, in a Stop-and-Wait ARQ system, the bandwidth of the line is 1 Mbps, and
1 bit takes 20 ms to make a round trip. What is the bandwidth-delay product? If the
system data frames are 1000 bits in length, what is the utilization percentage of the
link?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 20
23. Sender window size for Selective Repeat ARQ protocol is?
1. Sw = 2m-1
2. Sw> 2m-1
3. Sw = 2m − 1
24. Chose the correct option from the following.
1. Selective Repeat ARQ is the special case of GO-BACK-N-ARQ.
2. GO-BACK-N-ARQ is the special case of Selective Repeat ARQ.
3. Both 1 & 2
25. Receiver window size for Selective Repeat ARQ protocol is?
1. Rw = 2m-1
2. Rw> 2m-1
3. 1
26. Chose the correct option in the context of GO-BACK-N-ARQ when the one frame is
lost during the transmission.
1. Receiver will accept all successor frames.
2. Receiver will discard all successor frames.
3. Both 1 & 2
27. Chose the correct option in the context of GO-BACK-N-ARQ when the acknowledge of
the frame is lost during the transmission.
1. Receiver will accept all successor frames.
2. Receiver will discard all successor frames.
3. Both 1 & 2
28. NAK is used in which of the following flow control protocols:
2. Go-Back-N-ARQ
29. A bit stream 10011101 is transmitted using the standard CRC method. The generator
polynomial is x3+1.
1. 10011101001
2. 10011101010
3. 10011101100
4. 10011101101 Answer: 3
30. Choose the correct error detection method from the following:
1. Parity Check
2. CRC
3. Hamming Code Method
4. Both 1 & 2 Answer: 3
Unit-3 Question Bank
Question 1) If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same
network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.
A) the destination IP address in the datagram header √
B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table
C) either a or b
D) none of the above
Question 2) In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address is

updated manually.
A) static mapping √
B) dynamic mapping
C) physical mapping
Question 3) A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______.

A) one source; one destination
B) one source; multiple destinations √
C) multiple sources; one destination
Question 4) An ARP request is normally _______.

A) broadcast √
B) multicast
C) unicast
Question 5) If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another
network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.
A) the destination IP address in the datagram header
B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table √
C) either a or b
Question 6) _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found for a
given logical address.
A) ARP √
B) RARP
C) both a and b
Question 7) The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ addresses.
A) port
B) IP √
C) Email
Question 8) In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing, multicasting can
be accomplished through _______.
A) mapping
B) queries
C) tunneling √
Question 9) The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet address identify a ________.
A) multicast router
B) host
C) multicast group √
Question 10) Data in network layer is transferred in the form of ____________

a) Layers
b) Packets √
c) Bytes>
d) Bits
Question 11) The network layer contains which hardware device?

a) Routers, Bridges
b) Bridges only
c) Bridges and switches
d) Routers, Bridges and Switches √
Question 12) Network layer protocol exits in _________

a) Host √
b) Switches
c) Packets
d) Bridges
Question 13) Does network layer in TCP/IP and OSI Model are same.
a) True
b) False √
Question 14) ICMP stands for __________

a) Internet Coordinate Message Protocol
b) Internet Control Message Protocol √
c) Interconnect Control Message Protocol
d) Interconnect Coordinate Message Protocol
Question 15) RIP stands for ________

a) Reduced Information Protocol
b) Routing Internet Protocol
c) Routing Information Protocol √
d) Reduced Internet Protocol
Question 16) With an IP address starting at 200, you currently have 10 subnets. What subnet
mask should you use to maximize the number of available hosts?
a. 192
b. 240 √
c. 255
d. 296
Question 17) Which of the following TCP/IP internet protocol a diskless machine uses to
obtain its IP address from a server?
a. RIP
b.X.25
c.RDP
d. RARP √
Question 18) In Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), a packet is encapsulated directly into a
a.Data link Integer
b.Network Frame
c.Network Station
d.Data link Frame √
Question 19) An Ethernet multicast physical address is in the range of

a.01 :00:5E:00:OO:OO to 01:00:5E:7F:FF:FF √
b.2 :00:5E:00:OO:OO to 01:00:5E:7F:FF:FF
c.3 :00:5E:00:OO:OO to 01:00:5E:7F:FF:FF
d.4 :00:5E:00:OO:OO to 01:00:5E:7F:FF:FF
Question 20) Subnetting is actually

a.Microwave networks
b.Sub division of networks √
c.Absolute network
d.linear network
Question21) Packets are called Datagrams at the
a.IPv4 layer√
b.IPv6 layer
c.Session layer
d.Presentation Layer
Question 22) We can use the ping program to find if a host is

a.Alive
b.Dead
c.Responding
d.Both a and c
Question 23)
An IPv4 address is
a.32 bits long √
b.64 bits long
c.128 bits long
d.192 bits long
Question 24) In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class C
addresses is
A 2^ 14
B 2^7
C 2^ 21 √
D 2^ 24
Question 25) The address of a class B host is to be split into subnets with a 6 – bit subnet
number. What is the maximum number of subnets and maximum number of hosts in each
subnet?
(A) 62 subnets and 1022 hosts√
(B) 64 subnets and 1024 hosts
(C) 62 subnets and 254 hosts
(D) 64 subnets and 256 hosts
Question 26) Find the network Id of a system having IP 115.10.100.15.

a) 115.10.100.0
b) 115.10.0.0
c) 115.0.0.0
d) none of the above
Question 27) Suppose we purchase a class C IP 197.10.10.0/24. How many sub network we
can stablish.
a) 2
b) 4√
c) 6
d) 8
Question 28) IPv6 does not directly provide service for:

a) Unicast
b) Multicast
c) BroadCast√
d) Anycast
Question 29) Which of the following is public IP address ?

A 10.15.14.12
B 192.168.52.62
C 172.32.1.1 √
D None of the Above
Question 30) In an IPv4 datagram, the M bit is 0, the value of HLEN is 10, the value of total
length is 400 and the fragment offset value is 300. The position of the datagram, the
sequence numbers of the first and the last bytes of the payload, respectively are
(A) Last fragment, 2400 and 2789
(B) First fragment, 2400 and 2759
(C) Last fragment, 2400 and 2759 √
(D) Middle fragment, 300 and 689
Unit-4 Question Bank
Question 1) Which of the following transport layer protocols is used to support electronic
mail?
(A) SMTP
(B) IP
(C) TCP √
(D) UDP
Question 2) Consider an instance of TCP’s Additive Increase Multiplicative Decrease (AIMD)

algorithm where the window size at the start of the slow start phase is 2 MSS and the
threshold at the start of the first transmission is 8 MSS. Assume that a timeout occurs during
the fifth transmission. Find the congestion window size at the end of the tenth transmission.
(A) 8 MSS
(B) 14 MSS
(C) 7 MSS √
(D) 12 MSS
Question 3) While opening a TCP connection, the initial sequence number is to be derived
using a time-of-day(ToD) clock that keeps running even when the host is down. The low order
32 bits of the counter of the ToD clock is to be used for the initial sequence numbers. The
clock counter increments once per millisecond. The maximum packet lifetime is given to be
64s.
Which one of the choices given below is closest to the minimum permissible rate at which
sequence numbers used for packets of a connection can increase?
(A) 0.015/s √
(B) 0.064/s
(C) 0.135/s
(D) 0.327/s
Question 4) Which of the following system calls results in the sending of SYN packets?
(A) socket
(B) bind
(C) listen
(D) connect √
Question 5) In the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control algorithm, the size of the
congestion window
(A) does not increase
(B) increases linearly
(C) increases quadratically
(D) increases exponentially √
Question 6) The _______ layer ensures end-to-end reliable data transmission.

(A) Network
(B) Physical
(C ) Data Link
(D) Transport √
Question 7) _______ addresses on headers change as a packet moves from network to

network but the _______ do not.
(A) Logical; port
(B) Logical; network
(C ) Logical; physical
(D) Physical; logical √
Question 8) The _______ layer is responsible for source-to-destination delivery of the entire
message.
(A) Network
(B) Physical
(C ) Data Link
(D) Transport √
Question 9) The _______ layer may create a connection (a single logical path between the
source and destination that is associated with all the packets of a message) between two end
ports.
(A) Network
(B) Physical
(C ) Data Link
(D) Transport √
Question 10) Segmentation and reassembly are functions of the _______ layer.
(A) Network
(B) Physical
(C ) Data Link
(D) Transport √
Question 11) Which address identifies a process on a host?

a. physical address
b. logical address
c. port address √
d. specific address
Question 12) Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with
TCP IP model?
c) Session layer
d) Session and Presentation layer √
Question 13) Application layer is implemented in ____________

a) End system√
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) Packet transport
Question 14) The functionalities of the presentation layer include ____________

a) Data compression
b) Data encryption
c) Data description
d) All of the mentioned √
Question 15) In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers,
headers are _______
a) Added
b) Removed √
c) Rearranged
d) Randomized
Question 16) Which of the following is an application layer service?

a. Remote login
b. Mail service
c. File transfer and access
d. All the above√
Question 17) Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer.
a. Data link
b. Physical
c. Transport
d. Application√
Question18) The protocol data unit (PDU) for the application layer in the Internet stack is
a. Segment
b. Datagram
c. Message√
d. Frame
Question19) What is the maximum size of data that the application layer can pass on to the
TCP layer below?
a. Any size √
b. 2^16 bytes - size of TCP header
c. 2^8 bytes
d. 1500 bytes
Question 20) You have sent a file from Host A to Host B, in which format that file will be
received at Application layer?
a. Packets
b. Segments
c. Data√
d. Frames
Question 21) On a TCP connection, current congestion window size is Congestion Window =
4 KB. The window size advertised by the receiver is Advertise Window = 6 KB. The last byte
sent by the sender is LastByteSent = 10240 and the last byte acknowledged by the receiver is
LastByteAcked = 8192. The current window size at the sender is
(A) 2048 bytes

(B) 4096 bytes√
(C) 6144 bytes
(D) 8192 bytes
Question 22) Station A uses 32 byte packets to transmit messages to Station B using a
sliding window protocol. The round trip time delay between A and B is 40 ms and the
bottleneck bandwidth on the path A and B is 64 kbps. What is the optimal window size that A
should use?
(A) 5
(B) 10 √
(C) 40
(D) 80
Question 23) Retransmission of packets must not be done when _______

a) Packet is lost
c) Packet is needed
d) Packet is error-free√
Question 24) In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the packet times out, several packets
have to be resent even some may have arrived safe. Whereas in Selective Repeat window,
the sender resends ___________
b) Only those packets which are lost or corrupted √
d) All the packets
Question 25) The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the
immediate upstream node or nodes is called as _______
a) Admission policy
b) Backpressure √
Question 26) The packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion is called
_______
a) Explicit
b) Discard
c) Choke √
d) Backpressure
Question 27) In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window
increases ____________ until congestion is detected.
a) exponentially
b) additively √
c) multiplicatively
d) suddenly
Question 28) multiplexing and demultipexing is done at which layer.

c) Session layer
d) Transport layer√
Question 29) Authentication and Authorization is the responsibility of

c) Session layer √
d) Transport layer
Question 30) Consider the following two statements:
S1: TCP handles both congestion and flow control

S2: UDP handles congestion but not flow control
Which of the following options is correct with respect to the above statements (S1) and (S2)?
a. Neither S1 nor S2 is correct
b. S1 is not correct but S2 is correct
c. S1 is correct but S2 is not correct√
d. Both, S1 and S2 are correct
Unit 5 Question Bank
Unit -5
Question 1: The process of transforming plain text into unreadable text.

a) Decryption
b) Encryption
c) Network Security
d) Information Hiding
Answer: b
Question 2: A process of making the encrypted text readable again.
a) Decryption
b) Encryption
c) Network Security
d) Information Hiding
Answer: a
Question 3: A Domain Name System (DNS) client/server program can support an e-mail
program to find the Internet Protocol (IP) address of an
a) E-Mail server
b) DNS server
c) email recipient
d) DNS recipient
Answer: C
Question 4: Mapping a name to an address or an address to a name is called
a) Name-address Generations
b) Name-address Abbreviations
c) Name-address Resolution
d) Name-address Information
Answer : C
Question 5: In Domain Name System (DNS) primary server loads all information from the
a) IP file
b) disk file
c) host file
d) host server
Answer: B
Question 6: DES stands for?
a) Data Encryption Standard
b) Data Encryption Statistics

c) Data Encryption System
d) Data Encryption Sequence
Answer: a
Question 7: FTP is built on _____ architecture.
a. Client-server
b. P2P
c. Both of the above
Answer: a
Question 8: A program that can retrieve files from the world wide web and render text, images
or sounds encoded in the files.
a) Browser
b) Internet
c) Server
d) Web Server
Answer : a
Question 9: Which of the following is not a type of browser?
a) Netscape
b) Web
c) IE
d) Mozilla
Answer: b
Question 10: Both client and server release _________ connection after a page has been
transferred.
a) IP
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network
Answer b
Question 11: In HTML, the tags that tell the browser how to display the page.
a) markup
b) style
c) body
d) head
Answer: a
Question 12: A simple protocol used for fetching e-mail from a mailbox is
a) POP2
b) POP3
c) IMAP
d) None of the above
Answer: b
Question 13: E-mail address is made up of
a) Single part
b) Two part
c) Three part
d) Four part
Answer: b
Question 14: Which one of the following statement is not correct for Digital signature?
a) It is mechanism for authentication
b) It cannot be duplicated
c) It is created by encrypting information
d) It is the scanned image of one’s signature
Answer: d
Question 15: What is compression?
a) To compress something by pressing it very hardly
b) To minimize the time taken for a file to be downloaded
c) To reduce the size of data to save space
d) To convert one file to another Answer
Answer: C
Question 16: Data compression involves
a) Compression only
b) Reconstruction only
c) Both compression and reconstruction
Answer : C
Question 17: compression is generally used for applications that cannot tolerate any
difference between the original and reconstructed data.
a) Lossy
b) Lossless
c) Both
d) None of these
Answer : b
Question 18: What is compression ratio?
a) The ratio of the number of bits required to represent the data before compression to
the number of bits required to represent the data after
b) The ratio of the number of bits required to represent the data after compression to the
number of bits required to represent the data before
c) The ratio of the number of bits required to represent the data after reconstruction to the
number of bits required to represent the data before
d) The ratio of the number of bits required to represent the data before reconstruction to
the number of bits required to represent the data after
Answer : a
Question 19: FTP uses the services of ________.
a) UDP
b) IP
c) TCP
Answer: c
Question 20: In FTP, the well-known port ____ is used for the control connection and the well-
known port ________ for the data connection.
a) 21; 22
b) 21; 20
c) 20; 21
Answer: b

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COMPUTER NETWORKS 2020-21

1. Which processes does TCP, but not UDP, b. Hub/switch

connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-

c. Eight pins a. A thin coaxial cable

c. Functionality at one layer no way a. mechanical specifications of

17. When does the station B send a positive

b. Delay in an acknowledgement a. NRM

21. Which feature of Go Back N ARQ a. Frame Synchronization

d. all of the above b. 2

capacity. Assuming that processing delay is d. 512

c. CSMA/CD is not suitable for Answer: Option(b)

d. 150 Answer: Option(b)

51. Which of the following devices takes data

b. inserting a 0 in flag stream to

60. _______ can detect burst error of length less

a. is same as broadcast routing 9. ICMP is primarily used for __________

c. Bridges and switches d. The devices that operates at

a. Host a. Internet Coordinate Message Protocol

a. Internet Protocol Version 4 a. Type

Answer: Option(a) 34. For which one of the following reasons

1. Transport layer aggregates data from c. wins

a. wsock 10. Which of the following is a transport layer

a. stream control transmission 17. Buffer overrun can be reduced by using

c. Both TCP and UDP c. stop incoming traffic from a specific

a. SMTP a. does not increase

a. Works well in unidirectional Answer: Option(c)

41. If link transmits 4000 frames per second

c. presentation c. Transport layer

c. Session layer Answer: Option(d)

22. Sometimes, Session layer is also called a. Resolver

Answer: Option(d) 44. In the SMTP herder field_____ is added

c. Reverse queries 54. The ASCII encoding of binary data is

same client and the server. Which one is

Answer: Option(a) 63. Which of the following protocols is an

c. You can do load balancing

14. The name of the protocol which provides

B) Data link 19. Which of the following is the

twisted pair (UTP) category 5, 5e or 6 I. A connection oriented protocol can

c. from out-of-sequence delivery

9. Which of the following is not a

10. The network layer, in reference to the

d. None of abover 9.a

9. The internet was developed by

10. A user can get files from

9. A network computer that

10. ____ protocol is built into

1. Which protocol is used to b. Client / Server Network

6. What does Router do in a network? Answers

3. _______ provides a connection- 8. How many bits are there in the

4. Which layers of the OSI model are

5. Which of the following IP address

6. Which of the following is correct Answers

Online Practice Link

Multiple Choice Questions of Computer Networking

Multiple Choice Questions of Computer Networking

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1. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its